PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answers in one or two words:

Question 1.
Which instrument is used to measure the firmness of fruits and vegetables?
Answer:
Penetrometer.

Question 2.
Which parameter is measured with a refractometer?
Answer:
The sweetness of fruit.

Question 3.
How much fruits and vegetables are lost before they reach markets?
Answer:
25-30%.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 4.
On which fruit the use of waxing is useful?
Answer:
Citrus fruits (Kinnow), apple and pears.

Question 5.
What is the storage temperature for potato and kinnow?
Answer:
For potato 1 to 2° C and for Kinnow 4 to 6°C

Question 6.
How much should be the relative humidity for storage of onkm?
Answer:
65-70%.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 7.
Which fruits are harvested on the basis of TSS and acid ratio?
Answer:
Grapes and citrus fruits, e.g. organge, Kinnow etc.

Question 8.
What precautions should be taken during transportation of produce?
Answer:
Vehicle should be padded or lined with straw. Heavy weight produce should not be loaded over the soft produce.

Question 9.
Name the harmful chemical used for ripening of fruit
Answer:
Calcium carbide.

Question 10.
Name the internationally acceptable technique used for ripening of fruits.
Answer:
Ripening by ethylene gas.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
On what basis fruits and vegetable are graded?
Answer:
Grading should be done as per the requirement of the market. Grading is done on the basis of size, weight, colour etc. This fetches more profit to the farmer.

Question 2.
Why produce should be cooled after harvest?
Answer:
Produce should be cooled immediately after harvesting. This helps in increasing the shelf life of the horticulture produce. Cold water or cold air can be used for this purpose.

Question 3.
What are the benefits of storage of fruits and vegetables?
Answer:
Produce is cheap in the season, and earning is less. If produce is preserved and sold in off season, it fetches more profit to the farmer.

Question 4.
What is the use of pentrometer and refractometer?
Answer:
Pentrometer is used to measure the firmness of the fruit and refractometer is used to measure the sweetness of the fruit.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 5.
How fruits and vegetables are graded on commercial scale?
Answer:
Fruits and vegetables are graded on commercial scale with the help of mechanical grader.

Question 6.
Which fruits are ripened with ethylene gas?
Answer:
Ripening by using ethylene is internationally accepted technique. Fruits like, banana, pears, tomato are ripened by this technique.

Question 7.
Which parameters should be taken into consideration for harvesting of tomato?
Answer:
Parameter that should be taken into consideration for harvesting of tomato is colour chart. For the nearby market red matured tomato, for medium distance markets at pink stage and for distant market harvesting at green stage should be done.

Question 8.
Which produce is packed in jute sacks?
Answer:
Potato and onion are packed in jute sacks.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 9.
Which wax is approved by FSSAI?
Answer:
FSSAI has approved shellak wax, camauba wax and bees wax.

Question 10.
What kind of boxes is used for the packaging of high-value produce?
Answer:
Corrugated fibre board boxes are used for the packing of high-value produce like, apple, mango, grapes, kinnow, peach, litchi, plum etc.

(C) Answers in five to six sentences:

Question 1.
What do you mean by waxing of fruits and what are its benefits?
Answer:
During marketing of the produce there is a loss of water contents which affect the natural gloss and quality of the produce. Fruits like, Kinnow, Peach etc. and vegetables like, Brinjal, Capsicum, Tomato, Cucumber etc. are waxed after harvesting. At the time of grading, washing or doing other preserving activities natural wax is removed. Rewaxing with food grade wax is done. Waxing helps in maintaining water content of the produce at the time of marketing. Dry the produce after waxing. Food grade waxes which is approved by FSSAI are shellac wax, bees wax, camauba wax.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on ripening of fruits with ethylene gas.
Answer:
Ripening of fruits at commercial level is done by using ethylene gas which is internationally accepted technique. In this technique fruits are kept in an enclosed chamber where the produce is exposed to 100-150 ppm of ethylene gas for 24 hours. This triggers the ripening process. Temperature should be maintained between 15 to 25 °C and humidity should be 90-95% ethylene gas is produced by using ethylene generator.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 3.
Write a short note on shrink and cling film packing of fruit.
Answer:
Fruits and vegetables are packed in a paper tray and wrapped with shrink or cling film.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Processing of Fruits and Vegetables 1
The produce packed in this way remains visible to the cousumer and quality of the produce is also maintained. High value fruits and vegetables like kinnow, tomato, seedless cucumber etc. are packed using this technique. Farmer can earn good profit using this technique.

Question 4.
What is the importance of packging of fruits in corrugated fibre board boxes?
Answer:
For secure transportation of the fruits and vegetables, packaging proves beneficial, it is necessary to avoid bruising of produce during the transportation. Corrugated fibre board boxes are used for packaging of high value produce; like, apple, mango, grapes, kinnow, litchi, plums, peach etc. paper shreds or pieces of cardboard paper are also used in these boxes so that fruits do not get pressed against each other.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables 2

Question 5.
What precaution should be taken during harvesting of fruits and vegetables?
Answer:
Fruits and vegetables should be harvested carefully so that least damage to the produce takes place should be done manually with modesty. Take out the produce from the soil using hands use cloth laps open at both ends at the time of harvesting. Save produce from injuries. Use clip, knife and scissors for harvesting fruits. Take care that clipper and knife used are clean and sharp. Kinnow like fruits should be harvested with very small stalk with the fruit. If the stalk is long then at the time of transportation other fruits can get injuries. Use ladder for plucking Kinnow, pears, peach, alucha, ber, mango, etc.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
According to WHO (World Health Organisation) how much fruits and vegetables should be consumed by a person in a day?
Answer:
300 gram vegetables and 80 gram fruits.

Question 2.
In India how much fruits and vegetables are available for a person per day?
Answer:
30 gram fruits and 80 gram vegetables.

Question 3.
How can we loiow about the maturity for harvesting of the tomato, mango, peach etc.?
Answer:
By using color chart.

Question 4.
What is the parameter for maturity of peachy?
Answer:
Turning from green color to yellow.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 5.
What is the parameter for maturity of guava?
Answer:
Turning deep green color to light green color.

Question 6.
What is the parameter for maturity of potato.
Answer:
Vines show sign of senescence (drying).

Question 7.
What is the parameter for maturity of plums?
Answer:
Reddish colour on 1/4 to 1/2 of surface.

Question 8.
What is parameter for maturity of bell Pepper?
Answer:
Fully developed fruit and green shining.

Question 9.
What is parameter for maturity of pea?
Answer:
Pods filled but not faded in colour.

Question 10.
What type of wax is coated on the fruits.
Answer:
Food grade wax like bees wax.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 11.
How is packaging of onion and potato in done?
Answer:
Using jute sacks.

Question 12.
For how many days kinnows can be stored in cold store?
Answer: 1 1/2 to 2 months.

Question 13.
How much moisture content should be in potato and kinnow at the time of storing in cold storage?
Answer:
90-95%.

Question 14.
What are the harmful effects of fruits ripened by calcium carbide?
Answer:
Blisters in mouth, ulcer, acidity in stomach.

Question 15.
For how much time fruits are exposed to ethylene gas in enclosed chamber?
Answer:
24 hours.

Question 16.
Name two fruits on which wax is coated?
Answer:
Kinnow, peach.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 17.
What is the maturity parameter for harvesting of fruits and vegetables.
Answer:
Size and colour- of these.

Question 18.
What instrument is used to measure the firmness of fruits?
Answer:
Pentrometer.

Question 19.
What is the relation between firmness and maturity?
Answer:
Mature fruit is less firm i,e. it becomes soft.

Question 20.
How to make fruits free from bacteria at home?
Answer:
Using bleaching soloution.

Question 21.
Which type of containers are used to store fruits?
Answer:
Containers should have plane inner surfaces.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 22.
What should be done to protect produce from injuries?
Answer:
Produce should be placed between layers of paper or cardboard.

Question 23.
What is the main purpose of canning?
Answer:
Main purpose of canning is to preserve the produce for a long time.

Question 24.
How grapes and Alucha should be cleaned?
Answer:
These should be cleaned using 100-150 ppm chlorine water. This way produce can be protected from diseases.

Question 25.
How grading is done for round shaped produce?
Answer:
These can be graded by using different sizes of rings.

Question 26.
Which chemicals are used to treat the produce after plucking?
Answer:
Calcium chloride, Sodium bisulphate, Potassium sulphate etc.

Question 27.
Name water tolerating crops.
Answer:
Carrot, tomato, turnip.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 28.
Which vegetables should not be washed before packing?
Answer:
Cabbage, Bhindi, peas.

Question 29.
Which fruits are graded on the basis of maturity?
Answer:
Tomato, Banana, Mango etc.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do we know the maturity of fruits? Describe in detail.
Answer:
Size of the fruits is a measure of their maturity. Mango is ready to be for harvesting when a beak appears on the fruit. For checking the ripening of tomato, peach, plums etc. coloured charts are used. For nearby market tomatoes should be red and for a distance market, these should be of pink colour but for very far away market full sized yet green tomatoes should be harvested.

Question 2.
How the hardness index of fruits be determined?
Answer:
Following method is used to determine the hardness index:
With the help of a sharp knife cut a thin slice. Slice is having pulp and skin of the fruit. Place the fruit on a plane hard surface and with the help of a proper sized plunger measure the hardness of the fruit. For this start pressing the fruit on the plunger with uniform speed. Measure the hardness index of the fruit from marks on the plunger.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 3.
What is Refractometer? For which fruits it is used?
Answer:
To measure the sweetness of the fruits refractometer is used. This is used for fruits like grapes, muskmelon etc.

Question 4.
How the acidity of the fruit is measured?
Answer:
When citrus fruits are ripe, there sourness decreases. To know the acidity, one or two drops of phenolphthalein are added to measured volume of fruit juice. In it add 0.1 N of sodium hydroxide solution drop by drop till the colour of juice changes to pink. From the used sodium hydroxide and given volume of juice, acidity of the juice can be measured.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 5.
How is ratio of percentage of sweetness and sourness is measured?
Answer:
By knowing this ratio quality of the fruit is judged. Percentage sweetness and sourness are measured and value of sweetness is divided by value of sourness to know the ratio.

Question 6.
What do you know about preservation to fruits?
Answer:
Every fruit is available in the market in a particular period of time of the year and it is available in plenty and it can be bought for comparatively less price. On these days fruits should be bought and preserved. More income can be earned by selling these in far away markets and by selling in off-season.

Question 7.
Why is it necessary to preserve vegetables?
Answer:
If vegetables are not preserved then more profit can not be earned, when vegetables are cheap in the season, buy and preserve the vegetables. These can be sold in off season and more profit can be earned.

Question 8.
How canning is profitable?
Answer:
By canning or packing, we can avoid the losses which may occur after plucking. This way more profit can be earned.

Question 9.
What is the use of Penetro meter?
Answer:
It is a device which is used to measure the hardness of the fruit.

Question 10.
Why is it necessary to (pluck kinnow with small stalk) keep the stalk short while plucking kinnow?
Answer:
If the stalk is long it can injure the other fruits while transportation. Thus kinnow are plucked or harvested with small stalks.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 11.
What is the importance of quality of crops?
Answer:
If quality is maintained then transportation, storage and marketing can be done for a long span of time and thus, more profit can be earned. This way consumer, exporter and trader all feel satisfied.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of plastic trays in {he preservation (storage) of fruits and vegetables?
Answer:
Plastic trays are costly, but these can be cleaned easily and used again and again. Air can pass through them because these have holes. These can be stacked over each other. At the time of harvesting, these prove very helpful. These can be used at time of harvesting, for storage, for transportation and for selling in the market. These trays are used for harvesting, storage and transportation of Kinnow, grapes, tomato etc.

Question 2.
What are merits of good quality produce?
Answer:
Following are the merits of good quality produce:

  • This type of produce can be transported, marketed and stored for a longer time.
  • This type of produce gives satisfaction to exporters, traders and consumers.
  • Produce have long life after harvesting.
  • Marketing sphere also grows big.
  • More profit can be earned on selling such a produce.

Question 3.
What do you know about cooling, sorting and cleaning of the produce after harvesting?
Answer:
1. Cooling of the produce:
For long shelf life of the produce, it is allowed to cool down. The method of cooling depends on the type of produce. Different methods of cooling are with blowing cool air, cooling in a room, cooling with cold water. Any of the method can be used.

2. Sorting and cleaning of the produce:
Sorting and grading of the produce is done, injured, diseased and irregular shaped produce is separated out. Then it is cleaned, method of cleaning depends on the type of produce. Apples are cleaned using dry brushes whereas citrus fruits, carrots etc. are washed with water. Whether to use dry brushes or water for cleaning depends on the type of produce and extent of cleanliness, e.g. grapes and aluchas are never to be cleaned wash.

