Class 7 – Page 47 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

November 2, 2021November 1, 2021 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 1 Human Body

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Human Body Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you know about the human body?
Answer:
The human body is made up of muscles, bones, and many other small and large organs of the body like- heart, lungs, liver, kidneys, etc. When we see the kabaddi players before participating in-game and they warm up and enter into the sports field. Their attractive body is much impressed to us and we attend to be fit like kabaddi players. The players have to face many difficulties to build their bodies. It is very essential to be fit and have an attractive look. The player’s body fitness depends on its strength and power. Their achievement in sports depends on their fitness and strength to make them healthy. A sportsman must have knowledge of his body if the sportsman knows all parts of the body. He will be able to perform in sports well. If he does not know the various parts of the body and their working then he may get hurt while doing exercise and he may not be able to develop his body fitness.

Question 2.
In which categories can a human body be divided to understand or knowledge it?
Answer:

Body Posture
Body Function.

Question 3.
How many bones are there in a human body?
Answer:
The human body has 206 bones of different shapes and sizes which make the frame of the body by joining together.

Question 4.
What are the main organs of blood-circulation system?
Answer:
Heart, Arteries, veins and tissues are the main organs of the blood circulation system.

Question 5.
What do you know about sensory organs?
Answer:
Sensory organs are:
eyes, ears, tongue, nose, skin. We get knowledge about our surrounding and the changes of environment through them. We can see any object with our eyes. We can smell any thing with our nose. We can hear any thing with our ears. Tongue tells about different kind of tastes of eatables. Skin makes us to feel the touch of anything and realization of summer and winter.

Question 6.
What is the importance of excretory system in human body?
Answer:
The food we take eat only a small part of it is retained in our body and the rest of it is excreted from the body in the form of waste material when we work the energy is consumed and the result of many waste material are produce in the body. The waste material are necessary to excrete from out body. If these waste material are remain in our body may causes many diseases. Excretory system expell out the waste product out of the body. The skin and the kidney are the main part of the system. They expell the waste product in the form of urine and sweat.

Question 7.
What are the main functions of human body?
Answer:
1. Protection:
Our body consist of many soft organs like : heart, lungs and brain, which are pretected by the skeleton system like : bones of our skull protect our brain and bones of our rib cage protect our lungs and heart also.

2. Shape:
The body structure gives shape to our body. If this body structure is not present then shape of our body is irregular.

3. Movement:
All movements are possible due to the body posture. The muscles are attached to the frame of the body. The contraction and expansion of muscles causes movement in the bones and this result body to do the movement.

4. Mineral Store House:
The bones of our body act as a mineral store house. In bones they decay great quantity of calcium and phosphorus
stored in our body, which causes growth and development in human being. We should take a balanced diet in our food. If any of these elements is not sufficient in our body, the bones use to supply these.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Human Body Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In which categories can a human body be divided to understand or knowledge of:
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five.
Answer:
(A) Two

Question 2.
How many bones are there in human?
(A) 206
(B) 220
(C) 300
(D) 250.
Answer:
(A) 206

Question 3.
Main functions of human body :
(A) Protection
(B) Shape
(C) Movement
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
Organs of Blood Circulation :
(A) Heart
(B) Arteries
(C) Veins
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 5.
Main system of Body.
(A) Muscular System
(B) Circulatory System
(C) Respiratory System
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which material is used to make the human body?
Answer:
Muscles, Bones and some small and big orgAnswer:

Question 2.
Write the three body orgAnswer:
Answer:
Heart
Lungs
kidneys

Question 3.
Who protect our soft organs?
Answer:
Bones and ribs.

Question 4.
Which body organ is protected by the skull?
Answer:
It protects the brain.

Question 5.
Who provide shape to our body?
Answer:
Skeletal system provide shape to our body.

Question 6.
What happen if bones are not present in our body?
Answer:
It becomes big flash of skin.

Question 7.
How we get the movements to our body?
Answer:
Muscles create the movements in our body.

Question 8.
Who stored the minerals?
Answer:
Bones stored the minerals in our body.

Question 9.
Which are the important systems in our body?
Answer:
Circulatory system, Respiratory system.

Question 10.
Which system help us in running and walking?
Answer: Muscular System.

Question 11.
Write the main organs of respiratory system.
Answer:
Nose, Wind pipe, Lungs.

Question 12.
Which system provides energy to our body?
Answer:
Digestive System.

Question 13.
Write the main organs of excretory system.
Answer:
Skin and Kidneys.

Question 14.
Write the function of the nervous system.
Answer:
Messages of Brain provides to the body organs and activities of body organs provide to brain.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What steps should be taken by a sportsman to make our body beautiful and attractive?
Answer:
They should work hard to make his body fit and fine.

Question 2.
What did the sportsman knows for their progress?
Answer:
Players should know the various parts of the body, their work and efficiency of the body.

Question 3.
Which mineral is stored in bones?
Answer:
Calcium and Phosphorus.

Question 4.
From which we get the energy?
Answer:
We get the energy from our food. The food we intake after so many chemical changes we get the energy. The digestive system tells us how the food is absorbed and how we can get the energy from it.

Question 5.
How the human body was?
Answer:
Human body is like a machine and different system like its parts. To run the machine properly all parts should be work together. If any system of our body is disturbed. The effect can be effect on the whole body and a man can suffer. It is important to get the knowledge about our body to keep healthy.

Question 6.
What is the difference between veins and arteries?
Answer:
The arteries carries the pure blood from heart to all organs. Veins carries impure blood from body organs to heart.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why we should have the knowledge about different body organs?
Answer:
Our body system consist of many system and they combine to do different works. It is important that all the system work properly. If any of the system stops working properly then our body is effected and causes many problems.
1. Muscular System:
By this system we know about muscles. Due to muscles we are able to run, walk etc. Our body also works properly due to these muscles.

2. Circulatory System:
The blood keeps circulating in our body continuously the main organs of this system is heart, arteries, veins and tissues. The heart always remains beating and through the veins circulate the blood to the whole body. We can see blue arteries on the upper parts of our hands which takes blood towards the heart.

3. Respiratory System (Breathing System):
To our human body oxygen always require to live. We take O₂ through breathing and exhale CO₂. Nose, wind pipes and lungs are the main parts of this organ.

4. Digestive System:
We need energy to work. This energy is derived from food. The food we intake becomes very useful to our body after chemical process. We come to know how the food is digested and how the energy produced by it.

5. Excretory System:
The food we eat, only a small part of it is retained in our body and at rest of it is excreted from body in the shape of waste materials. In the similar way, when we work, the energy is consumed as a result many waste materials are produced in the form of sweat and urine.

6. Sense Organs:
Eyes, nose, ears, tongue and skin are the main parts of this system. We get knowledge about our surrounding and the change of environment through them.

7. Nervous System:
Brain controls all the activities of human body. There is a net of nervous system spread in the whole body that send message of’brain to different parts of the body and vice versa.

Question 2.
Write the advantages of different body systems?
Answer:
All the body systems are vital for body but the blood circulation and breathing system among are very important. Any one system of these two, if stops working even for a short while, a man can die. Continuous flow of blood and O₂ in the body is very necessary to keep and human being alive. Human body is like a machine and different system of the body are like its parts. To make the machine run properly, it is important that all its parts should work properly. If any system of our body is disrupted, its effect can be felt on the whole body and the main becomes ill.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 7 The Medieval India

November 23, 2021November 1, 2021 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 7 The Medieval India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 7 The Medieval India

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Medieval India Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer these questions :

Question 1.
What were the terms used for Indian subcontinent in the history of India?
Answer:
Two names:
Hindustan and
Bharatvarsha.

Question 2.
In how many parts Indian history is divided by the historians?
Answer:
The historians divided Indian history into three parts i.e. Ancient, Medieval and Modern.

Question 3.
How many types are sources of Indian history?
Answer:
There are two historical sources of Indian history :
1. Archaeological sources: These include ancient monuments, temples, inscriptions, coins, utensils, weapons, ornaments and pictures.
(a) Ancient monuments and buildings: In these, buildings, temples, mosques and castles are included. In temples, there are Khujraho, Bhubneshwar, Konark, etc. In Mosques, Jama Masjid and Moti Masjid come and in castles, Jiasalmer and Jaipur are the main castles.
(b) Inscriptions: These tell us about the main events, kings, dynasties, their administration period, art etc.
(c) Coins: We have extracted many coins belonging to the medieval period. These give us’information of historical events and important personalities. Some coins even throw light on the economic condition of this period.
(d) Paintings: With paintings, we came to know about the art of this period,

2. Literary sources: It includes autobiographies, biographies, chronicles, the description of kings and dynasties, other documents, etc. The autobiographies of Jahangir and Babar give us information of different administrators. The documents throw light on the treaties entered into by rulers.

Question 4.
How are accounts of foreign travellers an important source of history?
Answer:
Many Muslim and European travellers travelled to India during the Medieval period. They wrote their accounts on India.

Iban-batuta wrote ‘Rihla’ which gives us information about the administration of Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq.
Al-Beruni’s India related account is also very important.
Abdul Razzaq travelled to Vijaynagara and wrote about’the situation there.
Similarly, the European travellers wrote many accounts about their journeys to India which throw light on India.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The century is considered as century of change.
Answer:
18th

Question 2.
The Chinese used the term _________ for India.
Answer:
Tien Chu

Question 3.
Monuments, inscriptions and coins are _________ sources while autobiographies and biographies are sources.
Answer:
Archaeological, Literary

Question 4.
Tansen was a famous _________
Answer:
musician.

III. True or False:

Question 1.
The medieval period was divided into two parts—Early medieval period and Later medieval period.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Many social customs and traditions were not came in existence.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
During the medieval period many special reforms performed for the development of trade and commerce.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
During the medieval period there was not a lot of interaction between Hindus and Muslims.
Answer:
False.

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
Show the extent of Afghanistan, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, India and Bangladesh on the outline map of Indian subcontinent.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of the MBD Map Master.

Question 2.
Paste the pictures of four main monuments of medieval India in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Medieval India Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of these is a source of Indian history?
(a) Monuments
(b) Inscriptions
(c) Chronicles
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
Who wrote Rihia?
(a) Abdul Razzaq
(b) Iban-Battuta
(C) Al-Beruni
(d) Francois Bernier.
Answer:
(b) Iban-Battuta.

Question 3.
Who among the following travelled Vijayanagara?
(a) Abdul Razzaq
(b) Al-Beruni
(c) Iban- Battuta
(d) Francois Bernier.
Answer:
(a) Abdul Razzaq.

Question 4.
Which of these is a part of Indian history?
(a) Ancient
(b) Medieval
(e) Modern
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 5.
Who among the following is known as intrisic traveller?
(a) Abdul Razzaq
(b) Francois Bernier
(c) Iban-Battuta
(d) Al-Beruni.
Answer:
(c) Iban-Battuta.

Question 6.
The period between 8th and 18th centilry is called
(a) Ancient period
(b) Medieval period
(c) Modern period
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Medieval period.

Question 7.
India was called Aryavarta in _________ period.
(a) Modern
(b) Medieval
(c) Vedic
(d) Mid way.
Answer:
(c) Vedic.

Question 8.
Term ‘Tien Chu’ is used for which country in Chinese?
(a) Punjab
(b) India
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Burma.
Answer:
(b) India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In how many ages can the history of a country be divided?
Answer:
Three ages: Ancient Period, Medieval Period and Modern Period.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the Medieval period?
Answer:
The period between ancient period and modern period is known as the medieval period.

Question 3.
Which period is called the medieval period in India?
Answer:
The period between 8th century and 18th century.

Question 4.
Why is the 8th century called a century of transformation?
Answer:
The 8th century is called a century of transformation because many social, political, economic, cultural and religious changes took place in this century.

Question 5.
In which period has India been named ‘Aryavarta’? What is its literal meaning?
Answer:
India has been named Aryavarta during Vedic period. Its literal meaning is country of the Aryans;

Question 6.
What are the two parts in which medieval period can be sub-divided?
Answer:

From 8th century to 13th century: This period is called an early medieval period.
From 13th century to 18th century: This period is called later medieval period.

Question 7.
Name the famous musician of Akbar’s court.
Answer:
Tansen.

Question 8.
What were the different names given to India in different periods?
Answer:

During Vedic period it was called ‘Aryavarta’.
During the period of Mahabharata and Ramayana, its name was ‘Bharatvarsha’.
Iranians called it ‘Hindu’ and Greeks called it ‘Indus’.
Bible refers India as ‘Hoddu’.
When Buddhism was adopted in China, Chinese called it Tien-Chu.
After the India travels of Hieun-tsang, it was called ‘Yin-Tu’.

Question 9.
When is considered the end of Medieval period in India?
Answer:
The decline of Mughal Empire and rise of the British Empire is considered as the end of Medieval period. It happened in the middle of eighteenth century.

Question 10.
“Music is an important source for getting historical information”. Describe.
Answer:
There is no doubt that music is an important source of historical information, about the Mughal period. The Mughal rulers except Aurangzeb were music lovers. So, there was great development of music during this period. Akbar had given a patronage to many musicians in his court. Tansen was the most famous musician. The Hindu and the Muslim culture got mixed with the help of the medium of music during this period.

Question 11.
Which countries comprised the Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
Six countries:

Pakistan
Afghanistan
Nepal
Bhutan
Bangladesh and
India.

Question 12.
Discuss the broad historical trends during the medieval period.
Answer:
Following were the main trends:

During this period, Muslims came to India. They started mixing up with Hindus and as a result, a combined culture developed.
Many languages came into existence which we speak even today. Hindi and Urdu were the main languages.
Many social traditions and religious beliefs took root in this period.
During this period, India established deep mutual relations with the outside world. Trade relations with other countries were established. Customs and traditions of other cultures were adopted.
In India, the Bhakti Movement and Sufi movement were propagated. Thus, Hindus and Muslims had the chance of understanding each other’s religious principles.
Trade and commerce were very much developed.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

November 23, 2021November 1, 2021 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Fibre to Fabric Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 24)

Question 1.
Name any two natural fibres obtained from plants.
Answer:
Natural Fibres obtained from Plants : (1) Cotton, (2) Bamboo.

Question 2.
Name any two natural fibres obtained from animals.
Answer:
Natural fibres obtained from animals : (1) wool, (2) silk.

Question 3.
Name any three animals which provide us wool.
Answer:
Animals that provide wool : (1) sheep, (2) yak, (3) goat.

Question 4.
Why do some animals have a thick coat of hairs ?
Answer:
The hair of some animals is dense because the wool-giving sheep that are found in cold regions have a dense coat of hair over their body, so that they can keep their body warm in winter. Hair traps a lot of air. This air is a poor conductor of heat and prevents the body heat to escape to the surrounding environment and thus keeps the sheep warm.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 29)

Question 1.
What difference in smell you notice on burning silk thread, thread and wool ?
Answer:
The process of burning of silk gives a smell like burning of meat. When cotton thread bums, it gives smell like burning of paper but the burning of wool gives strong smell like burning of hair.

Question 2.
What type of ash is formed in the above activity ?
Answer:
The ash left after burning of cotton thread is of grey colour. The burning of silk thread and woollen thread produces ash like hollow bead of black colour.

Question 3.
Does the smell of burning of silk thread is same as the smell of burning woollen thread ?
Answer:
No. The smell of burning of silk thread is just like burning of hair while the smell of burning of wool thread is like cooking meat.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Fibre to Fabric Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Wool is obtained from the …………….. of sheep, goat and yak.
Answer:
hairs

(ii) Long hair on the body protect animals from ………………
Answer:
cold

(iii) Removal of fleece from the skin of animal is called ………………
Answer:
shearing

(iv) Rearing of silkworm is called ………………….
Answer:
sericulture

(v) The process of unwinding the filaments from the boiled cocoons, is called ………….. .
Answer:
reeling

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’

Column ‘B’

1. Scouring

2. Sericulture

3. Protein

4. Mulberry leaves

5. Lohi

(a) Food of silkworm

(b) Sheeps found in Rajasthan and Punjab

(d) Rearing of silkworms

(e) Cleaning sheared fleece

Answer:

Column ‘A’

Column ‘B’

1. Scouring

2. Sericulture

3. Protein

4. Mulberry leaves

5. Lohi

(e) Cleaning sheared fleece

(d) Rearing of silkworms

(a) Food of silkworm

(b) Sheep found in Rajasthan and Punjab

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The fibre which is not produced by animals:
(a) Angora Wool
(b) Wool
(c) Jute
(d) Silk
Answer:
(c) Jute.

