Class 10 – Page 21 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

September 26, 2024September 25, 2024 by sachin

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the below questions carefully and answer the given questions.
Due to this vastness, India is called an Indian sub-continent. The sub-continent is a large and independent region. The boundaries of whose terrain are drawn by various natural features which distinguish it from the surrounding areas. India also crosses the Agil, Muzigh, Kunlun, and Karakoram, Hindukush and Jaskar mountain range from Tibet across the Himalayas in the north, from Pak, Jal Damru in the south and Gulf of Mannar from Sri Lanka, east. In the direction, Arakan separates Yoma from Myanmar (Burma) and in the western direction from the vast Dhar desert, Pakistan. Due to such a vast area of India many cultural, economic, and social variations are found. But despite this unity is found in climate, culture, etc. in the country.
(a) Why is India called the sub-continent?
Answer:
India is given the status of sub-continent due to its expansion and position. The sub-continent is a vast and independent landmass whose boundaries are formed by different topography. These topographies separate it from its surrounding areas. Agile across the Himalayas in the north of India. The mountain ranges of Mugtgh, Kunlun, Karakoram, Hindukush, etc. distinguish it from the north-western parts of Asia. In the South, the Pak strait of central and the gulf of Mannar separate it from Sri Lanka. Formerly Arakan Yoma separates it form Myanmar. The Thar Desert separates it from a very large part of Pakistan. Despite this, we cannot call present day India a sub¬continent. The Indian sub-continent is formed by the combination of undivided India, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh.

(b) Which elements contribute to maintaining unity in the diversity of the country?
Answer:
India is a country of diversity. Yet a distinct unity appears in our society. The main elements that provide unity to Indian society are the following:
1. Monsoon Season. The monsoon winds make most of the rainfall in summer. This affects the agriculture of the country as well as other business. Monsoon winds make the power supply reliable by raining the mountainous regions. Infact, monsoon rainfall is the basis of the entire country’s economy.

2. Religious Culture. There are two things in favor of religious culture. One is that religious places have united the people of the country in one sutra. Secondly, religious saints have instilled a sense of brotherhood through their teachings. People from all parts of the country come and worship at Tirupati, Jagannathpuri, Amamath, Ajmer, Harimandir Sahib, Patna, Hemkunt Sahib and other pilgrimage places. The saints have also tried to create religious harmony.

3. Language and Art. Almost all the northern India. Vedas were propogated in Sanskrit language. Urdu was born in the middle age of this language. English is the contact language and Hindi is the national language. Together, these have provided an opportunity to understand each other closely. Siinlarly, folk songs and folk arts have also created an opportunity for people to express similar feelings.

4. Traffic and means of communication. Railways and roads have played an important role in bringing people of different areas closer. The means of communication like Doordarshan and newspapers have also connected the national stream by giving the national thinking of the people.

5. Migration. Many people from villages have started coming to the cities. Despite their racial differences, they have come to understand each other and thus they have come closer to each other. The truth is that many natural and cultural elements have given unity to our country.

Question 2.
The vast northern plains along the Himalayas provide habitat and livelihood to 40% of the country’s population. Their fortile soil, suitable climate, flat surface have contributed significantly in the spread and development of rivers, canals, roads, railways and cities and in the development of agriculture. Therefore, this plain region has the distinction of being the granary of the country. These plains have built a special kind of civilization and society since the Aryans. People from all over the country consider Ganga to be a holy river and the Rishikesh, Haridwar, Mathura, Prayag, Ayodhya, Kanshi etc. places in its valley have been the center of attraction for sufi saints and religious people living in different parts of the country. Later in these plains, great men like Sikh Guru, Mahatma Buddha, Mahavir Jain were born and different religious were established. Its deep impact can be seen in the Himalayan mountains and also in South India.
(a) Name the major landforms created by the rivers in the vast plains of the north.
Answer:
The landforms formed by the rivers in the northern plains are alluvial fins, alluvial cones, sepentine turns, hilly staircases, natural dams and floodplains.

(b) Describe the huge northern plains contribute to the development of the country.
Answer:
The Himalayan regions have the following contribution to the development of the country.

Rain. The monsoon winds from the Indian Ocean hit the Himalayan mountains and rain heavily. Thus, it donates rain to the northern plain. There is enough rainfall in this ground.
Useful Rivers. All the major rivers flowing in northern India originate from the Himalayan mountains like Ganga, Yamuna, Sutlej, Brahmaputra, etc. These rivers flow throughout the year. In the dry season, Himalayan ice burns these rivers.
Fruit and Tea. The slopes of the Himalayas are very useful for tea cultivation. Apart from these, fruits are also grown on the mountain slopes.
Useful Wood. Dense forests are found on the Himalayan Mountains. These forests are our wealth. Many industries in India depend on the wood derived from them. This wood is also used in building works.
Good Pastures. Beautiful and green pastures are found on the Himalayas. Animals are fed in them.
Mineral Substances. Many types of mineral substances are found in these mountains.

Question 3.
The word ‘climate’ or ‘wind water’ refers to the long-term seasonal conditions in a place, in which the temperature of that place is the amount of water in the air flowing from there. These conditions are mainly determined by important elements such as surface variation of the place, distance from the coastline and distance from the equator. It has a profound effect on human and human activities. India is a vast country. Its vast sin-face units, the peninsular position and the tropic of cancer passing through it have a profound effect on its climate. Due to the largest surface variations of temperature, rainfall, winds and clouds etc.
(a) Describe the (two) elements affecting the climate of India.
Answer:
The main elements influencing the climate of India are :

Distance from the equator.
Surface Pattern.
Air pressure system
Seasonal winds and
Proximity to Indian Ocean.

(b) What are the regional variations of Indian climate?
Answer:
The regional variations of Indian climate are as follows:
1. In winter the temperature reaches – 45°C in the Kargil regions of the Himalayan mountain but at the same time it is more than 20°C in Chennai (Madras) metropolis in Tamil Nadu. Similarly in summer the western direction of the Aravali mountains is crossed 50° centigrade, while the Srinagar is less than 20° centigrade. There is a temperature of 204 centimeters in Srinagar.

2. The annual rainfall is located in the mountain range of Mawsymaram, 1141 cm. Annual rainfall in Jaisalmer is less than 10 cm. in the year.

3. In Barner and Jaisalmer are carved clouds, but the whole year is the same as the same year throughout the year.

4. Due to the effect of the sea in Mumbai and other coastal cities, the temperature ramains almost same of the year. In contrast, the National area is found to be huge difference in the cold and hot temperature in the area and surrounding areas.

Question 4.
The economy, the relief and social development is deeply influenced the economic progress. In the social development, the area can be applied to the development of economic progress there. Indian agriculture, almost completely dependent on. agriculture (aggregated). In which development of the monsoon has given significant contributions to providing a major and strong basis. Monsoon is called a pivotal point of the country. Apart from agriculture, the entire production is dependent oh agricultural production, If monsoon rainfall is in appropirate amount, the agricultural production increases. But because of the failure of monsoon, the crops dried. The country goes dry and the grains are reduced in the stores.
(a) Discuss the important features of the monsoon.
Answer:
In India rainfall is mainly in July to September. This is the period of southwest monsoons blowing from sea to land. There are three important features of the monsoon rainfall.

Erratic. Rainfall is not reliable in India. It is not necessary that rain continues to be same. Due to this erratic situation of rain, the situation of starvation and famine is arranged. This erratic situation of rainfall is more in the inner parts of the country and in Rajasthan.
Uneven Distribution. There is uneven distribution of rainfall in India. Western slopes of western ghats and Meghalaya or in the hills of Assam. There is more than 250 cm. rainfall. In contrast Rajasthan, West Gujarat, North Kashmir etc., the rainfall is less than 25 cm.
Uncertainty. The amount of rainfall in India is not certain. Sometimes monsoon winds reached before time, It rains a lot. But sometimes the rainfall is low or sometimes ends up before a time. As a result the situation of drying is generated in the country.

(b) Why the Indian Economy (budget) is called gambling of monsoon winds?
Answer:
Indian monsoon is a gambling of monsoon winds. This sentence reveals that the advancement of India’s economy depends on that how much appropriate time of any year, distribution and quantity.
If the rain comes on time and its quantity is also suitable, a good crop of agriculture can be expected.

For example-crops are good due to good monsoon, so three things happen.

Fair raw materials available for factories. The industry-related factors of cotton, jute, oil seeds etc. are flourishing.
When the agriculture and industires are strengthened from good monsoon, the
productivity increases. On one hand, the export is promoted. On the other hand international trade is flourishing. Wealth grows in the country and people’s standard of living improves.
Due to good monsoon, there is an increase in water in the rivers, the water level of the dams rises high. Where this water helps in the production of hydropower, the irrigation system improves. This creates a stir in economic activities in the country. There is no doubt that today due to the advancement of science, we can grow a good crop even in the absence of monsoon, but we have to think about whether all farmers can benefit from lack of rainfall or unequal distribution of rainfall. A good monsoon affects every section and every region of the country. If the monsoon is suitable, the country’s economic development is assured. Therefore, it is fair to call the Indian economy a gamble of monsoon winds.

Question 5.
Agriculture has an important role in the Indian economy. The agricultural sector employs about two-thirds of the country’s workforce. The region derives 29.0 percent of the total national income and agricultural products a1 so have an important place in foreign exports. Many products of agriculture are used as raw materials in our factories. Due to the progress in the field of agriculture, the achievement of food grains per person, which was 395 grams in the 1950’s has increased to 510 grams per person per day in 1991.
India also ranks fourth in the world in the use of chemical fertilizers. The area under pulses in our country is the highest in the world. In the field of cotton products, India is the first country in the world, where the first efforts were made to produce improved varieties of cotton. The country has made significant achievements in the preparation of prawn fish and pest culture technological development.
(a) What percentage of land is cultivable in India?
Answer:
51% of the land in India is cultivable.

(b) Why is agriculture called the mainstay of the Indian economy?
Answer:
Agriculture is the mainstay of the Indian economy. Even though agriculture now contributes only 33.7% of the total national production, its importance is no less.

Agriculture sustains 2/3 of our population.
The agriculture sector provides employment to about two-thirds of the country’s workers.
Most of the industries get raw materials from agriculture. The truth is that the place of industries is being built on the foundation of agriculture.

Question 6.
A decline in per capita achievement of pulses in Punjab and other parts of the country is a matter of concern. It seems that the wave of ‘Green Revolution’, which has revolutionized the production of wheat and rice in the country has not made any special contribution in increasing the production of pulses. Actually, if it is said that there is harm then there will be no wrong. Because in the years following the Green Revolution, the area of pulses has been diverted to a large number of high yielding crops like wheat and rice. This has happened especially on a large scale in commercially agricultural states like Punjab.
(a) In Punjab, what kind of changes has occurred in the pulses production area after Green revolution.
Answer:
After the green revolution, the area of pulses production decreased from 9.3 lakh hectares to 9.5 thousand hectare.

(b) What are the main reasons for the decline in the production of pulses?
Answer:
The production of pulses has decreased in the last decades. The main reasons for this are as follows :

The area with pulses has been subjected to crops like wheat and rice, which produce more after the Green Revolution.
Some areas have been subjected to canals, roads, and other development projects due to development work.
The growing area of pulses has also declined due to increasing land demand for
housing of the growing population.

Question 7.
Our country is also considered very rich in terms of mineral wealth. It is estimated that the country accounts for one fourth of the total iron ore reserves in the world. There are also huge deposits of manganese, a major mineral used in the iron and steel industry. There are also abundant reserves of coal, limestone, bauxite and mica in the country. But non-ferrous minerals such as zinc, lead, copper and gold are in very limited quantities. The sulfur reserves in the country are almost nil, while sulfur is the mainstay of modern chemical industry. We also have plenty of water power resources and nuclear minerals. Their use as a power tool is increasing rapidly due to their power efficiency and very little tampering with the environment. For this reason, solar energy is also being used as a power tool. Solar energy is the priceless power store of God. Its use will increase rapidly as a source of power in the future.
(a) What is the contribution of minerals to the national economy?
Answer:
Minerals have great importance in the national economy. The following facts will make it clear.

The industrial development of the country depends mainly on minerals. Iron and coal are the basis of the machine age. We have one-fourth of the world’s iron ore deposits. There are also huge reserves of coal in India.
State governments get income from mining operations and provide employment to millions of people.
Coal, petroleum, natural gas etc. are important sources of mineral energy.
Equipment made from minerals helps in the growth of agriculture.

(b) Why is solar energy called the source of future energy?
Answer:
Coal and mineral oil are exhaustive resources. There will come a day when the people of the world will not get enough energy from them. Their stores must have been exhausted. Unlike then, sun energy is a never-ending means. This gives a tremendous amount of energy. When the reserves of coal and mineral oil are exhausted, then power will be obtained and we will be able to do it easily with our domestic work and plants.

Question 8.
All the trees, thorn bushes, plants and grasses etc. are included in the natural vegetation which grow without human intervention. Before starting its study, it is necessary to know the related words like Flora, Vegetation and Forests. Different species of plants that grow in a certain time and in a certain area are included in the flora, shrubs, plants, grass etc. that grow at a place in a certain environment are called vegetation. Whereas a large area surrounded by dense and adjacent trees, plants, thorn bushes etc. is called forest. The term jungle is mostly used by environmental scientists and forest guards and geographers. Each type of developed vegetation has to go through a long life cycle by creating a delicate balance with its environment, which depends on the quality of its mutual cohesion and ability to adapt. The entire flora found in our country is not local, but 4Q% of it belongs to foreign castes which are called Boreal and Paleo-Tropical species.
(a) Name the foreign castes and quantities in the country.
Answer:

The foreign vegetation species present in the country are called as Boreal and Paleo-Tropical.
The amount of foreign vegetation in India is 40%.

(b) Write briefly on the autumn or monsoon vegetables.
Answer:
The vegetation that leaves its leaves before the start of summer to prevent further evaporation is called the autumn or monsoon vegetation. This vegetation can be divided into two sub-parts which are and wet based on rainfall.

Autumn Forest. This type of vegetation is found in four big areas, where the annual rainfall varies from 100 to 200 cm. Trees are less dense in these areas but their height reaches 30 metres. Sal, Sheesham, Teak, Chandan, Jamun, Amltas, Haldu, Ebony, Mulberry are the major trees of these forests.
Dry Deciduous Vegetation. This type of vegetation is found in areas with rainfall less than 50 to 100 cm. Its long strip starts from Punjab and extends to the adjoining areas of the southern plateau. Kelkar, Babool, Banyan, Haldu are the main trees here.

Question 9.
In our country, along with the diversity of vegetation, there is a large variety of fauna. In fact there is a deep interconnection between the two. About 76 thousand species of fauna are found in the country. 2500 species of fish are found in the fresh and salt water of the country. Similarly, there are 2000 species of birds. 400 species of snakes are found in India. Apart from this, amphibians, reptiles, mammals and small insects and worms are also found. Mammals have majestic elephants with majestic chicks. It is an organism of equatorial tropical forests. In our country, it is found in the forests of Assam, Kerala and Karnataka. It rains heavily and the forests are also very dense. In contrast camels and wild asses are found in very hot and dry deserts. Camel Thar is the common animal of the desert, while wild plants are found only in the Rann of Kuchh. They have a horned rhinoceros in the opposite direction. They live in marshy areas in northern parts of Assam and West Bengal. Among Indian animals, the Indian bison, the Indian buffalo are particularly notable.
(a) Name the animals found in the Himalayas.
Answer:
In the Himalayas, wild sheep, mountain goat, a long horned wild goat and tapir etc, are found, while pandas and Himatendua animals are found in high mountain

(b) What are the works being done to look after the animals in the country?
Answer:
Indian Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in 1972. Under this, 1,50,000 square kilometers of area (2.7% of the country and 12 percent of the total forest area) in various parts of the country were declared as national parks and wildlife sancturies.

Near Extinction Special attention has been paid to wildlife.
The work of counting animals and birds has been started at the National level. At present there are 16 tiger reserves in different parts of the country.

A special scheme for rhinoceros conservation is being carried out in Assam. The truth is that till now 18 Biosphere Reserves have been established in the country.
Under the scheme, the first life reservation area was created in Nilgiri. Protection of every animal is mandatory under this scheme. This natural heritage is for future generations.

Question 10.
A combined mixture of light, loose and unstructured rocky shreds and fine-grained bacteria found on the earth’s surface is called soil which has the power to give rise to plants. Deposition of this mixture is found in deep layers ranging from 15-30 cm to several metres. But the soil scientist is divided into three layers called A, B and C respectively, depending on the depth and quantity of soil colour, texture, size of particles etc. Due to the high quantity of humus in ‘A’ Horizon soils, they begin to turn black. But due to being situated in the zone of leaching on this layer, the minerals dissolve and go down and the colour starts to turn dark black. The colour of sub-layer with ‘B’ Horizon under this layer is brown due to the mineral matter leaking from the top layer. But the aihount of humus in it decreases. Below this layer, a layer of ‘C’ Horizon soil is found in which the substances separated from the above rocks do not have any special change and later go to the main base rock. The colour of this sub-rocky surface is grey or light brown,
(a) Describe the definition of soil.
Answer:
The combined mixture of light, loose and unstructured rock crust (shell powder) and fine granules found on the earth’s surface is called soil.

(b) What is the contribution of primary rocks in the birth of soil?
Answer:
The primary rocks in the country consist of lofty rocks of the northern plains or lava-formed rocks of the plateau. They contain various types of minerals. Therefore, they make good soil. The colour, formation, texture, etc. of the soil formed by the primary rocks depends on how long the rocks are being affected and by what kind of climate. In a state like West Bengal, the spil is highly developed due to the effects of chemical reactions in the climate and humus. But in dry area like Rajasthan, due to lack of vegetation, soil fertility decreases. Likewise, soil erosion is more in areas with high rainfall and high winds. Fertility decreases as a result.

Question 11.
In today’s knowledge and information-based world, the important contribution of human resources is being realized in national construction and development much better than before. Today all the countries of the world, especially the developing countries, are paying more attention to the development of human resources than before. Children can you think why is this ? In the countries of South Korea, Taiwan, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaysia etc., known as ‘Asian Tigers’, the rapid development of economic development is being attributed to the huge investment made in the development of human resources in the last few decades. In human resource development, not only the parameters like education, technical skills, health and nutrition but also human-ethics-ideas, civilization- culture, species and nation-pride should be included. Only then will human resource development becQme a complete ideology.
(a) What is the most valuable resource of a country?
Answer:
Intellectually and physically healthy citizens.

(b) Why is it important to study the population structure of the country?
Answer:
There are many reasons why it is necessary to know the population structure of a country.

Various characteristics of the population of any country for social and economic planning such as the age structure of the population, gender structure, business structure etc. data is required.
Different components of the population structure are closely related to the economic development of the country. While the population structure components are affected by economic development from another, they are also unable to remain untouched by the impact of progress and level of economic development. For example, if the percentage of children and old people in the age structure of a country’s population is very high, then the country will have to spend more and more financial resources on basic facilities like education and health. On the other hand, the rate of economic development of the country is accelerated due to the higher proportion of working-age groups in the age structure.

Question 12.
The study of the regional pattern of population distribution provides the basis for understanding all demographic components of the population. For this reason, it is very important to understand the regional pattern of distribution of population. Here first we must also clarify the difference between population distribution and population density. Population distribution is related to place and density is related to ratio. Population distribution implies that what is the regional pattern of population in any part of the country, that is, the population pattern is nucleated or agglomerated in one place. On the other hand in density, which is related to population size and area, attention is given to the ratio of man and area. The history of human settlements in India is very old. That is why the population resides in every part of the country which is the sum of human. habitation. Yet the distribution of population is greatly affected by the fertility* of the land. As India is an agricultural country, the pattern of population distribution depends on agricultural productivity. For this reason, in states where the productivity of agriculture is high, the concentration of population is equally high. Apart from agricultural productivity, the variation of physical factors, industrial development and cultural elements also contribute significantly in influencing the population distribution pattern of India.
(a) Name the largest and least populous states of the country.
Answer:
The most populous state in the country is Uttar Pradesh and the least state is Sikkim.

