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PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

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Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is Rutherford’s ∝-ray scattering experiment? Give its observations. How does Rutherford explain this observation?
Answer:
Rutherford’s ∝-ray scattering experiment: In this experiment, Rutherford obtained a thin stream of fast-moving alpha (∝) particles from radioactive source (P0) and was allowed to strike against a thin foil of heavy metal like gold. Alpha particles are also called helium nuclei (He2+ with + 2 unit charge and 4 a.m.u. mass). As a result of the experiment, he made the following observations:

  1. Most of the ∝-particles passed through the gold foil without any deflection from their original path.
  2. Some of the ∝-particles got deflected by small angles from their original path.
  3. A few ∝-particles (approximately 1 out of 10,000) were deflected to a large extent. In some cases, the a-particles came back in the same direction after striking the gold foil.

Explanation for the observations:

We know that the gold foil is made up of atoms of gold which are placed side by side. Since most of the ∝-particles passed through these atoms undeflected they did not come across any obstruction in their path, this shows that most of the space in the atom is light or hollow.

The electrons with negligible mass were supposed to be present in this portion called extra nuclear portion. The a-particies were deflected from their path and a very few came back in the same direction. This shows that they must have met with some obstruction in their path.
The obstruction must be
1. Heavy because a-particles are high speed particles and can remove light obstruction from their path.
2. Small because only a few a-particles got deflected.
3. Positively charged because some a-particles were repelled by this obstruction.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 1
This small, heavy and positively charged portion inside an atom was called nucleus. The protons with mass and positive charge were supposed to be present in the nucleus. Later on, neutrons were also found to be present in the nucleus of the atom.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 2.
Discuss in brief Rutherford’s Model of atom.
Answer:
The main points of Rutherford’s model of atom are listed as follows:
1. An atom has two parts. These are nucleus and extra nuclear portion.
2. The nucleus contains protons while electrons are present in the extra nuclear portion.
3. Most of the mass of the atom is due to the nucleus because electrons have negligible mass.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 2
4. The volume occupied by the nucleus is very small as compared to the volume occupied by extra nuclear portion.
5. The electrons in the extra nuclear portion are not stationary. These are revolving around the nucleus. The electrons are called planetary electrons because they can be compared to various planets which revolve around the sun. The nucleus may be compared with the sun.

Question 3.
Discuss the arrangement of the electrons in the different energy levels.
Or
Describe Bohr-Bury scheme for the distribution of electrons in the various orbits or energy levels of an atom.
Answer:
The distribution of electrons in the energy levels is given with the help of Bohr Bury scheme. It is given as follows:
1. The energy levels or energy shells are filled in order of increasing energies. The electrons first enter the K shell (n = 1. which is closest to the nucleus. This is followed by L shell (n = 2), M shell (n = 3) and so on. Here V represents the number of the shell.
2. The maximum number of electrons in any shell is given as 2n2 (n = number of the shell). The distribution in the first four energy shells is given in the table given below:
Distribution of electrons in first four energy shells according to 2n2 rule.

Symbol of shell Number of shell (n) Maximum number of electrons (2n2)
K 1 2 x (1)2 = 2
L 2 2 x (2)2 = 8
M 3 2 x (3)2 = 18
N 4 2 x (4)2 = 32

3. The outermost energy shell cannot have more than 8 electrons. The next inner shell called penultimate shell, cannot have more than 18 electrons.
4. It is not necessary that an energy level or shell is fully filled before the filling in the next energy level starts. In fact, filling of electrons in a new shell starts when any shell contains 8 electrons.
On the basis of the above scheme, let us discus with mass number 24 and atomic number 12.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 3

  • Mass no. of atom (A) = 24
  • Atomic no. of atom (Z) = 12
  • No. of protons in nucleus = 12
  • No. of neutrons in nucleus = 12
  • No. of electrons to be distributed = 12
  • The distribution in the various energy shells: K L M: 2, 8, 2

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 4.
Give the electronic distribution in the first twenty elements on the basis of Bohr-Bury scheme.
Answer:
On the basis of Bohr-Bury scheme, the distribution of electrons in first twenty elements (Z = 1 to Z = 20) is given below:
Table: Electronic distribution in atoms of first 20 elements

Element (Symbol) Mass No. (A) Atomic No. (Z) No. of Protons (P) No. of Electrons (e) No. of Neutrons (n) (A-Z) Electronic Distribution
K L M N
1. Hydrogen (H) 1 1 1 1 0 1
2. Helium (He) 4 2 2 2 2 2
3. Lithium (Li) 7 3 3 3 4 9 1
4. Beryllium (Be) 9 4 4 4 5 2 2
5. Boron (B) 11 5 5 5 6 2 3
6. Carbon (C) 12 6 6 6 6 2 4
7. Nitrogen (N) 14 7 7 7 7 2 5
8. Oxygen (O) 16 8 8 8 8 2 6
9. Fluorine (F) 19 9 9 9 10 2 7
10. Neon (Ne) 20 10 10 10 10 2 8
11. Sodium (Na) 23 11 11 11 12 2 8 1
12. Magnesium (Mg) 24 12 12 12 12 9 8 2
13. Aluminium (Al) 27 13 13 13 14 ‘ 2 8 3
14. Silicon (Si) 28 14 14 14 14 2 8 4
15. Phosphorus (P) 31 15 15 15 16 2 8 5
16. Sulphur (S) 32 16 16 16 16 2 8 6
17. Chlorine (Cl) 35 17 17 17 18 2 8 7
18. Argon (Ar) 40 18 18 18 22 2 8 8
19. Potassium (K) 39 19 19 19 20 2 8 8 1
20. Calcium (Ca) 40 20 20 20 20 2 8 8 2

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 4
Special cases of Potassium and Calcium:

  • In case of Potassium (Z = 19), the M shell has only 8 electrons and not 18. Actually, when the M shell gets 8 electrons, the filling of electrons starts in the next shell which is N-shell. When the N-shell gets 2 electrons, the electron are again- filled in the M shell.
  • Thus, electronic distribution in potassium (Z = 19) is
    K L M N
    2 8 8 1 (M shell has 8 electrons and N shell has 1 electron)
  • Similarly, the electronic distribution in calcium (Z = 20) is:
    K L M N: 2 8 8 2 (M shell has 8 electrons and N shell has 2 electrons)

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 5.
Define the terms:

  1. Atomic number
  2. Mass number
  3. Atom
  4. Ion
  5. Element
  6. Orbit
  7. Nucleons

Answer:

  1. Atomic number: It is the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom of the element.
  2. Mass number: It is the sum of number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom of the elements.
  3. Atom: It is the smallest unit of matter which takes part in chemical reactions and it may or may not exist independently.
  4. Ion: It is an atom or group of atoms having charge positive or negative and can exist freely in solution.
  5. Element: It is a pure substance which can neither be built up nor broken into two or more still simpler substance by any physical or chemical method and it consists of only one kind of atoms.
  6. Orbit: It is the fixed circular path traced by an electron revolving around the
  7. Nucleons: The protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom of the element are collectively known as nucleons.u

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What do you understand by the structure of atom?
Answer:
According to the Dalton’s atomic theory, the smallest particle of matter is called atom. But later studies have shown that an atom is further made up of sub-atomic particles called electrons, protons and neutrons. Different atoms have different number of such particles and they also differ in the arrangement of these particles. Therefore, the atoms have different properties.

Question 2.
What happens when electric field is applied to the path of cathode rays? What does it show?
Answer:
When electric field is applied to the path of the cathode rays, these are deflected towards the positive plate of the field. This shows that the cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 3.
What is the information conveyed by the following observations :

  1. Atom is electrically neutral,
  2. Mass of the atom is due to the nucleus.

Answer:

  1. If an atom is electrically neutral, this means that it will have equal number of protons and electrons. Both protons and electrons have 1 unit charge but with opposite sign.
  2. This means that nucleus contains in it both protons and neutrons which have mass.

Question 4.
What is the significance of number of protons found in the atoms in each of the different elements?
Answer:
The number of electrons in atom of the element is equal to the number of protons. By knowing no. of protons, we can calculate no. of electrons and hence its properties.

Question 5.
Write the electronic configuration of the elements A, B, C, D, E with atomic numbers 5, 6, 14, 13 and 15. Which have similar chemical properties?
Answer:

Element Atomic No. (Z) Electronic configuration
K L M
A 5 2 3
B 6 2 4
C 14 2 8 4
D 13 ? 8 3
E 15 2 8 5

Elements B and C. have similar chemical properties because both of them have 4 valence elt, trons.
Elements A and D have similar chemical properties because both of them have 3 valence electrons.

Question 6.
Five species P, Q, R, S, T have electrons, protons and neutrons are as follows:

Species Electrons Protons Neutrons
P 4 3 4
Q 8 9 9
R 17 17 20
S 17 17 18
T 18 18 22

Find

  1. a cation
  2. an anion
  3. a noble gas and
  4. a pair of isotopes.

Answer:

  1. Cation – Q
  2. Anion – P
  3. A noble gas = T
  4. Pair of isotopes = R and S (because they have same number of electrons and protons but different number of neutrons).

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 7.
Helium has only 2 electrons in the K-shell. But it is called an inert gas element. Why?
Answer:
Helium (He) atom has only one shell (K-shell) which can have a maximum of 2 electrons only. It cannot have more than 2 electrons. As a result, the combining capacity of He is zero. Therefore, its valency is also zero.

Question 8.
Give labelled diagram to show how are cathode rays produced?
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 5

Question 9.
An atom has mass number A and atomic number Z.
1. How many protons are present in the nucleus?
2. How many electrons are revolving around the nucleus?
3. How many neutrons are present in its nucleus?
Answer:
Mass number = A
Atomic number = Z
1. No. of protons present in the nucleus = Z
2. No. of electrons revolving around the nucleus = Z
3. No. of neutrons present in the nucleus = A – Z.

Question 10.
State three ways by which a proton differs from an electron.
Answer:

Proton Electron
1. It has one unit of positive charge.

2. It has mass 1.6 x 10-24 g.

3. It is present in the nucleus of an atom.

 It has one unit of negative charge.

It has mass 9.1 x 10″28 g.

It is present in the extranuclear part of an atom.

Question 11.
What are isotopes? Give two uses of isotopes. Name the isotopes of hydrogen. Give their structures.
Answer:
Isotopes. The atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different mass numbers are called isotopes.
Use of isotopes:
1. Isotopes of hydrogen, oxygen, carbon are used to study the mechanisms of organic reactions.
2. Some radioactive isotopes are used for the treatment of cancer and other diseases. The isotopes of hydrogen are:
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 6

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 12.
Explain why elements have fractional atomic masses?
Answer:
The elements have fractional atomic masses due to the existence of isotopes (having different mass numbers) e.g. chlorine has two isotopes \({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}\) and \({ }_{17}^{37} \mathrm{Cl}\) and are present in the ratio 3:1.
∴ Average atomic mass of chlorine = \(\frac{35 \times 3+37 \times 1}{4}=\frac{105+37}{4} \) = 35.5 a.m.u.

Question 13.
What are isobars? Give examples.
Answer:
The atom of different elements having same mass numbers but different atomic numbers are called isobars.
e.g. 1. \({ }_{18}^{40} \mathrm{Ar}\) and \({ }_{19}^{40} \mathrm{Ar}\)
2. \({ }_{36}^{86} \mathrm{Ar}\) and \({ }_{38}^{86} \mathrm{Ar}\)

Question 14.
Sulphur has an atomic number 16 and a mass of 32. State the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of sulphur. Give a simple diagram to show the arrangement of electrons in an atom of sulphur.
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 7
Atomic number of S = 16
Mass number of S = 32
∴ No. of protons = 16
No. of neutrons = 32 – 16 = 16
No. of electrons = 16

Question 15.
Write down the electronic configuration of the following:
1. \({ }_{13}^{27} \mathrm{X}\)
2. \({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{X}\)
Write down the number of electrons in X and neutrons in Y and the formula of
compound formed by X and Y.
Answer:
1. \({ }_{13}^{27} \mathrm{X}\)
Atomic number of X = 13
Mass number of X =27
No. of protons in X = 13
∴ No. of electrons in X = 13
The electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 3
Valency of X = 3

2. \({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{X}\)
Atomic number of Y = 17
Mass number of Y =35
No. of protons in Y = 17
No. of electrons in Y = 17
No. of neutrons in Y = 35 – 17 = 18
The electronic co0nfiguration of Y = 2, 8, 7
Valency of Y = 1
The formula of the compound formed by X and Y
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 8

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 16.
Give the important properties or characteristics of isotopes.
Answer:

  1. The isotopes of an element have same atomic number (Z) i.e. the same number of electrons and same number of protons. Hence, they have identical chemical properties.
  2. Isotopes of an element have same number of valence electrons and hence same valency.
  3. Isotopes of an element have different mass numbers (or different number of neutrons) and hence they have different physical properties such as mass, density, melting point, boiling point etc.

Question 17.
An atom of the element is represented as 11x?

  1. What does the numeral 23 indicate?
  2. What does the nemeral 11 indicate?
  3. What is the number of protons in X?

Answer:

  1. 23 indicates mass number of X.
  2. 11 indicates atomic number of X.
  3. No. of protons in X = Atomic number = 11.

Question 18.
The atom of an element is made up of 4 protons, 5 neutrons and 4 electrons. what are its atomic number and mass number?
Answer:
No. of proton = 4
Atomic number of the element, Z = 4
No. of neutrons = 5
∴ No. of protons + No. of neutrons =4 + 5 = 9
∴ Mass number of the element, A = 9.

Question 19.
Calculate the number of neutrons in the following elements:
1. \({ }_{1}^{3} \mathrm{Cl}\)
2. \({ }_{17}^{37} \mathrm{Cl}\)
3. \({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Cl}\)
Answer:
1. \({ }_{1}^{3} \mathrm{Cl}\)
Mass number = 3
Atomic number = 1
No.of neutrons = Mass no – Atomic no.
= 3 – 1 = 2

2. \({ }_{17}^{37} \mathrm{Cl}\)
Mass number = 37
Atomic number = 17
No.of neutrons = 37 – 17 = 20

3. \({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Cl}\)
Mass number = 40
Atomic number = 20
No.of neutrons = 40 – 20 = 20

Question 20.
Give two conditions under which cathode rays are produced.
Answer:
Cathode rays are produced when a gas is subjected to the action of
1. High voltage of the order of 5000-10000 V and
2. Under a low pressure of the order of 10-3 atm of Hg.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 21.
The electronic configuration of P (Z = 15) is 2, 8, 5. Why is the valency of phosphorus 3 and not 5?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of phosphorus (P) shows that it has 5 valence electrons. Its valency is expected to be 5. But it is not possible for the atom to lose 5 electrons present in the valence shell because the energy required to remove these electrons will be very high. Therefore, phosphorus atom has valency equal to 3 because to gain 3 electrons is easier than losing 5 electrons as it requires less energy.

Question 22.
What information is conveyed by the statement that the mass number of magnesium is 24 and the atomic number is 12?
Answer:
The atomic number (12) of magnesium indicates that its atom has 12 protons in the nucleus and an equal number of electrons in the extra nuclear portion. The mass number (24) points out that there are also 12 neutrons (24 – 12 = 12) present in the nucleus alongwith protons.

Question 23.
Is it possible for an atom to have 12 protons and 13 electrons? Explain.
Answer:
No, it is not possible. An atom must always be electrically neutral. This means that it has no net charge present on it. Now, each proton has one unit positive charge and each electron has one unit negative charge. In a neutral atom, the number of electrons and protons must always be the same. Thus, an atom cannot have 12 protons and 13 electrons.

Question 24.
Give the important isotopes of hydrogen, carbon, oxygen and chlorine. Indicate their mass numbers and atomic numbers.
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 9

Numerical Problems (Solved):

Question 1.
Chlorine has two isotopes \({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}\) and \({ }_{17}^{37} \mathrm{Cl}\) in the ratio 3 : 1. Calculate the average atomic mass of chlorine.
Solution:
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 10

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 2.
Out of 18X and 16Y which atom is chemically more reactive?
Solution:
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 11
No. of valence electrons in X =8
No. of valence electrons in Y =6
∴ Y is more reactive.

Question 3.
An element has 12 neutrons and mass number 23. Give the atomic number and symbol of the element.
Solution:

  • Mass number(A) = 23
  • Number of neutrons = 12
  • Number of protons = 23 – 12 = 11
  • Atomic Number(Z)= 11
  • Symbol of the element = \(\frac{23}{11} \mathrm{Na}\)

Question 4.
Calculate number of protons, neutrons and electrons in \(\frac{235}{92} \mathrm{U}\) and \(\frac{238}{92} \mathrm{U}\). How are these atoms related?
Solution:
table
\(\frac{235}{92} \mathrm{U}\) and \(\frac{238}{92} \mathrm{U}\) are isotopes.

Question 5.
Calculate the number of electrons, protons and neutrons is \(\frac{19}{9} \mathrm{U}\). Also calculate its valency.
Solution:

  1. Atomic number = 9
  2. Mass number = 19
  3. No. of protons = 9
  4. No. of neutrons = 19 – 9 = 10
  5. Electronic configuration = 2 7
  6. Valency = 8 – 7 = 1.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who discovered canal rays?
Answer:
Goldstein discovered canal rays in 1886.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 2.
Which charge is present on canal ray particles?
Answer:
They carry positive charge.

Question 3.
Which charge is present on protons?
Answer:
Positive charge.

Question 4.
Where are protons present in an atom?
Answer:
Protons are present in the nucleus, deep inside the atom.

Question 5.
What were the characteristics of an atom according to Dalton?
Answer:
According to Dalton an atom was indivisible and indestructible.

Question 6.
Which discovery is against Dalton’s theory?
Answer:
Discovering of electrons and protons in an atom.

Question 7.
Who proposed the first model for the structure of atom?
Answer:
J.J. Thomson.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 8.
Why did Rutherford used gold foil in a-ray scattering experiment?
Answer:
This is because he wanted as thin a layer as possible. It was about 1000 atoms thick.

Question 9.
What are α-particles?
Answer:
They are doubly charged helium ions (He2+).

Question 10.
What is the charge on α-particles?
Answer:
+2 units.

Question 11.
What is the mass of an α-particle?
Answer:
4 u.

Question 12.
How the defects of Rutherford’s model were removed by Neil Bohr?
Answer:
The electrons revolve around the nucleus in an atom in fixed circular paths called orbits or energy levels and don’t lose energy.

Question 13.
What are energy levels or shells?
Answer:
The definite orbits in where electrons revolve around the nucleus are called energy levels. These are designated as K, L, M, N ……………. 1, 2, 3, 4.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 14.
Define mass number of an element.
Answer:
It is the sum of number of neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of the atom of the element.

Question 15.
Who gave the distribution of electrons in the various shells of an atom?
Answer:
Bohr and Bury.

Question 16.
What is the maximum number of electrons present in an electronic shell?
Answer:
2n2 (Where n is the number of shells).

Question 17.
What is the maximum first four shells of an atom?
Answer:
2, 8, 18, 32.

Question 18.
What is the maximum number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom?
Answer:
8

Question 19.
Which elements are chemically inert?
Answer:
These are the elements which have 8 electrons in their outermost shells.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 20.
Define octet.
Answer:
The maximum number of electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom is called octet.

Question 21.
Define valency of an element.
Answer:
It is the combining capacity of an atom of the element and it is equal to the number of electrons lost or gained or contributed for sharing from its valence shell in order to complete its octet.

Question 22.
Define atomic number.
Answer:
It-is the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom of the element.

Question 23.
Define nucleon.
Answer:
The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom of the element are collectively known as nucleons.

Question 24.
Where is most of the mass of the element present?
Answer:
In the nucleus of an atom.

Question 25.
Define atomic mass of an element.
Answer:
It is the sum of the number of neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of its atom.

Question 26.
What are isotopes?
Answer:
Atoms of the same element having same atomic number but different mass numbers are called isotopes.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 27.
Write two isotopes of chlorine.
Answer:
\({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}\) and \({ }_{17}^{37} \mathrm{Cl}\).

Question 28.
Write two isotopes of carbon.
Answer:
\({ }_{6}^{12} \mathrm{Cl}\) and \({ }_{6}^{14} \mathrm{Cl}\).

Question 29.
Isotope of which element is used in the treatment of cancer?
Answer:
Isotope of cobalt (\({ }_{27}^{59} \mathrm{Co}\)).

Question 30.
What is the atomic mass of chlorine?
Answer:
35.5

Question 31.
Isotope of which element is used for the treatment of goitre?
Answer:
An isotope of iodine.

Question 32.
Isotope of which element is used in atomic reactor?
Answer:
Uranium.

Question 33.
What are isobars?
Answer:
Atoms of the different elements having same mass number but different atomic numbers are called isobars.

Question 34.
Give one example of isobars?
Answer:
\(\underset{(\text { Calcium })}{\stackrel{40}{20} \mathrm{Ca}}\) and \(\underset{(\text { Argon })}{\stackrel{40}{18} \mathrm{Ca}}\).

Question 35.
Write three isotopes of hydrogen.
Answer:

  1. Protium (\({ }_{1}^{1} \mathrm{H}\))
  2. Deuterium (\({ }_{2}^{1} \mathrm{H}\))
  3. Tritium (\({ }_{3}^{1} \mathrm{H}\)).

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 36.
What is the total number of electrons in an atom if its K-and L-shells are fully filled?
Answer:
10 (K-2, L-8).

Question 37.
What electrons in an atom influence its chemical properties?
Answer:
Valence electrons (electrons in the outermost shell).

Question 38.
How will you represent chlorine atom having mass number 35 and atomic number 17?
Answer:
\({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}\)

Question 39.
Name the sub-atomic particle on which size of an atom depends?
Answer:
Electron.

Question 40.
Name the atoms having same atomic number but different mass numbers.
Answer:
Isotopes.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 41.
Mg2+ has 10 electrons, what is the number of protons in it?
Answer:
10 + 2 = 12.

Question 42.
Name the element which has no neutrons in the nucleus of its atom.
Answer:
Hydrogen.

Question 43.
Out of electrons, protons and neutrons, which are same in isotopes?
Answer:
Electrons and protons.

Question 44.
There are three isotopes of hydrogen, \({ }_{1}^{1} \mathrm{H},{ }_{1}^{2} \mathrm{H},{ }_{1}^{3} \mathrm{H}\) all are electrically neutral, why?
Answer:
This is because each isotope has one electron and one proton.

Question 45.
An element has atomic number 16. Give its electronic configuration and number of valence electrons.
Answer:
Electronic configuration 2, 8, 6.

Question 46.
The number of electrons in the valence shell of sodium (Na) is ……………… .
Answer:
1.

Question 47.
Fluorine belongs to …………… family.
Answer:
Halogen.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 48.
In an atom, the number of …………… is the same as the number of ………………. .
Answer:
Electrons, protons

Question 49.
Sodium has …………….. electron …………….. than sodium ion.
Answer:
One, more

Question 50.
Isotopes of an element are …………….. because they have ……….. number of electrons.
Answer:
Chemically similar, same

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 51.
The number of electrons in the valence shell of an atom cannot be ………………..>
Answer:
More than eight.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by neutralization reaction? Explain with an experiment.
Answer:
It is a chemical reaction in which acids reacts with base to form salt and water. It is known as neutralization reaction.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
Process of neutralization

Experiment: Take a solution of dilute sodium hydroxide in a beaker. Add few drops of phenolphthalein in this solution. Its colour changes to pink. Take a burette filled with dilute hydrochloric acid. Fix it vertically on a stand as shown in Fig. Place a beaker under it. Add the hydrochloric acid slowly to the beaker with the help of burette and go on swirling the beaker slowly. When the colour of solution disappears then stop adding acid to beaker. Now there is no effect of Red to Blue litmus to the solution. Now there is only salt and water in the beaker which is neutral to litmus. This is known as neutralization reaction.

Example:
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O
HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O

Question 2.
Write briefly chemical properties of acids.
Answer:
Acids have several chemical properties :
1. Reaction with metals. Acids reacts with active metals. Zinc, Magnesium, Iron, Mangenese etc. reacts with them to produce hydrogen gas.
Zn(s) + dil. H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Mg(s) +dil.2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Fe(s) + dil. H2SO4 (aq) → FeSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Mn(s) + dil. HNO3 (aq) → Mn(NO3)(aq) + H2 (g)

2. Reaction with metals carbonate and metal bicarbonate. Acids reacts with metal carbonate and metal bicarbonate to produce C02.
Na2CO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
K2CO3 + 2HCl → 2KCl + H2O + CO2

3. Reaction with bases. Acids reacts with base to show neutralization. They produce salt.
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O
Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O

4. Reaction with sulphites and bisulphites. Acids react with metal sulphite and bisulphite to produce SO2 gas.
CaSO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O +SO2 (g)
NaHSO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + SO2(g)

5. Reaction with metal sulphides and hydrogen sulphides. Acids react with metal various metal sulphide and hydrogen sulphides to produce H2S gas.
FeS + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2 S(g)
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

6. Reaction with metal Chlorides. When metal chloride heated with acids the reaction takes place.
NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl (g)
NaCl + NaHSO4 → Na2SO4 + HCl (g)

7. Reaction with metal nitrates. Concentration acid reacts with metal nitrate.
NaNO3 +H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HNO3
NaNO3 + NaHSO4 → Na2SO4 + HNO3

8. Reaction with metal oxides. Metal oxides reacts with dilute acids to form salts of
Na2O + 2HNO3 → 2NaHO3 + H2O
CuO + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2O

Question 3.
Write in brief chemical properties of bases/alkalis.
Answer:
Important chemical properties of bases/alkalis are given below :
1. Reaction with metals, Bases react with some metals to produce hydrogen gas.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

2. Reaction with air. Some bases react with CO2 present in air.
2NaOH + CO2 → Na2CO3
2KOH + CO2 → K2CO3

3. Reaction with acids. Bases react with acids to produce salts.
NaOH+ HCl → NaCl + H2O
Fe(OH)2 + 2HCl → FeCl2 + 2H2O
Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + 2H2O

4. Reaction with salts. Salts of copper, iron, Zinc etc. react with bases and produce insoluble metal hydroxides.
ZnSO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + Zn(OH)2 ↓
CuSO4 + 2NH4OH → (NH4)2SO4 + Cu(OH)2 ↓
FeCl3 + 3NaOH → 3NaCl + Fe(OH)3 ↓

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 4.
What is the importance of pH in everyday life?
Answer:
pH has very important role in our life :
1. In animal world. Many of the processes in our body occur within the pH range of 7-0 to 7-8. We can survive only in this narrow range. pH value of our blood, tears, saliva is nearly 7-4. Survival will become impossible if this value becomes less than 7-0 or more than 7-8. When pH of rain water decreases from 7-0 to 5-6 or less then it is called acid rain. WThen acid rain flows to the rivers then pH value of river water lowers. Survival of aquatic life in such rivers become difficult.

2. For plants. For healthy growth of plants a specific pH range of soil is required. If soil becomes more basic or acidic, produce badly affected.

3. Digestive system. Our stomach produces HCl, which without harming us help in the digestion of food. Duiing indigestion the stomach produces too much of acid. This causes pain and irritation in the stomach. To get rid of this pain, bases are used which are called antacids. For this weak base like milk of magnesia is used.

4. Tooth decay. If pH value of the mouth is lower than 5-5, then tooth decay begins. Our teeth are made up of calcium phosphate which is hardest substance in our body. It is not soluble in water but starts decaying when pH of the mouth is lower than 5-5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by .degradation of sugar and food particles. To get rid of this we should use basic tooth paste. This will neutralize the acid and tooth decay can be prevented.

5. Relief from insect stings. When some insects sting us, they leave a special type of acid in our body. Bees, ants etc. leave methanoic acid in our body by their sting. To get relief from pain, mild base like baking soda is rubbed on the stung area.

6. Safety from special plants. Plants like nettle have stingging hair. By touching them we feel pain similar to insect sting. This pain is due to methanoic acid. Conventionally, one can get relief by rubbing leaves of dock plant on the stung area.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are indicators? How do indicators are categorized? Explain.
Answer:
Those substances which change their colour in acidic and basic solutions, are called indicators.
Indicators are categorized into two types on the basis of their special properties and characteristics.

  1. Indicators which give colour to acids and basic medium.
  2. Indicators which give smell to acids and basic medium.

1. Colour giving indicators :
(A) Litmus solution: Litmus solution is purple dye which is obtained from Lichen plant. This is available as red or blue solution and also in the form of litmus paper. Blue litmus turn to red in the presence of acids and Red litmus turns to blue in the presence of basic media. Litmus is neither acidic nor basic by itself.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 4

(B) Turmeric: Turmeric change to red-brown colour in the presence of bases. That is why vegetable stain on the clothes becomes red brown when washed by applying soap which is alkaline.

(C) Phenolphthalein: This is synthetic indicator. It gives pink colour in the presence of bases.

(D) Methyl orange: This is also synthetic indicator. It gives pink colour in the presence of acidic medium and yellow in the presence of bases.

2. Olfactory indicators: Chopped onion, vanilla essence and clove oil change smell in the presence of acids and bases act as olfactory indicators.

Question 2.
What is dilution?
Answer:
When we mix an acid or base with water, the number of H+/OH~ ions per unit volume decreases, it is called dilution. By dilution, acids and bases are ionized.