Question (ii)
Wool is commonly obtained from:
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Yak
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Sheep.

Question (iii)
Washing of sheared hair is called:
(a) Scouring
(b) Sorting
(c) Shearing
(d) Dyeing
Answer:
(a) Scouring.

Question (iv)
Wool is chemically:
(a) Fat
(b) Protein
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Fat.

Question (v)
The animal that does not yield wool is:
(a) Alpaca
(b) Woolly dog
(c) Camel
(d) Goat
Answer:
(b) Woolly dog.

4. Write True or False:

(i) Air is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer:
True

(ii) Air trapped in long hair does not allow body heat to escape from body.
Answer:
True

(iii) In Tibet and Ladakh, wool is obtained from yak.
Answer:
False

(iv) Rearing of silk moths is called apiculture.
Answer:
True

(v) The cover around the body of caterpillar is called cocoon.
Answer:
False

(vi) Tassar silk and moonga silk are produced by silk moth who have been feeding on non-mulberry trees.
Answer:
False

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Names any two plant fibres and animal fibres.
Answer:
Fibres obtained from plants : (1) Husk fibre, (2) Cotton.
Fibres obtained from animals : (1) Wool, (2) Silk.

Question (ii)
What is sericulture ?
Answer:
Sericulture. Cultivation of silkworms to obtain silk is called sericulture.

Question (iii)
Name the common animals who yield fleece.
Answer:
(1) Yak, (2) Sheep, (3) Camel (4) Goat

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What do you understand by Angora and Kashmere wool ?
Answer:
North Angora wool. It is obtained from goats found in mountainous places like Jammu and Kashmir.
Kashmere Wool. Kashmere wool is woven into pashmina shawls.

Question (ii)
Write the states where the following breeds of sheep are found : Lohi, Bakharwal, Nali and Marwari.
Answer:

Types of Sheep	State where they are found
Lohi	Punjab, Rajasthan
Bakharwal	Jammu, Kashmir
Nali	Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
Marwari	Gujarat

Question (iii)
Write all the steps involved in processing fibres into wool.
Answer:
The Different Stages of Rise to the North

Shearing or cutting
Scouring
Sorting
Combing
Dyeing
Spinning or weaving.

Question (iv)
Why do some animals have a thick coat of hair ?
Answer:
The hair of some animals is dense because the wool-giving sheep that are found in cold regions have a dense coat of hair over their body, so that they can keep their body warm in winter.
Hair traps a lot of air. This air is a poor conductor of heat and prevents the body heat from circulating in the external environment which keeps the sheep warm.

Question (v)
How is silkmoth reared ?
Answer:
Rearing of Silkworm. The female silkworm lays hundreds of eggs at a time. These eggs are carefully collected on cloth strips or paper and kept in healthy conditions, at suitable heat and humidity conditions. The eggs are kept warm to a suitable temperature to allow the larvae to hatch. The larvae, called caterpillars or silkworms, are housed on mulberry leaves.

They eat these leaves day and night and increase in size considerably. Then these are kept in clean bamboo trays with fresh mulberry leaves. After 25-30 days, they stop eating and the caterpillars are moved to bamboo chambers to make cocoons. So the twigs are placed in a tray, with which the cocoons clrng. Caterpillar or silkworms form cocoons in which silkworm develop.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Write all the steps in processing silk from cocoons.
Answer:
The process of making silk from the cocoon. The cocoon has a continuous growth of insect inside it. Silk thread is obtained from the cocoon of the silkworm. Silk threads are used to make silk fabrics. These soft silk threads can be as strong as steel wires. There are many types of silkworms that look different from each other.

The different textures (rough, soft, shiny etc.) of silks like tusser silk, mooga silk, consa silk etc. are obtained from different types of insect cocoons. The most common silkworm is the mulberry silkworm. The silk obtained from this worm is very soft, shiny and flexible. It can be painted in beautiful colours. Sericulture or rearing of silkworms is a very old occupation in India. India produces a lot of silk commercially.

Question (ii)
Draw a labeled diagram and explain the life cycle silkmoth.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric 1
Life Cycle of Silkmoth. The life cycle of the silkworm is summarized in the following steps:
Step 1. The female silkworm lays eggs on the leaves of mulberry.

Step 2. The eggs give birth to larvae that take on an insect-like structure over the next two weeks called a caterpillar or silkworm.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Fibre to Fabric Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The wool is obtained from the …………….. of sheep, goat and yak.
Answer:
skin

(ii) Long hair on the body of animals protect them from ……………… .
Answer:
cold

(iii) The process of yielding wool from the skin of animal is known as ………………….. .
Answer:
shearing

(iv) Rearing silk worm is called ………………. .
Answer:
sericulture

(v) The process of removing threads from the boiled cocoon is called ………………….. .
Answer:
reeling.

2. Match the Column I with Column II:

Column I

Column II

1. Scouring

2. Mulberry leaves

3. Yak Cocoon

(a) Yields silk fibres

(b) Wool yielding animal

(c) Food of silk worm.

(d) Reeling

(e) Cleaning sheared skin.

Answer:

Column I

Column II

1. Scouring

2. Mulberry leaves

3. Yak

4. Cocoon

(e) Cleaning sheared skin.

(b) Wool yielding animal

(a) Yields silk fibres.

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
We get from yak:
(a) silk
(b) cotton
(c) wool
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) wool.

Question (ii)
For making Pashmina shawls, wool is obtained from:
(a) Yak
(b) Camel
(c) Sheep
(d) Angora goat.
Answer:
(d) Angora goat.

Question (iii)
In South America wool is obtained:
(a) Llama and Angora goat
(b) Llama and yak
(c) Sheep and Llama
(d) Llama and Alpaca.
Answer:
(d) Llama and Alpaca.

Question (iv)
Bakharwal breed of sheep is found:
(a) In Punjab
(b) In Rajasthan
(c) In Haryana
(d) In Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:
(d) In Jammu and Kashmir.

Question (v)
The sheep’s hair are mostly cut in:
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Both Summer & Winter
(d) Neither very hot or cold season.
Answer:
(a) Summer.

Question (vi)
Process of taking out silk yarn from cocoons:
(a) Rearing silk worms
(b) Sericulture
(c) Reeling
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Reeling.

Question (vii)
Lohi breed of sheep is found in:
(a) Punjab and Rajasthan
(b) Punjab and Himachal
(c) Punjab and Gujarat
(d) Punjab and Jammu.
Answer:
(a) Punjab and Rajasthan.

4. State True or False:

(i) Pashmina Shawl is made from llama and alpaca wool.
Answer:
True

(ii) Wool is chemically a carbohydrate.
Answer:
False

(iii) Warm silk is obtained from leaf-eating insects.
Answer:
True

(iv) The wool obtained from the Marwari sheep (breed of Gujarat) is very soft.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do hair help animals to keep them warm ?
Answer:
Hair trap a lot of air. As air is bad conductor of heat so it does not allow heat of the body to go to the surroundings and therefore, keeps the animal warm.

Question 2.
From where wool is derived ?
Answer:
Hairy skin of animals.

Question 3.
Name wool yielding animals.
Answer:
Yak, Sheep, Goat, Lama, Alpaca.

Question 4.
What is pashmina ?
Answer:
Pashmina is soft wool obtained from Kashmiri goat.

Question 5.
In which part of India is Yak wool commonly seen ?
Answer:
Tibet and Ladakh.

Question 6.
Which animal is commonly reared for wool ?
Answer:
Sheep.

Question 7.
What is called woollen thread ?
Answer:
Fiber.

Question 8.
In winter, which food is given to sheep ?
Answer:
Leaves, grains, dry fodder.

Question 9.
Which instrument is used for shearing ?
Answer:
Machine similar to those used by barbers.

Question 10.
In which season, fleece is sheared off ?
Answer:
Summer or hot season.

Question 11.
Name some Indian breed of sheep.
Answer:
Lohi, Rampur bushair, Nali, Marwari, Bakharwal, Patanwad.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down the different steps for obtaining wool from sheep.
Answer:
Steps for obtaining wool
Shearing, scouring, sorting, drying, dyeing, spinning and weaving.

Question 2.
In which part of India, sheep are reared for wool ?
Answer:
Hills in Kashmir, Himachal, Uttranchal, Arunachal, Sikkim and plains of Haryana. Punjab, Rajasthan and Gujrat.

Question 3.
Why does shearing not hurt the sheep ?
Answer:
Hair grow on uppermost layer of the skin, which consists of dead cells. So sheep do not feel pain of the time of shearing.

Question 4.
Why is fleece scoured ?
Answer:
Fleece is scoured to remove dirt, grease and dust from it. This process is known as scouring

Question 5.
What happens when silk fibre and artificial silk thread is burned ?
Answer:
Burning of silk fibres produces no smell and no residue is left behind.
While burning of artificial silk thread produces pungent smell and a fluffy residue formed.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in brief the process of obtaining silk ?
Answer:
Silk is obtained from silk moth which are reared and their cocoons are collected to get silk fibre. The process involves two steps:
(i) Rearing silk worms.
(ii) Processing silk.

(i) Rearing silk worms. The eggs layed by female silk moth are stored carefully on strips of cloth or paper and kept under hygienic conditions and suitable temperature and humidity.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric 2
Sometimes eggs are warmed to hatch larvae and these larvae are fed on fresh leaves of mulberry tree. These larvae called caterpillars or silkworms eat day and night to grow into enormous sizes.

These larvae are kept in clean bamboo trays along with freshly chopped mulberry leaves. After 20 to 25 days, the caterpillass or silkworms stop eating and move to a tiny chamber of bamboo tray to spin cocoons. Inside cocoon, develops the silk moth.

(ii) Processing silk. A pile of cocoons is collected and kept under the sun. or boiled or exposed to steam to separate out the silk fibres. These silk fibres are reeled and then spun into silk threads which are woven to give silk cloth.

Question 2.
Describe in brief the steps involved in obtaining wool from sheep.
Answer:
Processing of silk involves the following steps:
(i) Boiling. First cocoons are first boiled in hot water then treated in ovens to kill larvae inside. If in case of larvae a not killed, they are allowed to grow. They will break the cocoon and thereby reducing the length of the silk fibre. The hot water softens the silk gum to the unwinding silk fibre as one continuous thread.

(ii) Reeling. It is the process of taking out the thread from the cocoon. Reeling is done with the help of special machines.

(iii) Throwing. In this step raw silk is twisted to produce thrown silk. It prevents the silk from splittings into individual fibres.

(iv) Deying. Thrown silk is then dyed for making coloured fabrics. Dyed Silk fibres are spun into silk threads, which are waven into silk clothes.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

November 23, 2021November 1, 2021 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB India in the Eighteenth Century Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Name any four regional powers which rose in the 18th century.
Answer:
South Indian Powers. Marathas, Nizam of Hyderabad, Hyder Ali, and Tipu Sultan from Mysore.
North Indian powers. Bengal, Avadh, Bundelkhand, Mathura, Punjab.

Question 2.
Give an account of the rise of Avadh in the 18th century.
Answer:
Saadat Khan. He was the founder of the free state of Avadh. He became the Subedar of Avadh in 1722 A.D. under the Mughal emperor Muhammad Shah. He improved the economic conditions of the state. He gave special attention to agriculture. In 1739 A.D. he died.

Safdarjung: After the death of Saadat Khan, Safdarjung became the king. In 1754 A.D., he won the areas of Rohelkhand. In 1775 A.D. he died.

Shujauddaula and Asaf-ud-Daulah. After this, Shujauddaula and Asaf-ud-Daulah became the rulers of Avadh. The English Governor-General Warren Hastings compelled Asaf-ud-Daulah to enter into treaty of Faizabad. He even compelled Asaf-ud-Daulah to increase the amount payable to the English army. In 1797 A.D. Asaf-ud-Daulah died.

Question 3.
How did the Sikhs rise to power in the 18th century?
Answer:
In the 18th century, there was a long struggle between Mughals and the Sikhs. This struggle made the Sikhs very powerful.
Sikhs Under Shri Guru Gobind Singh Ji. The Mughals were very cruel towards Sikhs. Shri Guru Gobind Singh Ji decided to make Sikhs brave warriors. So, to fulfil this objective he founded ‘Khalsa Panth’ in 1699 A.D. After this, there were many battles between the Sikhs and the Muslims. These include the first and second battles of Anandpur Sahib, the battles of Chamkaur Sahib and Khidrana. In the battle of Chamkaur Sahib, two elder sons of Guruji Sahibzada Ajit Singh and Sahibzada Jujhar Singh became martyrs. In 1705 A.D., Guruji defeated Mughals in the battle of Khidrana/Muktsar. In 1708 A.D., Guruji left for his heavenly abode. Before this, he gave the leadership of Sikhs to Banda Bahadur.

Sikhs Under Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur started his victories in 1709 A.D. from Kaithal. After this, he won Samana, Kapuri and Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur decided to take revenge of the martyrdom of sons of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji. So, he won Jalalabad, Karnal, Panipat, Amritsar, Gurdaspur, Kalanaur and Pathankot. In this way he established the Sikh’s state in Punjab. He made Lohgarh his capital. In 1715 A.D., the Mughals captured Banda Bahadur and his companions. They were sent to Delhi where on 19th June, 1716, they were put to death.

Cruelty on Sikhs by Punjab Governors
1. The Mughal emperor Farrukhsiyar appointed Abdus Samad Khan the governor of Punjab in 1716 A.D. He killed numerous Sikhs during his administration period. So, Mughal emperor gave him the designation of the ‘Sword of the State’.

2. In 1726 A.D., the son of Abdus Samad Khan, Zakaria Khan was appointed the Punjab Governor. He adopted a strong policy to crush the Sikhs. He killed Sikhs in great number. In his administration personalities like Bhai Mani Singh, Mehtab Singh, Bhai Taru Singh and Haqiqat Rai were put to death. But he didn’t succeed in crushing the Sikhs.

3. In 1745 A.D., the son of Zakaria Khan, Yahiya Khan became the governor of Punjab. He also continued with the crushing policy. He attacked the Sikhs in Kahnowal (Gurdaspur). During this attack, seven thousand Sikhs were killed and 3000. Sikhs were made prisoners. This incident is known as ‘First Holocaust’.

4. In 1748 A.D., Mir Mannu became the governor of Punjab. He also killed Sikhs in great number. But still the Sikhs organised themselves as a powerful identity.

The invasion of Ahmad Shah Abdali and the establishment of an independent Sikh state in Punjab. Ahmad Shah Abdali was the ruler of Afghanistan. He attacked the Punjab eight times. In 1765, the Sikhs captured Lahore and declared themselves free. But because of lack of some leaders they organised themselves into small groups. These groups were called ‘Misls’. These were 12 in number. Every Misl had a chief, but at the end of 18th century the chief of Shukarchakiya Misl Maharaja Ranjit Singh organised the Misls and established a free state in Punjab.

Question 4.
How did Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan make Mysore powerful?
Answer:
Hyder Ali. Hyder Ali became the ruler of Mysore in 1761 A.D. He made the administration of Mysore very efficient. He respected all the religions. He appointed many Hindus on high posts. He fought many battles with Marathas, Nizam of Hyderabad, rulers of Karnataka and with the English. There were two battles between English and Hyder Ali known as Anglo-Mysore battles. In the first, Anglo-Mysore battle Hyder Ali defeated the English very badly. In 1780 A.D., there was second battle. The battle was continuing when he died. –

Tipu Sultan. After the death of Hyder Ah, his son Tipu Sultan became the ruler of Mysore. He was also a capable ruler like his father. He was also known as the Tiger of Mysore’. He was a great patriot. He wanted to end the tyrannical rule of the English. So, he modernized his army. In 1799 A.D., in the fourth battle of Mysore with the English, he was killed.

