PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Why did Daulat Khan Lodhi and Rana Sanga invite Babar to attack on India?
Answer:
The nobles invited Babar to fight the Lodhis because of the following reasons :

  1. The Lodhi kings tried to suppress the power of their nobles who had tried to become independent rulers in different provinces.
  2. Ibrahim Lodhi, the last of the Lodhi kings, was proud, cruel and inefficient.
  3. He also ill-treated Daulat Khan Lodhi, the Goveror of Punjab.
  4. The nobles had thought that after plundering some parts of northern India, Babar, like other invaders, will leave for Kabul and then they would be able to assert their independence.

Question 2.
What do you know about Babar’s conquests?
Answer:
In the first battle of Panipat in 1526 A.D., Babar defeated Ibrahim Lodhi and occupied Delhi and Agra. Rana Sanga became angry with this. As a result, he led a huge army against Babar in the battle of Kanwah. Rana Sanga was defeated in the battle of Kanwah by Babar. With this victory, North India came under complete control of Babar.

Babar also defeated the Rajputs in the battle of Chandri in 1528 A.D. Babar also defeated the Afghans in 1529 A.D. at the battle of Ghaghara. He died in 1530 A.D.

Question 3.
Write about the conquests of Akbar,
Answer:
At the time of Humayun’s death, Akbar was only thirteen years old. He was not a ruler of any part of India. Akbar’s first conflict came with Hemu. He was an ambitious general of one of the Afghan princes. A battle of Panipat was fought between Bairam Khan, the Regent of Akbar and Hemu. Hemu was defeated in the battle of Panipat. Akbar captured Delhi and Agra which the Mughals had lost.

In 1560 A.D., Akbar himself took the reigns of the administration. After that his victories are as under :
1. Victories in North India :

  • Victories over Rajputs. In 1562 A.D., Akbar attacked the Rajputs. The King of Amber, Raja Bihari Mai accepted the subordination of Akbar and married his daughter to him. Besides, other Rajput rulers also accepted the subordination of Akbar e.g. Kalinjar, Marwar, Jaisalmer, Bikaner etc.
  • Struggle of Mewar. The ruler of Mewar Rana Pratap never wanted to . accept the subordination of Akbar. In 1569 A.D. Akbar occupied the capital of Mewar, Chittor. Still Maharana Pratap continued his struggle with the Mughals.
  • Victory over Gujarat. In 1572-73 A.D., Akbar got victory over Gujarat, (in) Victory over Bihar-Bengal. In 1574-76 A.D., Akbar defeated the rulers of Bihar and Bengal and occupied those states.
  • Other victories. Slowly Akbar got hold of Kashmir, Sindh, Orissa, Balochistan and Kandhar.

2. Victories in South India. After north India, Akbar shifted his attention to south India, then in south India he got the following victories :

  • Victory in Bijapur and Golkunda. This was achieved in 1591 A.D.
  • Victory over Khandesh. In 1601 A.D. Sultan Ali Khan of Khandesh accepted the subordination of Akbar. •
  • Control over Ahmednagar. In 1601 A.D., Akbar’s army defeated Chand Bibi of Ahmednagar and took control of the city.
  • Control over Berar. Akbar even took control over the Berar area of south India.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 4.
What do you mean by the Agrarian system of the Mughals?
Answer:
In Mughal state, the main source of revenue was Land Tax.

Improvement in the tradition of Land Tax.

  1. The crop produce in some parts of the state was more than the other. The kind of crop too was different, so Akbar managed to collect land tax differently.
  2. The total production of the empire and the total revenue collected on it.
  3. One-third of the production was decided to be the land tax. This helped the peasants a lot.
  4. In case of drought or excessive rains, the land revenue was often remitted.
  5. The land was measured in ‘bighas’.

Classification of Land: Akbar classified the land into four parts :

  • Polaj Land: It was very fertile land. Any crop could be sown on this land at anytime.
  • Parauti Land: On this land, sowing could be done after one or two years.
  • Chhachhar Land: The sowing could be done after three-four years.
  • Barren Land: Sowing could be done after five-six years.

Collection of Land Tax: The land tax collection systems were as follows :

  • Kankut System: According to this system the govt, would collect land tax by approximating the value of the standing crop.
  • Batai System: According to this system when the crop was harvested, then 1/3 part was taken by the govt.
  • Nasak System: According to this system the crop of the whole village was approximated and the land tax was fixed.

The Mughal govt, gave loans to the farmers to make more and more land agriculturable. At the time of drought and flood, the land tax was given exemption.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Tuzuk-i-Babari is the autobiography of ________
Answer:
Babar

Question 2.
The battle of Kanwaha was fought between Babar and ________
Answer:
Rana Sanga

Question 3.
Akbar defeated Hemu in ________
Answer:
1556 A.D, Panipat

Question 4.
Babar wrote ________
Answer:
Tuzuk-i-Babari

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 5.
Abul Fazl wrote ________
Answer:
Akbarnama.

III. Write True or False for each statement :

Question 1.
The Mughals came to India in 1525 A.D.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Daulat Khan Lodhi and Rana Sanga invited Babar to invade India.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Sher Shah Suri was a Mughal ruler.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Rajputs were very well treated during the reign of Aurangzeb.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The Deccan policy of Aurangzeb strengthened the Mughal Empire.
Answer:
False

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, show the extent of Mughal Empire.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of Indian Map.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 2.
Collect the pictures of Mughal Emperors and paste in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When Akbar came into Power?
(a) 1560
(b) 1558
(c) 1564
(d) 1556
Answer:
(d) 1556.

Question 2.
Who wrote Ain-i-Akbari?
(a) Abul Fazl
(b) Tansen
(c) Raja Man Singh
(d) Todar Mai
Answer:
(a) Abul Fazl.

Question 3.
Mughal tradition of succession was to divide state into ________ of the father.
(a) Sons
(b) Daughters
(c) A & B Both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Sons.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 4.
Mother of Jahangir was the princess of
(a) Raikot
(b) Amber
(c) Ajmer
(d) Jaisalmer.
Answer:
(b) Amber.

Question 5.
Term Mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a
(a) Jagir
(b) Land
(c) Mansab
(d) Suba.
Answer:
(c) Mansab.

Question 6.
The Mansabdars were required to maintain specified number of
(a) Horses
(b) Cavalry men
(c) Soldiers
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Cavalry men.

Question 7.
Revenue Minister of Akbar was
(a) Todar Mai
(b) Tansen
(c) Abul Fazl
(d) Birbal.
Answer:
(a) Todar Mai.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 8.
Revenue circle with its own schedule revenue rates for individual crops is known as
(a) Mansab
(b) Zat
(c) Zabt
(d) Jagir.
Answer:
(b) Zat.

Question 9.
Whole of the Mughal Empire was divided into “different
(a) Cities
(b) Towns
(c) Faujdars
(d) Subas.
Answer:
(d) Subas.

Question 10.
Subedar of every Suba was supported by officer like
(a) Bakshi
(c) Sadr
(b) Faujdar
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When and between whom was the first battle of Panipat fought? Who was defeated?
Answer:
It was fought in 1526 A.D., between Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi. Ibrahim Lodhi was defeated in this battle.

Question 2.
Who was Babar? Write in brief about his victories.
Answer:

  • Babar was a good general and he knew how to use his soldiers to the best advantage.
  • Babar had brought artillery from central Asia and this was one of the main reasons for his success.
  • Babar’s cavalry was better trained.
  • The soldiers of Lodhi King were not faithful to him.
  • Babar arranged his soldiers in such a way that they could easily move from one part of the battle to another.

Babar’s Victories. Babar was the founder of the Mughal empire in India. He was a great conqueror who within a period of four years (1526-1529) won four battles:

  1. Battle of Panipat
  2. Battle of Kanwaha
  3. Battle of Chaderi and
  4. Battle of Ghagra.

In these battles, he proved himself to be a great military genius. He was also a great writer who patronised great scholars. His autobiography known as ‘Tuzuk-i-Babari’, in Turkish language, is a great piece of literature. He died in 1530 A.D. and was buried at Kabul in a beautiful grave.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 3.
Who exiled Humayun from India and when? When did he regain his state?
Answer:
Sheh Shah Suri exiled Humayun in 1540 A.D., but Humayun regained his state after defeating his successor Sikandar Suri in 1555 A.D. In 1556 A.D. Humayun died.

Question 4.
Who was Sher Shah? Why was he successful? Why is it said that he might have become a great Sultan?
Answer:
Sheh Shah Suri was an Afghan king. He defeated Humayun and founded the Suri Dynasty.

Reasons of his success:

  1. Sher Shah was a determined man.
  2. Before becoming the ruler, he administered the jagir of his father, so he had the experience of administration.
  3. He was liberal and well-wisher of his people. Sher Shah Suri died in A.D. 1545.

Sher Shah ruled Delhi only for five years. He administered his state well. His land revenue system was of highest order. He did many works for the welfare of the people. His army was well disciplined. Thus we see that Sher Shah did many important works in a brief tenure of his rule. Had he lived for longer period, he would have been the greatest ruler.

Question 5.
What were the features of the administration of Sher Shah Suri?
Answer:
Sher Shah ruled only for a short span of five years (1540-45 A.D.) but even during such a short period, he had achieved so much that it is said that he might have become a great Sultan.

There are many reasons for his success or greatness :
1. Man of Great Qualities: He was a great military genius and clever statesman. He duped Humayun several times and ultimately defeated him.

2. Administrative Reforms: Sher Shah was successful because he was a great administrator. He appointed efficient and honest officers to administer his state well. He treated all his subjects alike and even appointed Hindus on high posts.

3. Gearing up the Revenue Administration: Sher Shah got the whole land measured. A new assessment was made in order to fix a just tax. Land revenue was fixed at nearly one-third of the produce. Land revenue could be paid both in cash or in kind.

4. Reforming the Military Administration: Sher Shah fully knew that if he wanted to be successful he must organize his army on a strong footing. As such, he organized his army into a strong military force. .

5. Construction of Roads and Highways: Sher Shah built several good roads for promoting trade and commerce for the safe travel of the public.

Question 6.
Who made Altbar sit on the throne and when?
Answer:
It was Bairam Khan in 1556 A.D.

Question 7.
Who was Bairam Khan? When did Akbar depose him from his post?
Answer:
Bairam Khan was patron of Akbar. He was deposed in 1560 A.D. by Akbar.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 8.
Name the main features of Akbar’s Rajput policy.
Answer:
Akbar captured the Rajput kingdoms of Gwalior, Ajmer and Malwa. These conquests brought him into the neighbourhood of the Rajput kingdoms. Akbar was very far-sighted. He realised that there could be no permanent Mughal rule in India without the help and loyalty of Rajput princes. So he made friends with them. He entered into marital alliances between his family and various Rajput royal families. He himself married a number of Rajput princesses. They became his sincere friends, trusted advisers and his loyal and gallant comrades on the battlefield. Rhagwan Dass and Man Singh were his famous Rajput generals. But the Rana of Mewar, Rana Partap did not relent to Akbar.

Question 9.
Write about the central administrative system of Akbar/Mughals.
Answer:
The description is as follows :
1. King. King was the chief of administration. He had many assistants to help him, e.g. Wakil, Diwan-i-Ala, Mir-Bakshi, Sadar-i-Sadur, Qazi-ul-Qazat and Khan-i- Saman.

2. Wakil. He was the prime minister of the state. He would give information to the emperor about chief happenings. He would always carry out the orders of the emperor.

3. Diwan-i-Ala was the finance minister. He would take care of income-expenditure account of the state. He would also make laws about the taxes.

4. Mir Bakshi. He would keep records of Mansabdars. He would distribute salary to them. He would also take care of military institutions.

5. Sadar-i-Sadur. He was the chief of department of religious affairs. He would keep an account of religious affairs and educational institutions.

6. Qazi-ul-Qazat. He would give his opinions to emperor on Islamic laws for delivering the justice.

7. Khan-i-Saman. He would take care of the royal family and factories.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on the state administrative system of Akbar/Mughals.
Answer:
Akbar had divided his empire into 15 states for running his administration properly. The main state officials were as follows.

  • Subedar: He was the highest official of the state. His main function was to keep law and order in the state.
  • Diwan: He was the chief of finance of the state. The accounts of income-expenditure of state were under his department.
  • Bakshi: He would take care of military arrangements as well as horses.
  • Sadar: He would prepare details about saints, seers, peers and fakirs.
  • Waqiyanavis: He was the chief of detective department.
  • Kotwal: He was the police official. His main function was to maintain peace and order in the city.

Question 11.
Write a comment on the local administration of the Mughals/Akbar.
Answer:
Akbar had divided his empire into states and states were further sub-divided into districts, parganas and villages :
1. Administration of District :

  • Faujdar: He was the chief administrator of the district. He would carry out the orders of the Badshah and maintain law and order.
  • Amil-Guzar: His main function was to collect taxes.
  • Bitikchi and Khazandar: Both these official were the assistants of Amil Guzar.

2. Administration of Parganas:

  • Shiqdar: To maintain law and order in the pargana.
  • Amil: To collect land tax.
  • Potdar and Qanungo: Both these were assistants of Amil.

3. Administration of Villages: Most villages were administered by Panchayats. These developed the villages and take care of the village conflicts. ‘Chowdhary’, ‘Muqqadam’ and ‘Patwari’ were the assistants of Panchayat.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 12.
Write a short note of Mansabdari System.
Answer:
The Mansabdari system was the most important feature of the Mughal administration. The Mansab means rank. Each noble was given a mansab or rank and was called the mansabdar. The mansab or rank was based on the numbers of mounted soldiers at the command of the officers. Each mansabdar was required to perform any civil and military duty as was assigned to him by the emperor. Mansab was not hereditary. Hence it could not be passed on to his descendants. Thus every mansabdar owed his allegiance to the emperor.

Classes of Mansabdars. In the period of Akbar, Mansabdars had 33 classes. The lowest mansabdar had 10 soldiers and the highest mansabdar had 10,000 soldiers in his subordination.

Duties of Mansabdars. Mansabdars were appointed by the emperor at the recommendation of Mir Bakhshi. He could be put to any work. The salary was also given according to his class. He could be promoted as well as denoted in status as well as salary.

Question 13.
What do you know about Nur Jahan? What was her importance in Jahangir’s Court?
Answer:
Nur Jahan was a talented woman. Her original name was Mehr-un-Nisa. Jahangir married her in 1611 A.D. She set the fashion in dress and manners at the court. She had a great consideration in the Mughal court. She had a great influence in the administration. There was hardly any affair of importance in which she was not consulted. Jahangir fell ill for a long period. During this period she became a real ruler of the empire. Her name was associated with Jahangir on coins and privy seals.

Question 14.
“The reign of Aurangzeb (1658-1707) is described as the most disturbed among Mughal emperors.” ‘Why?
Answer:
The reign of Aurangzeb is described as the most disturbed due to the following reasons or facts :
1. Aurangzeb was a Sunni Muslim bigot. He ill-treated the followers of other religions. He ill-treated even the Sufi Saints.