(b) Describe the format giving the salient features of the regional pattern of population distribution in the country?
Answer:
The regional pattern of population distribution in India and its important features are as follows:
1. The distribution of population in India is very uneven. Population is very dense in river valleys and seaside plains, but the population is very sparse in the mountainous desert and scarcity areas. Only 3% of the population lives on 16 percent of the country’s land in the hilly regions of the north, while 40 percent of the population lives on 18 percent of the country’s land in the northern plains. In Rajasthan, 6 percent of the population lives on only 6 percent of the country’s land.

2. Majority of the population is settled in rural areas. About 71% of the total population of the country resides in rural areas, about 29% in cities. Large cities have a large population of urban population. Two thirds of the total urban population lives in first-tier cities with population of one lakh or more.

3. The concentration of minority communities in thei country is in the most sensitive and important outer border areas. For example, the Sikhs in Punjab and the Muslims in Jammu and Kashmir are in abundance near the Indo-Pak border in north western India. Similarly there is a gathering of people of Christianity along the borders of China and Burma (Myanmar) in the northeast. Many social, economic and political difficulties arise from such distribution.

4. On the one hand, the population is dense in the coastal plains and valleys of the rivers. On the other hand, the population in the mountainous, plateau and desert parts is sparse. -This distribution resembles a demographic divide.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture

September 26, 2024September 25, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Land Utilization and Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions objectively:

Question 1.
Name the crops which are sown in the Kharif season.
Answer:
The crops sown in the Kharif season are-Rice, Jowar, Bajra, Maize, Groundnut, Jute and Cotton.

Question 2.
which are the crops sown in Rabi season?
Answer:
Wheat, barley, grams, mustard and rapeseed etc, are grown in Rabi season.

Question 3.
What is difference between Green Manure and Fertilizer?
Answer:
Fertilizers and Manures. Fertilizers are chemically prepared but manures include gobar and green plants.

Question 4.
What are Milch Cattle?
Answer:
The cattle which provide milk are called Milch cattle. Cows and buffaloes are milch cattle.

Question 5.
What is Fallow Land?
Answer:
Fallow Land is a piece of land in which only one crop is grown during a period of two or three years.

Question 6.
What is the percentage area of our country under forests?
Answer:
23.3% area of country is under the forests.

Question 7.
How much area should be under the forests from the scientific point of view?
Answer:
According to scientific point of view, 33% of land of a country should be under forests.

Question 8.
How much percentage area in Punjab is under forest?
Answer:
5.7% area is under forest in Punjab.

Question 9.
How much percentage of land is under agriculture in India?
Answer:
50% of land of India is arable.

Question 10.
Whch is the largest wheat producing state of our country?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh is the largest wheat producing state of India.

Question 11.
Which state of our country contributes largest amount of wheat to the central pool?
Answer:
Punjab has the largest contribution of wheat to the public distribution system in India.

Question 12.
What are the causes of decreasing pasture lands?
Answer:
The area under pastures is brought under cultivation to meet the needs of growing population of the country.

Question 13.
In the year 2001 how much food was available per person per year in India?
Answer:
458 grams was available per person per year in India in 2001.

Question 14.
Name the state that produces largest amount of Rice.
Answer:
West Bengal is the largest rice producing state in India.

Question 15.
What is the rank of Punjab in terms of per hectare production of wheat?
Answer:
Punjab ranks first in India as regards yield per hectare of wheat.

Question 16.
What is the rank of India in terms of producing pulses in world?
Answer:
India gets first position in the world in the production of pulses.

Question 17.
After the green revolution, what type of change occurred in production?
Answer:
Pulses were sown in 9.3 lakh hectare land in Punjab before green revolution. After green revolution this area has reduced and left 95 thousand hectares.

Question 18.
At the end of 21st century how much foodgrains would be required for the Indian population?
Answer:
40 crore tonnes of foodgrains would be required for the population of India at the end of 21st century (Almost 160 to 170 crores of population).

Question 19.
Write down any three problems of the present Indian agriculture.
Answer:

Huge pressure of population on land.
Unequal distribution of cultivated land.
Uneducated farmers.

Question 20.
What is the rank of India in the world in the production of sugarcane?
Answer:
India has the fifth position in the world in the production of sugarcane.

Question 21.
Name the crops of oil seeds.
Answer:
Oil seeds are – Groundnut, Mustard and Rape Seed,-Sunflower, Cotton seeds, Coconut etc. We get oil from these.

Question 22.
Name any two states which produce maximum amount of groundnuts.
Answer:
Gujarat and Maharashtra are two largest groundnut producing states.

Question 23.
In which decade the area under oil seeds production had increased the most?
Answer:
In the decade of 1980 to 1990, India obtained the maximum increase in the production of oil seeds.

Question 24.
Which are the main cotton producing states of our country?
Answer:
The main cotton producing states of India are:
Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan. Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 25.
What is the per hectare production of cotton in our country?
Answer:
249 kilograms per hectare is the average yield of cotton.

Question 26.
Which are the main potato producing states of India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar and Punjab are the main potato producing states.

Question 27.
Name the main potato producing districts of Punjab.
Answer:
Jalandhar, Hoshiarpur, Patiala and Ludhiana are the main potato producing districts of Punjab.

Question 28.
What is the rank of Punjab in our country in respect of cattle wealth?
Answer:
Punjab gets 13th position in India as regards to cattle wealth.

Question 29.
Which part of the country amounts the highest cattle wealth?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh has the largest cattle resources in India.

Question 30.
What is the rank of India in the world in respect of fruit and vegetables?
Answer:
India gets second position in world in the production of fruit and vegetables.

Question 31.
Where does India rank in the world in production of cashewnuts?
Answer:
India gets first position in the world in the production of cashewnuts.

Question 32.
Name the apple producing states.
Answer:
Jammu-Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh are the main apple producing states.

II. Answer the following Questions in short:

Question 1.
Why is the agriculture called the basic mainstay of Economic system?
Answer:
Agriculture is the basis of Indian Economy. Agriculture contributes only 33.7% of National Production, still it is important.

Two-thirds of our population gets livelihood from agriculture.
Agriculture sector provides employment to two-third labourers of the country.
Most of the industries get raw material from agriculture.
The fact is that the industrial structure has been built on the foundations of Agriculture.

Question 2.
What are the main features of Green Revolution?
Answer:
Green revolution encourages mechanised agriculture and it increases the total production. Ploughing, planting the seeds and harvesting is done by machines. Fertilizers and better seeds are used.

Question 3.
Which items are included in agriculture side?
Answer:
Agriculture includes livestock farming, fisheries, forestry, sericulture, bee hiving, poultry farming etc.

Question 4.
What is the difference between milch cattle and working load animals?
Answer:
Dairy cattle and draught cattle Cows and buffaloes are dairy cattle. These provide milk to us. Bullocks and oxen are draught cattle. These help in ploughing, sowing, harvesting and transportation of agricultural products.

Question 5.
What is the difference between current fallow land and old fallow land?
Answer:
Current Fallow Land and Old Fallow Land
Fallow lands are marginal lands which are left free for only one year. Crops are not grown. After one year, these lands are again cultivated. It is called current fallow land. The remaining fallow land is called old fallow land which is never cultivated.

Question 6.
What climatic conditions are required for the wheat cultivation?
Answer:
Wheat is an important foodgrain.
Geographical conditions. The following geographical conditions are suitable for wheat cultivation:

Wheat requires lower temperature during the growing period and high temperature at the harvesting period. At the sowing time temperature should be about 15°C to 20°C and at the time of ripening the temperature should be between 20°C and 25°C.
Wheat can be grown in areas of moderate rainfall. 50 to 75 centimeters rainfall is quite suitable for its cultivation. The rain should be well distributed
The soil should be fertile. Loamy soil is very suitable for wheat cultivation.
The land should be even for the convenience of irrigation.

Production. India occupies fourth position as a producer of wheat in the world.
Green revolution has brought many changes. In 1960-61 wheat production was 1.6 crore tonnes. In 2011-12 it increased to 8.5 crore tonnes.

Wheat Producing States. Although wheat is cultivated in almost every part of the country except the southern part of the Indian peninsula, it is essentially a crop of North India. Uttar Pradesh produces highest quantity of wheat in India. Punjab occupies the second position as a producer of wheat in India. Haryana is also an important producer of wheat.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture 2
The states of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Maharashtra also grow some wheat.

Question 7.
Name the main paddy growing areas of our country.
Answer:
The following are the main rice producing areas of India:
Areas of Heavy Rainfall: Delta regions of East and West coastal plain. The plains and lower hills of N.E. India, lower slopes of the Himalayas; West Bengal, Bihar, Eastern U.P., Chhattisgarh; Northern Andhra Pradesh. Areas of Low Rainfall: Western U.P., Haryana, Punjab, and adjoining districts of Rajasthan.

Question 8.
Discuss the required condition for the production of Sugar Cane.
Answer:
Required condition for the production of Sugar Cane:
(а) Sugarcane requires well-drained fertile soil.
(b) It also needs large amount of chemical fertilizers and organic manure.
(c) Hot and humid climate is favourable for its higher yields.
(d) It grows well in areas with about 100 cm of rainfall.

Question 9.
What are the main uses of forests?
Answer:
Forests are a valuable resource. Following are the advantages of forests:
(a) Forests are helpful in maintaining ecological balance and natural Eco-system.
(b) Forests supply timber and fuel. It is used for making furniture, packing boxes, boats etc. and is used for buildings.
(c) Soft wood is used for preparing wood-pulp which has a large demand for paper
industry.
(d) We obtain lac, cane, gum, medicinal herbs from forests.
(e) We get fodder for cattle from forests.

Question 10.
Why is Indian agriculture known as ‘Subsistence Agriculture’?
Answer:
Most of land holdings in India are of small size. Large amount of capital and labour is applied on small farms, but economic benefit is small. Small farmers have to hire agricultural implements and tubewell water for irrigation. They have to purchase costly fertilizers from the market. It results in a small net savings. Therefore Indian agriculture is called Subsistence Agriculture.

Question 11.
Why some people call green revolution as ‘wheat revolution’?
Or
May green revolution be termed as wheat revolution only. How?
Answer:
Total production of wheat in 1960-61 was 1 crore 10 lakh tonnes. But due to green revolution it increased five times in 1993-94. Due to the enormous increase in wheat production, sometimes it is called wheat revolution,

Question 12.
Explain the efforts made for the development of animal wealth.
Answer:
Many attempts have been made by Central govt, and state govts, for the development of livestock farming in India.

Special attempts have been made to improve their breed, to protect them from different diseases, to control their diseases; and provide market facilities. At least one veterinary hospital has been started in each block. At village level, the health centres for livestock have been opened. In 1992-93, such health centres were more than 22,000. Besides this, 26 cattle injection centres in public and private sectors had been opened.

Question 13.
What are the reasons that are responsible for the increase in land use under non-agricultural purposes?
Answer:
There are two reasons for the increasing use of land for non-agricultural purposes growing population and economic development. The urban and rural areas are increasing in size due to growing population. Due to increase in economic development large area is being used for canals, roads, industries and irrigation projects.

Question 14.
Write in brief about the importance of forests.
Answer:
Forests are important in our daily life in the following ways:

These maintain ecological balance.
Trees absorb carbon dioxide and control the increase in temperature.
Forests are the home of wild animals. These protect them.
Forests increase the rainfall and droughts do not occur,
Forests preserve water resources and control floods in rivers.

Question 15.
What effect incurred after independence on the requirement of foodgrains per head?
Answer:
After independence, many steps have been taken to develop agriculture. As a result, the production of foodgrains has increased. From 1950-51 to 1994-95, production of rice has increased four times and production of wheat has increased ten times. It has affected food for persons. In 1950 the availability of foodgrains was 395 grams per person per day. In 2000 it had increased to 458 grams per person per day.

Question 18.
What are the reasons of small land holdings in India? How these effect Indian agriculture?
Answer:
50% land holdings are less than one hectare in size. The main reason for it is law of inheritance. After the death of the father, the land is equally divided among the sons. Therefore size of the land holding is small due to increasing pressure of population on land. Due to small holdings the farmer cannot use machinery and the advanced methods of irrigation. As a result, he has to hire water and machinery. Therefore, net saving is less and the farmer is becoming poorer day by day.

Question 17.
Name the main paddy producing states.
Answer:
West Bengal was the largest rice producing state of India with a production of 1.39 crore tonnes in 2000-01. Other main producers are U.P., Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, Bihar. Punjab and Orissa. Each state produces more than 60 lakhs tonnes of rice. Besides this, M.P., Assam, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Haryana are other large producers of rice.

Question 18.
What are the causes for high per hectare yield of wheat in Punjab?
Answer:
Punjab is the second largest producer of wheat in India. Punjab ranks first in yield per hectare and its contribution towards national store of wheat is due to

Wheat is cultivated on a large scale in Punjab because it is a commercial crop in Punjab.
Better irrigation facilities are available.
The yield per hectare is high.
The yield per hectare has increased due to mechanised agriculture.

Question 19.
What are the causes of decrease in area under pulses cultivation?
Answer:
The production of pulses and oil seeds are still low due to the following reasons:

The areas under cultivation of pulses and oil seeds is small. Pulses are grown on an area of 2.3 crore hectares.
There is absence of irrigation.
The yield per hectare is low. The green revolution has not affected it,
The rate of growth of population is more than the rate of production of these crops.

Question 20.
Write down the benefits of Dairy Industry.
Answer:
Dairy farming includes rearing of cattle to get milk and milk products. It is a part of agriculture. It has the following advantages:

It provides employment in drought areas.
It provides additional income to farmer.
It provides nutrients in diet by increasing the production of milk.

Question 21.
Why production of pulses and oil-seeds is still low?
Answer:
The production of pulses and oil seeds is lower and does not meet our needs. This is due to:

Low production of Pulses. The production of pulses was 1.3 crore tonnes in 1960-61. It was 1.4 crore tonnes in 1993-94. Unfortunately, the yield of pulses per person has reduced to one half. This is due to the decrease in area under pulses. Much area has been brought under cultivation of rice and wheat. There has been decreasing of 34 lakh hectares under pulses during the last thirty years.
Low production of Oil-seeds. The position of oil-seeds is opposite to-that of pulses. There has been increase in area under oilseeds as well as production of oilseeds. In 1960-61 area under oilseeds was 1.4 crore hectares. It increased to 2.23 crore hectares in 2000-01. The production increased two fold but still there is shortage of oilseeds. The demand is increasing by 5% annually and 2% growth of population is making the problem more severe.

Question 22.
What are the main problems of Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The following are the agricultural problems of India:

There is a great soil erosion because the area under forests and pastures is small.
Most of the soils are saline. More than one lakh hectares is affected by this in Ferozepur district.
Most of the farmers are illiterate and are unable to practise crop rotation.
Cultivated land is decreasing due to the increasing use of land for non-agriculturai purposes.
The size of the land holding is small, uneconomic and there is small net saving. Because the farmers have to hire the costly machinery and costly fertilizer
Fall in ground water and loss of fertility are other problems.

Question 23.
Explain the changes that have occurred rapidly in the diversification of crop rotation after Green Revolution.
Answer:
Rapid changes have taken in crop-rotation after Green Revolution. This is due to the increase in productivity in areas affected by Green Revolution (Punjab, Haryana and H.P.). Agricultural productivity has decreased in the traditional rice producing areas of the East. Besides this, the agricultural development, in Green revolution affected areas, has become stagnant. To meet these problems, the farmers have adopted new systems of crop rotation in different areas. For example, Punjab has adopted a Wheat-Rice rotation system, and U.P. has taken to Wheat-Sugarcane crop-rotation system.

Question 24.
What are the indications that depict that Indian agriculture is advancing towards commercial agriculture leaving behind the subsistence type of agriculture?
Answer:
Subsistence farming means the raising of crops for the local consumption according to needs of the farmer and his family. In commercial farming the surplus is sold in the market. The following factors have been responsible for transforming Indian agriculture from subsistence to commercial farming:

The Govt, has passed legislative measures to abolish the Zamindari system.
Chakbandi has consolidated scattered land holdings of the farmers to make it of economic size.
Cooperative movement has helped the farmers to collectively tackle their problems of credit and marketing.
National banks provide loans to farmers on relatively easy terms.
The Agricultural Price Commission fixes the minimum support prices for various crops. The farmers are not compelled to sell their products at low prices,

Question 25.
What efforts have been made by Government of India for the development of Agriculture?
Answer:
The Central and State governments have taken the following five important steps for the progress of agriculture in India:

Consolidation. The government under the five year plans have consolidated the small holdings into big blocks in order to mechanize the agriculture.
Supply of quality seeds. The government has undertaken to supply seeds of good quality to the farmer so that agricultural output is increased.
Supply of fertilizers. The government, therefore, has started supplying chemical fertilizers to the farmers. Many factories have been set up to meet the demand of chemical fertilizers.
Modern means of agriculture. In order to increase the agricultural output new machines are being used for agriculture.
Means of irrigation. Many multipurpose projects have been completed. Dams have been built across the rivers and the water thus stored is used for irrigation. Bhakra-Nangal project and Damodar Valley Corporation are examples of this type of projects.

III. Answer the following questions subjectively:

Question 1.
Explain, in detail, the problems being faced by the Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
The main problems of Indian Agriculture are as under:

The most important problem of Indian Agriculture is the pressure of population on land. About 65% workers depend upon agriculture for their livelihood; but earn only 29% of the National income.
Most of the land holdings are small and unequally distributed. These are uneconomic.
The area under forests and pastures is low. Therefore soil erosion has an adverse effect on soil fertility.
Most of the farmers are illiterate. They cannot practise crop-rotation. So the natural fertility of the soil decreases. So intensive agriculture affects the fertility of the soil.
Irrigation has become a problem in India. There is necessity of extending irrigation facilities in Rajasthan, Maharashtra, M.P., Karnataka, etc.; but due to over-irrigation in Punjab the problems of water logging and saline soils have been created.
The capital investment in Agriculture is decreasing. In 1980-81, the capital investment was Rs. 1769 crores, but in 1990-91 it decreased to Rs. 100 crores. After that this capital investment is on increase.
Marginal development has taken place in development of better seeds.
Diversification of crops and slow growth is also a problem.
The fact is that Govt, has a strict control on agriculture and prices. Farmers cannot be provided adequate facilities like industries.

Question 2.
Write an explanatory essay on the Green Revolution of India.
Answer:
Green Revolution is a new strategy used to increase the production of foodgrains in the country. A revolution has taken place in the agricultural methods and technology. This revolution is known as Green Revolution. It includes the use of better quality seeds, high yielding varieties, chemical fertilizers, agricultural machinery and to provide irrigation facilities. It has led to a complete modernisation of Indian Agriculture.

This strategy was introduced to do away with food shortage and import of foodgrains. In 1961 seven districts were selected for this programme. In Punjab, Ludhiana was one of these districts. Green Revolution affected the whole of Punjab. Punjab became the bread basket of India. Yield per hectare of wheat rose to 3531 kg. in 1985-86. But in India it was 2132 kg. In fact, Green Revolution helped to increase production on less land.

Question 3.
Explain in detail about the cultivation of Paddy in India.
Answer:
Rice. Rice is the leading agricultural crop of India. It is the staple food of 2/3rd of her population. Suitable geographical environment for its cultivation, its production and trade are described ahead:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture 1
Geographical conditions. The geographical conditions suitable for rice cultivation are the following:

Rice is the product of moist tropical region. It requires high temperature. The temperature should not be more than 25°C. At the harvest times especially, the temperature should be high.
Rice requires great amount of water. A rainfall between 130 and 200 cms is suitable for it. A good crop of rice mainly depends on the Monsoon. Deficiency in rainfall can be made up by irrigation.
Very fertile soil is needed for rice cultivation. Clay and delta soils are most suitable for it.
Rice requires a lot of manual labour. Therefore, cheap labour should be available for its cultivation. Therefore rice is grown in densely populated areas.

Rice Producing Areas. India stands next only to China in the production of rice. In India, West Bengal produces largest quantity of rice. Tamil Nadu and Jharkhand are second and third producers of rice respectively. Rice is also grown in Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Kerala, Assam, Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana. In 2011-12 rice was grown in 4.3 crore hectares of land in India and the total output of rice was 9.5 crore tonnes.