Question 5.
Discuss the role of Shivaji in establishing the Maratha Empire.
Answer:
Shivaji was a great patriot. He wanted to establish a free Hindu state by finishing the tyrannical Mughal rule.
Initial Victories .

The first victory was of the^Toran Fort (1646 A.D.). In 1648 he occupied Sinhgarh, Purandhar, and Konkan forts.
He killed Jawli chief Chand Rao and occupied Jawli also.
The increasing power of Shivaji made the Sultan of Bijapur a worried person. So, he sent his general Afzal Khan to kill Shivaji. Afzal Khan wanted to kill Shivaji but he himself was killed attempting this. At last, Shivaji and the Sultan of Bijapur entered into a treaty.

Battle with Mughals. Now Shivaji started attacking the Mughal-occupied areas. Aurangzeb sent his maternal uncle Shaista Khan to control Shivaji but he made him run away from Pune. Now, Aurangzeb sent Raja Jai Singh and Prince Muazzam. Jai Singh snatched many forts from Shivaji and compelled him to enter into a treaty. Shivaji reached Agra where he was imprisoned, but he ran away and reached successfully to Maharashtra. In 1674, he attained the title of ‘Chhatrapati’. He continued his battles with Mughals and won the areas of Jinji, Vellore and Tanjore. In 1680, he died.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Muhammad Shah ruled from ________
Answer:
1719 A.D. to 1748 A.D.

Question 2.
Murshid Quli Khan was the ________ of Bengal and Orissa.
Answer:
Subedar

Question 3.
Hyder Ali was the ruler of ________
Answer:
Mysore

Question 4.
Saadat Khan became the Subedar of Avadh in ________ AD.
Answer:
1722

Question 5.
Shivaji was the founder of ________ empire.
Answer:
Maratha

Question 6.
Gokul was the leader of ________
Answer:
Jats

Question 7.
Banda Singh Bahadur‘s original name was
Answer:
Lachhman Das.

III. Write True or False for each statement:

Question 1.
Farrukhsiyar became the ruler of Delhi.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Murshid Quli Khan was the Subedar of Avadh.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Nizam-ul-Mulk founded the state of Hyderabad.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Shivaji was succeeded by his brother Raja Ram.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Balaji Rao became third Peshwa in 1740 A.D.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Badhan Singh was the successor of Gokul.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Banda Singh Bahadur established a Sikh state in Punjab.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Bahadur Shah	A. died in 1739 A.D.
2. Shuja-ud-din	B. on 20 April 1627.
3. Hyder Ah	C. died in 1712 A.D.
4. Tipu Sultan was known	D. as the Tiger of Mysore.
5. Shivaji was born	E. died in 1782 A.D.
6. Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji	F. was on 22 Dec. 1666 A.D.
7. Khalsa Panth	G. was founded on 13 April 1699 A.D.

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Bahadur Shah	C. died in 1712 A.D.
2. Shuja ud din	A. died in 1739 A.D.
3. Hyder Ah	E. died in 1782 A.D.
4. Tipu Sultan was known	D. as the Tiger of Mysore.
5. Shivaji was born	B. on 20 April 1627.
6. Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji	F. was on 22 Dec. 1666 A.D.
7. Khalsa Panth	G. was founded on 13 April 1699 A.D.

V. Activity :

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, mark the extents of kingdoms that declared themselves independent during the Mughal empire in the 18th century.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of Indian Map.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide India in the Eighteenth Century Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When was the third battle of Panipat fought?
(a) 1750 A.D.
(b) 1755 A.D.
(c) 1761 A.D.
(d) 1766 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1761 A.D.

Question 2.
Why was Mughal Empire declined?
(a) Depleted financial and military resources
(b) Increasing power of nobles
(c) Peasant and Zamindari rebellions
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
When did Nadir Shah attack and capture city of Delhi?
(a) 1739 A.D.
(b) 1741 A.D.
(c) 1737 A.D.
(d) 1743 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1739 A.D.

Question 4.
How many times Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded India from 1748 till 1761 A.D.?
(a) Two
(b) Five
(c) Seven
(d) Four.
Answer:
(b) Five.

Question 5.
Which of these groups of nobles was there in Mughal court?
(a) Irani’s
(b) Turani’s
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both a and b.

Question 6.
Which of these emperors was killed by Mughal nobles?
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Farrukh Siyar
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Ahmad Shah.
Answer:
(b) Farrukh Siyar.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who were latter Mughals?
Answer:
The Mughals who ruled after the death of Aurangzeb were called latter Mughals. They were so powerless and incapable that they could not control the far off states of the Mughal Empire.

Question 2.
Write one reason for the rise of independent states in India in 18th century.
Answer:
In 1707, A.D., the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb died and in the period of his weak successors many powers established their independent states.

Question 3.
How did Murshid Quli Khan increase his power?
Answer:
Murshid Quli Khan increased his power by annexing Bihar and Orissa to his state.

Question 4.
Write the names of two successors of Bengal ruler Murshid Quli Khan.
Answer:
Two successful successors were Shuja-ud-din and Aliwardi Khan.

Question 5.
Where and when did Alivardi Khan rule?
Answer:
Alivardi Khan ruled over Bengal from 1740 to 1756 A.D.

Question 6.
Who established the free state of Hyderabad and when?
Answer:
This state was founded by Nizam-ul-mulq-Asifjah in 1724 A.D.

Question 7.
Write two works of Hyderabad Nizam.
Answer:

He established law and order and brought important improvements in the administration.
He treated Hindus and Muslims equally.

Question 8.
Give any one reason for the decline of Hyderabad state.
Answer:
In 1748 the powerful ruler Nizam Asifjah died. His successors proved incapable and the state declined.

Question 9.
Who was the founder of the independent state of Awadh? What was his designation?
Answer:
The founder was Saadat Khan, he had the designation of Buhran-ul-Mulk.

Question 10.
Write some important works of Saadat Khan, the independent ruler of Awadh.
Answer:
Saadat Khan introduced a new land policy that greatly benefited the farmers.

Question 11.
Who was the successor of Saadat Khan? (the ruler of Avadh)? Write his one success.
Answer:
The successor of Saadat Khan was his nephew and son-in-law Safadar Jung. He annexed Allahabad to his state.

Question 12.
Write the names of two famous foreign invaders of 18th century. When did they invade India?
Answer:
The two famous foreign invaders were Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali. Nadir Shah invaded India in 1739 A.D. and Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded India five times from 1748 to 1758 A.D.

Question 13.
Which ruler ended the Misl rule in Punjab? To which Misl did he belong?
Answer:
Maharaja Ranjit Singh ended the rule of Misls and established a powerful state of Punjab. He belonged to Shukarchakia Misl.

Question 14.
Write names of two free rulers of Mysore state.
Answer:
Two free rulers were Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan.

Question 15.
Who were Peshwas? Who was the very first Peshwa?
Answer:
The prime minister in Maratha kingdom was called Peshwa. Under Sahuji, Peshwas became the real rulers of the Maratha Kingdom. The very first Peshwa was Balaji Vishwanath.

Question 16.
When did Balaji Vishwanath become Peshwa? Write his one achievement.
Answer:
He became Peshwa in 1713 A.D. He got Shahuji’s mother released from the Mughal custody.

Question 17.
Write two successors of Balaji Vishwanath.
Answer:
Baji Rao I and Balaji Baji Rao.

Question 18.
Write one weakness of Marathas.
Answer:
The Maratha sardars were jealous of each other. Because of this hatred their state declined.

Question 19.
Write any one success of Baji Rao I?
Answer:
Peshwa Baji Rao I won many states and expanded the Maratha state upto Delhi.

Question 20.
Write the names of Jat leaders who struggled against Mughal&
Answer:
The main Jat leaders were Gokul, Raja Ram and Churaman.

Question 21.
When was Shivaji born?
Answer:
In 1627 A.D.

Question 22.
Who was Shaista Khan?
Answer:
He was the maternal uncle of Aurangzeb. He was a capable army general. Aurangzeb appointed him the Governor of South.

Question 23.
Write about the Treaty of Purandhar.
Answer:
The Treaty of Purandhar took place between Mughal general Raja Jai Singh and Shivaji. According to this treaty, Shivaji had to accept the subordination of the Mughals and gave 23 forts to Mughals.

Question 24.
What was the name of Bijapur official who was sent against Shivaji?
Answer:
His name was Afzal Khan. He was sent by the Sultan of Bijapur.

Question 25.
When did Shivaji ascend the throne? What designation did he attain?
Answer:
Shivaji sat on the throne in 1674 arid he assumed the designation of ‘Chhatrapati’.

Question 26.
Who was the faujdar of Sirhind at the time of Banda Bahadur and in which battle did Banda Bahadur kill him?
Answer:
At that time Wazir Khan was the faujdar of Sirhind. Banda Bahadur killed him in the battle of Chapparchiri.

Question 27.
How did Shivaji kill Afzal Khan?
Answer:
Afzal Khan wanted to kill Shivaji by fraud. So, he invited Shivaji to meet alone. He also told him that he wanted to enter into a treaty with Shivaji, but Shivaji came to know of his conspiracy. He wore iron cover under his clothes and took a dagger with him. Both of them embraced each other. Afzal Khan tried to put a knife into Shivaji’s stomach but Shivaji quickly put the dagger into his tummy and killed Afzal Khan.

Question 28.
Describe the confrontation of Shivaji with Shaista Khan.
Answer:
The Mughal emperor Aurangzeb wanted to demolish the increasing power of Shivaji. He appointed Shaista Khan, his maternal uncle as the Governor of South. Shaista Khan captured many Maratha forts within 2-3 years and also captured Pune. Shaista Khan had to spend some time in Pune because of rainy season. Shivaji took this opportunity and entered Pune in the form of the marriage party along with 400 soldiers. Towards midnight they attacked the residence of Shaista Khan. In this attack Shaista Khan’s son and his 40 soldiers were killed. With this win Shivaji’s honour increased far and wide.

Question 29.
Who were the parties in the 3rd battle of Panipat and what were its results?
Answer:
The 3rd battle of Panipat took place between Ahmad Shah Abdali and Marathas in 1761 A.D. Ahmad Shah Abdali emerged victorious.

Question 30.
What was the main reason for 3rd battle of Panipat?
Answer:
Marathas had expanded their empire upto Punjab in North India. The ruler of Afghanisthan, Ahmad Shah Abdali, considered Punjab a part of his ruled area. So, to punish Marathas he fought against them in the battlefield of Panipat.

Question 31.
Write any one reason for the defeat of Marathas in the third battle of Panipat.
Answer:
In the battle, the military system of Marathas was not good. Abdali was a skilled general. He made a strategy because of which the Marathas could not get any help from the South side. So, they were defeated.

Question 32.
Write one result of third battle of Panipat.
Answer:
The Maratha power ended because most of their soldiers and generals were killed.

Question 33.
When did Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao die?
Answer:
He died in 1761 A.D. The main reason behind his death-was the Maratha defeat in the 3rd battle of Panipat.

Question 34.
Describe in brief about the latter Mughals.
Answer:
The incapable successors of Aurangzeb are called latter Mughals. The description is as follows :
1. Bahadur Shah I (1707-1712): He ruled for six years but could not control Marathas and Sikhs. He died in 1712.

2. Jahandar Shah: The son of Bahadur Shah I, Jahandar Shah sat on the throne. He ruled for few months. During his administration the Sayyed brothers Hussain Ali and Abdul became very powerful. They wanted to make Jahandar Shah a puppet. When they couldn’t succeed in their efforts, they killed Jahandar Shah.

3. Farrukhsiyar (1713-1719): After Jahandar’s death his nephew Farrukhsiyar sat on the throne. He was a king in name only. The real authority was in the hands of Sayyed brothers, Hussain Ali and Abdul. In 1719 A.D. the Sayyed brothers killed him also.

4. Muhammed Shah: Mohammed Shah was another famous ruler. He ruled from 1719-1748 A.D. During his period the influnce of Sayyed brothers had decreased. But he did not try to organise his empire. So, the powerful governors of different parts of the country established their independent states.

5. Bahadur Shah Zafar: He was the last Mughal emperor who was thrown out by the English and the Mughal empire ended.

Question 35.
Describe the rise and fall of Bengal state.
Answer:
Bengal state was a rich state of Mughal empire. Its governor was Murshid Quli Khan. After the death of Aurangzeb, Murshid Quli Khan established a free state in Bengal. The development of Bengal under these rulers is as follows :
1. Murshid Quli Khan: He was the founder of Bengal state. He increased his power by combining Bihar and Orissa between 1714 and 1718 A.D.

2. Other rulers: Other famous rulers were Shuja-ud-din (1727-1739), Sarfaraz (1739) and Alivardi Khan (1740-1756). All these rulers established law and order in the state. They worked for the development of agriculture, trade and industry. Thus, the Bengal state became very rich.

3. Decline of the state: The Bengal rulers worked for the development of the state. But didn’t pay attention to the defence of the state. As a result, the Bengal state declined.

Question 36.
Describe the rise and fall of Hyderabad state.
Or
Describe the main successes of Nizam-ul-Mulk, the ruler of Hyderabad.
Answer:
Hyderabad was a South Indian state under the Mughal Empire. In 1724 A.D., Nizam-ul-Mulk Asifjah founded an independent state. He showed his faithfulness, towards the then Mughal ruler, Mohammed Shah but it was just on the surface.

Successes of Asifjah. Asifjah was a successful ruler. He established law and order in his state. He treated his Hindu subjects well. He made his army strong and defended his state from powerful Marathas. He died in 1748.

Decline of the state : The successors of Asifjalf were weak and incapable. So, they couldn’t preserve their freedom for a long time.

Question 37.
Write a note on Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was born on 27th October 1670 in Poonch sector (Jammu). His real name was Lachhman Das. He came in contact with Guru Gobind Singh Ji in Deccan. He was impressed by Guruji and called himself “Guru ka Baiida”. Guruji gave him the designation of “Bahadur”. Thus, he was called Banda Bahadur. On the order of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, he came to Punjab and led the Sikhs. He took revenge from Governor of Sirhind Wazir Khan because he was responsible for the death of the sons of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. In fact, he tried to win all those places where the rulers had tried to torture Guruji. But in the end, he was caught. On 19th June 1716, he was put to death in Delhi. His martyrdom is written in golden words in the history of Punjab.

Question 38.
Write about the rebellion of Jats and Rajputs during the period of Aurangzeb.
Answer:
The period of Aurangzeb was very disturbed. The main reason for the rebellions was the wrong and cruel policies of Aurangzeb.

The Jats: The Jats turned rebels in 1669 A.D. They killed the Mughal governor. The emperor suppressed them very friendly but the Jats remained uncontrollable.
Rajputs: Aurangzeb made Rajput his detractors because of his orthodox and strict policies. As a result, Aurangzeb had to fight a long battle with the Rajputs of Mewar and Marwar. Veer Durga Das of Marwar damaged the Mughal army by indulging in Guirrella warfare.

Question 39.
Describe the administrative .system of Marathas (Shivaji).
Answer:
Shivaji had founded a free Maratha state. He founded an efficient administrative system in his state.
The main features were as given ahead:

Raja: The chief of the whole administration was Raja. He was called ‘Chhatrapati’. The Raja had many rights. He could do any work as per his sweet will. He has appointed a council of eight ministers (Asthapradhan).
Asthapradhan: It was a council of eight ministers. The highest minister of Asthapradhan was known as ‘Peshwa’.
Land arrangement: Shivaji made a new land arrangement to give salaries to soldiers as well as other expenses. He got the whole land measured. There were two taxes known as Chauth and Sardeshmukhi. Chauth was charged to defend the people from the Mughals.
Judicial system: Shivaji was a justice lover. He established panchayats to deliver justice at the village level.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

November 23, 2021November 1, 2021 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Physical and Chemical Changes Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 59)

Question 1.
Mention whether the cutting of paper is a reversible or irreversible change.
Answer:
Cutting a paper is not a reversible change because the pieces cannot be reconnected to form the original piece. So this is an irreversible change

Question 2.
Is the cutting of paper a physical or a chemical change?
Answer:
Cutting of paper into pieces changes its shape, but no new material is formed. Therefore, it is a physical change.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 59)

Question 1.
Can you recover chalk from dust?
Answer:
Yes we can get chalk from chalk powder by making a paste of chalk powder. Then giving it a shape of chalk and allowing it to become dry.