These fruits are made disease free by using 100-150 ppm chlorine water. Before packaging of cabbage and cauliflower etc., non eatable parts should be removed.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Post Harvest Handling of Fruits and Vegetables

Question 4.
What do you know about grading and marketing of fruits and vegetables?
Answer:
Grading is done on the basis of size, weight, colour etc. Graded produce can earn more profit. Round fruits like tomato, tinda, apple etc. are graded using different sized rings. More profit can be earned if grading is done on the basis of maturity of produce like tomato, barihna, mango etc. Some type of machines on small scale can also be used for grading.

Fully grown but green tomato, mango etc. can be stored for sometime and when the rates in the market are on rise these can be ripened and sold to earn more profit. Green onion, mint, coriander leaves etc. are packed into bundles of 100 grams and 500 grams. This way these can be transported easily.

Question 5.
What do you know about the treatment of produce after harvesting?
Answer:
If produce is treated after harvesting it can be saved from various types of fungal diseases and many other diseases. Chemicals used for the treatment are potassium sulphate, sodiumbisulphite, calcium chloride etc. Some times produce is treated using hot water and blowing hot wind. This way germs are either killed or become weak and the produce is saved from disease. After the use of hot air or hot water, produce should be cooled down immediately by using showers of cold water or cold wind.

Question 6.
Which precautions should be kept in mind, while canning fruits and vegetables?
Answer:
Following precautions should be kept in mind while canning fruits and vegetables:

  • Do not allow the produce to get injuries.
  • Raw or more ripe fruits should be separated out.
  • Do not wash green vegetables, cabbage, bhindi, tomato, etc. before canning.
  • Chlorine used in water should not be more than 100-150 ppm.
  • Water tolerant produce like tomato, carrot, turnip, etc. should be collected in the water-filled tank (chubacha).
  • The table surface on which produce is washed, graded, or packed should be made smooth by placing sponge pieces at comers or edges or irregular points.
  • Do not use restricted chemicals on the produce.
  • Treat the produce after harvesting using proper methods like waxing, hot air, water, sulphar dioxide, etc.
  • To lessen the damage, produce should be canned in the fields.

PSEB 11th Class Sociology Solutions Chapter 5 Culture

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Sociology Book Solutions Chapter 5 Culture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Sociology  Chapter 5 Culture

Sociology Guide for Class 11 PSEB Culture Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following very short answer questions in 1-15 words each:

Question 1.
State the basic elements of culture.
Answer:
Traditions, social norms and values are the basic elements of culture.

Question 2.
Who called culture a ‘total way of life of the people?
Answer:
These words are of Clyde Kluckhohn.

Question 3.
In what way is culture transmitted in non-literate societies?
Answer:
Because culture is a learned behaviour, that’s why in non-literate societies culture is transmitted through learning.

PSEB 11th Class Sociology Solutions Chapter 5 Culture

Question 4.
Give a broad classification of culture.
Answer:
Culture is of two types-material culture and non-material culture.

Question 5.
Name few examples of non-material culture.
Answer:
Views, norms, values, habits, ideals, traditions etc.

Question 6.
Who gave the theory of cultural lag?
AnsweR:
The theory of cultural lag was given by William F. Ogburn.

Answer the following short answer questions in 30-35 words each:

Question 1.
What is culture ?
Answer:
Our ways of living, philosophy, feelings, views, machines; tools etc. all material and non-material things and this is culture. All these things are produced and used by group. So, culture is that on which we work upon, think on it and keep it.

Question 2.
What is cultural lag ?
Answer:
Culture consists of two parts-material and non-material. Due to new inventions, change comes very quickly in material culture but our views, traditions etc. i.e. non-material culture does not change very quickly. As a result, gap is created between the two which is known as cultural lag.

PSEB 11th Class Sociology Solutions Chapter 5 Culture

Question 3.
What are social norms ?
Answer:
Each society makes certain rules for the behaviour of its members and these are known as norms. So, norms are few directions for behaviour. Norms regulate and direct the behaviour of individuals. They are very important aspects of culture.

Question 4.
What are the central values of modern India ?
Answer:
Democratic system, equality, justice, freedom, secularism etc. are the central values of modern India. Each society has its own central values. Small communities stress on any specific value but large societies stress on universal values.

Question 5.
Mention some values of traditional Indian society.
Answer:
Each society is having different values. One society streses on one value and other society stresses on the other. Important values of traditional Indian society are detachment, materialism and religion, attainment of four purusharthas, dharma, artha, kama and moksha.

PSEB 11th Class Sociology Solutions Chapter 5 Culture

Question 6.
How is the cognitive component of culture expressed ?
Answer:
The cognitive components of culture are expressed with the help of imagination, literature, art, religion and scientific theories. Views are expressed in literature and in this way the cognitive aspect of culture is preserved.

Answer the following short answer questions in 75-85 words each:

Question 1.
How is culture a total way of life of the people ?
Answer:
There is no denying fact that culture is a total way of life of the people. Whatever we have is our culture. Our views, ideals, habits, clothes, money, property etc. and whatever humans have achieved till today is our culture. If we separate all these from human life, nothing will be left in it and then human life will reach the level of early man. Yet each society has its different culture but they have certain elements which are common everywhere. So, we can say that culture is a total way of human life.

Question 2.
Write a note on material and non-material culture.
Answer:
The meaning of material culture is by that culture in which all the man made things are included. This culture is concrete because we can see or touch it such as scooter, T.V. table, chair, pen, bus, car etc. All these things are concrete and thus a part of material culture.

In non-material culture, all the things are included which are abstract in nature. We can neither see non touch them. We can just feel them such as traditions, customs, values, skills, norms etc. All such things are abstract so non-material culture is abstract in nature.

PSEB 11th Class Sociology Solutions Chapter 5 Culture

Question 3.
Discuss in brief the basic elements of culture.
Answer:

  1. Customs and traditions are the types of organised social behaviour which are used again and again. They are permanent ways of.behaviour. Each society has its own customs and traditions.
  2. Norms are also very essential elements of culture. It is expected from each person to behave in a specified way. Norms are the established ways of behaviour shared by the members of a group.
  3. Values are also its inseparable part. Each society has its own values and it is expected from every one to accept them.

Question 4.
‘Culture is learned behaviour’. Explain the statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that humans learn their culture. It is not a biological trait which one gets from his parents in the form of genes. An individual learns culture gradually through the process of learning. No one is having views and ideas when he takes birth but all these he learns while living in society after interacting with others. Every type of action or activity is learned only while living in society. So, it is clear that culture is learned behaviour.

Answer the following short answer questions in 250-300 words each:

Question 1.
How does the understanding of culture in social analysis differ from the everyday use of the word ‘culture’ ?
Answer:
The meaning of everyday use of the word ‘culture’ is very much different from the meaning given by sociologists. In every usage, culture is limited only to art or life style of different countries. But the meaning given by sociology is very much different. Sociology says that whatever man has achieved from his early life till today is his culture. Traditions, ideas, norms, values, mores, chair, table, car, pen, books, written knowledge etc. Whatever man has achieved only while living in society is his culture, So, the meaning of culture given in both the senses is different from each other.

PSEB 11th Class Sociology Solutions Chapter 5 Culture

Question 2.
What do you mean by culture ? Highlight the characteristics of culture.
Answer:
The most important thing which differentiates humans from animals is the culture which humans have but animals don’t. The most important thing which human has is his culture. If the culture would be taken away from them then nothing would be left with them. In all the organisms of the world, only humans have the capability to make and preserve their culture.

Culture comes out of the interactions of humans. Culture not only comes out of human interaction but it shows the way to future’s human interactions. Culture helps in the formation of personality of a man and helps him to live in society. Culture makes that type of atmosphere in which man becomes capable of doing functions of society. In this way man and culture are connected very deeply with each other because culture differentiates man from animals.

Culture, is the mest important feature of human society. According to Aristotle, “Man is a social animal.” If we will describe the differences between man and animal then this culture will be the decisive factor of difference between them. Man himself creates his culture and has the capacity to preserve it for its future generation. Actually it is the product of human interactions #nd on the basis of this culture we can differentiate one society from the other.

We cannot understand human society without understanding the culture because culture exerts a lot of effect on the social life. Cultural factor is also an important factor of social change. In this way we can say that man is not only a biological man but is a cultural man as well. In common language culture is equated with education means literate person is a cultured man and illiterate person is a non-cultured man. But this meaning of culture is not correct. Sociology takes its meaning in very wide sense. According to sociologists any thing which man has made to fulfil his needs is culture.

Definitions:
1. According to Maclver and Page, “It is the expression of our nature in our modes of living and thinking, in our everyday course, in art, in literature, in religion, in recreation and enjoyment.”

2. According to Bierstedt, “Culture is the complex whole that consists of everything we think and do and have as members of society.”

3. According to Ogburn and Nimkoff, “It is that part of man’s total environment into which he alone is born. It consists buildings, tools, wearing apparel, art, science, religion and all the ways of doing things which man learns.”

4. According to Majumdar, “Culture is the sum total of human achievement, material as well as non-material capable of transmission, sociologically
i.e. tradition and communication critically as well as horizontally.”

5. According to Lundberg, “Culture refers to the social mechanism of behaviour and to the physical and symbolic product of these behaviours.”
From the given definitions it is clear that all those things are included in culture which a man learns while living in society like art, law, feelings, customs, ways of wearing, eating, literature, knowledge, belief etc.

All these things are the part of culture and they do not work separately but they work with each other and form an organization. This organization is known as culture. In short, the things which a man has learnt and whatever he has got from his ancestors as heritage is known as culture. In heritage tools, ways of behaviour, ways of science, ways of doing work are included.

PSEB 11th Class Sociology Solutions Chapter 5 Culture

Functions or Characteristics of Culture:
1. Culture is transmitted from generation to generation. Culture is transmitted from one generation to another because a child learns many things from the behaviour of his parents. Man learns a lot from the achievements of his ancestors. No one wants to start any thing from the beginning and that’s why he takes care of that work which his ancestors have done.

This transmission is going on from the ages and that’s why every one gets separate personality. No one brings any thing with his birth. He needs to learn every thing by living in society with his parents, grandparents etc. In’this way culture is transmitted from one generation to another.

2. Culture is social. Culture cannot become the personal property of an individual. It is social because neither one man can make the whole culture and nor it is property of anyone. When any one invents any thing then that invention is not his personal thing but becomes property of society because that thing will be used by the whole society.

In this way different things of our culture are used by society. Any thing can be called a part of the culture at that time when that thing will be accepted by most of the people of society. In this way universality of that thing-is an essential element of culture. So culture is not individual but is social.

3. Culture can be learned. Culture is learned by humans. It is not a biological quality which a person gets from his parents by birth. Man learns culture by socialization. No one brings thoughts and ideas by birth but he learns them by interacting with other persons of society. Every type of work is learned by society. From this it is clear that culture is a learned behaviour.

4. Culture fulfills needs of society. If any thing is invented then that thing is invented because man needs that thing. In this way every thing of culture comes out so that the needs of man could be fulfilled. Why man learnt to grow wheat, because he needs wheat for his hunger. In this way man learnt to grow food and this learned behaviour is transmitted from generation to generation.

Needs are not only biological but are sociocultural also. With hunger, man needs love and sympathy which a man learns while living in society. In this way different parts of culture fulfil different needs of society. Whichever part of culture is unable to fulfil the needs of society, gradually it comes to an end.

5. Changes often come in culture. Culture never stops at one place but often changes because nothing is unchangeable in the world. Change is law of nature and if change is necessary then culture is also changeable. Culture fulfills all the needs of society which generally change with the passage of time because situations are not the same all the times.

With the change in situations, needs also change which means, the methods of fulfilling those needs also change. For example during earlier times agriculture was done with old means like plough but with the increase of population, needs were also increased and that’s why now agriculture is being done with tractors and combines to fulfil the increased needs. So with the change in situation, culture is also bound to change.

PSEB 11th Class Sociology Solutions Chapter 5 Culture

6. One culture consists of many cultures. In every culture we can see some common norms, traditions, feelings, rituals, behaviour etc. but with that we can see many types of ways of eating, wearing, ways of living, behaviour, etc. From this it is clear that one culture consists of many cultures. For example we can see many subcultures in Indian culture because every one has its own ways of living, behaving, eating etc. from which it is clear that one culture has many cultures.

Question 3.
Explain the two types of culture in detail.
Answer:
Culture is an important factor for social change. With the change in culture, society also changes because it is the social heritage of society. Famous sociologists Ogburn and Nimkoff,’in their book ‘Hand Book of Sociology’, have given two types of culture and these are :
(1) Material Culture
(2) Non-material Culture.

1. Material Culture:
Material culture is artificial culture. Its main feature is that all the things made by man are included in this. Material culture is related to concrete things. We can touch and see all the things of material culture. For example machines, tools, means of transport, books, phone, etc. Material culture is related with inventions of man.

New technological knowledge is also included in material culture. Everything is included in this type of culture which is made, changed and transmitted till today. These material aspects of culture help its members to define their behaviour. For example the people engaged in agriculture have occupation but they use different implements and tools. All these are the‘‘parts of material culture.