Question 4.
Explain in detail about the cultivation of wheat in India.
Answer:
Wheat is an important foodgrain.
Geographical conditions. The following geographical conditions are suitable for wheat cultivation:

Wheat requires lowr temperature during the growing period and high temperature at the harvesting period. At the sowing time temperature should be about 15°C to 20°C and at the time of ripening the temperature should be between 20°C and 25°C.
Wheat can be grown in areas of moderate rainfall. 50 to 75 centimetres rainfall is quite suitable for its cultivation. The rain should be well distributed
The soil should be fertile. Loamy soil is very suitable for wheat cultivation.
The land should be even for the convenience of irrigation.

Wheat Producing States. Although wheat is cultivated in almost every part of the country except the southern part of the Indian peninsula, it is essentially a crop of North India. Uttar Pradesh produces highest quantity of wheat in India. Punjab occupies second position as a producer of wheat in India. Haryana is also an important producer of wheat.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture 2
The states of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Maharashtra also grow some wheat.

Question 5.
Write about the cultivation of pulses in India.
Answer:
The production of pulses has not shown any marked increase in India. India is still the largest producer of the pulses. Main pulses include Grams, Arhar, Masur, Mung and Peas. It is grown in dry areas all over the country in both the Kharif and Rabi season.

The area under pulses has not increased because a large area was cultivated for wheat and rice after green revolution. In 1960-61 pulses were cultivated in an area of 2.6 crore hectares. But in 2000-01 it reduced to 2.23 crore hectares showing a decrease of 30 lakh hectares during the last 34 years.

The production of pulses was 1.3 crore tonnes in 1960-61 and increased to 2.5 crore tonnes in 2010-11. With better seeds, the production of pulses can be increased.

Question 6.
Highlight the causes that led to decrease in area under oilseeds after Green Revolution. What steps have been taken by the government to increase the cultivation of oilseeds?
Answer:
Oilseeds are grown in combination with other crops to increase the soil fertility. It acts as pivot in crop rotation. After green revolution the area under oilseeds had decreased. In 1975-76 the area under oilseeds was 3.2 lakh hectares. In 1991 it decreased to 1.0 lakh hectares.
Steps taken. The Government is providing better seeds to increase oilseeds production. Good prices have been offered for oilseeds so that farmers should take interest in its cultivation.

Question 7.
Write a comprehensive essay on the cotton production in our country.
Answer:
Cotton is an important fibre crop. The cotton yarn is used for manufacturing cloth. Cotton plantation in India has been done since ancient times (during Indus civilisation). The Babylonians called it ‘Sandhu’ and Greeks called it ‘Sindo’.

Geographical conditions. Given below are the physical requirements of cotton cultivation:

High temperature is needed for cultivation of cotton crop. Average temperature should be between 30°C and 35°C.
A moderate amount of rainfall is required for cultivation of cotton. Cotton can be easily grown in area with 50 to 100 cms of rainfall. Irrigation is used in dry areas.
During the growing period of the cotton plants the relative humidity should be high. At the time of picking the weather should be dry.
Cotton can be grown in many types of soils but loamy soil is ideal for its growth. In India it is mostly grown in the black cotton soil region of Gujarat and Maharashtra. A special feature of black soil is that it can retain moisture for a long period and the need for irrigation is minimised. In Punjab and Haryana cotton is grown in alluvial soil.
Most of the activities connected with cotton cultivation require manual labour. Therefore large amount of cheap labour is essential.

Sowing and harvesting periods. In most parts of India cotton is a summer crop. It is sown from April to June and harvested in the months of September and October. In Gujarat it is sown in the month of June and harvested in October. In Tamil Nadu cotton is sown in September and harvested in the month of March.

Production. India is the fourth biggest producer of cotton in the world. India produces about 700 lakh bales of cotton, each bale weighing 170 kilograms. In 2011-12 the area under cotton cultivation was 86 lakh hectares.

State-wise distribution. Maharashtra state is the biggest producer of cotton in India and produces about 26.3 lakh bales of cotton. The other important cotton producing states of India are Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka. Punjab, Gujarat (second largest producer), Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. Most of the cotton grown in India is of short staple type but the cultivation of long staple American and Egyptian cotton is on the increase.

Question 8.
Explain the main features of Horticulture in India.
Answer:
Horticulture means cultivation of vegetables, flowers and fruit. Its main characteristics are:

India ranks second in the world in the production of fruit and vegetables. The production of fruit was 3.9 crore tonnes and the production of vegetables was 6.5 crore tonnes.
Different types of fruit, vegetables and flowers are grown due to diverse climatic conditions. Tea and coffee on hill slopes and coconut in coastal areas are grown.
India ranks first in the world in the production of bananas, mangoes, coconuts and cashewnuts. India is a large producer of oranges, apples, potatoes, tomatoes, onions and peanuts.
The exports of these products is 25% of the total exports of India.
Floriculture has increased due to demand in foreign countries. 200 units have been selected to export flowers.
Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh states lead in the production of apples, Maharashtra in the production of oranges and bananas, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu in the production of mangoes and Kerala in the production of cashewnuts.

The production of fruits and vegetables has rapidly increased in Punjab. In 2000-01, the production was 8 lakh tonnes. Hoshiarpur, Ferozpur, Amritsar and Faridkot are the leading districts. 26.6 thousand hectares of land is under kinoo gardens and orange plantation.

IV. Show the following on the map of India:

Question 1.
(i) Main Wheat producing areas
(ii) Main Jowar-Bajra producing areas
(iii) Main Cotton producing areas
(iv) Main Rice (paddy) producing areas
(v) Main Oilseeds producing areas
(vi) Sugarcane producing areas
(vii) Main Pulses producing areas
(viii) Maize producing areas
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture 3

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Land Utilization and Agriculture Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line:

Question 1.
How much percentage of population of India depends upon agriculture?
Answer:
70 percent,

Question 2.
Name an activity which besides cultivation is included in agriculture.
Answer:
Animal husbandry.

Question 3.
How much area is net sown area in India?
Answer:
143 million Hectare.

Question 4.
What is the percentage of fallow land?
Answer:
5%.

Question 5.
In which state is Jhumming practised?
Answer:
Meghalaya.

Question 6.
Name an important Rabi crop.
Answer:
Wheat.

Question 7.
Name an important Kharif crop.
Answer:
Paddy.

Question 8.
Name a plantation crop of India.
Answer:
Tea.

Question 9.
Where does India rank in world production of tea?
Answer:
First.

Question 10.
Name a fibre crop.
Answer:
Cotton.

Question 11.
From which liquid is rubber produced?
Answer:
Latex.

Question 12.
How much per cent area of India is under cultivation? Where does India rank in the world?
Answer:
About 51 per pent land of India is under cultivation. From this point of view, India ranks first in the world.

Question 13.
What do you mean by fallow land?
Answer:
Fallow land is that land which is used for one crop after 2 or 3 years. It is again left vacant so that its fertility can be restored.

Question 14.
The percentage of fallow land is decreasing in India. What does it suggest? Explain two points.
Answer:

More manures and fertilizers are being used in fallow land.
Scientific methods are being used to retain moisture in land.

Question 15.
Despite less area under pastures in India, India has the largest number of cattle in the world. How is it?
Answer:
Livestock are reared on fodder crops and grass.

Question 16.
How do forests check floods?
Answer:
Forests allow the seepage of rain water into land. So these help to retain water and control the destructive floods of rivers.

Question 17.
How can afforestation control droughts?
Answer:
Forests help in rainfall. Therefore droughts do not occur frequently.

Question 18.
What do you mean by wasteland?
Answer:
Wasteland is that land which is not used at present. It includes arid, rocky areas and sandy deserts. High rugged mountains and bad lands are included in it.

Question 19.
In which two ways wastelands are increased by man?
Answer:

By overgrazing
By deforestation.

Question 20.
Explain three methods of forests conservation.
Answer:

Deforestation should be stopped.
Forests should be declared reserved areas.
More trees should be planted than cut during a year.

Question 21.
Why is the demand for land increasing in India? Give two examples.
Answer:

More land is required for human settlements due to growing population.
People want to live in open, spacious houses due to high standard of living.

Question 22.
Why is it necessary to plan the proper use of the land available?
Answer:
Land is a limited resource. It can neither be increased nor decreased. But pressure on land is increasing constantly. So it is necessary to plan the proper use of land.

Question 23.
State three steps which should be taken for the proper land-use.
Answer:

Soil erosion should be checked.
To check the advance of deserts.
Steps be taken to use the wasteland.

Question 24.
The natural fertility of soils in India is decreasing. State two reasons for it.
Answer:
The following are the two main reasons for decreasing soil fertility in India:

The absence of forests and pastures is affecting the natural fertility of soils.
The poverty of farmers and their ignorance of scientific techniques are also responsible for the decrease in natural fertility of soils.

Question 25.
Explain the importance of bunding and contour ploughing in dry farming.
Answer:
Bunding and contour ploughing are useful in dry farming. It retains the moisture in soil. It also checks soil erosion.

Question 26.
What steps should be taken to maintain soil fertility in India?
Answer:
Green manures and Gobar manures should be used to maintain soil fertility. But a suitable amount of fertilizers should also be used at the same unit.

Question 27.
What is the function and importance of National Price Commission?
Answer:
National Price Commission fixes the standard rate of crops, useful for farmers.

Question 28.
Name the two agricultural seasons oflndia.
Answer:
In India, there are two main agricultural seasons, Kharif and Rabi. Rice is the main crop of Kharif season while wheat is the main foodgrain of Rabi season.

Question 29.
Where is most of wheat produced in India? Why?
Answer:
Wheat is mostly produced in northern plains. Punjab, Haryana and U.P. are the leading producers of wheat.

Question 30.
Explain the importance of cultivation of pulses in India.
Answer:
(i) Pulses are the major sources of protein for poor people in India.
(ii) Pulses fix nitrogen in the soil to restore its fertility.

Question 31.
What are oilseeds? Name some important oilseeds.
Answer:
Groundnut, Sesaum, Linseed, Sunflower, Castor seed, Rape seed, Mustard, etc. are important oilseeds.

Question 32.
Name four main fibres of India. How are these obtained?
Answer:
The four main fibres in India are:

Cotton
Jute
Wool
Silk.

Question 33.
What is the importance of forestry?
Answer:

Forests maintain ecological balance and ecosystem.
Forests provide timber, lac, gum, cane, fuel, medicines, etc.

Question 34.
Why is India considered a fortunate country as regards land available for cultivation?
Answer:
More than one half of total land is available for agriculture in India. No other country is so fortunate in this regard.

Question 35.
Why is it necessary to increase the area under forests for economic development?
Answer:
Many industries are based on forests. These increase the employment sources. Moreover, these check soil erosion and control floods. So the area under forests is to be increased.

Question 36.
State a problem related to Ecosystem of Punjab.
Answer:
Forests cover an area of 5.7 per cent in Punjab. This area is very low as regards scientific norm. The low forested area has an adverse effect on Ecosystem of Punjab.

Question 37.
How can you say that Punjab is an agricultural state?
Answer:
Most of the land of Punjab is being used for agricultural purpose. Waste land covers very small area as compared to the whole country. So we can say that Punjab is an agricultural state.

Question 38.
What do you know about social forestry? State its main aim.
Answer:
Social forestry includes a programme under which common wasteland in rural area is used for planting trees. Its aims is to make wasteland a green belt, provide employment in rural areas, and to solve fuel problem in villages.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Net sown area in India is___________%.
Answer:
47

Question 2.
India has ____________ % area under forests.
Answer:
22.6

Question 3.
In Punjab _________% area is under forests.
Answer:
5.7

Question 4.
India is the largest exporter of ___________
Answer:
Tea

Question 5.
India is second largest producer of _________
Answer:
Rice.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
India is the largest producer of
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Rice
(d) Cotton.
Answer:
(a) Tea

Question 2.
Which state is the largest producer of wheat?
(a) Punjab
(b) U.P.
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
(b) U.P.

Question 3.
Which is known as golden fibre?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silk
(c) Jute
(d) Wool.
Answer:
(c) Jute

Question 4.
Crops grown in _______season are called Kharif crops.
(a) Spring
(b) Summer
(c) Winter
(d) Rainy.
Answer:
(d) Rainy.

Question 5.
Black soils are ideal for cultivation of:
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Cotton
(d) Maize.
Answer:
(c) Cotton

True / False:

Question 1.
Rice is a product of moist tropical region.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Less fertile soil is needed for rice cultivation.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Jharkhand produces largest quantity of rice.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Wheat can be grown in areas of moderate rainfall.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Cotton is an important fibre crop.
Answer:
True.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which is the most satisfying feature of land use pattern in India? What are its main features?
Answer:
The most satisfying feature of land use in India is that net sown area is increasing. During last 3 decades 2.2 crore hectares has been added to it. Today net sown area is 16.2 crore hectares and it is about 47.7% of total area.

Main Features:

The area under forests is low. It is only 22.7% of total area. But for a self-reliant economy and proper ecological balance, one third of the land should be under forests.
The area under pastures is low.

Question 2.
Distinguish between fallow land and wasteland. What are two advantages of fallow land to farmers?
Answer:
Fallow lands are lands which are not cultivated annually for crops. Only one crop is grown on these-lands during two or three years. After getting one crop, it is left vacant to maintain its fertility. Its use depends on timely monsoonal rain. Wasteland is a land which is not used for cultivation. It includes arid, rocky and sandy land.

Advantages of Fallow Land:

Fallow lands regain their lost fertility.
Agricultural production is increased due to increase in productivity of land.

Question 3.
Distinguish between subsistence farming and commercial farming giving one example from each.
Answer:
Subsistence farming is the type of agriculture in which crops are grown for local consumption to meet the needs of the family. On the opposite, commercial farming meets the demand of market. In commercial farming, one crop is grown and cultivation is done on large farms using scientific techniques. Subsistence farming includes wheat farming while tea plantations are a type of commercial farming.

Question 4.
Name two agricultural seasons. Why is wheat mostly grown in Punjab? Give two reasons.
Answer:
The two agricultural seasons are:

Kharif
Rabi.

Wheat is mostly grown in Punjab due to these reasons:

Punjab has fertile land deposited by alluvial soils. These loamy soils are best suited for wheat.
Cyclonic rainfall, which occurs over a long period, is well suited for wheat.

Question 5.
Why is the rice cultivation increasing in Punjab? Give four reasons.
Answer:
Increase in rice cultivation is due to these reasons:

Intensive farming is practised in Punjab with the use of better seeds and fertilizers.
Irrigation methods are highly developed. In some districts, water logging has increased rice production.
Land is fertile and farmers are hard working.
Punjab Agriculture University has introduced new varieties of rice.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture 5

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the major characteristics of land use pattern in India?
Answer:
Land use pattern. Land is a limited resource. Attempts are made to make the maximum use of land. India has total geographical area of 32.8 crore hectares. Out of it 92.2% area is used.

Main characteristics of land use are as under:
(а) Net sown area. About 51% of total land (16.3 crore hectares) is net sown area. This vast area shows the importance of agriculture in India. It includes 1.3% land under fruits and 5% under fallow land.

(b) Fallow land. About 5% land (2.2 crore hectares) is left as fallow land and is cultivated after two or three years. Fallow land has decreased due to use of fertilizers and manures.

(c) Forests. About 22.7% of land (6.7 crore hectares) is under forests. The actual area under forests is 4.6 crore hectares. According to scientific norms, l/3rd of area should be under forests.

(d) Pastures. About 4% land is under pastures. Still India has the largest number of cattle in the world. Cattle are reared on fodder crops.

(e) Other uses. Land under permanent grassland, cultivable waste, and not available for cultivation amounts to about 22% of total land. It includes wasteland also.
Moreover the demand for human settlements is increasing due to growing population.

Question 2.
Describe the geographical conditions of growth, areas and production of tea in India. Also, discuss its International Trade.
Answer:
India is the leading producer of tea in the world. Tea plantations were started by the British for their own benefit. Now Indians are the owners of these plantations. About 10 lakh persons are engaged in Tea farming directly and same number of persons get employment indirectly. It is labour-intensive industry.
(а) Geographical conditions. The following geographical, conditions are suitable for cultivation of tea:

Abundant rainfall (150 cms) is necessary for the growth of tea plants.
Tea requires high temperature. An average temperature of 20°C to 30°C is suitable for its proper growth.
The relative humidity should be high.
The water should not stagnate in the roots of the plant.-Therefore tea is mostly grown on the hilly slopes.
Tea requires fertile soil.
Cheap labour is very essential for tea plantation as the picking of leaves requires human labour.

(b) Tea producing states. Assam is the biggest producer of tea in India. West Bengal is the second largest producer of tea in India. Tea is grown in Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri, Nilgiri hills. Tea is also grown in Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, U.P., Himachal Pradesh, Kerala and Karnataka.

(c) Production. In 1950-51, tea estates covered an area of 3,14,000 hectares. In 2000-01 the area under tea estates raised to 4,00,000 hectares. In 1950-51 total production of tea was .2,75,000 tonnes. In 2011-12, it rose to 8,00,000 tonnes. It amounts to one half of the world production.

(d) Trade. In 2010-11, India exported 2.03 lakh tonnes of tea valued at Rs. 1976 crores. Sri Lanka is a competitor of India as regards exports of tea. Kenya is a new tea-exporter. Tea consumption is increasing in India. So tea export is decreasing.

Question 3.
What are the main causes of backwardness of the Indian agriculture? Suggest remedies for its improvement.
Answer:
Causes of backwardness. The causes of backwardness of the Indian agriculture are as under:

Dependence on rain. The Indian farmer depends on rain for irrigation. Only 23% of the cultivated land has irrigation facilities.
Dearth of Nitrogen in the soil. Indian soil is poor in nitrogen. The land has been cultivated for thousands of years continuously and has, thus, affected the fertility of the soil.
Poor labour. The Indian farmers are weak in health and they cannot provide the required amount of labor for agriculture.
Subdivision of holdings. In India the land is equally distributed amongst all the sons after the death of the father. As a result the size of fields goes on decreasing and this affects the production.
Primitive methods of agriculture. The Indian farmer is still following the
primitive methods of agriculture. Hence agriculture in India has suffered a setback.
Non-utilization of good seeds. Indian farmers are poor and do not use seeds of good quality. This lowers production.
Poverty. Money is needed for agriculture but the farmers are poor.
Weak cattle. Indian farmer cultivates his land with the help of bullocks but most of the bullocks in India are not of good breed. They are very weak and are thus unable to undertake agricultural activities properly.
Illiteracy. The Indian farmer is illiterate. He finds it difficult to adopt new methods of agriculture.

Suggestions for improvement of agriculture:

Co-operative farming. Co-operative farming should be introduced. This will increase the size of the fields and modem methods of agriculture would easily be adopted.
Improvement in irrigation. In order to bring improvement in agriculture, the irrigation facilities should also be improved.
Intensive farming. The farmers should adopt intensive farming. This brings more return from a smaller area.
Good seeds and fertilizers. The government should arrange to supply quality seeds and fertilizers to the farmers at reasonable rates.
Use of new agricultural implements. There can be a lot of improvement in agriculture if modern agricultural implements are used by the farmers. The government should give financial aid to farmers for the purchase of such implements.

Diving Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

September 25, 2024September 24, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Diving Game Rules.

Diving Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Describe the rules of Diving?
Answer:
Special Rules for Diving
1. All diving competitions at the international level shall be subject to the regulations of the FINA.

2. The spring board, the fixed boards and all diving installations shall be in accordance with the present regulations, and shall be tested and approved by the delegates of the FINA prior to the start of the competition.

3. All diving centres shall be available to the listed competitors for use at least eight days before the competition. On the day of the competition, the diving centres shall remain open for training when no contest is in progress.

4. The order of starting shall be decided by lot.

5. The drawing by lot shall be public and the place and time of such drawing shall be announced along with that of the contest.

6. If the number of dives in one diving competition is excessive, the competition shall be divided into several groups of dives in order to ensure that the number of dives in any one group does not exceed 210.

7. Before the start of each dive, the referee or the official announcer shall announce in the language of the country the name of the competitor, and the type of dive he is going to execute.