Question 3.
Give characteristics of acids.
Answer:

  • They are sour to taste.
  • They turn blue litmus to red.
  • Their solution is not like soap solution.
  • They produce hydrogen gas when reacts with metals.
  • They react with carbonates to produce carbon dioxide.
  • Acid react with bases to produce salts and water.

Question 4.
Give four uses of acids in our everyday life.
Answer:

  1. Vinegar is used in cooking food and acts as preservative and used in pickles.
  2. HCl in our stomach destroys the harmful bacteria, which reach there with our food.
  3. Tartaric acid is used to prepare baking soda.
  4. Carbonic acid is used in soft drinks.

Question 5.
What are the harmful effects of acids in everyday life?
Answer:

  • They can destroy living cells.
  • Concentrated acids can badly damage the skin and soft organs.
  • These can damage eatables.

Question 6.
Differentiate between strong acids and weak acids.
Answer:

Strong acids Weak acids
1. These get completely dissolved in water and produce H+ ions and negative ions. 1. These do not completely dissociate into H+ ions and negative ions.
2. Equilibrium is not established. 2. Equilibrium is established between ions and undissociated ions.
3. Example: H2SO4, HNO3. 3. Example: H2CO3, CH3COOH.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 7.
Differentiate between strong base and weak base.
Answer:

Strong base Weak base
1. These get completely dissolved in water to produce OH– ions. 1. These are partially soluble in water.
2. Example: NaOH, KOH 2. Example: Ca(OH)2, Mg(OH)2.

Question 8.
Categorize the following compounds as strong and weak acids and bases,
(i) HCl
(ii) H2SO4
(iii) CH3CHOOH
(iv) HCN
(v) NH4OH
(vi) H3PO4
(vii) NaOH
(viii) Ca(OH)2
(ix) KOH
(x) H2CO3
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 5

Question 9.
What is the reason for electric conduction in acids? Explain.
Answer:
Acids produce H+ ions. Due to ions acids can conduct electricity. This conduction takes place in water solution.
HCl + H2O → H3O + +Cl–
HNO3 +H2O → H3O+ +NO3–

Question 10.
What happens when a base is dissolved in water? Explain it.
Answer:
Bases when dissolved in water give hydroxide OH– ion. The water-soluble bases are called alkalis.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 6

Question 11.
Why are bases not touched or tasted?
Answer:
Bases have a bitter taste like soaps and are harmful to skin. They are harmful when touched or tasted.

Question 12.
Write uses of alkalies/bases.
Answer:

  • These are used to make soap.
  • These are used in basic batteries.
  • These are used in making antacids.
  • Used in Petrol refining and paper industry.
  • To remove stains of grease from cloths.
  • To make hard water, soft.

Question 13.
Give normal characteristics of bases.
Answer:

  • They are bitter to taste.
  • They are soapy to touch and are harmful for skin.
  • These turn litmus to blue.
  • These turn turmeric to red brown colour.
  • These react with acids to produce salts and water.
  • They turn phenolphthalein solution to pink.

Question 14.
What is difference between alkali and base?
Answer:
Those alkalies which are soluble in water are called bases. This means all bases are alkalies but all alkalies are not bases, e.g. Ferric hydroxide [Fe(OH)3] and cupric hydroxide [Cu(OH)2] are alkalies but are not bases since these are not soluble in water.

Question 15.
What are the sources to get common salt (NaCl)? Explain.
Answer:
We can get common salt from following sources :

  • Sea water: A huge amount of salt is dissolved in sea water. Salt in obtained from sea water through salt shallows. Solar heat and air help in the evaporation of sea water. We get salt.
  • Mineral salt: Deposits of solid salt are found in many parts of the world. These beds of rock salts were formed when seas of bygone ages dried up. This salt is mined similar to the mining of coal. These rocks are found in Mandi (Himachal Pradesh), Khewra (Pakistan). Due to impurities this salt is brown in colour.
  • From Lakes: Salt is obtained from Sambher lake in Rajasthan, great salt lake in America, Lake Elton in Roose etc. This salt in obtained by evaporation.

Question 16.
Write characteristics of common salt.
Answer:

  • Colour and state: It is colourless crystalline substance which melts at 820°C.
  • Solubility: Salt is soluble in water.
  • Effect of heat: On heating salt a cracking sound is produced due to breaking of ‘ salt crystals.
  • Hygroscopic: Salt absorb moisture from the air, This is due to presence of magnesium and calcium chloride.

Reaction with sulphuric acid. Salt reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid to produce HCl gas.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 7

Reaction with silver nitrate. Salt reacts with silver nitrate to form white precipitates of silver chloride.
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3

Question 17.
Give uses of common salt.
Answer:

  • Salt is important constituent of our food.
  • This is used as preservative in many eatables.
  • It is used in soap, pottery industry.
  • It is used in making freezing mixture.
  • It is used in the preparation of bleaching powder, caustic soda, hydrochloric acid, washing soda, Baking powder etc.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 18.
What is chlor-alkali process? Give pictorial representation of the products of this reaction. Give their uses.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 8
Important products of chior-alkali process.

When current is passed through aqueous solution of salt gets dissociated and sodium hydroxide is produced. This is known as chlor-alkali process because the products in this reaction are chlorine (chlore) and sodium hydroxide (base)
2NaCl(aq)+ 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

All these products are very important and useful in industry medicine, home and cosmetics etc. Chlorine and hydrogen are the by products of this process.

Question 19.
How is bleaching powder prepared? Give its common characteristics and uses.
Answer:
Bleaching powder is obtained by the reaction of chlorine with slaked lime.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 9
To manufacture bleaching powder at large scale, we have a special tower there is a hopper at the top of tower, slaked lime is added through this hopper. At the bottom hot air and chlorine gas are blown. Chlorine moves upwards and is absorbed completely by slaked lime and bleaching powder is produced.

Characteristics :

  • Bleaching powder is light yellow coloured powder, It has a sharp smell of chlorine.
  • It is soluble in water, but not completely.
  • It reacts with CO2 of air and loose its chlorine.
    CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2
  • It reacts with acids
    CaOCl2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + Cl2
    CaOCl2 +H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + Cl2

Uses

  • It is used in paper and textile industry.
  • Used to disinfect drinking water to make it free from germs.
  • It is used to make unshrinkable work.
  • It is used for preparing chloroform.
  • It acts as oxidising agent.

Question 20.
Write chemical formula for washing soda. When its crystals are open in air, then what happens?
Answer:
Chemical formula for washing soda is Na2CO3. 10H2O. When its crystals are left open in air then due to efforescence nine molecules of water are lost in the air.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3 .H2O + 9H2O

Question 21.
What happens when solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated? Give chemical reaction for the equation.
Answer:
When sodium hydrogen carbonate solution is heated then carbon dioxide gas is produced and sodium carbonate is produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 10

Question 22.
What is common name of the compound CaOCl2? Name the substance which reacts with chlorine to produce bleaching powder?
Answer:
Common name of compounds CaOCl2 is bleaching powder. The substance which reacts with chlorine to produce bleaching powder is slaked lime [Ca(OH)2],

Question 23.
If during the preparation of plaster of Paris the process of heating is not controlled then which substance is formed?
Answer:
Temperature should be maintained at 373 K during the preparation of plaster of Paris. If temperature is not controlled then unhydrated calcium sulphate (CaSO4) is produced which do not have the properties of plaster of Paris. This is known as dead burnt Plaster.

Question 24.
Explain preparation, properties and uses of baking soda (NaHCO3).
Answer:
Chemical formula for baking soda is NaHCO3 and its chemical name is sodium bicarbonate. It is formed when CO2 is passed through aqueous solution of Na2CO3.
Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O → 2NaHCO3

It can also be prepared from sodium chloride.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 11
Properties: When it is heated it swells and becomes light. On heating it produces CO2. It is soluble in water.

Uses :

  • It is used in the preparation of baking powder.
  • It acts as antacid in case of acidity in the stomach.
  • It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.

Question 25.
Explain the following processes.
(i) Deliquescence
Answer:
Deliquescence: When some compounds absorb moisture from air and change to solution then this process is called deliquescence.
e.g. common salt is deliquescence.

(ii) Bleach.
Answer:
Bleach: When some gas or compound decolourises something, this is known as bleach, e.g. bleaching powder or chlorine is used for this purpose.

Question 26.
What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through fresh lime water?
Answer:
When carbon dioxide is passsed through fresh lime water in small quantity then insoluble calcium carbonate is formed and colour of lime water turns to milky.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 12
If excess of CO2 is passed through this solution, calcium carbonate change to soluble bicarbonate and milkiness disappears.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 13
If this solution is heated again, milky colour again appears because calcium bicarbonate again change to calcium carbonate.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 14

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 27.
What is pH scale? How does it respresent acidic and basic nature of a solution? Represent whole range of pH and [H3O]+.
Answer:
A scale which is used to know the concentration of hydrogen ion in a solution is called pH scale. Here ‘p’ stands for ‘potenz’ a German word which means power. We can measure from zero to 14 on this scale. Zero represents strongest acid, and 14 represents strongest base. pH is such a number which represents acidic or basic nature of a solution. More is the concentration of hydrogen ion in a solution less is its pH value. If a solution is neutral its pH value is 7. If pH is lower than 7 then solution is acidic and if pH is more than 7 then solution is basic. Normally pH can be found by using universal pH indicator paper.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 15

Question 28.
Are salt crystals really dry? Explain.
Answer:
Copper sulphate crystals which seems to be dry contains water of crystallization. These seem to be dry hut are not. When we heat the crystals then this water is removed and colour of salt become white. When salt is made wet its colour again change to blue.

Fixed number of molecules of water present in unit formula of salt is called water of crystallization. In unit formula of copper sulphate, there are five molecules of water. Formula for hydrated copper sulphate is CuSO4. 5H2O. In Na2CO3.10H2O there are 10 molecules of water.

Gypsum is another salt which contains water of crystalization. There are two molecules of water in it.
Its formula is CaSO4.2H2O.

Question 29.
How is washing soda prepared? Give its uses.
Answer:
Washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O) is obtained from sodium chloride. By heating soda, we get sodium carbonate. By recrystallization of sodium carbonate, washing soda is obtained. This is a basic salt.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 16
Sodium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate are useful in several industrial processes.

Uses of washing soda :

  • Sodium carbonate is used in glass, soap and paper industry.
  • It is used in the manufacturing of sodium compound such as Borax.
  • It is used in cleaning agent for domestic purpose.
  • It is used to remove permanent hardness of water.

Question 30.
What is efflorescence? Name one compound which shows efflorescence? Explain your answer with an equation.
Answer:
The phenomenon of losing some part of water of cyrstallization into air from a crystal is called efflorescence. This phenomenon takes place on heating or some times spontaneously. Washing soda contain water of crystallization hence its formula is Na2CO3. 10H2O. When it is placed in open then it loose its 9 molecules of water and single hydrate is left.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3.H2O + 9H2O

on heating it looses all of its water.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3 + 10H2O

Question 31.
A baker found that a cake prepared by him is small in size and hard. Which constituent, he forgot to add, due to which cake can become soft and big. Give reason.
Answer:
Baker forgot to add baking powder. When baking powder (a mixture of sodium bicarbonate and Tartaric acid) is added to cake and on heating tartaric acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate to produce carbon dioxide. This carbon dioxide makes the cake to swell and cake becomes light. Baker, definitely forgot to add baking powder that is why cake is small and hard.

Question 32.
When bleaching powder is left open in air, then what happens?
Answer:
When bleaching powder is left open in air, then its properties change. C02 present in air reacts with it due to which calcium carbonate and chlorine gas are produced. Properties of bleaching are lost.
CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 33.
What are the important uses of bleaching powder?
Answer:

  • It is used to bleach cotton cloths, linen and wood pulp.
  • It is used to disinfect drinking water and to make it free of germs.
  • It is used to make chloroform.
  • Unshrinkable wool is prepared using bleaching powder.
  • It acts as oxidizing agent in Laboratories and in industry.

Question 34.
Name the compounds used in hospitals for supporting fractured bones in the right position. How is it prepared?
Answer:
The compound used in hospitals for supporting fractured bones in the right position is plaster of paris. It is calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4. \(\frac{1}{2}\)H2O). It is prepared at a temperature of 373 K by heating gypsum.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 17

Question 35.
Write important uses of Plaster of Paris.
Answer:

  • It is used in making toys, moulds, ceramic, containers etc.
  • It is used for making material for decoration and statues.
  • In hospitals it is used by doctors to set fractured bones and by dental doctors for creating mould to make dentures.
  • Used in buildings, to give plane look to walls and ceiling.
  • Material used by fire fighters.
  • It is used to stop leakage of gases in Laboratories.

Question 36.
Many people complaint about gas problem in stomach. What is main reason for this? Why do they use ‘milk of magnesia’ to get relief from this?
Or
What are antacids?
Answer:
A juice is secreted in the stomach which contains enzyme pepsine and hydrochloric acid. Enzyme pepsine is active in acidic medium. When hdyrochloric acid is produced in excess quantity, then we get burning and pain in the stomach, which is known as acidity.

Those substances which are used to neutralize this acid are called antacids. Usually people take a mild base like milk of magnesia for this purpose. It neutralizes the excess acid and provide relief.

Question 37.
Idols and utensils made up of copper and brass become shiny when rubbed with lemon? Why?
Answer:
Idols and utensils made up of copper and brass become dull due to coating of copper oxide. Citric acid present in lemon react with it to form salt, which can be easily washed with water. Brass and copper surface becomes shiny.

Question 38.
For the safety of teeth what type of toothpaste should be used. Why?
Or
How does change in pH-value helps in tooth decay?
Answer:
Bacteria present in mouth produce acid by degradation of sugar and food particles. This reduces the pH value of mouth which causes tooth decay. After foods we should used basic tooth pastes to prevent tooth decay. Mild bases present in it neutralizes the excess acid. This reducing the chances of tooth decay.

Question 39.
What is the remedy for sting of Nettle plant? Write.
Answer:
Nettle is a herbaceous plant found in jungles. Its leaves have stinging hair. These hair cause painful sting if touched accidentally. This pain is due to the secretion of methanoic acid by stinging hair in the body. To get rid of this pain leaves of dock plant are rubbed on the area of sting. Leaves of dock plant have base in them. This plant often grows beside the nettle plant. It neutralizes the acidic effect and gives relief from pain.

Question 40.
What is acidic rain? How is the pH of soil can be measured?
Answer:
Some of the gases like SO2, SO3, NO2 etc. present in the atmosphere gets dissolved in rain water and fall on earth in the from of acid is called acid rain. This corrodes some of the metals and marble.

pH value of soil can be measured by using paper soaked in universal indicator. This way we can know the nature of soil as acidic or basic. When pH value of rain water is less < than 5-6 then it is called acid rain. To know the pH value of soil, it is dissolved in water in a test tube and its filter is tested with universal indicator pH paper.

Question 41.
Is human life possible on venus planet?
Answer:
No, human life is not possible on venus plant the atmosphere of venus is covered with thick white and yellow clouds of sulphuric acid. If there is a rain is presence of water, it will be acidic and the existence of human life will be impossible.

Question 42.
Magnesium is treated with dil. H2SO4. The gas evolved is collected as shown below. Name the method used for collection of gas and the gas produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 18
Answer:
Downward displacement of water. The gas produced is hydrogen.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 43.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 19
Answer:
Fix two nails on a cork and place it in a 100 ml beaker. Connect thses nails to a 6 volt battery through a bulb and switch as shown in the figure.

Pour some aqueous solution of alcohol or aqueous solution of glucose in the beaker so that nails dip in it. Switch on the current. The bulb does not glow indicating that alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in aqueous solution and hence do not produce H+(aq) ions although they contain hydrogen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 20
Aqueous solution of alcohol or glucose does not conduct electricity

1 — Cathode
2 — Anode

Question 44.
Observe the figure and answer the following:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 21
(i) What are 1 and 2?
Answer:
1-Soap bubble filled with hydrogen 2-Burning of hydrogen gas with a pop sound

(ii) Write down the reactions taking place in test tube.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 22

Question 45.
In the pH paper shown in figure given below, pH of lemon juice is 2.2 and that milk of magnesia is 10. What is its significance?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 23
Answer:

  • Lemon justice is acidic because pH is less than 7.
  • Milk of magnesia is basic because pH is more than 7.

Question 46.
Which gas is being produced during reaction in the test tube? How does this gas react with Calcium Hydroxide/Lime water?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 24
Answer:
Carbon dioxide (CO2).
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 25

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What makes food sour?
Answer:
Presence of acids.

Question 2.
What is the reason of bitterness?
Answer:
Presence of bases.

Question 3.
What is the reason of acidity in stomach?
Answer:
excess of HCl acid.

Question 4.
What is the effect of acid on litmus?
Answer:
Blue litmus changes to red.

Question 5.
What are olfactory indicators?
Answer:
Some substances which change their smell in acidic or basic medium are called . olfactory indicators.

Question 6.
Give three examples of olfactory indicators.
Answer:
Chopped onions, clove coil, vanilla essence.

Question 7.
Which gas is produced when Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
Hydrogen gas.

Question 8.
Which gas is produced when metal carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates react with acid?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 9.
What happens when CO2 is passed through lime water?
Answer:
Lime water turns milky.

Question 10.
Why milkiness of lime water disappear when excess of CO2 is passed through it?
Answer:
Due to formation of Ca(HCO3)2 which is soluble in water.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 11.
Write the name and colour of the compound formed when copper oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
Blue-green copper chloride.

Question 12.
Which name is used for metal oxide?
Answer:
Alkaline oxide.

Question 13.
What is the nature of non-metal oxide?
Answer:
Acidic nature.

Question 14.
Why does current flow in acids?
Answer:
Due to ions.

Question 15.
Which ion is produced in acidic solution?
Answer:
Hydrogen ion (H+).

Question 16.
What is used to dry, moist gas?
Answer:
Calcium chloride.

Question 17.
How do we represent hydrogen ion?
Answer:
H+(aq) or hydronium ion (HgO+).

Question 18.
Which ions is produced by bases in water?
Answer:
Hydroxide (OH–) ion.

Question 19.
What is base?
Answer:
Alkalies which are soluble in base.

Question 20.
What should we do to dilute an acid?
Answer:
We should add acid to water slowly and not vice versa.

Question 21.
What is dilution?
Answer:
When we add acid or base in water, concentration of ions (HgO+/OH–) per unit volume decreases, this is known as dilution.

Question 22.
What is name of mixture of various indicators?
Answer:
Universal indicator.

Question 23.
What is that which show different colour at different concen-tration of hydrogen ion in a solution?
Answer:
Universal indicator.

Question 24.
What is pH scale?
Answer:
To know the strength of H+ ion in a solution a scale is used known as pH scale.

Question 25.
What is p in pH?
Answer:
‘p’ means ‘potenz’.

Question 26.
What is the range of pH scale?
Answer:
0 to 14.

Question 27.
What is pH value of neutral solution?
Answer:
pH value is 7.

Question 28.
If pH value of solution is less than 7, then what does it indicate?
Answer:
Acidic solution.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 29.
If pH value of a solution is more than 7, then what does it indicate?
Answer:
Solution is basic.

Question 30.
What is the value on pH scale for lemon juice?
Answer:
Nearly 2.2.

Question 31.
What is the value on pH scale for pure water?
Answer:
7

Question 32.
What is the value on pH scale for milk of magnesia?
Answer:
10.

Question 33.
What is the value on pH scale for sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
Nearly 14.

Question 34.
What is pH range in which our body works?
Answer:
Our body works in the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8.

Question 35.
What is pH value of acid rain?
Answer:
It is less than 5.6.

Question 36.
In which type of river survival of aquatic animals is difficult?
Answer:
When acid rain water flows to the river.

Question 37.
What surrounds the venus planet?
Answer:
Thick white and yellow clouds of sulphuric acid.

Question 38.
Which acid is produced in our stomach?
Answer:
Hydrochloric acid.

Question 39.
What is produced in the stomach when there is indigestion.
Answer:
Excess of HCl.

Question 40.
What is used for treating excess of acid in the stomach?
Answer:
Antacids (mild bases).

Question 41.
When does tooth decay begin?
Answer:
When pH value in less than 5.5.

Question 42.
Teeth are made up of which substance?
Answer:
Calcium phosphate.

Question 43.
Why do we feel pain due to bee sting?
Answer:
Due to acid.

Question 44.
Which substance is applied on the stinging area which gives relief from pain?
Answer:
Weak base like baking soda.

Question 45.
What do the stinging hair of nettle plant secret?
Answer:
Methanoic acid.

Question 46.
What is the remedy for sting of herbaceous plant Nettle?
Answer:
Rub leaves of dock plant.

Question 47.
Which acid is there in vinegar?
Answer:
Acetic acid.

Question 48.
Which acid is there in lemon, orange?
Answer:
Citric acid.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 49.
Which acid is in curd and milk?
Answer:
Lactic acid.

Question 50.
What is main source of salt?
Answer:
Sea water.

Question 51.
What is exothermic reaction?
Answer:
Those chemical reactions in which heat is produced.

Question 52.
What is endothermic reaction?
Answer:
Those chemical reactions in which heat in absorbed are called endothermic reactions.

Question 53.
Solid sodium chloride does not conduct electric current, why?
Answer:
In sodium chloride, Na+ and Cl- ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction and ions can’t move freely. Hence solid sodium chloride does not conduct electric current.

Question 54.
In which state chemical reactions take place easily.
Answer:
Gaseous or liquid state.

Question 55.
What is solute?
Answer:
It is a compound, which in aqueous solution, dissociate into positive and negative ions.

Question 56.
What is a strong electrolyte?
Answer:
A compound which dissociate in water and its dissociation percentage is 30%, is called strong electrolyte.

Question 57.
What is weak electrolyte?
Answer:
A compound which dissociate in water and its dissociation percentage is less than 30% is called weak electrolyte.

Question 58.
Which acids are obtained from animals?
Answer:
Organic acids.

Question 59.
Who gave pH scale and when?
Answer:
pH scale was given by Danish Chemist Soren Sorensen in 1909.

Question 60.
Concentration of which ion is important in every Biological and many industrial processes?
Answer:
Concentration of hydrogen ion.

Question 61.
What is the reason for burn feeling in stomach and chest? How to get rid of this situation?
Answer:
When excess of hydrochloric acid is produced in stomach, then we feel burn feeling in stomach and chest. We can be relieved by taking baking soda.
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2

Question 62.
What is baking powder?
Answer:
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and tartaric acid.

Question 63.
If we do not use tartaric acid in baking powder for making a cake. How will the cake taste?
Answer:
It will be bitter due to sodium carbonate.

Question 64.
Which chemicals are used in fire extinguishers?
Answer:
Sodium hydrogen carbonate and sulphuric acid.

Question 65.
Which gas is produced in soda acid fire extinguisher?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide gas.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 66.
Which compound is used to make water free of germs?
Answer:
Bleaching powder (CaOCl2).

Question 67.
Name chemical name of quick lime.
Answer:
Calcium oxide (CaO).

Question 68.
Name the deliquescent present in salt.
Answer:
Magnesium chloride (MgCl2).

Question 69.
What type of smell is given by bleaching powder?
Answer:
Smell of ehlorme gas.

Question 70.
Sometimes eyes become red after swimming in a swimming pool why?
Answer:
Due to excess of bleaching powder in water.

Question 71.
When did Egyptions used plaster of paris?
Answer:
They used it 5000 years ago.

Question 72.
How did the Egyptions prepare plaster of Paris?
Answer:
They heated Gypsum in open air.

Question 73.
What was the use of Plaster of Paris for Egyptions?
Answer:
They used to fix rocks with it as cement for their monuments.

Question 74.
What is the relation of ‘Paris’ in plaster of Paris?
Answer:
In the beginning Gypsum was obtained from Montmarti in Paris, thus paris is related with it.

Question 75.
What is heated to which temperature from preparing plaster of Paris?
Answer:
Plater of Paris is obtained from gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) by heating it to 373 K.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
pH of an acidic solution is:
(A) >7
(B) <7
(C) 7
(D) 14.
Answer:
(B) <7

Question 2.
Neutral solution has pH:
(A) 7
(B) >7
(C) < 7
(D) 14.
Answer:
(A) 7

Question 3.
Common name of NaCO3. 10H2O is :
(A) Bleaching powder
(B) Baking powder
(C) Plaster of Paris
(D) Washing soda.
Answer:
(D) Washing soda.

Question 4.
Acid and base react to form salt and water. This reaction is called:
(A) Washing soda.
(B) Chioro-alkali
(C) Reduction
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(D) None of these.

Question 5.
What is used for plastering fractured bones?
(A) Cement
(B) Gypsum
(C) Plaster of Paris
(D) Soda.
Answer:
(C) Plaster of Paris

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 6.
Toothpaste used for cleaning teeth is :
(A) Acidic
(B) Neutral
(C) Basic
(D) None.
Answer:
(A) Acidic

Question 7.
A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is :
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 10
Answer:
(D) 10.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The common name of CaOCl2 is ______
Answer:
Bleaching powder.

Question 2.
The sodium compound used for softening hard water is ______
Answer:
Washing soda.

Question 3.
The common name of Na2CO3.10H2O is ______
Answer:
Washing soda.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 10-15 words :

Question 1.
When was Ranjit Singh born? What was his father’s name?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was born on November 13, 1780 at Gujranwala. Sardar Mahan Singh was his father. He was the chief of the Sukerchakiya Misl.

Question 2.
Who was Mehtab Kaur?
Answer:
Mehtab Kaur was Ranjit Singh’s wife. She was the daughter of Gurbax Singh and grand daughter of Jai Singh of Kanheya Misl.

Question 3.
Which Era is termed as the Patronage of Trio?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was a minor when his father, Mahan Singh died. Therefore, from 1792 to 1797 A.D., the reins of the Sukarchakiya Misl remained in the hands of Raj Kaur (his mother), Sada Kaur (his mother-in-law) and Dewan Lakhpat Rai. This period is called the period of Trio.

Question 4.
Why did the residents of Lahore invite Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore?
Answer:
Lahore was ruled by three Bhangi sardars named Chet Singh, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh. The residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of these sardars. So – they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore.

Question 5.
Name the Sardars who were against Ranjit Singh in the Battle of Bhasin.
Answer:
Gulab Singh of Amritsar. Sahib Singh of Gujrat, Jodh Singh of Wazirabad and -Jassa Singh of Ramgarhia Misl were opposed to Ranjit Singh in the Battle of Bhasin.

Question 6.
Why did Maharaja Ranjit Singh attack Amritsar and Lohgarh?
Answer:
Amritsar had become the religious capital of the Sikhs. Similarly Lohgarh had military importance. Ranjit Singh attacked Amritsar and Lohgarh to capture them.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 7.
Of which Misl was Tara Singh Gheba the leader?
Answer:
Tara Singh Gheba was the leader of Dallewalia Misl. He was a very brave and powerful Misl Chief.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Write about Ranjit Singh’s childhood and education.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was the only son of his parents. In his childhood, he was brought up with great care. When he was five years old, he was sent for receiving education to the Dharmshala of Bhai Bhagu Singh at Gujranwala. But he showed no interest in studies. He, therefore, remained unlettered throughout his life. Thus most of his time was spent in hunting and other amusements. In his childhood, he had become a good swordsman and a horseman. He had been the victim of smallpox in his childhood. Thus, due to this terrible disease, he lost his left eye.

Question 2.
Describe the events of bravery of Ranjit Singh’s childhood.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh had all the qualities of a brave warrior. He was just 10 years old, when he began to fight in the battles along with his father and fought very bravely. At the age of 11, one day he, while hunting, Hashmat Khan, an enemy of his father finding him all alone, attacked him. Ranjit Singh faced Hashmat Khan very bravely and killed him on the spot. These events show the bravery of Ranjit Singh in his childhood.

Question 3.
Describe the events of occupation of Lahore by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh conquered Lahore at the very first opportunity. In those days, Lahore was under the rule of three Bhangi sardars named Chet Singh, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh. The residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of these sardars. So they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore. Ranjit Singh lost no time in attacking Lahore with a large army. On hearing the news of the attack, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh fled away. Only Chet Singh feebly resisted Ranjit Singh’s army. But he was defeated. In this way, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 4.
Write the significance of the conquest of Amritsar.
Answer:
The importance of the conquest of Amritsar by Ranjit Singh was as under:

  • It was the religious capital of the Sikhs. Its occupation raised the prestige of Ranjit Singh.
  • As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, the military power of Ranjit Singh increased.
    The fort of Lohgarh proved to be a boon for Ranjit Singh. He got the famous gun Zamzama from Mai Sukhan.
  • Ranjit Singh got the services of Akali Phool Singh and his 2000 Nihang comrades. Because of the extraordinary courage and bravery of the Nihangs, Ranjit Singh won many glorious victories.
  • As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, Ranjit Singh’s name and fame spread far and wide. Many Indians gave up the jobs of the East India Company and got employment with Maharaja Ranjit Singh. Many European soldiers also joined the army of the Maharaja.

Question 5.
How did Maharaja Ranjit Singh occupy friendly Misls?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was a great diplomat. He befriended the rulers of Ahluwalia, Kanahiya and Ramgarhia Misls. Finding a suitable opportunity, he captured these Misls.