Question 2.
Does chalk powder dissolve in water?
Answer:
No, chalk powder is insoluble in water.

Question 3.
What is the nature of above change. Is it physical or chemical?
Answer:
Chalk powder can be made into chalk, meaning you can get the basic substance (chalk powder) from it which has same properties as before but has changed in shape and size. It can be beaten to make chalk powder again. So this is a physical change only.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 60)

Question 1.
Ice melts into water with ……………….. in temperature.
Answer:
Ice melts into water with increase in temperature.

Question 2.
Water changes to ice with …………………. in temperature.
Answer:
Water changes to ice with decrease in temperature.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 61)

Question 1.
What is Evaporation ?
Answer:
Evaporation. This is the process by which a liquid is heated to a certain temperature and get converted into its gaseous form.

Question 2.
Define Condensation.
Answer:
Condensation. This is the process by which the vapours are cooled and converted into a liquid. This process is the opposite of evaporation process.
In the same way if the water vapours are cooled, then they are converted into water (liquid form).

Question 3.
Water changes into gaseous form with ………………… in temperature.
Answer:
Water changes into gaseous form with increase in temperature.

Question 4.
Water changes from gaseous state to liquid state with ………………. of temperature.
Answer:
Water changes from gaseous state to liquid state with decrease of temperature.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 61)

Question 1.
Which colour do you notice on heating the free end of hacksaw blade ?
Answer:
When heated, the free of the blade becomes red and when it is removed from the fire it is cooled and returns to its original colour.

Question 2.
Is the physical change reversible or irreversible ?
Answer:
Physical change is a reversible change because no new substances having new properties are seen to be formed in the process and on reversing the circumstances it returns to its original state.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 62)

Question 1.
Define a physical change.
Answer:
Physical change. It is a temporary change in which the physical properties of an object change such as change in colour, size, length, etc.

Question 2.
Is a new substance formed during a physical change ?
Answer:
During physical change no new substance with new properties is formed.

Question 3.
Explain any two examples of physical change from your surroundings.
Answer:
Examples of physical change:

Melting of wax,
Melting of ice,
Freezing of water into ice,
Dissolving sugar in water.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 64)

Question 1.
What type of metal oxide is formed on burning of magnesium ribbon ?
Answer:
Magnesium combines with oxygen of the air to form Magnesium ribbons. Magnesium oxide is a basic oxide.

Question 2.
What is the colour of magnesium oxide formed on heating magnesium ?
Answer:
Magnesium ribbon during combustion form white coulred powder of magnesium oxide.

Question 3.
Which paper do you use to check acidic or basic nature of any solution ?
Answer:
To test the nature of magnesium oxide, red litmus paper is used, which turns blue because the solution is basic (alkaline) in nature.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 65)

Question 1.
What is the common name of copper sulphate ?
Answer:
The common name for Copper sulphate is Blue vitriol.

Question 2.
Write the colour and chemical formula of ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
The chemical formula of Iron sulphate is FeSO₄ and colour of iron sulphate is green.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 66)

Question 1.
What is the formula of lime water ?
Answer:
Chemical formula of lime water is Ca(OH)₂.

Question 2.
How the presence of CO₂ gas can be detected ?
Answer:
When Carbon dioxide gas is passed through freshly prepared lime water, then lime water turns milky due to the formation of calcium carbonate.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 1

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 67)

Question 1.
What is a chemical change ?
Answer:
Chemical change. A change in which one or more new substances are formed which differ in structure and properties from the original reacting substances, is called chemical change.

Question 2.
Write two observations to see chemical change.
Answer:

Formation of a substance having new properties.
Change in chemical composition.

Question 3.
What is lime water ?
Answer:
Lime water a solution of Calcium hydroxide.

Question 4.
What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water ?
Answer:
When carbon dioxide passes through lime water, calcium carbonate is formed due to which its colour becomes milky.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 2

Question 5.
Name the gas evolved when acetic acid (vinegar) reacts with baking soda.
Answer:
When vinegar (Acetic acid) reacts with baking soda, it produces carbon dioxide gas.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 3

Question 6.
What is the colour and formula of copper sulphate ?
Answer:
Colour of Copper sulphate. Blue Chemical formula of Copper sulphate. CuSO₄

Question 7.
Name some compounds formed as a result of chemical reactions.
Answer:
Names of some compounds formed as a result of chemical reactions-

Calcium carbonate,
Sodium chloride,
Sodium nitrate,
Copper Sulphate,
Water,
Carbon dioxide,
Magnesium oxide.

Question 8.
In Chapter 5, you neutralised an acid with a base. Is neutralisation a chemical change ?
Answer:
Neutralisation is a chemical change because acids and alkalis combine to form salt and water as products. The composition and properties of salts are different from acid nor alkali, i.e. a new substance with new properties is formed. From this it is clear that neutralisation is a chemical change.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 69)

Question 1.
What is end product in the process of crystallisation ?
Answer:
In the process of crystallization only clear crystals are formed. No new substance having new composition and new properties is formed. So this is a physical change.

Question 2.
When will you stop dissolving copper sulphate powder to hot water ?
Answer:
Continue to dissolve the Copper Sulphate powder in hot water till it is not possible to dissolve more of Copper sulphate. This state is called the saturation state. When more copper sulphate cannot be dissolved, then leave the solution to cool.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Physical and Chemical Changes Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) A changes in which only physical properties of a substance are changed, is a ……………….
change.
Answer:
Physical

(ii) Changes that lead to formation of new substance are called ………………. changes.
Answer:
Chemical Change

(iii) Fossil fuels produce …………………. gas on burning.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

(iv) When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, it turns ……………… .
Answer:
Milky White

(v) ……………….. is the method for the prevention of rusting of iron objects.
Answer:
Coating

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Physical change	(a) Galvanization
(ii) Chemical change	(b) Formation of a new substance
(iii) Prevention from rusting	(c) Mixing of vinegar and Baking Soda
(iv) Evolution of carbon dioxide	(d) Reversible change

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Physical change	(d) Reversible change
(ii) Chemical change	(b) Formation of a new substance
(iii) Prevention from rusting	(a) Galvanization
(iv) Evolution of carbon dioxide	(c) Mixing of vinegar and Baking Soda

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The example of chemical change is:
(a) erruption of volcano
(b) burning of candle
(c) cooking of food
(d All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (ii)
When acetic acid is mixed with baking soda, the gas evolved is:
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) carbon monoxide
Answer:
(c) carbon dioxide.

Question (iii)
For rusting of iron objects, the essential requirement is:
(a) air (oxygen)
(b) moisture (water)
(c) open surface of object
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (iv)
For prevention of rust, we use:
(a) a coat of oil and grease
(b) a coat of paint
(b) galvanization
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (v)
The chemical formula of Rust is:
(a) Fe₂O₃
(b) FeCO₃
(c) Fe₂O₃xH₂O)
(d) FeCO₃.xH₂O
Answer:
(c) Fe₂O₃xH₂O).

4. State True or False:

(i) Cutting a log of wood into pieces is a chemical change.
Answer:
True

(ii) Formation of manure from leaves is a physical change.
Answer:
False

(iii) Iron pipes coated with zinc do not get rusted easily.
Answer:
True

(iv) Iron and rust are the same substances.
Answer:
False

(v) Condensation of steam is not a chemical change.
Answer:
True

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is Rust ? Write its chemical formula.
Answer:
Rust.
When iron and items made of iron are exposed to the environment then the objects are attacked both by oxygen (air) and moisture present in the atmosphere. The surface of iron and iron items get covered by a layer of red, brown or orange color substance. This layer is called rust and this process is called corrosion of iron (Rusting of iron).
Chemical formula of rust: Fe₂O₃xH₂O)

Question (ii)
Write the conditions necessary for rusting of iron.
Answer:
Conditions for rusting are:

The open surface of an object made of iron.
Presence of air (oxygen).
Presence of moisture (water).

Question (iii)
Why are iron objects painted frequently ?
Answer:
Iron objects are painted so that the surface is not exposed to air (oxygen) and water in order to prevent the surface of iron from rusting.

Question (iv)
What is galvanization ?
Answer:
Galvanization. The process of depositing a layer of inert metal such as aluminium or zinc on the surface of iron objects, is called Galvanization.

Question (v)
Name two metals which are deposited on the surface of iron objects during the process of galvanization.
Answer:
Metals that are deposited on Iron are:

Chromium and
Nickel.

Question (vi)
Burning of candle is an example of which type of change-physical or chemical change ? Give reasons.
Answer:
Burning of candle is a chemical change because the wich of candle is made up of carbon and hydrogen. Candle flame burns to produce carbon dioxide and water which enters the atmosphere. On the other hand candle wax melts as a result of which its length decreases. Which is a physical change. Therefore it is an example of both physical and a chemical change.

Question (vii)
Why burning of fireworks is harmful ?
Answer:
The explosion of fireworks is a chemical change. Such explosions produce heat, light, noise and toxic gases, which pollute the atmosphere. So the pleasure of exploding fireworks is harmful exercise. The process of obtaining you are, therefore, advised not to use firecrackers.

Question (viii)
What is crystallisation ?
Answer:
Crystallisation.
Pure and large-sized geometrical shape of a substance from saturated solution of a substance is called crystallisation.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Mixing of baking soda and vinegar is a chemical change or a physical change. Discuss.
Answer:
When Vinegar (acetic acid) is mixed with baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) carbon dioxide, sodium acetate and water are formed. The composition and properties of these products are .very different from the reactants vinegar and baking soda, i.e. new substances with new properties are formed. So this reaction is a chemical change.

Question (ii)
Explain how cutting and burning wood are different type of change ?
Answer:
Cutting a piece of wood is a physical change because there is no formation of new substance having new properties.
Burning of wood on the other hand is a chemical change because after burning wood new substances carbondioxide water and ash are formed. We cannot reverse the process to get original substance (wood).

Question (iii)
What will happen when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water ?
Answer:
When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, lime water becomes milky as it becomes Calcium carbonate.

Question (iv)
Why does the colour of copper sulphate (CuSO₄) solution change, when an iron nail is dipped into it ? Write chemical equation also.
Answer:
Iron nail dipped here iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution in Copper sulphate solution changes the colour of Copper sulphate solution from blue to green due to the
formation of Iron sulphate.
Chemical Equation:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 4

Question (v)
Magnesium ribbon is burnt and the ash formed is mixed with water. Now answer the following:
(a) Write equation for the burning of magnesium.
(b) What will happen when the mixture of ash and water is added to (a) blue litmus solution and (b) red litmus solution.
(c) Name the substances formed by mixing ash and water. Is acidic or basic ?
Answer:
(a) 2Mg + O₂ > 2MgO (Magnesium oxide)

(b) When blue litmus is added to a solution of magnesium ash and water it does not change in colour. But on adding red litmus, the colour of litmus turns blue. This is because the solution of magnesium oxide is alkaline therefore, turns red litmus to blue.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What are physical and chemical changes ? Write differences between physical and chemical changes.
Answer:
Physical change.
It is a temporary change in which only the physical properties of a substance change i.e. change in colour, size, length, etc. This is therefore, a physical change. Physical change can be reversed by reversing the conditions. No new substance is formed in such a change.
Examples : Melting of wax, freezing of water into ice, magnetization of iron etc.

Chemical change.
A change in which new substances with one or more new properties are formed is called chemical change.
Examples : Burning of coal or wood, making of yogurt from milk, burning of magnesium ribbon, food spoilage, etc.

Differences between Physical and Chemical changes:

Physical change	Chemical change
(i) This is a temporary change.	(i) This is a permanent change.
(ii) No new substance is formed in it.	(ii) New substances with new properties are formed in it.
(iii) Products can be returned by simple methods.	(iii) Products cannot be reversed by ordinary means.
(iv) No difference in the composition of the substance.	(iv) Great difference in the composition of material.
(v) There is no energy change.	(v) There is energy change.

Question (ii)
What do you understand by rusting of iron ? Write the necessary conditions required for rusting of iron objects. How rusting of iron and iron objects can be prevented ?
Answer:
Iron rust.
This is a change in which iron and iron products are attacked when they come in contact with atmospheric air (oxygen) and moisture (water). As a result of this a reddish layer is formed on the surface of iron. This process weakens the strength of iron. This process and is called corrosion. This red dish brown layer formed on iron surface is called rust.

Conditions required for rusting :
(1) The open surface of an iron object.
(2) Presence of air (oxygen)
(3) Presence of moisture (water).

Measures to prevent iron from rusting : By preventing iron objects from coming into contact with oxygen (air) and water, we can prevent or reduce the process of rusting iron.

Iron can be prevented from rusting in the following ways :
(1) Applying a grease or oil coating. Applying a thin layer of grease / oil on the surface of iron products can prevent rusting.

(2) Paint. Corrosion can be prevented by applying a uniform and continuous layer of paint on the surface.

(3) Galvanisation. By depositing a layer of inert metal on the iron surface, the iron surface can be prevented from coming in contact with air and water. This process is called Galvanisation. Metals such as chromium and nickel are commonly used for iron coating.

Question (iii)
Give detail of process of crystallisation of copper sulphate (CuSO₄).
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 5
Method of making crystals of Copper Sulphate. Fill a beaker with water add a few drops of sulphuric acid. Heat it on a spirit lamp. When water starts boiling, add Copper sulphate powder slowly in it and keep stirring the solution. When the copper sulphate dissolves, add more copper sulphate powder until it does not dissolve any more powder. It is a saturated solution of Copper sulphate. Now leave this solution to cool. After a while you will see crystals of Copper sulphate formed. Filter it and keep the crystals to dry.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Physical and Chemical Changes Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) When carbondioxide is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to formation of ……………… .
Answer:
Calcium carbonate

(ii) The chemical name of baking soda is …………………
Answer:
Sodium bi-carbonate

(iii) Two methods by which rusting of iron can be prevented are ………………. and …………..
Answer:
Painting, galvanization

(iv) Changes in which only …………………. properties of a substance change are called physical
changes.
Answer:
physical

(v) Changes in which new substances are formed are called ………………… changes.
Answer:
chemical

2. Match the Column I with Column II:

Column I	Column II
(i) Carbon dioxide	(a) Temporary change
(ii) Chemical changes	(b) Turns lime water milky
(iii) Burning of magnesium wire in air	(c) Evaporation
(iv) Physical change	(d) Chemical change
(v) Conversion of water to vapours.	(e) Formation of new products

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Carbon dioxide	(b) Turns lime water milky
(ii) Chemical changes	(e) Formation of new products
(iii) Burning of magnesium wire in air	(d) Chemical change
(iv) Physical change	(a) Temporary change
(v) Conversion of water to vapours.	(c) Evaporation

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Rust is:
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Iron
(d) Iron oxide
Answer:
(d) Iron oxide.

Question (ii)
Which of the following is not a physical transformation?
(a) Rusting of iron
(b) Melting of ice
(c) Dissolving sugar in water
(d) Freezing of water
Answer:
(a) Rusting of iron

Question (iii)
…………………. is a physical change.
(a) Rusting of iron
(b) Burning of magnesium ribbon
(c) Switching on light bulb
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Switching on light bulb.

Question (iv)
Whose crystals cannot be obtained?
(a) Sodium Chloride
(b) Copper Sulphate
(c) Carbon
(d) Iron sulphate
Answer:
(c) Carbon.