2. Aurangzeb imposed Zazia on all the non-Muslim subjects particularly on the Hindus. He also destroyed their temples.

3. Aurangzeb martyred the ninth Guru of Sikhs, Guru Teg Bahadur Ji at Delhi. As a result, the Sikhs became sworn enemies of the Mughals.

4. The Rajput rulers of Mewar and Marwar also rose against the Mughals because they were discontented by the policies of Aurangzeb.

5. To conquer the Deccan states of Bijapur and Golkunda, Aurangzeb remained away from his capital for full 25 years (1682-1707 A.D.) His absence from his capital encouraged disruptive forces and gave rise to discontentment among the people.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 15.
How were the Marathas able to build up a strong and independent state? Was Aurangzeb able to control their rebellion?
Answer:
Following were the reasons for the establishment of an independent state of the Marathas.
1. Geographical reasons: Marathas lived in the hilly region of Maharashtra. They got natural forts on the hills. These forts helped them to establish an independent state.

2. Impact of Bhakti Movement: The Marathas were greatly benefited by the conversings of Bhakti movement in Deccan. The mutual differences of Marathas were reduced and a sense of brotherhood originated among them.

3. Political experience: After the decline of Delhi Sultanate, a number of small states were established in Deccan. They had a close look of the political life, which brought an awakening among them.

4. Hard workers: Marathas were the inhabitants of the hilly region. They struggled to earn their living. This habit of hard work made them brave.

5. Leadership of Shivaji: They were fortunate enough to have the leader like Shivaji. He united the scattered Marathas community and established a strong and independent state.

Rebellion of Marathas: The Marathas had become a great power. Aurangzeb wanted to crush them but could not succeed. In 1674 Shivaji declared himself an independent ruler. After Shivaji’s death, his son Shambhaji sat on throne. In 1689, Aurangzeb killed Shambhaji and occupied Maratha areas but Marathas continued their struggle under Raja Ram and afterwards his queen Tarabai. In 1707 A.D. after the death of Aurangzeb, Marathas reoccupied a large area of Mughals.

Question 16.
Describe the Sikh struggle against the Mughals during and after the administration of Aurangzeb. _
Answer:
The struggle of Sri Guru Teg Bahadur Ji: After Sri Guru Har Krishanji, Sri Guru Teg Bahadurji became the 9th Guru. He was against the anti-Hindu policies of Aurangzeb. So Aurangzeb was annoyed with Guruji. Guruji raised his voice against Aurangzeb when he tried to demolish the gurdwaras and he also spoke against Aurangzeb when he tried to expel the citizens who were having soft corners for the Guruji. Guruji was brought to Delhi and was asked to convert to Islam. Guruji declined and then he was severely tortured and he was martyred in Delhi’s Chandni Chowk in 1675 A.D.

Struggle of Guru Gobind Sahib Ji. Sri Guru Gobind Sahibji became the 10th Guru and continued his struggle against Mughal cruelty. In 1699 A.D., he founded the ‘Khalsa Panth’ and after that there was a struggle between the Sikhs and the Mughals. Guruji’s two elder sons Sahibzada Ajit Singh and Sahibzada Jujhar Singh became martyrs. Guruji’s younger two sons Sahibzada Zorawar Singh and Sahibzada Fateh Singh were buried alive in the wall at Sirhind.

Struggle of the Sikhs after Aurangzeb’s death. In 1707 A.D., Aurangzeb died. His successor Bahadur Shah tried to establish friendly relations with Sikhs but the Faujdar of Sirhind Wajir Khan sent a Pathan who by deception put knife into Guruji’s stomach. Guruji’s soul became one with God in 1708 A.D. After that the struggle continued under the leadership of Banda Singh Bahadur

Question 17.
Comment on the Deccan policy of Aurangzeb.
Answer:
Aurangzeb spent almost 25 years of his life in south India. He was a Sunni Muslim. So, he wanted to crush the independent Shia states of Bijapur and Golkonda in south India. These states helped Marathas against Mughals, so he wanted to crush the power of Marathas also.

In 1686 A.D., Aurangzeb occupied Bijapur and in 1687 A.D., he occupied Golkunda also. Shivaji died in 1680 A.D. but still Marathas continued their struggle. Aurangzeb failed to crush Marathas. In 1707 A.D., he died.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 18.
What were the causes that brought about the break-up of the Mughal empire?
Answer:
Following were the causes that brought about the break-up of the Mughal empire :

  • The successors of Aurangzeb were weak rulers.
  • The Mughal empire met with financial troubles.
  • Mughal administration was no longer as efficient as it used to be under Akbar.
  • The military administration of the Mughals had also become weaker.
  • Mughal India showed little awareness to the discoveries which the new science of Europe was revealing to Europeans.

Question 19.
Write about the visits of Europeans during Mughal period in India.
Answer:
During the period of Jahangir many European traders came to India. William Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe were the main visitors.

William Hawkins stayed in India for three years (1608-1611 A.D.). Based on his reports the British government established a factory in Surat in 1612 A.D.

Sir Thomas Roe was an English man who visited the court of Jahangir as an Ambassador from King James I. He remained at Agra for three years hoping to obtain some sort of permanant agreement with regard to trade which would place the English commerce in East Indian waters upon a sound basis. But he failed in his object. Sir Thomas Roe had left a very interesting account of his travels and experiences in India. He also left a wonderful account of king’s life and about the splendour and magnificence of the imperial court.

Question 20.
Describe the political condition of India during the Babar’s invasion.?
Answer:
The political condition was very pitiable. There was no centralized authority. The states were always fighting with each other.

  • The magnificence of Delhi Sultanate had declined. It was limited to Delhi and its nearby areas.
  • In Mewar, Rana Sanga had become quite powerful.
  • The Governor of Punjab, Daulat Khan Lodhi was thinking of taking revenge from Delhi Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi.
  • The rulers of Bengal and Bihar had also became powerful.
  • In South India, there were many states. Vijaynagar was the main kingdom. Bahmani Kingdom was also divided into many parts.

Question 21.
Write notes on each of the following :
1. Humayun
Answer:
Humayun: Humayun was the eldest son of Babar. He sat on the throne in 1530 A.D. He was defeated by Sher Shah Suri, in 1540 A.D. in the battles of Chausa and Kanauj. He spent almost 15 years in Persia. He succeeded in getting back his throne in 1555 A.D. but next year he died.

The following were the difficulties that he had to face at the time of accession :

  • Although Babar had conquered a vast territory in India and founded a Mughal dynasty but he did not live long enough to make it secure against his enemies. So Humayun faced with trouble from the beginning.
  • Being new to India the Mughals had difficulty in consolidating their position.
  • The Afghan nobles attacked the newly founded kingdom because they wanted them to leave India.
  • Bahadur Shah was the ruler of Gujarat and Sher Shah an ambitious Afghan king also threatened Delhi.

2. Jahangir
Answer:
Jahangir: Jahangir was the son of Akbar the Great. After the death of Akbar in 1605 A.D., he sat on the throne. He sent a military expedition against the son of Maharana Pratap-Rana Amar Singh. But afterwards, made peace with him on liberal terms and thus ended the long struggle between the Mughals and Mewar state.

The main events of his ruling period are as follows :

  1. He faced a rebellion from his son Khusro but he crushed this rebellion.
  2. Jahangir subjected Guru Arjan Devji to death penalty in a false case and after torture for five days, Guruji became martyr in 1606 A.D.
  3. Another important event was the marriage to Noor Jahan. He gave Nur Jahan the name of ‘Noor Mahal’ (Light of the Palace).
  4. In the court of Jahangir two diplomats from England, Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe came. They had come to India in order to obtain trading facilities.
  5. Jahangir’s reign was most peaceful because :
    (a) There were not too many campaigns in the reign of Jahangir.
    (b) The struggle between Akbar and Rana of Mewar too was brought to an end by Jahangir.
    (c) In order to create peace in the country Jahangir adopted the policy of matrimonial relations with Rajputs. .
    (d) The struggle of the Mughals with Ahmednagar state, which had become a cause of anxiety, also came to an end.

This brought peace in the whole kingdom. Contrary to it, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb had to face many revolts and wars. This was the main cause of disturbance during their reigns.

3. Shah Jahan.
Answer:
Shah Jahan: Shah Jahan was the son of Mughal emperor Jahangir. His real name was Khurram, He sat on the throne in 1628 A.D., after the death of Jahangir. He ruled for almost 29 years.

Some main events of his ruling period are as follows :

  • The Bundels from hilly areas declared a rebellion. Shah Jahan sent a big army to crush this rebellion and compelled Jhujhar Singh to sign a treaty with Mughals.
  • In 1628 A.D, Shah Jahan celebrated the occasion of Noroz and organised a big lunch on this occasion.
  • He was in deep love with his wife Mumtaz Mahal. When she died on 7th June, 1631, Shah Jahan went into deep depression.
  • Shah Jahan was very fond of building magnificent buildings. He is known as an Engineer King. His reign is called the golden age of Mughal architecture. He is reminded even today for his two things the Taj Mahal and the Peacock Throne. He had built the Taj Mahal in memory of his queen Mumtaz Mahal.

The Peacock Throne was a golden jewel-studded throne which he used. It was later looted by Shah of Iran and taken to his country. Other beautiful buildings built by Shah Jahan were Jama Masjid, Moti Masjid, Red Fort at Delhi and Red Fort at Agra. Shah Jahan built a new city Shah Jahanabad as his capital.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 22.
Give an account of the main features of Shah Jahan and Jahangir’s rule.
Answer:
1. Shah Jahan (1628-1657 A.D.): Shah Jahan was the son of Mughal emperor Jahangir. His real name was Khurram. He sat on the throne in 1628, after the death of Jahangir. He ruled for almost 29 years.

Some main events of his ruling period are as given ahead :

  • The Bundels from hilly areas declared a rebellion. Shah Jahan sent a big army to crush this rebellion and compelled Jhujhar Singh to sign a treaty with Mughals.
  • In 1628 A.D., Shah Jahan celebrated the occasion of Noroz and organised a big lunch on this occasion.
  • He was in deep love with his wife Mumtaz Mahal. When she died on 7th June, 1631, Shah Jahan went into deep depression.
  • Shah Jahan was very fond of building magnificent buildings. He is known as an Engineer King. His reign is called the golden age of Mughal architectures. He is reminded even today for his two things the Taj Mahal and the Peacock Throne. He had built the Taj Mahal in the memory of his queen Mumtaz Mahal.

The Peacock Throne was a golden jewel-studded throne which he used. It was later looted by Shah of Iran and taken to his country. Other beautiful buildings built by Shah Jahan were Jama Masjid, Moti Masjid, Red Fort at Delhi and Red Fort at Agra. Shah Jahan built a new city Shah Jahanabad as his capital.

2. Jahangir (1605-1627 A.D.). Jahangir was the son of Akbar the Great. After the death of Akbar in 1605 A.D., he sat on the throne. He sent a military expedition against the son of Maharana Pratap-Rana Amar Singh. But afterwards; made peace with him on liberal terms and thu3 ended the long struggle between the Mughals and Mewar state.

The main events of his rutirig period are as follows:

  • He faced a rebellion from his son Khusro but he crushed this rebellion.
  • Jahangir subjected Guru Arjan Devji to death penalty in a false case and after a torture for five days. Guruji became martyr in 1606 A.D.
  • Another important event was marriage to Noor Jahan. He gave Nur Jahan the name of ‘Noor Mahal’ (Light of the Palace.).
  • In the court of Jahangir two diplomats from England, Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe came. They had come to India in order to obtain trading facilities.
  • Jahangir’s reign was most peaceful because ;
    (a) There were not too many campaigns in the reign of Jahangir.
    (b) The struggle between Akbar and Rana of Mewar too was brought to an end by Jahangir.
    (c) In order to create peace in the country Jahangir adopted the policy of matrimonial relations with Rajputs.
    (d) The struggle of the Mughals with Ahmednagar state, which had become a cause of anxiety, also came to an end.

This brought peace in the whole kingdom. Contrary to it, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb had to face many revolts and wars. This was the main cause of disturbance during their reigns.

Question 23.
Illustrate how Akbarnama and Ain-i-Akbari are used to reconstruct history.
Answer:
These are two famous creations of ‘Abul Fazl’. These books tell us about the court of Akbar, his victories, his administration, his social, economic and religious policy, art and architecture.

Question 24.
What do you mean by Mansabdari System?
Answer:
The Mughal rulers appointed the members of different classes in the administration. These appointees were known as Mansabdars under the Mansabdari system, court used to fix the post, income and the position of a Mansabdar. Mansabdar belonged to the civil and military departments of the country.

There were many categories of Zat and Sawar Mansabdar.

  1. The first category: Mansabdars held equal Zat and Sawar i.e. 5000/5000.
  2. The second category: Their sawar mansab was more than the half of their zat mansab i. e. 5000/3000.
  3. The third category: They held their sawar mansab less than the half of their zat mansab i.e. 5000/2000.

Mansabdars were appointed by the Mughal emperors on their own or on the recommendation of the Mir Bakshi. There were 33 categories of the Mansabdars during the reign of Akbar. Its rank was from 10 to 10,000. These could be appointed in any department. They were given their salaries according to their ranks.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire PSEB 7th Class SST Notes

  • Establishment of the Mughal Empire: In 1526 A.D., in the first battle of Panipat, Babar defeated Ibrahim Ijodhi and founded the Mughal Empire in India.
  • Humayun: The Mughal Emperor Humayun was defeated by Sher Shah and the state of North India slipped out of his hands. But after the death of Sher Shah, Humayun regained his lost state.
  • Sher Shah Suri: He was a capable army general and administrator. He built many roads and inns for the welfare of the people of his state. He is known as the predecessor of Akbar the Great.
  • Akbar: Akbar was the son of Humayun. After Humayun’s death in 1556 A.D. Bairam Khan made him wear the crown. He started his winning expeditions with the help of Bairam Khan and founded a powerful Mughal Empire.
  • Jahangir: After the death of Akbar, Jahangir ascended the Mughal throne, but the real authority was in the hands of his wife Nur Jahan.
  • Aurangzeb: He was the last great emperor of Mughal Empire. After his death this empire almost declined.
  • Taj Mahal: A unique contribution of Shah Jahan was in the field of architecture. This building is world famous even today.
  • Abul Fazl: The author of Akbarnama and Ain-i-Akbari.
  • Glossary: Mughal Mansabdar Zat Sawar.

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Winds, Storms and Cyclones Intext Questions and Answers

Think and answer (Textbook Page No. 85)

Question 1.
The can gets crushed because of the atmospheric pressure. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Air exerts pressure. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
Both balloons should be of equal size. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The fast moving wind creates …………………. pressure.
Answer:
More.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 87)

Question 1.
The air ……………. on heating.
Answer:
expands.

Question 2.
On cooling the boiling tube, the balloon expands. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 88)

Question 1.
Hot air is ……………………… than cold air.
Answer:
lighter.