Following is the description of the conquests of these Misls by Ranjit Singh:

  1. Occupation of the Kanahiya Misl. The Kanahiya Misl was led by the mother- in-law of Ranjit Singh. In 1812 A.D., Ranjit Singh got from her many regions of this Misl except Wadni.
  2. Capture of the Ramgarhia Misl. The leader of this Misl was Jodh Singh Ramgarhia. He died in 1815 A.D. and Ranjit Singh merged all his territories in his state.
  3. Ahluwalia Misl. In 1826 A.D., Ranjit Singh broke his relations with Fateh Singh of Ahluwalia Misl. As a result, he captured many territories of Ahluwalia Misl. But in 1827 A.D., they became Mends again.

Question 6.
Write the consequences of the conquest of Multan by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
The conquest of Multan was an important military achievement of Ranjit Singh. The significance of this victory can be known from the following facts :
1. A Death blow to the Afghan Power. It is aptly said that “the conquest of Multan ended the Afghan influence in the Punjab.” Ranjit Singh completely smashed the power of the Afghans.

2. Commercial and Strategic Advantages. The victory of Multan was also important from the commercial as well as military point of view. Trade with Sindh and Afghanistan began to be carried on through this route. Consequently, the trade in Punjab made much progress. In addition to this, Multan was situated on the route from Delhi to Kandhar.

3. Increase in the Revenue. The victory of Multan also increased the income of Ranjit Singh. It is estimated that Ranjit Singh received an income of about 7 lakh rupees a year only from the Multan town.

4. Increase in the Prestige of Ranjit Singh. With the victory of Multan, the fame of Ranjit Singh spread in all the four corners of the Punjab.

Question 7.
Describe thle battle of Attock.
Answer:
An understanding was reached between Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan of Kabul in 1813 A.D. It was decided that Ranjit Singh would send 12 thousand soldiers to help Fateh Khan for the conquest of Kashmir and Fateh Khan, in return, would give him one- third of the conquered territories in addition to the booty of war. Besides, Ranjit Singh promised to help Fateh Khan in his conquest of Attock, whereas Fateh Khan would help Ranjit Singh in the conquest of Multan.

The combined forces of Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan conquered Kashmir with great ease but Fateh Khan did not fulfil his promise. He did not pay him anything out of the money looted by him by the conquest of Kashmir. Ranjit Singh attacked Attock in a fury (according to the treaty, Fateh Khan was to occupy Attock). His commander-in-chief Azizuddin took Attock from Jahandad Khan and gave him one lakh rupees and a big jagir. Fateh Khan could not tolerate this. He attacked Attock with a big army immediately. A furious battle was fought between the Sikhs and the Afghans at Hazro near Attock. The Sikhs came out victorious in this battle.

Question 8.
Write about the question of Sindh.
Answer:
The Sindh region, being situated on the South-western front of Lahore, had a great military importance. It was essential for Ranjit Singh to capture it so that he might save his state from foreign invasions from this side.

The British Government understood well the commercial importance of Sindh and Shikarpur. So it did not want this region to fall into the hands of Ranjit Singh. In 1831 A.D. the British Government sent one of its navigators Burns to the Amirs of Sindh for a commercial treaty. It also sent a gift for Ranjit Singh through this Mission, so that he could not judge the intentions of the British. Although the nature of this Mission was friendly, yet it created doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh against the Sindh policy of the British.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 9.
What was the question of Shikarpur?
Answer:
On the question of Shikarpur also there was a lot of tension between the British and Ranjit Singh. Since 1832 A.D., Ranjit Singh was waiting for a suitable opportunity to occupy Shikarpur. He got this opportunity when the people of Mazari tribe attacked the border regions of Lahore kingdom. Ranjit Singh tried to capture Shikarpur by holding the Amirs of Sindh guilty of Mazari invasions. But the British were also watching the activities of Ranjit Singh. So as soon as he went ahead to capture Shikarpur, the British also sent troops to check Ranjit Singh from occupying Shikarpur. Ranjit Singh had to withdraw his forces.

Question 10.
Write about the events related to Ferozepur.
Answer:
The question of Ferozepur had special significance in the relations between Ranjit Singh and the British from 1809 A.D. to 1838 A.D. Though Ranjit Singh’s claim to Ferozepur was proper and justified, yet the British did not let him capture it. The British Government itself occupied Ferozepur in 1835 A.D. and after three years, made it its own permanent military station. But even this time, the Maharaja had to swallow the bitter pill.

Answer the following questions in about 100-120 words :

Question 1.
How did Ranjit Singh conquer the weak Misls?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was a shrewd politician. He befriended the rulers of powerful Misls. He started occupying the territories of weak misls with their help. From 1800 to 1811 A.D., he conquered the following Misls :
1. Conquest of Akalgarh (1801 A.D.). In 1801 A.D. after the battle of Bhasin, Dal Singh of Akalgarh (maternal uncle of Ranjit Singh’s father) and Sahib Singh of Gujarat started preparations for the attack on Lahore. When Ranjit Singh, came to know about it, he attacked Akalgarh and made Dal Singh a prisoner. Soon after this, Dal Singh was released and he died after some time. Ranjit Singh annexed his territory into his Kingdom. He gave a small tract of land to the widow of Dal Singh.

2. Occupation of Chaniot (1802 A.D.). Chaniot was under Jassa Singh, son of Karam Singh. In 1802 A.D., with the help of Fateh Singh Ahluwalia, Maharaja Ranjit Singh attacked Chaniot. Jassa Singh was defeated and Ranjit Singh occupied Chaniot.

3. Conquest of Malwa by Ranjit Singh (1806 A.D.). In 1806 A.D., there arose a quarrel between Raja Sahib Singh of Patiala and Raja Jaswant Singh of Nabha on the question of the Doladhi village. Jaswant Singh, through the medium of Raja Bhag Singh of Jind, invited Ranjit Singh to settle their dispute. Ranjit Singh attacked the Malwa region. He brought twenty thousand horsemen with him. Fateh Singh Ahluwalia stood by the Maharaja in capturing the Doladhi village, Ranjit Singh proceeded towards Patiala. He got a large amount of Nazrana from the rulers of Patiala, Nabha and Jind. On his way back, Ranjit Singh also occupied Ludhiana, Raikot, Jagraon and Ghungrana.

In 1807 A.D. Ranjit Singh attacked Malwa for the second time. The Raja of Patiala, Sahib Singh and his wife Aas Kaur were on bad terms. Ranjit Singh got a chance to interfere in their internal affairs. On reaching Patiala, he got a heavy amount as ‘Nazrana’ from Sahib Singh of Patiala. After this, he captured the areas of Naraingarh, Wadni, Zira and Kotkapura. He also got Nazrana from the rulers of Kaithal, Shahbad, Ambala, Kalsian and Malerkotla.

4. Conquest of the Dallehwalia Misl. The leader of the Dallehwalia Misl, Tara Singh Gheba was quite powerful. So Ranjit Singh could not conquer this Misl while he was alive. After Tara Singh’s death in 1807 A.D., Ranjit Singh defeated his widow at Rahon and captured all the territories of the Dallehwalia Misl.

5. Conquest of Sialkot (1808 A.D.). Jeewan Singh was the ruler of Sialkot. Maharaja Ranjit Singh demanded the territory of Sialkot from him. On his refusal, Ranjit Singh attacked Sialkot. Jeewan Singh surrendered. Maharaja merged Sialkot into his kingdom.

6. Conquest of Gujpat. At the time of Ranjit Singh’s, attack on Lahore, its Bhangi ruler Sahib Singh had run away’. Now he was ruling over the regions of Jalalpur, Islamgarh and Gujrat. The income from these regions was very high. To conquer them, Ranjit Singh attacked Sahib Singh. Sahib Singh was defeated. Ranjit Singh granted him a Jagir and annexed all his territories to his kingdom.

7. Conquest of Karorsinghia Misl. Kahan Singh ruled over Karorsinghia Misl. Ranjit Smgh asked him to come to his court. On his refusal, Ranjit Singh seized all his territories.

8. Conquest of the Fazalpuria Misl. Budh Singh ruled over the Fazalpuria Misl and it was spread on either side of the river Sutlej. Ranjit Singh first asked him to surrender. But when he refused, Ranjit Singh forcibly merged all his territories into his kingdom in 1811 A.D. These regions included Doab, Jalandhar, Hetpur and Patti.

9. Conquest of the Nakai Misl. This Misl was also ruled by the ruler of Karorsinghia Misl, Kahan Singh. When in 1807 A.D. Ranjit Singh defeated him, he also captured the Nakai Misl along with the Karorsinghia Misl.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 2.
Describe the conquest of Kashmir by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Kashmir, for its charming beauty and green scenery, was known as the ‘Paradise on Earth’. Naturally, Ranjit Singh was lured to capture it. He wanted to make his kingdom a heaven on the earth.

For this, he made the following efforts :
1. Pact with Kabul and Wazir Fateh Khan. In 1811-12 A.D. Ranjit Singh’s forces captured Bhimbar and Rajauwri near Kashmir. Now they wanted to attack the Kashmir valley. But at the same time Fateh Khan, the Wazir of Kabul also planned to capture Kashmir. Both Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan met at a place known as Rohtas on the banks of the Jhelum in 1813 A.D. A treaty was concluded between the two according to which the combined forces of both the parties would attack Kashmir.

According to it, Ranjit Singh was to get Rs. 9 lakhs from the spoils of the war and Fateh Khan was also to help him in the conquest of Multan. After the terms were settled, a 12000 strong Sikh force under the command of Dewan Mohkam Chand advanced towards Kashmir from the side of Jhelum along with the forces of Kabul. But Fateh Khan did not want, that any credit for this expedition should go to the Sikh army. He left the Sikh forces behind and himself with his army entered the Kashmir valley. Atta Mohammad Khan of Kashmir faced the enemy at a place named Shergarh. Fateh Khan, without the help of Sikh forces, defeated Atta Mohammad Khan. But Ranjit Singh wras not such a man as to bear all this rebuff.

2. Attack on Kashmir. In June 1814, Ram Dayal, a grandson of Diwan Mohkam Chand was given the command of the Kashmir expedition. The Sikh forces attacked Kashmir. At that time, Azim Khan, the brother of Fateh Khan was the Subedar of Kashmir. He made preparations to face this invasion. The forces under the command of Ram Dayal passed through the Pir Panchal Pass and entered the Kashmir valley. Azim Khan attacked the Sikh forces. The Sikh soldiers had to face misfortunes. Even then Ram Dayal faced the enemy bravely. At last, both the parties started negotiations for peace.

3. Occupation of Kashmir 1819 A.D. After the conquest of Multan in 1818 A.D., the Sikh forces were much encouraged. So Ranjit Singh began to plan the third invasion of Kashmir. Azim Khan the Subedar of Kashmir had gone to Afghanistan. Ranjit Singh thought of availing of this opportunity and under the command of Misar Dewan Chand sent 12000 Sikh soldiers to Kashmir. The second contingent under Kharak Singh, (Ranjit Singh’s son) was also sent to Kashmir and the third contingent under Ranjit Singh himself also set out for Wazirabad. Misar Dewan Chand reached Bhimber and captured Rajauri, Pir Panchal and Poonchh. After this, the Sikh forces entered Kashmir. Jabbar Khan faced the Sikh army at Sopavan. On the 5th July 1819, the Sikh army captured the forts of Sri Nagar, Shergarh and Agungarh. Thus Ranjit Singh came out victorious and consequently he annexed Kashmir in 1819. Ranjit Singh appointed Diwan Moti Ram, the son of Diwan Mohkam Chand, as the Governor of Kashmir.

Importance. The conquest of Kashmir is important due to the following reasons:

  • The victory of Kashmir increased the prestige of Ranjit Singh,
  • Kashmir was a good source of income and its annexation brought Ranjit Singh an annual income of Rs. 36 lakh,
  • The conquest of Kashmir put an end to the power and prestige of the Afghans.

Question 3.
Describe the conquest of Multan by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
The territory of Multan was important both from the military and commercial viewpoint. The story of the conquest of Multan by Ranjit Singh is briefly given as under :
1. First Expedition. It was in 1802 A.D. that Ranjit Singh attacked Multan for the first time. Muzzaffar Khan ‘“the Nawab of Multan” gave a heavy amount of money to Ranjit Singh and agreed to pay an annual tribute. Thus Ranjit Singh returned home without a battle but with a huge sum of money.

2. Second Expedition. Muzzaffar Khan had agreed to pay an annual tribute to Ranjit Singh but he did not send Nazrana to him. Consequently, Ranjit Singh launched his second expedition against Multan in 1805 A.D. But when Ranjit Singh received the news that the Maratha chief Jaswant Rao Holkar, after being defeated by the British, had entered Punjab, he had to return to Lahore.

3. Third Expedition (1807 A.D.). In 1807 A.D., Ranjit Singh sent his third expedition against Multan. The Sikh army captured some territory of Multan. But the Nawab of Bahawalpur acted as a mediator and a peace treaty was concluded between them.

4. Fourth Expedition. On February 24, 1810, the army of Maharaja occupied some parts of Multan. On February 25, the Sikh forces besieged the fort of Multan. But on the one hand, the food supplies of the Sikhs were being exhausted rapidly and on the other hand, Dewan Mohkam Chand also fell ill. Under these circumstances, Ranjit Singh was forced to lift the siege of the fort.

5. Fifth Expedition (1816 A.D.). In 1816 A.D. the Maharaja sent Akali Phoola Singh along with a large army to collect the revenue from the rulers of Multan and Bahawalpur. He was able to occupy the suburbs of Multan. The Nawab of Multan, therefore, concluded a pact with Akali Phoola Singh.

6. Final Expedition (1818). (i) The Sikh forces under the command of Dewan Bhawani Dass, attacked Multan but could not succeed, (ii) In January 1818 the Sikh army consisting of 20,000 soldiers under the command of Misar Dewan Chand attacked Multan. Nawab Muzzaffar Khan with 2,000 soldiers entered the fort. After capturing the city, the Sikh soldiers laid a siege to the fort. At last, Sohan Singh along with his few chosen companions was -successful in entering the fort through the Khizri gate. Thus the Sikhs finally captured Multan in 1818. The civil administration was entrusted to Sukh Dayal and the work of the supervision of the military administration was assigned to Baj Singh. Jamadar Khushal Singh was appointed as the Chief Police Commissioner. Dewan Sawan Mai was appointed as the Subedar of Multan.

Importance:

  • With the victory of Multan, the fame of Ranjit Singh spread to all the four corners of the Punjab,
  • The victory of Multan gave a death blow to the Afghan power.
  • The victory of Multan strengthened the economic position of Ranjit Singh. The trade in Punjab made much progress,
  • The Muslims of Sindh and Bahawalpur were separated permanently from each other. In future, they would not be in a position to forge a united front against Ranjit Singh.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 4.
Describe the conquest of Peshawar by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Peshawar had special strategic importance as it was situated on the north-western frontier of the Punjab. Because of its geographical situation, it had great importance from military point of view.

After Multan’s conquest, Ranjit Singh paid his attention to Peshawar. He wanted to capture Peshawar.
1. First Expedition against Peshawar in 1818 A.D. Lawlessness was prevailing in the state of Kabul. Ranjit Singh exploited this situation. He, alongwith Akali Phoola Singh and Hari Singh Nalwa, marched towards Peshawar. His army was greatly opposed by the Khatak tribe. But the Sikh soldiers defeated it and captured the forts of Khairabad and Jahangira. Next, the Sikh forces advanced towards Peshawar. At that time, Yaar Mohammad Khan was the ruler of Peshawar. On November 20, 1818 A.D. Ranjit Singh was able to occupy Peshawar without any difficulty. But he realised that in order to annex Peshawar to his kingdom, he lacked sufficient power. Therefore, he appointed Jahandad Khan, the ex-Governor of Attock, as the Governor of Peshawar and himself returned to Lahore.

2. Second Invasion of Peshawar. When the Sikh forces returned to Lahore, Yaar Mohammad Khan fell upon Jahandad Khan and compelled him to run away. Ranjit Singh sent a force of 12,000 soldiers under the command of prince Kharak Singh and Misar Diwan Chand to attack Peshawar. But Yaar Mohammad Khan did not deem it proper to fight against the Sikhs and accepted Ranjit Singh’s suzerainty.

3. Third Invasion of Peshawar. In the meantime, Azim Khan the new Wazir of Kabul attacked Peshawar. In January, 1823, he defeated Yaar Mohammad Khan and occupied Peshawar. When Ranjit Singh came to know about it, he despatced a big army under his able generals including Hari Singh Nalwa, Prince Sher Singh and Attar Singh Atariwala. Azim Khan declared a Jehad or crusade against the Sikhs. On March 14, 1823 A.D. fierce battles took place between the Sikhs and the Afghans at Naushehra and Tibba, (also called Tibba Tehri). Akali Phoola Singh lost his life in this battle. Then the Sikh forces saw Ranjit Singh himself in the battle-field. His presence there awakened the spirit of self-confidence among the Sikh soldiers. Soon the Sikhs defeated Azim Khan.

4. Crushing the revolt of Sayyed Ahmed. Sayyed Ahmed a Wahabi leader organised a big army and declared Jehad (a religious war) against the Sikhs. Ranjit Singh firmly resolved to crush this revolt. In 1829 A.D. Sayyed Ahmed attacked Peshawar. Yaar Mohammad, who was under the Maharaja, could not face him. In the meantime, prince Sher Singh defeated Sayyed Ahmad in the battle of Balakot.

5. Annexation of Peshawar to the kingdom of Lahore. After 1831 A.D, Maharaja Ranjit Singh planned to bring Peshawar under his control. In 1834, he sent a large army under prince Naunihal Singh, Hari Singh Nalwa and General Ventura to conquer Peshawar. They besieged the fort and the city. But the Sikh army met with no opposition and it captured the city. Ranjit Singh annexed Peshawar to his kingdom and appointed Hari Singh Nalwa as the Governor of Peshawar.

6. Unsuccessful attempts by Dost Mohammad to recover Peshawar. In 1834 A.D. Dost Mohammad Khan, the Amir of Kabul, resolved to get back Peshawar from the Sikhs. Hari Singh Nalwa was engaged in getting the fort of Jamrud repaired. This fort could prove to be a danger to Dost Mohammad Khan. That is why he sent an army of 18000 men under the command of his son, Muhammad Akbar against the Sikhs. A fierce battle was fought between them. At last the Sikhs came out victorious.

Question 5.
On what issues did Ranjit Singh and the British not agree?
Answer:
There were three main issues on which tension arose between Ranjit Singh and the English. These matters were the question of Sindh, the question of Shikarpur and the question of Ferozepur.
1. The Question of Sindh. Among the issues which created differences and bitterness between Ranjit Singh and the British, the problem of Sindh has a special place. Being situated on the South-western frontier of kingdom of Lahore, the territory of Sindh had a great military significance. It was essential for Ranjit Singh to capture it so that he might save his state from foreign invasions from this side.

The British Government also knew quite well the commercial importance of Sindh and Shikarpur. So, it did not want this region to fall into the hands of Ranjit Singh. In 1831 A.D. the British Government sent its political agent of Lahore Col. Burns to the Amirs of Sindh for a commercial treaty. It also sent a gift for Ranjit Singh through this Mission so that he could not judge the real intentions of the British. Although the nature of this Mission was friendly, yet it created doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh against the Sindh policy of the British.

2. The Question of Shikarpur. On the question of Shikarpur also there was a lot of tension between the British and Ranjit Singh. Since 1832 A.D., Ranjit Singh was waiting for a suitable opportunity to occupy Shikarpur. He got this opportunity when the people of Mazari tribe made attacks on the border regions of kingdom of Lahore. Ranjit Singh tried to occupy Shikarpur by holding the Amirs-mf Sindh guilty of Mazari invasions. But the British were also closely watching the activities of Ranjit Singh. So as soon as he went ahead to capture Shikarpur, the British also sent a military regiment under the command of Captain Wood to Shikarpur. Ranjit Singh was asked to retreat. Since Ranjit Singh was not powerful enough to face the British forces, he thought it wise to withdraw.

3. The Question of Ferozepur, 1835 A.D. The question of Ferozepur had special significance in the bilateral relations of Ranjit Singh and the British from 1809 A.D. to 1838 A.D, Though Ranjit Singh’s claim to Ferozepur was proper and justified, yet the British did not let him capture it. The British Government itself captured Ferozepur in 1835 A.D., and after three years made it its own permanent military station. But even this time, the Maharaja had to swallow the bitter pill.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Activity:

Question 1.
In the given map Punjab, show the place of important conquests of Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Name any four important conquests of Ranjit. Singh.
Answer:
Conquests of Peshawar, Lahore, Multan and Kashmir.

Question 2.
What was the name of the father of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Mahan Singh.

Question 3.
When did Ranjit Singh conquer Lahore?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh conquered Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

Question 4.
Name any four territories conquered by Ranjit Singh before 1812 A.D.
Answer:
Lahore, Amritsar, Sialkot and Jalandhar.

Question 5.
Name any four Misls conquered by Ranjit Singh.;
Answer:
Faizalpuria Misl, Krorsinghia Misl, Nakai Misl and Kanhaiya Misl.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 6.
Which was the first Misl?
Answer:
Faizalpuria Misl was the first Misl.

Question 7.
When did Ranjit Singh conquer Kashmir?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh conquered Kashmir in 1819 A.D.

Question 8.
Name any one powerful Misldar who extended hand of friendship towards Ranjit Singh instead of opposing him.
Answer:
Sada Kaur of Kanhaiya Misl.

Question 9.
What was the importance of conquest of Lahore by Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
By this conquest, he was able to occupy the capital of the Punjab.

Question 10.
Why was Ranjit Singh eager to conquer Multan?
Answer:
If Ranjit Singh could occupy Multan, the Muslim states could not forge a united front against him.

Question 11.
Mention any one benefit of conquest of Multan to Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
The conquest of Multan ended the Afghan influence in the Punjab.

Question 12.
Why was Ranjit Singh so eager to conquer Peshawar? (Give one reason.)
Answer:
It was necessary for Ranjit Singh to capture Peshawar for the stability of his kingdom.

Question 13.
Write down any one main cause of the Sikh victory in the battle of Naushehra.
Answer:
The Sikhs fought this battle with a greater religious fervour than the Muslims,

Question 14.
Mention any one clause of the treaty of Amritsar (1809 A.D.).
Answer:
The river Sutlej would be the boundary between the kingdom of Ranjit Singh and the British territories.

Question 15.
Write down one disadvantage to Ranjit Singh from the Treaty of Amritsar.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh suffered a diplomatic defeat and had to put his pride in his pocket.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 16.
Write down one advantage to Ranjit Singh by the Treaty of Amritsar.
Answer:
The infant kingdom of Ranjit Singh was saved from the British danger because of this treaty.

Question 17.
What was the main advantage for the British by the treaty of Amritsar?
Answer:
The British had no worries about the problems of the North-west region.

Question 18.
What is called the period of “Guardianship of the Triad” or Truine?
Answer:
During the minority of Ranjit Singh, there were three regents who had all the powers of state in their hands.

Question 19.
Who was Sada Kaur?
Answer:
Sada Kaur was the mother-in-law of Ranjit Singh.

Question 20.
Who ruled Amritsar at the time of its invasion by Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Mai Sukhan.

Question 21.
What was the name of father of Ranjit Singh? What was the name of his Misl?
Answer:
Mahan Singh, the chief of the Sukherchakya Misl.

Question 22.
According to Dr. N.K. Sinha what was the policy of Ranjit Singh towards the British?
Answer:
Sinha has called it the policy of “yielding, yielding and yielding”.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 23.
Between whom the Tripartite Treaty was negotiated in 1839 A.D.?
Answer:
The British, Shah Shuja and Ranjit Singh.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Ranjit Singh was born in _________ at _________
Answer:
1780 A.D., Gujranwala

Question 2.
Ranjit Singh invaded Lahore in and easily occupied it by defeating the _________ chiefs.
Answer:
1799, Bhangi

Question 3.
Amritsar has become the_________capital of the Sikhs.
Answer:
religious

Question 4.
Ranjit Singh had been the victim of in his childhood. Due to this terrible disease he lost his _________
Answer:
Smallpox left eye

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 5.
In 1809 a treaty was signed between Ranjit Singh and the _________
Answer:
British

Question 6.
From 1828 to 1839 the relations between the British and Ranjit Singh started _________
Answer:
deteriorating

Question 7.
Tension arose between the British and Ranjit Singh on the matters of _________ and Ferozepur.
Answer:
Sindh, Shikarpur.

True or False :

Question 1.
The relations between Ranjit Singh and the British always remained cordial.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Ranjit Singh died in 1839.
Answer:
True.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 3.
Ranjit Singh did not conqure weak Misls.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of their Bhangi chiefs. So they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore.
Answer:
True.

Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Tripartite Treaty (a) 1839
2. Multan (b) 1805
3. Peshawar (c) 1834
4. Kashmir (d) 1818
5. Amritsar (e) 1819

Answer:
1, (a)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (e)
5, (b).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the coronation of Ranjit Singh,
Answer:
The coronation of Ranjit Singh took place with great pomp and show on the eve of Baisakhi at Lahore on April 12, 1801 A.D. He gave his government the name of Sarkar Khalsa. Ranjit Singh did not wear any crown. He issued his coins in the name of Guru Nanak Sahib and Guru Gobind Singh Ji. Thus, Ranjit Singh recognised Khalsa as the supreme power. Imam Baksh was appointed as the kotwal of Lahore.

Question 2.
Describe the conquest of Dera Jat by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
In order to conquer Dera Ghazi Khan, Ranjit Singh sent an army under Jamadar Khushal Singh in 1820 A.D. He captured Dera Ghazi Khan after defeating the Afghan ruler, Zaman Khan. Ranjit Singh gave this territory to the Nawab of Bahawalpur in lieu of a heavy amount to be given to him every year as a tribute. Ranjit Singh conquered Dera Ismail Khan and Mankera. Ranjit Singh took the territory of Mankera from its Nawab Ahmed Khan and made him the governor of Dera Ismail Khan.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 3.
Describe any four early conquests of Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Given below is the description of the four early conquests of Ranjit,Singh:
1. Conquest of Lahore. Ranjit Singh conquered Lahore at the very first opportunity. The Bhangi chiefs Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh escaped from Lahore. Only Chet Singh defied Ranjit Singh. But he was defeated. In this way, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

2. Battle of Bhasin. The Sikh and the Muslim rulers of the surrounding areas were terrified at the victory of Ranjit Singh at Lahore. They decided to confront. Ranjit Singh by forming a powerful united front. A battle was fought at Bhasin in 1800 A.D. Ranjit Singh came out victorious in this battle without any bloodshed.

3. Conquest of Amritsar, Ranjit Singh conquered Amritsar after the death of Gulab Singh. Mai Sukhan, the widow of Gulab Singh, was the ruler of that territory at that time. Mai Sukhan offered resistance for sometime but she gave way afterwards. In this way, Amritsar was merged in the territory of Ranjit Singh.

4. Relations with other Sikh Misls. Now Ranjit Singh also occupied the territories of Dallewala and Nakkai Misls.

Question 4.
Discuss the conquest of any four Misls by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh decided to capture the independent Sikh Misls. He befriended the rulers of Ahluwalia, Kanahiya and Ramgarhia Misls. He started occupying the territories of weaker Misls with their help.

A brief account of his conquest of these Misls is as given below:

  • Ranjit Singh defeated Dal Singh of Akalgarh in 1802 A.D. and merged his territory into his kingdom,
  • After the death of the ruler of Dallewalia Misl Sardar Tara Singh Gheba in 1807 A.D., Ranjit Singh conquered most of his territories.
  • In the very next year, he defeated Jeewan Singh, the ruler of Sialkot and merged his territories into his kingdom,
  • He annexed the territories of Sardar Kahn Singh of Nakai Misl and those of Sardar Sahib Singh of Gujrat in 1810 A.D.

Question 5.
What were the important provisions of the Treaty of Amritsar?
Answer:
On April 2, 1809, A.D. Ranjit Singh signed the Treaty of Amritsar with the English. The main provisions of this treaty were:

  1. Both the governments shall maintain friendly relations with each other.
  2. The English would not interfere in the affairs of the territory to the north of the Sutlej and Ranjit Singh would not interfere in the affairs of the territory to the south of the Sutlej.
  3. The British government recognised Ranjit Singh as the most favoured power. He was assured that the English would have no concern with his state nor with the citizens of his kingdom. None would keep forces more than what was absolutely necessary.
  4. Ranjit Singh would keep only that much army in the south of the Sutlej which was necessary for the maintenance of law and order.
  5. If any party to the treaty violated its provision, the treaty would be considered cancelled.

Question 6.
What was the significance of the Treaty of Amritsar (1809)?
Answer:
The Treaty of Amritsar was signed between the English and Maharaja Ranjit Singh on April 25, 1809 A.D. This treaty was important from the historical point of view for the English as v/ell as the Sikhs. But opinions differ regarding the importance of this treaty. Due to this, the English and the Maharaja gained something but the Maharaja -was also a loser in some respects. The greatest desire of the Maharaja was to become the sole ruler of all the Sikhs. But his dream was shattered due to this treaty. He could never exercise his control over the states of Malwa. This treaty gave a terrible blow- to the power and prestige of Ranjit Singh.