Question (v)
…………….. is the reaction of acid and alkali.
(a) Mixing
(b) Neutralisation
(c) Galvanization
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Neutralisation.

Question (vi)
The method of zinc coating on iron object is:
(a) Making alloys
(b) Neutralisation
(c) Galvanization
(d) Crystallization
Answer:
(c) Galvanization.

State True or False:

(i) Cutting a log of wood into pieces is a chemical change.
Answer:
False

(ii) Formation of manure from leaves is a physical change.
Answer:
False

(iii) Iron pieces coated with zinc do not get rusted easily.
Answer:
True

(iv) Iron and rust are the same substances.
Answer:
False

(v) Condensation of steam is not a chemical change.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which type of change occurs when a rubber band is stretched ?
Answer:
Physical change.

Question 2.
Give an example of physical change caused due to air.
Answer:
Blowing a balloon.

Question 3.
What happens when a chemical change takes place ?
Answer:
New substance having new properties is formed.

Question 4.
What is rust ?
Answer:
Rust. It is a film of brownish iron oxide formed on iron articles due to moist air of the atmosphere.

Question 5.
What are two conditions necessary for rusting ?
Answer:
Presence of (i) air and (ii) water.

Question 6.
What happens when ash obtained from burning magnesium ribbon is dissolved in water ?
Answer:
Magnesium hydroxide is formed.

Question 7.
What is the nature of magnesium hydroxide ?
Answer:
It is basic in nature.

Question 8.
What is colour of copper sulphate solution ?
Answer:
Blue.

Question 9.
What happens when a nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution ?
Answer:
Blue colour of copper sulphate solution changes to green colour.

Question 10.
Which gas is formed when vinegar is mixed with baking soda ?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide gas.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Classify the following as physical or chemical changes:
(i) Melting of glass.
(ii) Burning of agarbatti.
(iii) Tearing of cloth.
(iv) Formation of seed from flower.
(v) Cooking of food.
(vi) Formation of cloud.
Answer:
Physical changes. Melting of glass, Tearing of cloth, Formation of cloud.
Chemical changes. Burning of agarbatti, Formation of seed from flower, Cooking of food.

Question 2.
Write characteristics of a physical change.
Answer:
Characteristics of a physical change:

The final products are similar to the original substances.
No new substances are formed.
This change is easily reversible.
It is a temporary change.
The energy evolved during this change is very low.
The total mass of reactants as well as products remains same.

Question 3.
Give characteristics of chemical change.
Answer:
Characteristics of chemical change:

One or more new substances are formed.
It is a permanent change and cannot be reversed easily.
Energy change during chemical change is usually large.
Total mass of reactants and products remains constant during the change.

Question 4.
Why is burning magnesium ribbon a chemical change ?
Answer:
Burning of Magnesium ribbon. When magnesium ribbon is burned in air, it gives out white bright light and changes into white ash. Since ash (magnesium oxide) is a new substance having different properties. So, burning of magnesium ribbon is a chemical change.

Question 5.
Why dissolving sugar in water is a physical change ?
Answer:
Dissolution of sugar in water. When sugar crystals are stirred in water, a clear solution is obtained. It is a physical change on the following basis:

No new substance is formed.
Sugar can be recovered by the process of crystallization.
The change is not accompained by heat.
Mass of sugar solution is equal to mass of water and sugar crystals.

Question 6.
When baking soda is mixed with lemon juice, bubbles are formed with the evolution of gas. What type of a change is it ? Explain.
Answer:
When baking soda is mixed with lemon juice (a weak acid) then carbondioxide is evolved in the form of bubbles.
This change is an example of a chemical change.

Question 7.
Explain why burning of wood and cutting it into small pieces are considered as two different types of changes.
Answer:
Burning of wood is a chemical change as wood on burning produces gases and ash.
Cutting of wood into its pieces have same physical properties. It is therefore, a physical change.

Question 8.
Explain how painting of an iron gate prevents it from rusting.
Answer:
Prevention of iron gate from rusting by painting. Rusting occurs in the presence of both water and air. If a coat of paint is applied to iron gate, its contact with air is broken and rusting is prevented.

Question 9.
Explain why rusting of iron objects is faster in coastal areas than in deserts.
Answer:
Faster rusting in coastal areas. The presence of humid air in coastal areas increases the rate of rusting. But on the other hand in deserts, air is dry, which inhibits the rate of rusting of iron.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is crystallization? How will you prepare crystals of alum?
Answer:
Crystallization. It is the process of separating a pure substance in the form of crystals having well defined, geometrical shape from its hot saturated solution by cooling. This process is very commonly used to purify solid substances.
To prepare crystals of alum
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 6
Take some distilled water in a beaker. Go on adding alum powder in installments slowly simultaneously with continuous stirring of the solution with a glass rod. Heat the beaker gently and try to dissolve more alum powder till it stops dissolving more alum powder. Filter the hot saturated solution in a glass beaker and allow it to cool. Observe the solution. Well-defined crystals of alum will be obtained after some time.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

November 23, 2021November 1, 2021 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Development of Regional Cultures Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Write the names of regional languages of North India during the medieval period (800-1200 A.D.).
Answer:

Regional languages developed more in the Sultanate period. All the Bhakti saints throughout India preached in local languages. These languages further took the form of our present languages.
Braj, Avadhi, Punjabi, Gujarati, Bengali, Kannada, Telugu and Tamil developed in this period.
Persian was the national language of this period. Therefore Indian languages were highly influenced by the Persian language. Many Persian words became a part of Indian languages.
During this period, the mixture of the Persian and the Hindi language gave birth to Urdu language.
During the Sultanate period, many Sanskrit scriptures were translated into regional languages.

Question 2.
Write the names of regional languages during the Delhi Sultanate period.
Answer:
These were Braj, Avadhi, Punjabi, Gujarati, Bengali, Kannada, Telugu and Tamil.

Question 3.
Who was considered the founder of Punjabi literature?
Answer:
The famous Punjabi Sufi Saint Baba Farid Shakkarganj was the founder of Punjabi literature.

Question 4.
How many Vars did Bhai Gurdas compose?
Answer:
He wrote 39 Vars in Punjabi language. He was a great poet. Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji honoured him by saying that these “Vars” are the key to Sri Guru Granth Sahibji.

Question 5.
Name four famous poets who gave an important contribution to Punjabi literature.
Answer:
Shah Hussain, Bulle Shah, Damodar and Waris Shah.

Question 6.
Give a brief account of Adi Granth Sahib.
Answer:
Sri Adi Granth Sahib Ji was compiled by Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji in 1604 A.D. The hymns that were included of Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji , Guru Angad Dev Ji, Guru Amar Das Ji, Guru Ram Das Ji and Guru Arjan Dev Ji. Later on the hymns of Sri Guru Teg Bahadur Ji were also added in Sri Guru Granth Sahibji. Besides, some Hindu saints and Muslim saints have also contributed to Sri Guru Granth Sahibji. In all these holy hymns, praise and respect have been shown towards God. Sri Guru Granth Sahibji has the highest place in the Punjabi literature.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
_________ was the writer of Geet Govinda.
Answer:
Jaidev

Question 2.
Prithviraj Rabo was written by _________
Answer:
Chand Bardai

Question 3.
Adi Granth Sahib was composed by _________ in 1604 A.D
Answer:
Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji

Question 4.
Krishan Ray was a famous of Sanskrit and Telugu languages.
Answer:
poet

Question 5.
Amir Khusro was a _________ musician and poet.
Answer:
famous.

III. Write True or False for each statement:

Question 1.
Ramanuja, Jaideva were the famous Sanskrit writers of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Abul Fazle did not write Ain-i-Akbari.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Tansen was the most famous singer of Akbar’s court
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Muhammad Tughluq’s portrait is a fine example of painting during the medieval period.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The art of music did not flourish under the Rajput rulers.
Answer:
False

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.
table-1
Answer:
table-2

V. Activity:

Question 1.
Write a brief essay on the development of Punjabi literature during the medieval period.
Answer:
1. Baba Farid Shakkarganj (1173-1265): He was a famous Sufi saint of Puryab. He is called the founder of Punjabi literature. He wrote his literature in Lehandi or Multani language. His 112 Salokas and 4 Shabads were given a place in Adi Granth Sahib Ji by Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji.

2. Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji (1469-1539): He started a new age in Punjabi literature. His literature is great from every angle. He wrote Japuji Sahib, Asa-Di-War, Babarvani. Infact Guruji’s contribution is invaluable.

3. Damodar: Damodar was a contemporary of Akbar. He wrote the story of Heer Ranjha in Lehandi or Multani language. It shows the village culture of his times.

4. Waris Shah (1707-1798): Waris Shah has a pride of place in Punjabi literature. He wrote Heer, which is a great contribution to Punjabi literature.

5. Shah Muhammad (1782-1863): He wrote Jang Nama. He has praised the period of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. This creation is an invaluable treasure of Punjabi literature.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Development of Regional Cultures Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
_________ was a Rajput Ruler.
(a) Akbar
(b) Birbal
(c) Prithviraj Chauhan
(d) Shahjahan.
Answer:
(c) Prithviraj Chauhan.

Question 2.
Which of these was a strong emotion of Rajputs?
(a) Loyalty
(b) Valour
(c) Friendship
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
_________ females used to sit alive on the funeral pyre of their husbands.
(a) Brahmin
(b) Vaishya
(c) Shudra
(d) Rajput.
Answer:
(d) Rajput.

Question 4.
_________ were a caste of storytellers in temples of North India.
(a) Kathak
(b) Brahmins
(c) Vermans
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Kathak.

Question 5.
Legends of Radha Krishna enacted in folk plays called
(a) Ram Lila
(b) Rasa Lila
(c) Jatak Tales
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(6) Rasa Lila.

Question 6.
Which of these is the patronage of Kathak dance?
(a) Wajid Ali Shah
(b) Prithvi Raj
(c) Alauddin Khalji
(d) Iltutmish.
Answer:
(a) Wajid Ali Shah.

Question 7.
_________ is recognised as one of six classical forms of dance in country after independence.
(a) Bharatnatyam
(b) Kuchipudi
(c) Manipuri
(d) Kathak.
Answer:
(d) Kathak.

Question 8.
Which of these Mughal emperors was patron of highly skilled painters?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 9.
Which of these is included in the term Pir?
(a) Animistic spirits
(b) Sufis
(c) Religious personalities
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How did Urdu language come into being?
Answer:
The Turks started Persian language in India but with the passage of time, the Hindi and Persian languages got mixed up and a new language Urdu came into being.

Question 2.
Describe the development of languages during the Mughal period.
Answer:
During the Mughal period, Persian language was the most developed language. So, the Mughal period is known as the Golden age of Persian language. Persian was the official language of the Mughal empire. As a result in Punjab, the Persian language developed very fast. Akbar got the translation done of the Ramayana, Mahabharata from Sanskrit to Persian language, Punjabi and Hindi languages also developed greatly. The Urdu language was also being used.

Question 3.
Throw light on the development of literature during Rajput period.
Answer:
Chand Bardai wrote ‘Prithvi Raj Raso\ The state poet of Bengal, Jaidev wrote the epic ‘Geet Govind’ where there is a description of the love of Radha and Krishna. Kalhan wrote a historical scripture ‘Raj Tarangini’. This scripture gives us the knowledge about Kashmir history. ‘Bilhan wrote ‘Vikramank Dev Charit’. It contains the life history of Chalukya king Vikramaditya VI. Another magnificent creation in Sanskrit language is called Katha Sarit Sagar. It is a compilation of stories.

Question 4.
Describe the contribution of the following in the Punjabi language and literature.
Answer:
1. Baba Farid Shakkarganj (1173-1265): He was a famous Sufi saint of Puryab. He is called the founder of Punjabi literature. He wrote his literature in Lehandi or Multani language. His 112 Salokas and 4 Shabads were given a place in Adi Granth Sahib Ji by Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji.

3. Damodar: Damodar was a contemporary of Akbar. He wrote the story of Heer Ranjha in Lehandi or Multani language. It shows the village culture of his times.

4. Waris Shah (1707-1798): Waris Shah has a pride of place in Punjabi literature. He wrote Heer, which is a great contribution to Punjabi literature.

5. Shah Muhammad (1782-1863): He wrote Jang Nama. He has praised the period of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. This creation is an invaluable treasure of Punjabi literature.

Question 5.
Describe the development in the field of painting in Punjab during Medieval period.
Answer:
Many pictures related to Guru Sahiban have been found to be painted in old scriptures, the walls of Gurdwaras and palaces. For e.g.-In Goindwal, we find the pictures of those 22 persons of Sri Guru Amar Das Ji who were appointed by him under “Manji pratha” to propagate the religion. These pictures throw light on the development of paintings of that time.

Question 6.
Throw light on the contribution of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the development of Punjabi language and literature.
Answer:
Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji was a great poet of Punjabi language. His creations like “Jap Sahib”, “Bachitar Natak”, “Zafar Nama”, “Chandi-Di-Var” and “Akal-ustat” are very important. All these creations are compiled in Dasham Granth. Chandi-Di-Var is considered an invaluable creation of Punjabi literature.

Question 7.
Describe the development in the field of painting during Mughal period.
Answer:
The Mughals were great patrons of the art of painting.
1. Babar and Humayun had this hobby. Babar got his autobiography illustrated with pictures. Humayun brought two famous painters Abdul Sayyed and Sayyed Ali from Iran to Delhi.

2. Akbar established a different department to develop the art of painting. This department illustrated books with pictures of Mughal rulers. Daswant and Basawan were two famous painters of Akbar’s court.

3. Jahangir was also a great painter. During his period, the art of miniature paintings developed. Ustad Mansur, Abdul Hassan, Faruqh Beg, Madav, etc. were famous painters of Jahangir’s court.

Question 8.
Describe the development in the field of music during Mughal period.
Answer:
Except Aurangzeb all Mughal rulers were music lovers. So, this art developed during their administration period.

Babar and Humayun were great lovers of music. Humayun would listen to music for two days in a week.
Akbar had hobby in music. He himself was a singer. He had complete knowledge of “sur” and “taal” of music. In his court, there were high standard musicians like ‘Tansen”. Tansen created many ragas. Besides him, there were Ramdas and Baiju Bawra who were also high-standard singers.
Jahangir and Shah Jahan were also music lovers. Jahangir himself was a great singer. He wrote many Hindi songs. Shah Jahan was fond of Dhrupad songs.
During Mughal’period Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji compiled Sri Guru Granth Sahibji on the basis of classic ragas.

Question 9.
What were the achievements of Rajputs in the field of paintings?
Answer:
The painting was done on papers during Rajput period. The “Pal style” and “Apbrash style” were being used during this period. The pictures in Pal style are found in Buddhist scriptures. The colours used are white, black, red and blue. In Apbrash style the red and yellow colours are used more. Such pictures are found in Jain scriptures and mythological scriptures.

Question 10.
Throw some light on the literary achievements during the Mughals in India.
Answer:
1. The Mughal rulers were themselves great scholars, so; there was development of literature during this period. Babar wrote his autobiography “Babarnama” or “Tuzuk-i-Babari”. This book was written in Turkish language.

2. In the court of Akbar, there were great scholars like Sheikh Mubarak, Abul Fazl and Faizi. Abul Fazl wrote “Ain-i-Akbari” and “Akbarnama” Akbar got the translation done of Sanskrit scriptures like “Ramayana”, “Mahabharata”, “Raj Tarangini”, “Panchtantra”, etc. in the Persian language.

3. Jahangir also was a scholar of Turkish, Hindi, and Persian languages. He also gave patronage to scholars. Famous Hindi writers in his court were Rai Manohar Das, Bhisham Das, and Keshav Das.

4. Shah Jahan was also a literature lover emperor. In his period Abdul Hamid Lahori wrote “Badshahnama” and Muhammad Sadiq wrote “Shahjahanama”.