2. Non-material Culture:
Important feature of non-material culture is that it is abstract. Abstract means those things which we cannot touch, and see. We can only feel them. For example religion, traditions, rituals, customs, art, literature, music, values, ideas etc. are included in non-material culture. According to Ogburn and Nimkoff, culture is divided in two parts for the easiness of subject or just for analytical purposes.

PSEB 11th Class Sociology Solutions Chapter 5 Culture

Question 4.
Write a detailed note on cultural lag.
Answer:
First of all the concept of cultural lag was used by Ogburn to understand the problems of society and conditions of conflict. Ogburn was the first sociologist who has given the detailed meaning of the concept of Cultural Lag. Yet other sociologists like Spencer, Sumner, Muller etc. have also used the concept of cultural lag in their writings but Ogburn has used this concept in his book ‘Social Change’ to understand social disorganization problems and conflict. In sociology, this concept was accepted widely.

Meaning of Cultural Lag. According to Ogburn and Nimkoff, change in different parts of culture never comes with the same speed. The speed of change of one part is more as compared to the other. But culture is a system. It is made up of many parts. Its different parts are inter-connected and inter-related. This system of culture can be maintained if the change in all arts of culture will come at the same speed. Actually what happens is that if one part of culture changes due to any invention then another part of the culture, which depends upon that part, also changes. But the change in the second part comes very late.

How much time will this second part take, depends upon the nature of the second part. This lateness goes on for many years because of which problem comes in the system. This lag in different parts of culture is known as Cultural Lag. According to Ogburn, “The thesis is that the various parts of modern culture are not changing at the same rate, some parts are changing much more rapidly than others, and that since there is co-relation and inter-dependence of parts, a rapid change in one part of our culture requires re-adjustments through other changes in the various co-related parts of culture. where one part of culture changes first, through some discovery or invention and occasional changes in some part of culture-dependent upon it, there frequently is a delay in the changes occasioned in the dependent part of the culture.”

PSEB 11th Class Sociology Solutions Chapter 5 Culture

The meaning of lag is to stay behind. Ogburn has given example to explain the meaning of ‘Lag’. According to him, anything is made of two parts. If change comes in one part of that thing then this change will definitely affect the other parts. This part, which is affected by that change, slowly and slowly changes automatically. These changes come slowly and slowly take some time. This difference of time is known as lag or to stay behind. Ogburn has explained the concept of cultural lag in this way.

According to him, culture has two parts that are interrelated. If ally change comes in one part then the second part is bound to be affected by that change. This second part slowly and slowly adapts itself to change and makes itself according to that change. But this adaptation takes some time. This difference of time, which is there between ‘change and adaptation, is known as cultural lag. When any part of culture moves forward with some development or invention and the second part lags behind then we can say that cultural lag exists.

According to Ogburn, culture has two parts (1) Material Culture (2) Non-material Culture. In material culture, all those things are included which we can touch and see like a machine, table, chair, book, T.V. scooter, etc., and in non-material culture all those things are included which we cannot see and touch, only we can feel them. For example, habits, thought, behaviour, feelings, customs, etc. Both parts are closely interrelated. If change comes in any part then the second part is bound to change.

This law is also applicable to material and non-material cultures. Changes often come in material culture and these changes come very fast because of new inventions. Material culture changes very fast but the speed of changes in non-material is very slow. That’s why because of rapid changes material culture moves forward but non-material culture, whose speed is very slow, lags behind. In this way, the lagging behind of the non-material culture from the material culture is known as cultural lag.

According to Ogburn, change comes in material culture with great speed because people want to use material things in a proper way. To use material things we need money and there is no need to move away from traditions and thoughts. For example, we are ready to buy Fridge, T.V., Scooter, Car, etc. but are not willing to change our customs and traditions. With one more example everything will be clear.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 16 Light Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 16 Light

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Light Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Suppose you are in a dark room. Can you see objects in the room ? Can you see objects outside the room ? Explain.
Answer:
No, we cannot see anything in dark. As no light is falling on the objects in the room and they are not emitting any light on their own. So, nothing is visible inside the dark room.
Objects outside the room can be seen, if either there is light outside the room or objects are emitting their own light.

Question 2.
Differentiate between regular and diffused reflection. Does diffused reflection mean the failure of the laws of reflection ?
Answer:
Differences between regular reflection and diffused reflection:

Regular reflection Diffused reflection
1. It occurs on a smooth, plane surface. 1. It occurs on a rough, irregular surface.
2. Reflected rays are parallel to one another. 2. Reflected rays are unparallel to each other.

Diffused reflection is not failure of laws of reflection. It is only due to irregularities on the reflecting surface.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

Question 3.
Mention against each of the following whether regular or diffused reflection will take place when a beam of light strikes. Justify your answer in each case.
[a] Polished wooden table
[b] Chalk powder
[c] Cardboard surface
[d] Marble floor with water spread over it.
[e] Mirror
[f] Piece of paper.
Answer:
(a) Polished wooden table. Regular reflection, as wooden table has smooth polished surface.
(b) Chalk powder. Diffused reflection due to rough surface of chalk powder.
(c) Cardboard surface. Diffused reflection because cardboard has small irregularities on its surface.
(d) Marble floor with water spread over it. Regular reflection as water gives a smooth surface.
(e) Mirror. Regular reflection due to smooth surface.
(f) Piece of paper. Regular reflection if paper is fine and diffused reflection if paper is coarse.

Question 4.
State the laws of reflection.
Answer:
Laws of reflection.

  1. Angle of incidence (∠i) = Angle of reflection ( ∠r).
  2. Incident ray, reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.

Question 5.
Describe an activity to show that the incident ray, the reflected ray, normal, the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
Experiment.
Take a white sheet, spread it on a table. Draw a line MM on it. Place a plane mirror vertically on this line. Now throw light on a comb in this ways that a parallel light rays fall on the mirror. Adjust it in such a way that a beautiful pattern of incident and reflected rays is formed. Now mark points A, B, C on incident ray and points D, E, F on its corresponding reflected ray. Switch off the torch and remove the mirror. Join the points and extend line to mirror. ABC will meet MM at O and DEF will all also be meeting at O. OA is incident ray and OF is reflected ray. Draw ON ⊥ MM .
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 1
Measure the angle of incidence ∠AON and the angle of reflection ∠FON which would found to be equal. Incident ray, reflected ray and normal, all lie in one plane of paper.

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks in the following.
(a) A person 1 m in front of a mirror seems to be ……………….. m away from his image.
(b) If you touch your ………………….. ear with right hand in front of a plane mirror it will be seen that your right ear is touched with ……………… .
(c) The size of pupil becomes …………………. when you in dim light.
(d) Night birds have ………………. cones than rods in their eyes.
Answer:
(a) 2m
(b) Right, Left
(c) large
(d) more.

Choose the correct option in the Questions 7-8.

Question 7.
Angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection
(a) Always
(b) Sometimes
(c) Under special conditions
(d) Never.
Answer:
(a) Always.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

Question 8.
Image formed by a plane mirror is
(a) virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged.
(b) virtual, behind the mirror and of same size as the object.
(c) real at the surface of mirror and enlarged.
(d) real, behind the mirror and of same size as the object.
Answer:
(b) Virtual, behind the mirror and of same size as the object.

Question 9.
Describe the construction of a Kaleiodeoscope.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 2
Construction of a Kaleiodeoscope. It is a toy to form many images by multiple reflections. A Kaleiodeoscope is made up of three strips of plane mirrors inclined at angles of 60° enclosed in a tube. One end of tube has a ground glass plate with a clear glass plate on its inner side. A metallic ring separates the two plates and the space is filled with coloured pieces of glass or broken bangles. A cardboard with a hole in the centre is fixed on the other end of the tube.

Question 10.
Draw a labelled sketch of the human eye.
Answer:
Labelled diagram to show different parts of human eye.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 3

Question 11.
Gurmit wanted to perform activity 16.8 using a laser torch. Her teacher advised her not do so. Can you explain the basis of the teacher’s advice ?
Answer:
Laser torch has very sharp beams of light which can destroy the pupil or retina of the eye.

Question 12.
Explain how can you take care of your eyes.
Answer:
Care of eyes.
Eyes are the most precious gifts of nature. So we should take full care of our eyes by taking atleast following precautions.

  1. We should wash our eyes daily with clean water.
  2. We should not read or work in very bright or dim light.
  3. We should not read in a running vehicle.
  4. We should not rub our eyes.
  5. We should use sunglasses on hot summer day.
  6. We should not look directly at the sun. Also we should not look at the sun during solar eclipse.
  7. We should eat vitamin A rich food for healthy, clear eyes.

Question 13.
What is the angle of incidence of a ray if the reflected ray is at an angle of 90° to the incident ray ?
Solution:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 4
If ∠i = angle of incidence
∠r = angle of reflection
∠i + ∠r = 90 (given)
But ∠i = ∠r
(According to laws of reflection)
∴ ∠i + ∠i = 90°
2 ∠i = 90
∠r = ∠i – 45°

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

Question 14.
How many images of a candle will be formed if it placed between two parallel mirrors separated by 40 cm ?
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 5
When mirrors are separated by 40 cm and are parallel to each other so that the angle between the mirrors is 0° which is not sulj-multiple of 360°. Then theoretically, the number of images formed would be infinite, but as a considerable amount of light is lost due to reflections so only a limited number of images are seen which is shown in figure.

Question 15.
Two mirrors meet at right angles. A ray of light is incident on one at an angle of 30° as shown is figure. Draw the reflected ray from the second mirror.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 6
Solution:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 7

Question 16.
Bhoojo stands at A just on the side of a plane mirror as shown in figure. Can he see himself in the mirror ? Also can he see image of objects situated at P, Q and R ?
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 8
Solution:
Bhoojo cannot see his image in the mirror as he is standing outside the edge of mirror. He can see the images of P and Q easily but not the image of R.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 9

Question 17.
(a) Find out the position of image of an object situated at A in plane mirror.
(b) Can Paheli at B see this image ?
(c) Can Bhoojo at C see this image ?
(d) When Paheli moves from B to C where does the image of A move ?
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 10
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 11
(a) The image of A in the mirror will be as far behind as the object in front of the mirror.
(b) Yes, Paheli can see the image.
(c) Yes, Bhoojo can see this image.
(d) When Paheli moved from B to C, the image of A will not move forward.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Light Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The plane and polished surface that returns light falling on it in the same direction or any other direction is called:
(a) Lens
(b) Prisom
(c) Mirror
(d) Kaleidoscope.
Answer:
(c) Mirror.

Question 2.
How many colours are present in white sunlight ?
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 3.
Answer:
(c) 7.

Question 3.
What is the most convenient distance for reading by a normal eye ?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 20 cm.
Answer:
(b) 25 cm.

Question 4.
When you see in dim light the size of your pupil becomes:
(a) Small
(b) Large
(c) Neither small nor large
(b) Very small.
Answer:
(b) Large.

Question 5.
The Phenomena of splitting of light into its constituent colours is called:
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Dispersion
(b) Combination.
Answer:
(c) Dispersion.

Question 6.
The eye lenses focuses:
(a) On Cornea
(b) On Retina
(c) On Iris
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) On Retina.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Can any one see in the dark ?
Answer:
No.

Question 2.
It is what that helps us to see objects ?
Answer:
Light.

Question 3.
Name any two Luminous bodies.
Answer:

  1. Sun
  2. Electric bulb.

Question 4.
Is moon a luminous or a non-luminous body ?
Answer:
Non-luminous.

Question 5.
Where is a reflection seen ?
Answer:
In mirror.

Question 6.
Which surface can act as a mirror ?
Answer:
Any polished and smooth surface.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

Question 7.
If you are standing in front of a mirror and observing your own image what is the relation between the distance of the object and the image from the mirror ?
Answer:
Distance of object from the mirror = Distance of image from the mirror.

Question 8.
What is the angle of reflection, when a ray of light is incident normally on a plane mirror ?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 9.
Name two objects which split white light into many colours.
Answer:
Water bubbles, surface of CD, prism.

Question 10.
Name the seven colours of light.
Answer:
Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet.

Question 11.
Give one example of dispersion of light in nature.
Answer:
A rainbow.

Question 12.
Is focal length of eye lens fixed ? If not, why ?
Answer:
No. Eye lens has variable focal length. Focal length of Eye lens varies due to action of ciliary muscles.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

Question 13.
What is the function of sclerotic in human eye ?
Answer:
Sclerotic provides a solid shape to the eye and protects it from external injuries.

Question 14.
What is the function of ciliary muscles in human eye ?
Answer:
Eye lens is held in its position by ciliary muscles. Ciliary muscles help the eye lens to change its focal length by adjusting its curvature.

Question 15.
What is the function of rods on the retina ?
Answer:
Rods are sensitive to intensity of light. The more the intensity of light, more are they excited.

Question 16.
What are cones ?
Answer:
Cones on retina are sensitive to different colours. If cones are absent or insufficient, the person is colour blind.

Question 17.
What is basic cause of colour blindness ?
Answer:
It is due to absence or insufficient number of cones on the retina. Seeing sun or towards it during solar eclipse may cause colour blindness.