This treaty extended the boundaries of the British rule from the Yamuna to the Sutlej. Because of its close vicinity to Ranjit Singh’s kingdom, the British government could keep a more strict watch over the foreign policy and the military activities of the Maharaja. Of course, the treaty was also useful to the Maharaja. The infant state of Punjab was saved from being destroyed. Besides, Ranjit Singh got an opportunity to extend the frontiers of his kingdom in other directions. Therefore, he greatly extended the boundaries of his state in the north-western region.

Question 7.
Discuss the importance of the battle of Naushehra (Four points only).
Answer:

  1. Nazim Shah was defeated by the Sikhs in the battle of Naushehra. He made his sons swear that they would avenge this defeat. Thus, there started between the Afghans and the Sikhs an enmity which continued for a long time.
  2. The Sikhs won a name for their bravery in the battle of Naushehra. After the battle of Haidru, Naushehra was the second place at which the Sikhs had thoroughly routed the Afghans in a battle in the plains. Consequently, the Sikhs developed self-confidence and adopted even more aggressive policy against the Afghans.
  3. As a result of this battle, the prestige of Ranjit Singh rose very high. His power was acknowledged throughout the Punjab. Besides, due to his victory in the battle of Naushehra, the Maharaja’s hold on the Afghan territories between the Indus and Peshawar became stronger.
  4. The Afghan power in the north-west of India was thoroughly eliminated after this battle.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 8.
Write a short note on the Tripartite Treaty (The British, Shah Shuja and Ranjit Singh).
Answer:
In 1839 A.D., Russia was advancing towards Asia. The British feared that Russia might attack India through Afghanistan. So they wanted to establish friendship with Afghanistan. The British sent Col. Burns to Kabul so that he could negotiate a friendship treaty with Amir Dost Mohammad of Kabul. Dost Mohammad demanded that the British should hand over to him the province of Peshawar after acquiring it from Ranjit Singh. But friendship of Ranjit Singh was most essential and important for the British. So, they did not accept this term of Dost Mohammad and signed a treaty with Shah Shuja, a brother of Dost Muhammad. Ranjit Singh was also a party to this treaty. This treaty is known as the Tripartite treaty.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the main victories of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Following is the description of the conquests of Lahore, Amritsar, Attock, Multan and Kashmir by Ranjit Singh :
1. Conquest of Lahore. The conquest of Lahore was the first important achievement of Ranjit Singh. In those days, Lahore was under the rule of three Bhangi Sardars named Chet Singh, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh. The residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of these Sardars. So they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore. Ranjit Singh lost no time in attacking Lahore with a large army. On hearing the news of the attack, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh escaped from Lahore. Only Chet Singh offered some resistance to Ranjit Singh. But he was defeated. In this way, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

2. Conquest of Amritsar. Ranjit Singh conquered Amritsar after the death of Gulab Singh Bhangi. Mai Sukhan, the widow of Gulab Singh was the ruler of that territory at that time. Ranjit Singh demanded the fort of Lohgarh situated at Amritsar and the famous gun Zamzama from Mai Sukhan. But Mai Sukhan refused. Ranjit Singh attacked Amritsar. Mai Sukhan put up resistance for sometime but she gave way afterwards. In this way, Amritsar was annexed to the kingdom of Ranjit Singh.

3. Conquest of Attock. An understanding was reached between Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan of Kabul in 1813 A.D. Accordingly, it was decided that Ranjit Singh would send 12 thousand soldiers to help Fateh Khan in the conquest of Kashmir and Fateh Khan in return would give him one-third of the conquered territories in addition to the booty received from thfere. Besides, Ranjit Singh promised to help Fateh Khan in his conquest of Attack, whereas Fateh Khan would help Ranjit Singh in the conquest of Multan.

The combined forces of Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan conquered Kashmir with great ease but Fateh Khan did not fulfil his promise. He also did not give anything out of the wealth plundered by him from Kashmir. Ranjit Singh attacked Attock in fury (according to the treaty, Fateh Khan was to occupy Attock). Ranjit Singh’s minister Azizuddin took Attock from Jahandad Khan and gave him one lakh rupees and a big jagir. Fateh Khan could not tolerate this. He attacked Attock with a big army immediately. A fierce battle was fought between the Sikhs and the Afghans at Hazro near Attock. The Sikhs came out victorious in this battle.

4. Conquest of Multan. The territory of Multan was important both from the military and commercial points of view. Ranjit Singh attacked Multan six times till 1818 A.D. But every time, the Pathan ruler of Multan, Muzzaffar Khan would save his skin by offering him heavy Nazrana. Ranjit Singh determined to occupy Multan and annex it to his kingdom. In 1818 A.D. he sent 25 thousand soldiers under Misar Dewan Chand and his own eldest son Kharak Singh to invade Multan. The Sikh army besieged the fort of Multan. Muzzaffar Khan fought the Sikh army bravely. But he was killed in the battle and Multan was occupied by the Sikhs.

5. Conquest of Kashmir. Fateh Khan, the Wazir of Afghanistan, had not given Ranjit Singhs his share of booty after the conquest of Kashmir. Now Ranjit Singh sent an army under Ram Dyal to conquer Kashmir. Ranjit Singh himself accompanied Ram Dyal to fight this battle but the Sikhs could not achieve success. He again sent an expedition under Misar Dewan Chand and prince Kharak Singh. Zabar Khan, the new governor of Kashmir, advanced to face the Sikh army but was badly defeated at Supin.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 2.
Describe the conquest of Amritsar by Ranjit Singh, What was its importance?
Answer:
After the death of Gulab Singh Bhangi, his son Gurdit Singh became the ruler of Amritsar. He was a minor. Mai Sukhan, the widow of Gulab Singh, therefore, looked after the affairs of the state. Ranjit Singh was finding an opportunity to conquer Amritsar. In 1805 A.D., he found this opportunity. He requested Mai Sukhan to give him the famous Bhangi Gun ‘Zamzama’ because the Sukarchakia Misl had played a major role in capturing that gun from Ahmed Shah Abdali in 1764. Ranjit Singh also demanded Lohgarh Fort. It is said that Jodh Singh Ramgarhia, son of Jassa Singh Ramgarhia, counselled Mai Sukhan to hand over the gun to Ranjit Singh. But she did not agree. Maharaja Ranjit Singh wanted to capture Amritsar at any cost.

The demand for the gun was only an excuse to invade Amritsar. He attacked Amritsar and captured Lohgarh. Sada Kaur and Fateh Singh Ahluwalia helped Ranjit Singh in this conquest. The Maharaja came out victorious. Thus, he occupied Amritsar and the Fort of Lohgarh. As proposed by Jodh Singh, Ranjit Singh gave Mai Sukhan and Gurdit Singh a small Jagir for their maintenance. Akali Phoola Singh of Amritsar, who was a great warrior, alongwith his 2000 Nihang followers joined the army of Ranjit Singh.

Importance of the Conquest of Amritsar :
Following is the importance of the conquest of Amritsar by Ranjit Singh :

  1. It was the religious capital of the Sikhs. Ranjit Singh became the master of this historic city of the Sikhs.
  2. As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, the military power of Ranjit Singh increased. The Fort of Lohgarh proved a boon for the Maharaja. He also got the famous gun Zamzama from Mai Sukhan.
  3. Ranjit Singh acquired the services of Akali Phoola Singh and his 2000 Nihang followers. Because of the extraordinary courage and bravery of the’ Nihangs, Ranjit Singh achieved many glorious victories.
  4. As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, Ranjit Singh’s name and fame spread far and wide. Many’ Indians left the service of the East India Company and got employment with Maharaja Ranjit Singh. Many Europeans also joined the army of the Maharaja.

Question 3.
Describe the relations of Ranjit Singh with the British from 1809-1839 A.D.
Answer:
On 25th April, 1809 A.D., the Treaty of Amritsar was signed between the British and Ranjit Singh. Although this treaty had ended the possibility of an immediate armed conflict, yet it could not end the feelings of doubt and fear growing in the minds of both powers.

After this treaty, until 1839 A.D., the Anglo-Sikh relations had to pass through the following stages:
Period of mutual distrust and suspicion (1809-1811). from 1809 to 1811 A.D. both Ranjit Singh and the British Government looked upon each other with distrust and suspicion. Both sides had imaginary fears against each other. Each of them had engaged spies to know about the military and diplomatic strategies of the other.

But gradually this mutual distrust lessened and by 1812 A.D. it was almost over.

Anglo-Sikh relations from 1812 to 1822 A.D. During the decade of 1812 to 1822 A.D., mutual cooperation and friendly relations existed between the British and Ranjit Singh.
1. Ranjit Singh’s refusal to help Nepal. In 1815 A.D. when a Gorkha Vakil came to seek help from the Maharaja against the British, he clearly refused. In the. first British-Nepal war (1814-15A.D.), the Maharaja, by helping the British, proved his friendship with them. Likewise, when in 1821 A.D. the representative of Appa Sahib Maratha came to seek help against the British, the Maharaja refused him blankly. On the other hand, the British made no interference in the affairs of Ranjit Singh in the North-west of the Sutlej.

2. Question of Wadni. In the beginning of 1822 A.D., there was some bitterness in the mutual relations of the British and Ranjit Singh regarding Wadni, a village situated in the south of the Sutlej. During his cis-Sutlej expedition in 1808 A.D., Ranjit Singh handed over this region to his mother-in-law Sada Kaur in exchange for twelve thousand rupees. But in 1820 A.D., Ranjit Singh imprisoned Sada Kaur and recaptured Wadni. Rani Sada Kaur sought the help of the British. The British resident at Ludhiana sent a British regiment that occupied Wadni. The Maharaja expressed his annoyance to the Governor-General. So in 1823 A.D. the Governor-General again accepted the suzerainty of Ranjit Singh over Wadni.

3. Cordiality again. Ranjit Singh tried his level best to maintain friendly relations with the British. In 1825-26 A.D., the chief of Bharatpur sought Ranjit Singh’s military help but the Maharaja refused. In 1826 A.D. Maharaja Ranjit Singh fell ill. On his request, the British Government sent Dr. Murray to Lahore. As a result, friendly relations were restored between the two sides for some time.

The estrangement of relations again. From 1828 to 1839 A.D. the relations between the ruler of Lahore and the British Government started deteriorating.

During this period, the following events created tension between them :
1. Increasing Power of Ranjit Singh. During the last ten years, Ranjit Singh had greatly increased his power by conquering Multan, Kashmir, Deraj at and Peshawar, etc. The British Government was jealous of the increasing power of Ranjit Singh. So, on the one hand, the British Government started adopting the policy of encircling the kingdom of Lahore from different directions. On the other hand, it pretended friendship with the Maharaja.

2. The Question of Sindh. Among the issues which created differences and bitterness in the relations, between Ranjit Singh and the British, the issue of Sindh was very complex. This region being situated in the South-west of Lahore, had a great military significance. It was essential for Ranjit Singh to capture it so that he might save his state from foreign invasions from this side.

The British Government also well understood the commercial importance of Sindh and Shikarpur. So, it did not want this region to fall into the hands of Ranjit Singh. In 1831 A.D. the British Government sent one of its officers Alexander Burns to the Amirs of Sindh for a Commercial treaty. It also sent a gift for Ranjit Singh through this Mission, so that he could not judge the real intentions of the British. Although it seemed to be a friendly mission, yet it created doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh against the Sindh policy of the British.

3. Meeting at Ropar between Ranjit Singh and William Bentinck. (Imp.) The Governor-General Lord William Bentinck very well knew about the doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh. The fear of Russian attack on India was also spreading fast. The British Governor-General did not want that in that hour of crisis their relations with the Maharaja should deteriorate. Instead, he wanted that the relations with the Sikh ruler should be cemented and he should also know about the increasing influence of the British in Sindh. To achieve this purpose, on October 1831 A.D., Lord William Bentinck met the Maharaja at Ropar. But at the same time, he sent Col. Pottinger to make a commercial treaty with the Amirs of Sindh.

The negotiations between the Governor-General and Ranjit Singh were still going on in Ropar, when an important treaty was signed between the British and the Amirs of Sindh by the efforts of Col. Pottinger. Ranjit Singh returned disappointed from the meeting at Ropar.

4. The Question of Shikarpur. On the question of Shikarpur also there was a lot of tension between the British and Ranjit Singh. Since 1832 A.D., Ranjit Singh had been waiting for a suitable opportunity to occupy Shikarpur. He got this opportunity when the people of Mazari tribe attacked the border regions of Lahore Kingdom. Ranjit Singh tried to occupy Shikarpur by holding the Amirs of Sindh guilty of Mazari invasions. But the British were also watching the activities of Ranjit Singh. So as soon as he went ahead to capture Shikarpur, the British also sent a military regiment under the command of Captain Wood to Shikarpur. Ranjit Singh was asked to retreat. Since Ranjit Singh was not powerful enough to fight against the British, he thought it wise to withdraw.

5. The Question of Ferozepur, 1835 A.D. The question of Ferozepur had special significance in the relations of Ranjit Singh with the British from 1809 A.D. to 1838 A.D. Though Ranjit Singh’s claim to Ferozepur was proper and justified, yet the British did not let him occupy it. The British Government itself captured Ferozepur in 1835 A.D. and after three years made it its own permanent military station. But even this time, the Maharaja had to swallow the bitter pill.

6. Tripartite Treaty. In 1839 A.D., Russia was advancing towards Asia. The British feared that Russia might attack India through Afghanistan. So they wanted to establish friendship with Afghanistan. The British sent Col. Burns to Kabul so that he could negotiate a friendship treaty with Amir Dost Mohammad the ruler of ‘ that country. Dost‘Mohammad was willing to sign the treaty on the condition that the British should hand over to him the province of Peshawar by taking it from Ranjit Singh. But friendship of Ranjit Singh was most essential and important for the British. So, they did not accept this term of Dost Mohammad. On his part, Dost Mohammad entered into a treaty with Russia. It was a big challenge for the British. They made an agreement with Shah Shuja, the former ruler of Afghanistan.

Ranjit Singh was also a party to this agreement. It is known as the Tripartite Treaty. Ranjit Singh signed this treaty but he did not sign an important clause of it. It was, “That the armies of the British can attack Kabul by passing through Punjab.” But Ranjit Singh was afraid that the British would certainly violate this clause. So in the last years of his reign, he tried to take many steps against the British. But, Ranjit Singh died in 1839 A.D.

It is a fact that from 1809 A.D. to 1839 A.D. Ranjit Singh adopted the policy of maintaining a friendship with the British. He had decided that he will not fight with the British, whatever sacrifice he might have to make. Keeping in view his yielding policy on every occasion before the demands of the British, Dr. N.K. Sinha has called it the policy of “yielding, yielding, and yielding.”

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 20-25 words:

Question 1.
Who was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Kharak Singh was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. He was not a worthy son of his father. He was a pleasure-loving ruler.

Question 2.
Why were the Sikhs defeated in the battle of Mudki?
Answer:
The Sikhs lost the battle of Mudki because of the following reasons :

  • Lai Singh escaped from the battle-field when the Sikh army was about to win.
  • As compared to the English, the Sikhs had very small military resources.

Question 3.
When was the battle of Sabhraon fought and what was its result?
Or
When was the battle of Sabhraon fought?
Answer:
The battle of Sabhraon was fought on February 10, 1846. Because of the treachery of Teja Singh and Lai Singh, the Sikhs lost the battle. As a result, the English army crossed the Sutlej river without any hurdle.

Question 4.
What was the matter of Suchet Singh’s treasury?
Answer:
Dogra Sardar Suchet Singh was in the service of Lahore Darbar. At the time of his death, he was at Ferozepur. He left behind fifteen lakh rupees there. Because he had no issue, the Lahore Darbar claimed its right on this amount. But the English Government wanted to take this matter to the court.

Question 5.
Write about the ‘Cow Row1’.
Answer:
On April 21, 1846 a herd of cows blocked the way of a European gunner at Lahore. The gunner attempted to kill the cows. Hearing this news, the Hindus and the Sikhs rose against the English. .

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 6.
When was the Punjab annexed to the British Empire? Who was the Governor-General of India at that time?
Answer:
The Punjab was annexed to the British Empire in 1849. Lord Dalhousie was the Governor-General at that time.

Question 7.
What steps were taken by Chattar Singh against the Britishers?
Answer:
The British charged Chattar Singh, the governor of Hazara that he was the head of the conspiracy for the expulsion of the British from the Punjab. The British officer Canora refused to obey the orders of Chattar Singh unless backed by Captain Abbot. Canora not only refused to obey Chattar Singh’s order, but also ordered his Havaldars to fire upon Sikh soldiers and shot dead two of them. In retaliation, the Sikh infantry shot dead Canora. Captain Abbot accused Chattar Singh of murder of Canora. This convinced Chattar Singh that Abbot might go to the extent of ruining him. Chattar Singh decided to resign. He had no choice but to rise in revolt against the British.

It was thus mainly due to the intrigues of Captain Abbot that Chattar Singh was forced to rise in revolt against the British on 11th September, 1848. He and his son went over to the side of Dewan Mul Raj against the British. Sher Singh also won the support of the major portion of the Sikh troops.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Discuss the causes of the Bhairowal Treaty.
Answer:
According to the Treaty of Lahore, a contingent of British forces was kept at Lahore for the protection of the Maharaja and the citizens of Lahore. But with the passage of time, Lord Hardinge planned to keep the English troops at Lahore. Maharani Jindan agreed to it. So a meeting of the Sardars and the Ministers of the Lahore Darbar was called, In it, only those terms of the Governor-General were announced on the basis of which the ministers of the Darbar agreed to keep the English troops at Lahore even after 1846 A.D. Thus the British entered into another treaty with the Sikhs on December 12, 1846 A.D. This treaty is known as the Treaty of Bhairowal.

Question 2.
Write any four terms of the Bhairowal Treaty.
Answer:
Following were the four main provisions of the Treaty of Bhairowal :

  1. The administration of Lahore was entrusted to a body of eight Sikh Sardars who were the supporters of the English. They were to carry on this duty till the maturity of Maharaja Dalip Singh.
  2. The Governor-General appointed a British Resident at Lahore.
  3. The Council of Regency was to work according to the advice of the British Resident.
  4. Rani Jindan was ousted from the Punjab. She was given a pension of one lakh rupees annually.

Question 3.
Write about the importance of the Bhairowal Treaty.
Answer:
The Treaty of Bhairowal has great importance in the history of the Punjab and India.

  1. By this treaty, the British became the real masters of Punjab. The British Resident was given unlimited powers. Henry Lawrence was appointed as the first British Resident at Lahore.
  2. According to this treaty, Rani Jindan was ousted from Lahore. She was first interned at Sheikhupura and then sent to Benaras.

Question 4.
After the First Anglo-Sikh war, why did the British not annex Punjab to their empire? White any three causes.
Answer:
The English did not occupy the Punjab after the First Anglo-Sikh War for the following reasons.

  1. The Sikh forces lost the battles of Mudki, Ferozeshah and Sabraon but Lahore, Amritsar and Peshawar were still under them. Had the English occupied the Punjab, they would have to face the Sikh forces there.
  2. Had the British occupied the Punjab, they would have to spend much money for the establishment of peace and order in the Punjab,
  3. Lord Hardinge did not annex the Punjab because he was of the new that the state would prove a good buffer state between Afghanistan and British India.
  4. According to Lord Hardinge, Punjab was not economically profitable state at that stage. Hence the Treaty of Bhairowal was then entered into with the Sikhs.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 5.
After the Treaty of Bhairowal how did the British treat Queen Jindan?
Answer:
The Treaty of Bhairowal deprived Rani Jindan of her political rights. She was ousted from the Lahore Darbar. She was arrested and sent to Sheikhupura. She was first given a pension of 1,50,000 rupees annually. It was reduced from 1,50,000 to 48,000 rupees annually. Thereafter, she was exiled to Benaras. Thus she was badly treated by the English. As a result, the Sikhs were annoyed and rose against the English.

Question 6.
What do you know about Maharaja Dalip Singh?
Answer:
Maharaja Dalip Singh was the last Sikh ruler of Lahore State. At the time of the First Anglo-Sikh War, he was a minor. According to the Treaty of Bhairowal of 1846, a Council of Regency was formed to run the administration of the Lahore Darbar. It was to run the administration till the maturity of Maharaja Dalip Singh. But the Sikh forces lost the Second Anglo-Sikh War. As a result of it, Maharaja Dalip Singh was dethroned and given a pension of 50,000 pounds annually and sent to England. Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Answer the following questions in about 100-120 words:

Question 1.
Discuss the causes of the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The First Anglo-Sikh War was fought in 1845-46. Following were its causes :
1. The British policy of Encirclement of the Lahore Kingdom. Ever since the time of Ranjit Singh, the British were making schemes for the conquest of the Punjab. They had built cantonments around the Sikh kindgom. Politically and diplomatically, they had half encircled the Sikh kingdom. They had already occupied Ferozepur and established a military cantonment there. They had brought Sindh and Shikarpur under their sphere of influence. After Ranjit. Singh’s death, their dream of conquering Punjab acquired more clear and definite shape. Naturally, such designs of the British alarmed the Sikh army in particular and the people of the Punjab in general.

2. Anarchy in the Punjab. Soon after the death of Ranjit Singh in 1839 A.D., there prevailed anarchy in the Punjab and within a span of about four years, many of his sons and relatives were put to sword. Now the Khalsa army was all powerful and it became a problem for the Lahore Durbar to keep it under control. With the army being all in all, nobody’s life was safe. All the important chiefs and courtiers were afraid of the Khalsa army. It was in their best interest to engage the army in some war so as to weaken its power.

3. Defeat of the British in the First Afghan War. In the First Afghan War, the English fought with Afghanistan from 1839 to 1842 A.D. The English suffered a defeat. This encouraged the Sikhs to wage a war against the British. They had begun to think that the English were not invincible. If the Afghans could teach them a lesson, why not the Sikhs who had humiliated the Afghans in the times of Ranjit Singh.

4. Annexation of Sindh to the British Empire. The British annexed Sindh to their Empire in 1843 A.D. This incident brought the imperialistic designs of the English in the limelight. It was clear that the English would now try to annex the Punjab. It was difficult for the English to maintain their control over Sindh unless they annexed the Punjab too.

The annexation of Sindh brought their aggressive designs to the forefront and the Sikhs naturally became suspicious of the English.

5. Ellenborough’s plan to capture Punjab. The British, in fact, had been planning to occupy the Punjab much before their war with the Sikhs actually began. After the annexation of Sindh to the British Empire, Lord Ellenborough planned to capture the Punjab. To materialise this plan, the English began to make elaborate military preparations. When the Sikhs came to know about the intentions of the British, the Sikhs also began to make preparations for War.

6. Military Activities of the British. The prevailing anarchy in the Punjab encouraged the English to start making elaborate military preparations. They began to station their army men in large numbers near the Sutlej.

It is said that on the boundaries of the Sutlej in 1836 A.D., there were only 2500 British soldiers. Their number rose to 14,000 in 1843. Besides this, the English had stationed a large number of their troops at Ferozepur, Ludhiana and Ambala. Not only that, the English had begun to collect boats to cross the Sutlej. All these activities of the English made the Sikhs more suspicious and they began to feel that the English wanted to grab the Punjab.

7. The dispute over the treasure of Suchet Singh. Dogra Sardar Suchet Singh was in the service of Lahore Darbar. At the time of his death, he was at Ferozepur. He left behind fifteen lakh rupees there. Because he had no issue, the Lahore Darbar claimed its right on this amount. But the English Government wanted to bring this matter to the court. At this the Sikhs rose in revolt against the English.

8. Dispute over Mauran Village. Dhanna Singh, a native of the village Mauran situated in the Nabha State, was in the service of Maharaja Ranjit Singh; who being pleased with him, wrote to Jaswant Singh the Raja of Nabha to grant him the village Mauran as Jagir. In return, the Maharaja granted him a number of villages for life to Jaswant Singh’s sister. After the death of Dhanna Singh, his son Hukam Singh succeeded him. But Devinder Singh, the new ruler of Nabha, sent his troops to the village and seized Hukam Singh’s property worth about two lakh rupees and occupied the village. The Lahore Darbar demanded the restoration of the village. But the English Government rejected the claim of the Lahore Darbar and said that Jaswant Singh’s grant to Dhanna Singh had been illegal.

9. Provocation of Major Broadfoot. The appointment of Major Broadfoot as the British Resident at Ludhiana in place of Mr. Clark added fuel to the fire. He was hard-headed and hot-tempered. Immediately after taking charge of his post, he declared that Maharaja Dalip Singh’s territories South of the Sutlej would be considered under British rule. This declaration aroused the anger of the Sikh chiefs beyond limit and they began to feel that a war with the British was unavoidable.

10. Plans of Lai Singh and Rani Jindan. Lai Singh and Rani Jindan planned to incite the Sikh army against the British. They made the Sikh army to think that the British were determined to capture Punjab after occupying Sindh.

11. Immediate Cause: Crossing of the Sutlej by the Sikhs. The excited Sikh forces made up their mind to settle their scores with the British. Thus, between December 11 and 14 in 1846 A.D., the Sikh soldiers in large numbers began to cross the Sutlej river. The English were already waiting for the Sikhs to first begin the war. As soon as the Governor-General Lord Hardinge got the information that the Sikh forces had crossed the Sutlej, he also declared a regular war against the Sikhs on December 18, 1845 A.D.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 2.
Write about the events related to the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The First Anglo-Sikh war began on December 18,1845 A.D. and ended on February 10, 1846 A.D. Following were the main events of this war:
1. The Battle of Mudki: Immediately after crossing the Sutlej, the Sikh army advanced towards Ferozepur.
It was led by Lai Singh. On the other side, the English forces under Sir Hugh Gough left Ludhiana to defend Ferozepur. On December 18, 1845, both the armies came into collusion with each other at Mudki, a place about twenty miles from Ferozepur.

The Khalsa army had 40,000 soldiers and 150 guns. The English army had 10,000 soldiers and 48 guns. When the victory of the Sikhs was in sight, Lai Singh, the commander of the Sikh army, deserted them and withdrew from the scene leaving the army all alone. Consequently, a victory was changed into a defeat and the Sikhs had to retreat from the battle-field. Although the English came out victorious in this battle, yet the war proved very costly to them also. About 215 of their soldiers were killed and about 657 were wounded. The Sikhs also suffered a heavy loss of life and 17 guns.

2. Battle of Ferozeshah. After the battle of Mudki, the English army advanced towards a place called Ferozeshah which was about 12 miles away from the Sutlej.

At this place the forces of Sir Hugh Gough were joined by another English contingent under Sir Johan Little. A fierce battle was fought between the two sides on December 21,1845 A.D. The Sikhs fought so bravely that the English forces became nervous. But here also the Sikh Commanders like Teja Singh proved traitors and left the Sikh army without a leader, with the result that the English forces advanced forward and occupied the Sikh positions on December 22. Thus because of the treachery on the part of the Sikh military commanders, another victory was converted into a defeat. About 8000 Sikh soldiers were killed in this battle and they lost about 73 guns. The English also suffered a heavy loss. Their 694 men were killed and about 1721 were wounded.

3. Battle of Baddowal. On January 21,1846, the Sikhs under the command of Ranjodh Singh Majithia crossed the river Sutlej and set the English military camp at Ludhiana on fire. In a fierce battle at Baddowal near Ludhiana, the Sikhs under the leadership of S. Ranjodh Singh defeated the British who were under the command of Sir Henry Smith.

4. Battle of Aliwal. Soon after the battle of Badowal, reinforcements reached the English. Ranjodh Singh tried to block the way of the English by attacking Jagraon and Ghungrana. But the English advanced and defeated the Sikhs at Aliwal on January 28, 1846 A.D.

5. Battle of Sabraon. The last and most decisive battle between the Sikhs and the English was fought on February 10, 1846 A.D. at Sabraon. The Sikhs fought the battle bravely and put the English army in trouble for sometime. The Sikh soldiers, unlike their treacherous commander Teja Singh, were prepared to conquer or die for the glory of the Khalsa. But while the soldiers did everything, the Sikh commanders with the honourable exception of Sham Singh Attariwala, remained inactive or proved traitors. In fact, the army commanders were not as much afraid of the Sikh defeat as of their victory. That is why, perhaps, they were hatching conspiracies after conspiracies.

Under such conditions, the Sikh soldiers suffered a great loss and about 8 to 10 thousand of them were killed. Sham Singh Attariwala also met a hero’s death in this battle. The English loss was 320 dead and 2,083 wounded.
The battle of Sabraon was decisive. After this victory, the British army crossed the Sutlej and occupied Lahore on February 20, 1846 A.D.