8. The number of the dives to be performed and the manner of execution shall be displayed on an indicator board, visible’to both divers and judges. The dive to be executed shall not be announced until the diver has taken his position on the board or platform.

9. The dive shall be executed after the referee has given signal. If a competitor dives before the signal he shall repeat the dive.

10. Only listed dives shall be executed.

11. Each competitor shall deliver to the diving secretary four copies of a complete statement of the dives selected on an official form written in ink, or typewritten, not less than 24 hours before the date of each competition. This list should be in English or French language. If any other language is used, the competitor shall have to attach along with a translated version in English or French, for the accuracy of which he is entirely responsible in accordance with Rule 13.

The following details shall be given on this form:

The group, the number and the denomination of each dive according to the FINA diving list.
The manner of take-off (running or standing), only for highboard contests.
The execution of dive-(a) straight, (b) with pike, (c) with tuck.
The height of the board or platform.
The degree of difficulty.

12. Like voluntary dives, the required dives shall not be repeated, and all dives of the same number shall be deemed as the same dive.

13. The competitors shall follow the list of dives, and the dives shall be executed in the order listed on the diving forms by the competitors. Once the closing date has passed, as provided in Rule No. 11, no change shall be permitted in the dives to be performed. Each competitor is entirely responsible for the accuracy of the statements in the list.

14. A competitor is not admitted to the competition unless the list is submitted in time.

15. The referee shall examine the list. In case the statement is not in accordance with the rules, he shall decide before the start of the competition as to whether or how the statement can be corrected. The competitor must be informed of the referee’s decision immediately or at least one hour before the competition.

16. All dives shall be executed by the divers themselves with no assistance from any other person. Any assistance in dives is not allowed.

Question 2.
What are the rules for the execution of the Dive?
Answer:
Rules for the Execution of the dive
Dives shall be executed on the following principles:

1. The starting position shall be free and unaffected. The approach to the starting position shall not be taken into consideration.

2. In the starting position, the competitor stands on the front end of the board or platform, with his body straight, head erect, arms straight and to the sides or above the head. The arm swing commences when the arms leave the starting position. If a competitor fails to assume the correct standing position, each judge shall deduct 1 to 3 points from his award.

The starting position of a running dive shall be assumed when the diver is ready to take the first step of the run. Forward take-off dives from the spring board may be performed either standing or running on the opinion of the diver. A prior declaration of the manner of take-off is not essential. The judge shall award points for a standing dive keeping in view the height and standard of execution.

3. The run should be smooth, straight and unhesitant. In a running dive from the spring board or platform the diver shall take at least four steps, including the take-off from one or both feet. If the diver takes less than four steps, one referee shall deduct two points from the award of each judge.

4. The take-off shall be bold, quite high and confident. In running dive, the take-off from the spring board shall be from both feet simultaneously, but from fixed boards the take-off may be from one foot only. While executing a standing dive, the diver shall not bounce on the board before the take-off.

While executing a running dive, the diver shall not be permitted to stop his run before the end of the board and to make more than one jump on the same spot before the final take-off. If a competitor, preparing for the take-off in backward dives, lifts his feet slightly off the board, it shall not be taken as a bounce but as an involuntary movement, but the judges may make a deduction from their awards according to individual opinion.

If in a dive, the diver touches the end of the board, or dives to the side of the direct line of flight, it indicates, no matter how well the dive may have been executed, that he was quite close to the heal’d for proper execution. Each judge shall decide about the deduction of awards according to his individual opinion.

If, in an Arm Stands Dive, a steady balance in the straight position is not shown, the judges shall deduct 1 to 3 points from the award. If the diver loses his balance of mind and reattempts the dive, he shall receive 2 points less. In case of a strong wind, the referee may give all divers the right to make a second attempt without deduction of points.

5. In all flying somersault dives, a straight position should be clearly shown for nearly half a somersault.

6. In straight dives with one half or full twist, the twisting should not manifestly be done from the board. In pike dives with twist, the twist must not be started until there has been a marked pike position. In somersault dives with twist, the twist may be performed at any time during the dive at the opinion of the diver.

Diving image 1

Protest

In case of any dispute, the protest, in writing, shall be given to the referee.
Protest, the reason of which is already known, shall be lodged before the test of the contest.
No protest can be lodged in respect of marking by the judges.
Decisions regarding protests shall be given by the Jury.
Protest against incidents not covered by these regulations shall be referred to the International Diving Committee of FINA which shall consider them at the earliest.

Important Information About the Diving Game

The arrangement for diving in the deep side of the swimming pool by erecting a board is made.
The order of starting is decided by lot.
All dives are made without a person’s help.
It is essential to get one’s name notified for diving well in time.
The participation only in listed dives is permitted.

Diving image 2

Swimming Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

September 25, 2024September 24, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Swimming Game Rules.

Swimming Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Mention the officials appointed to conduct the swimming competition.
Answer:
Officials for Olympic and International Swimming Competitions and other Swimming Competitions:

Referee – 1
Starter – 1
Chief Time Keeper – 1
Time Keepers – 3 per lane
Chief Judge – 1
Finishing Judges – 3 per lane
Inspectors of Turns – 1
Announcer – 1 each at both ends
Judges of Strokes – 2
Recorder – 1
Clerk of the House – 1

For other competitions, the following minimum officials shall be as under:

Referee – 1
Starter – 1
Time Keepers – 1 per lane
Finishing Judges – 1 per lane
Inspectors of Turns and strokes – 1 per every two lanes
Recorder – 1

Question 2.
Describe the main Rules of swimming?
Answer:
Rules For Swimming
1. The swimmer who obstructs any other swimmer during the swim shall be disqualified.

2. If a foul endangers the chance of success of a swimmer, the judges shall have the right to allow him to complete in the next round. If a foul occurs in the final, the referee can allow him to swim again.

3. On return a competitor shall touch the end of the pool or end of the track with one or both hands. Diving from the bottom of the pool is not allowed.

4. A swimmer who stands on the both shall not be declared disqualified, but he shall not move.

5. Only the swimmer who covers the entire course shall be declared the winner.

6. In relay race, the competitor whose feet have lost touch with the starting block before his or her partner, going ahead of him or her touches the wall, shall be disqualified. If the defaulter returns to original starting point – at the wall, it is not essential to return to the starting platform.

swimming image 1

Question 3.
How heats in swimming competition are organised?
Answer:
Heats and finals in Swimming Competitions
Seeding of Heats and finals:
The heats in all semi-finals and final swimming competitions shall be seeded as follows:

(i) Trial Hit:

(1) The names, the order of time and the competitive time of all entrants are recorded on the admission form which is, then, sent to the competition committee. The competitor who does not get his or her time recorded in the form is listed at the bottom of the list. If there are more than one such competitors, their positions are decided by lots.

(2) The faster swimmer of team is placed in the last heat, the next to him/it is placed in the last but one heat, and so on. In this way, all the swimmers or teams are fixed in various heats.

(3) When the lanes are in odd numbers, the fastest swimmer or team is placed in the central lane; in case there are 6 or 5 lanes, the fastest swimmer or team is placed in third or fourth lane. The next to him/it in speed is placed to the right of the fastest swimmer/team, and in this way, the other swimmers/teams are placed right or left according to their timing. The lane position for the swimmers with equal timing is decided by lots.

Finals:
The lanes are determined in accordance with the above mentioned rule 3 where the starting heats are not required. Where the starting heats have already been over, the lanes are determined according to Rule No. 3.

Question 4.
How many types of swimming competitions are there?
Answer:
Breast Stroke, Butterfly Stroke, Back Stroke, Free Style Swimming

1. Breast Stroke Swimming:
In this type of swimming, the body and breast shall be balanced and both the shoulders shall be above the water level. The actions of hands and feet shall be simultaneous, and they should be in line. Both the hands should move together ahead of the breast inside or above water or backward.

In the action of the legs, the feet should bend from the back forward. Action cannot be like that of a fish. At the time of turning or finishing, both the hands must touch the inside or outside water. A part of the head should remain above the water level.

2. Butterfly Stroke:
In this type of. swimming, both the arms have to be brought together, forward to backward, above the surface of water. The weight of the body should be on the chest and both the shoulders should be in line with the water level. After the first arm stroke after the start of the race, the feet should act together. At the time of finish or touching the ends, both the hands should simultaneously touch. In the initial stage the swimmer is allowed to use leg kicks and arm pull.

3. Back Stroke:
In it, the competitors shall stand, holding the starting grip with the hand and facing the starting end. On the signal they shall swim across the entire course on their backs. The competitor who changes the normal back position shall be declared disqualified. The feet must remain in water. No competitor is allowed to stand in pit.

4. Free Style Swimming:
Free style swimming means any type of swimming. In style or manner, it is different from butterfly stroke, breast stroke or back stroke swimming. In free style swimming, the swimmer need not touch the wall of the tank with his hand while bending and at the time of ending. He may touch it with any part of his body.

Coaching:
No coaching is allowed when swimming or diving is in progress.

Allowing Points:
Points are awarded in this manner – first three positions respectively (5, 3, 1) and in relay races (16, 6, 2) Swimming Competitions at School-level Following types of swimming competitions are held at the school – level:

For Girls:

Free Style – 100, 200 and 400 m.
Back Stroke – 100 m.
Breast Stroke – 100 m.
Butterfly Stroke – 100 m.
Relay – 4 × 100 metre free style.
4 × 100 metre Medley (Breast Back Stroke)

For Boys

Free Style – 100, 200, 400, 800, 1500 m.
Back Stroke – 100, 200 m.
Breast Stroke – 100, 200 m.
Butterfly Stroke – 100 m.
Relay – 4 × 100 mdtre free style.
4 × 100 metre Medley (Breast, Back, Butterfly, Free Style)

Important Information About the Swimming Game

The length of the swimming pool is = 50 Metre
Minimum width of the pool = 21m – 25m
The depth of water in the pool is = 1.8 Metre or above
Which kick is not allowed in Breast stroke = Dolphin
Officials of Swimming = One Referee, one starter. Time keeper for every lane, Finishing judge for every lane.
Inspector of turn and stroke = One for each Iona
Recorder = One
Swimming competition = Breast stroke, Butter¬fly stroke, Back stroke, Free style Relay = 4 × 100 Free style 4 × 400 Metre Medley
In all events of swimming, it is essential for all the swimmers to have physical touch with the end of the swimming pool.
The swimming pool is 50 metre long and minimum 21 metre wide. The depth of water in the swimming pool is 1.8 metre.
There shall be a concession of 0.3 metre above and below the surface of water lengthwise.
In breast-stroke swimming, the swimmer cannot make use of dolphin kick.
No player can use anything which he cannot wear and any such thing as may help increase his swimming pace.
In butterfly stroke, both the arms should be brought together forward to backward simultaneously.
In back stroke swimming, a contestant who change his normal back position is disqualified.
In free style swimming, swimming can be done in any manner or style.
Coaching is not allowed during swimming and diving.
A swimmer cannot use oil or any greasy substance on his or her body during any swimming event.
The swimmer should wear the approved uniform.
The swimmer should always remain in his or her fixed lane. The lanes, made of ropes, shall be 2.5 m. in width. The surface of water should be even, without any movement or turbulation, at the time of the contest.

swimming image 2

Table Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

September 25, 2024September 24, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Table Tennis Game Rules.

Table Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Describe about the Table, Net, Ball and Racket in the game of Table Tennis?
Answer:
Table:
In table tennis, the table used is of rectangular shape. It is 2.74 metres in length and 1.52 metres in width. Its height from the ground is 76 cm. It can be made of any material. A ball when dropped from a height of 30.5 cm. on its surface shall give a bounce of not less than 22 cm. and not more than 25 cm.

table tennis image 1

The surface of the table is known as playing surface. It is of dark green colour. It shall have a 2 cm broad white line along each edge. The lines at the 152.5 cms ends are called End lines, and the lines at the 274 cms. ends are called Side lines. In Doubles, the surface of the table is divided into two parts by a 3 mm. wide white line, which is parallel to the side line and is at an equal distance from it. This is known as the centre line.

table tennis image 2

Net:
The net is 183 cms. in length. Its upper part is at the height of 15.25 cms. from the playing surface. It is tied by a cord to upright high posts of 15.25 cms. The outer limit of each post is 15.25 cms. outside the side line.

Ball:
The ball used in the game is spherical in size. It is made of celluloid or similar plastic but without reflection. Its diameter is not more than 40 mm. and not less than 37.2 mm. Its weight is not less than 2.40 gm. and not more than 2.53 gm.

Rackets:
The racket may be of any size, shape or weight. But its surface should be of dark colour. This game has 21 points.

Question 2.
How is the game of Table Tennis started?
Answer:
Order of Play. In Singles, a server does five services at a stretch whether he gets the score or not, thereafter the service passes on the other player. The other player also gets the right of doing five services. Thus, the service changes after every five services.

In Doubles, the server makes a goods service, then the receiver shall make a goods return. The partner of the server shall make a good service, thereafer, and the partner of the receiver, then, shall make a good return. Thus, turn by turn, each player shall make service and return in that order.

Good Service:
The server places the ball on the palm of his free hand, open and flat, with fingers pressed together and thumb free. Then he shall project the ball in the air and do the service in a manner that the ball remains visible to the judge. Then the ball shall be struck in a way that it touches the server’s court and passes directly over or around the net, and touches the receiver’s court.

In Doubles, the ball shall first touch the server’s right hand, right of court or the central line on the side of the net. Then the ball, passing over or around the net, touches the receiver’s right-half court, or the central line on his side of the net.

Good Return:
After having been served or returned in play, the ball shall be so struck as to pass directly over or around the net. It should touch directly the opponent’s court.

table tennis image 3

Ball in Play:
The ball is in play when it is projected from the hand for service. It shall be deemed to be in play until:

it has touched one court twice successively.
it has touched anything other than the net and supports.
it has been hit by a player more than one successively.
it has touched a player or anything he wears or carries.
in Doubles, it has touched the right half of the server or receiver.

A let:
A ball in play is called rally. A rally may be let if:

The served ball touches the net or its supports.
The service is delivered and the receiver is not yet ready.
A player fails to do good service or return owing to some accident.
The play is stopped for correction of the order of the game or the fault in ends.

Question 3.
How are points scored in the game of Table Tennis?
Answer:
Points:
A player shall lose a point in case:

he fails to deliver good service.
he fails to deliver good return when his opponent has made goods service or return.
he or his racket touches the net when the ball is in play.
his free hand touches the playing surface when the ball is in play.
he returns the ball with volley.
in Doubles, he strikes the ball out of turn.

Game:
A player or pair who scores first 21 points shall win the game. If both the players or pairs score 20 points, then that player or pair shall be the winner who scores 2 points before the other player or pair.

The Choice of Ends and Service

In the game of tennis, the choice of ends and the right to serve first shall be decided by toss. The toss winning player chooses to serve or not to serve first, and the other player chooses the right to end (side).

Change the Ends and Service

The change of ends and service shall be made in the following manner:

In the play, a player or pair who starts a game at one end shall be at the other end in the second game, and so on. This will continue till the end of the match. The ends change when any player or pair score first ten points in the last possible game in a match. In Singles, the service is changed after five points, which means that the server shall become receiver, and recevier shall become server.

In Doubles, the selected partner of the pair shall deliver the first service, and shall be received by the appropriate partner of the opposing pair. The receiver of the first five services shall deliver the second five services. The third five services shall be delivered by the partner of the first receiver. The fourth five services are delivered by the partner of the first receiver and received by the first server. The fifth five services are to be delivered like the first five, and so on. This order will continue till the end of the game.

Out of Order of Ends, Serving or Receiving

In case the players have not changed ends in time, they shall change the ends as soon as the mistake is detected provided the game is not completed. In case the game has been completed, all points scored shall be counted. If a player serves or receives out of turn, the play shall be stopped as soon as the error is detected. The game shall be started again by the server who was serving at the start of the game, or at the time when the score was 10. In such circumstances, the scores made before the error is detected shall be counted.

Important Information About the Table Tennis Game

Types of Table Tennis game = Two (Single & Double)
Size of the Table length & breadth = 274 × 152.5 cm.
The height of the playing floor = 76 cm.
The height of the net from floor = 15.25 cm.
Length of the net = 183 cm.
Weight of the ball = 2.55 gram to 2.7 gram
Circumference of the ball = 40m. m.
Colours of the ball = White
The ball is made of = Celluloid or plastic
The officials of match = One refree, one umpire one scorer, one assistant umpire.
The length of the table in table tennis is 2.74 metres and width 1.52 metres.
The game of table tennis is of two types singles and doubles. In Singles, there are two players, out of which one plays and the other is a substitute.
In Doubles, there are four players, out of which two play and two are substitutes. The game of table tennis is of Eleven points.
In Doubles game, the playing surface is divided into two parts by a 3 cm, wide white line.
The selection of ends (sides) and the right to first serve shall be decided by toss.
The toss winning player chooses to serve, whereas, the other chooses the end (side).
The service is changed after two points in Singles.
In the last possible game, the ends are changed when a player or pair scores ten points.
A match shall include five or seven games.
The lines on the table used in the game should be white in colour.
The remaining part of the table tennis is dark green.

Boxing Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

September 25, 2024September 24, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Boxing Game Rules.

Boxing Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Which type of competitions (according to weight) are held in Boxing.
Answer:
WEIGHT CLASSIFICATION IN BOXING

Light Fly Weight = 48 kg.
Fly Weight = 51 kg.
Bantum Weight = 54 kg.
Feather Weight = 57 kg.
Light Weight = 60 kg.
Light Welter Weight = 63.5 kg.
Welter Weight = 67 kg.
Light Middle Weight = 71 kg.
Middle Weight = 75 kg.
Light Heavy Weight = 80 kg.
Heavy Weight = over 80 kg.
Super Heavy Weight = over 100 kg.

Question 2.
Describe Ring, Rope, Platform, Costumes, Gloves and duration of the bout?
Answer:
Ring:
In all boxing competitions the inside measurement of the ring is from 12 feet 20 feet to (3m. 66 cm to 6m. 10 cm) square. The height from ring floor level to the top rope shall be from 4 feet to 5 feet (lm 22 cm. to 1 m 52 cm.)

Rope:
The ring shall be formed by 2 or 3 sets of ropes covered with linen or with some soft material.

Platform:
The platform shall be erected in a way that it is totally safe, levelled and free from any obstructing projection. It will be constructed on lines of at least 18 inch ropes. It shall have four comer posts constructed in a manner as to prevent any injury.

Under-cover:
The floor shall be covered with an under-cover over which canvas shall be stretched.

Costumes:
Competitors shall do boxing by wearing vests, completely covering chests and backs. They shall wear shorts of reasonable length reaching to mid-tight positions. They shall wear light shoes. Wearing of swimming suits is not allowed. Competitors shall wear distinguishing colours such as red or blue sashes round the waist.

Gloves:
The gloves shall be of standard weight. Each glove shall weigh 8 ounces (227 gms.)

Bandages:
A soft surgical bandage, the length of which does not exceed 8 feet 4 inches (2.5 m) and width 1% inches (4.4 cm.), or a velpean-type banadge, which will not exceed 6 feet 6 inches (2 m.) in length and 1% inches (4.4 cm) in width, may be worn on each hand.

Duration of the Game:
The number and duration of rounds for Senior and Junior competitions shall be as under:

COMPETITIONS

Senior National Level
3-1-3-1-3 – Three rounds of three minutes each after one minute rest in each bout.

Junior National Level
2-1-2-1-2 – Three rounds of two minutes each, one minute rest between each bout.

International Level
2-1-2-1-2-1-2-1-2 – Five rounds of two minutes each and one minute rest between each bout.

Question 3.
What do you know about the Draws, Byes and Walk over in Boxing?
Answer:
The Draw, Byes and Walk Over

1. A draw shall be made for all competitions after taking of weight and doing medical inspection.

2. In those competitions in which there are more than 4 competitors, a sufficient number of byes shall be drawn in the first series to reduce the number of competitors in the second series.

3. The boxers who draw a bye in the first series shall be the first to box in the second series. If there is an odd number of byes, the boxer with the last bye shall compete in the second series against the winner of the first bout in the first series.