Question 18.
Why cats and bats are able to see at night ?
Answer:
They have very large number of rods on retina. Hence, they are able to see even a small quantity of light.

Question 19.
At what rate the images pass one after the other on a cinema screen ?
Answer:
25 or more per second.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

Question 20.
What type of photosensitive cells are present on the retina of the eye ?
Answer:
Cones and rods.

Question 21.
Name one device that can be used by short statured person to see over the head of a crowd.
Answer:
Periscope.

Question 22.
Find out the letters of English alphabet or any another language known to you in which the image formed in a plane mirror appears exactly like the letter itself.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 12

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are luminous and non-luminous bodies ? Give examples.
Answer:
Luminous Bodies.
Those objects which emit their own light, are called luminous bodies e.g. sun, stars, burning fire, radium etc.

Non-luminous Bodies.
Those objects which do not emit light of their own but shine due to other luminous bodies, are called Non-Luminous bodies. They are visible only, when light falls on them.
e.g. Moon, earth and other planets, things in a room.

Question 2.
How do we see objects ?
Answer:
When light from a light source falls on any object, it is scattered by it. The scattered light enters our eyes to form the image of the object and the object is, thus, seen.

Question 3.
Give the conditions necessary for seeing an object.
Answer:
Conditions for Seeing Objects. To see an object, the following three conditions are required to be satisfied:

  1. Source of light to make object visible
  2. The object
  3. Eye sight.

Question 4.
What is a virtual image ? Give one situation where a virtual image is formed.
Answer:
Virtual image.
An image, which cannot be obtained on a screen, is called a virtual image. Virtual image is formed when reflected rays do not actually meet at a point.
Image formed in a plane mirror is always virtual.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

Question 5.
What do you understand by lateral inversion ?
Answer:
Lateral Inversion.
In a plane mirror, the right side of the object becomes left side of the image and the left side of the object becomes right side of the image. That is the image is sideways inverted. This phenomenon, is called lateral inversion.

Question 6.
State the laws of reflection of light.
Answer:
Laws of reflection.
The reflection at the smooth surface is found to obey the following two laws, called the laws of reflection.

  1. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
    i.e., ∠i – ∠r.
  2. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.

Question 7.
What is diffused reflection and regular reflection ?
Answer:
Diffused Reflection.
It takes place when the surface is not smooth or polished e.g., wall, paper. The rays reflected from an uneven surface are not parallel but scattered in all directions and such reflection is called diffused reflection.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 13
Regular Reflection.
It takes place when a beam of light falls on a smooth and polished surface, e.g., a mirror. The reflected rays from an even surface form a clear image.

Question 8.
What do you understand by reflection of light ?
Answer:
Reflection of light.
When a ray of light falls on a mirror, or polished surface, it is sent back in a particular direction obeying certain laws of reflection. This phenomenon is known as reflection of light.

Question 9.
Define the following:
1. Reflected Ray
2. Angle of reflection.
Answer:
1. Reflected Ray. A streak of light, starting from the mirror, is called reflected ray.

2. Angle of reflection. The angle made by the reflected ray with the normal at the point of incidence is called angle of reflection. It is represented by r.

Question 10.
If incident ray strikes the mirror at 90°, what will be the angle of reflection ?
Answer:
If incident ray strikes the mirror normally, then after reflection, the ray will come back along the same path. As the angle of incidence is zero, so angle of reflection will also be zero.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

Question 11.
Define the term ‘Dispersion of light.’
Answer:
Dispersion of Light.
When a beam of light passes through a prism, the white light splits into seven colours. This phenomenon of splitting of white light into its constituent colours by a prism is known as dispersion of light.

Question 12.
While passing through a prism, why does the white light split into seven colours.
Answer:
The rays of different colours pass smoothly through air but when passing through a prism they have to change the speed according to the angle of prism. Different colours have different wave lengths and thus, they choose different paths. So, the spectrum is seen.

Question 13.
What is myopia ?
Answer:
Myopia.
The focal length of the eyes of some people is very small. Therefore, the image of distant object is not formed on their retina but it is formed at a point in front of the retina. In other words, they cannot see distant objects. This defect of vision is called Myopia or short sightedness.

Question 14.
What is hypermetropia ?
Answer:
Hypermetropia.
When people grow old, the muscles of the eyes lose their strength to control the curvature of the lens. As a result, the image of nearby objects is not formed at the retina, but it is formed behind the retina. So these people cannot see nearby objects clearly. This defect of vision is called Hypermetropia or Farsightedness.

Question 15.
Explain in short perception of colour.
Answer:
Perception of colour.
Human eye contains large number of rods and cones which are sensitive to light. Rods respond to the intensity of light and cones respond to the colour of the light. If cone cells are absent in the eye then such a person is colour blind. With the help of cones cells one can perceive colour. This is called perception of colour.

Question 16.
The following picture shows the reflection of light:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 14
(A) Name the ray AO
(B) Name the ray OB
(C) Find the value of angle x
Answer:
(A) Name of ray AO = Incident7 ray
(B) Name the ray OB = Reflected ray
(C) Value of angle x = 30° because angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between a real image and a virtual image.
Answer:
Differences between a real image and a virtual image.

Real Image Virtual Image
1. The real image is formed when the rays of light actually meet after reflection. 1. The image formed is virtual when the rays of light don’t meet after reflection.
2. Real image can be obtained on the screen. 2. Virtual images cannot be obtained on the screen.
3. Real image is always inverted. 3. Virtual image is always erect.

Question 2.
State the characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror.
Answer:
Characteristics of the image formed in a plane mirror.

  1. The image is as far behind the plane mirror, as the object is in front of it.
  2. The image is laterally (sideways) inverted.
  3. The image is of the same size as that of the object.
  4. The image formed in a plane mirror is virtual, erect and of the same size as the object.
  5. The image formed in a plane mirror cannot be obtained on the screen.

PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Which of these is the situation of social problem?
(а) Most of the people are affected by this
(b) This is an undesirable condition
(c) There is conflict in social values
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

2. Which of these is the economic factor of social problem?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Poverty
(c) Slums
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction

3. What do we call the person who consumes alcohol once or twice in a year?
(a) Rare user
(b) Infrequent user
(c) Light drinker
(d) Moderate drinker
Answer:
(a) Rare user

4. What do we call the persons who start consuming alcohol right from the morning?
(a) Moderate drinkers
(b) Heavy drinkers
(c) Infrequent drinkers
(d) Light drinkers
Answer:
(b) Heavy drinkers

5. Which of these is a type of drug?
(a) opium
(b) cocain
(c) charas
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Fill in the Blanks:

1. The situation of ……………… is undesirable in society.
Answer:
Social problem

2. ……………….. is a type of drug which is drunk.
Answer:
Alcohol

3. Opium, Heroins, cocain come under the category of ……………….
Answer:
narcotics

4. ………………… and ……………….. can play a way important role in keeping children away from drugs.
Answer:
School, teacher

5. Consuming …………………. is having a bad effect on one’s health.
Answer:
drug

PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction

True/False:

1. Social problems affect most of the members of society.
Answer:
True

2. Heroin is a type of Narcotics.
Answer:
True

3. Drug addict always wants to consume drugs.
Answer:
True

4. The Union Government passed The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act in 1955 A.D.
Answer:
False

5. There is no value conflict in social problems.
Answer:
False

PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction

One Word/One Line Questions Answers:

Question 1.
What is social problem?
Answer:
Social problem is that undesirable situation which everybody wants to change.

Question 2.
On what social problem depends?
Answer:
Social problem depends upon the values of society.

Question 3.
How many members of society get affected by social problems?
Answer:
Most of the members of society get affected by social problems.

Question 4.
Give socio-cultural factors of social problems.
Answer:
Untouchability, female foeticide, dowry, domestic violence, violence against women etc.

Question 5.
Give economic factors of social problems.
Answer:
Poverty, unemployment, slums, illiteracy, crime etc.

Question 6.
What is alcoholism?
Answer:
When any one starts consuming alcohol on frequent basis, it is called alcoholism.

Question 7.
Who is a rare user?
Answer:
One who consumes liquor once or twice in one year, he is called rare user.

Question 8.
Who is an infrequent user?
Answer:
One who consumes alcohol once in two-three months is an infrequent user.

Question 9.
Who is a light drinker?
Answer:
Light drinker is that who consumes alcohol once or twice in one mouth.

Question 10.
Who is a moderate drinker?
Answer:
Moderate drinkers is the one who consumes alcohol three-four time in one month.

PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction

Question 11.
Who is a heavy drinker?
Answer:
One who consumes alcohol on daily basis is a heavy drinker.

Question 12.
How much of the Indian population consumes alcohol atleast once during its lifetime?
Answer:
Around 42% of the total population.

Question 13.
Give one cause of alcoholism.
Answer:
People consume alcohol to ignore their tensions and problems.

Question 14.
Give one effect of alcoholism.
Answer:
It leatds to was tage of money and Loss of health.

Question 15.
What is a drug?
Answer:
Drug is a chemical which physiologically and psychologically affects our abillity to do work.

Question 16.
Give names of any four narcotics.
Answer:
Opium, cocain, Heroin, Marijuana, charas etc.

Question 17.
When was the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act passed?
Answer:
This law was passed in 1985 A.D.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Give two features of social problems.
Answer:

  • Social problems are such unwanted circumstances with which most of the members of society are directly or indirectly affected.
  • About social problems, most of the members of society believe that their solution is must.

Question 2.
Give socio-cultural factors of social problems.
Answer:
In India, people of many religions, castes and lingual groups live with each other. That’s why many socio cultural problems occur over here such as untouchability, female foeticide, dowry, domestic violence, violence against women etc.

PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction

Question 3.
Give three reasons of alcoholism.
Or
Two causes of alcoholism.
Answer:

  • People consume alcohol to remove their tensions.
  • People get tired with their occupation and that’s “why they consume alcohol.
  • Many persons like to sit with their friends and they force him to consume alcohol.

Question 4.
Give three reasons of drug addiction.
Answer:

  • Many a times, peer group forces an individual to consume drug.
  • Sometimes, an individual feels alienated and to remove alienation, he starts to use drugs.
  • Many people are unable to face the situations in life and that’s why they start to use drugs.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Alcoholism.
Answer:
Alcoholism is a state in which the person is unable to keep control on his quantity of taking alcohol which he cannot stop after starts to using it. Alcohol cannot be called as stimulant but it acts as a inhibitor on our nervous system. When person starts to use it, he feels himself free from all the tensions and he slowly slowly starts to use too much quantity of it. Alcoholism not only reduces his work efficiency but it destroys his family as well.

Question 2.
Alcoholic Person.
Answer:
Alcoholic person is that person who uses alcohol or drinks alcohol. Person, who is a compulsive drinker, cannot live without drinking alcohol. In this way the person who cannot live without drinking alcohol is known as alcoholic person. He is unable to keep control on himself. He drinks daily and goes to such extent that he cannot do any work without alcohol. His body starts to shiver in its absence.

PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction

Question 3.
Types of Alcoholic Persons.
Answer:

  • Rare alcoholic: Who drinks once or twice in a year.
  • Infrequent alcoholic: Who drinks once in two or three months or drinks only in any marriage or party.
  • Lighter user alcoholic: Who drinks once or twice in a month to enjoy his holiday.
  • Moderate user alcoholic: Who drinks thrice or four times in month to enjoy his holiday.
  • Heavy user alcoholic: Who drinks alcohol many times in a day or who drinks daily.

Question 4.
Occupation-cause of Alcoholism.
Answer:
In many cases, occupation becomes a cause of alcoholism. Occupation of many persons is such that they become very much tired and they need something to do work again. It not only removes their tiredness but it also motivates them to work again the next day. In the same way many persons start to use alcohol to please other persons related occupations. For example, many times any worker has to drink with his owner or boss to please him and becomes an addict of it. In this way person has to drink alcohol due to his occupation and he becomes an addict of it.

Question 5.
Mental tension – Cause of Alcoholism.
Answer:
Every person is the victim of one or another mental tension. If some one does’t have money, so he is in tension to run his house. Some have money but are tensed for its safety, tension of business, tension of office, tension due to poverty, anyone is tense due to his owner, boss or wife, any one has fear of loss in business and someone is tensed due to competition. In this way every person is the victim of one or another type of tension. If he drinks alcohol then is nervous system relaxes for some time and for some time he becomes free from every type of mental tension.

Question 6.
Poverty-Cause of Alcoholism.
Answer:
A poor person is always in tension to earn money, His family members are more in number but he is the sole earner of the family. That’s why expenditure of the family is more but income is very less. Person always remains in tension of giving food, cloth and education to his children. That’s why he takes the help of the alcohol to remove his tension. He gets relief from his mental tensions for some time after using alcohol. In this way he starts to drink more quantity of alcohol and becomes an alcoholic.