Question 3.
Discuss the terms of the First Treaty of Lahore.
Answer:
On 9th March, 1846, the Treaty of Lahore was signed between the British and the Lahore Durbar. Its main terms were as under:

  1. All the Sikh territories lying south of the river Sutlej were handed over to the British.
  2. The -Jullundur (Jalandhar) Doab was likewise annexed by the British to their own dominions.
  3. An indemnity of one and a half crore rupees was imposed upon the Lahore Darbar, which it was not able to pay. So it had to hand over to the British in lieu of it all the hill areas between the rivers Sutlej and Beas, and also Kashmir and Hazara.
  4. The Darbar would disband the rebellious forces, keeping only 20,000 infantry and 12,000 cavalry. Thirty four guns which the British had lost to the Sikhs, were restored to them.
  5. The British troops would be allowed a free passage through the Punjab when necessary.
  6. Dalip Singh was recognised as minor king of Lahore, Maharani Jindan was to be his Regent and Lai Singh the Prime Minister of the Lahore kingdom.
  7. An adequate British force would be stationed at Lahore for the protection of the Maharaja. The force would be recalled in December 1846.
  8. The British Government would respect the bonafide rights of the Jagirdars in Lahore Darbar territories.
  9. The British would be at liberty to retain any part of the state property in the forts situated in the ceded territories by paying for it a fair compensation.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 4.
Explain the Treaty of Bhairowal.
Answer:
According to the Treaty of Lahore, the English army was to withdraw from the Punjab after December, 1846 A.D., but in view of the troubled conditions of the Punjab and being afraid of the Sikh army, many Sikhs and people of other classes did not want that the English should withdraw from the Punjab. So, another treaty was signed between the English and the Sikhs on December 16, 1846 A.D. which is called the Treaty of Bhairowal. This treaty was signed with the English by Maharani Jindan and the ruler of the Lahore Darbar.

Following were its main terms :

  1. The administration of Lahore was entrusted to a council of eight Sikh Sardars who supported the English. They were to carry on this duty till Maharaja Dalip Singh was a minor.
  2. The Governor-General appointed a British Resident as the head of this Council.
  3. The Council of Regency was to work on the advice of the British Resident.
  4. Rani Jindan was ousted from Lahore. She was given a pension of 1\(\frac{1}{2}\) lakh rupees annually.
  5. For the protection of the Maharaja, and the establishment of law and order, the British forces would stay in Lahore.
  6. The Lahore Darbar would pay Rs. 22 Lakhs a year to meet the expenses of the British forces which would continue staying in Lahore.
  7. Besides at Lahore, the British troops could be stationed in Sikh fortresses, the occupation of which the Governor-General might feel necessary for the protection of the Maharaja’s interests.
  8. The terms of this treaty would be considered valid till Maharaja Dalip Singh was a minor.

Importance: The Treaty of Bhairowal has great importance in the history of the Punjab and India

  • With this treaty, the English became the real masters of the Punjab. The British Resident was given unlimited powers. Henry Lawrence was appointed as the first British Resident at Lahore.
  • According to this treaty, Rani Jindan was ousted from Lahore. She was first interned at Sheikhupura and then sent to Benaras.

Question 5.
Write the causes of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War was fought in 1848-49. The English came out victorious in it. As a result, the Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Following were the main causes of this war:
1. Restlessness of the Sikh Soldiers. The Sikh soldiers had to suffer a defeat in the
First Anglo-Sikh War. But they knew it well that their defeat was not because they were in any way weaker than the English soldiers but it was due to the treachery of their commanders. Now they wanted to wipe off that disgrace by fighting another war with the English.

2. British Policy of Speedy Reforms. In order to increase their influence in the Punjab, the English, especially Henry Lawrence, the English Resident at Lahore, tried to bring about some social reforms. Laws were framed one after other to end the practice of Sati, to ban the killing of female children and to effect changes in the Zamindari system. Although these reforms were desirable, yet they were brought about in such a haste that the people took them as an undue interference in their religious and social life.

3. Harsh Treatment with Lai Singh and Rani Jindan. The harsh treatment which the English meted out to Rani Jindan enraged the Sikhs. Their anger further increased when the Queen Mother, Rani Jindan was dubbed as a conspirator. She was first sent to Sheikhupura and then exiled to Benaras. The pension of Rani Jindan was reduced from Rs. 1^ lakhs to 48,000 rupees in the first instance and then to? 12,000 annually. Besides, the English also meted out a harsh treatment to the Prime Minister Lai Singh. Such a treatment with Rani Jindan and Lai Singh was too much for the Sikhs to tolerate. So once again, they were forced to take up arms against the English to safeguard their rights.

4. Appointment of British Officers on High Posts. According to the Treaty of Bhairowal, the real powers of the Lahore Kingdom had come in the hands of the English. So they began to appoint English officers on high posts. The Sikh chiefs took this policy of the English as an insult to them. They wanted to free the Punjab from the English yoke.

5. Reduction in the number of Sikh Soldiers. The number of men in the Sikh army ran into lakhs but according to the Treaty of Lahore, their number was reduced to 20 thousand infantry and 12 thousand horsemen. Thus, thousands of soldiers who were disbanded became opponents of the English. Not only this, those soldiers who were kept in service were to be paid lesser salaries. Thus the entire fchalsa army turned against the British. It was filled with anger and began to prepare for another showdown.

6. Revolt of Diwan Mulraj of Multan. After the death of his father, Mulraj became the Governor of Multan in 1844 A.D. He used to pay a tribute of Rs. 12 lakhs a year to the Lahore Darbar in lieu of this post. But, after the Treaty of Bhairowal in December 1846 A.D., the English took over the administration of Lahore. They increased this tribute to Rs. 18 lakhs and also asked him to surrender l/3rd of his territory. Mulraj could not tolerate all this injustice. So he expressed his desire to resign. The English quickly appointed Sardar Kahan Singh as the Governor of Multan. Diwan Mulraj handed over the charge of Multan to the new Governor. The soldiers of Diwan’Mulraj rose in revolt against the English and Diwan Mulraj recaptured Multan. This event led to the revolt against the English in the whole of the Punjab.

7. Revolt of Bhai Maharaj Singh. Bhai Maharaj Singh was the follower of Sant Bhai Bir Singh of Naurangabad. He rose in revoltragainst the English to protect the Sarkar-e-Khalsa. So Henry Lawrence, the British Resident, ordered to put him behind the bars. But he could not be arrested. At the request of Mulraj, he alongwith his 400 horsemen marched towards Multan. But he left Mulraj and joined hands with Chattar Singh Attariwala and his son Sher Singh.

8. Revolt of Chattar Singh of Hazara. Chattar Singh was the Governor of Hazara under the Lahore Government. The English also forced him to rise in revolt. An English officer, Captain Abott, instigated the Afghans of Hazara to revolt against the Sikh State. This British policy of hatching conspiracies led Chattar Singh to take up arms against them in August, 1848 A.D. and join hands with Mulraj.

9. Revolt of Sher Singh. Sher Singh, the son of Chattar Singh who had been sent by the Lahore Government to suppress the revolt of Multan also joined the forces of his father and Mulraj in September 1848 A.D. Thus the revolt against the English spread all over the Punjab. Sher Singh appealed to all the Sikhs to join the rebels to oust the English from the Punjab.

10. Invasion of Punjab by the English. Lord Dalhousie wanted to wage a war against the Sikhs on one pretext or the other and annex the Punjab to the British Empire. Under this policy, he allowed small upsurges by Mulraj, Chattar Singh and Sher Singh to take the form of a big rebellion so that the English could find an excuse to grab the Punjab. The English forces under the command of Lord Hugh Gough crossed the river Sutlej on November 9, 1848 and reached Lahore on 13 November. These forces were engaged in suppressing the rebellion. Thus the Second Anglo-Sikh War began.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 6.
Explain the events of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War began in November 1848 after the English forces had crossed the river Sutlej. Following were the main events of this war :
1. The Battle of Ram Nagar. The first battle of the Second Anglo-Sikh War was fought at Ram Nagar. The Commander of the English forces, Lord Hugh Gough crossed the Ravi with his army on November 16, 1848 A.D. and reached the banks of the Chenab on November 22 and stood face to face with Sardar Sher Singh. A battle followed between the two forces at Ram Nagar but without a decision.

2. The Battle of Chillianwala. The English forces under the command of General Gough reached Chillianwala on January 13, 1849 A.D., where the Sikhs had entrenched themselves strongly. A fierce battle was fought at this place in which both the sides had to suffer heavy losses, yet without any outcome. Many brave Sikh warriors laid down their lives in this battle and they had to lose 12 guns also. But the English losses in this battle were even greater than those of the Sikhs. Their tally was 602 dead and 1,651 wounded.

3. The Battle of Multan. Multan had come under the control of Diwan Mulraj since April 1848 A.D. But in December, 1848 an English General, Whish laid a siege to Multan. Diwan Mulraj gave a tough fight to the English for some time but one day suddenly a shell hit his ammunition store and set it on fire. Because of this terrible loss, Diwan Mulraj could not fight any longer. He surrendered on January 22, 1849 A.D. The victory of Multan wiped out to a great extent the disgrace the English had suffered at Chillianwala.

4. The Battle of Gujrat, February 21, 1849 A.D. (Imp.). After the Battle of Chillianwala, the transfer of Lord Gough and the appointment of Sir Charles Napier had been ordered. But before Napier reached“the place of action, Lord Gough had already attacked the Sikhs. After the victory of Multan, the forces of General Whish joined those of General Gough which raised the strength of the English forces to 25,000 and the number of their guns rose to 100. On the other hand, the Sikh army was 61,500 strong and they had 61 guns with them.

A battle between both the forces took place on February 21,1849 A.D. at Gujrat on the banks of the Chenab. This battle was very fierce. Akram Khan, son of Dost Mohammed, the ruler of Afghanistan also joined hands with the Sikhs. Because both the sides made extensive use of guns in this battle, so many historians call it as the “battle of guns”. Shelling continued for three hours but the Sikhs had to leave their positions. At last, on March 13, 1849 AD. the Sikh chiefs surrendered. Thus the Second Anglo-Sikh War came to an end.

Question 7.
Write the results of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War proved destructive for the Sikhs.

Following were its mains results :
1. Annexation of Punjab into the British Empire. The Sikhs were completely defeated in this war. By a proclamation, Lord Dalhousie declared that the Punjab was annexed into the British Empire. Maharaja Dalip Singh was dethroned and the Punjab became a part of the British Empire.

2. Punishment to Mulraj and Maharaj Singh. Mulraj was held responsible for the murder of the two English officers, Agnew and Anderson. Mulraj was exiled to Andaman Islands (Kala Pani). On December 29, 1849. Maharaj Singh was arrested. He was sentenced to life imprisonment and sent to Singapore prison.

3. Disbanding of the Khalsa Army. The Khalsa Army was disbanded and the lands of many Sikh Chiefs were confiscated. The soldiers of the disbanded army were allowed to join the British army.

4. Appointment of the British officers in the Punjab. After the Second Anglo- Sikh War, the English officials were appointed on high posts in place of the Hindus, the Sikhs and the Muslims. They were given handsome salaries and allowances.

5. Establishment of a Frontier Force. Henry Lawrence, with the help of Edwards and Nicholson, constituted a Board for the administration of the frontier territories. A frontier force was also raised which consisted of infantry, horsemen, artillery and elephants. The English pulled down the old and outdated forts and constructed new ones and cantonments in their place.

6. Establishment of a Board of Administration. Lord Dalhousie constituted a Board of Administrators to administer the Punjab. Henry Lawrence was the Chairman of this Board. This Board consisted of three members. They were collectively responsible for running the administration of the Punjab. The members of the Board were given extensive powers in administrative and judicial matters. Many reforms were introduced by this Board. Roads and canals were constructed and a new postal system was introduced.

7. Cordial relations with the Sikh Chiefs. The rulers of Patiala, Nabha, Jirid, Kapurthala and Faridkot had helped the English in the Second Anglo-Sikh War. The English gave them big rewards for their services. The English also resolved not to annex their states into the British Empire.

Question 8.
How did the Britisher’s annex Punjab?
Answer:
Maharaja Ranjit Singh died in 1839 A.D. After him, there was no capable leader of the Sikhs who could lead them. The Sikh army captured power in its hands. Taking advantage of such circumstances, the English fought two wars with the Sikhs. The Sikh forces fought bravely in these wars. But because of the treachery of their commanders, they lost the battles. In 1849, after the Second Anglo-Sikh war, the Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

The following two wars were fought between the Sikhs and the English.
1. First Anglo-Sikh War. The English had been anxious to annex the Punjab to their empire. After the death of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the English found an opportunity to fulfil their desire. They started collecting their army on the other side of the river Sutlej. The Sikh leaders were enraged to see the preparations for war being made by the English. The Sikh forces crossed the river Sutlej in 1845 and came near Ferozepur. Thus the First Anglo-Sikh War started. Teja Singh, the Commander of the Sikh Army and Wazir Lai Singh joined hands with the English. Because of their treachery, the Sikh forces lost the battles at Mudki and Ferozeshah.

The Sikh forces took courage and crossed the river Sutlej and reached Ludhiana. They attacked the English. Here the English faced a defeat. But because of the treachery of Gulab Singh, the Sikhs had to face defeat at Aliwal and Sabraon. In March, 1846 A.D., a treaty was signed between the English and the Sikhs. According to this Treaty of Lahore, the Sikhs had to pay 1 j crore rupees as war indemnity to the British. A British army was stationed at Lahore to maintain law and order in the Punjab during the minority of Maharaja Dalip Singh.

2. Second Anglo-Sikh War and annexation of Punjab into the British Empire. In 1848, the Second Anglo-Sikh War broke out. The immediate cause of the war was the revolt of the governor of Multan Dewan Mulraj. On 19th April, 1848 Mulraj handed over the administration of Multan to two British officials. The people of Multan got excited to see the British officials. So they revolted and murdered the British officials. The whole of Punjab revolted against the British rule. At last, the British declared war against the Lahore kingdom on November 16, 1848. The most important battles of this war were the Battle of Ram Nagar (22 November 1848), Battle of Multan (December 1848), Battle of Chillianwala (January 13, 1849), Battle of Gujrat (February 1849). The Battle of Ram Nagar was not a decisive battle. The Sikhs had to face defeat at Multan, Chillianwala and Gujarat. In 1849, the Sikhs accepted their defeat. After this Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Activity:

Question 1.
1. Show the towns of Mudki, Ferozeshah, Baddowal, Aliwal and Sabraon on the map of Punjab.
2. Show the battlefield of the First Anglo-Sikh war on the map of Punjab.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
What was the main cause of the First Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:
Rani Jindan and Lai Singh, being afraid of the Sikh army, wanted to engage it in a war against the British.

Question 2.
Where were the four main battles of the First Anglo-Sikh fought?
Answer:
Mudki, Ferozeshah, Aliwal and Sabraon.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 3.
Mention any one clause of the Treaty of Lahore (9 March, 1846 A.D.).
Answer:
The British annexed the plains and the mountain region of Punjab between the Sutlej and the Beas.

Question 4.
Give any one cause of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Treaty of Lahore and Treaty of Bhairowal had given a severe blow to the Sikh prestige.

Question 5.
What were the four main battles of the Second Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:

  1. Battle of Ram Nagar,
  2. Battle of Multan,
  3. Battle of Chillianwala and
  4. Battle of Gujrat.

Question 6.
Mention any one consequence of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
Punjab was annexed to the British Indian Empire on 29 March, 1849 A.D.

Question 7.
Give any one reason responsible for the downfall of the Sikh power.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh’s successors were unworthy.

Question 8.
Give any one reason for the annexation of the Punjab by the English.
Answer:
They realised that the Punjab could serve as a very good consumer market for British goods.

Question 9.
How did Lord Dalhousie justify the annexation of the Punjab”? Give any one argument.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie charged the Sikhs of violating the terms of the treaty of Bhairowal.

Question 10.
Give any one argument against the annexation of the Punjab.
Answer:
The murder of just four British officers in Punjab was given undue importance by Lord Dalhousie.

Question 11.
What treatment was meted out to Maharaja Dalip Singh after the annexation of Punjab by the British?
Answer:
Dalip Singh was given a pension of 50,000 pounds and sent to England.

Question 12.
What arrangement was made for the administration of Punjab after its annexation in 1849?
Answer:
A Board of Administration of three members was established to govern Punjab.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 13.
When was the Punjab annexed to the British Empire?
Answer:
On 25 March, 1849.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The last and most decisive battle between the British and the Sikhs was fought on February 10, 1846 A.D. at __________
Answer:
Gujrat

Question 2.
By the Treaty of Bhairowal 16 December 1846, the administration of Lahore was entrusted to a ________ they were to carry on this duty till Maharaja Dalip Singh was a ________.
Answer:
Council of 8 Sardars, minor

Question 3.
The Battle of Gujrat, February 1849 has been called as the ________.
Answer:
“Battle of Guns”

Question 4.
The Second Anglo-Sikh War came to an end on ________.
Answer:
13 March, 1849

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 5.
Lord Dalhousie constructed a Board of ________ to administer the Punjab after the annexation of the Punjab.
Answer:
Administration.

True or False :

Question 1.
Kharak Singh was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Because of the treachery of Teja Singh and Lai Singh the Sikhs lost the Battle of Sabraon.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The British did not annex any territory of Punjab by the First Treaty of Lahore (March 1846).
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Henry Lawrence was appointed the Chairman of the Board of Administration.
Answer:
True.

Match the following :

Question 1.

A

B
1. Chattar Singh (a) Last Sikh ruler of Lahore State
2. Dalip Singh (b) Prime Minister
3. Bhairowal (c) Treaty
4. Kashmir (d) Gulab Singh
5. Lai Singh (e) Governor of Hazara.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (d)
5. (b).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The English had been anxious to annex the Punjab to their empire. After the death of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the English found an opportunity to fulfil their desire. They stationed their army on the other side of the river Sutlej. The Sikh leaders were enraged to see the preparations for war being made by the English. The Sikh army crossed the river Sutlej in 1845 and reached near Ferozepur. Thus the First Anglo-Sikh War started. Teja Singh, the Commander of the Sikh army and Wazir Lai Singh joined hands with the English. Because of their treachery, the Sikh forces lost the battles at Mudki and Ferozeshah, The Sikh forces took courage and crossed the river Sutlej and reached Ludhiana. They attacked the English. Here the English faced a defeat.

But because of the treachery of their commanders, the Sikh army had to face defeat at Aliwal and Sabraon. In March, 1846 A.D., a treaty was signed between the English and the Sikhs. According to the Treaty of Lahore, the Sikhs had to pay 1, crore rupees as indemnity to the British. A British army was kept in Lahore to maintain law and order in the Punjab during the minority of Maharaja Dalip Singh.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 2.
Write a short note on the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War broke out in 1848 A.D. The immediate cause of the war was the revolt of the governor of Multan, Dewan Mulraj . On 19th April, 1848 A.D. Mulraj handed over the administration of Multan to two British officials. The people of Multan were excited to see the British officials and they rose in revolt and murdered the British officials. The whole of Punjab revolted against the British rule. At last, the British decided to declare a war against the Lahore Kingdom. The most important battles of this war were Battle of Ram Nagar (22 November, 1848), Battle of Multan (December 1848), Battle of Chillianwala (January 13, 1849), Battle of Gujrat (February, 1849). The Battle of Ram Nagar was not a decisive battle. The Sikhs had to face defeat in the battles of Multan, Chillianwala and Gujrat. In 1849, the Sikhs surrendered completely. After this, the Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the annexation of the Punjab.
Answer:
Maharaja Ranjit Singh died in 1839. After this, there was no capable leader who could lead the Sikhs. All the ruling powers came in the hands of the Sikh army. The English took advantage of this opportunity. They conspired with some Sikh military officials. They began to strengthen their fortifications. They also increased the number of their soldiers. Thus they were preparing for the war. They fought two wars with the Sikhs. The Sikhs fought bravely in both the wars but were defeated because of the treachery of their military commanders and the officials. After the first Anglo-Sikh war, the English occupied the territory of Jalandhar Doab of Punjab and stationed their own army in place of the Sikh arm;/. But in 1849, after the second war, Lord Dalhousie annexed the whole of Sikh Kingdom of Punjab to the English empire.

Question 4.
What were the four causes of the First Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:

  1. The main cause of 1st Anglo-Sikh war was that Lai Singh and Rani Jindan had instigated the Sikh army against the British.
  2. Lai Singh and Rani Jindan convinced the Sikh army that the British were determined to occupy the Punjab after capturing Sindh.
  3. The British had gathered more than 35,000 soldiers at Ludhiana.
  4. The British increased their army in Sindh and made a bridge of boats across the river Sutlej to cross it. All these events made the Sikhs to believe that the British wanted to capture Punjab. Under these circumstances, the Sikh army crossed the river Sutlej in 1845 and the 1st Anglo-Sikh war began.

Question 5.
What were the results of the First Anglo-Sikh war?
Answer:

  1. The British secured the territory of Jalandhar Doab.
  2. Dalip Singh was appointed as Maharaja and a Council of Regency comprising of eight members was established to run the administration.
  3. Sir Henry Lawrence was appointed as the Resident at Lahore.
  4. The Sikhs had to pay 1~ crore rupees as the war indemnity to the British. The Lahore Darbar had only Rs. 50 lakhs in its treasury. So it sold away the province of Jammu and Kashmir to Raja Gulab Singh.
  5. It was decided to keep the British army in Lahore. The Khalsa Darbar was required to pay Rs. 22 lakhs rupees annually for its maintenance.
  6. The strength of the Sikh army was reduced to only 20,000 foot-soldiers.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 6.
Describe any four reasons responsible for the downfall of the Sikh kingdom in Punjab.
Answer:

  1. Ranjit Singh was an arbitrary ruler. All the powers of the state were concentrated in his hands. After his death, his unworthy successors could not control the vast kingdom efficiently.
  2. Ranjit Singh followed a weak policy towards the British. The British took advantage of it and were ultimately successful in annexing the Punjab.
  3. The administration of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was based on strong army. After Ranjit Singh’s death, the Sikh army took all powers in its hands. The Sikh chiefs tried to weaken the Sikh army and incited it to wage war against the British.
  4. In some battles, during the First and the Second Anglo-Sikh War, the Sikh forces were about to win the war. But because of the treachery of their commanders, their victory was converted into a defeat.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What were the causes and results of the Second Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer;

  1. The treaty of Lahore and that of Bhairowal had crippled the Lahore Kingdom. Now there was nothing to feel proud of. So they were in search of an opportunity to take revenge.
  2. The Sikh soldiers who were disbanded from the army were in search of an opportunity to take revenge.
  3. The immediate cause of the war was the revolt of the governor of Multan, Diwan Mulraj. A minor incident resulted in a great revolt. The British demanded ten years’ accounts from Diwan Mulraj which was impossible for him to submit because he had been its governor for about four years only. So he resigned. The British Resident sent Sardar Kalian Singh to take over the control of administration from Diwan Mulraj. Two British officials, Agnew and Anderson went along with him. On 19th April 1848, Diwan Mulraj handed over the administration of Multan to them.

The people of Multan got excited to see the British officials and they rose in revolt on April 20, 1848, and murdered the British officials. The British took no step at that time to suppress the rebellion. As a result, the revolt against the British spread throughout the whole of Punjab. At last, the British declared war against the Lahore kingdom on November 16, 1848.

The Results of the Second Anglo-Sikh War:

  • Punjab was annexed to the British Empire on March 25, 1849, and a Board of Administration of three members was established for the administration of Punjab.
  • Maharaja Dalip Singh was given a pension of 50,000 pounds annually and sent to England.
  • Diwan Mulraj was tried for his offence. He was declared to be guilty and then exiled.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 20-25 words:

Question 1.
What were the orders given by Guru Ji to the Sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji instructed the Sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama to consider Banda Bahadur as their leader in their struggle against the Mughals.

Question 2.
Why did Banda Bahadur come to Punjab from the South?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji had appointed Banda Bahadur as the leader of the Sikhs in Punjab. Hence, he came to Punjab from Deccan to undertake military action against the tyrannical Mughals.

Question 3.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Samana?
Answer:
Sayyid Jalaludin, the executioner of Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji, lived in Samana. The other two executioners of two young Sahibzadas, namely, Jalad Shasal Beg and Jalad Bhagal Beg were also inhabitants of Samana. Due to this reason, Banda Bahadur attacked Samana.

Question 4.
What was the reason for attacking Bhuna village by Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
A contingent of Mughal soldiers guarding a Mughal treasury was camping at village Bhuna. Banda Bahadur needed money for his military campaigns. Hence, he attacked the village Bhuna.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 5.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Sadhaura?
Answer:
Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhaura to punish its ruler Usman Khan. Usman Khan was notorious for commiting atrocities on the Hindus. Usman Khan had also killed Buddhu Shah for having supported Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the battle of Bhangani.

Question 6.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Chapparchiri and Sirhind?
Or
What was the reason for attacking Sirhind by Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in the Punjab. He had also bricked alive the two young Sahibzadas in a wall at Sirhind. That was why Banda Bahadur attacked Sirhind and Chapparchiri.

Question 7.
What was the cause of the battle of Rahon?
Answer:
The Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab had risen in arms against Faujdar Shamas Khan. The Sikhs had removed the Mughal officers by force and replaced them by Sikh officers. As a result, the battle of Rahon was fought between the Sikhs and the Mughals.

Question 8.
Wazir Khan was the Subedar of which place? Where did he fight against Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
Wazir Khan was appointed as the Subedar of Sirhind by the Mughals. He fought a battle with Banda Bahadur at Chapparchirri.

Question 9.
Write about the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was arrested along with about one thousand Sikh soldiers in 1715 and taken to Delhi. There, the Mughal tormentors plucked out his flesh with hot iron rods. In this manner, Banda Bahadur was martyred.

Question 10.
When and between whom third battle of Panipat fought?
Answer:
Third battle of Panipat was fought in 1761 between Ahmad Shah Abdali and Marathas. ,

Question 11.
How was the Karorsinghia Misl named?
Answer:
The founder of Karorsinghia Misl was Karor Singh. His Misl was named as Karorsinghia Misl after his name.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 12.
Who was Sada Kaur?
Answer:
Sada Kaur was the mother-in-law of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. She belonged to the Kanhaiya Misl. She was a woman of extraordinary courage and ability.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Describe the meeting of Banda Bahadur and Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
Answer:
The original name of Banda Bahadur was Madho Dass. His childhood name was Lakshman Dass. He was a Bairagi. In 1708, Guru Gobind Singh Ji visited South India. There, Madho Dass happened to meet’Guru Gobind Singh Ji. He was so much impressed by the graceful personality of Guru Sahib that he immediately adopted Guru Sahib as his Guru. Guru Sahib baptized him a Sikh and renamed him Gurbaksh Singh. Guru Sahib sent him to the Punjab* to lead the Sikhs. He became popular as Banda Bahadur in Punjab.

Question 2.
Write a note on the conquest of Samana by Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur attacked Samana on October 26, 1709. The cause of the attack on Samana was that the executioner who had martyred Guru Teg Bahadur Ji and bricked the two young Sahibzadas in a wall at Sirhind belonged to Samana. The fight continued in the streets of Samana for many hours. It is said that the Sikhs killed nearly ten thousand Muslims. They also razed to the ground numerous buildings. The families of the executioners were completely liquidated. Banda Bahadur looted a large amount of money from Samana.

Question 3.
Write about the battle of Chapparchiri (Sirhind).
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhind Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in Punjab. Secondly, the two young Sahibzadas were bricked alive in a wall on his orders. Banda Bahadur determined to avenge the heinous crimes committed by Wazir Khan. When Banda Bahadur marched towards Sirhind, many people rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, who was an employee of Sirhind administration, also joined the invading Sikh army along with his thousand soldiers. However, later he deserted the Sikh army. On the other side, Wazir Khan had twenty thousand soldiers at his disposal. On May 22, 1710, a fierce battle took place at Chapparchirri, a place 16 kilometres away from Sirhind. Wazir Khan was slain in the battle. The enemy army became the victim of the swords of Sikhs in large numbers. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. The nose of Sucha Nand was pierced and he was paraded in the town.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 4.
Describe the battle of Gurdas Nangal.
Answer:
The Mughals were highly infuriated by the continuous victories of Banda Bahadur. Finally, in 1715, a large Mughal army attacked Banda’s army. Abdus Samad Khan was in command of that army. The Sikhs fought the Mughal army doggedly. However, they were forced to move to Haveli of Duni Chand at Gurdas Nangal, a place 6 kilometres west of Gurdaspur City. They again entrenched themselves in the mansion (haveli) of Bhai Duni Chand. In order to strengthen the defence of the Haveli, they dug out a moat around the building and filled it with water. In April 1715, the Mughal army landed near the haveli of Duni Chand and besieged it. The Sikhs put up a stiff resistance. The siege continued for eight months during which all the food supplies within the haveli were finished. Thus, compelled by the circumstances, the Sikhs accepted the defeat. Banda Bahadur and his about 1000 soldiers were arrested and taken to Lahore.

Question 5.
Which was the First Misl? Describe it.
Answer:
The Faizalpuria Misl was the first Misl which came into existence. The founder of this Misl was Nawab Kapur Singh. He had first occupied a village Faizalpur near Amritsar and named it Singhpur. It was, therefore, also called the Singpuria Misl.

In 1753, Nawab Kapur Singh died and his nephew Khushal Singh became the chief of the Faizalpuria Misl. By that time, the influence and dominance of the Sikhs had increased and Faizalpuria Misl extended its sway over a wide area. In 1796, Buddh Singh, son of Khushal Singh, became the chief of the Faizalpuria Misl. He was a brave and capable chief just like his father. In 1819, Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexecFFaizalpuria Misl to his kingdom.