4. No player can receive a bye in the first series and a walk-over in the second, or two consecutive walk-overs. In case such a position arises, a fresh draw shall be made of the competitors still in the competition to provide opponents to those competitors who have already received a bye walk-over in the preceding series.

Boxing image 1

Question 5.
Describe any Five Rules in Boxing?
Answer:
Competitions on Boxing
Limitation of Competitors. Only 4 to 8 competitors are allowed to participate in a competition. This rule does not apply to any championship organised by the Association. The club organising the competition has the right to nominate one of its members to compete provided that member does not participate in the competition.

Boxing image 2

Fresh Draw:
If two members of the same club are being drawn together in a series, and if one of them wishes to withdraw in favour of the other, a fresh draw will be made.

Withdrawal:
If a competitor wants to withdraw from the competition after the draw has been made, the official-in-charge will report to the Association.

Retirement:
If any competitor wants to retire from the competition due to any reason, he will have to inform the official-in-charge.

Byes:
Byes that arise after the first series shall be spared for specified time with an opponent approved by the official-in-charge.

Second:
Each competitor is attended by one second. No advice or coaching can be given to a competitor by his second during the progress of a round. But after the round is over, the assistance of the second can be taken for a second within the ring, and the other second can provide the competitor water and other essential items from the outside.

Boxing image 3

Only Water Allowed:
No drink other than water can be given to the competitor immediately prior to or during a bout.

Table – Drawing Bouts and Byes

No.of Entries	Bouts	Byes	No.of Entries	Bouts	Byes
5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12	1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4	3 2 1 – 7 6 5 4	13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20	5 6 7 8 2 2 3 4	3 2 1 – 15 14 13 12

(1) Referee or judge (2) Scoring (3) Foul.

Bouts Control

(1) All competitions and contests shall be controlled by a Referee, three or five Judges and a Time-keeper. The referee shall be in the ring. When the number of judges is less than three, the referee shall complete the scoring paper. The exhibition bouts shall be controlled by Referee.

(2) The referee shall use a score pad or introduction slip to record the names and colours of the boxers. In all such cases in which a bout is terminated due to injury or other cause, the Referee shall record the reason thereof, and hand it over to the official-in-charge.

(3) The time-keeper shall be seated on one side of the ring while the Judges on the remaining three sides. The seats shall be so placed as to offer a satisfactory view of boxing. The Referee shall be solely responsible for the control of the bout, and the judges shall independently award points.

(4) The Referee shall be dressed in white at all major tournaments.

Question 6.
How are bouts conducted in Boxing?
Answer:
Awarding of Points

In all competitions the judges shall award points.
The points shall be recorded on the scoring paper at the end of each round and totalled at the end of the bout. Fractions cannot be taken into account.
Each judge must declare a winner and sign his scoring paper.

The judge’s name shall be written in Block Letters as well as signed on all the scoring slips.

Scoring

1. The boxer who strikes his opponent the greater number of blows shall be awarded 20 points. The other boxer shall receive a lesser number of points in proportion to the number of blows he has struck.

2. When the judge observes that both the boxers have struck equal number of blows, he awards 20 points to each.

3. If the number of points awarded to each boxer at the end of the bout is equal, the judge will award the decision in the favour of the boxer who has done the most leading off, or if equal in this respect, then in favour of the boxer who has shown the better style. If in his opinion, both the boxers are equal in leading-off and style, he will favour the boxer who has shown the better defence.

Definitions:

The above rule is governed by the following definitions:

(A) Scoring Blows:
Blows struck with the knuckle part of the glove on the front or sides of the head or body above the belt.

(B) Non-scoring Blows:

Blows struck while committing any infringement of rules.
Blows on arms and on the back.
Soft blows or “taps” with no force behind them.

(C) Leading-off:
Leading-off means striking first, or attempting to strike first. Any infringement of the rules nullifies the scoring value of a leading-off move.

(D) Defence:
Avoidance ofblows by blocking, parrying, ducking, guarding, side-stepping, etc.

Fouls:
The decision of the judges or the referee in respect of fouls is final. The referee has the power to caution, warn or disqualify for any of the following acts:

Hitting with the open glove, hitting with the inside or butt of the hand, hitting with the wrists, or any part of the glove other than the kunckle part of the closed glove.
Hitting with the elbow.
Hitting below the belt.
Making use of Kidney Punch.
Using the Pivot Blow.
Hitting deliberately on the back of the neck or head.
Striking a competitor when he is down.
Holding the opponent.
Lying on with head or body.
Ducking below the belt in a manner dangerous to the rival.
Butting or using the head dangerously.
Roughing.
Shouldering.
Wrestling.
Intentionally falling down without receiving a blow.
Persistently covering up.
Unfair use of ropes.
Double blows to the ears.

The Break:
When a referee asks the two boxers to break, both of them must step one pace before recommencing the play. A boxer is not allowed to strike his rival on the “break”.

Down and Count:
A boxer is deemed to be down when any part of his body except his feet touches the ground, or when he is outside or partly outside the ropes, or hangs hopelessly on the ropes.

Stopping the Bout:
1. When a referee is of the opinion that a boxer, due to some injury, cannot continue the game, he stops the bout. In such a case, the rival player is declared the winner. The decision to stop the bout in such a case rests with the referee who can seek medical advice, if needed.

2. The referee has the right to stop the bout if he believes that the rival has got defeated or he is unable to continue the play. Failure to resume Bout. In all bouts, any boxer who fails to resume the fight, when there is time, loses the bout.

Break of Rules:
In case of infringement of rules by the competitor or his second, the competitor is liable to disqualification. A competitor who is declared disqualified shall not receive any award.

Suspected Foul:
If the refree suspects the foul which he has not clearly seen, he can consult the judges and give the decision accordingly.

Important Information About the Boxing Game

Type of Ring = Square
The length of ope side = 20 feet
Numbers of Roper = 5
Number of weight = 12
Length of the Patti (Bandage 8′ 4”
Breadth of the Patti (Bandage 1 \(\frac{1}{4}\)” .
The height of the ring from flour = 3′ 4″
Duration of the bout for senior = 3-1-3-1-3 minutes
Duration of the bout for Junior = 2-1-2-1-2
Duration of international competition = 2-1-2-1+2+1+2+1+2
Boxing ring is square in size, each side of which is 20 feet.
The ring has three sets of ropes, the colour of whose one end is blue, and of the other red.
The weight classification for boxing is done in eleven parts.
The weight of gloves should not be over 8 ounces (227 gms.)
The length of the bandage should be 8 feet 4 inches, and width 1 1\(\frac{1}{4}\) inches.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources

September 25, 2024September 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Minerals and Power Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions objectively:

Question 1.
Name the important minerals.
Answer:
Iron ore, manganese, coal, limestone, bauxite are the main minerals of India.

Question 2.
What are the uses of Manganese?
Answer:
Manganese is used in steel making and strengthening steel.

Question 3.
What is the position of India amongst the manganese ore producing countries of the world?
Answer:
India ranks fourth in the world after Brazil, South America and Russia.

Question 4.
Name the position of India amongst the mica producing countries in the world.
Answer:
First position.

Question 5.
Name the state that produces more than half of the total production of Mica.
Answer:
Bihar.

Question 6.
Name the industries in which Mica is used as a raw material.
Answer:
It is used in electrical goods industries.

Question 7.
Which mineral is obtained from Bauxite ore?
Answer:
Aluminium.

Question 8.
What are the uses of Copper?
Or
Cite any two uses of copper.
Answer:
Copper is used for making utensils. It is used in electric goods industries because it is a good conductor of heat.

Question 9.
Name the place and state where maximum gold is produced.
Answer:
Kolar (Karnataka).

Question 10.
In which industry is the limestone used to the maximum?
Answer:
In cement industry.

Question 11.
What is the place of India in coal production in the world?
Answer:
India ranks third after China and U.S.A.

Question 12.
What is the percentage of coal reserves found in Damodar Valley?
Answer:
About three fourth of the total reserves.

Question 13.
Which organisation controls the management of coal production?
Answer:
Coal India Limited (CIL).

Question 14.
Name the four major atomic energy-producing centres.
Answer:

Tarapur-Along the border of Maharashtra, Gujarat.
Rawat Bhata-Near Kota in Rajasthan.
Kalpakkam-Tamil Nadu.
Narora-Near Buland Shahar (U.P.)

Question 15.
What is Wind Energy?
Answer:
The energy produced by windmills and the power of the wind is called wind energy.

Question 16.
Which material is extracted from Bai^adila Mines?
Answer:
Iron ore.

Question 17.
Which mineral is extracted from Kolar Mines?
Answer:
Gold.

Question 18.
What is the other name given to Lignite?
Answer:
Brown coal.

Question 19.
For which work is the ship ‘Sagar Samrat’ used?
Answer:
Sagar Samrat is a mobile drilling platform bought from Japan. It is used for exploring oilfields in coastal areas like Bombay High.

Question 20.
Which energy is derived from Uranium?
Answer:
The atomic energy power source is obtained from Uranium.

II. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the role of minerals in the National Economy.
Answer:
Minerals have an important part to play in the Indian Economy.

There are great possibilities of industrial development due to minerals. Coal and Iron with large reserves form the basis of the machine age.
Mining provides income to states.
Mining provides employment to millions.

Question 2.
Name the Manganese producing states of India.
Answer:
Orissa is the largest producer of Manganese in India. After Orissa, M.P., Maharashtra and Karnataka are the main producers. Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Goa and Bihar also produce Manganese. Orissa has the main mines at Keonjhar, Kalahandi and Mayur Bhanj. Madhya Pradesh has mines at Bala Ghat, Chindwara and Jabalpur.

Question 3.
Name the major Bauxite producing centres.
Answer:
Bauxite deposits are found in many areas of India. Jharkhand, Gujarat and Chhattisgarh are the main producers of Bauxite. Good quality Bauxite is mined in Kolhapur district (Maharashtra).

During the last few years, the Bauxite deposits of Orissa have been developed. The largest aluminium plant of Asia (with a capacity of 8 lakh tonnes alumina and 2.25 lakh tonnes aluminium) has been set up in this state.

Question 4.
Name the copper-producing centres in India
Answer:
Most of the copper of India is mined in Singhbhum (Jharkhand), Balaghat (M.P.), Alwar, Jhunjhnu (Rajasthan). Khaman in Andhra Pradesh, Chitrakoot and Hassan in Karnataka and Sikkim also produce some copper.

Question 5.
What are the causes of the non-availability of minerals in Punjab?
Answer:
Most of Punjab is made up of alluvial soils. It is a flat low land area suitable for agriculture. Minerals were formed in ancient periods in the areas of Igneous and Metamorphic Rocks. Therefore, minerals are not found in alluvial soils of Punjab.

Question 6.
Name the coal-producing centres in India.
Answer:
Three fourth of coal reserves are found in the Damodar Valley. Raniganj, Jharia, Gridihi, Bokaro arrd Karanpura are major coalfields in West Bengal, Jharkhand and Bihar states. Coal is also mined in Singarauli, Suhagpur and Raigarh in Chhattisgarh. Singareni (Andhra Pradesh), Talcher (Orissa) and Chouda (Maharashtra) are other coal fields.

Question 7.
Name the main coal-producing centres in Orissa.
Answer:
Three fourth of coal reserves are found in the Damodar Valley. Raniganj, Jharia, Gridihi, Bokare arrd Karanpura are major coal fields in West Bengal, Jharkhand and Bihar states. Coal is also mined in Singarauli, Suhagpur and Raigarh in Chhattisgarh. Singareni (Andhra Pradesh), Talcher (Orissa) and Chouda (Maharashtra) are other coal fields.

Question 8.
What were the causes of Nationalisation of coal production?
Answer:
The main aims of the Nationalisation of coal industry were’:

To protect labourers.
Planned mining.
To preserve the environment.

Question 9.
Name the non-conventional Sources of Energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional sources are:

Solar power
Wind power
Tidal power
Geothermal power
Trees
Urban Waste.
Power from organic material.

Question 10.
Describe the importance of wind energy in India.
Answer:
Wind power is an unlimited and less expensive source of power. New industries can be set up in isolated areas.

Uses:

Irrigation in rural areas.
Electricity is generated by windmills and is included in the grid system.

Question 11.
What is the role of Indian Government in mining industry?
Answer:
The government provides guidelines in mining. Laws are made according to Mineral Act 1957. The government provides “licences and contracts for mining. The government takes steps for development of mining and changes the rules regarding old contracts.

Question 12.
From which districts of Madhya Fradesh is iron ore extracted?
Answer:
Iron ore is mined in Jabalpur and Balaghat districts. Modern techniques are used in Bailadila Mines (Bastar). Iron ore is exported to Japan.

Question 13.
Name all the institutes associated with exploration, refinement and regional distribution of oil.
Answer:
The organisations are:

Oil and Natural Gas Commission (O.N.G.C.)
Oil India Limited (O.I.L.)
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation (H.P.C.)
Gas Authority of India Limited (G.A.I.L.).

Question 14.
Why is solar energy said to be a future energy reserve?
Answer:
Coal and oil are exhaustible sources of power. These will not last long. On the other hand solar power is an inexhaustible source of power.

It provides unlimited power, when oil and coal will be exhausted, solar power will be used.

Question 15.
What is the importance of natural gas in manure industry?
Answer:
Natural gas is a raw material for fertiliser industry. It helps to increase agriculture production. It is transported to factories through pipe-lines. 1730 K.M. long HBJ gas pipe-lines provide natural gas to 6 fertiliser factories.

Question 16.
What are the problems faced in the regional distribution of Hydroelectric energy in India?
Answer:
The main problems are:

The consumer centres are situated away from bower generating centres. It becomes expensive to layout grid system.
Some part of electricity is lost on the way.
Due to some fault in the grid system electricity supply is stopped.

Question 17.
Describe in brief the importance of mineral reserves in India.
Answer:
India is rich in mineral wealth.

India is especially rich in Iron ore. Iron and coal are the bases of the machine age. India had 1/4th reserves of Iron ore of the world. India has rich reserves as well as good quality iron ore.
India has rich reserves of Manganese which is useful for alloy steel.
India has huge reserves of coal. But coking coal reserves are low. Coal and Iron ore are found adjacent to each other which makes up the deficiency of coking coal.
Limestone is widely found in India.
India is rich in Bauxite (used for aluminium) and Mica (used for electrical goods).

Question 18.
Describe the main iron ore producing centres of India.
Answer:
India has huge iron ore reserves. It is of good quality, namely Haematite and Magnetite iron ore. This has 60 to 70% iron ore content. So it has a great demand in the international market.

Areas: Iron ore is found in many areas. India has, an iron ore reserve of 1757 crore tonnes. One-half of the reserves are found in Singhbhum (Jharkhand) and Keonjhar,

Bonai, Mayurbhanj (Orissa). This is the largest iron ore belt of the world. It is also found in Bihar, Chhattisgarh. Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka states.

Question 19.
Describe efforts made in the field of exploration and refinement of oil in India after independence.
Answer:
Potential oil-bearing area extends over 10 lakh 700 km. in India ; (almost 1/3rd of area of the country). It includes the Ganges-Brahmputra plain, coastal belts, Gujarat plains, Thar Desert and Andaman Nicobar inlands.

Position at the time of Independence. At the time of independence, oil was found only in Assam. Oil refinery was set up at Digboi. It was a small oilfield. But it worked for about 100 years.

Oil-exploration after the independence. Oil exploration was started to meet the growing demand. Oil and natural gas was discovered in off-shore regions of Gujarat and Gulf of Cambay. Oil was found at Bombay (Mumbai) High at a distance of 115 kms from Mumbai coast. At present, it is the largest oilfield of India. A mobile drilling platform ‘Sagar Samrat’ from Japan was used to explore oil. India extended this oil region. New oilfields have been discovered in off-shore regions of deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery. New oil reserves have been found in Assam.

Question 20.
Describe the development in the electrification process in villages after independence.
Answer:
Special attention was paid to the rural electrification after independence. Schemes were launched jointly by States and Electricity Boards. More than 5 lakh villages were electrified till 2000. 98 lakh tube-wells were installed. About 84% of villages were electrified. In Punjab all the villages have been electrified. To supply electricity in areas of scheduled castes and tribes, priority is being given. It will provide a multipurpose development of the villages.

Question 21.
Write in detail about the ‘Power-village Scheme’.
Answer:

Power-village Scheme’ has been started by Govt, of India with the aim of providing power to inaccessible rural areas.
It includes the setting up of Gobar gas plants with the help of organic materials, Gobar, by-products of human waste.
It is being set up at individual, collective and village level.
Bio-gas plants in urban areas are run on the human waste.
In recent years Power-village scheme has been completed in 184 villages. Besides, 222 villages have this scheme at different stages.
A survey of Power in 1680 villages has been completed and a survey of 344 villages is being conducted.

Question 22.
Write about a programme of Smokeless stoves being planned at the national level (Pb. 2004, 10)
Answer:
A special programme of Smokeless Chullahas is being set up at national level. Its main aim is to save fuel and remove the problem of wood-collection by rural women.

Power is mostly used in kitchen. Cow dung and wood is used as fuel. The traditional chullahas consume more fuel and emit more smoke. So this scheme was started in ) December 1983. A smokeless chullah can save 700 kg fuel per year. It saves 20 to 35% fuel-wood. 2.85 crore Smokeless Chullahas had been set up till March 1998. These pollution free chullahas have a bright future.

Question 23.
Describe Solar energy as an inexhaustible source of energy. Which parts of the country can make maximum utilization of solar energy?
Answer:
Solar energy is an unlimited and inexhaustible source of power. It is widely used and has a bright future. Solar energy can be used at a low cost, for water heating, cooking, heating the rooms, making the water lighter and drying up of crops. An area of 2.80 lakh sq. km had been marked as a potential area for the use of Solar energy till March 1993. About 5 lakh Solar cookers had been sold till March 1998.

Potential Areas. The more potential area for the use of Solar energies is Rajasthan. This state gets Solar Heat throughout the year. This energy can be supplied to scattered villages without any problem. It is the source of power for the future.

Question 24.
Write a short note on the progress made in the generation of Hydro¬electricity.
Answer:
Hydel power is a major source of Power. In 1988-89, the total installed capacity of electric power was 4 crore kW in the country. It was twice the developed water power. In 1999-2000, the developed electric power was 97.8 thousand MW units. Besides this 23.8 thousand MW units of water power and 2.7 thousand MW units of atomic power were developed; showing an increase every year.

Electric power houses are widely scattered in the country. The developed power forms a grid. It saves the loss of power. A National Electric Grid is being formed. The power is developed from all the sources. Coal, Gas, oil, water and atomic power will be integrated into a grid.

Question 25.
Describe the peaceful utilisation of atomic energy in India. Also write about the related international pressures due to this.
Answer:
Atomic energy is destructive, but India is using it for peaceful purposes. Atomic energy stations can be set up in areas deficient of other sources, or where these sources cannot meet the demands. India is trying its use. in peaceful purposes like agriculture and medicines.

The rich countries do not want its successful working in developing countries like India. So these countries want an international contro^over its working. So these countries want India to sign an international treaty. India’s argument against it is that it is a discriminating treaty that obstructs the peaceful use of atomic energy in India. Pressure is being mounted on India. India has to face difficulties to get the instruments required for it. The scientists are trying to find substitutes. India achieved a major success when Nuclear Reactor at Rawa Bhata (Rajasthan) was repaired with indigenous techniques. It saves a lot of foreign exchange and Nuclear technology receives a great boost. It is a matter of pride for India.

III. Answer the following questions subjectively:

Question 1.
Describe in detail the main problems which are being faced with the increase in coal production.
Answer:
Coal is the major source of power for industries. It is important for iron and steel, and chemical Industries. India has huge reserves of coal. 3/4th of coal reserves are located in Damodar valley. Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra have also coal fields.

Nationalisation of coal fields. After independence, coal industry has been nationalised. Its main aim is to protect the coal labourers from injustice.

Importance of coal. Light brown coal is of great importance for India. It has been useful for producing electricity and gas. Oil can be obtained from it. Mini thermal plants have been set up near coal fields. The electricity produced thus is connected with national electric grid. It saves time and expenditure both.

Production. In 1951, coal production was 3.5 crore tonnes. Now it has increased to 333.58 million tonnes.