Question 2.
The paper cup over the burning candle comes down as it becomes heavier. (True / False)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Winds, Storms and Cyclones Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Air exerts …………………..
Answer:
Pressure

(ii) Moving air is called …………………
Answer:
Wind

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(iii) Near earth the …………………. air rises up and ………………………. air comes down.
Answer:
hot, cold

(iv) Winds are generated due to ………………………….. heating of earth.
Answer:
uneven

(v) The centre of a cyclone is called its ………………. .
Answer:
Eye

2. State True or False:

(i) A bicycle tube expands when we fill air in it.
Answer:
True

(ii) Air moves from a region of low pressure to high pressure.
Answer:
False

(iii) The speed of wind can be measured by an instrument called Anemometer.
Answer:
True

(iv) Thunder is a loud sound produced by lightning.
Answer:
True

(v) We should ignore the cyclone warnings.
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following is not an example of air exerting pressure ?
(a) Flying a kite
(b) Filling air in bicycle tube
(c) Filling air in balloon
(d) Hot air balloon.
Answer:
(d) Hot air balloon.

Question (ii)
Moving air is called ………………… .
(a) Wind
(b) Cyclones
(c) Lightning
(d) Storm.
Answer:
(a) Wind.

Question (iii)
Which is the property of air ?
(a) Expands on cooling
(b) Contracts of heating
(c) Expands on heating
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Expands on heating

Question (iv)
Winds are produced due to ……………………. .
(a) Heating of air
(b) Cooling of land
(c) Heating of water
(d) Uneven heating of land and water.
Answer:
(d) Uneven heating of land and water.

Question (v)
High speed winds can cause …………………… .
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclones
(c) Tornado
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Cyclones

4. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 1
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 2

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Which property of air is described by the inflated balloon ?
Answer:
Moving air exerts pressure.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (ii)
Which is lighter, cold air or hot air ?
Answer:
Hot air is lighter than cold air.

Question (iii)
Which region of earth gets maximum heat from the sun ?
Answer:
Equator and its adjoining areas are exposed to direct sunlight for a long time, resulting in higher temperatures in the vicinity of the equator.

Question (iv)
Which winds bring rain in India ?
Answer:
Rainfall in India is caused by monsoon winds. These winds filled with water vapour come from the sea.

Question (v)
Name the instrument used for measuring the speed of wind.
Answer:
Wind / air speed can be measured with an Anemometer.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why are the holes made in hanging banners and hoardings ?
Answer:
Holes are made on hanging banners and advertisements so that they cannot be blown away due to blowing winds or wind pressure. The air will pass through the holes and there will be no pressure on the banner.

Question (ii)
In which situation does the uneven heating of the earth produces winds ?
Answer:
The sun does not heat different parts of the earth uniformly. So there is a difference in temperature and pressure. The wind that moves from a high pressure area to a low pressure area is called a wind. The higher the pressure, the higher is the wind speed.

Question (iii)
Which winds blow from ocean to land in summer ? What is their significance ?
Answer:
In summer season, the air near the surface of the earth becomes warmer and lighter and rises upwards. The air above the sea is colder and heavier than the air on the earth. So the wind moves from the ocean to the land. This cool breeze from the ocean is called Sea breeze. Due to this breeze, the weather is very pleasant for the people living near the coastal areas.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (iv)
What is the difference between a thunderstorm and a cyclone ?
Answer:
Thunder Storm.
Lightning strikes thunderstorms and heat up the air to a higher temperature, causing the air to expand faster and produce a louder sound. This loud sound is called thunder. The wind that blows with rain is called a storm. Sometimes a storm is accompanied by a thunder, which is then called a thunderstorm.

Cyclone.
When water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change it into vapours for the formation of cloud. These water vapours cool and condense to form raindrops and release the absorbed heat. This heat causes the surrounding air to heat up and form a low pressure area. A strong wind blows towards this low pressure center. This action is repeated several times to form a low pressure area and dense clouds from the center of a strong wind.

Many layers of high winds begin to revolve around the low pressure center. This condition is called a cyclone. Center of the storm is a quiet area called the Eye of cyclone. The area of the eye is free from clouds. Outside the Eye is a circle of clouds and thunderstorms. The wind blows here at a speed of 150 to 250 kilometre per hour.

Question (v)
State effective measures to be taken in areas vulnerable to cyclones ?
Answer:
Effective safety measures to be adopted in areas prone to post-cyclone :
1. Measures to be taken by the government :

  • Tall and dense trees of native species should be planted on the coastal areas to reduce wind/wind speed.
  • Ponds should be constructed in coastal areas to absorb excess water.
  • Cyclone shelters should be constructed in cyclone sensitive areas.
  • To issue early warning to the people of the affected area by adopting advance information technology.

2. Measures that can be adopted by the people :

  • Do not ignore cyclone warnings.
  • Areas that have frequent cyclones should be evacuated.
  • Make appropriate arrangements to move their livestock, valuables and household members to safer places.

Question (vi)
What is a Tornado ? Give two safety measures.
Answer:
Tornado. It is strong rotating winds in Funnel shaped cloud. Its diameter varies from 1 m to 1 km. On account of very low pressure at the centre of the funnel it pulls the dust, debris and even people and vehicles towards the centre.
Safety measures from Tornado:

  • Take shelter inside a room, having no window. If a room without window is unavailable then closed all doors and windows.
  • If a person is in the vehicle or driving, he should get out of it and sit in low laying area.
  • Whenever you face tornado you can protect yourself by sitting on your knees and
    putting down your head by wrapping arms around your neck.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain why does a tin can get crushed when water is boiled in it and after closing it cold water is poured on it ?
Answer:
When water is boiled in an iron container, all the air in the container heats up and becomes lighter and rises upwards. In this way all the air in the box goes out. On further heating, the boiling water turns into steam and the can is filled with water. Covering the vessel with a lid ensures that the vapours are trapped inside the container. This reduces the air pressure inside the box compared to the outside air. In this way on pouring cold water the outside air pressure causes the box to shrink inwards.

Question (ii)
Explain with an activity that air expands on heating.
Answer:
Air expands by heating. This fact can be proved by the following activity:
Activity.
Take a thick glass test tube. Tightly tie a balloon over its mouth with tape. Take hot water in a beaker. Place the test tube in the water such that balloon stays out of the water. Watch the balloon for 3-4 minutes to look for any change in the size of balloon. Now take out the test tube from water and let it cool down to normal temperature. In another beaker take a small amount of ice cold water and place the test tube carrying balloon in the beaker. Wait for 3-4 minutes. Observe the change in size.

You will notice that the balloon placed in hot water swells (increases in size) after some time and the balloon when on the other placed in cold water shrinks (decreases in size).

Conclusion.
When the test tube is placed in hot water, the air in the balloon heats up and expands causing the balloon to inflate. This indicates that the air expands on healing. When the test tube is placed in ice, the air present in balloon contracts. It shows cooling causes air to contraction.

Question (iii)
How is a cyclone formed ? Describe how a cyclone caused widespread destruction in Odisha in 1999.
Answer:
Formation of Cyclone.
When water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change it into vapours for the formation of cloud. These water vapours cool and condense to form raindrops and release the absorbed heat. This heat causes the surrounding air to heat up and form a low pressure area. A strong wind blows towards this low pressure center. This action is repeated several times to form a low pressure area and dense clouds from the center of a strong wind.

Many layers of high winds begin to revolve around the low pressure center. This condition is called a cyclone. Center of the storm is a quiet area called the Eye of cyclone. The area of the eye is free from clouds. Outside the Eye is a circle of clouds and thunderstorms. The wind blows here at a speed of 150 to 250 kilometre per hour.

Destruction caused by cyclone in Odisha. A very strong cyclone strike to Indian state Odisha on 18 October, 1999. The speed of this cyclone was 200 km/h and it destroyed 45000 houses leaving 70,000 people homeless. Again on 29th October 1999 a cyclone hits Odhisa with a speed of 260 km/h accompanied by 9 meter high wave. Many people lost their lives and property worth of crores was destroyed.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Winds, Storms and Cyclones Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Wind is air.
Answer:
moving

(ii) Winds are generated due to heating on the earth.
Answer:
uneven

(iii) Near the earth’s surface air rises up whereas air comes down.
Answer:
warm, cooler

(iv) Air moves from a region of pressure to a region of pressure.
Answer:
high, low

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) Hot air (a) Low pressure area of the cyclone
(ii) Changes in atmospheric pressure cause (b) Sunlight
(iii) The eye of the cyclone (c) Blows away the roof
(iv) High speed air over the roof (d) Winds, storms and cyclones.

Answer:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) Hot air (b) Sunlight
(ii) Changes in atmospheric pressure cause (d) Winds, storms and cyclones
(iii) The eye of the cyclone (a) Low pressure area of the cyclone
(iv) High speed air over the roof (c) Blows away the roof

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following place is likely to be affected by a cyclone?
(a) Amritsar
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Jaipur
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question (ii)
An instrument used to measure wind speed is called ………………. .
(a) Anemometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Thermometer
(d) Lactometer.
Answer:
(a) Anemometer.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (iii)
How many hours in advance cyclone chart is issued of expected storm by satellites and radars ?
(a) 72
(b) 48
(c) 96
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 48

Question (iv)
Which winds carry water and bring rain ?
(a) Unequal
(b) Equal
(c) Monsoon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Monsoon.

Question (v)
A dark funnel shaped cloud that reaches from sky to the ground is called ……………….
(a) Wind
(b) Tornado
(c) Cyclone
(d Monsoon.
Answer:
(b) Tornado.

Question (vi)
Hurricane in America, Typhoon in Japan are nothing but ………………. only.
(a) Cyclones
(b) Tornado
(c) Monsoon wind
(d) Thunder storms.
Answer:
(a) Cyclones.

Question (vii)
In which year did Orissa was hit by a cyclone ?
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2004.
Answer:
(a) 1999.

State True or False:

(i) Wind always blows from low pressure area to high pressure area.
Answer:
False

(ii) Wind speed is measured with an anemometer.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(iii) Heavy rains accompanied by strong winds are called cyclones.
Answer:
False

(iv) A hurricane is a storm with strong winds blowing through a funnel-shaped cloud.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What disaster fell on 18 October, 1999 in India ?
Answer:
A cyclone hits Orissa.

Question 2.
When did second cyclone hit Orissa ?
Answer:
29 October, 1999.

Question 3.
What was the number of homeless people hit by cyclone ?
Answer:
About 700000 people.

Question 4.
What is wind ?
Answer:
Air in motion.

Question 5.
Give the characteristic of air.
Answer:
Air exerts pressure.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question 6.
Why do we fill air into bicycle tubes ?
Answer:
To keep the tube tight so that it can run smoothly on a surface.

Question 7.
What happens to air pressure when speed of wind is increased ?
Answer:
Air pressure reduces.

Question 8.
Why does hot air move upwards ?
Answer:
Because it is lighter than cold air.

Question 9.
What are monsoon winds ?
Answer:
Monsoon winds are those winds which come from the oceans and seas and carry water with them and bring rain.

Question 10.
Name few natural disasters caused by wind.
Answer:
Cyclones, thunder storms, tornadoes etc.

Question 11.
In winter what is direction of winds ?
Answer:
From land to oceans.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a cyclone ? On which factors it depends ?
Answer:
Cyclone. A low pressure system with very- high speed winds revolving around it is called cyclone.
Wind speed, wind direction, humidity and temperature are some factors which contribute to the development of a cyclone.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question 2.
Give a brief account of formation of thunderstorms.
Answer:
In hot, humid climate, the rising temperature produces strong winds. These rise upwards and carry lot of water droplets. These water droplets freeze at height and fall downwards. The swift falling water droplets along with rising air produce lightning and sound. This phenomenon is called thunderstorm.

Question 3.
How are clouds important to farmers ?
Answer:
Importance of clouds to farmers.

  1. Clouds are important for harvest. If harvest is good, farmers are happy.
  2. Clouds bring rains.
  3. They make the weather pleasant.

Question 4.
How will you help your neighbours in case cyclone approaches your village/town ?
Answer:
Helping neighbours during cyclones:

  1. Moving them to cyclone shelters.
  2. Shifting their household property to safer places.
  3. Providing them medical aid.

Question 5.
What planning is required to deal with situation created by a cyclone ?
Answer:
Plans to deal with situation created by cyclone.

  • Shift essential household good, domestic animals to safer places.
  • Keep handy phone numbers of all emergency services like Police, fire brigade and medicle centres.
  • Avoid driving on roads with standing water.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How will you show air expands on heating ?
Answer:
Experiment to show air expands on heating. Take a boiling tube and fix a balloon tightly over the neck of the tube. Insert the boiling tube carrying balloon into a beaker containing hot water.
Watch the balloon for 2-3 minutes you will notice that the balloon has start inflating. This experiment shows that air expands on heating.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 3

Question 2.
What precautions should be taken when thunderstorm which is accompanied by lightning ?
Answer:
Precautions to be taken during lightning in thunderstorm accompanied by lightning :

  1. Never take shelter under an isolated tree.
  2. Do not lie on ground.
  3. Do not use umbrella having a metallic rod.
  4. Window, open garages, storage sheds, metal sheds are not safe places.
  5. Never stay in water. .
  6. Inside car or bus is a safe place to take shelter.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Winds, Storms and Cyclones PSEB 7th Class Science Notes

  • The air around us exerts pressure.
  • Moving air is called wind.
  • Very strong wind lowers the pressure.
  • Air expands on heating and contracts on cooling.
  • Hot air is lighter than cold air.
  • The wind moves from high pressure areas to low pressure areas.
  • Wind speed is measured with an Anemometer.
  • The direction of wind speed is measured by the wind vane.
  • Wind currents (movement) are caused by the uneven heating of the earth.
  • Monsoon winds are filled with moisture (water vapours) and bring rain.
  • Cyclones are destructive.
  • A cyclone crossed the coast of Orissa on October 18, 1999.
  • Cyclones have higher wind speeds.
  • A cyclone is a very strong whirlwind which revolves around very low pressure areas.
  • A hurricane is a storm with strong winds blowing through, in a funnel-shaped cloud.
  • The loud noise produced during lightening is called thunder.
  • Heavy rain with strong winds is called a storm.
  • Hurricane in the United States and Typhoon in Japan are the cyclones.
  • Tornadoes are dark cone like clouds that form between the earth’s crust and the sky.
  • All kinds of natural disasters like cyclones, tornadoes, etc. destroy trees, wires and communication systems.
  • Special policies are adopted during disasters.
  • Cyclone warning is given 48 hours in advance with the help of satellite and radar. And self-help is the best help.
  • So it would be helpful to plan your safety in advance and take precautionary measures before any cyclone actually strikes.
  • Wind: Fast moving air is called wind.
  • Monsoon winds: The winds that come from the sea and carrying water are called monsoon winds.
  • Tornado: Dark coloured cone like clouds who’s cone structure is from sky to earth is called Tornado.
  • Cyclone: A violent wind that moves in a circle causing a storm is called cyclone.

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Wastewater Story Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 224)

Question 1.
What is the difference in colour of contaminated and clean water ?
Answer:
Clear water is colourless, but it may contain soluble impurities and microorganisms. This water is not pure and not drinkable.
Contaminated water in which microorganisms are present can also be colourless. Also, if there is any pigment or impurities in the water, it may be dark brown in colour.