Answer the following questions in 100-120 words:

Question 1.
Describe the early conquests of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was a great military commander of his times. The strongest weapons of Banda Bahadur were his intrepidity and the blessings of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. He had come to Delhi on the instructions of Guru Sahib. He sent the Hukamnama of Guru Gobind Singh Ji to the Sikhs of Malwa, Doaba and Majha. Soon after, thousands of Sikhs rallied under his flag. After organising the army with the help of those Sikhs, Banda Bahadur marched towards Punjab to take military action against the tyranny and oppression of the Mughals.

1. Attack on Sonipat. After leaving Delhi for Punjab, he first attacked Sonipat. At that time, only 500 Sikhs had joined him. However, the Faujdar of Sonipat had no courage to face the Sikh army on learning about the stories of their valour. He ran away from the town along with his soldiers.

2. Looting of Royal treasury at Bhuna (Kaithal). After Sonepat, Banda Bahadur reached Kaithal. He received a report that some soldiers were camping at a nearby village Bhuna with the land revenue collections. Banda Bahadur, who was in need of money for his military campaigns, attacked village Bhuna. The Faujdar of Kaithal came forward to fight a battle with him but was badly defeated. Banda Bahadur acquired all the money.

3. Victory of Samana. After Bhuna, Banda Bahadur marched towards Samana. Sayyid Jalaludin, the executioner of Guru Teg Bahadur, lived there. The executioners of two young Sahibzadas, (Sahibzadas Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh) namely, Jalad Shasal Beg and Baghal Beg were also inhabitants of Samana. Banda Bahadur attacked Samana on November 26, 1709 and punished them. The fight continued for many hours in the streets of Samana. The Sikh soldiers razed to the ground the imposing buildings of Samana and put nearly ten thousand Muslims to sword. The families of Sayyid Jalaludin, Shasal Beg and Baghal Beg were killed. Banda Bahadur acquired a large booty during the attack. He appointed Bhai Fateh Singh as the administrator of Samana.

4. Victory of Ghurram. One week after the victory of Samana, Banda Bahadur attacked Ghurram. The Pathans of Ghurram offered resistance to the Sikh army. However, they saved their lives by running away. The Sikh army looted a lot of money from Ghurram.

5. Attack on Kapuri. From Ghurram, Banda Bahadur reached Kapuri. The ruler of Kapuri, Qutbudirt was notorious for inflicting atrocities on the Hindus. Banda Bahadur defeated him and put him to death! Banda Bahadur burned down his haveli.

6. Victory of Sadhaura (Qatalgarhi). The ruler of Sadhaura, Usman Khan, was notorious for committing atrocities on the Hindus. He had killed Buddhu Shah for having supported Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the victory of Bhangani. Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhora. After defeating Usman Khan, the Sikhs ravaged Sadhora,, town. Some of the Muslims took shelter in the haveli of Buddhu Shah. The Sikh army chopped off their heads. As a result, the place came to be ’known as Quatalgarhi.

7. Victory of Mukhalispur. After Sadhora, Banda Bahadur invaded Mukhalispur and easily occupied it. He changed the name of the fort to Lohgarh. Later, Banda Bahadur made Lohgarh as his capital.

8. Victory of Chapparchirri and Sirhind: The main target of the military expedition of Banda Bahadur was Sirhind where Subedar Wazir Khan lived, who had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in the Punjab and afterwards also. He was also responsible for the martyrdom of two young Sahibzadas. That was why Banda Bahadur wanted to take revenge upon him. When Banda Bahadur approached Sirhind, thousands of Sikhs rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, an employee of Sirhind administration, also joined the invading Sikh army with his one thousand soldiers. Wazir Khan also came forward with his 2000 soldiers. A fierce battle was fought at Chapparchirri (near Sirhind) on 22 May, 1710 A.D. between the two armies. However, some of the Sikhs indulged in looting only and deserted the army during the course of the battle. The nephew of Sucha Nand also ran away from the field. At such a crucial juncture, Banda Bahadur charged forward and encouraged the loyal Sikhs. Finally, he killed Wazir Khan. A large number of Mughal soldiers were slain by the Sikhs. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. The nose of Sucha Nand was pierced and he was paraded in the town.

9. Attack on Saharanpur and Jalalabad: In the meantime, Banda Bahadur got report that Jalal Khan, the governor of Jalalabad, was committing atrocities on his Hindu subjects. Therefore, he invaded Jalalabad. On his way, he occupied Saharanpur also. However, Banda Bahadur returned without conquering Jalalabad because of heavy rains and he had received an urgent message from the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab to come to their help.

10. Control over Jalandhar Doab: The continuous victories of Banda Bahadur had infused a new spirit of courage among the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab. The Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab had risen in revolt against the Faujdar Shams Khan. Shams Khan sent a huge army against the Sikhs after declaring Jihad. Banda Bahadur arrived at the right time to assist the Sikhs in their revolt. A fierce battle took place between the Sikhs and Muslims at Rahon. The Sikhs emerged victorious. In this way, the regions of Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur came under the control of the Sikhs.

11. Control over Amritsar, Batala, Kalanaur and Pathankot: Encouraged by the victories of Bapda Bahadur, nearly 8000 Sikhs revolted against their Muslim rulers. Soon they took in their possession the region of Amritsar, Batala, Kalanaur and Pathankot.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 2.
Describe the battles between Bahadur Shah and Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur spread awe and fear amoag the Mughal rulers of Punjab. When the Mughal Emperor received the report about actual condition in the Punjab, he got infuriated. The emperor, therefore, directed all his attention towards Punjab. On June 27, 1710, he left Ajmer for Punjab.

The emperor also directed the Subedars of Delhi, Avadh, and Nizams and Faujdars of Muradabad and Allahabad to come along with their armies to Punjab.
1. Battle of Eminabad: Bahadur Shah, Feroze Khan Mewati and Mahabat Khan in command of a large army marched against Banda Bahadur and his Sikh army. Bhai Binod Singh and Ram Singh engaged the Mughal army in a battle on October 26, 1710 at Eminabad, a place between Banesar and Tarawari. At one time, the Sikh army pushed back Mahabat Khan. But as the number of Mughal soldiers was quite large, the Sikhs were defeated. The Sikhs were highly insulted. The dead bodies of the Sikhs were hanged on the trees on the roadsides. Bahadur Shah appointed Feroze Khan Mewati as the Faujdar of Sirhind.

2. Battle of Sadhaura: When Banda Bahadur learnt about the defeat of Sikh army, he immediately marched against the enemy. At that time, the Mughal army was camping at Sadhaura. The Mughal army was trying to seek some better place for camping. On December 4, 1710 a Mughal contingent left Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur exploited the opportunity to attack the remaining army at Sadhaura. He inflicted heavy losses on the Mughals. However, by the evening, the search party of the Mughal army returned. As a result, the Sikh army was forced to discontinue the attack and move back to the fort of Lohgarh.

3. Battle of Lohgarh: By this time, Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah himself took over the command to act against Banda Bahadur. He directed his commander Munim Khan to move towards the fort of Lohgarh with an order to gauge the actual strength of the Sikh army. Munim Khan overstepped the instructions of the Emperor and attacked Lohgarh on December 10, 1710 A.D. The other Mughal commanders were forced to join him in this expedition. The Sikhs gave them a tough fight. However, the Sikhs faced hardships because of the scarcity of the provisions. They were not fully prepared to fight a battle. In such a situation, one of the Sikhs, namely Gulab Singh wore the dress of Banda Bahadur and took over the command of the fort in place of Banda Bahadur. It helped Banda Bahadur to leave Lohgarh safely and he reached Nahan along with his Sikhs on December 11, 1710. Munim Khan stormed the fort of Lohgarh and captured it. Gulab Singh was killed. However, Bahadur Shah felt frustrated when he found that he was not able to capture Banda Bahadur. Hence, the Emperor sent his army under Hamid Khan after Banda Bahadur towards Nahan. The Emperor himself marched through Sadhaura, Badowal, Ropar, Hoshiarpur, Kalanaur, etc. and reached Lahpre.

4. The activities of Banda Bahadur in the Hilly Regions: Banda Bahadur sent a message to the Sikhs living in the hilly regions to join him. Very soon, a large number of Sikhs gathered at Kiratpur.

  1. First of all, Banda Bahadur issued a directive ^o the old enemy of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, named Bhim Chand of Bilaspur to accept his suzerainty. When Bhim Chand refused to follow his command, Banda Bahadur attacked Bilaspur. A fierce battle took place. Bhim Chand and his 1300 soldiers were killed in the battle. It was one of the glorious victories of the Sikhs.
  2. The rest of the hilly chiefs were terrified by the victory of Banda Bahadur. Some of them even presented gifts and recognised his suzerainty. Raja Siddha Sen of Mandi even openly announced that he was a follower of the Sikh Gurus.
  3. From Mandi, Banda Bahadur marched towards Kullu. The ruler of Kullu, Raja Man Singh was able to trap Banda Bahadur by a trick. However, Banda Bahadur soon set himself free.
  4. From Kullu, Banda Bahadur marched towards the kingdom of Chamba. The Raja of Chamba, Raja Udai Singh welcomed him and even married a girl from his family to Banda Bahadur. A son was born to Banda Bahadur in 1711, who was named Ajay Singh.
  5. Battle of Baihrampur: Next, Banda Bahadur marched from the hills of Raipur and Baihrampur and came down to the plains. There, he was again attacked by Faujdar of Jammu, Baizd Khan Khaishgi. A battle was fought on June 4, 1711, near Baihrampur. Bhai Bhag Singh and Bhai Fateh Singh displayed their skills with great courage and won the battle for the Sikhs.

After the victory of Baihrampur, Banda Bahadur attacked Raipur, Kalanaur, and Batala and occupied those towns. But, he soon lost those territories. Banda Bahadur again took shelter in the mountains. But Bahadur Shah and his army failed to destroy Banda Bahadur’s power and the Sikh army.

Question 3.
Describe the battles fought by Banda Bahadur in the Ganga-Yamuna region.
Answer:
A wave of enthusiasm spread among the common people because of continuous victories won by Banda Bahadur. The people became hopeful that Banda Bahadur would free them from the tyranny of the Mughals. So many Hindus and Muslims started embracing Sikh religion. The inhabitants of Muslim villages like Unarasa were converted to Sikh religion.

The Faujdar of Jalalabad did not tolerate it. He imprisoned many Sikhs of that village. Banda Bahadur, on getting this report, set out towards Unarasa to get the Sikhs released.
1. Attack on Saharanpur: The Sikhs attacked Saharanpur after crossing the river Yamuna. The Faujdar of Saharanpur ran away to Delhi on the arrival of Sikhs. His subordinates tried to resist the attacks of the Sikhs but were badly defeated. The Sikh army occupied a major portion of Saharanpur. They changed the name of Saharanpur to Bhagnagar.

2. Battle of Bihat: After Saharanpur, Banda Bahadur marched towards Bihat. The Pirzadas of Bihat were commiting atrocities on the Hindus. They used to slaughter cows at public places. Banda Bahadur put many Pirzadas to sword. It is said that only one Pirzada escaped the sword of Banda Bahadur because at that time he was away to Bulandshahr.

3. Attack on Ambeta: After Bihat, Banda Bahadur attacked Ambeta. The Afghans (Pathans) of Ambeta were very rich. They did not oppose the Sikh army. The Sikh army acquired a lot of money from them.

4. Attack on Nanota: The Sikhs attacked Nanota on July 21,1710. The Sheikhzadas of Nanota were experts in archery. They gave a tough fight to the Sikh army. The fight spread over to the streets and market of the town. Finally, the Sikh army won the victory and three hundred Sheikhzadas were killed.

5. Attack on Unarasa: After the victory of Nanota, Banda Bahadur turned to Jalalabad and Unarasa, which were his main targets. Banda Bahadur sent the message through his representative to Jalal Khan to ask him to immediately release the imprisoned Sikhs and quietly accept the suzerainty of Banda Bahadur. Jalal Khan refused to accept the orders of Banda Bahadur. He even insulted the representative of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur now stormed Unarasa. A fierce battle took place and the Sikhs won it. Jalal Khan and his nephews Jamal Khan and Pir Khan were killed.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Activity:

Question 1.
Show the places of battles fought by Bandu BaIiadurIhempofPunjab.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word:

Question 1.
What did Madho Dass call himself after conifng under the influence of Guru Gobind Singh Ji?
Answer:
Madho Dass called himself a Dass (a humble servent) or Banda (a reliable follower of Guru Sahib).

Question 2.
Write one important victory won by the Sikhs under the leadership of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Victory of Sirhind.

Question 3.
Why did the Sikhs lose the battle of Gurdas Nangal?
Answer:
The Sikhs ran short of food supplies during the long siege of haveli of Bhai Duni Chand.

Question 4.
Write one important feature of the victories of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
The victories of Banda Bahadur united the Sikhs in the bond of unity and showed them the path of independence.

Question 5.
Write any one cause of the failure of Banda Bahadur in establishing a more permanent rule of the Sikhs in Punjab.
Answer:
(1) Banda Bahadur had become unpopular among the Sikhs.

Question 6.
In which two groups (Dais) did Nawab Kapur Singh divide the Khalsa soldiers in 1734?
Answer:
In 1734, Nawab Kapur Singh divided the Sikh soldiers into two groups, Buddha Dal and Tarun Dal.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 7.
What is the meaning of the word Misl?
Or
How did the word Misl originate?
Answer:
The Misl is an Arabic word, which means all are equals.

Question 8.
How many Sikh Misls were there?
Answer:
There were twelve Sikh Misls in the Punjab.

Question 9.
Write the name of the founder of the Ahluwalia Misl.
Answer:
Jassa Singh Ahluwalia.

Question 10.
Which Misl was founded by Sardar Charhat Singh?
Answer:
Sukherchakia.

Question 11.
Who was the founder of Karorsinghia Misl?
Answer:
Karor Singh.

Question 12.
When and where Banda was executed by the Mughal ruler?
Answer:
In June 1716 at Delhi.

Question 13.
Who was Wazir Khan?
Answer:
Governor of Sirhind.

Question 14.
What was the name of Banda Bahadur’s son?
Answer:
Ajay Singh.

Question 15.
Who was the founder of the Phulkian Misl?
Answer:
Chaudhri Phul Singh, a Sandhu Jat.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 16.
Who was the most powerful ruler of the Phulkian Misl?
Answer:
Baba Ala Singh.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Guru Gobind Singh Ji sent Banda Bahadur to the _________ to lead the Sikhs in their struggle against the ___________
Answer:
Punjab, Mughals

Question 2.
The third Battle of Panipat was fought in between the _________ and_________
Answer:
1761, Marathas and Ahmed Shah Abdali

Question 3.
Jasa Singh Ahluwalia was the founder of the ________ Misl.
Answer:
Ahluwalia

Question 4.
Banda Bahadur attacked Sirhind and Chapparchiri to punish the Subedar of
Answer:
Wazir Khan, Sirhind

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 5.
The Phulkian Misl was founded by Chaudhri
Answer:
Phul Singh.

True or False:

Question 1.
Banda was defeated in his battle with Wazir Khan, Subedar of Sirhind.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Banda was executed at Lahore.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
There were twelve Sikh Misls in the Punjab.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The original name of Banda Bahadur was Madho Das.
Answer:
True

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 5.
The Sukherchakya Misl was founded by Sardar Charat Singh.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
A long dark period in the Sikh history followed the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
True

Match the following:

Question 1.

(A)

(B)
1. Nawab Kapoor Singh (a) Bhangi Misi
2. Banda Bahadur (b) Ramgarhiya Misi
(c) Chapparchiri
(d) Faizalpuria Misi

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about any four main military achievements of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
The brief description of the main military achievements of Banda Bahadur is as follows:
1. Looting of Samana and Kapuri. Banda Bahadur made his first attack on Samana and looted it badly. Then, he stormed Kapuri. He also ravaged the town of Kapuri.

2. Attack on Sadhaura. The ruler of Sadhaura was ill-treating the Hindu inhabitants of Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhaura to punish its ruler Usman Khan. He massacred the Muslims in such a large number that the place came to be known as Qatalgarhi.

3. Victory over Sirhind. The two young Sahibzadas of Guru Gobind Singh Ji were bricked alive in a wall at Sirhind. Banda Bahadur massacred the Muslims of Sirhind to avenge the heinous crime. The Subedar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan, was also killed in the battle.

4. Conquest of Jalandhar Doab. The’icontinuous victories of Banda Bahadur encouraged the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab to rise against the Mughal subedar. They revolted against its Faujdar Shamas Khan and sought the help of Banda Bahadur. A fierce battle took place between the Sikhs and the Muslims at Rahon. The Sikhs won the battle of Rahon and occupied the region bf Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur and his Sikh soldiers were made prisoners at Gurdas Nangal. They were taken first to Lahore and then to Delhi. Banda Bahadur was paraded in the market places of Delhi and publicly insulted. Finally on June 9, 1716, the Mughal government passed the orders for the execution of Banda Bahadur. He was badly tortured before his execution. His son was cut into pieces before his eyes. His flesh was plucked out with red-iron rods. In this manner, Banda Bahadur was martyred. About 740 of his followers were also executed at Delhi.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 3.
Give four reasons because of which Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent Sikh kingdom.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent Sikh kingdom in Punjab due to the following causes:

  1. Kingly Life Style of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur had adopted the kingly life style and abandoned the ways of saints. It reduced the respect of Banda Bahadur among the Sikhs.
  2. Merciless and Brutal Massacres. According to Lala Daulat Ram, Banda Bahadur indulged in very brutal general massacres without sparing any Hindu or Muslim while on his Punjab expeditions. He lost the support of the Sikhs and Hindus due to large scale mindless killings.
  3. Powerful Mughal Empire. The Mughal Empire had yet not lost its vitality. Therefore, Banda Bahadur and his few thousand Sikhs could not fight against the Mughal Empire for long.
  4. Limited Resources of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent kingdom due to his limited resources. The Sikhs did not have enough resources to finish the power of the Mughal Empire.

Question 4.
Who was the founder of the Ahluwralia Misl? How did he expand the power of the Ahluwalia Misl?
Answer:
The founder of Ahluwalia Misl was Jassa Singh Ahluwalia.

  1. Jassa Singh successfully opposed the oppression of Mir Mannu (the Subedar of Lahore) from 1748 to 1753.
  2. In 1761, Jassa Singh attacked Lahore and defeated its Subedar Khwaja Obed. The Sikhs occupied Lahore.
  3. In 1762, Ahmed Shah Abdali attacked Punjab. Jassa Singh was defeated at Kup. However, Jassa Singh re-established himself. In 1763, the Sikhs under the leadership of Jassa Singh looted Kasur and Sirhind.
  4. In 1764, Jassa Singh invaded Delhi and looted it.

Question 5.
What was the position of Marathas on the eve of the rise of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Ahmed Shah Abdali had defeated Marathas in the third battle of Panipat in 1761 and thrown them out of Punjab. However, by the end of the 18th century, they had again extended their sway in the,North India.

Daulat Rao Sindhia, the Maratha chief had established his control over Delhi. He started attacking the region of Satluj and Yamuna Doab. However, his advance was checked by the British, a new power on the political scene of India.

Question 6.
Describe the position of the East India Company on the eve of the rise of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Warren Hastings was the Governor-General of the British Empire under the East India Company from 1772 to 1785. He checked the Marathas from extending their sway over Punjab by involving them in military engagements. However, the succeeding Governors-General, especially Cornwallis (1786 to 1793) and John Shore (1793 to 1798) an acting Governor-General) did not try to extend the territories of the British Empire under East India Company. In 1798, Lord Wellesley became the Governor-General. He was a soldier by training. He entered into subsidiary alliances with Hyderabad, Mysore, Carnatic, Tanjore, Awadh, etc. He also fought against the Marathas. The, Marathas were therefore not able to give attention to the Punjab. In 1803, the East India Company occupied Delhi after defeating Daulat Rao Scindia and brought it under the control of the British Empire.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the following Misls:
1. Phulkian,
2. Dalewalia,
3. Nishanwalia,
4. Karorsinghia, and
5. Shahid Misl.
Answer:
A brief description of the history of the above Misls is as follows:
1. Phulkian Misl:
A Sandhu Jat Chaudhari Phul Singh laid the foundation of the Phulkian Misl. The most powerful ruler of this Misl, however, was Baba Ala Singh. Baba Ala Singh had conquered the territories around Barnala in the beginning. In 1762. Ahmed Shah Abdali appointed him Nawab of Malwa region. In 1764, Baba Ala Singh defeated the Subedar of Sirhind Zain Khan. Abdali honoured Baba Ala Singh by awarding him with a kettledrum (Nagra) and Flag in 1765. Baba Ala Singh died in 1765. After the death of Baba Ala Singh, Amar Singh took over the reins of Phulkian Misl. He annexed the area of Bhatinda, Rohtak, and Hansi to the territories of his Misl. Ahmed Shah Abdali awarded him the title Raja-i-Rajanan. After the death of Amar Singh, his son Sahib Singh became the chief of the Phulkian Misl. He was a weak ruler. Finally, by a treaty in 1809, the East India Company made Phulkian Misl a protectorate of the British Empire.

2. Dalewalia Misl:
Gulab Singh established the Dalewalia Misl. He was an inhabitant of a village Dalewal which was situated on the banks of river Ravi. Thus, the Misl was called Dalewal Misl. The most popular and powerful chief of this Misl was Tara Singh Gheba. He kept an army of 7500 soldiers. He was a very wealthy chief. As long as he was alive,
Maharaja Ranjit Singh maintained friendly relations with him. The day, Tara Singh died, Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexed this Misl into his Empire. The wife of Tara Singh protested strongly against his action but was not able to achieve anything.

3. Nishanwalia Misl:
Sangat Singh and Mohar Singh founded the Nishanwalia Misl. They used to carry the banner of Khalsa (Nishan) during their eariler years. Therefore, this Misl was called Nishanwalia Misl. The territory of this Misl was Ambala and Shahabad. It was not politically much important Misl.

4. Karorsinghia Misl:
Karor Singh founded this Misl. The most popular chief of this Misl was Baghel Singh. Baghel Singh had conquered the territories of Banga, Nawanshahar, etc. The main centre of the activities of this Misl was 20 miles away from Karnal, the place where the Misl shifted its activities. Baghel Singh had an army of 12000 soldiers. After the death of Subedar Zain Khan of Sirhind, Baghel Singh had tried to extend the territories of his Misl towards the north of Satluj. Jodh Singh succeeded Baghel Singh. Jodh Singh had conquered some territory in the Malwa region and annexed it to his Misl. Finally, a major portion of the territory of this Misl became part of the Kalsia kingdom and Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexed the rest of its territory.

5. Shahid or Nihang Misl:
Sudha Singh, a Granthi of Damdama Sahib, laid the foundation of this Misl. Sudha Singh died while fighting the Muslim rulers. Hence, this Misl was called Shahid Misl. After him, the Misl was headed by Baba Deep Singh, Karam Singh, Gurbaksh Singh, etc. successively. Most of the members of this Misl were Akalis or Nihangs. Therefore, this Misl was also called Nihang Misl. About 2000 soldiers of this Misl were Nihangs. This Misl had been helping the other Misls during their times of need and crisis.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

PSEB 10th Class Science Guide Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be :
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 10.
Answer:
(d) 10.

Question 2.
A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime- water milky. The solution contains:
(a) NaCl
(b) HCl
(c) LiCl
(d) KC1.
Answer:
(b) HCl

Question 3.
10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise it will be :
(a) 4 mL
(b) 8 mL
(c) 12 mL
(d) 16 mL.
Answer:
(d) 16 mL.

Question 4.
Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic
(b) Analgesic
(c) Antacid
(d) Antiseptic.
Answer:
(c) Antacid

Question 5.
Write word equations and then balance equations for the reaction taking place when :
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules
Answer:
Zinc granules + Dilute sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + Hydrogen
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 4

(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon
Answer:
Magnesium ribbon + Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 5

(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder
Answer:
Aluminium powder + Dilute sulphuric acid → Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 6

(d) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with iron filings.
Answer:
Iron filings + Dilute sulphuric acid → Iron (II) sulphate + Hydrogen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 7

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 6.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
Answer:
Fix two nails on a cork and place it in a 100 ml beaker. Connect these nails to a 6 volt battery through a bulb and switch as shown in the figure.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 8
Aqueous solution of alcohol or glucose does not conduct electricity

Pour some aqueous solution of alcohol or aqueous solution of glucose in the beaker so that nails dip in it. Switch on the current. The bulb does not glow indicating that alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in aqueous solution and hence
do not produce H+ ions although they (aq)
contain hydrogen.

Question 7.
Why does not distilled water conduct electricity, whereas rainwater does?
Answer:

  • Distilled water does not conduct electricity because it contains no ions.
  • Rainwater contains ions due to dissolved salts, hence it conducts electric current.

Question 8.
Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Answer:
This is because in the absence of water, acids do not dissociate to give hydrogen ions > H+(aq)

Question 9.
Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is :
(a) neutral?
(b) strongly alkaline?
(c) strongly acidic?
(d) weakly acidic?
(e) weakly alkaline?
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration.

Solution pH Nature of Solution
A 4 Weakly acidic
B 1 Strongly acidic
C 11 Strongly alkaline
D 7 Neutral
E 9 Weakly alkaline

The increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration is :
11 < 9 < 7 < 4 < 1 (pH values).

Question 10.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube B. Amount and concentration taken for both the acids are same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Answer:
Fizzing occurs more vigorous in test tube A as compared to in test tube B. This is because concentration of hydrogen ion, It is more in test tube A than in test tube B, as hydrochloric acid a strong acid and acetic acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid.

Question 11.
Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Its pH will decrease due to the production of lactic acid which is acidic in nature.

Question 12.
A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
Answer:
So that the milk is not spoiled readily and medium remains basic.

(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Answer:
Because the lactic acid produced during curding reacts with baking soda.

Question 13.
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?
Answer:
This is because in presence of moisture, plaster of Paris sets to give a hard mass.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 9

Question 14.
What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples.
Answer:
The interaction of an acid with a base to form salt and water is called neutralisation reaction.

Examples :
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 10

Question 15.
Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Answer:
(a) Uses of washing soda :

  1. It is used in the manufacture of glass and soap.
  2. It is used in the manufacture of borax.

(b) Uses of baking soda :

  1. It is used in soda-acid fire extinguisher.
  2. It is used for making baking powder.

Science Guide for Class 10 PSEB Acids, Bases and Salts InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
Answer:
Dip red litmus paper in solution repeatedly in each tube.
(a) The tube in which the red litmus paper turns purple contains distilled water.
(b) The tube in which red litmus paper turns blue contains basic solution.
(c) The tube in which red litmus paper remains red contains acidic solution.

Question 2.
Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Answer:
Curd and other sour substances contain acids which react with the metal surface of brass and copper vessels to produce toxic compounds which are unfit for consumption.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 3.
Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
Answer:
When an acid reacts with metal, generally hydrogen is produced.
e.g. Mg + 2 HCl(Dil) → MgCl2 + H2 ↑

Pass this gas (H2) through soap solution. The soap bubbles filled with the gas will rise up. If a burning splinter is brought near the gas, the bubble will burn with a ‘pop’ sound.

Question 4.
Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
CO2 extinguishes a burning candle.

Question 5.
Why do HCl, HNO3 etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Answer:
HCl, HNO3 etc undergo dissociation in water to give Hydrogen ions, H+(aq) ions and show acidic characteristics. There are compounds like alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in water to give hydrogen ions, H+(aq) ions. Hence, they don’t show acidic properties.

Question 6.
Why does an aqueous solution of acid conduct electricity?
Answer:
The aqueous solution of an acid contains ions such as hydrogen ions, H+(aq) and other anions. Hence it conducts electricity.

Question 7.
Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour on the dry litmus paper?
Answer:
This is because dry HCl gas is a covalent compound and it does not undergo dissociation to give hydrogen ions, H+(aq) and hence no change in colour of dry litmus paper.

Question 8.
While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
Answer:
The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is an exothermic process. This is because if water is added to concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns. The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating.

Question 9.
How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
Answer:
The concentration of hydronium ions decreases when a solution of an acid is diluted.

Question 10.
How is the concentration of hydroxide ions [OH–] affected when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
When excess of base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide, the concentration of OH ions increases.

Question 11.
You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?
Answer:
In solution A, [H+(aq)] = 10-6 M, pH < 7
In solution B, [H+(aq)] = 10-8 M. pH > 7

∴ Then the solution A has more hydrogen ion concentration.
Solution A is acidic.
Solution B is basic.

Question 12.
What effect does the concentration of H+(aq) ions have on the nature of the solution?
Answer:

  • If [H+] < 10-7 M, it is basic solution.
  • If [H+] >10-7 M, it is an acidic solution.
  • If [H+] = 10-7 M, it is a neutral aqueous solution.

Question 13.
Do basic solutions also have H+(aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
Answer:
Basic solutions also contain H+(aq) ions. But in basic solutions :
[H+(aq)] < 10-7 M
and [OH–] > 10-7 M
Since [OH–(aq)] is more than [H+(aq)], hence these are basic solutions.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 14.
Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his Helds with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate)?
Answer:
If the pH of the soil is less than 7, i.e. it is acidic, the farmer will treat the soil with quick lime, slaked lime, chalk.