Problems:

There is shortage of high grade coal.
Fire accidents have taken the lives of several labourers.
Coal fields are found at great depth. Its mining is expensive.
The technical development of coal production is slow.

Question 2.
Describe about the progress made by India in development of atomic energy.
Answer:
Thermal power is produced with the use of coal, petroleum and natural gas. These sources are called fossil fuels. These cannot be re-used. Besides these, Atomic fuel and Heavy water is used to generate electricity. Thus, electricity is generated as Hydel power, Thermal power and atomic power. Electricity is used in Agriculture, Industries, transformation and domestic purposes. It is impossible to imagine life without electricity.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources 1
In 1999-2000, the total production of electricity was 897.8 thousand MW. It included 74.9% as thermal power, 23.5% a Hydel power and 1.60% as atomic power. The share of thermal power has increased rapidly. The installed capacity was 81.8 thousand MW in 1994-95. During eighth five year plan (1992-97), the target was to increase it by 30,858 MW. But during the first four years only 14,799 MW Or 48% has been increased. Thus there is a great difference in potential and developed power in India.

Question 3.
Write about the importance and development of non conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional sources of energy. Today non-conventional sources of energy include wind, tides, geothermal heat, biogas, farm and animal waste including human excreta. All these sources are renewable or inexhaustible. They are inexpensive in nature.

These sources include the following:
1. Wind energy. It can be used for pumping water. It is used in irrigating farms in the countryside. Also, it can be used for generating electricity. It is estimated that wdnd alone can provide 2000 MW of electricity. The states of Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Orissa are better placed in regard to this energy. Areas with constant and high speed winds are suitable for the purpose.

2. Tidal energy. This is another inexhaustible and inexpensive source of energy. The Gulfs of Kutch and Cambay are ideally suited to develop electricity from the energy produced by high tides entering into narrow creeks.

3. Geo-thermal energy. India is not rich in this source. However, efforts are being made to utilize natural energy of the hot springs at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh. Energy so produced can be used for running cold storage plants.

4. Energy from urban waste. A pilot plant for demonstration purposes had already been set up in Delhi to treat solid municipal waste for conversion into energy. It produces nearly 4 MW energy every jmar. Sewage in cities is used for generating gas and electricity.

5. Biogas based power plants. Biogas, farm wastes, rice husk are being used to produce electricity.

6. Farm animal and human wastes (Urja Gram). By using biogas, animal, poultry wastes and human excreta, gobar gas plants are being set up in villages. The power so produced is used for cooking, lighting homes and streets and meeting irrigation needs of the village. The plants are being set up both at individual and community or village levels. Nearly 3 million smokeless chullahas are in operation. This saves nearly 2 million tonnes of firewood.

7. Solar Energy. It is the most abundant, cheapest and inexhaustible source of energy produced from sunlight. Solar cookers are used in cooking food. Solar power is being used for cooking, water heating, water desalination, space heating, crop drying. Solar energy is going to be the energy of the future.

Question 4.
What is the importance of electricity in the industrialisation of country?
Or
Explain the role of energy in the industrialization of the country.
Answer:
Electricity is important for the development of industries in India.

Industries are run with the help of machines that use electricity.
Electricity is generated from coal, water and atomic energy.
Some power is obtained from non-conventional sources.
Coal is a raw material also which is used in Iron and Steel industry.
Coal and lignite provide more than 60 per cent of the needs of our country.
The exploitation of oil has increased in industries.
Natural gas is used in fertilizer industry.

IV. Show/Mark the following on the map of India:

Question 1.
(i) Iron-ore producing areas
(iii) Manganese producing areas
(iii) Coal producing areas
(iv) Centres of Atomic energy
(v) Iron producing areas of Damodar Valley
(vi) Four major reserves of Bauxite
(vii) Gold producing areas in Koiar
(viii) Lignite coal-producing areas
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources 2

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Minerals and Power Resources Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line:

Question 1.
Which is the hardest mineral?
Answer:
Diamond.

Question 2.
Name one example of a ferrous mineral.
Answer:
Iron.

Question 3.
Name two Non-ferrous minerals.
Answer:
Bauxite, Copper.

Question 4.
Which is the best quality iron ore?
Answer:
Magnetite.

Question 5.
Name a mineral in which India is deficient.
Answer:
Copper.

Question 6.
Name the largest iron ore producing state.
Answer:
Jharkhand.

Question 7.
Name an industry in which limestone is used.
Answer:
Cement.

Question 8.
Name a conventional source of energy.
Answer:
Coal.

Question 9.
Name the best quality coal.
Answer:
Anthracite.

Question 10.
Where is lignite coal found?
Answer:
Neyvelli.

Question 11.
Name an offshore oilfield.
Answer:
Mumbai High.

Question 12.
Name a nuclear power station in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Kalpakkam.

Question 13.
Name a solar plant in India.
Answer:
Madhopur.

Question 14.
Why have the minerals become more important in Modern age?
Answer:
Due to scientific research and technological development.

Question 15.
How can you say that India is rich in basic minerals?
Answer:
India is rich in Manganese ore to make the best quality of steel. India is also rich in Bauxite and Mica.

Question 16.
How is the distribution of minerals unequal in India?
Answer:
North Eastern plateau of India is considered as one of the rich mineral areas of the world, others have no minerals.

Question 17.
Why is North Eastern plateau considered as a gift in the industrial development?
Answer:
Good quality of iron ore is found in North Eastern plateau.

Question 18.
In which two states of India iron ore is found? Name one mine of these two states.
Answer:
Iron ore is found in the states of Bihar and Orissa in India. Iron ore is mined at Singhbhum in Jharkhand and Keonjhar in Orissa.

Question 19.
Which four ports export Iron ore? Which country is the main importer of our iron ore?
Answer:
The four ports exporting iron ore are—Kolkata, Vishakhapatnam, Goa and Paradip.

Question 20.
Name any two districts of Jharkhand where iron ore is found.
Answer:
Iron ore is found in the districts of Raigarh and Bilaspur in Jharkhand.

Question 21.
Name four mines of Manganese ore in Orissa.
Answer:
The four mines of Manganese ore situated in Orissa are Keonjhar, Kalahandi, Mayurbhanj and Talchir.

Question 22.
In which state of India Mica is mostly found? Name two other mica producing states.
Answer:
Mica is mostly found in the state of Jharkhand in India. The other two mica producing states are Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Question 23.
Name two main Bauxite producing states.
Answer:
The two main bauxite producing states are Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh.

Question 24.
In which state copper is mainly found? Name two mines situated there.
Answer:
Copper is mainly found in Jharkhand. Its two mines are situated at Singhbhum and Hazaribagh.

Question 25.
Name four main coal mines of India.
Answer:
The four main coal mines of India are Raniganj, Jharia, Giridih and Bokaro.

Question 26.
Which was main oil producing state in India before independence? In which other states oil is mined in modern times?
Answer:
Assam was the main oil producing state in India before independence. Gujarat and (Bombay High) Maharashtra are other states in which oil is mined.

Question 27.
Name the atomic minerals found in India. In which states are they found? ‘
Answer:
Uranium is found in Bihar. Beryllium is found in Rajasthan. There is a huge reserve of mineral (Thorium) sand along the coast of Kerala.

Question 28.
Which atomic centres are w orking today in India.? Which is the oldest one?
Answer:
Tarapur, Rana Pratap Sagar Dam and Kalpakkam.

Question 29.
How many atomic energy centres are there in India?
Answer:
As per 2016, India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation at seven cities.

Question 30.
Which is the oldest Atomic Power Centre in India?
Answer:
Tarapur Atomic PowTer Station. (T.A.P.S.)

Question 31.
For which two peaceful purposes is atomic energy used in India? For which purpose it may be used in the future?
Answer:
India is using atomic energy for making medicines and improving the quality of seeds. It may be used for making water reservoirs, changing the course of rivers and developing mineral wealth.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Khetri is famous for________
Answer:
cooper

Question 2.
Singhbhum is famous for__________
Answer:
iron ore

Question 3.
Oil is drilled at __________
Answer:
Digboi

Question 4.
Tamilnadu has ______________atomic plant.
Answer:
Kalpakkam

Question 5.
Iron is a __________ mineral.
Answer:
ferrous

Question 6.
Hirakud dam is___________metre long and__________metre high.
Answer:
48,00 metres, 61 metres

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which is the hardest mineral?
(a) Diamond
(b) Granite
(c) Basalt
(d) Galbro.
Answer:
(a) Diamond

Question 2.
Which is a ferrous mineral?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Iron
(c) Mica
(d) Coal.
Answer:
(b) Iron

Question 3.
Which mine is famous for copper?
(a) Bastar
(b) Khetri
(c) Nellore
(d) Jharia.
Answer:
(b) Khetri

Question 4.
Gold is mined at
(a) Shimoga
(b) Chittradrug
(c) Koiar
(d) Bellary.
Answer:
(c) Koiar

Question 5.
Jharia is famous for:
(a) Oil
(b) Coal
(c) Gas
(d) Atomic energy.
Answer:
(b) Coal

True /False:

Question 1.
T.A.P.S. was the first commercial nuclear power station built in India.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Limestone is an example of metallic mineral.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Anthracite is the best quality coal.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Madhopur is atomic energy plant.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Kalapakkam is in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
True.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the production and distribution of iron ore.
Answer:
India has about 25% of the iron ore reserves in the world. According to one estimate, India has 2,100 crore tons of iron ore reserves.

Production. The output of iron ore in India has greatly increased during the past few years. In 1957 India produced only 40 lakh tonnes of iron ore but in 2011-12 the output touched 90 Million tonnes.

Distribution. The maximum quantity of iron ore (40%) in India is mined in Orissa. Jharkhand is the second-largest producer of iron ore. The other important iron ore producing areas are Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan.

Question 2.
Name the four important mineral regions of India and also give the names of important minerals found in each region.
Answer:
Four important mineral regions of India are given below:

Chhota Nagpur in Bihar and Northern Orissa. It is a very well developed mineral region. Iron and coal are found in this region.
There are vast reserves of minerals in central Rajasthan. This region is being developed. Copper, lead, zinc and mica are found in this region.
Southern India is very important for minerals. Goa, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are included in this region. Iron ore and lignite are found in this region.
This region consists of southern Madhya Pradesh and eastern Maharashtra. Iron ore and manganese are found in this region.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of hydroelectricity over other sources of energy?
Answer:
There are four main sources of energy—coal, petroleum, hydroelectricity and atomic energy. Hydroelectricity has special importance as source of energy. It has the following advantages:

Coal and petroleum deposits will be exhausted sooner or later but the rivers will continue flowing for thousands of years and so long as the rivers flow there will be no dearth of hydroelectricity.
While producing hydroelectricity water is not lost. Hydroelectricity is produced by moving turbines with the help of fast-flowing water. The water is afterwards used for irrigation.
It is not easy to transport coal or petroleum from one place to another and it costs a lot but hydroelectricity can be taken hundreds of kilometres away by wires only.
Hydroelectricity is cheaper than coal or petroleum.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of iron in modern age? Give a detailed account of the production of iron ore in different parts of India. Also describe the total production and reserves of iron ore in our country.
Answer:
Iron has great importance in the modern age. It is the foundation stone of industry. There cannot be any economic progress in any country without iron. All the machinery used in the factories is made of iron. It is used for making railways, aeroplanes and ships. Iron has more strength as compared to other metals and it is also cheaper.

Regional distribution. Iron in India is found in the regions given below:

Orissa. The largest quantity of iron ore in India ns produced in Orissa. The chief
districts producing iron ore in this state are Mayurbhunj, Bonai, Sambalpur and Cuttack, Gurumathasani, Badampahar and Sulaipet are the chief iron ore mines in this state.
Jharkhand and Bihar. Jharkhand and Bihar are the second most important iron producers in India. The highest amount of iron ore is produced in Singhbhum, Hazaribagh and Shahabad districts.
Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. These two states have the third position as producer of iron ore. The ore is mainly produced in the districts of Jabalpur, Bilaspur, Raigarh, Durg and Balaghat.
Karnataka. Karnataka is the 4th important producer of iron ore in India. Cudoor
district is well-known for production of iron ore in this state. The iron ore is mined at Kamengudi in Baba Budhan hills. Iron is also mined in Sindur and Sheetal Durg districts.

Production. There has been a great increase in the production of iron ore during the last few years. In 1956, India produced only 40 lakh tonnes of iron ore but in 2011-12 India produced 900 lakh tonnes of iron ore. In terms of money, it will come to 95 crores of rupees.

Reserves. There are 2,100 crore tonnes of iron ore reserves in India. This is about 25% of the iron ore reserves in the world.

Question 2.
Describe the mineral wealth and power resources of India.
Or
Where are the following minerals found in India? What is their importance? — Coal, Iron, Manganese, Bauxite, Mineral oil, Copper and Mica.
Answer:
Mineral wealth has great importance for every country. No country can run its industry without mineral wealth. India is fairly rich in mineral wealth. The following minerals are the chief minerals found in India.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources 3
1. Coal. Coal is an important mineral. It is a big source of energy. Most of the coal in the country is used in Industry. Main coal mines are situated in Bihar. Besides, there are coal mines at Jharia and Raniganj. In 2010-11, India produced 333.58 million tonnes of coal. India exports a small quantity of coal.

2. Iron. Iron is considered as foundation of industrialisation. There are huge deposits of iron in India. The chief mines of iron ore are in Singhbhum (Bihar), Mayurbhunj, Keonjhar, Bonai (Orissa) and Salem (Tamil Nadu). Iron is also found in Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. India exports some of its iron ore to Japan. This iron ore deposits of India are estimated to be 78,000 lakh tonnes. India can depend on its iron ore deposits for a long time to come. In 2010-11 India produced 90 million tonnes of iron ore.

3. Manganese. India is the third largest producer of manganese in the world. India produces about 20% of the world production of manganese.Russia and Brazil lead the world in the production of manganese. In India the chief producers of manganese are Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Jharkhand and Bihar. Manganese is used for making steel from iron but this industry is not fully developed and India exports a large quantity of manganese. The manganese in India is of high quality. It is exported to U.S.A. and U.K.

4. Mica. Mica is a costly mineral. It is used in the manufacture of gases and electrical goods. India is the largest producer of mica in the world. It produces about 75% of the world output of mica. It is mainly produced in Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh. A small quantity of mica is also produced in Rajasthan. India exports mica to Britain, France, U.S.A., Japan, Italy, Canada-and Australia.

5. Bauxite. It is used for making aluminium. Aluminium is used for making railway coaches, buses, aeroplanes, electrical goods, utensils, paints etc. It is also used for refining petroleum, making cement and many other chemical products. India is self-sufficient in the productionof bauxite. Bauxite in India is produced in Bihar, Jharkhand, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Orissa and Jammu and Kashmir states.

6. Mineral Oil. Mineral oil is very important in the modern age. It is not only a source of energy but also a raw material for many industrial products. Petroleum is used for running trains, buses, ships, aeroplanes etc. When mineral oil is refined it leaves behind many type of products like wax, mobil oil, grease, etc. Most of the mineral oil in India is produced in Assam. The chief centres of oil production in Assam are Makum, Digboi, Nihar Khatia and Badurpur. Oil is also produced near Ankleshwar in Gujarat and Bwibay High near Mumbai sea coast. The production of oil in India is much less than its requirements hence India has to import petroleum from other countries. India produces only 20% of her oil requirements.

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत

September 23, 2024September 22, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Welcome Life Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Guide हमदर्दी और हिमायत Textbook Questions and Answers

अभ्यास के प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
संवेदनशील मुद्दों से आपका क्या अभिप्राय है?
उत्तर-
संवेदनशील मुद्दे वे मुद्दे हैं जो गंभीर मुद्दों से जुड़े हैं और इसका हल हर किसी के लिए संभव नहीं है। उन्हें हल करने के लिए बहुत सूझ-बूझ की आवश्यकता होती है। उदाहरण के लिए किसी भी परिवार के व्यक्तिगत मुद्दे या किसी भी समाज के धार्मिक और भाषाई मुद्दे।

प्रश्न 2.
संवेदनशील मुद्दों को हल करने के लिए स्कूल काऊंसलर ने किन बिंदुओं पर सुझाव दिया था?
उत्तर-
स्कूल के काऊंसलर खुशमिंदर सिंह ने छात्रों से कहा कि संवेदनशील मुद्दों को आसानी से हल नहीं किया जा सकता। इसलिए निम्नलिखित बातों को ध्यान में रखा जाना चाहिए

किसी व्यक्ति में सहनशीलता, धैर्य, उचित ज्ञान, अच्छी भाषा इत्यादि गुण होने चाहिएं। इसके साथ ही निश्चित रूप से मुद्दे के मूल कारण को जानना चाहिए, प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को ध्यान से सुनना चाहिए और
सूझ-बूझ से एक ठोस निर्णय लेना चाहिए।
निर्णय किसी पर थोपा नहीं जाना चाहिए, लेकिन एक ऐसा माहौल बनाया जाना चाहिए ताकि दूसरे संवेदनशील मुद्दे को हल करने के आपके निर्णय को समझें।
सबसे पहले खुद को उस स्थिति में रखें जिसमें कोई और है।
ऐसे मुद्दों को खुलेआम उछालना नहीं चाहिए बल्कि एक कमरे में बैठकर गुपचुप तरीके से हल करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 3.
प्रिंसीपल ने विद्यार्थियों की यह कमेटी क्यों बनाई?
उत्तर-
प्रिंसीपल ने बताया कि कई नाजुक मुद्दे ऐसे होते हैं, जिसके लिए काफी विचार-विमर्श की आवश्यकता होती है और अकेले उनका हल नहीं किया जा सकता। ऐसे मुद्दों को प्रत्येक व्यक्ति हल नहीं कर सकता। इसलिए सूझ-बूझ की ज़रूरत होती है। इसलिए प्रिंसीपल ने विद्यार्थियों की एक कमेटी बनाई ताकि सभी इकट्ठे होकर नाजुक मुद्दों को हल कर सकें।

पाठ पर आधारित प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
आपकी माँ क्या कार्य करती हैं?
उत्तर-
मेरी माँ ऑफिस जाती हैं और घर का सारा काम खुद करती हैं। वह हमारे लिए खाना बनाती हैं, कपड़े धोती हैं, घर की सफाई करती हैं और परिवार के सभी सदस्यों की ज़रूरतों का ख्याल रखती हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
वह कौन-से काम हैं जो आपके पिता जी करते हैं?
उत्तर-
मेरे पिता जी भी दफ्तर जाते हैं। वह सुबह मुझे और मेरे भाई की तैयार होने में मदद करते हैं। बाज़ार से घर की ज़रूरतों की चीजें लाते हैं। वह मेरी और मेरे भाई की पढ़ाई में मदद करते हैं और माता जी की कई कामों में मदद करते हैं जैसे कि फल काटना, सब्जियां काटना आदि।

प्रश्न 3.
आप अपनी माँ के साथ किन कामों में हाथ बटाएंगे?
उत्तर-
सबसे पहले मैं उन्हें घर को साफ रखने में मदद करूंगा। हम घर में गंदगी नहीं फैलाएंगे और सब कुछ यथावत रखेंगे। हम उन्हें कपड़ों को सुखाने और अन्य छोटे काम करने में मदद करेंगे।

प्रश्न 4.
आप अपने पिता के साथ किन कामों में हाथ बटाएंगे?
उत्तर-
हम अपनी पढ़ाई स्वयं करेंगे, सूखे कपड़े संभालने में उनकी मदद करते हैं। बाज़ार से घर का ज़रूरी सामान लाकर देंगे ताकि जब वे दफ्तर से थक कर वापस आएं तो कुछ समय आराम कर सकें।

गतिविधि-1

प्रश्न-
आप क्या चाहते हैं कि एक वर्ष के बाद आपके पास क्या-क्या सुविधाएं हों?
उत्तर-
एक वर्ष के बाद मैं चाहता हूँ

अध्ययन करने के लिए एक अच्छा स्मार्टफोन होना चाहिए।
एक अच्छा लैपटॉप और इंटरनेट कनैक्शन होना चाहिए ताकि मेरी ऑनलाइन कक्षाएं आसानी से चलें।
एक कार हो ताकि मैं अपने माता-पिता के साथ घूम सकू।
चौबीस घंटे बिजली की आपूर्ति हो।