Question 2.
Name any two organic contaminants present in drain water.
Answer:
Organic pollutants present in the drain waste water are:

    1. Insecticides,
    2. Diuretics,
    3. Fruits and vegetables waste,
    4. Human and animal excreta.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 225)

Question 1.
Why are manholes builts in sewage route ?
Answer:
Manholes are made at every 50-60 m distance of the sewerage system or at the junction of two sewage discharges, so that the person can enter the sewage drain to identify and diagnose the problem.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Question 2.
Name any two organisms living in and around an open drain.
Answer:

  1. Cockroach and
  2. scorpion.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 228)

Question 1.
What change do in you notice in the appearance of liquid after aeration ?
Answer:
The color of the liquid is slightly clear and light.

Question 2.
What was removed by the sand filter ?
Answer:
Insoluble solid particles were separated by sand filter.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Wastewater Story Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) ……………….. are dissolved and suspended solid impurities present in sewage.
Answer:
Pollutants

(ii) The activated sludge is about ……………….. water.
Answer:
97%

(iii) …………………. is the solid material settled at the bottom of water clarifier.
Answer:
Sludge

(iv) ……………… is the place where contaminants are removed from wastewater.
Answer:
Water purification tank

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

(v) Adopt ……………….. sanitation practices.
Answer:
Good

2. State True or False:

(i) The sight and smell of open drain is attractive.
Answer:
False

(ii) Throw plastic bags in the drain.
Answer:
False

(iii) Open drain is the breeding place for flies and mosquitoes.
Answer:
True

(iv) Do not defecate in the open.
Answer:
True

(v) Solid food remains can block the drains.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Organic impurities (a) Sewage treatment
(ii) Inorganic impurities (b) Typhoid
(iii) Wastewater treatment (c) Manure
(iv) Water borne diseases (d) Nitrate and phosphates
(v) Dried sludge (e) Human wastes

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Organic impurities (e) Human wastes
(ii) Inorganic impurities (d) Nitrate and phosphates
(iii) Wastewater treatment (a) Sewage treatment
(iv) Water borne diseases (b) Typhoid
(v) Dried sludge (c) Manure

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

4. Choose the Correct Answer

Question (i)
Wastewater treatment plant involve:
(a) Bar screen
(b) Water clarifier
(c) Grit and sand removal tank
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (ii)
Name the by-product of wastewater treatment plant:
(a) Biogas.
(b) Sludge
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

Question (iii)
Which of the following chemicals is used to disinfect water ?
(a) Chlorine
(b) Ozone
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

Question (iv)
World Toilet Day is celebrated every year on:
(a) 29 November
(b) 19 October
(c) 19 November
(d) 29 October.
Answer:
(c) 19 November.

Question (v)
Which of the following is not a low cost onsite sewage disposal system
(a) Septic tank
(b) Compost pit
(c) Chemical toilets
(d) Bar screen.
Answer:
(d) Bar screen.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is sewage ?
Answer:
Sewage.
This is the dirty water which contains soluble impurities dissolved and insoluble suspended impurities. It is produced by homes, offices, industries, farms and hospitals.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Question (ii)
What is Sludge ?
Answer:
Sludge.
The solid that settles at the bottom of a water purification tank is called Sludge.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Question (iii)
What is clarified water ?
Answer:
Clarified Water (Pure water).
It is colourless, odourless and tasteless water with pH value 7. Rainwater is pure water. The boiling point of pure water is 100°C. Pure water does not contain soluble or hanging impurities in it.

Question (iv)
What is septic tank ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story 1
Septic Tank.
This is a low cost onsite sewage treatment system that contains anaerobic bacterial enivironment to decompose the waste products. It has connection to main sewage discharge pipes. This is used in which excreta from the toilet passes through the covered pipes from the toilets directly to the biogas plant.

Question (v)
What is waste water treatment plant ?
Answer:
Waste Water Treatment Plant.
Polluted water of houses through covered underground Pipes is taken to sewage removing contaminants.

The water is taken to the treatment plant and after the treatment this water is discharged into the rivers or oceans. The remaining waste water is sent to the place where the impurities are separated from it. Separation of contaminants from waste, water is called water purification. Water treatment involves physical, chemical and biological processes which remove contaminants from the waste water. Waste water treatment plant is also called sewage treatment plant.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why oil and fats should not be thrown in the drain ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story 2
Oil, ghee etc. should not be thrown in the drain, instead leftover should be put in the dustbin.
Because they harden and block the drainage pipes. If thrown in the open then they can close pores iin the soil which may reduce the ability of the soil to filter water.

Question (ii)
What is the function of bar screens in a wastewater treatment plants ?
Answer:
Function of Bar screen in waste water treatment Plants:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story 3
In waste water treatment plant at first this water which contains solid insoluble impurities such as cans, pieces of nepkins and plastic etc is first passed through a mesh having bar screens where these impurities are stopped and separated.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Question (iii)
“Throw litter in the dustbin only
Answer:
Always throw the garbage in the dustbin because scattering the garbage will not only pollute our surroundings but will also pollute the environment and give off a foul smell which will help in producing germs, insects and cockroaches. It will also cause many diseases. So throw litter only in the dustbin.

Question (iv)
What are the alternative arrangements for sewage disposal ?
Answer:
Alternative arrangements for sewage disposal.
Where there is no sewerage system, low cost sewage disposal systems such as septic tanks, chemical tanks, composting pits etc. can be constructed. A septic tank is a small sewage treatment system that contains anaerobic bacterial environment that separate waste pollutants. It has no connection with main sewage disposal pipes.

Question (v)
Why is it harmful to discharge untreated sewage in water bodies ?
Answer:
Untreated sewage contains inorganic and suspended contaminants. If this untreated sewage is discharged directly into water bodies then contaminants like germs present in it will get activated which will cause diseases like cholera, typhoid, diarrhoea, polio and hepatitis.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Write a brief note on open defecation.
Answer:
Open defecation.
Open defecation on railway tracks, banks of rivers or in the fields can cause health problems. It spreads many deadly diseases like cholera, typhoid, diarrhoea, polio and hepatitis.

About one lakh people die every year due to open defecation. In areas where open defecation is common, human feces and animal feces are swallowed by children accumulating large amounts of bacteria, parasites, and viruses in their bodies which causes diseases, even it leads to death.

Question (ii)
What steps will you take at home for efficient working of sewerage system ?
Answer:
Steps for efficient sewrage system at home. We should develop the following good habits for efficient sewerage system at the home.

  • Don’t waste water. Every time you go to toilet and you flush the toilet, water runs unnecessarily. So manage the amount of water to be used in toilets by putting a bottle filled with water or a brick in your flush tank which will maintain the water pressure and reduce the wastage of water.
  • Avoid using the toilet as a waste basket.
  • Install water-efficient toilets. Fix standard for reducing water consumption each time you flush.
  • Use only phosphate-free soaps and detergents.
  • Use washing machine only when you have full load of clothes.
  • Do not throw solid materials like tea leaves, wool, plastic envelopes (polythene), sanitary towels, soft toys etc. in the drainage water as they may block the drain. As a result, oxygen does not flow freely and the decomposition process slows down.
  • Do not throw substances like ghee, machine oil, grease, pesticides and other chemicals etc. in the drain as it can kill the water purifying microorganisms.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Wastewater Story Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Cleaning of water is a process of removing ………………….. .
Answer:
contaminants

(ii) Waste water released by houses is called ………………… .
Answer:
sewage

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

(iii) Dried ……………… is used as manure.
Answer:
sludge

(iv) Drains get blocked by ………………. and ……………. .
Answer:
cooking oil, fats

(v) An open space covered by a lid is a passage through which a person can enter and check the sewage system is called …………….. .
Answer:
Manhole

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) Waste water treatment by-products (a) November 19
(ii) World Water Day (b) Breeding area for mosquitoes and flies.
(iii) Open defecation (c) Humus and bio gas
(iv) World Toilet Day (d) March 22

Answer:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) Waste water treatment by-products (c) Humus and bio gas
(ii) World Water Day (d) March 22
(iii) Open defecation (b) Breeding area for mosquitoes and flies.
(iv) World Toilet Day (a) November 19

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
A network of small and large underground pipes:
(a) Sewage
(b) Humus
(c) Stool excretion
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Sewage.

Question (ii)
World Water Day is celebrated:
(a) March 22
(b) 22 February
(c) April 22
(d) 22 June
Answer:
(a) March 22.

Question (iii)
Which gas absorbs ultraviolet radiation ?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Ozone
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Ozone.

Question (iv)
Contaminated water causes diseases:
(a) Jaundice
(b) Diarrhoea
(c) Cholera
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Question (v)
Malaria can spread through:
(a) Open drains
(b) Taps
(c) Closed drains
(d) Water pipes
Answer:
(a) Open drains

State True or False:

(i) Untreated sewage should be disposed of in reservoirs.
Answer:
False

(ii) Residual oil and ghee should be drained.
Answer:
False

(iii) Throwing polythene bags or pieces in the drains can choke the drain.
Answer:
True

(iv) Litter should be thrown in the dustbin only.
Answer:
True

(v) The solid settling at the bottom of a water purification tank is called sludge.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which is World Water Day ?
Answer:
World Water Day : 22 March.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Question 2.
What is cleaning of water ?
Answer:
Cleaning of Water. Removing pollutants from waste water.

Question 3.
What is common name of waste water treatment ?
Answer:
Sewage Treatment.

Question 4.
How is Sewage formed ?
Answer:
Sewage. It is waste water discharged by homes, industries, hospitals, offices and other users.

Question 5.
Which organisms cause dysentery ?
Answer:
Microbes.

Question 6.
What is sewerage ?
Answer:
Sewerage. Network of small and big pipes called sewers form sewerage.

Question 7.
Which chemicals destroy water micro-organisms?
Answer:
Paints, painkillers, oils, medicines, etc destroy micro-organisms.

Question 8.
Why should solid waste not be dumped in drains?
Answer:
Because they pollute the drains and block the free flow of oxygen.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Question 9.
How does oxygen purify waste water?
Answer:
Oxygen helps in biodegradation.

Question 10.
Write the names of two causes for spread of diseases.
Answer:
Unhygienic surroundings and Polluted water.

Question 11.
Name the plant used at places where sewerage system is not available.
Answer:
Septic tank.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give a short account of alternative arrangements for sewage disposal.
Answer:
The alternative arrangements for sewage disposal are septic tanks, chemical toilets, compositing pits, etc.

All these are low cost onsite sewage disposal systems and are suitable for places where there is no sewerage systems. For example, in hospitals, isolated building or a cluster of 4-5 houses in a remote area.

Question 2.
Name some practices used at home which can minimise the waste production.
Answer:
Practices used at home to minimise waste.

  • Greasy, oily things should not be dumped into drains, as they block (choke) the drains.
  • Chemicals, paints, insecticides etc. should not be thrown into drains as they kill microbes that help to purify water.
  • Solid wastes, used tea leaves, sanitary towels etc. should be thrown in dustbins and not in drains as they choke the drains.

Question 3.
What is Sewage ? Explain why it is harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.
Answer:
Sewage. Sewage is a liquid waste which has lot of dissolved and suspended pollutants in water. It is complex in nature.

It is produced in homes, industries, agricultural fields and in other human activities. It is main cause of water and soil pollution.

Harmful aspects of disposal of untreated water waste:

  1. It causes health hazards.
  2. Ground water and surface water gets polluted.
  3. It is carrier of water borne diseases.

Question 4.
Why should oil and fats be not released in the drain ? Explain.
Answer:
Oil and fats on hardening block the drain pipes. In open drains, the oils clog the soil particles reducing their power of filtering.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Question 5.
Describe the steps involving in getting clarified water from waste-water.
Answer:
Steps to get clarified water from waste water:

  1. Passing waste water through bar screening to remove large objects like rags, plastics, cans etc.
  2. Passing through grit and sand. Removal tank with slow speed to settle down sand and dust particles.
  3. Settling down of water is done in a big tank which has a slope in middle to remove faecal matter and floatable solids such as oils and grease. Water so obtained is called clarified water.

Question 6.
What is sludge ? Explain how it is treated.
Answer:
Sludge.
It is solid faecal matter collected from the waste water after passing through screen bars and grit and sand removal tank.

Treatment of Sludge.
It is collected in a tank to be treated by anaeroboic bacteria. The biogas produced is used for generating electricity. Dried sludge is used as a manure.

Question 7.
Untreated human excreta is a health hazard. Explain.
Answer:
Untreated human excreta.

  1. It is a breeding place for mosquitoes, flies and other insects.
  2. It is full of foul smell.
  3. It contaminates water and soil,
  4. It is carrier of many diseases.

Question 8.
Name two chemicals used to disinfect water.
Answer:

  1. Chlorine and
  2. Ozone.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Give a detailed account of waste water treatment plant.
Answer:
Waste water is contaminated with physical, chemical and biological pollutants. To remove all these physical, chemical and biological processes are to be involved.

(i) Bar-Screen treatment. Waste water is allowed to pass through big bar screens to remove solid large objects such as napkins, tins, cans, sticks, plastics, etc.

(ii) Grit and sand removal tank. The waste water is allowed to pass through these tanks with very low speed so that sand, dust and insoluble heavy particles settle down in these tanks.

(iii) Separating the sludge. In this process, water is put into a large tank whose middle portion is sloped. All solids get settled down and are removed with a scraper. This solid waste is known as sludge. Some floating solids are removed by skimmer. Water, thus, obtained is called clarified water.
Now two separate processes are to be followed.

(a) Sludge is transfered to a tank to be decomposed by anaerobic bacteria when biogas is produced as by-product.

(b) In the clarified water, aerobic bacterias are present to enhance their functioning. Air is pumped in the water. Bacteria consume the impurities left in water and settle down at the bottom. The water is then removed from the top. While the sludge settled at the bottom is dried and used as manure.

(iv) The above water is either discharged into sea or river to be naturally cleaned or treated with chlorine or ozone and supplied for further use.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Wastewater Story PSEB 7th Class Science Notes

  • Sewage is liquid waste, most of it is water which has dissolved and suspended impurities. These impurities are called contaminants.
  • An underground network of pipes that carry wastewater from a home to a point of disposal is called Sewerage.
  • Sewage is transported through the closed pipes to the wastewater treatment plants where pollutants are separated and reformed and then flowed into rivers and oceans.
  • During waste water treatment pollutants are separated by physical, chemical and biological methods.
  • Sludge is a solid that settles to the bottom during water purification.
  • Waste water treatment co-products are sludge and biogas.
  • A manhole is a lid covered open space through which a person can enter and can check the sewerage system.
  • Open defecation are breeding grounds for flies, mosquitoes, and other insects that cause many diseases.
  • Do not throw oil, ghee, grease, etc. in a drain or in the open. Doing so will make drain chock.
  • Throw trash only in the bin (dustbin).
  • Pollutants: Dissolved and suspended impurities in dirty water are called pollutants.
  • Sewerage: A network of small and large pipes that carry waste water to the drainage area.
  • Man hole: Large open mouth holes are made at every 50-60 meters of the sewerage system. Individual who enters the sewage can check and remove sewage problem, if any.
  • Water Treatment Plant: A place where impurities are separated from waste water.
  • Water Treatment: The process of separating impurities from waste water is called water treatment.
  • Sludge is the solid that settles in the sewage water purification tank.
  • Septic tank: This is a small system of sewage treatment containing monoaerobic bacteria that remove waste products. It has connections with main sewage pipes.