5. Aurangzeb got a book written named Fatwa-i-Alamgiri which was based on Islamic laws. Besides, during his period Khalif Khan wrote a famous book named “Muntkahab-ul-Lubab”.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

November 23, 2021November 1, 2021 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 15 Religious Developments Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 15 Religious Developments

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Religious Developments Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which Mughal ruler founded the new sect Din-I-Illahi
Answer:
Mughal ruler Akbar founded Din-i-Illahi.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Advait?
Answer:
It means ‘God and Soul’ are one.

Question 3.
Name main sects of Islam.
Answer:
Two sects of Islam are :

Ulemas
Sufi.

Question 4.
Write the names of the founders of Chisti and Suhravandi sects.
Answer:
Founder of Chisti Sect-Khawja Muinuddin-Chisti.
Founder of Suhravardi Sect-Makhdoom Bahauddin Zukkariya.

Question 5.
What do you know about Ramanuja?
Answer:
Ramanuja was a Tamil Brahamana, who preached Vaishnavism in South India. He taught his followers to worship Vishnu. According to him one should worship God with love and devotion and not perform meaningless practices.

Question 6.
When and where did Ramanand was born?
Answer:
Ramananda was born at Paryag (Allahabad) in 14th century.

Question 7.
Who was Chitanya Mahaprabhu?
Answer:
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu. He was born in I486 in the Nadia village of Bengal. He started the system of Kirtan. Chaitanya was a famous religious teacher who became a devotee of Krishna and preached in Bengal during the period of the Sultanate.

Question 8.
When and where did Prophet Mohammad was born?
Answer:
Prophet Mohammad was born in 570 A.D. at Mecca.

Question 9.
When and where did Guru Nanak Dev ji was born?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev ji was bom in Talwandi in 1469.

Question 10.
Where did Ravidas was born?
Answer:
Saint Ravidas was bom at Banaras.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The teachings of __________ are contained in the Adi Granth Sahib.
Answer:
Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji

Question 2.
__________ founded a new faith named Din-i-Ilahi.
Answer:
Akbar

Question 3.
Saint Kabir was disciple of __________
Answer:
Ramananda

Question 4.
Bhakti Saints preached in the __________ of the people.
Answer:
language

Question 5.
Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji was the __________ of Sikhism.
Answer:
Founder

Question 6.
Hazrat Khawaja Muin-ud-din was bom in __________
Answer:
Central Asia

Question 7.
__________ founded Khalsa Panth in 1699 A.D.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji.

III. Write True or False for each statement:

Question 1.
Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji founded the Khalsa Panth.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The Chisti and Suhrawardi were not the popular Sufi Silsilahs.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The Dargah of Nizam-ud-din Auliya is at Ajmer.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu and Mira Bai popularized Ram Bhakti.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Alwars popularised devotional songs of Shaivism.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Sri Gum Nanak Dev Ji started the practice of Langar.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the columns :

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Sri Gum Nanak Dev Ji	(a) A Tamil Brahman, bora on
2. Ravi Das Ji was bom at	(b) Allahabad
3. Ramananda Ji was born at	(c) Nadia in 1486 in Bengal
4. Ramanuja Ji was	(d) Banaras
5. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu Ji was bom in	(e) 15 April, 1469 A.D. at Rai Bhoi Ki Talwandi. now called Nankana Sahib
6. Prophet Mohammad was born	(f) in Mecca in 570 A.D.

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Sri Gum Nanak Dev Ji	(e) 15 April, 1469 A.D. at Rai Bhoi Ki Talwandi. now called Nankana Sahib
2. Ravi Das Ji was born at	(d) Banaras
3. Ramananda Ji was born at	(b) Allahabad
4. Ramanuja Ji was	(a) A Tamil Brahman, bora on
5. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu Ji was bom in	(c) Nadia in 1486 in Bengal
6. Prophet Mohammad was born	(f) in Mecca in 570 A.D.

V. Activities :

Question 1.
Draw a picture of any four Bhakti and Sufi. Saints in your notebook. Write about their main teachings.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

Question 2.
Visit a Gurdwara. Write what you saw there? How did you feel?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Religious Developments Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Shankara was born in in 8th century.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka.
Answer:
(b) Kerala.

Question 2.
Shankara advocated the philosophy of
(a) believe in different souls
(b) Advaita
(c) believe in one soul
(d) illusion of world.
Answer:
(b) Advaita.

Question 3.
Ramanuja was born in Tamil Nadu in century.
(a) 11th
(b) 8th
(c) 10th
(d) 9th.
Answer:
(a) 11th.

Question 4.
Virashaiva movement was initiated by
(a) Ramanuja
(b) Krishna
(c) Basavanna
(d) Shankra.
Answer:
(c) Basavanna.

Question 5.
Which of these was the Saint of Maharashtra?
(а) Janeshwar
(b) Eknath
(c) Namdev
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 6.
Humanist idea says that __________
(a) Treating all humans equally
(b) Sharing everyone’s pain
(c) Giving privilege to nobles
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) Giving privilege to nobles.

Question 8.
Muslim scholars developed a holy law called ………………
(a) Penal law
(b) Shariat
(c) Civil law
(d) Public law.
Answer:
(b) Shariat.

Question 9.
The genealogy of Sufi teachers was known as
(a) Genealogical ancestors
(b) Ancestral post
(c) Silsilas
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Silsilas.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the main saints of the Bhakti movement.
Answer:
During the medieval period many saints were bom in different parts of India. They included Saint Ramanuj, Ramanandji, Saint Kabir, Saint Ravidas Ji, Sri Guru Nanak Devji and Chaitanya Mahaprabhuji.
1. Ramanuj Ji: The word ‘Bhakti’ means love or devotion of God. It stands for oneness of the devotee’s soul with the Supreme Soul or God. The doctrine of Bhakti was not a new movement. In the South, the early Tamil saints and Swami Ramanuja had preached Bhakti. In the north India the Bhakti movement started in 11th and 12th centuries.

His main teachings were as follows :

The relationship between God and the man is based on love.
One should worship God with love and devotion.
One should not perform meaningless practices, fasts and rituals.
Nobody is high or low in the eyes of God.
Caste distinctions are man-made as such they are meaningless.

2. Ramanandji: His birth place is Allahabad^JIe preached Rambhakti’ in 14th century. He was the follower of Swami Raghwananda. He preached the worship of ‘Ram-Sita’. He criticized blind faiths and meaningless practices. He was the first preacher who included women as his follower.

3. Saint Kabir. Saint Kabir belonged to Banaras. He had faith in the prayer of God. He was against untouchability. He tried his best’ to fill the gap between Hindus and Muslims:

Religious Doctrines:

He never believed in religious differences. He said, “God has many names and to fight on his names is foolishness.”
He stressed more on love for God.
He stressed more on purification of heart.
He condemned idol worship.

4. Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji founded Sikhism. Following were the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji :

All men are equal.
God is one: Only love and true devotion can take us close to him.
He protested against the caste differences and persuaded his followers to . come and eat in a common kitchen. People belonging to different castes took their meal in this common kitchen … (langar).
He had no faith in “Bairag on Sanyas”. He advocated the life of a householder.

5. Namdevji: Namdevji was the famous saint of Maharashtra. He preached that God was formless, omnipotent and omnipresent. He inspired people to lead a pure life. He was dead against caste system, pilgrimages, form worship, yajnas, sacrifice system and fasting. His holy poetry has been given a place in Sri Guru Granth Sahibji.

6. Guru Ravidasji: Guru Ravidas Ji was born in Banaras. He believed in the worship of one God. He was dead against caste system, pilgrimages and fasting. He believed in ‘Simran’ (to pray God) and to live a pure life. Many people became the followers of his great thinking.

7. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu: He was bom in 1486 in the Nadia village of Bengal. He started the system of Kirtan. Chaitanya was the famous religious teacher who became a devotee of Krishna and preached in Bengal during the period of the Sultanate.

8. Mirabai: Mirabai was a princess of Rajasthan. She gave up her life of luxury and became a devotee of Lord Krishna. She wrote holy songs in praise of Lord Krishna and propagated Krishna Bhakti.

Question 2.
Describe in detail about Sikhism.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was the founder of Sikhism. The ten Gurus are Guru Nanak Dev Ji, Guru Angad Dev Ji, Guru Amar Das Ji, Guru Ram Das Ji, Guru Arjan Dev Ji, Guru Hargobind Ji, Guru Har Rnd Singh Ji. The Sikhs pray in Gurdwaras.

The five distinguished characteristics of the Sikhs.

Kes (Hair)
Kangha (Comb)
Kara (Iron Bangle)
Kirpan (Dagger)
Kachhera (Underwear).

The religious book of the Sikhs.
Adi-Granth is the religious book of the Sikhs.
When Guru Gobind. Singh Ji left for his heavenly abode, he gave the message that the Sikhs should consider holy Guru Granth Sahibji as their Guru from now onwards.

Question 3.
Describe Sufi Movement and Sufi Saifits.
Answer:
Sufism was a reform movement within Islam which laid emphasis on toleration, free thought and liberal ideas.

Main teachings of Sufism:

The Sufis lay emphasis on the principle of ‘tauba’ (repentance) and ‘tawakku (trust in God).
Love and devotion are the means of coming nearer to God.
Prayers, fasts and rituals are useless.
There can be many paths to reach God.
They preached religious tolerance.
They emphasized respect for all human beings.
It is necessary to follow the teachings of a pir or Guru.
Devotional music is one way of coming close to God.

Sufi Saints: The most famous is Sheikh Muinuddin-Chishti of Ajmer. Other famous Sufi Saints are Sheikh Qutb-ud-din Bhakhtiar Kaki, Baba Farid, Hazrat Nizam-ud-din Auliya and his disciple Nasir-ud-din Chiragi.

Question 4.
Describe Hindu religion during Saltanate period.
Answer:

Shaivism: During 9th century Sri Shankaracharya established Shaivism. His followers are known as Shaivs and they follow the prayers of Lord Shiva.
Vaishnavism: The followers of Vaishnavism worshipped Sri Ram and Sri Krishna. Ramanandji preached ‘Ram Bhakti’ and Chaitanya preached Krishna Bhakti.

Question 5.
Who were Ulemas?
Answer:
Ulemas were the religious leaders of Muslims. They recited the ‘Quran’, ‘Hadis’ and other religious scriptures. They sermonized about leading a religious and pure life.

Question 6.
Write about the life, travels (Udasis) and teachings of Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Brief history of life. Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s birthday is on 15 April, 1469 and birthplace is Talwandi. These days it is called Nankana Sahib. His father’s name was Mehta Kalu Ram Ji and mother’s name was Tripta Devi Ji. The name of his sister was Bibi Nanaki. Guruji was married to the daughter of Batala resident Sri Mulchand. Her name was Sulakhani Devi Ji. At that time his age was 14 years. Two sons were bom to him named Sri Chand and Lakhmi Das.

After marriage Guruji went to Sultanpur to his sister Bibi Nanaki. Here he got a job at Daulat Khan’s godown. Guruji went to Bein river to take a bath daily. Once he went to Bein river and did not come out for three days. The period gave him true enlightenment and Guru uttered these words-‘Na Ko Hindu Na Ko Muslman’.

Udasis:

Sri Guru Nanak Devji started his Udasis after his enlightenment. He wanted to show the right path of living to the lost mankind. In his first Udasi he went to Sayyedpur, Talumba, Kurukshetra, Panipat, Haridwar, Banaras, Gaya, Kamrup, Decca and Jagannathpuri.
In his second Udasi he went to South India and Sri Lanka.
His third Udasi was upto Kailash Parbat, Ladakh, Hasan Abdal, etc.
In his fourth Udasi, Guruji went to Mecca, Madina, Baghdad, etc.
After this Guruji came to Kartarpur and continued to preach good conduct to people in Punjab. Some historians called it the fifth Udasi of Guruji.

Teachings:

God is one.
God is creator of Universe.
All men are equal.
God is omnipotent and omnipresent.
Dispose your ‘Ego’ off.
Guru is great.
Always pray to God (Naam Simran).
Don’t believe in shallow and false customs and traditions.
Discrimination on the basis of caste is meaningless.
Man must lead a pure life.

Guru Nanak Devji in Kartarpur: Guruji spent the last 18 years of his life in Kartarpur. Before he left for his heavenly abode in 1539, he appointed Bhai Lahna as his successor.

Guruji’s Literature: Includes Japuji Sahib, Asa Di War, Var Majh, Var Malhar, Barah Maha.

Question 7.
Explain in brief the religious and communal development in south India during medieval period.
Answer:
Main Religions. During medieval period in south India most people followed Hinduism. They worshipped gods and goddesses. Many kings were also patrons of Buddhism and Jainism. During this time the Christianity and Islam etc. religions were also prevalent in India.

Religious Communities. Many religious movements were born during this period. There were ‘Alwar’ and ‘Nayanar’ saints. While Nayanars worshipped Lord Shiva, Alwars worshipped Lord Vishnu. The Lingayat community was very popular, The followers worshipped Shivling.

Great Saints. The great saints during this period gave the message of attaining knowledge. The famous saint Shankaracharya gave the massage of ‘Adwait Philosophy*, which means that God and his creation are one and the same. Saint Ramanuja was another saint of Bhakti movement. He was Tamil Brahmin. He gave the serman of adopting the path of worship. He said in very uncertain terms that to worship God, it is necessary to have love and faith in mind. Madhavji was the worshipper of Lord Krishna. He propagated Vaishnavism in 13th century. He believed that knowledge, action and worship are the three important means to attain salvation. He gave the sermon of leading a simple and pure life.

Question 8.
Write short notes on the followings :
1. Udasis of Guru Nanak Dev Ji
Answer:
Udasis or Travels of Sri Guru Nanak Devji :

Sri Guru Nanak Devji started his Udasis after his enlightenment. He wanted to show the right path of living to the lost mankind. In his first Udasi he went to Sayyedpur, Talumba, Kurukshetra, Panipat, Haridwar, Banaras, Gaya, Kamrup, Decca and Jagannathpuri.
In his second Udasi he went to South India and Sri Lanka.
His third Udasi was upto Kailash Parbat, Laddakh, Hasan Abdal, etc.
In his fourth Udasi, Guruji went to Mecca, Madina, Baghdad, etc.
After this Guruji came to Kartarpur and continued to preach good conduct to people in Punjab. Some historians called it the fifth Udasi of Guruji.

2. Basic Tenets of Islam
Answer:
Basic tenets of Islam :

There is no God except ‘Allah’ and Mohammad is his ‘Paigambar’.
Every Muslim should bow to ‘Allah’ (Namaz) five times daily.
Every Muslim should fast in the month* of ‘Ramzan’.
Every Muslim must make a pilgrimage to *Mecca’ once in his lifetime.
Every Muslim must give a donation (Zakat) out of his pure earnings.

3. Basic Tenets of Sikhism.
Answer:
Basic tenets of Sikhism:

God is one.
God is creator of Universe.
All men are equal.
God is omnipotent and omnipresent.
Dispose of your ‘Ego’.
Guru is great.
Always pray to God (Naam Simran).
Don’t believe in shallow and false customs and traditions.
Discrimination on the basis of caste is meaningless.
Man must lead a pure life.

Question 9.
What are the five sacred emblems of Sikhism?
Answer:
Kes, Kangha, Kara, Kachhera and Kirpan are five sacred emblems of Sikhism.

Question 10.
Mention the names of main Bhakti saints of India.
Answer:
Ramanuja, Ramananda, Saint Kabir, Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji, Namdeva Ji, Guru Ravi Das Ji, Chaitanya Mahaprabhu Ji, Mirabai etc.

Question 11.
What do you know about Bhakti Movement? What were the basic principles?
Answer:
The word ‘Bhakti’ means love or devotion of God. It stands for oneness of the devotee’s soul with the Supreme Soul or God. The doctrine of Bhakti was not a new movement. In the South, the early Tamil Saints and Swami Ramanuja had preached Bhakti. In the north India the Bhakti movement started in 11th and 12th centuries.