Question 7.
Drug Addiction.
Answer:
When a person uses any subtance with which his body becomes dependent upon that substance or drug then it is known as drug addiction. Drug is that substance which directly affects the brain and nervous system of the person. In this way when a person becomes so dependent upon that drug that he cannot live without drug then it is known as drug addiction.

Question 8.
Drug Abuse.
Answer:
When a person starts using any illegal drug or misuses any legal drug then it is known as drug abuse. It damages person mentally as well as physically. Use of L.S.D. and Cocain, use of Heroin, Smoking of Hashish and Ganja, Alcoholism etc. all are included in this. Person enjoys fully in it. He goes on the trip of enjoyment. He could be able to do any work after its use unless he could not be able to do any thing.

Question 9.
Drug dependency.
Answer:
When person starts to use daily any drug legally or illegally and he cannot live without it then it is known as drug dependency. Dependency can be physical as well as mental. When a person uses any drug again and again grasps drug in itself then it is known as physical dependence. But when his body aches and he feels physical problems due to non use of that drug then it is a physical loss as well as mental loss.

PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction

Question 10.
Characteristics of Drug Addiction.
Answer:

  • Sudden wish occurs in the person to get drug in drug addiction.
  • In drug addiction he wants to get drug in any way unless his body stops working.
  • In drug addiction, there is a tendency to increase the dose slowly and slowly.
  • Person becomes physically and mentally dependent upon drugs in drug addiction.

Question 11.
Types of Drugs.
Answer:

  • Liquor or Alcohol
  • Sedatives
  • Narcotics
  • Stimulants
  • Hallucinogens
  • Nicotine

Question 12.
Psychological Causes of Drug Abuse.
Answer:

  • When any person wants to reduce his tensions then he starts to use drug.
  • There is a wish in some person that how it feels when we take drug and that’s why they start to use drugs.
  • Unemployed persons want to pass their time and that’s why they start to use drugs.
  • Many persons use drugs to increase their self-confidence.

Question 13.
Social Causes of Drug Abuse.
Answer:

  • Many times friends of any person force him to use drugs because of which he starts to use drugs.
  • Conflicts of the family also force the person to use drugs so that he could not come in mental tension.
  • Many times a wish occurs in the person while observing that his elders are using any drug and that’s why he starts to use drug.

Question 14.
Ways to control Drug addiction.
Answer:

  • People should be motivated not to use drugs so that they could be motivated to do so.
  • Doctors should also restrict themselves from not giving those drugs to their patients with which they could become addicted.
  • People should be told about the losses of drugs so that the people should keep themselves away from the drugs.
  • Parents should behave friendly with their children and they should be told about the evil consequences of drug abuse so that they could be a way of these drugs.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is Alcoholism? Give its types.
Answer:
Alcoholism is a condition in which a person is unable to control his quantity of drinking alcohol with which he cannot stop it once he starts drinking alcohol. In this way, an alcoholic person is a person who uses whisky, drinks whisky, and is a compulsive person who cannot live without drinkings. In this way, a person who cannot live without drinking alcohol is known as an alcoholic person. Generally, we can come to know about features of alcoholism through four factors, and these four factors are:

  • Too much use of alcohol.
  • The tension of alcoholic person on his too much use of alcohol.
  • No control of alcoholic person on his too much use of alcohol.
  • Occurrence of disturbance in social, psychological, and worldly functions.

In this way Don Kehlan has explained five types of alcoholic persons on the basis of quantity and frequency of drinking and these five types are given below:

  • Rare alcoholic: Rare alcoholic persons are those persons who drink alcohol once or twice a year and even drink for the sake of fun.
  • Infrequent alcoholic. An infrequent alcoholic person is a person who drinks alcohol once or twice in two or three months or at the time of any marriage or function.
  • Light user alcoholic. Light user alcoholic is that person who drinks once or twice in one month. He sometimes drinks in the company of his friends.
  • Moderate user alcoholic. Moderate user alcoholic is that person who drinks thrice or four times in a month or wants to enjoy his holiday (Sunday).
  • Heavy user alcoholic. Heavy user alcoholic person is that who drinks alcohol daily or many times in a day. They are also known as Hardcore alcoholic persons.

PSEB 12th Class Sociology Important Questions Chapter 10 Social Problems: Alcoholism and Drug Addiction

Question 2.
How Alcoholism can be prevented? Explain it.
Or
How can we cure the problem of alcohol?
Answer:
Alcoholism is that problem which has been faced by our country since a long time. Not only person himself but his family and society also disintegrates with this. His morality comes to an end, he starts to commit crimes, and his health also deteriorates. In this way it has very much evil consequences on person. We should jointly solve this problem so that the society could he prevented from disorganization. Government and social service institutions can play a very important role in it. This problem can be prevented in many ways.

1. First of person should motivate himself to not to start drink of alcohol. If he will not start using it then how he will become addict of it. Family can play a very important role in it. Elders of the family can motivate their children by not using alcohol. Elders can tell them about the evil consequences of alcoholism. They can educate them from time to time so that they could move on the right path.

2. Government can play a very important role in it. Government can announce the policy of restriction on alcohol and can impose this policy in the state. It should take strict action against the makers and sellers of the liquor so that people should keep themselves away from it. Government should also discourage drinkers not to use alcohol.

3. If a doctor is taking care of an alcoholic person then he always has hatreds against the alcoholic person. It is a shocking thing for that person. Doctors should change their attitude so that the alcoholic person should leave use of alcohol from his heart. Doctors should keep a sympathetic attitude towards alcoholic persons.

4. Restriction on alcoholism and alcohol should not be propagated among the people. Government, social service institutions and people can take the help of T.V., radio, newspapers, magazines, etc., and can propagate against its evil consequences. Educational institutions can also play a very big part in it and can motivate the students to get an education in their institutions. They can organize Seminars against it so that people should keep themselves away from this problem.

5. Generally whisky has been taken as a means of recreation. But if it will be banned then the means of recreation for the people will come to an end. That’s why government and non-governmental institutions can establish recreational centres so that the people can enjoy these places instead of using alcohol.

6. People should also be motivated by this problem. This problem is very big and cannot be solved in one or two days. For that people are necessary to be motivated. The illiterate people of our country are hardly aware of the evil consequences of this problem. People should also be educated regarding this and should be educated to live a better life. If people would be educated properly then this problem could also be solved very quickly.

7. Government should make strict laws to restrict alcoholism so that the drinkers and sellers of alcohol could be strictly punished. For this special courts could be constituted so that the lawbreakers could be punished very quickly.

8. Not only externally but the mentality of the people should also be changed. An actual ban on alcoholism can happen if the person himself should leave this problem. That’s why the mentality of the person should be changed. Plays, Lectures can be organized regarding this so that people could themselves change their mentality.

So after looking at this explanation we can say that the problem of alcoholism is a social problem and it has not just one or two reasons but it has many reasons behind it. People themselves are increasing this problem and if they want they themselves can eradicate this problem. If the public will take a tough stand against it then the government will also have to take part in it. If government and people both join hands with each other then this problem can be removed very quickly.

Question 3.
Explain different types of drugs.
Answer:
We can divide drugs into six parts which are given below:

  1. Whisky or liquor
  2. Sedatives
  3. Narcotics
  4. Stimulants
  5. Hallucinogens
  6. Nicotine

Now we will explain them in detail:

1. Whisky or alcohol. Some people drink alcohol as something which can give them pleasure and some people drinks alcohol so that they can get stimulant to do their work. Alcohol also works as a substance that gives us peace with which our nerves gets peace and relaxation. It acts as a sedative that calms down nerves or a type of anesthetic which reduces the pain of living. Humans have to face many problems and tensions in their lives because of which they become the victims of mental tension. That’s why they take help of alcohol to relieve their mental tension. Alcohol relieves tension and reduces aggressive inhibitions. It also reduces the power of taking decisions and creates confusion.

2. Sedatives. Sedatives are also known as depressants. It relaxes our central nervous system, induces sleep and gives a very calming effect. In medical terms, they are used for insomnia, epilepsy, high blood pressure and it is given to the patient before operation and during surgery so that they could relax. It acts as a depressant which depresses the actions of nerves and muscles. It also slows down breathing and heart beating and makes the user relax. But if the user will start to use a higher dose then he can become gloomy, sluggish, irritable and quarrelsome. His capacity of working and thinking reduces with this.

3. Narcotics. We can include opium, heroin, brown sugar, marijuana, charas, ghanja, bhang, smack etc. in narcotics. Heroin is a white powder which is made by morphine, cocaine is made by the leaves of coca bush, ganja, charas can be obtained from the hemp plant. Marijuana is a particular form of cannabis. Cocaine, heroin, morphine etc. can be .taken either by injections or in the form of cigarettes. All of these increase the capacity of the work of the person, gives him a lot of enjoyment and a feeling of superiority comes in him. But when person becomes an addict of these things then he cannot live without them. However, weakness, insomnia, nervousness remains and in the end person dies without them.

4. Stimulants. Stimulants activate the nervous system, treat small depression, relieve tension, keep a person awake, increase alertness and reduce aggressive inhibitions. Caffeine, cocaine, Amphetamines, etc. are used stimulative agents. If these will be taken according to the prescription by the doctor then it can produce self-confidence and alertness. But if they will be used more frequently then many problems like headache, sweating, diarrhea, nervousness can occur. These stimulants do not produce physical dependence but are psychologically addicting. Abruptly withdrawing the drug can result in mental illness and suicidal depression.

5. Hallucinogens. The most important element in this category is L.S.D. which is never prescribed by any doctor. It is either taken orally or in the form of an injection. It is so powerful that one ounce of LSD can produce three lakh human doses. Its minimum dose also directly affects the person. If any person uses it then he remains in hallucination, dreams, etc. after taking its dose. Severe mental derangement can result from an attempt to withdraw from its use.

6. Nicotine. We can include tobacco, bidi, cigarettes, cigars, snuff, etc. in it. It has no positive impact on our body but physically a person depends upon it. It leads to relaxation, stimulates the central nervous system, increases wakefulness, and removes boredom. But its heavy dose can lead to heart attack, lung cancer, bronchitis. If any person starts to use it then he becomes dependent upon it.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one to two words:

Question 1.
After land cost, the next highest investment by fanners is in which form?
Answer:
In the form of farm machinery.

Question 2.
Who is considered as head of farm machinery?
Answer:
Tractor.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Question 3.
Name any three machines that are driven by tractors.
Answer:
Cultivation, disc harrow, seed drill.

Question 4.
Which are those machines where the source of power is part of the machine?
Answer:
Tractor, engine, motor etc.

Question 5.
When the tractor should be over-hauled?
Answer:
After using it for 4000 hours.

Question 6.
In which gear the tractor should be stored?
Answer:
Neutral gear.

Question 7.
After proper cleaning of battery terminal of a tractor, it should be coated with which material?
Answer:
With Petroleum jelly.

Question 8.
After proper cleaning and removal of seed and fertilizer from seed sowing machinery, what should be coated to its components?
Answer:
Grease or lubricating oil.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Question 9.
What should be done to protect soil working tools of tillage machinery from rust?
Answer:
These should be coated with grease or lubricating oil.

Question 10.
Why the spray pump should be operated empty after using it?
Answer:
This helps in draining the water from spray lines.

(B) Answer in One to Two Sentences:

Question 1.
What are the basic categories in which farm machinery can be divided?
Answer:
There are three categories of farm machinery-prime movers (power source); like, tracfor etc., engine operator equipments; like, disc harrow etc., self propelled machine like, combine harvester etc.

Question 2.
After how many hours, the tractor should be serviced?
Answer:
Servicing of the tractor should be done after 10 hours, 50 hours, 125 hours, 250 hours, 500 hours and 1000 hours. Tractor should be got overhauled from a good workshop after using it for 4000 hours.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Question 3.
What should be done to protect tyres if tractor is to be stored for long term?
Answer:
Jack up the tractor and put it on the wooden blocks and also reduce air pressure in the tyres.

Question 4.
What should be done to protect battery if tractor is to be stored for long term?
Answer:
If tractor is to be stored for long time period then batteries should be disconnected and removed from the tractor but these should be charged occasionally.

Question 5.
What point should be kept in mind for maintenance of exhaust pipe and crank case breather?
Answer:
If mouth of the exhaust pipe and crank case breather is open, cover it with a cloth. This prevents entry of moisture in it.

Question 6.
During season, what should be done for maintenance of axle bearings?
Answer:
During season, after every 4-6 hours of working, lubricate the axle and bushes with oil or grease. If ball bearings are fitted then lubricate them after 3-4 days with grease.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Question 7.
Why it is important to clean the seed and fertilizer box of a seed drill daily?
Answer:
Fertilizers are chemicals which can damage or corrode these boxes if not cleaned on daily basis.

Question 8.
Why farmer should properly dean grain tank, conveyor, straw walkers and sieves in combine harvesters?
Answer:
If grain tanks, conveyor straw walkers and sieves in combine harvesters are not cleaned properly, rodents make home there and can damage the electric circuits, pipes etc. and thus damage the machinery heavily.