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 75)

Question 1.
Name the instrument used to measure relative humidity.
Answer:
Wet Bulb and Dry-bulb thermometers.

Question2.
Which instrument is used to measuring rainfall ?
Answer:
Rain gauge.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question3.
Name the source you used to collect weather reports ?
Answer:
Weather data was obtained from the North Meteorological Department’s laboratory.

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) …………………. of a place may change during a day.
Answer:
Temperature

(ii) The areas of Earth near North Pole and the South Pole are called ……………….. .
Answer:
Polar Region

(iii) The amount of water vapours present in air is called ……………… .
Answer:
Humidity

(iv) ……………….. is the coldest desert on earth.
Answer:
Antarctic

(v) Indian hot desert or Thar Desert spread over states of ………………… and ……………….. .
Answer:
Rajasthan and Gujarat.

2. State True or False:

(i) Reindeer is the main animal of tropical forest.
Answer:
False

(ii) Weather and climate both terms have same meaning.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(iii) Camel stores fat in its hump which is consumed during the days it does not get food.
Answer:
True

(iv) Whale is the largest animal.
Answer:
True.

3. Match the Columns ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) It insulates its body and keeps the polar beer warm (a) Land breeze
(ii) This instrument is used to measure humidity in air (b) Hot and dry.
(iii) Imaginary lines on the earth parallel to the equator (c) Fat layer under the skin
(iv) Cood air that blows during day towards coastal area (d) Dry and wet bulb thermometer.
(v) The climate of Rajasthan is (e) Latitude.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) It insulates its body and keeps the polar beer warm (c) Fat layer under the skin
(ii) This instrument is used to measure humidity in air (d) Dry and wet bulb thermometer.
(iii) Imaginary lines on the earth parallel to the equator (e) Latitude.
(iv) Cood air that blows during day towards coastal area (a) Land breeze
(v) The climate of Rajasthan is (b) Hot and dry.

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Weather of a place is affected by:
(a) Wind
(b) Temperature
(c) Humidity
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (ii)
Climate of coastal areas is:
(a) Hot to dry
(b) Moderate
(c) Cold and dry
(d) Extreme cold
Answer:
(c) Cold and dry.

Question (iii)
The coldest desert on earth is:
(a) Arabian desert
(b) Sahara desert
(c) Thar desert
(d) Ladakh
Answer:
(b) Sahara desert.

Question (iv)
Arctic region lies at:
(a) 23°
(b) 23°
(c) 0°
(d) 85° N to 90°S
Answer:
(d) 85° N to 90°S.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name any two factors that affect the weather of a place.
Answer:
Factors affecting the weather of a place are:

  1. Sun,
  2. Wind,
  3. Water / Rain/ Moisture,
  4. Temperature,
  5. Distance from sea or ocean.

Question (ii)
Define climate.
Answer:
Climate. An average of 25 to 30 years of weather conditions in a place is called climate.

Question (iii)
What is sand dune ?
Answer:
Sand dune. When the wind blows, the sand flies from one place to another. When the wind stops blowing, the sand falls in one place and collects to form low hill structures. These are called sand dunes. They are usually found in desert areas.

Question (iv)
What is a polar region ?
Answer:
Polar Region. The region near the North Pole and the South Pole of the Earth is called the Polar Region. The north snow is centred on these poles. The in the north it is located at Arctic Ocean and in the south it is located at the Antarctic Continent. It is very cold in these areas all the time.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How does sea breeze occur ?
Answer:
The earth heats up faster than water during the day. The air near the bottom of the earth gets warmer and lighter and rises upwards. The air above the sea compared to the air above the earth is cold and heavy. So the wind blows toward the earth. The cool breeze that blows from the ocean to the earth during the day is called sea breeze.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 1

Question (ii)
Write three adaptations found in aquatic animals.
Answer:
Adaptations found in aquatic organisms:

  1. Streamlined body which helps in swimming.
  2. Gills, they can take oxygen in the water.
  3. The presence of fins helps in swimming.

Question (iii)
What is green house effect ?
Answer:
Green house Effect. Infrared and ultraviolet radiation are present in sunlight. The ozone layer of the atmosphere absorbs the ultraviolet radiation but the infrared radiation reaches the earth. Some of these radiations are reflected and absorbed by carbon dioxide. Because the infrared rays have heat, the absorbed radiations heat up the atmosphere. This effect of carbon dioxide is called the green house effect.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question (iv)
Write two effects of climate change.
Answer:
Effects of climate change:
1. Global warming. Deforestation and combustion of fossil fuels increase the percentage of carbon dioxide in the air. Carbon dioxide gas acts like a glass house and absorbs infrared radiation from sunlight, which raises the temperature. Due to this the green house effect is increasing.

2. As a result, glaciers are melting. Glacier melting alarm for aquatic life. Melting ice raises sea levels, endangering many coastal cities.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How is camel adapted to survive in hot desert ? Explain.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 2
The adaptation of the camel to live in the desert:
The camel’s physique and habits have made it adaptable to the hot and dry climate of the desert.
The following adjustments are found in the camel:

  1. Its feet are flat to walk on the sand.
  2. Its nose is covered with nasal membranes so that sand does not enter the nose.
  3. It drinks a lot of water when available. This water spreads to the tissues of the body, which helps the camel to stay without water for many days.
  4. It accumulates fat in its mouth. When food is not available to it, it uses this fat.
  5. Very little water immerses through the urine.
  6. Its long legs keep it high above the hot sand.

Question (ii)
Name various factors that affect the climate of a place. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 3
Factors affecting the climate of a place:

  1. Distance from sea level
  2. Direction of mountains
  3. Distance from the equator
  4. Height from the sea.

1. Distance from the sea level.
The climate of the places near the sea is pleasant. During the day the temperature of the earth is higher while the water of the ocean warms up relatively late. The wind blows from the bottom of the ocean towards the earth, which is called sea breeze. The earth cools faster than water at night. So the air above the oceans is hot and light and the air above is moving towards the ocean. The cold breeze that blows toward the sea at night is called the land breeze.

2. The direction or latitude of the mountains.
The shape of the earth is not completely spherical. It is slightly raised near the equator. As a result, the sun’s rays are directed closer to the equator. The latitude of the equator is 0° and it is higher towards the pole. The longitude of the North Pole is 90° N and the longitude of the South Pole is 90°S. The climate near the equator is hot and humid all year round. As the longitude increases, the climate cools down.

Question (iii)
Write various adaptations found in Polar beer.
Answer:
Adaptations in Polar bear. The following adaptations are found in polar bears:

  1. Its fur is white to camouflage with snow capped areas.
  2. Its long hairs protect it from extreme cold of cold climate.
  3. A thick layer of fat deposit under the skin helps to keep it warm.
  4. Its feet are so shaped that it can run easily on snow.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The average weather taken over a long time in called ……………. .
Answer:
climate

(ii) A place receives very little rainfall and the temperature is high throughout the year;
the climate of that place will be …………… and …………….. .
Answer:
Hot, dry

(iii) The two regions with extreme climatic conditions are ……………… and ………….. .
Answer:
Polar, Tropical Rain forests

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(iv) The maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in ……………..
Answer:
Afternoon

(v) ………………. is used to measure rain.
Answer:
Rain gauge

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) The coldest desert on earth (a) Moisture
(ii) The amount of water vapours in the air (b) Deforestation and burning of fossil fuels
(iii) Thar desert (c) Antarctica
(iv) Global warming (d) Rajasthan.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) The coldest desert on earth (c) Antarctica
(ii) The amount of water vapours in the air (a) Moisture
(iii) Thar desert (d) Rajasthan
(iv) Global warming (b) Deforestation and burning of fossil fuels.

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
What is the cause of change in weather?
(a) Moon
(b) Planet
(c) Satellite
(d) Sun.
Answer:
(d) Sun.

Question (ii)
Indicate the type of climate in Jammu and Kashmir.
(a) Hot and wet
(b) Hot and dry
(c) Moderately hot and moderately wet
(d) Wet.
Answer:
(c) Moderately hot and moderately wet.

Question (iii)
Indicate the type of climate in Kerala:
(a) Hot and dry
(b) Hot and wet
(c) Wet
(d) Moderately hot and moderately wet.
Answer:
(a) Hot and dry.

Question (iv)
From where do we get daily weather report ?
(a) Television
(b) Radio
(c) Newspaper
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question (v)
When is the minimum temperature likely to occur in a day ?
(a) Evening
(b) Early morning
(c) Noon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Early morning

Question (vi)
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in:
(a) When the sun rises
(b) In mid noon
(e) Afternoon
(d) When the sun sets.
Answer:
(e) Afternoon.

4. State True or False:

(i) All changes in weather are due to the sun.
Answer:
True

(ii) The highest temperature of the day is in the evening.
Answer:
False

(iii) Different places have the same temperature.
Answer:
False

(iv) Polar areas are located near the Poles.
Answer:
True

(v) Penguins live in the plains.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(vi) Days in winter are shorter in length.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From where do we get daily weather reports ?
Answer:
We get weather report from Television, Radio and Newspapers.

Question 2.
Which factors are responsible for weather ?
Answer:
Temperature, Humidity and Rainfall.

Question 3.
What is humidity ?
Answer:
Humidity. It is the measure of quantity of moistures present in the atmospheric air.

Question 4.
Which department is responsible for preparing weather reports ?
Answer:
Meterological Department of the Government.

Question 5.
Which instrument is used to measure rain fall ?
Answer:
Rain gauge.

Question 6.
Do maximum and minimum temperature remain constant over a week ?
Answer:
No.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question 7.
Where from do we get heat and light on the earth ?
Answer:
We get heat and light from sun.

Question 8.
What happens to the energy emitted by sun ?
Answer:
It is absorbed and reflected by the earth’s surface.

Question 9.
Climate is average weather report of a place taken over a long period. How long this period is ?
Answer:
About 25 years.

Question 10.
Which type of climate is found in Kerala ?
Answer:
Hot and wet.

Question 11.
What is typical desert climate ?
Answer:
Hot and dry.

Question 12.
Which part of India is wet ?
Answer:
North-East.

Question 13.
Why is adaptation by animals necessary ?
Answer:
For survival of animals.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the elements that determine the weather of a place.
Answer:
Elements of Weather:
Temperature, Humidity, Wind-speed, Rainfall.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question 2.
When are the maximum and minimum temperature likely to occur during the day?
Answer:
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in the afternoon while the minimum temperature occurs in the early morning.

Question 3.
What is rain gauge ?
Answer:
Rain gauge. It is an instrument used to measure rainfall. It consists of a .measuring cylinder and a funnel on the top to collect rainwater.

Question 4.
Define weather ?
Answer:
Weather. The day-to day condition of atmosphere at a place with respect to temperature, humidity, wind speed etc. is called weather.

Question 5.
The tropical rainforest has a large population of animals. Explain, why it is so ?
Answer:
Tropical rainforests have hospitable climatic conditions; so it has a large population of animals. The climate in this region is hot and humid. It lies around the equator and has minimum temperature a little higher than 15°C, length of days and night are generally equal and these places recieve a lot of rainfall. So all these conditions are preferable for a large number of population.

Question 6.
What is cold desert region ? How does polar bear adapt the condition to survive in this region.
Answer:
Those region/area where temperature may fall below-20°C and rocks are stony and have little vegetation are called cold deserts. In India cold desert lies between Ladakh region in north to Lahaul and spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh. To survive in cold desert, Yak has following adapations:

  1. Body is covered by long hair or fur.
  2. The colour of fur is generally black to absorb more and more heat.
  3. Its feet have sharp toes which help it to climb in uneven paths.
  4. A layer of fat is deposited under its skin. It helps yak to survive in extreme cold during winters.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the condition of tropical rainforests ? What type of animals are living in such rain forest ? Write down the main characteristics of these animals.
Answer:
Tropical rainforest. The area near or around the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is called the tropical area. The climate in these areas is hot and humid. Here even in winter the temperature is 15°C and in summer the temperature reaches 40°C. The tropical region receives rainfall throughout the year. The most prominent places of the tropical region are the tropical rainforests that form canopies over the area. Elephants, tigers, leopards, snakes, birds and insects are the animals found in rain forest.

Main Characteristics of animals found in rain forest:

  • Creeping, snakes, lizards, monitor can easily crawl in dense forests.
  • Strong body. Strong body is required to pass through dense forests. So Elephants, gorillas, tigers, leopards, etc. have powerful bodies.
  • Special Senses. Many tropical animals have sharp eyesight, sharp hearing and some animals have skin color similar to surroundings for camouflage.
  • Strong tail
  • Loud voice
  • Sharp eyes
  • Fruit diet
  • Long and big beaks.

Question 2.
Discuss the human activities responsible for climate change.
Answer:
Human activities responsible for climate change are as follows:

  • Population Growth. Consumption of fossil fuels is increasing due to population growth and changes in living standards.
  • Deforestation. Large scale deforestation is done to meet the needs of the growing population such as houses, buildings, industries, roads etc.
  • Excavation of mines. Excavation of blind mines has increased floods.
  • Global warming. Due to excessive cutting of trees and burning of fossil fuels the percentage of carbon dioxide increases. This carbon dioxide gas absorbs infrared radiation from sunlight, resulting in a rise in temperature. As a result, the green house effect continues to grow and as a result glaciers are melting.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate PSEB 7th Class Science Notes

  • The weather of a place changes day by day and week by week.
  • The weather depends on temperature, humidity and rainfall.
  • Humidity is a measure of water vapour in the air.
  • Indian Meteorological Department of weather forecasting, daily collect statistical data of heat, wind speed at various places and makes weather predictions.
  • Atmospheric conditions in terms of temperature, humidity, rainfall, wind speed, etc. of a place is called the weather of that place.
  • The weather can change in an instant.
  • Factors on which the weather depends, these are called elements of weather.
  • Special high-low thermometers are used to measure the temperature. The highest temperature of the day is usually in the afternoon and the lowest is normal usually in the morning.
  • All changes in the weather are caused by the sun.
  • In winters, the length of the day is shorter and the night is earlier.
  • The length of the weather of a place is based on the data collected at that place is called the climate of that place.
  • The climate of different places is different. It changes from hot and dry to hot and humid.
  • Energy reflected and absorbed by the earth’s surface, ocean and the atmosphere play important roles in determining weather at any place.
  • Climate has a great impact on living things.
  • Animals are adapted to the conditions in which they live.
  • The Polar Regions are located near the poles, such as the North Pole and the South Pole.
  • Canada, Greenland, Iceland, Norway, Sweden, Finland and Alaska and Siberian areas of Russia in America, are the Polar Regions
  • Tropical rainforests are found in India, Malaysia, Indonesia, Brazil, Republic of Congo, Kenya, Uganda, and Nigeria. The Polar Regions have a cold climate.
  • Rainfall is measured by an instrument called the rain gauge.
  • Penguins and polar bears live in Polar Regions.
  • The Polar Regions are covered with white ice.
  • The white hairs on the polar bear’s body help protect it and catch prey.
  • Penguins are well known animal found in Polar Regions. It is also white and merges well with the background.
  • In addition to polar bears and penguins, many other animals are found in Polar Regions.
  • Many fishes can live in cold water.
  • The climate of the Subtropical Regions is generally warmer, as these areas are closer to the equator.
  • Temperatures in these regions vary from 15°C to 40°C.
  • In areas near the equator, the length of night and day is approximately equal throughout the year.
  • Weather: Everyday changes in the atmosphere in terms of temperature, humidity, rainfall, wind speed, etc., is called the weather of that place.
  • Climate: The average weather pattern taken over a long time, say 25 years is called the climate of the place.
  • Adaptation: The special characteristics of plants and organisms, that is, the nature that enables them to live in a habitat, is called adaptation.
  • Migration: Moving from one place to another to avoid harsh climatic conditions by birds and animals is called migration.