Chief Features of the Bhakti Movement or Main Teachings of the Bhakti Reformers :
The Bhakti saints or reformers taught that :

The relationship between God and the man is based on love.
One should worship God with love and devotion.

Question 12.
What is the contribution of Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji to Bhakti Movement?
Answer:
Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji was a great saint of Bhakti Movement. He was born in Talwandi in 1469 A.D. These days this place is in Pakistan and is known by the name of ‘Nankana Sahib’.

Guru Nanak Dev Ji founded the Sikh religion. Following were the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji and his contribution to Bhakti movement :

All men are equal.
The God is one. Only love and true devotion can take us close to him.
He protested against the caste differences and persuaded his followers to come and eat in a common kitchen. People belonging to different castes took their meal in this common kitchen (langar).
He had no faith in “Bairag or Sanyas”. He advocated the life of a householder.

Question 13.
Give an accojunt of religious system and cults during the Mughal period.
Answer:
The Muslims followed Islam and as the ruling class was Muslim, the administration was based on Muslim culture, but Akbar the great adopted the policy of religious tolerance. He was impressed by the liberal ideas of Sufi saints. It is said that Akbar even traveled to Amritsar. In 1575 A.D., he built an Ibadat Khana in Fatehpur SikrL He also started a new religion called Din-i-Ilahi. The Bhakti movement also changed the outlook of the people. After Akbar’s death, Jahangir and Shah Jahan adopted the same religious policy but Aurangzeb reversed this policy, which adversely affecfed the Mughal empire. But we can say that the Mughal period was a period of transformation on the religious side.

The ideas of Bhakti and Sufism spread throughout the length and breadth of India. It had a great effect on the country.

It created a spirit of love and affection among different sections of the Indian society.
It created a spirit of religious tolerance. Consequently,the Hindus and the Muslims came closer to one another.
Both the Sufis and Bhakti teachers taught in the common language of the people. As a result different regional languages developed during this period.
Some new religious sects like the Kabir Panth and Sikhism grew as a result of this movement.
The caste system became less rigid.

Question 14.
What do you know about the Sufi Movement? What were the basic principles of this movement?
Answer:
Sufism was a reform movement within Islam which laid emphasis on toleration, free thought and liberal ideas.
The founding of “Chishti Silsila”. In Ajmer Khwaza Muinuddin Chisti founded ‘Chishti Silsila’. Similarly in Multan Makhdoom Bahauddin Zukkariya foimded ‘Suhravardi Silsila’. Both these ‘silsilas’ had separate religious beliefs.
Main techings of Sufism

The Sufis lay emphasis on the principle of Tauba (repentance) and ‘tawakkuT (trust in God).
Love and devotion are the means of coming nearer to God.
Prayers, fasts, and rituals are useless.
There can be many paths to reach God.
They preached religious tolerance.
They emphasized respect for all human beings.
It is necessary to follow the teachings of a pir or Guru.
Devotional music is one way of coming close to God.

Question 15.
What do you know about the Hindu religion?
Answer:
During this period, the Hindu religion was the most followed religion. Many Gods and Goddesses were worshipped. During the Rajput period, this religion developed increasingly. Both Shaivism and Vaishnavism were popular in north India. The followers of Shaivism worshipped Lord ‘Shiva’ and ‘Maa Durga’. The followers of Vaishnavism worshipped Lord Vishnu’ and Maa Laxmi’. The followers of Shakti also worshipped many gods and goddesses. The important goddesses were Maa Parvati, Maa Durga, Maa Lakshmi, Maa Saraswati, Maa Chandika and Maa Ambika. During this period the influence of Buddhism and Jainism had declined.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

November 23, 2021November 1, 2021 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Nutrition in Animals Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 12)

Question 1.
Name the solution secreted by the Salivary glands of mouth.
Answer:
The saliva Juice is released by the salivary glands in the mouth.

Question 2.
What changes are seen in starch on adding iodine solution ?
Answer:
Post-iodine solution added to starch iodine solution turns purple or blue.

Question 3.
In which form the starch is converted after digestion in mouth ?
Answer:
Saliva is released by the salivary glands in the mouth which contains an enzyme called amylase. This enzyme converts starch into sugar.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 13)

Question 1.
Give other name for cutting teeth.
Answer:
Incisors are also called sharp teeth.

Question 2.
Which age group has both premolars and molars ?
Answer:
Pre-molar and molar teeth begin to break at the age of 50 years and above.

Question 3.
What is the maximum number of teeth present in an adult ?
Answer:
Adults over the age of 30 have a total of 32 teeth of all types in their mouths.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 14)

Question 1.
At which region of the tongue sour taste is felt ?
Answer:
At around 3/4th part of the tongue from the starting i.e. a bit ahead of middle of the tongue the sour taste is experienced.

Question 2.
Why don’t we feel bitter taste at front part of the tongue ?
Answer:
The front part of tongue is free to move in all directions and this part only helps in chewing food and mixing saliva. The four glands on tongue are sweet, salty, sour and a little. Only sweet taste is experienced in the front part of the tongue whereas bitter taste is experienced in the last part of the tongue.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Nutrition in Animals Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The animals that eat both plants as well as animals are called ………………..
Answer:
omnivorous

(ii) ……………… of the food in human beings start in mouth and is completed in the ……………. .
Answer:
digestion, small intestine

(iii) ………………… is the largest gland in human beings.
Answer:
liver

(iv) The large intestine absorb excess ………………… and ……………… from undigested food
Answer:
excess water, salt

2. State True or False:

(i) The tongue helps in mixing of food with saliva.
Answer:
True

(ii) In a humans digestion is completed in the stomach.
Answer:
False

(iii) Cud chewing animals are called ruminants.
Answer:
True

(iv) Amoeba captures food particles with the help of pseudopodia.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Ruminant	(a) Bile
2. Carbohydrates	(b) Store undigested food
3. Gall bladder	(c) Glucose
4. Small intestine	(d) Cow
5. Rectum	(e) Digestion is completed

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Ruminant	(d) Cow
2. Carbohydrates	(c) Glucose
3. Gall bladder	(a) Bile
4. Small intestine	(e) Digestion is completed
5. Rectum	(b) Store undigested food

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Animals that eat only plants are called:
(a) Carnivores
(b) Herbivores
(c) Omnivores
(d) Saprophytes
Answer:
(b) Herbivorous.

Question (ii)
Extracellular digestion occurs in:
(a) Parasites
(b) Carnivores
(e) Saprophytes
(d) Herbivores
Answer:
(e) Saprophytes.

Question (iii)
The process of taking food into the body is called:
(a) Ingestion
(b) Digestion
(e) Absorption
(ri) Egestion
Answer:
(a) Ingestion.

Question (iv)
Secretion of Liser is:
(a) Proteins
(b) Bile
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Saliva
Answer:
(b) Bile.

Question (v)
Nutrition in Amoeba is:
(a) Parasitic
(b) Holozoic
(c) Saprophytic
(d) Assimilation
Answer:
(c) Saprophytic.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is holozoic nutrition ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 1
Holozoic nutrition. During this type of nutrition Complex food is taken into the body and then broken down into simple soluble compounds with the help of enzymes; which are absorbed by the body, e.g. Amoeba, human,etc.

Question (ii)
What do you mean by absorption ?
Answer:
Absorption.
During this process the digested food is absorbed through the walls of the small intestine. After this the digested food goes into the blood vessels. On the inner walls of the small intestine, there are a large number of eruptions, called Villi. These finger like projections increase the absorption area of intestine.

Question (iii)
Define assimilation.
Answer:
Automation. Food absorbed by intestine reaches different parts of the body through the blood. This is called Automation.

Question (iv)
Name the parts of alimentary canal.
Answer:
The different parts of the Digestive system are as follows:

Oral cavity
Food Pipe
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Rectum
Anus.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What do you mean by milk teeth and permanent teeth ?
Answer:
(a) Milk teeth. Two sets of teeth develop during a person’s lifetime. The first set consists of 20 small teeth, also called milk teeth. They grow during infancy and break down at 6 and 8 years of age.

(b) Permanent Teeth. Between the ages of 6 to 8 years, permanent teeth (32) appear after the fall of the milk teeth. Permanent teeth begin to fall out between the ages of 50 and 60.

Question (ii)
Write four types of human teeth and their functions.
Answer:
The four types of teeth found in post-humans and the four types of teeth found in functional humans are given below:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 2

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain nutrition in Amoeba with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 3
Amoeba.
Amoeba is a microscopic single celled organism found in pond water. It has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubbles- like vacuoles. Amoeba constantly changes it’s shape and position. It moves with it’s virtual feet (called pseudopodia).These are finger like structures which help in movement. During food intake, the membrane between the two virtual legs melts around the food and the food particle get trapped into a vacuole and there is a leakage of enzymes inside it, which break it down in simpler substances from which nutrients are absorbed. Undigested food particles are abandoned by a similar process.

Question (ii)
label the following diagrams:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 4
Answer:

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Nutrition in Animals Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The main steps of digestion in humans are ……………, ……………, ………….., ………… and ………… .
Answer:
ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilaton, egestion

(ii) The largest gland in human body is ………………
Answer:
liver

(iii) The stomach releases hydrochloric acid and ………………. juices which act on food.
Answer:
digestive

(iv) The inner wall of small intestine has many finger like outgrowths called ……………… .
Answer:
villi

(v) Amoeba digests its food in the …………… .
Answer:
food vacuole

2. State True or False:

(i) Digestion of starch starts in the stomach.
Answer:
False

(ii) The tongue helps in mixing food with saliva.
Answer:
True

(iii) The gall bladder temporarily stores bile.
Answer:
True

(iv) The ruminants bring back swallowed grass into their mouth and chew it for some time.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column I with Column II:

Column I (Food Components)	Column II (Products of Digestion)
1. Carbohydrate	(a) Fatty acids and glycerol
2. Proteins	(b) Sugar
3. Fats	(c) Amino acids.

Answer:

Column I (Food Components)	Column II (Products of Digestion)
1. Carbohydrate	(b) Sugar
2. Proteins	(c) Amino acids
3. Fats	(a) Fatty acids and glycerol.

4. Multiple Choice Questions:

Question (i)
Name the process of breaking down of complex substances of food into simpler forms.
(a) Assimilation
(b) Ingestion
(c) Digestion
(d) Egestion.
Answer:
(c) Digestion.

Question (ii)
Name the largest digestive gland of human beings ?
(a) Salivary
(b) Pancreas
(c) Liver
(d) Intestinal.
Answer:
(c) Liver.

Question (iii)
Which acid kills bacteria in stomach ?
(a) Sulphuric
(b) Nitric
(c) Hydrochloric
(d) Phosphoric.
Answer:
(c) Hydrochloric.

Question (iv)
Of the following, in which animal rumen is found?
(a) Cow
(b) Dog
(c) Lion
(cI) Cheetah.
Answer:
(a) Cow.

Question (v)
What is the length of small intestine?
(a) 10.5 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 7.5 m.
Answer:
(d) 7.5 m.

Question (vi)
Movement of food in alimentary canal is called:
(a) Locomotion
(b) Pumping
(c) Peristalsis
(d) Sliding.
Answer:
(c) Peristalsis.

Question (vii)
Which is the simplest carbohydrate?
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Starch
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Glucose.

Question (viii)
Where is Saliva produced?
(a) Stomach
(b) Pancreas
(c) Salivary Glands
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Salivary Glands.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is food pipe ?
Answer:
Food pipe. It consists of orla cavity oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus etc.

Question 2.
Write the names of digestive glands.
Answer:

Salivary glands
Liver
pancreas.

Question 3.
What are the different parts of the digestive system ?
Answer:
Digestive juices and food pipe.

Question 4.
When does temporary or milk teeth fall ?
Answer:
Upto the age of six or eight years.

Question 5.
What is length of small intestine ?
Answer:
7.5 metre (approx.)

Question 6.
What length of large intestine ?
Answer:
1.5 metre (approx.)

Question 7.
Name different types of teeth found in human body.
Answer:
Canines, Incisors, Molars, Premolars.

Question 8.
Which teeth are for cutting and bitting ?
Answer:
Incisors.

Question 9.
Which teeth help in tearing the flesh of prey in animals ?
Answer:
Canines.

Question 10.
What is function of molars and premolars ?
Answer:
Chewing and grinding.

Question 11.
What is tongue ?
Answer:
Tongue. Tongue is a fleshy part of body.

Question 12.
How does tongue taste ?
Answer:
With the help of taste buds.

Question 13.
What food items are responsible for tooth decay ?
Answer:
Chocolates, Cold drinks, Sweets etc.

Question 14.
Which acid present in stomach kills germs ?
Answer:
Hydrochloric acid.

Question 15.
Which component of food is broken down by saliva in mouth ?
Answer:
Starch.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Villi ? Where are they present and what are their functions?
Answer:
Villi. Finger-like raised structures in the inner wall of the small intestine are called villi. These are found in the small intestine. Its main function is to absorb digested food.

Question 2.
Where is bile juice made ? Which food components are digested by it?
Answer:
Bile juice is made in the liver and accumulates temporarily in the gallbladder. Its main function is to digest fats.

Question 3.
Write the name of the carbohydrate which is digested by Ruminants but not by humans. Also give reason.
Answer:
Cellulose can be easily digested by Ruminant. A type of bacterium that helps in the digestion of cellulose is found in a sac between the small and large intestines in the rumen of ruminants only. This is the reason humans cannot digest cellulose.

Question 4.
What is the reason that we get energy from glucose immediately?
Answer:
Glucose is a simple form of carbohydrate that is easily absorbed by the body. It dissolves easily in the blood and gives energy immediately.

Question 5.
Which part of the digestive canal is involved in:
(i) Absorption of food …………. .
(ii) Chewing of food ………………. .
(iii) Killing of bacteria ……………. .
(iv) Complete digestion of food …………… .
(v) Formation of faeces ……………….. .
Answer:
(i) Small intestine
(ii) Buccal cavity
(iii) Stomach
(iv) Small intestine
(v) Large intestine.

Question 6.
Write one similarity and one difference between the nutrition in amoeba and human beings.
Answer:
Similarity in the nutrition in amoeba and human beings:
(a) Digestion of food
(b) Release of energy
Difference in nutrition in amoeba and human beings.
Human beings have a well developed digestive system while amoeba has only food vacuole for digestion.

Question 7.
Can we live only by eating vegetable/grass ? Discuss.
Answer:
Raw green vegetables are rich source of minerals, cellulose and vitamins etc. Apart from, this body needs carbohydrates, fats and proteins. So only vegetables can not provide all these for sustaining etc.

Question 8.
What is digestion and what are its main objectives?
Answer:
The breakdown or conversion of complex foods into simple foods is called digestion.
Purpose of Digestion.

Breaking of large particles into smaller particles so that they can pass through the
membranes.
Conversion of insoluble substances into soluble substances so that the solution can reach all the places.
Complete conversion of complex foods into simple substances so that they can be absorbed by cells.

Question 9.
What is a tooth cavity and why does it occur ?
Answer:
Tooth cavity and toothache. By eating too much sweets and not keeping our teeth clean, we invite bacteria which causes damage to our teeth. If we do not keep our teeth clean, food particles get stuck in the teeth and by attacking them, the bacteria start decomposing the food particles which results in the formation of acid. This acid destroys tooth enamel and causes tooth decay. So we should always brush our teeth after eating food and sweets.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the digestive system of man.
Answer:
The digestive system of man includes the following organs :

Mouth. The mouth is first part of food pipe. It contains tongue, teeth and salivary glands. The tongue tastes the food. The salivary glands secrete saliva which lubricates the food. The teeth break the solid food into smaller fragments.
Oesophagus. It is a tubular structure from mouth to stomach. It takes the food from mouth to stomach.
Small intestine. It is a coiled tube and is the longest part of food pipe. The digestion of food is completed here with the help of enzymes present in the secretions of liver and pancreas.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 6

Large intestine. It absorbs water. The undigested food or faecal matter is stored temporarily and finally removed from the body through the anus.