Question 9.
What should be done to protect combine harvester from rust?
Answer:
Moisture is the reason of rusting. Therefore, combine should be stored under a shed and cover it with a plastic sheet. Paint those parts where paint has taken off.

Question 10.
What should be done to avoid contact of machine with soil during storage?
Answer:
Answer: Wash or clean the machines or equipments to dry these. Coat them with grease and oil to prevent from rusting.

(C) Answers in five to six Sentences:

Question 1.
Why there is a need for the maintenance of farm machinery?
Answer:
To get more yield and income from agricultural produce, farm machinery plays an important role. After the cost of land, next highest investment is in farm machinery. If proper maintenance is not done for such costly machines, then we may not be able to get full benefit from the machines. Proper maintenance adds to the working life of farm machines. Repair of damaged machines cost more. Machines should be maintained at the end of the season so that we get a ready machine at the beginning of next season.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Question 2.
Which points should be kept in mind regarding maintenance of tractors?
Answer:

  • Wash and clean tractor and store it under shed.
  • If there is some sort of leakage from pipes or some repair is required, get it done. Mobile oil should be filled up-to the marked level.
  • All points where greasing is to be done should be washed with diesel. Remove the old grease and fill the new grease.
  • Use hot water to wash the terminals of battery and coat them with petroleum jelly. If tractor is to be stored for a long time remove the battery but keep on charging it from time to time.
  • To keep the tractor ready for any work, it should be started and operated once or twice in a month.
  • For long term storage Jack up the tractor and put it on wooden blocks, reduce the air pressure in tyres.
  • Park the tractor in switched off position, in the neutral gear and by applying parking brakes.
  • Cover the exhaust pipe and crank breather using a cloth to prevent the entry of moisture in it.
  • Air cleaner should be cleaned time to time.

Question 3.
Why repair of machinery should be done before its storage?
Answer:
Machine should be got repaired at the end of the season and before storing it. So that we get a ready machine at the beginning of next season, time is also saved. By the end of season we know about the condition of the machine, we know the parts of the machine which are creating problems, therefore machine should be taken care of, make replacement of the parts which are not working properly or are causing trouble. One can forget these things after long time i.e. at the beginning of new season. Therefore repair of machinery should be done before its storage.

Question 4.
Which points should be kept in mind for maintenance of battery?
Answer:
Tractor should be started and operated once or twice in a month. Clean the terminals of the battery with hot water and coat the terminals with petroleum jelly. If tractor in to be stored for long time duration remove the battery and keep on charging it time to time.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Question 5.
Which points should be kept in mind regarding maintenance of combine harvesters?
Answer:
Maintenance of combine harvester is similar to the maintenance of tractor. Following points should be kept in mind regarding maintenance of combine harvester.

(i) Clean properly grain tanks, conveyor, straw walkers and sieves in combine harvesters. There should be not dirt, straw, grains, chaff etc. in these otherwise rodent start living there and can damage electric circuits and pipes etc.

(ii) Moisture is the reason of rusting. Therefore, combine should be stored under a shed and cover it with a plastic sheet. Paint those parts where paint has taken off.

(iii) Machine should be got repaired at the end of the season and before storing.it. So that we get a ready machine at the beginning of next season, time is also saved. By the end of season we know about the condition of the machine, we know the parts of the machine which are creating problems, therefore machine should be taken care of, make replacement of the parts which is are not working properly or causing trouble. One can forget these things after long time i.e. at the beginning of new season. Therefore repair of machinery should be done before its storage.

(iv) Remove all the belts and put identification marks and store at a safe place.

(v) Chains should be cleaned with diesel and coat it with thin layer of grease.

(vi) Rubbing parts should be applied with lubricating oils. Eill grease in the greasing points.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery Important Questions and Answers

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the name of machine used for fodder chopping and cutting?
Answer:
Toka.

Question 2.
What is disc harrow in local language?
Answer:
Tavijan.

Question 3.
What is the name of the machine used for sowing seeds?
Answer:
Seed drill machine.

Question 4.
What should be the air pressure in the tyres of a tractor?
Answer:
In front tyres 24-26 pounds and in rear tyre 12-18 pounds.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Question 5.
What should be used to clean the spray pump after it is used?
Answer:
The spray pump should be cleaned with fresh water.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of a diesel engine?
Answer:
It is a small machine. It is used to run tubewell, to run fodder chopping toka, etc. Its operating cost is less than tractor when less power is required diesel engine is used.

Question 2.
Why should the seed drill machines be not parked in sunlight?
Answer:
Sun heat may damage the rubber pipes and gears.

Question 3.
What should be done to reduce the slip of the tractor?
Answer:
Air pressure in the rear tyres should be lowered.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is the importance of the maintenance of farm machinery and equipment?
Answer:
Nowadays farms machinery is used for doing nearly all agricultural activities e.g. sowing, harvesting, hoeing, etc. Farm machinery is very costly and sometimes farmers have to get loans. Therefore, it becomes necessary to maintain and take care of the machines.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Lawn Tennis Game Rules.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question. 1.
Write about the history of Lawn Tennis?
Answer:
History of Lawn Tennis:
Originating from the old indoor game of Real Tennis, its proper name is Lawn Tennis. Although the only major tournament in the world still to use grass courts today is that held at Wimbledon. Lawn Tennis has its roots in France but the game was brought to England. The first championship was held at Wimbledom in 1877 and the first International Championship was held in U.S.A. in 1881 in Australia 1905 and in France 1925. In Modern Olympic which was originated in 1896. Tennis was an official game but it was withdrawn from the Olympic after 1924 but was again included in 1988.

International Tennis Federation (ITF) came into existence in 1977. The game is played in so many forms as men and women singles men and women doubles and mixed double. First time Lawn Tennis was included in Asian Games in 1958. Today it is most interesting game played both at amateur and professional levels. Tennis is a racket game in which the player of one team sends the ball oyer net to the opponent area so that opponent is unable to return the ball. In this way points are scored by the player which won the games set and match. Our player named Leander Paes had won Olympic singles in 1996 at Atlanta.

Latest Rules of Lawn Tennis:

  • The length of the Lawn tennis court is 78 feet (28.77 m.) and its width is 27 feet (8.23 m).
  • The height of the net is 3 feet (0.91 m.), and the maximum diameter of the cord or metal cable which suspends the net is 1/3 (0.8 cm).
  • The diameter of posts is 6″ (15 cms.), and the distance of the centre of the post outside the court on each side is 3 ft. (0.91 m).
  • The diameter of the Lawn tennis ball is 2 (6.34 cms.), and its weight is 2 ounces (56.7 gm.) The bounce of the ball when dropped from a height of 100″ (254 cms.) is 53″ (1.35 m).
  • The maximum number of sets in a game for men is 5, and for women is 3.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question. 2.
Write about the court of the Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
Lawn Tennis Court:
The tennis court shall be rectangular. It shall be 78′ (23.77 m.) in length and 27′ (8.23 m.) width. It should be divided across the middle by a net suspended from a cord or metal cable. The diameter of this cord should be 1/3 (0.8 cm.), the ends of which shall be attached to or pass over the tops of two evenly pointed posts. These posts should be 3’66” (1.07 m.) in height and not more than 6 inches (15 cm.) square or 6 inches (15 cm.) in diameter, the centre of which shall be 3’ (0.91 m.) outside the court on each side.

The net should be tightly and fully extended so that it fills the space between the two posts fully, and should be so small mesh as to prevent the ball passing through. The height of the net shall be 3′ (0.914 m.) at the centre, and it shall be tautly held down by a strap not more than 2″ (5 cm.) wide and white in colour. A band shall cover the cord and the top of the net for not less than 2 inches (5 cm.) and inches (6.3 cm.) deep on each side. Its colour should be white. There should be no advertisement on the net, strap, band or single sticks.

The lines surrounding the ends and sides of the court shall respectively be called the Base fines and the side-lines. On each side of the net, at a distance of 0.21 feet (6.00 cm.) from it and parallel’to it, service-fines shall be drawn. The space on each side of the .net between the service-line and the side-line shall be divided into two equal parts called the service courts by the centre service-fine. This service fine shall be 2 inches (5 cm.) in width, drawn half-way between and parallel to the side lines.

Each base-line shall be bisected by a centre-service fine which is 4 inches (10 cm.) in length and 2 inches (5 cm.) in width, and is called centre mark. Except the base-lines, all lines should be minimum 1″ (2.5 cm.) and maximum 2″ (5 cm.) in length. The base line may be four inches (10 cm.) in width. All measurements should be made to the outside of the fines.

The permanent fixtures of the court shall include not only the net; posts, single sticks, cord or metal cable, strap and band but also the back and side stops, the fixed stands, movable seats and chairs. All other fixtures around and above the court and the Umpire, Net- cord, Foot-fault Judge, Linesmen and Ball Boys shall be in their proper places.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question. 3.
Write about the ball of the Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
The Lawn-tennis Ball:
The ball should have a uniform outer surface. It shall be white or yellow in colour. The diameter of the ball shall be minimum 2 1/2” (5.35 cm.) and maximum 2 5/8” (6.67 cm.). Its weight should be more than 2 ounces (56.7 gm.) and not less than 2 1/16 ounces (58.8 gm.). It should have a bounce of more than 53 inches (135 cm.) and less than 58 inches (147 cm.) when dropped from a height of 100” (254 cm.) upon a concrete base.
Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
The ball should have a forward deformation of more than 220 inches (.956 cm.) and less than .290 of an inch (.74 cm.), and a return deformation of more than .350 of an inch (.89 cm.) and less than .425 of an inch (1.08 cm.) at 18 pounds (8.165 kg.) load. The two deformation figures shall be the averages of three individual readings along three axes of the ball and no two individual readings shall differ by more than 0.30 of an inch (.80 cm.) in each case.

Players:
The players shall stand on opposite sides of the net. The players who delivers the ball first is called the server, and the other will be called the receiver. The choice of ends and the right to be Server or Receiver in the first game is decided by the toss. The toss winning players may choose his end or may ask the other player to choose. If a player decides to choose the end, the other player has the right to choose to be the Server or the Receiver.

Service:
The service shall be delivered in the following manner : Before delivering the service, the Server shall stand with both feet at rest behind (that is, farther from the net than the base-line). This place shall be within the imaginary continuation of the Centre Mark and the side-line. Then the Server shall project the ball by hand into the air and before it hits the ground, strike it with his racket, and the delivery shall be considered to have been completed at the moment of the impact of the racket and the ball. A player with the use of one arm may utilize his racket for protection or defence.

The Server, throughout the delivery of the service, shall-

  • not change his position by walking or running.
  • not touch, with either foot, any area other than that behind the base-line within the imaginary extension of the centre mark and side-line.
    Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2

1. In delivering the service, the Server shall stand behind the right and the left courts turn by turn. He shall start from the right in every game. If the service is delivered from a wrong half of the court and is undetected, the play resulting from such wrong service shall stand, but the inaccuracy of station shall be corrected immediately after it is detected.

2. The ball served should pass over the net and hit the ground in the Service Court which is diagonally opposite, before the Receiver returns it. If the ball touches any other line of the court, the Service shall not be considered.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

General Rules of Lawn Tennis:
1. The tennis player shall not serve until the other player or receiver is ready. If the receiver attempts to return, he is deemed to be ready.

2. The service is a let if the ball served touches the net, strap or band, or touches the receiver or anything he wears or carries. It shall be let if it is delivered when the receiver is not ready.

3. At the end of the first game the receiver shall become server, and the server shall become the receiver. This will continue alternately in all the games of a match.

4. The server wins the point if the ball served is not a let, and touches the receiver or anything he wears or carries before it hits the ground.

5. If a player knowingly does something which, in the opinion of the Umpire, hinders his opponent in making a stroke, the Umpire shall award the point to the opponent and in case such an act of player is involuntary, the Umpire shall order the point to be replayed.

6. If the ball in play touches a permanent fixture other than the net, posts, single sticks, cord or metal cable, strap or band after it has hit the ground, the player who struck it wins the point. But if the ball touches such an object before it hits the ground, the point is awarded to the opponent.

7. If a player wins his first point, his score is 15, on winning the second point, the score is 30; and on winning the third point, his score rises to 40. The player who gets 40 points wins the set of game. But in case both the players win 3 points each, the score is called deuce, and the next point won by a player is scored advantage for that player. If the same player (with advantage) wins the next point, he wins the game. If the other player wins the point, the score is again called deuce; and so on, until a player wins two points following the score at deuce.

8. When a player wins first six games, he wins a set, except that he must win by a margin of two games over his rival, and if necessary, a set is extended until this margin is achieved. The players shall change ends at the end of the first and third game and at the end of each set provided the total number of games in each set is not even, and in which case the change is made at the end of first game of the next set.

9. The maximum number of sets in a match for men is 5 and for women 3.

10. The game shall continue from the start to the conclusion, provided that after the third set, or when moment participate, after the second set, a player can take rest. But the duration of rest is from 10 to 15 minutes. When it is essential, the Umpire may suspend the play for such a period as he may deem necessary.