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 Media and Democracy

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science Civics Chapter 21 Media and Democracy

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Media and Democracy Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in 1-15 words.

Question 1.
Write name of the electronic means of advertisement.
Answer:
Radio, television and computers are the main electronic media. Even illiterate people can get the information about the activity of the govt, and on that basis, they can form public opinion.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the Right to information?
Answer:
People can access any such information which affects them either directly or indirectly. It is actually a right to put stoppage to the unfair functioning of some govt, officers or a right to inquire on personal level.

Question 3.
How many types of advertisements are there?
Answer:
These are of two types:

  1. Commercial advertisements.
  2. Social advertisements.

Commercial advertisements increase the demand of commodities while social advertisements help in social service and help to remove social evils.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 Media and Democracy

Question 4.
What are the main objectives of advertising?
Answer:

  1. To give information about the product, e.g. where to purchase a thing and how to use it.
  2. To induce people to buy a product.
  3. To bring the concerned institution in the eyes of the public.

Question 5.
What do you mean by social advertisement?
Answer:
Through social advertisement, social welfare is promoted. Such advertisements alert the people against different diseases, disasters and vices. These also help to promote national unity and integrity.

II. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
What is there in Commercial advertising?
Answer:
Commercial advertising is attached to the buyers and consumers. Consumers include the buyers of goods like domestic usage goods (foodgrains, grocery, clothes), electronic goods (T.V., Refrigerator). The sellers adopt many means to attract lacs of consumers. The various media are newspapers, magazines, radio, television, internet etc. The oldest way of selling products is of the street hawker. Even today people selling vegetables, fruits use this method. People today resort to direct selling to increase their sales and also take the help of trade fairs etc.

Question 2.
What techniques are used by the advertisers to shape Public attitude towards their products?
Answer:

  1. Through street hawking.
  2. By advertising in newspapers and magazines.
  3. By advertising in radio and T.V.

Question 3.
Give name of some social advertisements related with Public Services.
Answer:
Social issues like family welfare, polio eradication, protection from cancer, AIDS awareness, stopping the female infanticide, commimitte coordination, national unity, blood donation, road safety etc. are the advertisements related to public services.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 Media and Democracy

Question 4.
What is the need of regulations in advertisement?
Answer:
Advertisement is neither good nor bad but it is such a means which can be misused because it has the power to leave a deep impact on the society, so the advertisement which promotes bad products should be stopped: It can be done only by making proper laws, e.g. in America, there is a legal prohibition on the advertisement of tobacoo. So we can say that laws related to advertisement are very important.

Question 5.
Which ethics are required to be followed by the media?
Answer:

  • To broadcast full-fair information to the public.
  • To promote social welfare.
  • To create awareness among people so that they can become capable citizens.
  • Not to let communal tension prevail.
  • To promote information that should strengthen democracy.
  • To fulfill social responsibility properly.

III. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Media is the __________ to inform the people about the shortcomings of the existing system.
Answer:
means

Question 2.
Main role of Media is to provide __________
Answer:
information

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 Media and Democracy

Question 3.
__________ means to fulfill one’s responsibilities properly.
Answer:
Morality

Question 4.
Advertising is different on the basis of their __________
Answer:
sales

Question 5.
To increase the ______________ the product is one of the main objectives of commercial advertisement.
Answer:
sales

Question 6.
__________ advertisements are in the favour of candidates and political parties.
Answer:
Commercial.

IV. True/False :

Question 1.
Various means to communicate information and ideas to a group of people is called media.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Press is known as the light-house of democracy.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Types of Advertisement-Commercial advertisement and Social-advertisement.
Answer:
True.

V. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Write name of the electronic means of Media?
(a) Newspaper
(b) Magazine
(c) Television.
Answer:
(c) Television.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 Media and Democracy

Question 2.
Name the main types of advertisements.
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Six.
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 3.
In which country Press is known as ligljt-house of Democracy?
(a) Afghanistan
(b) India
(c) China.
Answer:
(b) India.

VI. Activity:

Question 1.
Paste five pictures of some social advertisements on a chart paper and write 5 sentences each about their importance.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Media and Democracy Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of these is an electronic means of mass media?
(a) Television
(b) Computer
(c) Internet
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 Media and Democracy

Question 2.
The used in means of mass media keeps on changing all the times.
(a) Technology
(b) Language
(c) Form
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Technology.

Question 3.
Who invented the printing press?
(a) John Logie Berd
(b) Gutenberg.
(c) Graham Bell
(d) Henry Ford
Answer:
(b) Gutenberg.

Question 4.
Who invented Television?
(a) Graham Bell
(b) Gutenberg.
(c) John Logie Berd
(d) Henry Ford
Answer:
(c) John Logie Berd.

Question 5.
Different technologies used in mass media are quite.
(a) Cheap
(b) Expensive
(c) Ancient
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Expensive.

Question 6.
What is used in T.V. studio for mass media?
(a) Lights, Camera
(b) Machines of recording voice
(c) Satellite for transmission
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 7.
Too much is required to get modern techniques of means of mass media.
(a) Money
(b) Humans
(c) Technology
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Money.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 Media and Democracy

Question 8.
Which of these is the main source of income of T.V. Channels?
(a) Grant
(b) Advertisement
(c) Donation
(d) Government’s help.
Answer:
(b) Advertisement.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by media.
Answer:
Media is a means of contacting with public.

Question 2.
Give some examples of media?
Answer:
Newspapers, Radio, T.V., Cinema, Press, etc.

Question 3.
Which is the most important media?
Answer:
Press, which includes newspapers, magazines, books etc.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 Media and Democracy

Question 4.
What is the importance of press?
Answer:
It is the most important media of democracy. It includes newspapers, magazines, books etc.

It brings people face to face with national and international news. It also gives information about the ideology, organization and programme of different political organizations.

Question 5.
What is the role of political parties as media?
Answer:
The political parties with the help of meetings, manifestoes, educate the people about the functions and weaknesses of the govt. They inform the public about various social problems. Thus political parties create public opinion and play an important role in expressing the public opinion.

Question 6.
How does the election help in creating balanced public opinion?
Answer:
At the time of elections the political parties inform the people about the deeds and misdeeds of the govt. So the people after listening to the ideas of different parties make their balanced opinion.

Question 7.
Which are the states that have passed the right to information ordinance?
Answer:
First of all it was done in Rajasthan in 2000. After that it has been passed by other states like Maharashtra, Karnataka, Goa and Punjab states.

Question 8.
What is the importance of the right to information?
Answer:
It is an important weapon to check the unlawful act – of corrupt officials.

Question 9.
Write the contribution of advertisement in the process of human development.
Answer:
It has an important role to play as in the field of social welfare and social improvement. It induces and inspires the people to take up such activities which result in the welfare of the whole society.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 Media and Democracy

Question 10.
What is the relationship between the media and advertising?
Answer:
There is a deep relationship between the two. It gives information about the activities and events happening in the world. It alerts the public against the functions of the govt. It is the spirit of the democracy because it promotes this system. So media is also called the light house of democracy.

Media and Democracy PSEB 7th Class SST Notes

  • Media: When we contact people through different means, this is called media. For example newspaper, radio, television, cinema, advertisement etc.
  • Media and democracy: Media is the basis of democracy. It shows the inappropriate acts of the Govt, and helps to create healthy public opinion.
  • Press: Press (newspapers, magazines, books etc.) is the most important media. It is known as the light house of democracy.
  • Accountability of Media: It is hoped from the media that it should communicate right and true information to the public. The whole activities should be directed towards public welfare.
  • Right to information ordinance: It means people have the right to get information about such matters which directly or indirectly affect their lives.
  • Advertisement: It means to give information to the people about the whereabout of the commodity, its qualities and workability. The objective is to induce the demand and sales of the commodity.

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 21 Media and Democracy Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science Civics Chapter 20 State-Government

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB State-Government Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in 1-15 words.

Question 1.
Write two qualifications required for the members of legislative assembly.
Answer:

  1. He should be an Indian citizen.
  2. He should not be less than 25 years of age.

Question 2.
What qualifications are required for a Governor?
Answer:

  1. He should be an Indian citizen.
  2. He should not be less than 35 years of age.
  3. He should be mentally and physically sound.
  4. He should not be a member of a state or central legislature or should not be a govt, official.

Question 3.
Who can be the secretary of some department?
Answer:
The departmental secretary is the chief of a govt, department.

Question 4.
Name out, who is the chief minister and governor of your state?
Answer:
Captain Amrinder Singh is the Chief Minister and Mr. V.P. Singh Badnore is the Governor of our State.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

Question 5.
Who is the Executive head of a state?
Answer:
The Governor is the Executive head of a state.

II. Answer the following Questions in 50-60 words

Question 1.
Write in short the functions of the Governor.
Answer:
Although the Constitution gives vast powers to the Governor, yet he is not the real head of the state. He exercises all the powers on the advice of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers. If the Governor disagrees with the ministers, he places himself in an awkward position. They would resign and the Governor would be compelled to find an alternative ministry. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislative Assembly and not to the Governor.

But it must be noted that the Governor is something more than a mere nominal head or rubber stamp. He has the powers to advise, warn and encourage the Council of Ministers. He functions as the agent of the Centre. He acts as a link between the Centre and the State and is the watchdog of the Constitution.

He has certain functions which he can perform at his discretion.

  • He recommends to the President to declare an emergency in the State.
  • He becomes the real ruler of the State after the emergency is declared in the State.
  • He can appoint a person of his choice as the Chief Minister in case no party in the State Legislative Assembly wins majority of seats.
  • He can send back the bills passed by the State Legislature for reconsideration.
  • He can reserve certain bills for the approval of the President.

Question 2.
Write about the powers and functions of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the State government. He selects his ministers. The Governor must give approval to his list of ministers. The Chief Minister distributes portfolios among the ministers. He reorganizes the Council of Ministers from time to time. He can appoint new ministers and remove the inefficient ones. The Chief Minister is the link between the Governor and the Ministers. He is also the chief advisor to the Governor. The Chief Minister is the leader of the Gis party and also the leader of the State Legislature. The people of the State look upto him for his guidance and development of the State.

Thus, we see that the Chief Minister is the most important figure in the State. He enjoys the same position in the State as the Prime Minister at the Centre. So long as he enjoys the support of majority in the Vidhan Sabha, he has complete control over the State Government. He is the pivot round which the whole Council of Ministers and the total administration revolves.

Question 3.
Give in brief the election procedure of Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council.
Answer:
The State Legislative may consist of one or two chambers or houses. The lower and the more popular house is called the Vidhan Sabha or Legislative Assembly. It shall not consist of more than 500 and not less than 60 members. The upper chamber is called Vidhan Parishad or Legislative Council. The minimum number of members of a Vidhan Parishad shall be forty and the maximum number should not be more than one-third of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly of that state. 5/6 members of Legislative Council are elected by teachers, members of local bodies, MLAs and Graduates. The rest 1/6 members are nominated by the Governor.

Question 4.
Which civil officials (Bureaucracy) run the state administration?
Answer:
In the State there are education, irrigation, transportation, health, sanitation, etc. departments. While ministers are the chiefs of these departments but actually civil servants run these departments who are known as secretaries. They are appointed by Union Public Service Commission or State Public Service Commission. The secretary is the chief advisor of his concerned minister. In the state there is one head of all these secretaries known as Chief Secretary of the State. The office of the secretary is known as the secretariat.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

Question 5.
Give five reasons of Road accidents.
Answer:

  1. Fast speed.
  2. Overtaking.
  3. Not obeying traffic rules and signals.
  4. Drunken driving.
  5. Change of lines.
  6. Overloading.
  7. Low visibility due to rain, fog or snowfall etc.

These are some of the reasons of road accidents.

III. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
__________ is Governor of Punjab State.
Answer:
Shri V.P. Singh Badnore

Question 2.
The State Legislature of Punjab is __________
Answer:
unicameral

Question 3.
Money bill can be introduced in __________ house of State Legislature.
Answer:
lower

Question 4.
The assent of is essential for every type of bill.
Answer:
Governor

Question 5.
The speaker presides over the meeting of the house of State Legislature.
Answer:
lower

Question 6.
__________ is the head of the state.
Answer:
Governor

Question 7.
Tenure of Council of Ministers is __________
Answer:
5 years

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

Question 8.
__________ members of Council of Ministers is nominated by the Governor.
Answer:
All

Question 9.
Maximum number of members of legislative assemble is __________
Answer:
500

Question 10.
Minimum number of legislative council can __________
Answer:
60.

IV. True/False :

Question 1.
In India,we have one Centre Government, 28 State Governments and 8 Union Territories.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The Lower House of State Legislature is called Legislative Council.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
Punjab State Legislature is bicameral legislature.
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

Question 4.
Governor has main executive power with him.
Answer:
False.

Question 5.
The Right of Property is a fundamental right.
Answer:
False.

V. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
How many states are there in India?
(a) 21
(b) 25
(c) 28.
Answer:
(c) 28.

Question 2.
How many members are in Punjab Legislative Assembly?
(a) 117
(b) 60
(c) 105.
Answer:
(a) 117.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

Question 3.
By whom the Chief Minister is elected?
(a) By President
(b) By Governor
(c) By Speaker.
Answer:
(b) By Governor.

VI. Activities:

Question 1.
Paste the pictures of the Chief Minister and Governor of your State in your note-book and write five sentences about them.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Write the details of some road accident you have seen and write how you helped the injured persons.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide State-Government Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Member of Legislative Assembly is known as
(a) MLA
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Advocate General.
Answer:
(a) MLA.

Question 2.
Who is the leader of majority party in Legislative Assembly?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) MLA.
Answer:
(b) Chief Minister.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

Question 3.
__________ works as the representative of President in the state.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) Governor
(d) MLA.
Answer:
(c) Governor.