Question 2.
What is the process of Rumination? How is digestion done in Ruminants? Explain.
Answer:
Rumination. Grass-eating animals chew the cud and are called Ruminants. Cows, buffaloes, camels, and deer are a few examples. Their stomach is made up of four cells. The first cell is the rumen, which is the largest part of the stomach. The animal first swallows the food and stores it in the rumen. This half-digested food is called cud. Later, the cud returns to the animal’s mouth in the form of small lumps and the animal continues to chew it slowly. This process is called rumination. Such animals are called ruminants.

During rumination, the cellulose in the food breaks down into simple compounds. It is then digested in liquid form in the other three cells. The esophagus of ruminant animals has a sac-like structure between the small intestine and the large intestine called the Caecum, where there are some bacteria that help digest grass straw.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 7

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies

November 23, 2021November 1, 2021 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which was the main occupation of the tribal people?
Answer:
Agriculture was the main occupation of most of the tribes, but many of the tribes liked the occupation of hunting, gathering or animal husbandry.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the Nomad?
Answer:
Tribal people used to migrate from one place to another in search of food and other things to live. They were known as Nomads.

Question 3.
Where did the people of tribal society live?
Answer:
During the medieval period, tribal people lived in the all parts of the Indian subcontinent. For example, the tribes such as Gonds, Bhils, Kolis, Kui, Oraons and Kuki lived in Meghalaya, Ma nipur, Nagaland, Madhya Pradesh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli etc. Few tribes like Gakhar, Khokhar, Arghoon, Langah, Bloach etc. lived in the many parts of Punjab.

Question 4.
Which tribes were lived in Punjab during the medieval period?
Answer:
Few tribes like Gakhar, Khokhar, Arghoon, Langah Bloach etc. lived in many parts of Punjab.

Question 5.
Who was Sufaka?
Answer:
He was the first ruler of Ahom.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Ahom tribe established kingdom in the territories of present _________
Answer:
Assam

Question 2.
_________ was a prosperous kingdom from 15th to 18th century.
Answer:
Gondwana

Question 3.
The people of Ahom tribe belonged to _________ class of China.
Answer:
Tai-Mongolo-id

Question 4.
Queen Durgawati was famous _________ ruler.
Answer:
Gond.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Societies which does not follow the rules given by brahmins and were not divided into many unequal classes were known as
(a) Urban society
(b) Rural society
(c) Tribal society
(d) Modem society.
Answer:
(c) Tribal society.

Question 2.
Which of these is the feature of tribal society?
(a) United by kinship bonds
(b) Obtained livelihood by agriculture
(c) Have their own different religion, culture and language
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
Which tribe was influential in Punjab in 13thl and 14th centuries?
(a) Gokkhars
(b) Khokhar
(c) Gond
(d) Bhil.
Answer:
(b) Khokhar.

Question 4.
Which of these was the large and powerful tribe of north west?
(a) Balochi
(b) Gonds
(c) Gakkhar
(d) Bhils.
Answer:
(a) Balochi.

Question 5.
Which tribe was living in western Himalaya?
(a) Nagas
(b) Gaddis
(c) Ahoms
(d) Cheros.
Answer:
(b) Gaddis.

Question 6.
Which tribe had their homes in Maharashtra highlands, Karnataka and Gujarat?
(a) Bhils
(b) Gonds
(c) Koragas
(d) Kolis.
Answer:
(d) Kolis.

Question 7.
Who moved over long distance with their animals?
(a) Rural nomadics
(b) Gaddi people
(c) Nomadic pastoralists
(d) Ahoms.
Answer:
(c) Nomadic pastoralists.

Question 8.
Nomadic pastoralists used to exchange their products of wool, ghee, with settled agriculturalists for
(a) Grain
(b) Utensils
(c) Cloth
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Tribal Society?
Answer:
Tribal society is a society which lives very much away from our civilisation i.e. in forests, valley’s and mountains. They have their own culture, language etc. and they never liked to be interfered by any one.

Question 2.
How did the historians write the history of tribal society?
Answer:
During the medieval period, the tribals never maintained any written records about them. They used to perform their social traditions and customs. These customs continued from one generation to another. These social traditions and customs helped the historians to write the history of tribal society.

Question 3.
Where did the Ahom and Naga tribes live?
Answer:
Ahom, Naga, and few other tribes lived in the north-eastern parts of the Indian subcontinent.

Question 4.
Where did the Munda and Santhal tribes live?
Answer:
Munda and Santhal tribes lived in the territories of the present Bihar and Jharkhand.

Question 5.
Where did the Kuli, Brado tribes live?
Answer:
Kuli and Brado tribes lived in the hilly areas of Maharashtra and Karnataka. Kuli’s also lived in some parts of Gujarat.

Question 6.
What were the main professions of the tribal people?
Answer:
Main profession of the tribal people was agriculture. But many of them still lived in the ancient conditions and that is why they used to do hunting and food gathering. Many of the tribes also did pastoralism in which they used to rear animals for milk, meat and other purposes.

Question 7.
What type of life the nomadic people had during the medieval period?
Answer:
During the medieval period, occupation of the nomads was grazing the animals. Most of the times they moved far away for grazing the animals. They used to earn by animal breeding as well. They used to exchange butter made from milk of animals and wood with corn, clothes, utensils etc. with the farmers. They also moved from one place to another for selling their goods fry loading these goods on their animals.

Question 8.
Explain in brief about the Grocer dynasty.
Answer:
During the medieval period, members of Grocer dynasty were famous as the nomadic merchants among the many other dynasties of the nomadic people. For example, during the times of Ala-ud-din Khalji, the Grocers transported the corn by loading on the bulls to sell in the cities. They transported the eatables on the bulls for the Mughal army during the war time.

Question 9.
What facilities are provided to the tribal people of the Indian Government?
Answer:
Government, of India has provided a number of facilities to tribal people to uplift their social status. A number of vocational training institutions are opened up in the tribal areas. Tribal people are provided with bank loans so that they can improve their economic condition. They are also provided with 7.5% reservation in government jobs and educational institutions. Even many constituencies are reserved for them in Lok Sabha and many State Assemblies.

Question 10.
Give a brief introduction of the life of tribes living in jungles and nomadic tribes.
Answer:
The tribes mostly live in Manipur, Meghalya, Madhya Pradesh, Nagaland, Dadra and Nagar Haweli. These includes tribes like Bheels, Gonds, Ahoms, Kuis, Cohns, Kukis, etc. Generally they live in jungles. The govt, had made many efforts to improve their situation.

Question 11.
Give an account of the Ahoms and their state formation.
Answer:
The Ahom tribe ruled from 13th to 19th century on modern Assam. Their relation was with the Tai-Mongolo-id group of China. They came from China in 13th century. ‘Sufaka’ was the first Ahom ruler of Assam. He ruled from 1228 A.D. to 1268 A.D. The Ahoms defeated many local rulers, which included dynasties like Kachari, Moran and Nagaseta. Thus the Ahoms expanded their state to Brahamputra valley. Their, capital was Gorgoan.

The Ahoms even struggled with Mughals and Bengal states. The Mughals tried to control Assam but could not succeed. At last Aurangzeb captured Gorgoan, but could not keep it for a long time. In 1818 A.D. the people from Burma attacked Assam and the Ahom king ran away. In 1826 A.D. the English reached Assam. They defeated Burmese people and entered into a treaty of ‘Yandaboo’. Thus Assam came under the subordination of the English.

Question 12.
Throw some light on the history of Gonds.
Answer:
This tribe is related to central India. They live in Western Orissa, Eastern Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, etc. This area is known as Gondwana because a large number of Gonds live over here. From the 15th to 18th century, many states were established in Gondwana. Rani Durgawati was a famous Gond ruler. Her state was a free state with Jabalpur as the capital. Rani Durgawati died in battle with Akbar’s army as she refused to accept the subordination of Akbar. The Gond people have very few necessities of life. Their houses are also very simple. They are also illiterate people.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen

November 23, 2021November 1, 2021 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Towns, Traders and Craftsmen Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer these questions :

Question 1.
Name any four pilgrimage centres.
Answer:
Nankana Sahib, Amritsar, Kurukshetra, Haridwar, Badrinath, Mathura, Banaras, Jagannath Puri, Dwarka Puri etc. are few of the pilgrimage centres.

Question 2.
Which Guru laid the foundation of Amritsar gnd when?
Answer:
Amritsar is a famous religious place of the Sikhs. It was founded by 4th Guru Sri Guru Ramdas Ji in 1577 A.D. In the beginning, the name of Amritsar was Chak Guru Ramdas. During the time of Sri Guru Ram Das Ji, the work of digging was started on two ponds named Amritsar and Santokhsar, but after Guru Ramdas Ji, fifth Guru Arjan Dev Ji completed this work.

Importance: In 1604 A.D., the placement of Sri Guru Granth Sahibji was done in Sri Harmandar Sahib. In 1609 A.D., Sixth Guru Sri Guru Hargobindji built Shri Akal Takht Sahib in front of Sri Harmandar Sahib. Here, Guruji accepted the gifts of horses and weapons from Gursikhs. Here, discussions were also held on political affairs. Even today, the religious decisions of Sikhs are announced from here. In 1805 A.D., Maharaja Ranjit Singh gave golden covering on the domes of Sri Harmandir Sahib. Since then it has been called ‘The Golden Temple’.

Question 3.
Where the Surat is situated?
Answer:
Surat is a famous port and trading city. It io located in the state of Gujarat. It is a big industrial and trading city. Shivaji plundered it twice and got hold of big riches. During 12th century the Parsis occupied Surat. In 1512 A.D., the Portugese occupied it. In 1573 A.D., Surat came under the control of Akbar and became a major trading city.

In 1612 A.D., the English get many facilities from Emperor Jahangir for trading in Surat. The Portugese, the Dutch and the French also established their trading centres. In 1759 A.D., the English captured the Surat port but they could control it completely in 1842 A.D. The Khwaja-Sahib mosque and nine-Sayyed mosque located here are very famous. The Swami Narain temple and the old Jain temples located here are also very important.

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Amritsar was founded by _________
Answer:
Sri Guru Ramdas Ji

Question 2.
Surat is a _________ city.
Answer:
famous port and trading

Question 3.
Nankana Sahib is situated in _________
Answer:
Pakistan

Question 4.
India had many port _________
Answer:
cities.

III. Write True or False against the each statement:

Question 1.
Mohenjodaro was the capital city of Indus valley people.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In 1629, Shah Jahan made a new capital in Delhi.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Surat was an important pilgrimage centre.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Fatehpur Sikri was the capital town of Mughals.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Lahore was a commercial town in Medieval period.
Answer:
True

IV. Activity:

Question 1.
Make a list of the following (four each).
(a) Capital towns
(b) Port towns
(c) Commercial towns
(d) Pilgrimage centres
Answer:
(a) Capital towns: Ajmer, Kanauj, Delhi, Agra.
(b) Port towns: Goa, Cochin, Surat, Broach?
(c) Commercial towns: Lahore, Multan, Surat, Ahmedabad.
(d) Pilgrimage centres: Nankana Sahib, Amritsar, Kurukshetra, Haridwar.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Towns, Traders and Craftsmen Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of these is the type of town?
(a) Temple town
(b) Commercial town
(c) Administrative town
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
Which of these was the capital of Chola dynasty?
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Masulipathnam
(c) Surat
(d) Hampi.
Answer:
(a) Thanjavur.

Question 3.
Kings used to hold courts at _________ to give orders to subordinates.
(a) Temples
(b) Royal courts
(c) Mandapas
(d) Fort.
Answer:
(c) Mandapas.

Question 4.
Who built Rajarajeshvara temple?
(a) Raj Raja IV
(b) Raj Raja I
(c) Sultan of Bijapur
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Raj Raja I.

Question 5.
The process by which cities develop is known as
(a) Civilization
(b) Urbanization
(c) Metropoltian
(d) Modernization.
Answer:
(b) Urbanization.

Question 6.
Pilgrimage centre which slowly developed into townships was
(a) Varindavan
(b) Ajmer
(c) Tiruvannamalai
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 7.
Who gave right to temples to collect taxes from traders?
(a) Kings
(b) Temple authority .
(c) Zamindars
(d) Both (a) or (c).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) or (c).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give a list of the following during the medieval period.
Answer:

Capital Cities: Lahore, Fatehpur Sikri, Delhi, Agra.
Port Cities: Cochin, Surat, Bharoch, Sopara.
Trading Cities: Delhi, Agra, Surat, Ahmednagar.

Question 2.
Give two means which give us information about the Mughal administration.
Answer:

The travellogue of Bernier.
The maps prepared by William Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe.

Question 2 A.
Write names of any two capital towns of Mughal Empire.
Answer:
Two main capital cities of the Mughal Empire were Delhi and Agra.

Question 3.
How were cities developed?
Answer:
After the development of agriculture, men started living near farms. This gave birth to the concept of villages. When the number of people increased (population), some of these villages became cities. Some of these cities were developed because of the activities of religious personalities, traders, artisans or because of ruling class. These cities, came to be known as capital cities, religious cities, port cities and trading cities.

Question 4.
Give information about the capital cities during the ancient period and the Mughal period. .
Answer:
Ancient period:

Harappa and Mohenjodaro were the capital cities of Indus Valley Civilization.
During Vedic period, Ayodhya and Inderprasatha were the capital cities.
In 600 B.C., 16 states had their own capital cities. The main were Kausambi, Pataliputra and Vaishali.

Rajput Period:

Under Rajput rulers, Ajmer, Kanauj, Tripuri, Delhi, Agra, Fatehpur Sikri, etc. were developed as capital cities.
In South India, Kanchi, Badami, Kalyani, Vengi, Devagiri, Manyakhet, Tanjavur and Madurai, etc. were capital cities.

Sultanate and the Mughal periods:

During Sultanate period, Lahore and Delhi developed as capital cities.
During the dughal period Delhi, Agra, Fatehpur Sikri were the capital cities.

Question 5.
In India many port cities were developed. Why?
Answer:
India is sorrounded by the sea on three sides. So, in India many port cities were developed as trading centre.

Question 6.
Name two important ports of eastern coast of India during Medieval period.
Answer:
Vishakhapatnam (Modem Andhra Pradesh) and Tamralipti.

Question 7.
Discuss the contribution of traders and artisans in the economic development of India.
Answer:
The Indian traders and artisans gave important contribution in the economic development of India. The Indian artisans were skilled in preparing best quality stock. They were very skilled in textile industry. The cloth prepared by them was world famous whether it was woolen, cotton, silky. The leather goods were also very popular.

In the medieval period, there was development of the art of making alloys. The blacksmiths and’ goldsmiths prepared best quality goods. The traders exported these goods to other countries. And thus, India was turned into a “Golden Sparrow”.

Question 8.
Write about the historical importance of Lahore City.
Answer:
Lahore is a famous city of Pakistan. During the medieval period, it was an important Indian city. During the times of Turk invasion, Lahore was the capital of Hindu ruling dynasty. After that, it remained the capital of Qutub-ud-din Aibak and Iltutmish. Iltutmish later on, made Delhi his capital.

During the times of invasion of Babar, Daulat Khan Lodhi was the Governor of Punjab. During the administration of Mughals, Lahore was«the capital of the state of Punjab. In 1761 A.D., Lahor-e was captured by the Sikhs. In 1799 A.D., Maharaja Ranjit Singh made Lahore his capital. In 1849 A.D. Lahore came under the control of the British. From 1849 to 1947 A.D. Lahore remained the capital of Punjab state. At the time of partition, Lahore! became a part of Pakistan.

Question 9.
Discuss the sources that tell us about towns in the Mughal period.
Answer:

The travelogues of a Portuguese visitor named Duarte Barbosa and an English visitor named Ralph Fitch tell us about the cities of that period
The map of the Mughal empire in 1629 A.D. shows places like Thatta, Lahore, Surat, and Multan. This map was prepared by Hondiu.
The government documents related to the land revenue in the Mughal period give us information about old and new cities.