गतिविधि-2

प्रश्न-चित्र को देखें, यहाँ और कुल दस चीजें हैं। इनमें से एक ऐसी चीज़ चुनें जो बाकी सभी नौं चीज़ों का कार्य करे।
PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत 1
उत्तर-
इन सभी चीजों में से मैं स्मार्टफोन रखना पसंद करूँगा जो हमारी कई ज़रूरतों को पूरा करता है। हम टी०वी० देख सकते हैं, टैलीफोन, सुन सकते हैं, लेखांकन कर सकते हैं, अलार्म लगा सकते हैं, समय देख सकते हैं, फोटो क्लिक कर सकते हैं, और वीडियो बना सकते हैं। इसके साथ ही यह कंप्यूटर का सारा काम कर सकता है।

गतिविधि-3

प्रश्न 1.
इस बंद मुट्ठी में संवेदनशील मुद्दे हैं। नीचे चित्र में खुले हाथ की पांच उंगलियों में पांच संवेदनशील मुद्दे लिखो।
PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत 2
उत्तर-
पाँच संवेदनशील मुद्दे हैं
(क) धार्मिक मुद्दे
(ख) भाषाई मुद्दे
(ग) परिवार से जुड़े मुद्दे
(घ) सामाजिक मुद्दे
(ङ) महिला सुरक्षा के मुद्दे।

प्रश्न 2.
मद्री को बंद रखना काऊंसलर साहिब की किस शिक्षा की तरफ इशारा करता है?
PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत 3
उत्तर-
स्कूल काऊंसलर का विचार था कि सभी मुद्दों को बहुत सावधानी से हल किया जाना चाहिए। उन्होंने कहा कि संवेदनशील मुद्दों को हल करने के लिए बहुत धैर्य, उचित भाषा और ज्ञान की आवश्यकता होती है। इसके साथ-साथ मुद्दे के मूल कारण के बारे में जानने की ज़रूरत है, दूसरों की बात को सम्मानपूर्वक सुनें और सूझ-बूझ के साथ निर्णय लें। निर्णय किसी पर थोपा नहीं जाना चाहिए।

Welcome Life Guide for Class 10 PSEB हमदर्दी और हिमायत Important Questions and Answers

वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

(क) बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
समाज में रहते हुए हम सबसे सम्मानपूर्वक व्यवहार करते हैं तो यह किस प्रकार का गुण है?
(a) संवेदनशीलता
(b) सम्मान
(c) घृणा
(d) हमदर्दी।
उत्तर-
(a) संवेदनशीलता।

प्रश्न 2.
वेदना शब्द का अर्थ है
(a) सामूहिक दर्द को समझना
(b) अपने निजी दुःख
(c) समाज का दुःख
(d) समाज का सुख।
उत्तर-
(b) अपने निजी दुःख।

प्रश्न 3.
संवेदना का अर्थ है
(a) अपने निजी दुःख
(b) समाज का दुःख
(c) सबका सामूहिक दर्द समझना
(d) समाज का सुख।
उत्तर-
(c) सबका सामूहिक दर्द समझना।

प्रश्न 4.
इनमें से कौन-सा हम में लिंग संवेदनशीलता न होने का सूचक है?
(a) माता-पिता का अपने बहन या भाई को अधिक प्यार करना
(b) कक्षा में लड़की को मॉनिटर बनाना
(c) (a) और (b) दोनों
(d) कोई नहीं।
उत्तर-
(c) (a) और (b) दोनों।

प्रश्न 5.
……………. जीवन जीने के लिए आवश्यक हैं।
(a) कामनाएं
(b) नफ़रत
(c) ईर्ष्या
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।
उत्तर-
(a) कामनाएं।

प्रश्न 6.
जीवन जीने के लिए क्या सबसे अधिक आवश्यक है?
(a) रोटी
(b) कपड़ा
(c) मकान
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।
उत्तर-
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।

प्रश्न 7.
हमें सामाजिक कल्याण के लिए क्या करना चाहिए?
(a) पेड़ बचाओ
(b) नशे न करना
(c) पर्यावरण बचाओ
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।
उत्तर-प्
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।

प्रश्न 8.
प्रिंसीपल ने कितने बच्चों को अपने दफ्तर में बुलाया?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16.
उत्तर-
(c) 14.

प्रश्न 9.
संवेदनशील मुद्दे को हल करने के लिए क्या आवश्यक है?
(a) धैर्य
(b) उचित ज्ञान
(c) मूल कारण का पता होना
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।
उत्तर-
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।

(ख) खाली स्थान भरें

……………. स्कूल का काऊंसलर था।
स्कूल के ………….. ने 14 शिक्षकों की एक कमेटी बनाई।
व्यक्ति की कम …………… इच्छाएं होनी चाहिएं।
मानवीय जीवन में ………….. ज़रूरी है।
इस दुनिया का हर व्यक्ति ……………. है।
विद्यार्थी जीवन में …………… का विशेष महत्त्व है।

उत्तर-

खुशमिंदर सिंह,
मुख्य अध्यापक,
इच्छाएं,
बदलाव,
अद्वितीय,
मित्रता।

(ग) सही/ग़लत चुनें

जीवन में परिवर्तन आवश्यक नहीं है।
विद्यार्थी के जीवन में मित्रता का कोई स्थान नहीं है।
प्रत्येक व्यक्ति एक-दूसरे से अलग होता है।
संवेदनशील मुद्दों को हल करने के लिए समझदारी की आवश्यकता होती है।
प्रत्येक व्यक्ति में संवेदनशीलता होती है।

उत्तर-

ग़लत,
ग़लत,
सही,
सही,
सही।

(घ) कॉलम से मेल करें

कॉलम-I — कॉलम-II
(a) वेदना — (i) मित्रता
(b) संवेदना — (ii) निजी दुःख
(c) रोटी, कपड़ा, मकान — (iii) सामूहिक दर्द समझना
(d) संवेदनशील मुद्दा — (iv) जीवन की आवश्यकताएं
(e) छात्र जीवन उत्तर — (v) धार्मिक मुद्दा।
उत्तर-
कॉलम-I — कॉलम-II
(a) वेदना — (i) मित्रता
(b) संवेदना — (ii) निजी दुःख
(c) रोटी, कपड़ा, मकान — (iii) सामूहिक दर्द समझना
(d) संवेदनशील मुद्दा — (iv) जीवन की आवश्यकताएं
(e) छात्र जीवन — (v) धार्मिक मुद्दा

अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
संवेदनशीलता का गुण क्या है?
उत्तर-
समाज में रहते हुए, जब हम दूसरों के साथ सम्मानपूर्वक व्यवहार करना चाहते हैं, तो इसे संवेदनशीलता का गुण कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
वेदना शब्द का सीमित अर्थ क्या है?
उत्तर-
वेदना शब्द का सीमित अर्थ है अपना निजी दुःख।

प्रश्न 3.
संवेदना शब्द का व्यापक अर्थ क्या है?
उत्तर-
संवेदना शब्द का व्यापक अर्थ है सभी के सामूहिक दुःख को समझना।

प्रश्न 4.
हमें अपने भाई-बहनों से क्या शिकायत है?
उत्तर-
कि माता-पिता उनसे अधिक प्यार करते हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
स्कूल में लड़कों को क्या शिकायत है?
उत्तर-
कि लड़कियों को कक्षा में मॉनिटर बनाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 6.
लड़के और लड़कियों के काम अलग-अलग किसने बनाए?
उत्तर-
इसे प्रकृति ने नहीं बल्कि समाज ने खुद तय किया है कि वे क्या काम करेंगे।

प्रश्न 7.
जीवन जीने की मूल आवश्यकता क्या है?
उत्तर-
जीवन जीने की मूल आवश्यकता रोटी, कपड़ा और मकान है।

प्रश्न 8.
जीवन जीने के लिए क्या आवश्यक है?
उत्तर-
जीवन जीने के लिए आवश्यकताएं और आकांक्षाएं आवश्यक हैं।

प्रश्न 9.
हम अपने समाज की सेवा कैसे कर सकते हैं?
उत्तर-
पर्यावरण और पेड़ों को बचाकर और खुद को ड्रग्स से बचाकर, हम अपने समाज की सेवा कर सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 10.
हम कम संसाधनों में अपनी बढ़ती ज़रूरतों को कैसे पूरा कर सकते हैं?
उत्तर-
कम आकांक्षाओं को सीमित रखकर, हम कम संसाधनों में अपनी बढ़ती ज़रूरतों को पूरा कर सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
प्रिंसीपल ने सुबह की सभा में क्या कहा?
उत्तर-
उन्होंने छात्रों से कहा कि वे कल के समाज के प्रभारी होंगे। इसलिए उन्हें ज़िम्मेदारियों को निभाना सीखना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 12.
कितने छात्रों की प्रिंसीपल सर ने एक समिति बनाई और क्यों?
उत्तर-
प्रधानाचार्य सर ने संवेदनशील मुद्दों को हल करने के लिए 14 छात्रों की एक समिति बनाई।

प्रश्न 13.
किसी भी संवेदनशील मुद्दे को हल करने के लिए क्या आवश्यक है?
उत्तर-
धैर्य, उचित ज्ञान और किसी भी संवेदनशील मुद्दे को हल करते समय दूसरों को ध्यान से सुनें।

प्रश्न 14.
अच्छे आपसी रिश्तों के लिए क्या आवश्यक है?
उत्तर-
अच्छे रिश्तों के लिए आवश्यक है कि हम दूसरों को उनके असली व्यक्तित्व के रूप में स्वीकार करना सीखें।

प्रश्न 15.
विद्यार्थी के जीवन में क्या महत्त्वपूर्ण है?
उत्तर-
विद्यार्थी के जीवन में मित्रता का बहुत महत्त्व है।

प्रश्न 16.
मानव जीवन में प्रमुख समस्या क्या है?
उत्तर-
हम चाहते हैं कि प्रत्येक कोई हमारी इच्छा के अनुसार जीवन जिए।

लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
वेदना और संवेदना के बारे में विस्तार से बताएं।
उत्तर-
हम समाज में रहते हैं और दूसरों के साथ सम्मानपूर्वक व्यवहार करते हैं। यह इसलिए है क्योंकि हम में संयम का गुण है। हम सभी के साथ समान व्यवहार करते हैं। इसलिए लड़कों और लड़कियों, पुरुषों और महिलाओं को समान रूप से एक-दूसरे के साथ व्यवहार करना आवश्यक है। यहां हमें वेदना और संवेदना का अर्थ मिलता है। वेदना का सीमित अर्थ किसी का अपना दर्द है और संवेदना का व्यापक अर्थ सबके सामूहिक दर्द को समझना है।

प्रश्न 2.
लड़के और लड़कियों का कैसे अच्छा विकास हो सकता है?
उत्तर-
बच्चे अपने माता-पिता के लिए कई काम करते हैं। चाहे वह लड़का हो या लड़की, दोनों को सामूहिक रूप से माता-पिता के साथ काम करना चाहिए। लेकिन यह जरूरी नहीं है कि समाज ने लड़के-लड़कियों के लिए जो अलग-अलग काम बांटे हैं, वे केवल वही काम करेंगे। उनके काम बदले भी जा सकते हैं। समाज ने अपना “दृष्टिकोण दिया है जिसे बदला जा सकता है। यदि इस दृष्टिकोण को निर्धारित भूमिकाओं के साथ बदल दिया जाएगा, तो निश्चित रूप से लड़के और लड़कियां को बेहतर तरीके से विकास कर सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
हमारे जीवन में आकांक्षाओं का क्या महत्त्व है?
उत्तर-
हमारे जीवन में आकांक्षाओं का बहुत महत्त्व है। जीवन जीने के लिए आवश्यकताएं और आकांक्षाएं बहुत आवश्यक हैं। आकांक्षाओं के अभाव में कोई कुछ नहीं कर सकता। लेकिन आकांक्षाएं सीमित होनी चाहिएं अन्यथा वे हमारे लिए समस्याएं पैदा करेंगी। निश्चित रूप से उन्हें सीमित रखने की आवश्यकता है। जिस प्रकार जीवन के लिए भोजन, वस्त्र और आश्रय की आवश्यकता होती है, उसी प्रकार एक अच्छा जीवन भी जो केवल इच्छाओं की पूर्ति के साथ ही हो सकता है।

प्रश्न 4.
प्रिंसीपल साहिब ने सुबह की सभा में क्या कहा?
उत्तर-
सुबह की सभा में प्रिंसीपल साहिब ने छात्रों से कहा कि वे कल के समाज के इंचार्ज (Incharge) होंगे। इसलिए उन्हें अपनी जिम्मेवारी सीखनी चाहिए। उन्होंने दस छात्रों के नाम पूछे जिन्हें लगता है कि वे अपने दोस्तों की व्यक्तिगत और पारिवारिक समस्याओं को हल कर सकते हैं। उस समय 14 छात्र आगे आए और उनके लिए ताली बजाई गई।

प्रश्न 5.
छात्रों ने क्या समस्याएं बताईं?
उत्तर-

एक बच्चे ने बताया कि उसके घर पर बिना किसी कारण तनाव रहता है।
एक लड़की ने कहा कि उसके पड़ोस के दो लड़के उसके बारे में गलत टिप्पणी करते हैं।
एक अन्य लड़के ने बताया कि उसके सामने कक्षा में एक छोटे लड़के को बड़े लड़कों द्वारा छेड़ा गया है और उसके साथ दुर्व्यवहार किया गया।
एक अन्य लड़की ने कहा कि उसकी गली में लोगों के अवैध संबंध हैं जो अक्सर उनके घर में झगड़े की वजह बनते हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
मानव जीवन की प्रमुख समस्या क्या है और इसे कैसे हल किया जा सकता है?
उत्तर-
मानव जीवन की प्रमुख समस्या यह है कि हम चाहते हैं कि लोग हमारी इच्छा के अनुसार जीवन व्यतीत करें। इसलिए हम चाहते हैं कि हर कोई हमारे हिसाब से अपने आप को बदले। इसका बेहतर समाधान यह है कि हमदर्दी तथा हिमायत हम उन्हें उनके वर्तमान रूप में स्वीकार करें। हमें दूसरों को बदलना नहीं चाहिए, लेकिन उन्हें वैसे ही स्वीकार करना चाहिए जैसे वे हैं। हर कोई अलग है और हम इस अंतर से बहुत कुछ सीख सकते हैं। यदि हम सभी को बदलने की कोशिश करेंगे तो हम असफल होंगे और खुश नहीं रहेंगे।

दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न-हमें दूसरों को कैसे स्वीकार करना चाहिए?
उत्तर-
इस दुनिया में हर कोई एक-दूसरे से अलग है। हर व्यक्ति की शक्ल एक-दूसरे से अलग होती है। इसलिए उनका व्यक्तित्व भी अलग होता है। यदि हम दूसरों के साथ अच्छे संबंध रखना चाहते हैं, तो हमें उनको मूल रूप में स्वीकार करना आवश्यक है। यदि हम ध्यान से देखें तो यह अंतर हमारे लिए आशीर्वाद है। यह अंतर एक-दूसरे के लिए अनुकूल है। जब हम दूसरों को स्वीकार करते हैं, तो हम उनसे बहुत कुछ सीखते हैं। यदि हम दूसरों को स्वीकार नहीं करेंगे तो अकेले रहेंगे छात्रों के जीवन में दोस्तों का बहुत महत्त्व है क्योंकि हम उन्हें वैसे ही स्वीकार करते हैं जैसे वे हैं। इसलिए हमें उनके साथ अच्छे संबंध रखने के लिए दूसरों को उनके वास्तविक या मूल रूप में स्वीकार करना चाहिए।

हमदर्दी और हिमायत PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Notes

हम समाज में रहते हैं और समाज में रहते हुए हम दूसरों के साथ सम्मान के साथ व्यवहार करते हैं। ऐसा इसलिए है क्योंकि हमारे पास संवेदनशीलता का गुण है।
दो अलग-अलग शब्द हैं-वेदना और संवेदना। वेदना का अर्थ है स्वयं का वेदना और संवेदना का अर्थ है सभी के सामूहिक वेदना को समझना।
घर पर, बच्चों को अक्सर यह शिकायत होती है कि माता-पिता उनके भाई-बहनों को उनसे ज़्यादा प्यार करते हैं। स्कूल में, लड़कों को अक्सर शिकायत होती है कि लड़की को क्लास का मॉनिटर क्यों बनाया जाता है। इस तरह की चीजें हम में लिंग संवेदनशीलता न होने का सूचक है।
हमारे माता-पिता अक्सर घर पर अलग-अलग काम करते हैं। हमें अपने माता-पिता को उनके काम में मदद करनी चाहिए। यह हमारे व्यक्तित्व विकास में मदद करता है।
हर किसी के जीवन में कुछ इच्छाएं होती हैं। हमें इन इच्छाओं को पूरा करने के लिए सीमित इच्छाएं रखनी चाहिएं ताकि वे आसानी से पूरी हो जाएं, अन्यथा जीवन में असंतोष छा जाता है।
भले ही जीवन में इच्छाएं कम हों, हमें इन इच्छाओं को पूरा करते हुए सामाजिक नियमों को भी ध्यान में रखना चाहिए।
परिवार में और समाज में कुछ महत्त्वपूर्ण मुद्दे हैं, जिन्हें सावधानीपूर्वक हल करने की आवश्यकता है। ऐसे गंभीर मुद्दों को हल करना हर किसी के लिए संभव नहीं हैं। इसलिए इस अवसर के ज्ञान और नाजुकता को समझना महत्त्वपूर्ण है। उदाहरण के लिए धार्मिक या भाषाई मुद्दे।
संवेदनशील मुद्दों को बलपूर्वक हल नहीं किया जा सकता है। इसलिए हमें मुद्दे का मूल कारण जानने की ज़रूरत है, संबंधित पक्षों से बात करें और मुद्दों को हल करने का प्रयास करें।
इस दनिया में हर व्यक्ति अलग व्यक्तित्व का है। जिस प्रकार हम सभी दिखने में एक-दूसरे से भिन्न होते हैं, उसी प्रकार प्रत्येक व्यक्ति का व्यक्तित्व भी अलग-अलग होता है। हमें सभी को उनके व्यक्तित्व के अनुसार स्वीकार करना होगा।
हालाँकि हम एक-दूसरे से अलग हैं, लेकिन फिर भी हम एक-दूसरे से बहुत कुछ सीखते हैं।
विद्यार्थी जीवन में मित्रों का बहुत महत्त्व होता है। हम जीवन में कितने भी दोस्त बना लें, कोई भी हमारे स्कूल के दोस्तों की जगह नहीं ले सकता।
समाज में रहते हुए हम समाज में बदलाव चाहते हैं। लेकिन हम अपनी इच्छा के अनुसार बदलाव चाहते हैं जो संभव नहीं है। इसका समाधान यह है कि हम दूसरों को वैसे ही स्वीकार करें जैसे वे हैं। यह हमारी कई सामाजिक समस्याओं को हल करने में मदद करेगा।

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Source Based Questions

September 23, 2024September 22, 2024 by Prasanna

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Welcome Life Source Based Questions

Question 1.
Change is the law of nature. As it is well said that flowing water never goes stale. Human nature is also just like the same. If a person does not have a flexible attitude, he/she can never adapt himself herself to the environment. A narrow-minded person is never happy. Such a person becomes toxic and spreads negativity all around. Besides this, that person fails to maintain relations with others because he/she is never ready to welcome wholeheartedly others’ viewpoints and criticism for his own ideology. A flexible attitude, therefore, is a very necessary trait to be developed in the individual for a healthy adjustment with others.

1. What is human nature like?
Answer:
Human nature is changeable which keeps on changing with time.

2. What is the disadvantage of narrow-mindedness?
Answer:
A narrow-minded person spreads negativity everywhere and never remains happy.

3. How does a narrow-minded person maintain a relationship?
Answer:
A narrow-minded person cannot maintain relationships well as he is never ready to accept others’ points of view.

4. What type of thinking should we keep?
Answer:
One must keep positive thinking and must remain away from negative ideas. He must not live with narrow-mindedness but live with a positive attitude.