Question 4.
Which of these is the level of government?
(a) Local level
(b) State level
(c) Central level
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 5.
Which of these is the chief minister of Haryana?
(a) Manohar Lai Khattar
(b) Bhajan Lai
(c) Bansi Lai
(d) Om Prakash Chautala.
Answer:
(a) Manohar Ltd Khattar.

Question 6.
Who runs the state government?
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(6) Chief Minister.

Question 7.
Who asks questions to ministers in Legislative Assembly?
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) MLA
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) MLA.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

Question 8.
__________ is the head of the state.
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) President.
Answer:
(a) Governor.

Question 9.
Who appoints the Governor?
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) Parliament
(d) Election Commission.
Answer:
(b) Central Government.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many States are there in India?
Answer:
28.

Question 2.
What are the three organs of Central/State Govt.?
Answer:
Legislative, Executive and Judiciary.

Question 3.
What are the main functions of the three organs of the State Govt.?
Answer:

  1. Legislature makes laws.
  2. The executive executes these laws.
  3. The Judiciary punishes the violators.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

Question 4.
What is the difference between Union list and State list? What is the common list or Concurrent list?
Answer:
There is division of powers among the Centre and the States. All important subjects are in the Union list, like defence, external affairs, currency, railways. The important subjects for the state like, agriculture, land revenue, jails, local self Govts, are in the state list. There are certain common subjects which are written in the concurrent list.

Question 5.
When does a bill become law?
Answer:
After the bill is passed in the State Legislature it is sent to the Governor for signature. It becomes a law only after the Governor puts his signature.

Question 6.
Write the powers and functions of the State legislature.
Answer:

  1. It can make laws on subjects given in state list.
  2. The council of ministers is accountable to the state legislature and has to answer all the queries.
  3. It can even pass a no-confidence motion.
  4. If the Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly) passes a resolution by a majority of 2/3rd of its members, the Union Parliament can abolish or re-establish the Vidhan Parishad. Thus, the life of the Vidhan Parishad depends upon the will of the Vidhan Sabha.

Question 7.
What are the functions of the Speaker?
Answer:

  1. He is the Chairman of all meetings of the Legislative Assembly.
  2. He gives permission to present bills.
  3. He is responsible for discipline in the assembly.

Question 8.
How is the Governor of a state-appointed?
Answer:
The Governor is appointed by the President of India. The President can appoint the same person as Governor for more than one state. The President acts on the advice of the Prime Minister while appointing the Governors.

Question 9.
How is the Council of Ministers appointed as well as the Chief Minister?
Answer:
The Council of Ministers is appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of Chief Minister. The Chief Minister along with other ministers forms the Council of Ministers. Sometimes the Chief Minister heads the coalition govt, because no single party gets absolute majority. Sometimes such person becomes Chief Minister who is not a member of either house. In such a case, he has to become a member within six months.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

Question 10.
Write a commentary on the construction of Council of ministers and their process of functioning.
Answer:
Construction / Composition: Three types of ministers are there :

  1. Cabinet Ministers,
  2. Ministers of State,
  3. Deputy Ministers.

Functioning: The Council of Ministers work in coordination as a team. They are accountable to the State Legislature jointly as well as individually. It means even if a no-confidence motion is passed against one minister, the whole Council has to resign. If the Chief Minister resigns, it is considered as the resignation of the whole Council of Ministers.

Question 11.
Name five states of India having Bi-cameral legislature.
Answer:
Bihar, Jammu & Kashmir, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Uttar Pardesh.

Question 12.
Give the discretionary powers of a Governor.
Answer:
The Governor has certain powers which he can use at his own discretion.
(a) He recommends to the President to declare emergency in the state.
(b) He becomes a real ruler of the state after the emergency is declared in the state.
(c) He can appoint a person of his choice as a Chief Minister if no party in the state Legislative Assembly can win a majority of seats.
(d) He can send back the bills passed by the State Legislature for reconsideration.
(e) He can reserve certain bills for the final approval of the President.

Question 13.
What type of ministers are there in the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
Three types of ministers: Cabinet ministers who hold important portfolios, deputy ministers and the ministers of state who help the Cabinet ministers to perform their duties.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 State-Government

Question 14.
What do you know about the term of the State Legislature?
Answer:
1. Council of Ministers: The period is 5 years, but if the Chief Minister resigns or dies, then the Council of Ministers also comes to an end. The no-confidence motion in the legislature can also put an end to the period of Council of Ministers.

2. State Legislature: Its period is also of 5 years but it can be dissolved by the Governor early also. During emergency, its period can be increased by 6 months.
The Legislative Council has a period of 6 years, but after every 2 years, 1/3 of its members retire.

State-Government PSEB 7th Class SST Notes

  • State Legislature: The law-making institution in the state is called Legislature. It has two houses, but in some states, it has only one house. The lower house is known as the Legislative assembly and the upper house is known as the Legislative council.
  • Legislative Assembly: The membership can be a maximum of 500 and a minimum of 60, depending upon the population. To fight its elections, a person should be 25 or more in age and should not occupy an office of profit. Its period is 5 years.
  • Legislative Council: It is the upper and permanent house of Legislature. One-third of its members retire after every two years.
  • State Executive: It includes the governor, the chief minister and the council of ministers.
  • Governor: He is appointed by the President for 5 years. All the executive powers flow from the Governor but actually used by the chief minister.

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 20 State-Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Guide in Punjabi English Medium

PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Guide in Punjabi English Medium

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide | Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB in English Medium

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB | PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions

Punjab State Board Syllabus PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf in English Medium and Punjabi Medium are part of PSEB Solutions for Class 7.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Democracy – Representative Institutions

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science Civics Chapter 19 Democracy – Representative Institutions

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Democracy – Representative Institutions Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in 1-15 words.

Question 1.
What do mean by Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
When all the adult electorates of the country have the right to vote, it is called Universal Adult Franchise. Sex, religion, caste, property do not become basis for discrimination.

Question 2.
Explain two stages of election process in India.
Answer:
1. Declaration of election date. In our country, the President or the Governor brings the election ordinance and on this basis, the Election Commission decides the election date.

2. Election of Candidates. Different political parties declare their candidates for different electoral areas which they think are popular enough to win the elections. Sometimes independent candidates supported by the political parties also participate in the election process.

Question 3.
Which government is known as representative government?
Answer:
In democracy, the citizens elect their representatives who make the government. These representatives make the policies and frame the laws. Such government is known as representative government.

Question 4.
What is the importance of representation in Democracy?
Answer:
In democracy there is the rule of the public. The population is so big that all citizens cannot directly participate in the administration. So they choose their representatives who make the government and indirectly it is the public’s own rule.

Question 5.
Who is authorised to cast vote in India?«
Answer:
Every person who is 18 years or more has the right to vote in India.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Democracy - Representative Institutions

Question 6.
What is the difference between two party system and multiparty system?
Answer:
When there are two main political parties in a country then it is called two.party system. This type of system is in America and England. In multiparty system, there are many parties. India has this kind of system.

II. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
What is the importance of representative system?
Answer:
There is a great importance of political parties in representative democracy. Most experts think that democracy is not possible without political parties. Every political party tries to make its own government. These parties put forward their programmes and policies before the general public. The party that makes the government, executes its programmes and policies. The opposition parties criticise the government and thus control its activities. Thus opposition also has a great role in representative democracy.

Question 2.
What is a secret ballot paper? What is its importance?
Answer:
Secret ballot is the basis of democracy. People do not want any interference in their right to vote and elect representatives. Nobody wants to disclose his/her choice. So, secret ballot is done for electing representatives. In India, there is a principle of ‘one person one vote’. When some person casts his/her vote, he/she needn’t tell anybody in whose favour the vote has been cast. This is called secret ballot. Through secret ballot, the government can be changed without any biased idea or negative thinking.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the importance of opposition party in democracy.
Answer:
The political parties which are not in majority, they cannot make government. So, these parties play the role of opposition. In democracy, the opposition has a great role to play. It is said if the opposition parties become weak, the democratic system can come to an end. On the contrary, if the opposition is allowed to work properly then democracy becomes strong. Infact the opposition represents the weaknesses of the government. The opposition not only criticizes the government but also tries to build healthy public opinion. Without its criticism, the government can become non accountable and dictator. The opposition keeps a regular control over the government by controlling its activities. Thus, the opposition does not let the government violate the rights of the citizens.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Democracy - Representative Institutions

Question 4.
Write the functions of the political party.
Answer:
The following are the functions :
1. Contesting the elections and making the government: The most important function of political parties is to contest the elections. The objective is to run the administration. So, these parties choose their candidates and start their election campaign. They bring out their manifestoes and help to build public opinion. The party which wins the elections, runs the government and is accountable to the people. The parties which cannot make the government, play the role of healthy opposition.

2. To protect public interest: They criticize the policies of the government and give suggestions to improve the policies. So, the opposition protects the interests of the generahpublic.

Question 5.
Write any two functions of the opposition party.
Answer:
The opposition is the spirit of democracy. It stops dictatorship as well as controls the activities of the government. Its role in brief is as follows :
1. Control over ruling party: After victory in general elections the majority party makes the government. The electorates cannot control the government for five years. So, the opposition controls the activities of the government.

2. To stop the dictatorship: Sometimes the ruling party tries to act like a dictator because of its majority. The rights of citizens are violated. At such a situation, the opposition criticizes the government in and outside the Parliament.

3. Coordination in law-making Process: When the government brings ordinance to make laws, then the opposition argues on such ordinance and tries to see that whatever law is made, it is in favour of the general public and the country.

4. Passing the budget: Every year, the budget is presented by the government which give details about the income and expenditure of the government. It is an opportunity when the opposition may criticize the policies of the government. The opposition can compel the government to reduce the rates of taxation.

5. Control over executive: The opposition controls the government through no-confidence motion, attracting the attention motion, etc. The opposition parties keep the ministers on high alert by asking questions in the question hour.

Question 6.
What is the importance of election in democracy?
Answer:
Elections are the basis of democracy. The importance is as follows :

  • All citizens cannot run the government. So, they must elect representatives.
  • The pubic can change government through elections only.
  • The executive is made through the medium of elections.
  • Through elections, the administration becomes stable.

III. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
There is __________ democracy in India.
Answer:
Representative

Question 2.
An independent institution which conduct elections in our country is known as __________
Answer:
Election Commission

Question 3.
An adult of __________ years has right to vote in India.
Answer:
18

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Democracy - Representative Institutions

Question 4.
__________ and country has dual party system.
Answer:
U.S.A.

Question 5.
One citizen one vote is based on the principle of __________
Answer:
equality.

IV. True/False :

Question 1.
In India, now adulthood is attained by the age of 18 years.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
In India, there is two party system.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The opposition not merely criticise the government in Parliament and State Legislature but it also helps to formulate Public Opinion.
Answer:
True

V. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What is the age of adulthood in India?
(a) 18 years
(6) 24 years
(c) 22 years.
Answer:
(a) 18 years.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Democracy - Representative Institutions

Question 2.
For how many years Lok Sabha members are elected?
(a) Four years
(b) Two years
(c) Five years.
Answer:
(c) Five years.

Question 3.
When was Indian National Congress established?
(a) 1920
(b) 1885
(c) 1960.
Answer:
(b) 1885.

VI. Activities:

Question 1.
Write name of the President of the Party in power and opposition party in your state.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Write the name of M.LA. of your constituency and discuss with your teacher the development work done by him in your area.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Democracy – Representative Institutions Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In India right to vote is given to those who have age of __________ years or more.
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 24
(d) 25
Answer:
(a) 18.

Question 2.
In India, elections are conducted by
(a) Government
(b) Election Commission
(c) Supreme Court
(d) President.
Answer:
(c) Election Commission.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Democracy - Representative Institutions

Question 3.
There are members in the election commisSiOn.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(e) Four
(d) Five.
Answer:
(b) Three.

Question 4.
Election symbols to political parties are allotted by the __________
(a) Government
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission
(d) President.
Answer:
(c) Election Commission.

Question 5.
Which of these is a function of political parties?
(a) To contest elections
(b) To form government
(c) To create public opinion
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Democracy - Representative Institutions

Question 6.
Which of these is the function of the opposition party?
(a) Control over ruling party
(b) Control over executive
(c) Coordination in law making process
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a brief note on Election Commission.
Answer:
In India, to conduct elections there has been an independent institution called Election Commission. It is its job to conduct free and fair elections. Its chief is called Chief Election Commissioner who is appointed by the President of India. The Election Commission is responsible for conducting eleetions«at every level like the Parliament, state legislatures, local bodies, etc.

Question 2.
What do you mean by ‘one person one vote’?
Answer:
It means every person is equal in the eyes of law.

Question 3.
What is the strong basis of ‘Universal Adult Franchise’?
Answer:

  • This right is based upon political equality.
  • It is required for true democracy.
  • It makes the government accountable.

Question 4.
What do you mean by by-election?
Answer:
Sometimes when some member of Parliament or state legislature, dies or his seat falls vacant because of his resignation or some other reasons, then the election is conducted for that seat. It is called by-election.

Question 5.
How do the electorates cast their votes?
Answer:
During election time, election booths are maintained in each and every area. The returning officer is the controller of the elections. The names of adult citizens are entered in the register of electorates. The electorates turn by turn cast their votes by showing their identity cards. These days the voting is done through electronic voting machines.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Democracy - Representative Institutions

Question 6.
Write brief note on the following :
Answer:
1. Filing of nominations and taking back the names. The candidates approved by the political parties file their nominations. The returning officer examines these nominations and these are rejected or accepted. The accepted candidates can take back their nomination by fixed date. After that a final list of candidates is prepared and on this basis the voting machines and the election symbols are prepared.

2. Providing election symbols. The national parties had their fixed election symbols. The election symbols are very important for illiterate people because these help to identify the candidates.

3. Election manifestoes. Every political party introduces election manifestoes for victory in the elections. These include their programmes and promises which affect the electorates. The electorates come to know of the programmes and policies to be adopted after the victory of their candidates.

4. Election campaign. It is for the victory of the candidates. They print posters, take out processions, hold public meetings, indulge in door-to-door campaigning and even hold road shows to attract the electorates. It has to be stopped 48 horns before the elections.

5. Counting of votes and the results. At the predetermined hour, the counting is done in front of representatives of the candidates. The candidate who obtains the maximum votes is declared the winner.

Question 7.
What is a political party?
Answer:
The combination of people who have been together on the basis of a unified political ideology is called a political party. Any person can become a member of any political party.

Question 8.
What are the two types of political parties in India?
Answer:
In India there are’ two types of political parties. National parties and state parties. They work countrywide. If a political party has its influence in four or five states, then the Election Commission grants it the status of national party, e.g. Congress, BJP, BSP, CPI, etc. But some parties have influence in one or two states. These are called state parties like Shiromani Akali Dal in Punjab.

Question 9.
Which is the oldest political party in India?
Answer:
Indian National Congress which was established in 1885.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Democracy - Representative Institutions

Question 10.
What is joint government or what is coalition government?
Answer:
If a single party fails to get majority, then if makes government with the help and cooperation of other parties. Such a government is called coalition government. First time this government was made in 1977. From 1999 to 2004 also, there was a coalition of 13 political parties. Even these days also, the UPA government at the Centre is a coalition government. In coalition government, members of different parties get a chance to become ministers which is not possible under normal circumstances.