Question 15.
What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?
Answer:
Bleaching powder.

Question 16.
Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Answer:
Dry slaked lime.

Question 17.
Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
Answer:
Washing soda.

Question 18.
What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the equation of the reaction involved.
Answer:
It decomposes to give sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide gas (which is colourless, odourless and turns lime water milky).
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

Question 19.
Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Mention four basic principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the four main principles of India’s foreign policy :

  1. Faith in the policy of non-alignment
  2. Faith in the principles of Panchsheel,
  3. Full faith in the U.N.
  4. Opposition to colonialism and imperialism.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Panchsheel?
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, P.M. of China formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence for the nations of the world. These five principles are calledTanchsheel. The main objective of Panchsheel is to maintain world peace by promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means making decisions independently on the basis of merit to solve international problems. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Question 4.
Describe one basic reason which created bad blood between India and the United State of America.
Answer:
India has refused to join military pacts set up by America.

Question 5.
What is the Atomic Policy of India?
Answer:
To use the atomic energy for constructive and peaceful purposes.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Enumerate the number of permanent members and non-permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
The Security Council has 15 members. Out of them five are permanent members. The remaining ten are temporary members. Each temporary member is elected for a term of 2 years by the General Assembly. The five permanent members are: U.S.A., Russia, Great Britain, France and China.

Question 7.
When the UN came into existence and how many were its original members?
Answer:
The United Nations was founded on October 24, 1945. It had 51 original (founder) members.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Disarmament?
Answer:
Disarmament means destruction or reduction of arms. The term implies voluntary destruction of arms and the creation of world without arms.

Question 9.
Describe the basic cause of tension and stagnation of relations between India and China.
Answer:
The border dispute is the main cause of tension between India and China. This tension became intense when China attacked India in 1962.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the main principles of Indian foreign policy.
Or
Write down three principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the main principles of Indian Foreign Policy :

  1. Non-alignment. It is the basic principle of India’s foreign policy. India was the first country that initiated the policy of Noii-alignment.
  2. Opposition to Imperialism. India has always opposed imperialism and colonialism.
  3. Opposition to the policy of Caste, ColoSr and Discrimination etc. India has always raised voice against the policy of Caste, Colour and Discrimination.
  4. Faith in the United Nations. India is a founder member of the United Nations and has full faith in the aims and principles of the United Nations.
  5. Panchsheel. Panchsheel is an important principle of Indian foreign policy.
  6. Friendly Relations with other States. India is always ready to have friendly relations with other States of the world.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on Panchsheel.
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, the Prime Minister of China held a meeting in Delhi. They formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence between the nations of the world. These principles are called Panchsheel.

Following are these principles:

  1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
  2. Non-aggression. In other words, the disputes among the nations should be settled by negotiations.
  3. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other states.
  4. To endeavour to achieve mutual gains and co-operation.
  5. To adhere to the policy of peaceful co-existence among different nations Live and let live. If these principles are respected, there can be no danger of any deadly war in the world.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 3.
Describe the meaning of the’^bficy of Non-alignment and reasons for its adoption by India.
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc and having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means taking decisions independently on the basis of merit while solving international problems. Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Reasons. At the time of our independence, there were two power blocs in the world: the American bloc and the Russian bloc. ‘There existed tension between the two blocs. Thus there was a cold war between them. Newly^^.d countries could reduce this tension and make progress with the aid of both, tfiesel.two.blocs. So they did not join any bloc and formed their own group. Pandit Jawaharl, ejiru based India’s foreign policy on the principle of Non-alignment.

Question 4.
Describe the organisation and functions of the General Assembly, Security Council and International, Court of Justice.
Answer:
General Assembly. It is made up of all the member nations of the U.N.O. each of whom has one vote. However, each member state can send five representatives to attend its meetings. The Assembly takes decisions on ordinary matters by a simple majority. It passes the annual budget of U.N.O.

Security Council: It is made up of 15 members out of Ayhqm five are permanent members. The remaining ten members are elected for a term of two years by the General Assembly.

The Security Council is entrusted with the task of preserving world peace. It tries to settle disputes between the different nations in a just and fair manner.

International Court of Justice:
It is called “The World Court”. The Court hears and decides, disputes arising between states according to International Law. It also gives advice to the General Assembly on legal matters.

Question 5.
Describe the role of India in the United Nations.
Answer:
India is one of the 51 founder members of the United Nations. From the very beginning, the Indian leaders have been keeping a firm faith in this great institution. It has been playing an important role in the functioning of the United Nations.

  1. India stood for anti-colonialism. India along with other members got the resolution passed against imperialism and colonialism in 1950.
  2. Admission of New States. India tried her best for the admission of Communist China and Bangladesh. ,
  3. Cooperation in ending wars in other Countries. India supported the peace efforts of the United Nations to put an end to the wars in Egypt, Congo, Korea and Indo-China.
  4. Against Racial Discrimination. India, with the cooperation of the United Nations, raised a strong voice against the policy of racial discrimination followed by the imperialist government in South Africa.
  5. Human Rights. With the cooperation of the United Nations, India raised a strong voice of protest against the countries.which violated the human rights.
  6. Support of Disarmament. India have so supported disarmament for lessening the possibility of wars.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Describe the main reasons which Abated tension and hostility between India and Pakistan.
Or
Write a short note on the Indo-Pak relationship and their main dispute.
Answer:
India has made every effort to establish friendly relations with Pakistan but the tension and hatred between the two countries has never ended. The two countries had border disputes, river water distribution disputes and had to make settlement of evacuee property. The dispute about the sharing of river waters between the two countries was settled with the help of the World Bank^ through the Indus Water Treaty in 1960. The settlement of border disputes and the prql^em of evacuee property have been solved to a great extent. But the Kashmir problem is the bone of contention between the two countries.

Question 7.
Discuss briefly Indo-American relations.
Answer:
India and U.S.A. are the two largest democracies in the world. During 1947-2001 the relations between the two countries were marked by two opposite features. On one side, there was a spirit of co-operation and friendship between the two countries. But on the other, their relations were strained and conflicting. There has been, however, a marked improvement in the relations between the two countries since 2000 A.D. Both these countries are fighting against terrorism

The U.S.A. had begun to give massive military aid to Pakistan. This was strongly opposed by India. The lowest point in the Indo-US relations came in 1971 when India signed the Treaty of peace, friendship and co-operation with the USSR. India’s peaceful nuclear explosion on May 18, 1974, at Pokhran was strongly criticised by the US leaders and the people. There has been a marked improvement in the relations between America and India since 2001 A.D. The President of the U.S.A. Barack Obama visited India in January 2015.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Describe one cause of tension between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan has been claiming Kashmir since independence whereas it is an integral part of India.

Question 2.
Describe one positive aspect of Indo-Pak relationship.
Answer:
On 17th Feb., 1999, India and Pakistan signed a formal agreement for launching the Delhi-Lahore Bus Service.

Question 3.
Give the names of the founder countries of the Non-alignment Movement.
Answer:
India, Yugoslavia and Egypt.

Question 4.
Mention any one object of the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
To maintain international peace and security.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 5.
Mention one important function of the Security Council.
Answer:
To help in maintaining international peace and security.

Question 6.
Throw light on any ope aspect of India’s policy of Non-alignment.
Answer:
Not to join any of the power blocs.

Question 7.
Mention any one cause for the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation was established to maintain peace in the world.

Question 8.
Give one example of the work done by the U.N. for world peace.
Answer:
In 1949, it made the Dutch forces to vacate Indonesia.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Human Rights?
Answer:
Human Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can be his best self.

Question 10.
Why is disarmament necessary? Give one reason.
Answer:
To save humanity from total destrubtidh.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 11.
What was Marshall Plan of America?
Answer:
The Marshall Plan was a big programme of American aid-to the European nations to rebuild their war shattered economies.

Question 12.
Why were SEATO and Baghdad pacts prepared by the U.S.A.?
Answer:
To check spread of communism.

Question 13.
What is India’s Atomic or Nuclear Policy?
Answer:
India wants to make’ the use of atomic energy.for constructive and peaceful purposes.

Question 14.
What is meant by atomic weapons?
Answer:
The weapons which are exploded by the use of atomic or nuclear energy are called atomic weapons.

Question 15.
Which powers colonised Africa?
Answer:
The continent of Africa was colonised by Britain, France, Italy, Portugal and Belgium.

Question 16.
When was Bangla Desh created?
Answer:
In 1971.

Question 17.
Write down the names of two permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
England and U.S.A.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 18.
What is meant by policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but to have friendly relations with all countries.

Question 19.
Write down the names of two organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
1. General Assembly and
2. Security Council.

Question 20.
Enumerate the number of non-permanent members of Security Council of UNO.
Answer:10.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
There are ____________ organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
six

Question 2.
United Nations was established on ___________
Answer:
24th October, 1945

Question 3.
Originally United Nations consisted of ___________ members.
Answer:
51

Question 4.
Pt. ___________ is rightly acknowledged as the chief architect of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 5.
The train characteristic of India’s foreign policy is ___________
Answer:
Non-alignment,

Question 6.
India has full faith in the ___________ of United Nations.
Answer:
principles

Question 7.
At present United Nations consists of ____________ members.
Answer:
193

Question 8.
The word ‘Panchsheel’ stands for principles.
Answer:
five

Question 9.
___________ is a major issue of conflict between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Kashmir

Question 10.
There are ___________ permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
five.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
China made a sudden attack on India in:
(a) August 1962
(b) September 1962
(c) October 1962
(d) September 1965.
Answer:
(c) October 1962

Question 2.
The Principles of Panchsheel were signed between the Heads of the Govt. of:
(a) India and China
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and Japan
(d) Inia and Nepal.
Answer:
(a) India and China

Question 3.
The architect of Non-alignment is:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Dr. Rajinder Praad
(c) Atal Behari Vajpaye
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 4.
India became a member of U.N. in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1960.
Answer:
(a) 1945

Question 5.
Which organ of United Nations has all the member states as Its members?
(a) Security Council
(b) General Assembly
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) Economic and Social Council.
Answer:
(b) General Assembly

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Bangladesh was established in:
(a) 1965
(b) 1972
(c) 1971
(d) 1970.
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 7.
International Court of Justice has _________________ Judges.
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 22
(d) 20.
Answer:
(a) 15

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a basic principle of India’s foreign policy?
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Friendly relations with other states
(c) Faith in United Nations
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.
Answer:
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.

Question 9.
Who was the first woman president of the U.N. General Assembly?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit
(d) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur.
Answer:
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a permament member of U.N. Security Council?
(a) India
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Russia
(d) England.
Answer:
(a) India

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are security and defence so important for India today?
Answer:
It was easier to defend the frontiers of India in ancient times. The Himalayas served as the sentinal in the north. The ocean protected us in the south. But now the high Himalayas and the deep oceans have lost their importance as the protectors of the country. Due to the progress of science and technology, the mountains ánd the seas are no longer barriers to check the enemy. So it has become very important for India to defend her borders. Secondly, our relations with some of our neighbours are not very friendly. We have to defend ourselves against them. So India’s need for defence and security is greater these days.

Question 2.
Write the names of any four organs of the United Nations. Explain one important function of each organ.
Answer:
Following are the four main organs of the United Nations.

  1. General Assembly,
  2. Security Council,
  3. Economic and Social Council and
  4. International Court of Justice.

Question 3.
Give some suggestions to Improve the relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
The relations between India and Pakistan can be improved by promoting common interests of both the countries.

The following steps should be taken in this direction:

  • Trade relations between both the countries should be strengthened.
  • Efforts should be made to improve cultural and educational relations between the two countries.
  • There should be friendly sports matches between the teams of the two countries.

Question 4.
When was the United Nations established? Mention its aims.
Answer:
The United Nations was established, on 24th October 1945. The number of its founder members was 51. But now about 209 countries of the world are its members. India is one of its founder members.

Following are its aims :

  • To settle the disputes between the states through peaceful means.
  • To promote friendly relations among the member states.
  • To find solutions to social and economic problems of the world.
  • To protect and uphold the freedom and rights of man.
  • To maintain world peace.
  • To strive hard to achieve these objects.

Question 5.
Write the full names of ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO. Write the functions of any two of these organisations.
Answer:
ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO are specialized agencies of the United Nations.
1. ILO: Its full name is International Labour Organisation.
Its functions are as under :

  • It tries to improve the living and. working conditions of the labourers.
  • To fix minimum wages and hours of work for the workers.

2. UNESCO: Its full name is United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation. Its main function is to promote educational, scientific and cultural co-operation among the member nations of the world.

3. FAO: Its full name is Food and Agricultural Organisation. Its main function is to
formulate schemes to increase agricultural production and consider the food situation of all the nations. . ,

4. WHO: Its full name is World Health Organisation. Its main function is to protect the health of people and to eradicate diseases.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Write a short note on the following :
(i) SAARC
(ii) Veto Power.
Answer:
(i) SAARC: Its full name is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. It is an organisation of developing countries of South Asia. Its members are—India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Maldives. Some similarities are found in the cultural and economic problems of these countries. The representatives of these countries sit together to solve their problems and promote mutual cooperation.

(ii) Veto Power: The permanent members of the Security Council possess Veto power. These members are United States, Britain, China, France and Russia. For all effective decisions of this body, the unanimity of these five big powers is compulsory. This implies that these big powers have a veto on all important decisions of the council and anyone of these five powers can prevent it from taking any action against any country.

Question 7.
Mention some positive aspects of Indo-China relationship.
Answer:

  1. Both the countries have agreed to solve their border dispute through a special committee consisting of officials from the both sides.
  2. Both the countries have agreed to extend economic co-operation to each other. There is a considerable increase in the trade between the two countries.
  3. In 1988, the then Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi, visited China. The Chinese Prisident visited India in December 1991 and again in 2014. The way for the restoration of friendly relations between the two countries became clear. Since then many good-will missions have’been exchanged between the two countries.

Question 8.
Write down six features of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:

  • To make efforts for security and peace in the world.
  • To support the movements for self-determination in the colonies.
  • To oppose racialism.
  • Settlement of international disputes by peaceful methods.
  • To co-operate with U.N.O. and its Specialized Agencies.
  • To support the Non-Alignment movement and to remain away from the military blocs.

Question 9.
Write a short note on United N&tibns’ Security Council.
Answer:
The United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. The UNSC was formed in 1945 following World War II to address the failings of the previoifs international organisation i.e. the League of Nations to maintain world peace. The Security Council consists of 15 members. Soviet Union (Russia), United Kingdom, France, China and United States of America are its five permanent members. These countries can veto any resolution. There are 10 non-permanent members elected on regional basis to serve for a term of two years. The Council held its first session on 17th January, 1946.

Question 10.
What is the contribution of India to promote world peace?
Answer:
Following the policy of Non-Alignment, Indi%has always condemned colonialism and imperialism.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 11.
Enumerate six main organs of the U. N. O.
Answer:
Following are the names of the chief organs of the U. N. 0.:

  • The General Assembly.
  • The Security Council.
  • Economic and Social Council.
  • The Trusteeship Council.
  • The Secretariat.
  • International Court of Justice.

Question 12.
Name five permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
Following are the names of five permanent members of the Security Council of the U.N. – United States of America, Great Britain, Russia, China, and France.

Question 13.
Briefly explain the International Court of Justice.
Answer:
There is a total of fifteen judges in the International Court of Justice. Its headquarter is the Hague in Holland. Its main task is to settle the disputes between the U.N.O.’s member countries.

Question 14.
Write down a note on Secretary-General of the U. N.O.
Answer:
The head of the Secretariate of U.N.O. is called Secretary-General. He is appointed by the U. N. Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council for five years. Now Antonio Guterres is Secretary-General of UNO.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do we write balanced chemical equations?
Answer:
To understand the method to write balanced chemical equation, let us take an example.
Zinc + Sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + hydrogen This equation can be written as below
Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2

Check the number of atoms on both sides of the arrow.

Element No. of atoms in reactants (LHS) No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Zn 1 1
H 2 2
S 1 1
0 4 4

In the equation, number of atoms are same on the both sides of the arrow, thus it is balanced chemical equation.
Now let us try to balance the following chemical equation
Fe + H2O → Fe3O4 + H2

Step I: Make a list of atoms of different elements in the unbalanced equation

Element No. of atoms in reactants (LHS) No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Fe 1 3
H 2 2
0 1 4

Step II: Choose a compound with maximum number of atoms for balancing whether it is reactant or product. Choose an element with maximum number of atoms in the choosen compound. On this basis we choose Fe3O4 and in it we choose the element oxygen. On the right, there are four atoms of oxygen and on the left only one.

To balance, oxygen atom

Atoms of oxygen In reactants In product
(i) initially 1 (In H2O) 4 (In Fe3O4)
(iii) after balancing 1 × 4 4

To equalize the number of atoms, we can not change the formulae of elements and compounds taking part in the reaction e.g. to balance oxygen atoms we can put coefficient ‘4’ and can write 4H20 but we cannot write H204 or (H2O)4 or (H2O4).

A partially balanced equation will be
Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + H2
(Partially balanced equation)

Step III: Fe and H are still unbalanced. Choose any one and move ahead. To balance hydrogen atoms, on left side, make number at atoms of hydrogen ‘4’.

Atoms of hydrogen In reactants In product
Initially 8 (4 In H2O) 2 (In H2)
After balancing 8 2 × 4

Now equation becomes
Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

Step IV: Check the above equation and choose third element which still is unbalanced. We will find that only iron is the element, which remains to be balanced.

To balance Fe we take 3 atoms of Fe on the left side.
3Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

Step V: At the end, let us count the number ofatoms of elements on both sides of the equation
3 Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2 (Balanced equation)

Number of atoms of every element on both sides of the equation are equal. Therefore this equation is now balanced. This method of balancing chemical equations is known as hit and trial method because we use smallest integral coefficient to balance the equation.

Step VI: To write the symbols for physical states. There is no information given about the physical state in the above balanced equation.
To make chemical equation more informative, write the physical states with the reactants and products. To represent the states of solid, liquid, gas, aqueous of the reactants and products we write (s), (l), (g) and (aq) respectively with them. When reactant or product is present in the form of solution in water then word (aq) is written.

Thus, balanced equation will be
3Fe(s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
when (g) is used with water, then it means that water is used in the form of steam in the reaction. Usually, physical state is not mentioned in the chemical equation until it is very necessary.

Sometimes the conditions of the reaction like temperature, pressure, catalyst etc. are shown over or under the arrow e.g.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Question 2.
Give types of chemical reactions with examples.
Answer:
The various types of chemical reactions are :
1. Combination reactions: In these reactions two or more than two reactants combine to form a single product. Such reactions are known as combination reactions.

Example: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydoxide (slaked lime) and a lot of heat is evolved.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2
In this reaction calcium oxide and water combine to give single product calcium hydroxide.

2. Dissociation or Decomposition reactions: In these reactions single reactant breaks into two or more than two new substances. Such reactions are called dissociation reactions.

Examples of dissociation reaction :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

3. Displacement reactions: When an element displaces another element from a compound, then it is called displacement reaction.

Examples:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

4. Double displacement reactions. In such a reaction two different atoms or group of atoms exchange themselves with each other.

Example :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 6

Question 3.
Briefly describe oxidation and reduction with suitable examples.
Answer:
Oxidation. Oxidation of a substance takes place in a reaction when there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen in it and opposite to it reduction takes places when there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Example: A black coating of copper (II) oxide is seen on copper powder. Why this black substance is formed?
This copper oxide is formed due to combination of copper with oxygen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 7
If on this heated substance hydrogen gas is allowed to flow, this black coloured coating changes into brown colour because in these circumstances reverse reaction takes place and copper is again obtained.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 8
When there is gain of oxygen in a substance in a reaction we say oxidation of the substance has taken place and when there is loss of oxygen we say reduction of the substance has taken place.

There is loss of oxygen in copper (II) oxide, therefore it gets reduced. There is gain of oxygen in hydrogen, therefore it is oxidized. Thus, in a reaction one of the reactant is oxidized and other reactant is reduced. Such type of reactions are called reduction-oxidation reactions or redox reactions.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 9

Other examples of redox reaction are :

  • ZnO + C → Zn + CO
  • MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
  • In this reaction carbon is oxidized to become CO and ZnO is reduced to Zn.
  • In this reaction HCl is oxidized to Cl2 and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2.

Question 4.
Balance the following chemical equations.
(i) H2 + N2 → NH3
Answer:
3H2 + N2 → 2NHg

(ii) BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → AlCl3 + BaSO4
Answer:
3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)2 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4

(iii) H2S + O2 → SO2 + H2O
Answer:
2H2S + 3O2 → 2SO2 + 2H2O

(iv) KBr + BaI2 → KI +BaBr2
Answer:
2KBr + BaI2 → 2KI + BaBr2

(v) Al + CuCl2 → AlCl3 + Cu
Answer:
2Al + 3CuCl2 → 2AlCl3 + 3Cu

(vi) AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 +Ag
Answer:
2AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag

(vii) Al (OH)3 → Al2O3 + H2O
Answer:
2Al(OH)3 → Al2O3 + 3H2O

(viii) NH3 + CuO → Cu + N2 + H2O
Answer:
2NH3 + 3CuO → Cu + N2 + 3H2O

(ix) KClO3 → KCl + O2
Answer:
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2

(x) BaCl2 + K2SO4 → 2BaSO4 + KCl
Answer:
BaCl2 + K2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2KCl.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples from our daily life to show that chemical changes do take place in our daily life.
Answer:

  1. Fermentation of grapes take place.
  2. Our body digests the food.
  3. In summer, if milk is left in the room, we can see a change in it as it becomes sour.

Question 2.
Differentiate between balanced and skeletal chemical equation.
Answer:
Balanced equation. If number of atoms of each element are same before and after the reaction, then such a reaction is balanced chemical reaction.

Skeletal chemical equation. When number of atoms of each element before and after the reaction are not same then such a chemical equation is called skeletal Chemical equation.

Question 3.
What are the necessary requirements while writing a chemical equation?
Answer:
These are :

  • It represents a true chemical change.
  • It should be balanced.
  • It should represent physical states of the reactants and products.
  • It should indicate the necessary conditions required for the reaction to occur.
  • It should represent heat changes during reactions.

Question 4.
Give one example each of balanced and skeletal equation.
Answer:
2KCl + O2 → 2 KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
This is example of balanced equation.
Zn + AgNO3(aq) → Zn (NO3)2 + Ag
This is example of skeletal equation.

Question 5.
Give chemical formula for slaked lime and one use of it.
Answer:
Chemical formula -Ca(OH)2. Solution of slaked lime is used for white washing the buildings.

Question 6.
Why there is a shine on the walls after two-three days of white washing?
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with carbon dioxide present in the air and form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. After 2-3 days of white wash, calcium carbonate is formed due to which there is a shine on the walls.

Question 7.
Give chemical formula of marble and give reaction to show bow it is formed?
Answer:
Marble is also known as calcium carbonate.
Its chemical formula is CaCO3 Reaction to show its formation
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 10

Question 8.
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
How oxidation and reduction in the above reaction is taking place? What is the name of such reaction?
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 11
Such a reaction is called redox reaction.

Question 9.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 12
Complete the above reaction and tell the colour of the product.
Answer:
Above reaction is :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 13
colour of PbO is yellow.

Question 10.
Give colours of following solutions.
1. FeSO4
Answer:
FeSO4 → green

2. CuS04
Answer:
CuSO4 → blue

Question 11.
What is rusting? What is the chemical formula of rust. What is its loss?
Answer:
New articles made up of iron are shiny but after some time a reddish brown coating is seen on their surface. Usually it is called rusting of iron.

Chemical formula of rust – Fe2O3.H2O (Hydrated iron (III) oxide)
It is powdery substance that gets removed from the surface and due to this iron articles are getting damaged.

Question 12.
Fats are oils containing foods, when kept for long time then what change take place in them? What is name of this process?
Answer:
Fats and oils containing foods, when kept for long time, results in the change of their taste and smell. This process is named as rancidity.

Question 13.
How can we stop rancidity?
Answer:

  • To slower down the rate of oxidation, antioxidants are added to food items.
  • By keeping food items in air tight containers.
  • By flushing nitrogen gas in packets of chips so as to stop the oxidation of chips.

Question 14.
Zinc metal can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. But copper metal can not displace zinc from the solution of Zinc sulphate. Give reason.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. Copper is less reactive than zinc thus copper can not displace zinc from zinc sulphate solution.

Question 15.
What happens when zinc rod is placed in copper sulphate solution? Give chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It wall displace copper from solution of copper sulphate and zinc sulphate is formed. Blue colour of the solution of copper sulphate change to white slowly.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 14

Question 16.
What is lime mitigation? Why there is sound of shuun-shuun in this process? Give chemical equation representing the reaction.
Answer:
When quick lime is mixed with water, it changes to slaked lime. This is lime mitigation. This is a exothermic reaction and heat is evolved due to which there is sound of shuun-shuun is produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 15

Question 17.
Write names of the substances which got reduced and oxidized.
1. SO2 + 3H2S → 2H3O + 3S
Answer:
In SO2, S is reduced and in H2S, S is oxidized.

2. 2Al + 3HCl → 2AlCl2 + 3H2
Answer:
Aluminium is reduced and chlorine is oxidized.

3. 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and sulphur is reduced.

4. Zn + 2AgNOa → An (NO3)2 + 3Ag
Answer:
Zinc is oxidised and silver is reduced.

5. H2 + CuO → Cu + H2O.
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and copper is reduced.

Question 18.
What does a complete chemical equation represent and why is it necessary to balance a chemical equation?
Answer:
A complete chemical equation represents reactants, products and their physical state in a symbolic form.
A chemical equation is balanced so that number of atoms of every element in reactants and products becomes equal. Therefore it is necessary to balance the chemical equation.

Question 19.
What type of reactions are combustion of coal and formation of water? Represent by chemical equation.
Answer:
1. Combustion of Coal:
C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

2. Formation of water from H2 and O2 :
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)

Question 20.
How is dissociation reaction different from combination reaction?
Answer:
In a combination reaction two or more than two substance combine to give a single new substance where as in dissociation reaction a single substance breaks or dissociates into two or more than two new substances.

Question 21.
Give two examples of dissociation reaction.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 16

Question 22.
What is the difference between oxidation and reduction?
Answer:
In reaction, some substance gain or loose oxygen and hydrogen. If there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen from a substance then it is called oxidation. Loss of oxygen and gain of hydrogen is called reduction.

Question 23.
Give two examples of corrosion.
Answer:
Examples of corrosion are :

  1. black coating on silver
  2. green coating on copper.

Question 24.
Which type of reaction is shown in figure given below and define it.
Answer:
Displacement Reaction. It is a reaction in which more active element (metal or non-metal) displaces less active element (metal or non-metal) from its solution of its compound.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 17

Question 25.
What is shown in the figure given ahead? Also indicate 1 and 2 in the figure .
Answer:
The figure represents electro-lysis of water :

  1. Oxygen gas
  2. Hydrogen gas

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 18

Question 26.
The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the following questions:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 19
(i) Identify the type of chemical reaction.
Answer:
Photochemical decomposition

(ii) Write the chemical equations.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 20

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do we get on the combustion of magnesium ribbon?
Answer:
We get a white powder of Magnesium oxide.

Question 2.
What is law of conservation of mass?
Answer:
In any chemical reaction, mass can neither be created nor destroyed.

Question 3.
Define balanced chemical equation.
Answer:
If number of atoms of each element before and after the chemical reaction are equal, then such a chemical reaction is balanced equation.

Question 4.
Give one example of balanced equation.
Answer:
3 Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2.

Question 5.
If (g) is written with water, then what does it represent?
Answer:
Water is in the form of vapour or steam.

Question 6.
Sometimes we show the conditions of a reaction like pressure, temperature, catalyst etc. where do we write it.
Answer:
Above and below the arrow.

Question 7.
How does a new substance form in a chemical reaction?
Answer:
By breaking and making of bonds between atoms.

Question 8.
Define combination reaction.
Answer:
A reaction in which two or more than two reactants combine to give single product is called combination reaction.

Question 9.
What is the use of slaked lime?
Answer:
For whitewashing the buildings.

Question 10.
Write chemical formula for Marble.
Answer:
CaCO3.

Question 11.
What do we get on the combustion of natural gas?
Answer:
CO2, H2O and energy.

Question 12.
Write formula for ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
FeSO4.7H2O.

Question 13.
What is formed of grey colour from silver chloride in sun light?
Answer:
Silver metal.

Question 14.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 21
Where is above reaction used?
Answer:
Black and white photography.

Question 15.
Why after some time shining iron articles become dull?
Answer:
Due to rust.

Question 16.
What is the colour of rust coating on iron?
Answer:
Brown colour.

Question 17.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
When a metal comes in contact with moisture, acid etc. it gets corroded and the process is called corrosion.

Question 18.
What is the colour of coating on silver due to corrosion?
Answer:
Black coating.

Question 19.
What is the colour of coating on copper due to corrosion?
Answer:
Green coating.

Question 20.
Due to which process, there is a change in smell and taste of food items which contain fat and oils?
Answer:
This change is due to oxidation and is called rancidity.

Question 21.
What do the manufacturer of chips flush in the packets of chips to prevent oxidation?
Answer:
Nitrogen gas.