5. What is the need for a flexible attitude?
Answer:
A person with flexible attitude makes healthy adjustment with others and never have sour relations with them.

Question 2.
In the age of the modem information revolution, the means of communication and their role has been increased tremendously. Information, knowledge, and entertainment are obtained through these means. But the main purpose of most of the companies, institutions, or organizations that run these resources is also to make money. In such a situation they are providing all kinds of content; Whether it is for the good of humanity or not. In the present age, every human being has access and capability to use the internet and means of communication. Therefore, it is our duty to make proper use of these resources to develop our knowledge. Children have less ability to find right/wrong and therefore this fear persists due to misuse of the internet or other means of communication. The main purpose of this activity-based lesson is to develop this habit/interest in the students so that they understand how to use these tools properly.

1. What type of age is present age and why?
Answer:
The present age is known as the age of information revolution because they have reduced the distance in the world quite dramatically.

2. Whose importance has increased in the modem age?
Answer:
The importance of information technology has increased in the modem age.

3. What is the main objectives of those who run means of communication?
Answer:
The main objective of those who run means of communication is to make money and earn profit.

4. What is our duty?
Answer:
It is our duty to make proper use of means of communication and develop our knowledge.

5. What is the advantage of activity-based lessons?
Answer:
It helps the students to understand how to use the tools properly and develops a habit among them to understand everything very quickly.

Question 3.
Madam Kamla told the girls that they had a lot of misconceptions that need to be avoided: as some people take medicines to stay awake till night, some are taking extra products to make their body much healthier and muscular, some posts on social media are misleading the young generation. Actually, these advertisements are promoted by companies and they are not part of a T.V. channel. There is written ‘disclaimer’, advertisement on them. So, we should not blindly believe it. In such advertisements and we should think critically. So in nutshell, we should believe in hard work and a homemade healthy diet which should be a simple and balanced diet. Madam also gave examples of Milkha Singh, P.T. Usha, Deepika Karmakar, Leander Pace, Marriecom, and many other players who raised them up from ordinary or poor families and shined well in the world.

1. What kind of misconceptions do people make?
Answer:
People make misconceptions that by consuming medicine and tonics, we can become healthy and strong.

2. Do we have to trust the advertisements of companies?
Answer:
We must not blindly believe in the company advertisements. We should think critically about it and must not be misled by such advertisements.

3. Give some examples of sportspersons who achieved great heights only with hard work.
Answer:
Milkha Singh, P.T. Usha, Deepika Karmakar, Leander Pace, Marriecom, and many other players achieved great heights with hard work.

4. What should we do to achieve great heights?
Answer:
To shine and achieve heights, we must do hard work and must not consume medicine and tonics.

5. What is a ‘disclaimer’ written on advertisements?
Answer:
Because T.V. channels are only showing advertisements on the behalf of the manufacturer. They have nothing to do with manufacturing or faulty products.

Question 4.
There are some social boundaries about our relations. They tell us to what extent we should keep our relationships. We are not supposed to violate these limits and boundaries. These social rules make a setup that is known as a social setup. Our family or neighbors, school/college teachers, students, friends almost every person in the world make us realise the socially well-defined boundaries and limitations of relationships at every stage of life. So we should observe and follow them with a logical approach. We should not violate such boundary otherwise we may have to murder any other relationship. So there is a limit which marks a social grace; as some relations are to be kept at home, on the other hand, some are limited to our office or any other workplace. Therefore it’s not wise to bring our outer relationships (workplace relationships or professional relations) to our home and vice versa. Some relations are blood relations which are known very close to us but it is not always the same. Sometimes, a relation that is not a blood relation helps us more and is ‘ closer to us than the blood relations.

1. Who fixes the limits of our relationships?
Answer:
Society fixes the limits of our relationships that how much far we need to go in any relationship.

2. What should we do with social limitations?
Answer:
We must follow and observe them with a logical approach that we should remain within social limitations.

3. How can we identify close and far-off relationships?
Answer:
Close and far-off relationships can be identified by our instinctive love and sensitivity.

4. What is the limitation of relationships?
Answer:
There is always a limitation of every relationship that how much far we need to go in every relationship. That’s why we must understand their limitation and live a better life.

5. Why is it not wise to bring outer relationships to our home?
Answer:
We must not bring outer or office relationships to our home because it can create problems in our other relationships. Family members can oppose it and can have adverse effects on our homely relationship.

Question 5.
In life, every person lives with many relationships. Some relations are life long but some are to be cut down or some relations break up with the effect of time and circumstances. So it remains as a memory, good or bad in any corner of our mind perhaps throughout life. Some relations are breakup by ego, fear, anger, or social helplessness. Sometimes we have to go away to start a new life and for this, we have to end up our relationship. Sometimes we feel that we cannot go for a long time with someone else so we cut our relations. We should end up our relationship very constructively and in a graceful manner.

1. Do all relationships last a lifetime?
Answer:
No, all relationships do not last a lifetime. Few relationships are to be cut down midway.

2. Why do we have to leave relationships?
Answer:
Some relationships are to be cut down due to anger, fear of social restrictions, or to start a new life at some other place.

3. How should we leave relationships?
Answer:
If we need to leave a relationship, we need to end up in a constructive and graceful manner.

4. Why do relationships remain in memory?
Answer:
We end a particular relationship but they remain in memory because of any good or bad moment.

5. Why do we feel that few relationships will not be lost for long?
Answer:
Because at one stage of life, we start to realize that such relationships are not faithful and it’s better to end up that relationship instead of taking it for long.

Question 6.
Understand, if you want to treat everyone in a fairly, respectful manner. We should have the quality of sensitivity. We all have to look at it with love and respect, with the eyes of equality. So boys and girls-men and women have to treat each other fairly with respect and equality. In this way, the meaning of the word ‘pain’ is limited – one’s own pain. In the same way, the meaning of ‘Sympathy is to understand the collective pain of all. If we look at our home, siblings often complain that their parents treat their sisters and brothers better than they do. Even at school, boys often complain about why girls are being monitored in class? So issues like this are really an indication of our lack of gender sensitivity.

1. What is the equality of sensitivity?
Answer:
While living in society, we treat everyone in a fairly and respectful manner. This is the quality of sensitivity.

2. What is meant by pain and sympathy?
Answer:
The limited meaning of ‘pain’ is one’s own pain and the meaning of sympathy is to understand the collective pain of all.

3. What complain do we have with our siblings?
Answer:
We often have complained about siblings that parents have more to them and do less love to us.

4. How do we behave properly?
Answer:
We must give respect to all and treat them equally to behave properly.

Question 7.
Dear students, needs and desires are very important in our life but they should not exceed their limits. They should not be so too many that it will be difficult to live a simple life within our means. Desires should be kept within a social boundary. Food, clothes, and home are basic necessities, in the same way, a good lifestyle is also of some importance. Let us see, of which type our needs and desires are? Whether they are limited or they are much more and exceeding all means and sources? Are they teasing our parents or not?

1. What is required to live life?
Answer:
Needs and desires are required to live life. We cannot live without these.

2. To what extent, desires should be kept?
Answer:
Desires should be kept in a social boundary so that they can easily be fulfilled.

3. Which things are necessary to five life?
Answer:
Food, clothes and shelter are required to live life as we cannot live without them.

4. What should we keep in mind while keeping desires?
Answer:
While having a wish, we should keep in mind that they must not tease our parents. In this case, they will become a burden on our parents.

5. Why needs and desires are important in life?
Answer:
Because everyone needs certain things to “live life and to live a happy life, desires are also important. Without desires, development cannot take place.

Question 8.
Every human being in the world is different. We are different from each other in many ways, just like that Everyone has a different personality. It is important for mutual respect that we treat each other in the same way. Acknowledge what their personality is different relationships are a blessing for us. We often see that the personalities of two good friends are often different. One speaker and the other listener. In this way, our diversity is complementary to each other. When we accept each other, we also learn a lot from them. If we think of ourselves as right and others as wrong, we will be left alone. Friendship is especially important in student life. Accept the friend in his or her full form. Everyone’s reaction to the same situation is different. When a student is pointed out in the class, one should understand and make changes in his / her ways. Someone else gets angry and deliberately misbehaves, while, someone is completely silent. Our problem is that we want everyone to change according to us. This is not fair. They behave differently.

1. What is of great importance in student life?
Answer:
Friendship is of great importance in student life as they remain with us without any selfishness and we remember them for the whole of our life.

2. How is everyone different from each other?
Answer:
Everyone is different from each other from the point of view of physical appearance. Their habits, personality, and abilities are also different. That’s why everyone is different from each other.

3. What is necessary for mutual good relations?
Answer:
For mutual good relations, it is a must that we should accept others as they are and according to their personality. It helps in maintaining relations of equality.

4. What is the importance of differences in our lives?
Answer:
Differences are of great importance. Everyone is different from each other and we accept them as they are. Even after having many differences, we do not discriminate against them.

5. Why personalities of two good friends are different from each other?
Answer:
Although they are good friends, their outlook ideas, views, habits, ways of living are different from each other. That’s why their personalities are also different.

Question 9.
Creative thinking means that we have a tendency to do something new, unique, and original. In a human being with a creative mindset, there are always new ideas and the way to express those ideas is also unique. Different human beings have different traits and qualities. A person with a creative mindset uses this quality to develop himself and also gain social respect. Creative focus can be found not only in the field of art or literature but also in people associated with any field. By developing this attitude in the students, their personality should be refined and their nature should be made creative by making proper use of their energy.

1. What is meant by creative thinking?
Answer:
The meaning of creative thinking is a tendency in an individual to do something new, unique, and original.

2. What is the advantage of creative thinking?
Answer:
A person with creative thinking uses this quality to develop himself and also gain social respect. He tries to create something new.

3. Can this creative thinking occur in any field?
Answer:
Yes, creative thinking can occur in any field such as art, literature, science, etc.

4. What is the advantage of developing creative thinking among students?
Answer:
By developing creative thinking among students, their personalities can be developed. Their nature can be made creative by making proper use of their energy.

5. Why everyone should have creative thinking?
Answer:
Every individual is creative in one way or the other. He always wants to create something unique. To create something unique, creative thinking is very much necessary.

Question 10.
It is normal if we feel sad, scared, nervous, restless, angry, jealous, or distress at times, but if this happens often, it becomes essential to control these feelings. If our emotions get out of control, these can prove to be detrimental and may affect our physical health, mental health, family relationships, and social dealings. So we should learn to control our emotions to avoid committing mistakes by being excessively emotional and then regret later. We can be bright and successful students by introspection and analysis of our emotions, by understanding these and channelizing these properly because the balance of emotions plays a significant role in our lives as our physical well-being, mental health, family bondings, and social interactions are all linked to emotional balance. Balancing emotions means that we need to be fully aware of when and how much to express. We must set a limit to how we can express our feelings.

1. Why should we control our feelings?
Answer:
We need to control our emotions such as anger, jealousy, scaredness or it can create many problems for us.

2. How can we become successful students?
Answer:
We can become successful students by introspection and analysis of our emotions, by understanding these and channelizing them properly.

3. What is meant by the balance of emotions?
Answer:
Balancing emotions means that we need to be fully aware of when and how much to express.

4. Why should we learn about keeping emotions in control?
Answer:
We should learn about keeping emotions in control so that under the influence of emotions, we must not make a mistake that can become a problem later on.

5. Why is it normal when we feel sad, nervous, angry, etc.?
Answer:
It is because of human nature that at different times feels, sad, nervous, angry, jealous, or even distressed. It also depends upon the swing of our mood according to which different emotions occur in us.

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 10 Stress Management

September 23, 2024September 22, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 10 Stress Management Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Welcome Life Chapter 10 Stress Management

Welcome Life Guide for Class 10 PSEB Stress Management Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How stress can be useful for us?
Answer:
We are generally told that stress is harmful to us but sometimes it can be useful as well. Stress teaches us to fight adverse circumstances, increase our concentration, increase our working capacity and self-respect. In this way, stress has a useful aspect as well.

Question 2.
What are the physical and mental changes felt when you are stressed?
Answer:
Internally, stress has a very bad effect on the body. The person’s heart beats faster, heart disease occurs, the headache starts and breathing problem starts. It also reduces the body’s ability to fight diseases. Externally too, the body undergoes many changes. The person begins to gain weight, hair begins to fall out, sweetening begins as well. The person becomes physically and mentally ill, the effect of which is clearly visible on his face.

Question 3.
What does a stressed person’s face look like?
Answer:
The stressed person’s face becomes pale, he always looks sick and worries are always visible on his face.

Question 4.
What are the stressful things for you?
Answer:
If we look from a student’s point of view, the major reason for stress is the fear of failure, getting fewer marks, staying behind in class, etc. As a father or husband, the major reasons for stress are the worries of job or business, financial worries, worry of income and expenditure, family.

Question 5.
How does stress affect our bodies?
Answer:
See Q. 2 of Exercise-1.

Question 6.
What can we do to reduce stress?
Answer:

Whenever you are under stress, slowly close your eyes. Open your eyes after 5 minutes. It will reduce your stress.
Whenever you are under stress, take a deep breath and slowly breathe out.
We need to go out for a morning walk or do yoga.
Stress can be reduced by having a balanced diet.
You must keep talking to your family members and relatives to reduce tension.
One should continue to pursue his/her hobbies.

Question 7.
What can we do to keep others stress-free?
Answer:
See the last question.

Question 8.
Can stress be good for us?
Answer:
See Q. 1. Exercise-1.

Question 9.
Can a human being live on earth without animals?
Answer:
NO, human beings cannot live on earth without animals. Its reason is that nature has made a life cycle according to which one creature depends upon others to live. In the same way, humans depend upon other animals for their own existence. In their absence, human existence will be in danger. That’s why humans depend upon other animals.

Question 10.
What is the harm of destroying natural vegetation?
Answer:

Natural vegetation helps in bringing rain. In its absence, there will be a scarcity of rain.
Natural vegetation stops soil erosion. In its absence, soil erosion will never stop.
Natural vegetation fulfills our needs of wood and in its absence, such needs will not be fulfilled.
There will be no habitat for wildlife if there will be no natural vegetation.

Question 11.
What can we, as students, do to maintain the balance of nature?
Answer:

We can motivate others to conserve natural vegetation.
Seminars can be conducted for the same purpose.
Students can plant new plants to increase natural vegetation.

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Guide Stress Management Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. …………… is a condition that is not according to our mind.
(a) Stress
(b) Happiness
(c) Hardness
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Stress.

2. The condition of mind which we consider ……………. is known as stress.
(a) Hardness
(b) Burden
(c) Happiness
(d) Bullying.
Answer:
(b) Burden

3. Which of these is a reason for stress?
(a) More aspiration
(b) Our natural nature
(c) Pressure of work
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

4. Stress weakens our ……………. power.
(a) physical
(b) mental
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

5. Which of these diseases is caused by stress?
(a) Aids
(b) Heart disease
(c) Cancer
(d) T.B.
Answer:
(b) Heart disease.

6. What is the wrong aspect of stress?
(а) An individual stops doing work
(b) One runs away from his responsibilities
(c) Stress causes many diseases
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

7. What can students do to reduce stress?
(а) Going for a morning walk or by doing yoga
(b) We can play with friends
(c) We can talk to family members
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Fill in the Blanks:

1. ……………… and animals are helpful to each other to live on earth.
Answer:
Humans

2. …………….. vegetation must be protected.
Answer:
Natural

3. Stress can be reduced by doing ………………..
Answer:
morning walk, yoga

4. …………….. can cause heart problems.
Answer:
Stress

5. Stress is a ……………….. phenomena.
Answer:
natural

6. Stress can be ……………… and ……………..
Answer:
fruitful, dangerous

True / False:

1. Stress can cause Aids.
Answer:
False

2. Stress causes tension in individuals.
Answer:
True

3. Work cannot cause stress.
Answer:

4. Stress weakens mental strength.
Answer:
True

5. People run away from responsibilities due to stress.
Answer:
False

6. Humans and animals are helpful to each other.
Answer:
True

Match the Column:

Column A	Column B
(a) Stress	(i) Result of Stress
(b) Pressure of work	(ii) Balance of nature
(c) Heart Disease	(iii) Way to remove stress
(d) Deep Breathing	(iv) State of mind
(e) Animals	(v) Reason of stress

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Stress	(iv) State of mind
(b) Pressure of work	(v) Reason of stress
(c) Heart Disease	(i) Result of Stress
(d) Deep Breathing	(ii) Balance of nature
(e) Animals	(iii) Way to remove stress

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is Stress?
Answer:
Any situation which is not according to the expectations of our mind is called stress.

Question 2.
How can stress be reduced?
Answer:
By understanding its cause and finding the solution, stress can be reduced.

Question 3.
Why do we become stressed?
Answer:
When we start considering any problem as pressure, we become stressed.

Question 4.
Give one reason for stress.
Answer:
We come under stress when our aspirations are not fulfilled.

Question 5.
How do we come under stress when compared with others?
Answer:
When we observe that others are becoming more successful, we come in stressed.

Question 6.
What is the impact of stress on an individual?
Answer:
Stress weakens our physical and mental state.

Question 7.
What disease is caused by stress?
Answer:
Stress causes heart disease and blood pressure can go up.

Question 8.
What is the wrong aspect of stress?
Answer:
It stops us from doing work and never lets us fulfill our responsibilities.

Question 9.
Why do students come under stress?
Answer:
The fear of failure, getting fewer marks, not getting the first position in class, etc. are the causes because of which students come under stress.

Question 10.
What should we do to reduce stress?
Answer:
Slowly close your eyes, open eyes after five minutes, or take a deep breath to reduce stress.

Question 11.
How can students reduce stress?
Answer:
By doing morning walks or by doing yoga, students can reduce stress.

Question 12.
What is the balance of nature?
Ans.
It says that humans and other animals depend upon each other.

Question 13.
How can the balance of nature be maintained?
Answer:
If we care about all the natural things, file balance of nature can be maintained.

Question 14.
Give one advantage of natural vegetation.
Answer:
Natural vegetation gives us oxygen.

Question 15.
What is the disadvantage of destroying natural vegetation?
Answer:
Soil erosion will be caused and there will be less rain.

Question 16.
How can natural vegetation be saved?
Answer:
By planting new plants, natural vegetation can be saved.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write a note on the condition of stress.
Answer:
Stress is a type of situation which is not according to our mind. It is a situation of mind which we consider a burden. For example, if we become late in doing any work, we come in stressed. Stress can create positive as well as negative conditions for an individual. If we come to know about the reason for stress, we can easily find its solution. But if we are unable to find the reason, the problem becomes a burden for us. It depends upon us that how can we take stress as a helper or a problem.

Question 2.
Give four reasons for stress.
Answer:

We have many aspirations and if they are not fulfilled, we come under stress.
Few people have a natural tendency to remain under stress.
People are under pressure from work and become victims of their boss’s anger. That’s why they come in stress.
The family situation of many individuals is not good and they always remain in tension.

Question 3.
What are the effects of stress?
Answer:

Stress weakens our physical and mental strength and heartbeat fastens as well.
He can’t sleep and starts sweating more. He gets fat. Many diseases can be caused such as stomachache, headache, heart diseases, increase in blood pressure, etc.
We lose a lot of energy in fighting the diseases and we are not able to relieve stress.
The worst part of stress is that it lets us run away from our responsibilities and prevents us from working.

Question 4.
What can students do to avoid stress?
Answer:

We can play with our family members and friends to reduce stress.
They can go out for outings in the natural environment to reduce tension.
We can work with family members, cooperate with them, help them in removing tension.
They can go out for a morning walk, do yoga and take a balanced diet to reduce stress.

Long Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
What are the reasons for stress?
Answer:

We come in stress due to our family situations or neighborhood conditions.
If anyone is teased by peers about our short stature or any part of the body, one can come under stress.
One can come under stress due to adverse circumstances in the country.
We have many aspirations and if they are not fulfilled, we come under stress.
Few people naturally remain under stress.
Few people are under the pressure of work and due to pressure from management, they remain under stress.
If anyone is suffered from any disease or someone has taken a loan from anyone, he remains under stress.
We come in stressed if we are compared with others.