Question 11.
What is the difference between the general elections and mid-term elections?
Answer:
General elections are those which are conducted after five years but if the . legislature is prorogued and re-elections are conducted, it is called mid-term elections.

Question 12.
Give any two policies of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
The following are the main policies :

  1. The most important policy of this party is to reduce the rich-poor gap. In other words this party wants democratic socialism.
  2. According to this party, there should be no discrimination on the basis of religion. All religions should be respected equally.
  3. The party believes in agro-based industrialisation for the development of agriculture. The policy of this party is to develop the means of irrigation.
  4. To create means of employment in rural areas for removing poverty.
  5. To establish friendly relations with the foreign countries and to reduce conflicts with them amicably.
  6. To promote foreign trade for improving economic situation of India.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Democracy - Representative Institutions

Democracy – Representative Institutions PSEB 7th Class SST Notes

  • Modern Democracy: It is representative democracy. The reason is that modem states are large in size and their population is more. In such a situation, whole of the population cannot participate in the administr;. .ion directly. So it chooses representatives which run the government.
  • Right to Vote: It is the right of the people to cast their votes or to choose their representatives. In India ‘One Person One Vote’ principle gives way to ‘Universal Adult Franchise’. .
  • Secret Ballot: The modem elections are fought through secret ballot. It means
    that every citizen casts his vote by his own sweet will. He cannot be compelled to disclose his vote cast. ‘
  • Candidate: The person who fights election is called candidate. They are of two types—one belonging to a political party and the other having no relation with any political jaarty.
  • Election Process: The elections are conducted under the supervision of Election Commission. A special process is adopted for this which includes declaration of election date, filing nominations, examination of nominations, campaigning, voting, counting and declaration of results.
  • Election Symbol: Every political party has a special symbol. Even independent candidates are given symbols. These symbols are given by election commission and these help to identify the candidate in a better way.
  • Election Campaign: It is the most decisive part of the election process. The public meetings are conducted, manifestoes are declared, promises on posters are pasted everywhere and the public is given the information about the policies of the political parties if voted to power.
  • Election Manifesto: Every political party tries to tell the public what will it do if voted to power. This is called election manifesto.
  • Importance of free and fair election: The Election Commission ensures that the elections should be free and fair, only then the right candidates can be elected. The public gets a capable and popular govt, and the democracy becomes strong.
  • Political Parties: People coming together for the attainment of identical political objectives make political parties.
  • Functions of Political Parties: Making public opinion, educating the people politically, contesting the elections, framing the government, criticising the government, creating coordination among the public and government are the main functions of the political parties.
  • Single Party, Two Party and Multiparty System: In India there-is multiparty system because there are more than two parties contesting the elections.
  • Role of opposition: The opposition controls the activities of the government by criticising it and stops the government from becoming a dictator.

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science Civics Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Democracy and Equality Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in 1-15 words.

Question 1.
What do you understand by democracy?
Answer:
In democracy, the government belongs to the people, the government runs according to the will of the people. The rule of law prevails in this system. The rights and duties of each and everybody are well defined. The govt, works for the welfare of the people. Abraham Lincoln says, “It is the govt, of the people, for the people and by the people.”

Question 2.
What do you know about the ‘Rule of Law’?
Answer:
It means there are predetermined laws and by-laws which cannot be violated. The government runs according to these rules and these are written in the Constitution of India. The Constitution can be amended by a majority of people’s representatives. The government derives its powers from the Constitution.

Question 3.
What is the importance of Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Modem democracy is the representative democracy, also known as indirect democracy. The citizens elect their representatives, who run the government and make laws. These are elected through voting. If the government is incapable then it can be changed through the right to franchise. So this right plays a great role in modem democracy.

Question 4.
What is the importance of public opinion in democracy?
Answer:
Public opinion means the will of the people. The policies are formulated on the basis of public opinion. If the government chooses to ignore the public opinion, it loses the general elections and is easily changed.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 5.
In which country there is still ‘Direct Democracy’?
Answer:
In this system, all citizens directly participate in the law making process, as well as government making process. When the population increases, such kind of democracy becomes very difficult to adopt. Still, in Switzerland, there is the existence of direct democracy.

II. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
Write short note on the emergence of democracy.
Answer:
The beginning of democracy was in Athens, city of Ancient Greece. The democracy there is almost 2500 years old. It is said that in Athens, the general public would hold meetings many times in a year. Here, the decisions were taken directly by the people for running the administration. Such democracy is known as direct democracy. At that time it was possible because the population was less and people could gather at one place and take decisions. Direct democracy was possible also because the women, the foreigners and the slaves had no right to participate in the administration. But today direct democracy is not possible.

Question 2.
Where and when democracy emerged?
Answer:
First of all, it was established in Greece in Athens city. The democracy there is almost 2500 years old. The people of Athens would gather many times in a single year and hold meetings. In these meetings they would take decisions about how to run the management of the state.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 3.
Write name of four types of democracy on the basis of classification.
Answer:
1. Presidential type of Government: In this, the President is directly elected by the people. He is the real ruler of the state. So, the President and the ministers are not from a single political party. Such type of presidential form of government is in America. The President here is more powerful than the Indian President.

2. Parliamentary type of Government: In this, the Parliament is the most powerful organ. The President is just for the name only. The real power is in the hands of Prime Minister. All members of the council of ministers are taken from the Parliament or legislatures. So, there remains a co-ordination between legislatures and executives.

3. Unitary type of Government: In it, there is division of powers between the state and the centre. But centre is more powerful than the states. The Indian Constitution is federal in nature. But in times of emergency, the powers of central government increase.

4. Federal Government: Here the Constitution is written and rigid. There is division of power among centre and the states. Every state has its own government. In India also, there is federal government.

Question 4.
Write about any two features of the Democracy.
Answer:
1. Enlightened Citizens: In democracy, all the citizens are aware about their rights and duties. They are matured enough to run the administration efficiently.

2. Matured Leadership: Leaders in democracy are also mature because matured leaders are very much necessary to run democratic system efficiently.

Question 5.
Write your views about Economic and Social Equality.
Answer:
1. Social equality: It means all people are equal in society. Nobody can be discriminated on the basis of place of birth, colour of skin, religion, caste and sex. All people are useful organs of the society. No person can be given special status.

2. Economic Equality: It means there should be no difference between the rich and the poor. No class of the society should be exploited. It also means that means of production should not be limited in the hands of a few people. All should have equal opportunities of earning employment.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 6.
Why democracy is the most popular form of government in modern times?
Answer:
Today most countries in the world have democratic governments. Such government is welfare-oriented and gives special importance to human rights and freedom. All are treated as equal in the eyes of law. The following are the main features that make democracy very popular :
1. Equality: There is no rich, poor, religious or caste division in democracy. All are equal in the eyes of law.

2. Freedom: People are free from every aspect. They can do any business, can live in any area, can express their ideas freely. But in dictatorship, people have to abide by the ruling of the dictator.

3. The process of making decisions: The decision-making process is in the hands of the people. People choose their representatives and send them to legislatures. The majority party makes the government and runs the administration. The govt, works as per the wishes of general public. If the government does not work properly then it can be changed.

4. Active participation by citizens: All electorates can fight elections or cast then- votes according to their wishes. All are equal participants in the administration of the government but in dictatorship it does not happen.

5. To remove altercations: The ideas of others are respected. Nobody is compelled to adopt anything. The ruling party considers the suggestions of opposition parties as important and the opposition party also co-operates with the ruling party. So, ideological differences are cleared amicably.

6. Growth of human dignity: Freedom, equality and fraternity are the main principles of democracy. Here there is political, social as well as economic freedom and equality. The right to employment is available to everybody. The economically weaker sections of the society are given reservations in jobs. So, these steps increase the human dignity.

III. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
In India head of the country is elected for a fixed time (five years) because of this India is called ______
Answer:
Democratic Republic

Question 2.
The nominal executive head of Central Govt, is and heads of State Govt’s are ______
Answer:
President, Governors

Question 3.
Democracy originated in city of ______
Answer:
Athens

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 4.
______ is the country where there is Direct Democracy.
Answer:
Switzerland

Question 5.
The basic principle of Democracy is ______ and ______
Answer:
Rule of law, Accountability.

IV. True/False :

Question 1.
India is a democratic Republic.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Switzerland is the only country where there is Direct Democracy.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
To cast vote is a Universal Adult Franchise to only some persons.
Answer:
False.

Question 4.
In a Democratic country Rule of Law prevails.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 5.
Modern Democracy has emerged firstly in France.
Answer:
False.

V. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Democracy is a government , “of the people, by the people and for the people.” Who spoke these words.
(a) Abrahim Lincoln
(b) Laski
(c) David Fasten.
Answer:
(a) Abrahim Lincoln.

Question 2.
Which is the most popular form of government in modern times?
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Democracy
(c) Military Rule.
Answer:
(b) Democracy

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 3.
How many types of heads of state in parliamentary democratic countries?
(a) Four
(6) Five
(c) Two.
Answer:
(c) Two.

VI. Activities:

Question 1.
Prepare a list of 10 Democratic Countries.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Discuss about the success of Indian Democracy with your teacher.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Democracy and Equality Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
India is a ______ country.
(a) Democratic
(b) Monarchical
(c) Dictatorship
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Democratic.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 2.
In a democracy, power lies in the hands of the
(a) Government
(6) People
(c) Leaders
(d) President.
Answer:
(b) People.

Question 3.
Democracy exists :
(а) In 70 Countries
(б) In Europe only
(c) In the majority countries of the world
(d) In the whole world.
Answer:
(c) In the majority countries of the world.

Question 4.
Which of these is a feature of democracy?
(а) Franchise based on property, qualification
(b) Franchise based on educational qualification
(c) Landlords are the voters
(d) Universal Adult Franchise.
Answer:
(d) Universal Adult Franchise.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 5.
In ______ democracy, public itself manages the administration.
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Referendum
(d) Monarchical.
Answer:
(a) Direct.

Question 6.
______ is more important in democracy.
(a) Election
(b) Referendum
(c) Franchise based on property
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Election.

Question 7.
______ is the real executive of government.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) People.
Answer:
(a) President.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write two features of democracy.
Answer:

  1. The administration is in the hands of people.
  2. The policy decisions are taken according to the wishes of the public.

Question 2.
Write the types of democracy.
Answer:

  1. Direct Democracy.
  2. Indirect or Representative Democracy.

Question 3.
What is the difference between direct and indirect democracies?
Answer:
In direct democracies, people themselves take decisions. But in Indirect democracies, people take decisions through their elected representatives.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 4.
Write the names of chiefs of the country in a democratic setup.
Answer:
The are two types of chiefs given ahead :

  1. The real chief,
  2. Chief in name only or Nominal Chief.

Like in our country, chief in name is President of the country and Governors of the states. And the real chief is Prime Minister of the country and Chief Minister of the state.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Republic?
Answer:
Where the head of the state is elected by the people it is called republic.

Question 6.
Why do we call India a democratic republic?
Answer:
Because in India, the head of the state is elected by people.

Question 7.
What is democratic monarchy?
Answer:
Here the head of the state, is queen or king, which is an inherited status not an elected one. In England such type of democracy exists.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 8.
Write the basic principle of democracy.
Answer:
The basic principle of democracy is based upon right of equahty and freedom.

Question 9.
What is Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Where all adults have the right to vote without any discrimination.

Question 10.
Write the types of democratic government on the basis of legislature and executive.
Answer:

  1. Presidential form
  2. Parliamentary form.

Question 11.
Write the types of democratic government on the basis of division of powers.
Answer:
Centralised government, federal government.

Question 12.
“Democracy is not just a type but a life in experiment.” Explain.
Answer:
In democracy, there is no discrimination, no rich-poor divide, no female-male divide. Every person can develop his or her personality. Success is not granted on the basis of caste or place of birth. So, Democracy is not just a type of government but a life in experiment.

Question 13.
What do you mean by dictatorial government?
Answer:
The authority is in the hands of a single person or a few persons in such government. The elections are not conducted and the government is not run according to the will of general public. The power is concentrated in the hands of dictator. His word is law. The people have to work according to the will of dictator.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality

Question 14.
Write about the emergence of the principle of equality.
Answer:
Freedom and eqpality are the bases of democracy. These beliefs developed due to England revolution and French Revolution in 17th century and 18th century respectively. In the beginning, the right to vote was available only to rich people but because of the need of time all adults were given the right to vote. This is called the Universal Adult Franchise. It is based on the law of equahty.

In 19th and 20th century, the equahty right of democracy become more prominent. This right was limited earlier to political area only. But now’in economic and social areas, the right to equahty is being emphasized. The people have been given many freedoms also. In this, the freedom of expression is most important.

Question 15.
What do you mean by Parliamentary Democracy?
Answer:
The Parhamentary Democracy is considered the best government but there are certain conditions to make the democracy successful which are as follows :
1. Alert citizens: Public opinion is the basis of democracy. So, the citizens must be very alert. It means that pubhc should be politically mature. Only then they can keep a check on their representatives.

2. Capable leaders: If the government is run by educated leadership, the government will be capable. Only wise voters can elect such leadership.

3. Disciplined citizens and political parties: People need to be disciplined and only then they can criticize the wrong policies of the government and can compel the government to work properly. People must respect each other’s ideas. When the political ideology is different, different political parties come into existence. The representatives of the people are elected through elections. So, the political parties should also be very alert and disciplined.

4. Social and economic equality: There is no difference between the rich and poor. The democracy cannot succeed if there are differences of caste, religion and language.

5. Tolerance: In democracy, there is a rule of majority. So, the ruling party must be tolerant. The opposition should also adopt the policy of tolerance which is a prominent feature of democracy.

Democracy and Equality PSEB 7th Class SST Notes

  • Democracy: It means rule of the general public. The power to administer lies with the public.
  • Freedom and Equality: These are two pillars of democracy.
  • Lawful Administration: It means where the administration runs according to the predetermined Constitution. The chief of the state cannot apply his will over the public and the public reserves the right to question his activities.
  • Direct Democracy: Here the public itself manages the administration which is not possible in this age.
    Indirect Democracy: Here the administration is run by people’s representatives. So the election process is more important in indirect democracy.
  • Democracy and Political Parties: Political parties control the Govt. The opposition criticises the government and controls its activities.
  • Referendum: Its role is major for the success of democracy.
  • Elections: Special place of elections in democracy. People change the incapable government through elections.
  • Adult Franchise: All adults have the right to vote and it is based on the law of equality.
  • Dictatorship: The power of administration is concentrated in a single hand or in a few hands. Elections are not held in such countries and discretionary powers are exercised by the dictator.

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 18 Democracy and Equality Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Guide in Punjabi English Medium

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Guide in Punjabi English Medium

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide | Health and Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB in English Medium

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB | PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions

Physical Education 7th Class PSEB Guide Rules of Games

Punjab State Board Syllabus PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Guide Pdf in English Medium and Punjabi Medium are part of PSEB Solutions for Class 7.