Question 22.
What is the colour of coating of copper(II) oxide?
Answer:
Black colour.

Question 23.
What is other name of oxidation-reduction reaction.
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Question 24.
When does oxidation of substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is gain of O2 or loss of H2.

Question 25.
When does reduction of a substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is loss of O2 or gain of H2.

Question 26.
White coloured silver chloride change to which colour in sunlight?
Answer:
In grey colour.

Question 27.
Give one example of endothermic reaction.
Answer:
3AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)

Question 28.
In w hat calcium carbonate dissociate when heat is given to it?
Answer:
Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

Question 29.
Write chemical formula for slaked lime.
Answer:
Ca(OH)2.

Question 30.
What is special there in potato, rice and bread?
Answer:
Carbohydrate.

Question 31.
What do we get on the decomposition of carbohydrate?
Answer:
Glucose.

Question 32.
Write the reaction for combination of natural gas?
Answer:
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + energy.

Question 33.
What type of reaction is combination of coal and formation of water from H2 and O2?
Answer:
Combination reaction.

Question 34.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 22
What is A in above reaction.
Answer:
Chlorophyll.

Question 35.
What is skeletal chemical equation?
Answer:
If in a chemical reaction, number of atoms of each element on left hand side is not equal to number of atoms of each element on right hand side such a reaction is called skeletal chemical equation.

Question 36.
What are products?
Answer:
In a chemical reaction new substances are formed which are known as products.

Question 37.
What are reactants?
Answer:
Those substances which take part in a chemical reaction and undergo chemical changes are called reactants.

Question 38.
What is reduction reaction?
Answer:
It is a reaction in which there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Question 39.
What is oxidation reaction?
Answer:
It is reaction in which there is loss of hydrogen or gain of oxygen.

Question 40.
If in a reaction one reactant is reduced and other is oxidised, what is name of such a reaction?
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The chemical reaction given below represents :
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) →
BaSO4(s) + 2 NaCl(aq)
(A) Decomposition reaction
(B) Displacement reaction
(C) Combination reaction
(D) Double diplacement reaction.
Answer:
(D) Double displacement reaction

Question 2.
The chemical reaction in which heat energy is given out is called:
(A) Exothermic reaction
(B) Endothermic reaction
(C) Polymerisation reaction
(D) All.
Answer:
(A) Exothermic reaction

Question 3.
During electrolysis, hydrogen and oxygen are produced in the ratio by volume :
(A) 2:1
(B) 1:1
(C) 2:2
(D) 4:1.
Answer:
(A) 2: 1.

Question 4.
The chemical formula of rust is:
(A) Fe2O3
(B) FeCO3
(C) Fe2O3 .xH2O
(D) FeCO3 xH2O.
Answer:
(C) Fe2O3 .xH2O

Question 5.
Which is an example of a decomposition reaction?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 23
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 24

Question 6.
Redox reaction involves:
(A) Oxidation
(B) Reduction
(C) Both oxidation and reduction
(D) None.
Answer:
(C) Both oxidation and reduction

Question 7.
In a packet of chips oxygen is replaced by gas:
(A) CO2
(B) SO2
(C) N2
(D) O3.
Answer:
(C) N2

Question 8.
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
What type of chemical reaction is shown by the above equation?
(A) Combination reaction
(B) Dissociation reaction
(C) Displacement reaction
(D) Double displacement reaction.
Answer:
(C) Displacement reaction.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Complete the following chemical equation.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 25
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 26

Question 2.
Respiration is an ________ reaction.
Answer:
Respiration is an exothermic reaction.

Question 3.
Rusting of iron is a ________ reaction.
Answer:
Rusting iron is a redox reaction.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
__________ is called the F.I.R.
Answer:
First investigation report

Question 2.
__________ is the highest court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court.

Question 3.
The main organs of the government are __________
Answer:
Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 4.
The supreme court judges remains in office upto the age of years, while the high court judges upto the age of __________ year.
Answer:
65, 62

Question 5.
PIL means __________
Answer:
Public interest litigation.

Question 6.
Criminal cases are registered under Article
Answer:
134.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗):

Question 1.
Judiciary is called the defender of the Constitution.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Dual Judiciary System is in practice in India.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
An appeal cannot be made in High Court against the District court decisions.
Answer:
(✗)

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 4.
The Prime Minister appoint the Judges.
Answer:

Question 5.
Criminal cases are related to quarrels regarding land and property.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Under which has the Supreme Court been provided special powers?
(A) Article 134
(B) Article 135
(C) Article 136
(D) Article 137.
Answer:
(C) Article 136.

Question 2.
How are the High Court formed?
(A) District level
(B) Tehsil Level
(C) State Level
(D) Village Level.
Answer:
(C) State Level.

Question 3.
How can the Public Interest cases be fijed?
(A) For defending self interest
(B) For defending government interest
(C) For defending public interest
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(C) For defending Public interest.

IV. Answer the following questions in not more than 15 words :

Question 1.
What is Judiciary?
Answer:
Judiciary is that part of government which does the work of Justice. It protects the constitution and fundamental rights. It also gives punishment to those who violate the law.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 2.
Which is the highest court of India and where is it located?
Answer:
Highest court of India is known as the Supreme Court and Supreme Court of India is situated in Delhi, the Capital of India.

Question 3.
What are the main Cases?
Answer:
Mainly suits are of two types-Civil suits and Criminal suits. Suits of fundamental rights, marriage, divorce, property, land disputes are included in civil suits. Suits of quarrel, violence, murder, etc. comes in the category of criminal suits.

Question 4.
What are civil cases?
Answer:
Civil cases are related with general public. Suits of fundamental rights of citizens, marriage, divorce, rape, property and land disputes comes in the category of civil suits. They are related with the personal life.

Question 5.
Who are legal Adviser?
Answer:
Whichever lawyer takes up case from the side of government is known as legal adviser.

Question 6.
What is public interest litigation?
Answer:
Public interest litigation can be filed against any department, official or institution of the government. It is necessary that this type of suit should be related with public interest. We cannot use public interest litigation for the protection of our personal interests. This type of case is fought by public prosecutor.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 7.
What is F.I.R.?
Answer:
Meaning of F.I.R. is informing the police quickly if any incident occurs in the surrounding. This information is being given to the nearest police station.

V. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
Explain the importance of Judiciary.
Answer:
Judiciary is that part of government that does the work of giving justice. Judiciary is of great importance in Democratic government because it is known as the caretaker of the constitution. It takes care of democracy and it is the supporter of rights and freedoms. The importance of the Judiciary is more in federalism because it resolves the disputes which occur between center and different states. It also has to play a great role for the security and impartial explanation of the constitution. Quality of Judiciary is the topmost criteria of checking quality of any government.

Question 2.
Write the special powers of the judiciary of India.
Answer:
Jurisdiction of Supreme Court is related to listening of appeals. It takes up the appeals against decisions of high court. These appeals are of three types-Constitutional, Civil and Criminal.
1. Constitutional Appeal
(a) If a high court of any state issues a certificate about any civil or criminal case that more constitutional explanation,is required in this case then appeal can be made in Supreme Court against the decision of high court.
(b) If high court does not issue such certificate then-Supreme Court itself can give approval and can take up the case.

2. Civil Appeals,
(a) If high court proves that any legal question of general importance in any case arises then appeal can be made in Supreme Court against the decision of high court.
(b) In some specific cases, appeal can be made in Supreme Court against the decision of high court even without the approval of high court.

3. Criminal Appeals. Supreme Court can listen the criminal appeals against the decisions of high court under the following conditions :
(a) Any such suit in which lower court has not found any person guilty but high court has given him the Death Sentence.
(b) If high court has called any case from the lower court itself and has given death sentence to the culprit.
(c) If high court proves that the case is eligible for further appeal.

Except this under Article 136, Supreme Court has the special right to listen to appeal of any case against the decision of high courts.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 3.
Write about the Judiciary system of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court is situated in the capital of the country, High Courts in different ‘states and District Courts are situated in districts. Gram Panchayat is being organized at village level to give justice to the people. But the scope of righs of Gram Panchayat is not very wide. It solves only cases of small disputes. It is not authorised to give imprisonment to any criminal. It generally fines the criminals.

Question 4.
What are criminal cases? What is difference between civil and criminal cases?
Answer:
Cases of violence, quarrels, abusing, murder, etc. are included in criminal cases. When any person suffers physical loss or his body hurt or any of his body part hurts then this type of issue comes under the category of criminal cases. For example, if any person captures land of other person illegally then it is a subject of civil case. But when both the parties struck and quarrel with each other and if physical loss is there then this case becomes civil as well as criminal. Intention of murder is also included in criminal case. If proceeding of criminal case against anyone under I.P.C. 134 starts then he can be given death penalty.

On contrary to that, civil cases are associated with fundamental rights, marriage, divorce, rape, land disputes. In this way they are related with personal life of the person.

Question 5.
Where can FIR be registered? Explain the role of judiciary in the event of the FIR not being registered.
Answer:
The meaning of F.I.R. is giving first information of any incident to the police. This complaint can be registered at any nearby police station. Police of any police centre cannot deny to register this information. But even then if F.I.R. of any person is not being registered at any police centre then he can take the help of high court or Supreme Court.

It is written in our Constitution that any court can. direct the police to register F.I.R. Except this court itself can register the F.I.R. and can direct the police to investigate the matter. There are certain privileges with Supreme Court. But no such example came around us in which any police officer declined to register F.I.R.’ of any incident.” In this case courts of the country are given specific rights.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and :
(a) 13 other Judges
(b) 25 other Judges
(c) 20 other Judges
(d) 33 other Judges.
Answer:
(d) 33 other Judges.

Question 2.
The Judges of the Supreme Court of India retire at the age :
(a) 62
(b) 65
(c) 60
(d) 50.
Answer:
(b) 65.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 3.
Number of Judges of the Supreme Court is fixed by :
(a) Parliament
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Cabinet.
Answer:
(a) Parliament.

Question 4.
Supreme Court sits at :
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Shimla.
Answer:
(b) Delhi.

Question 5.
Salary of the Chief Justice of India is :
(a) ₹ 26,000
(b) ₹ 2,80,000
(c) ₹ 28,000
(d) ₹ 30,000.
Answer:
(b) ₹ 2,80,000

Question 6.
While appointing the Judges of the Supreme Court it is obligatory for the President to consult the :
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Law Minister
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India.
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice of India.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 7.
Whom does Supreme Court advise
(a) Cabinet
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Parliament.
Answer:
(c) President.

Question 8.
Which one of the following is the guardian of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) Cabinet.
Answer:
(b) Supreme Court.

Question 9.
The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the :
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) People
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President.
Answer:
(d) President.

Question 10.
Judicial Review power is with :
(o) Parliament
(6) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Both with Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
(d) Both with Supreme Court and High Court.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 11.
In India, the power of Judicial Review is :
(a) Extra-constitutional
(b) Unconstitutional
(c) Constitutional
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Constitutional.

Question 12.
Which one of the following does not fall within the original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(a) Disputes between the Centre and the State
(b) Disputes between the States
(c) Disputes related to Fundamental Rights
(d) Disputes related to the Directive Principles.
Answer:
(d) Disputes related to the Directive Principles.

Question 13.
Harinder Singh, a resident of Gaushala road has many marriage palaces near his house. He is troubled by the noise caused by these palaces till late in the night. He also understands that the same noise troubles the students, the elders and patients as well. Subsequently he Hies a petition against the urban administration in the High Court. Under which type will the High Court register this petition?
(a) Civil Case
(b) Criminal Case
(c) Public Interest Case
(d) Appeal.
Answer:
(c) Public Interest Case.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
__________ is known as first information report.
Answer:
F.I.R.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 2.
__________ is the highest court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court

Question 3.
__________, __________ and __________ are the main organs of Government.
Answer:
Legislature, Executive, Judiciarty,

Question 4.
The judges of Supreme Court retire at the age of __________ years.
Answer:
65.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Judiciary is known as guardian of the Constitution.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Dual Judicial System is implemented in India.
Answer:
(✗)

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 3.
Appeal cannot be filed in high Court against the decision of District Court.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
Judges are appointed by the Prime Minister.
Answer:
(✗)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A B
1. Supreme Court (i) State’s Court
2. High Court (ii) Property Dispute
3. Criminal Case (iii) Delhi
4. Civil Case (iv) Violence

Answer:

A B
1. Supreme Court (iii) Delhi
2. High Court (i) State’s Court
3. Criminal Case (iv) Violence
4. Civil Case (ii) Property Dispute

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the term of Judges of Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
Judges of Supreme Court can remain on their post till 65 years of age and judges of High Court can remain on their post till the age of 62 years.

Question 2.
Which privilege is given to Supreme Court by Article 136 of the Constitution?
Answer:
Article 136 of the Constitution has given privilege to Supreme Court that it can listen to any appeal against the decision of High Court in that particular case.

Question 3.
What is Special Courts Act?
Answer:
According to Special Courts Act, appeal can be made only in Supreme Court against the decision of High Court. It is necessary to appeal within 30 days after the decision being given by Special Court.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 4.
Describe the composition of Supreme Court,
Answer:
At present Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and 30 other Judges. Article 127 (1) makes provision for the appointment of adhoc judges also.

Question 5.
How the judges of Supreme Court are appointed?
Answer:
The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by the President on the recomendation of Chief Justice of India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Structure of Single Judiciary has been established in India.” Clarify.
Answer:
All the courts of the country are connected with each other. Highest court of the country, Supreme Court, is situated in New Delhi, the capital of India. States have their own high courts. Session Court is there at the district level. Except this Sub-division officer (civil) is there at Tehsil level. Gram Panchayats, Municipal Committees arid Municipal Councils have been established to provide justice to people at local level. High courts are under Supreme Court and district courts are under high courts. In this way court of sub-divisional magistrate is under district court. From this it is clear that structure of single judiciary has been established in the country.

Question 2.
How Judiciary has been made independent and impartial?
Answer:
The following provisions have been kept to., make judiciary independent and impartial in India :

  • Judiciary has been kept separated from legislature and executive so that no government or party could be able to control it.
  • Judges are appointed by the President according to their ability.
  • According to the rules made for term of judges, judges of Supreme Court can remain on their post till the age of 65 years and Judges of High Court can remain till the age of 62 years. Process of removing them from their post is not very easy.
  • Salary of judges is also more than others. It cannot be reduced during their term of office.

Question 3.
Which type of efforts can a person do to register an FIR or First Information Report?
Answer:
The meaning of F.I.R. is by registering report of any incident to the police. This report can be registered at the nearby police station. According to the law, police of any police station cannot deny to register F.I.R. If it does not register the report then the S.H.O. (Station House Incharge) can be called to do so. If S.H.O. also denies to register the FIR then Deputy Suprintendent of Police can be met regarding this. If even he (D.S.P.) denies to do so then person can approach Suprintendent of Police. If he also does so then FIR can be registered in any police station of the country.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

Question 4.
Who appoints the Judges?
Answer:
Mainly judges are appointed by the President. He appoints the Chief Justice of Supreme Court and then with his advice, he appoints other judges of Supreme Court.

While appointing judges of High Court, he takes advice of the Chief Justice of Supreme Court as well as of Chief Justice of High Court and Governor of that particular state. Judges of District courts are appointed by Governor of State and he takes advice of the High Court in this case.

Question 5.
Express your views on the moving of cases from a lower court to the upper courts.
Answer:
A system of providing justice to citizens has been kept in the Indian Constitution. If it seems that justice has not been done in any case then any citizen can take the shelter of the high court. Appeals can be made in High Court against the decision of the District Court and appeals can also be made in Supreme Court against the decision of the High Court. High Court is committed to accepting the decision of the Supreme Court. In the same way, District Court is committed to accepting the decision of the High Court.

Question 6.
Write about the role of the Public Prosecutor.
Or
Who are government prosecutors?
Answer:
Public prosecutors are those lawyers who fight any case in favour of the government. Different types of public prosecutors are there for different types of suits. It means that there are different public prosecutors of cases like cases between government and government officials, cases of public property, criminal cases, civil cases, etc. In all these cases public prosecutor stands in favour of the government and he defends the government in every case.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Social, Political and Economic justice is promised in __________
Answer:
Preamble

Question 2.
The preamble promises justice to the Indian citizen.
Answer:
Social

Question 3.
Freedom has been given from Article __________ to __________ of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
25, 28

Question 4.
There are more than __________ castes in India.
Answer:
3000

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 5.
The were massacred in Delhi in 1984.
Answer:
Sikhs

Question 6.
__________ languages are recognised by the constitution of India.
Answer:
22

Question 7.
The Mandal Commission was set up in __________
Answer:
1978

Question 8.
The Mandal Commission has identified __________ Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes.
Answer:
3743.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗) :

Question 1.
The social inequalities do not affect the government.
Answer:
(✗)

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 2.
54% of the Indian population is illiterate today.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Hindi is the National language of the India.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Seats are reserved for Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes even today.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
The 73 and 74 Amendment of the constitution govern the Local self government in the villages and the cities.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 6.
Reservation has been given to the schedule caste and schedule tribes in local self government.
Answer:
(✓)

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 7.
Social inequalities are coming to an end in the Indian society.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Who said, caste is the most important party in India?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru
(C) Shri Jai Parkash Narain
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
Answer:
(C) Shri Jai Parkash Narain.

Question 2.
Which Fundamental Right has been added to the Constitution of India to ensure social justice to the Indian people?
(A) Right to Liberty
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to Equality
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(C) Right to Equality.

Question 3.
Whose Motto fs ‘Read All, develop all’?
(A) RMSA
(B) SSA
(C) National Education Commission
(D) PSEB.
Answer:
(D) PSEB.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 4.
For whom is reservation of seats permissible in government jobs?
(A) Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes
(B) Only for Backward Classes
(C) Schedule caste, Schedule Tribes and Backward Classes.
(D) Only for poor people.
Answer:
(C) Schedule Caste, Schedule Tribes and Backward Classes.

IV. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words:

Question 1.
What do you mean by social inequality?
Answer:
Many types of inequalities exist in our society on the basis of Caste, Community, Language etc. It is known as social inequality.

Question 2.
What do you understand by casteism and untouchability?
Answer:
Casteism. The Indian society is divided in many classes on the name of caste. Sense of higher and lower exists in these classes. It is known as casteism.

Untouchability. People of lower castes in India were hated by people of higher castes. Some people even considered it as a sin if they would be touched by any person of lower caste. This custom was known as Untouchability.

Question 3.
What is illiteracy?
Answer:
The meaning of illiteracy is that people are unable to read and write. These types of people are easily deviated by our politicians. According to one survey, around 34.62% of total population of India is illiterate.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 4.
What is meant by Linguism?
Answer:
Hundreds of languages are spoken in India. Some people consider their language as better language than the others. They even hate those people who speak other language. This custom is known as Linguism.

Question 5.
What is meant by reservation?
Answer:
Many castes in India are backward because they are being exploited by other castes. They are given the names of Scheduled Castes. Some seats are reserved for them in Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and in government jobs. It is known as reservation.

Question 6.
Has Scanaging been discontinued?
Answer:
Yes, Scavaging been discontinued by passing certain laws.

Question 7.
How does illiteracy affect Democracy?
Answer:
If any one is unable to read and write, then he can be called as illiterate. According to Census survey of 2011, around 25% of total population is illiterate. Illiteracy is one of the biggest curse because it is the root cause of many social evils. Many evils occur due to this like unemployment, religious fundamentalism, regionalism, casteism, superstitions, poverty, etc. Illiterate, person cannot become a good citizen. Illiterate persons are easily deviated by political leaders.

Impact of Illiteracy:

  • Illiteracy is the root cause of the social inequalities.
  • It creates obstacles in the way of success of democracy.
  • It is an obstacle in the formation of public opinion.
  • Illiterate persons can easily deviate on a wrong path.
  • Illiterate persons are unable to properly use their right to vote.
  • Illiteracy is the black spot on the face of society.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the following is a Marginal group?
(a) Muslims
(b) Dalits
(c) Adivasis
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 2.
Untouchability is abolished under which article of the constitution?
(a) Article 17
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 14.
Answer:
(a) Article 17.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 3.
Reservation Policy is adopted by the government for the benefits of :
(a) Scheduled castes
(b) Backward classes
(c) Scheduled tribes
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 4.
Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act was passed in :
(a) 1989
(b) 1983
(c) 1993
(d) 2003
Answer:
(c) 1993.

Question 5.
When Safai Karamchari Andolan and 13 other organizations Died a PIL in the Supreme Court?
(a) 1989
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2000.
Answer:
(c) 2003.

Question 6.
What is the Literacy rates among the tribal people. According to 2001 census?
(o) 50%
(b) 40%
(c) 31%
(d) 29.5%.
Answer:
(d) 29.5%.

Question 7.
How much of India’s population is illiterate?
(a) 25.96%
(b) 20.64%
(c) 30.86%
(d) 24.64%.
Answer:
(a) 25.96%.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 8.
How many approximately castes are there in India?
(o) 2000
(b) 3000
(c) 4000
(d) 5000.
Answer:
(b) 3000.

Question 9.
Which of these is a type of inequality is there in India?
(a) Commvmalism
(b) Untouchability
(e) Illiteracy
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 10.
In the year 2002, this right was given by the 86th Amendment in the Constitution to implement it, an ACT was passed in 2009. In April 2010, it was implement in all over India. (P.S.E.B. 2020)
(a) Right to information
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to live
(d) Right to Equality.
Answer:
(b) Right to Education.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
It is promised in the __________ to provide Social, Political and Economic justice.
Answer:
Preamble

Question 2.
Articles __________ to __________ provide as right to freedom of religion.
Answer:
25, 28

Question 3.
More than castes are there in India.
Answer:
3000

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 4.
__________ languages are sanctioned in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
22

Question 5.
Mandal Commission was established in __________
Answer:
1978

Question 6.
Mandal Commission identified __________ Scheduled Castes and Tribes in India.
Answer:
3743.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Social inequalities do not influence democratic government.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
Around 54% population in India is illiterate.
Answer:
(✗)

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 3.
Hindi is the official language in India.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Reservation policy exists for scheduled castes and tribes.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
73rd and 74th amendment provides local self government in villages and eities.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 6.
Presently social inequalities are reducing in India.
Answer:
(✓)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A B
1. Untouchability Offence Act (i) 1978
2. Formation of Mandal Commission (ii) 1955
3. Right to Equality (iii) Article 25-28
4. Right to Freedom of Religion (iv) Article 14-18

Answer:

A B
1. Untouchability Offence Act (ii) 1955
2. Formation of Mandal Commission (i) 1978
3. Right to Equality (iv) Article 14-18
4. Right to Freedom of Religion (iii) Article 25-28

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the three most important elements included in the Indian Constitution which determine the social equality.
Answer:
Equality, Liberty and Secularism.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 2.
According to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, which three types of justice shall be given to all the citizens?
Answer:
Social, economic and political.

Question 3.
Give any four types of social inequalities.
Answer:

  1. Communalism
  2. Casteism and Untouchability
  3. Linguism
  4. Illiteracy.

Question 4.
Why untouchability has been declared as a legal offence?
Answer:
Untouchability is an inhuman custom. It is the largest obstacle in the successful functioning of democracy. That’s why, untouchability has been declared as a legal offence.

Question 5.
What efforts are being done by government to eradicate Illiteracy?
Answer:
Our government is taking many steps to eradicate illiteracy from the society. ‘Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan’ is being run in whole of the country. Free and compulsory education has been started upto class VIII. Educational institutions have been increased. Right of education has been included in Fundamental Rights.

Question 6.
How many languages are legally sanctioned in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
22 languages are legally sanctioned by the Constitution and Hindi language has been given the legal sanction of National Language.

Question 7.
What do you mean by communal inequality?
Answer:
People of many religions and communities live over here in India. Religious fundamentalism exists in some persons of these Communities which gives rise to Communalism. It is known as Communal inequality.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 8.
What were the people called who use to pick human waste from the households?
Answer:
Some people were forced to pick human waste on their heads to throw it outside. These people were known as untouchables.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Communal Inequality in India.
Answer:
Communalism is the first form of social inequality. Many religions exist over here in India. Some people of different religions are fundamentalists and they give birth to communalism. As a result, communalism has become one of the part of social and political life. Due to this religious intolerance, India was divided in two parts in 1947 A.D. Communal riots in the country is the result of this religious intolerance. This intolerance also exists in Indian politics. Leaders call for vote on the name of religions and religious sentiments of the people are encouraged. As a result the atmosphere of religious tension occurs from time to time in the country.

People are given religious freedom by Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution. According to it, all religions are equal in front of law. People are given freedom to adopt and propagate any religion.

Question 2.
What is meant by Custom of picking human waste from households? Why it has been stopped?
Answer:
Custom of picking human waste from households is a custom of hatredness. This custom was going on from centuries. According to it, few people were forced to pick human waste, of others on their heads to throw it outside.

These people were considered as untouchables. They were hated by everyone. It was necessary to eradicate this evil from society in modern age: Governments tried to eradicate this custom from time to time. Now this custom has been legally eradicated. If any one tries to use this custom, then he is being punished by law.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 3.
Give brief description of marginal groups of India.
Answer:
Marginal groups are those groups of our society, which remained backward for a long-long time due to social and economic reasons.

Brief description of these groups is given ahead :

  1. Scheduled Castes: There is no clear constitutional definition of Scheduled Castes. But we can only say that these castes are related to those people who were behaved like untouchables. According to Census of 2011, their population in India was 15% of the total population of the country.
  2. Scheduled Tribes: There is no clear constitutional definition of Scheduled Tribes as well. These are exploited tribes of society. They were remained away from our society due to their backwardness. According to Census of 2011, their population in India was 7.5% of the total population of the country.
  3. Backward Classes: They are not defined by the Constitution as well. Actually this is the weakest class of our society. According to Mandal Commission, their population in India was 41% of the total population of the country.
  4. Minorities: Minorities are those people from religious or linguistic point of view, whose numbers are less in the country. According to Census Survey of 2011 they are around 18.42% of the total population of the country.

Question 4.
Write in detail the effects of communal inequality.
Answer:
Following are the impacts of communal inequality :

  1. Political parties are organised on the basis of religion.
  2. Many religion based pressure groups affect the Indian democracy.
  3. Inequality encourages violence in communal Indian social life.
  4. Specific religion is given importance in formation of Council of Ministers.
  5. Communalism stops the people to do impartial voting.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Linguism? Write its effects also.
Answer:
Meaning of Linguism is division of society on the basis of language. Hundreds of languages are spoken in India. People are being divided on the basis of language. They dislike those persons who speak other languages. Many states are formed, in India, on the basis of language. Even today, demand of forming new states on the basis of language is being raised. Classes are formed among people on the basis of language. People give preference to their regional language and culture instead of national interests.

Impacts:

  • Demand of new states, on the basis of language, is being raised.
  • Political parties are being organized on the basis of religion.
  • Movements are going on, on the basis of religion.
  • Language gives encouragement to regionalism and communalism.
  • Discrimination and violence occur among the people on the basis of language.
  • Linguism also affects the election process.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 6.
What is reservation? Explain in detail.
Answer:
One of the largest group of Indian society isrbackward because they were being exploited from the ages. They were given the name of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. According to Articles 330 and 332 of the Constitution, there is a provision of keeping reserved seats for them in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies according to their proportion in population. It is known as reservation. In the beginning, this system was kept for 10 years but due to different constitutional amendments this systems has been raised till 2020 A.D.

In the same way, according to 72nd and 73rd amendment of the Constitution, now seats are reserved for Scheduled castes and Women in rural and local self-bodies. Even seats for Scheduled Castes are reserved in government jobs. In 1978 A.D, Mandal Commission recommended to reserve seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward classes but this report has not been implemented till today. May be it will be implemented in the near future. Demand of keeping one third seats reserved for women is being raised from time to time. Actually Indian political system is being affected by politics of caste. It has been rightly said by Shri Jai Prakash Narayan that, “Caste in India is the most important political party.”

Question 7.
Write the effects and explain in detail about casteism.
Answer:
Casteism. People of more than 3000 castes live over here in India. Sense of higher or lower, based on caste, exists among them. It is known as caste inequality. Because of this inequality, people of some castes are unable to use public wells. They are even not allowed to enter temples or any other public places. Politics is going on in the name of the caste and different political parties motivates the people to work against people of other castes.

Impacts:

  • Political parties are being formed on the basis of caste.
  • Leaders call for the vote on the name of caste during elections.
  • System of giving special facilities to certain castes has divided our society.
  • Inhuman practice of untouchability has been encouraged due to casteism.
  • Many a times caste becomes one of the result of conflict and violence.
  • Caste-based pressure groups are being formed and they have a very bad impact on democracy.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

Question 8.
Do you think untouchability is inhuman? Explain why?
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that untouchability is an inhuman practice. One of the largest classes of our society was exploited from the ages due to this practice. They were being hated by higher castes. They were even not allowed to touch the people of higher castes. From the impacts of untouchability, it becomes clear that it is an inhuman practice.

Impacts:

  • The customs of untouchability give rise to social inequality.
  • This custom gives -birth to an inferiority complex among people.
  • This custom gives rise to violence.
  • People are unable to get political education.
  • Many people were not allowed to enter politics due to untouchability.
  • So that is why untouchability has been declared illegal.