11. In case the play is suspended, and is not be resumed until a later day rest may be taken by a player after the third set or after the second set in case of women players. In case the play is postponed to a later day, the completion of an unfinished set shall be considered as one set. These provisions should be properly explained. The play should, however, never be suspended, delayed or interfered with for the purpose of enabling a player regain his strength.

12. The Umpire shall be the sole judge of such suspension of the game, and after living due warning to the offender who causes such suspension, may disqualify him.

13. In changing ends, a maximum of one minute should elapse from the close of the previous game till the players are ready for the start of the next game.

The Doubles Game
The Court:
For the Doubles Game, the court shall be 36 feet (10.97 m) in width, that is, it shall be wider by 4 1/2 feet (1.47 m) on each side that meant for the Singles game. Those portions of the singles side-lines which lie between the two services lines are called the Service Side-Lines. In other respects, the Court shall be similar to the one described in the court for the Singles game. However, the portions of the singles side lines between the base-line and service-line on each side of the net may be omitted, if so desired.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 4.
Write down any five rules of Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
General Rules:
1. The order of serving shall be decided at the start of each set in the following manner:
(а) The pair who are to serve in the first game of each set shall decide who shall, do so, while the opposing pair shall decide similarly in the second game.
(b) The partner of the player who served in the first game shall serve in the third game, the partner of the player who served in the second game shall serve in the fourth game, and so on in the same order in all the subsequent games of a set.

2. The order of receiving the service shall be decided at the start of each set as mentioned below:

(i) The pair who are to receive the service in the first game shall decide as to which partner shall receive the first service, and that partner shall continue to receive the first service in every odd game throughout the set.
(ii) The rival pair shall decide which partner shall receive the first service in the second game and that partner will continue to receive the first service in every even game throughout the set. Partners shall receive the service alternately throughout each game.

3. If a partner serves out of his/her turn, the partner who should have served shall serve as soon as the mistake is found out. In such case, all points scored, and any faults served before such discovery, shall be considered. If a game is completed before such discovery, the order of service does not change.

4. In case the order of receiving the service is changed by the receivers during a game, it shall remain unchanged until the end of the game in which the mistake is detected. But the partners shall resume their original order of receiving the service in the next game of the set in which they are the receivers.

5. The ball shall be struck alternately by one or other player of the opposing pairs. In case a player touches the ball in play with his racket against the above said rule, his opponents shall get the point.

Important Information about the Lawn Tennis Game

  • Length of Tennis court = 78’ or 26, 77” Metre
  • Breadth of court = 27’ or 8.23 Metre
  • Height of the net = 3’6” or 1.07 Metre
  • Diametre of iron tar (cable) = 1/4 inch
  • Diametre of Poles = 6 inch or 15 cm
  • Distance of poles from centre = 3’ or 90 cm
  • Weight of Tennis ball = 2 ounces (56.7 – 60.24 grns)
  • Distance of Tennis Poles = 2 1/2; inches
  • Bounch of ball after throwing it from the height of 100 feet = 53 inches
  • Number of sets for men = 5 sets
  • Number of sets for women 3 sets
  • Colour of Tennis ball = White or yellow.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which intoxicant is used to prepare both cigarettes and bidis?
Answer:
Cigarettes and Bidis are made with tobacco and paper whereas bidis are made with leaf of tree. There are several ways to consume tobacco such as smoking cigarettes, bidis, cigars, hubble- bubble, etc. Tobacco is also eaten in many forms such as eating “paan”, tobacco mixed with lime, “jarda”, etc. There is a dangerous toxic substance called Nicotine in tobacco. There are other toxins like ammonia, carbon dioxide, etc. Nicotine has its adverse effect on the head which begins to feel giddy, and then the heart is badly affected.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 2.
Which drug pan cause tongue and mouth Cancer?
Answer:
Tabacco intoxicant cause cancer of Tongue, Throat and Mouth. There is a dangerous toxic substance called Nicotine in tobacco. The possibility of catching cancer increases with the excessive use of tobacco, particularly the cancer of lungs and throat.
The harms of tobacco on health are as under:

  • Eating or taking tobacco weakens eyesight.
  • It increases heart beat. One catches heart diseases which often prove fatal.
  • Studies have revealed that tobacco consuming contracts blood vessels.
  • Tobacco benumbs the body tissues. One does not have good sleep and ultimately suffers from sleeplessness.
  • Stomach begins to remain upset with tobacco consumption.
  • Tobacco also causes cough, and the consumer of tobacco is prone to lung diseases like T.B.

Question 3.
How is alcohol harmful for health?
Answer:
Alcohol is a liquid intoxicant. It is legally binding to write on each bottle of alcohol-“Drinking is injurious to health.” Even then more and more people are becoming addict to alcohol, and seem to ignore the statutory warning totally. Thus, more and more such people are becoming prey to many diseases. Their lungs get defected. The liver is damaged. Age declines. Alcohol, in fact, adversely affects all parts of the body. At first man takes alcohol, then alcohol begins to take (consume) him. Alcohol has several bad effects, some of which are listed below:

  • Alcohol affects the brain first of all. Nervous system gets affected and the brain weakens. The thinking power or faculty declines.
  • The kidneys in the body weaken.
  • Alcohol becomes a hindrance in the production of digestive juices, as a result of which digestion worsens.
  • Respiration increases, and one catches diseases pertaining to respiratory system.
  • Blood vessels expand under the influence of regular drinking.Brain has to exert more, and one may suffer a heart attack any moment. .
  • Regular drinking decreases the work-capacity of muscles. The body gets weakened to face the attack of disease germs.
  • The studies have revealed that a drunkard works less than a normal person. A drunkard also catches various diseases sooner than a normal individual.
  • Drinking is a social evil as it ruins home, health and wealth.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 4.
How can students be saved from the menance of Drugs?
Answer:

1. We should introduce the students with all intoxicants substances. In this way they will be refrained from these substances.

2. What are the age of students, they should not attract the substances. They should keep themself away from these intoxicants.

3. Parents and Teachers should provide the litrature or books to the students to safe them not to indulge in these substances. They should provide enough time to take parts in games and recreation activities like Bhangra and Dance.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Name the Intoxicant.
(A) Wine
(B) Tobacco
(C) Bhang and Afeem
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 2.
Name any two system which are being effected by Intoxicant.
(A) Digestive System
(B) Circulatory System
(C) Mental System
(D) Bones System.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 3.
Write harm of sports person of intoxicants.
(A) Carelessness
(B) Irresponsibility
(C) End of Sportsmanship
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
How can student be saved from the menance of Drug?
(A) Motivation
(B) Conference
(C) Literature or books to safe them
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 5.
How is Alcohol harmful for health?
(A) Alcohol affected the brain
(B) Kidneys in the body weaken
(C) Weaken the digestive system
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 6.
Harm of Tobacco.
(A) Damage digestive system
(B) Affect the brain and kidneys weaken
(C) Circulatory system weaken
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the name of two intoxicants.
Answer:

  • Wine
  • Hashish.

Question 2.
Name any two systems which are being effected by intoxicants.
Answer:
On Digestive system and circulatory system.

Question 3.
Write any two harms of intoxicants.
Answer:

  • Face becomes pale.
  • Disturbance of Mantle concentration.

Question 4.
Write any two harm of sports person of intoxicants.
Answer:

  • Carelessness and irresponsibility.
  • End of Sportsmanship

Question 5.
Intoxicants causes depart in sport. (Right or wrong)
Answer:
Right.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 6.
Alcohol effects on brain. (Right or wrong)
Answer:
Right.

Question 7.
Chewing Tobacco causes weak eyesight.(Right or wrong)
Answer:
Right.

Question 8.
Smoking causes cancer or not.
Answer:
Causes cancer.

Question 9.
Use of Tobacco does not causes cough and the consumption of tobacco is not prone to T.B. (Right or wrong)
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 10.
Under the influence of intoxicants player become careless. (Right or wrong)
Answer:
Right.

Short Answer Type Questions

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 1.
Write the harms of intoxicants.
Answer:
Those players who use intoxicants develop the following defects:

  • The face turns pale.
  • One’s steps stagger.
  • The mental balance is lost.
  • The playfield turns into a battlefield.
  • Digestion gets defective.
  • Acidic elements decrease the efficiency of liver.
  • Many stomach ailments are caught.
  • The working capacity of muscles decreases.
  • The player fails to show good performance on the playfield.
  • One catches such dreadful diseases as cancer, asthma etc.
  • The memory of the player suffers.
  • Intoxicated players fail to assess the ever-changing conditions during the play, and become the cause of their team’s defeat in the end.
  • An intoxicated player becomes careless and irresponsible.
  • Body loses the needed co-ordination.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 2.
Mention the adverse effects of intoxicants on the players and their games.
Answer:
The adverse effects of intoxicants on the players and their games are as under:
1. The Lack of Bodily co-ordination and Agility:
The player under the effect of an intoxicant loses his usual agility and physical co-ordination. These are essential qualities for a good game of hockey, football, etc.

2. The Lack of Mental balance and Concentration:
A slight mistake of a player may prove to be very harmful to the team. An intoxicated player cannot play with concentration. Therefore, he commits such mistakes as result in the team’s defeat.

3. Carelessness and Irresponsibility:
An intoxicated player is extremely careless and carefree. He fails to judge his own strength and efficiency. Sometimes such a player receives such an injury that he has to repent later throughout his life.

4. The Loss of the Spirit of Sportsmanship:
The intoxicated player loses his sense of sportsmanship. As he is in semi-conscious state, he has no self-control. He loses his balance of mind, becomes self-willed and plays as he wishes without paying any heed to what his team-mates say or desire.

5. The Lack of Tolerance:
An intoxicated player often expresses his unhappiness over the decisions of the umpire or referee. He has no control on his reasoning, so he behaves indecently.

6. Disobedience of Rules: Such a player often disobeys rules of the game.

7. Turning of Playground into a Battlefield: A player under the influence of intoxicant turns the playground into a battlefield.

International Olympic Committee has banned the use of intoxicants during games. If anybody is found having played under the influence of some intoxicants, his medal or reward is cancelled. Therefore, players should try to avoid all kinds of intoxicants, show their best performance and brings laurels to their country.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions  Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Pollution of Air and Water Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
What are the different ways in which water gets contaminated?
Answer:
There are many different ways in which water gets contaminated such as :

  • By washing, bathing or other household activities.
  • By sewage
  • By toxic chemicals thrown by industries.
  • By silt.
  • By garbage and dead bodies dumped in water resources.
  • By fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides etc.
  • By deposition of minerals or metals in the river bed.

Question 2.
At an individual level, how can you help reduce air pollution?
Answer:
Steps taken to reduce air pollution at an individual level.

  • Automobile use is to be reduced and is maintained properly. Unleaded petrol or diesel must be used.
  • Burning of leaves, tyres etc. must be stopped.
  • Plant trees or vegetation around the residential areas.
  • Use of public transport.

Question 3.
Clear, transparent water is always fit for drinking. Comment.
Answer:
It is not a correct statement. Clear, transparent water may appear clean, but it is not pure. It may contain dissolved impurities and many microorganisms. These microorganisms may be carriers of diseases. So, water fit for drinking is clean, clear, transparent, odourless, devoid of germs and dissolved impurities. Best way to get pure water is boiling. Boiling kills the germs and boiled water can be used for drinking purposes.

Question 4.
You are a member of the municipal body of your town. Make a list of measures that would help your town to ensure the supply of clean water to all its residents.
Answer:
List of measures to obtain clean water.

  • Industrial waste must be treated before throwing into water resources.
  • Sewage must be treated by physical and chemical methods before dumping in water resources.

Question 5.
Explain the differences between pure air and polluted air.
Answer:
Differences between Pure air and Polluted air.

Pure air Polluted air
1. The air is clear and transparent. 1. The air is dirty and translucent.
2. No smoke and dust particles can be seen. 2. Smoke and dust particles are in high amounts.
3. No odour is there. 3. It may have foul smell.
4. Microorganisms are absent. 4. Microorganisms are present.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 6.
Explain circumstances leading to acid rain. How does acid rain affect us?
Answer:
Acid Rain. When NO2, N2O, SO2 and SO3 produced from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and by smelting of non-ferrous metals combine with water to form HNO3, H2SO3 and H2SO4 and fall down in the form of rain, it is called acid rain. It destroys crops, wild plants, steel rail tracks and electrical equipment. It causes irritation of eyes, nose and throat.

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
[а] Carbon dioxide
[b] Sulphur dioxide
[c] Methane
[d] Nitrogen.
Answer:
[d] Nitrogen.

Question 8.
Describe the ‘Green House Effect’ in your own words.
Answer:
Green House Effect. Carbon dioxide is present in the atmosphere in very small proportion. It helps in photosynthesis process. It is also absorbed by oceans to form carbonate rocks. It also produces greenhouse effect. The heating of the earth due to trapped radiations is called greenhouse effect. Our sun emits light consisting of ultraviolet and infrared radiations. Ultraviolet radiations are absorbed by ozone layer, but infrared radiations pass through the atmosphere and reaches the surface of the earth.

Some of the rays are reflected back. The carbon dioxide absorbs these reflected rays. Since infrared radiations have a heating effect, the atmosphere gets heated up. There are four gases which can trap the infrared radiations. These are carbon dioxide (CO2), water vapour (H2O), ozone (O3) and methane (CH4). Out of these four, carbon dioxide is uniformly distributed in the atmosphere so it contributes mainly towards the greenhouse effect. The name greenhouse is derived from glasshouse in which green plants are kept.

Question 9.
Prepare a brief speech on global warming. You have to make in your class.
Answer:
Global Warming. Global warming as the name suggests is the increase in temperature of the globe i.e. the average temperature of the atmosphere has increased. Few gases like CO2, methane, ozone are responsible for it.

The quantity of these gases is increasing day by day in the atmosphere. If this is not checked in time, the temperature will have a big rise and there will be hazards all around us. Such as, glaciers will melt, lower area will get submerged in water, rainfall will be affected, sea level will rise affecting production of crops, forests, etc and it will also affect the lifestyle of living organisms. So special and immediate measures are to be taken to stop global warming.

Question 10.
Describe the threat to the beauty of the Taj Mahal.
Answer:
Taj Mahal is one of the seven wonders of the world. It is a white building made up of white marbles. The monument is being threatened by air pollution. The area surrounding Taj is congested with many harmful gases such as Sulphur dioxide, Nitrogen oxides etc.

This is being emitted by burning of fossil fuels by industries established around the Taj. These gases dissolve in rainwater to form acid rain. This acid rain falls on marble, react with it and dissolves and tarnishes it. If no steps are taken to minimise the fall of acid rain, one day marble monument will remain no more and all the marble will get damaged.

Question 11.
Why does the increased level of nutrients in the water? effect the survival of aquatic organisms?
Answer:
With increased quantities of nutrients (nitrates, phosphates etc.) the algae flourish in the water. When this algae die, decomposers decompose it, using oxygen present in water. Thus, there is decrease in oxygen level in water, which affect the survival of aquatic organisms.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Pollution of Air and Water Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Ankush noticed that air pollution has increased in the market due to vehicles. Which gas is emitted by vehicles in a large quantity that causes air pollution?
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

Question 2.
Which of the following is greenhouse gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(a) Carbon dioxide.

Question 3.
The source of air pollution is:
(a) Burning forests
(b) Gas emitted by automobiles
(c) Smoke of burning wood
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 4.
Which of the gas present in air contains 78%?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Argon.
Answer:
(b) Nitrogen.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 5.
Which fuel is being used in vehicles in big cities like Delhi?
(a) L.P.G.
(b) Biogas
(c) C.N.G.
(d) Natural gas.
Answer:
(c) C.N.G.

Question 6.
Which diseases are caused due to polluted water?
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Jaundice
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 7.
The cause of diseases related to respiration in children is :
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Water vapour
(d) Smog
Answer:
(d) Smog.

Question 8.
The ordinary chemical method to purify the water is :
(a) Boiling
(b) Filtering
(c) Chlorination
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Chlorination

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 9.
When was Ganga cleanliness planning started?
(a) In 1965
(b) In 1975
(c) In 1995
(d) In 1985.
Answer:
(d) In 1985.

Question 10.
Which gas reduces the capacity of absorption of oxygen in blood?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Oxygen.
Answer:
(b) Carbon monoxide

Question 11.
What is the percentage of population which does not get the required water?
(a) 40%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 15%
Answer:
(c) 25%

Question 12.
Which of the following is not greenhouse gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Methane
(d) Nitrogen.
Answer:
(d) Nitrogen.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who is responsible for deterioration of quality of atmosphere?
Answer:
Man and his activities.

Question 2.
What conditions of environment are lacking these days?
Answer:
Clear sky, fresh air, clean water etc.

Question 3.
What is composition of air?
Answer:
Composition of Air. Air is mixture of gases containing 78% nitrogen, 21% of oxygen and 1% of other gases such as carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, water vapour, argon, ozone, methane etc.

Question 4.
Which is the main air pollutant?
Answer:
Smoke.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 5.
What are the main causes of smoke?
Answer:
Causes of smoke :

  • Automobiles
  • Burning of fuels

Question 6.
Name natural air pollutants.
Answer:
Smoke, dust.

Question 7.
Which disease is caused by air pollution?
Answer:
Respiratory problems.

Question 8.
Which gases are released by vehicles?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, smoke etc.

Question 9.
Which gas reduces the capacity of the blood to carry oxygen?
Answer:
Carbon monoxide.

Question 10.
What is smog?
Answer:
Smog. Smog is made up of smoke and fog.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 11.
Name some Breathing/Respiratory Problems.
Answer:
Respiratory problems- Asthma, Cough, Wheezing in children etc.

Question 12.
Which chemicals are used in refrigerators, air conditioners, perfumes etc?
Answer:
Chloro-fluoro carbons.

Question 13.
What is ill effect of chloro-fluoro carbons?
Answer:
Chloro-fluoro carbons (CFCs) damage the ozone layer.

Question 14.
Why is ozone layer important?
Answer:
It protects the earth from UV radiation of the sun.

Question 15.
What is the source of suspended solid particles in air?
Answer:
Sources of solid particles in air:

  • Burning of petrol, diesel in automobiles,
  • Industrial processes such as steelmaking and mining
  • Power plants.

Question 16.
What is the effect of suspended particles in air?
Answer:
They reduce the visibility.

Question 17.
Which industries are responsible for acid rain around Taj in Agra?
Answer:
Rubber processing, Automobile, Chemical, Mathura oil refinery.

Question 18.
Which are acid gases?
Answer:
Acid-gases. Sulphur dioxide, Sulphur trioxide, Nitrous oxide.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 19.
Name two clean fuels.
Answer:
LPG and CNG.

Question 20.
Which gas has tendency to trap sun radiations and warm the atmosphere?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 21.
Name some greenhouse gases.
Answer:
Green House gases. Methane, ozone, water vapours, nitrous oxide, carbon dioxide.

Question 22.
Which protocol has been signed to minimize greenhouse effect?
Answer:
The Kyoto protocol.

Question 23.
Name few alternate fuels.
Answer:
Alternate fuels. Solar energy, Hydropower, Wind energy.

Question 24.
When is Van Mahotsav celebrated in India?
Answer:
In the month of July of every year.

Question 25.
How should dry leaves be disposed?
Answer:
Dry leaves must be put in compost pit to obtain compost.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 26.
Which characteristics of water can get changed?
Answer:
Smell, colour and acidity.

Question 27.
Name few water pollutants.
Answer:
Water pollutants. Sewage, toxic chemicals, silt; insecticides, weedicides etc.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples of air pollutants.
Answer:
Examples of air pollutants:

  1. Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen.
  2. Radioactive fallout.

Question 2.
What are the major sources of air pollution?
Answer:
The major sources of air pollution are as follows :

  • Industries. Paper and pulp industries, steel plants, petroleum refineries and chemical plants.
  • Automobiles
  • Smoke.

Question 3.
What is sewage?
Answer:
Sewage. The release of huge quantities of municipal and domestic wastes is called sewage. They contain certain organic wastes, toxic substances, which damage biological activities.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 4.
Why is the sewage water called polluted water?
Answer:
Sewage water contains human urine and faeces, cloth washings and industrial wastes. This water is totally unfit for drinking, washing and for other purposes. It lacks oxygen. It gives foul smell. It can lead to spread of water-borne diseases. Hence, the sewage water is called polluted water.

Question 5.
How should air pollution be controlled?
Answer:
Steps to control air pollution :

  • Combustible solid wastes should tie burnt in incinerators.
  • Automobiles must be either made to eliminate the use of gasoline and diesel oil or complete combustion is obtained in the engine so that harmful products are not emitted.
  • Excessive and undesirable burning of vegetation should be stopped.

Question 6.
How can pollution of river water be controlled?
Answer:
Pollution of river water can be controlled by :

  • Mechanical and chemical treatment of sewage at its origin and then allowing the clean, harmless effluents (industrial waste) to flow into the river.
  • Shifting of present chemical factories and banning the construction of new factories on the river banks.

Question 7.
In what way chloro-fluoro carbons are harmful?
Answer:
Chloro-fluoro carbons deplete the ozone layer in the atmosphere which protects earthly organisms from harmful ultraviolet radiations.

Question 8.
How does carbon monoxide act on humans?
Answer:
Haemoglobin of the blood absorbs carbon monoxide. This in turn reduces oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. The non-availability of sufficient oxygen to the tissues results in death.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 9.
Which metals are harmful for health?
Answer:
Lead, Arsenic, Mercury.

Question 10.
Depict the important pollutants of air.
Answer:
Air pollutants.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water 1

Question 11.
Write the harmful effects of greenhouse effect.
Answer:
Harmful effects of Greenhouse effect. The greenhouse effect will increase the temperature of earth’s surface. It will make the life of men and animals uncomfortable. The scientists have estimated that the sea level will rise by 100 m if the global temperature rises by 3-6°C due to greenhouse effect. If it happens, the coastal regions and many islands will be submerged causing great damage.

Question 12.
Why is Ganga river more polluted at Kanpur?
Answer:
At Kanpur, the amount of water and flow is comparatively less and slow. Near about 5000 industries of Kanpur discharge toxic chemicals into the river. People bath, wash clothes, defecate, throw garbage, flowers, worship material and polythene bags in the river.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 13.
How is ozone layer help to us?
Answer:
Ozone layer of atmosphere is very important for all living organisms. It absorbs the harmful ultraviolet rays radiated from the sun which otherwise can give rise to fatal diseases like skin cancer in humans. These rays are also harmful for crops.

Question 14.
Explain the ozone layer.
Answer:
Ozone layer. The ozone gas found in the stratosphere of atmosphere is known as ozone layer. It protects us from ultraviolet rays of the sun. A poisonous substance chlorofluorocarbon is used in refrigerators and air conditioners which attenuates the ozone layer. This is known as depletion of ozone layer.

Question 15.
Which types of problems can arise with an increase in global warming? Write about three problems.
Answer:
Global warming can create following problems.

  • Summers will become more hot and dry and winters will be damp and colder.
  • Glaciers will melt down due to increase in global warming and level of sea will rise by two feet.
  • Water supplies would become disrupted and droughts would be more common.

Question 16.
How the industries located on the bank of Ganga river contribute to pollute it?
Answer:
There ae established industries in very big number in the cities and towns located on the bank of Ganga river. Only in Kanpur, there are more than 5000 industrial units which are adding fertilizers, detergents, poisonous waste of leather and paint industries, sewage, insecticides and garbage etc. in Ganga Paper factories, sugar mills and other chemical factories are polluting the water of Ganga by discharging their wastes in huge amount.

Question 17.
What instructions are issued by government for industries to maintain the cleanliness of holy rivers like Ganga?
Answer:
Oil refineries, textile and sugar mills, paper factories and chemical factories discharging their industries wastes directly into the rivers. As a result, the water of rivers is becoming poisonous. To check it government have passed regulations. According to these regulations, industries are to treat the waste produced for discharging it into water, but quite often the rules are not followed.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 18.
How can you help to reduce air pollution. Suggest any two measures.
Answer:
Steps to control air pollution

  1. Combustible solid wastes should be burnt in incinerators.
  2. Automobiles must be either made to eliminate the use of gasoline and diesel oil or complete combustion is obtained in the engine so that harmful products are not emitted.

Question 19.
List sources of noise pollution in your surroundings. Explain how noise pollution is harmful for human beings.
Answer:
Sources of noise pollution :

  1. Sounds of vehicles.
  2. Loudspeakers.
  3. Working Machines.
  4. Bursting of crackers.
  5. Desert coolers.
  6. Radios and televisions at high volumes.
  7. Kitchen appliances.
  8. Hawkers.

Harmful effects of noise pollution :

  • Lack of sleep.
  • Hypertension.
  • Anxiety.
  • Partial deafness.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What steps would you suggest for minimising the air pollution around you?
Answer:
The air pollution can be minimised by the following steps :

  • Using alternative sources of energy, that are non-polluting such as solar energy, wind energy etc.
  • Using lead-free fuels, such as Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for running cars, buses, trucks etc. The vehicles must be regularly checked for pollution.
  • Setting factories away from residential areas and their chimneys must have filters.
  • Planting more and more trees, as they purify air.
  • Not using bags made of plastic, instead using cloth and jute bags.
  • Recycling materials, such as paper, metal etc.
  • Avoiding burning of dried leaves, tree branches, paper, garbage etc. as the smoke released causes pollution.
  • Saving electricity as it would amount to burning of less fossil fuels.
  • Reducing the use of aerosols (i.e. particles of solid, or liquid matter) that can remain suspended in air from a few minutes to many months depending on particle size and weights, such as perfumes, deodorants etc.
  • Avoiding smoking and encouraging others also to do the same.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

Question 2.
Describe the role of sewage as water pollutant.
Answer:
Sewage can be classified into domestic sewage and industrial wastes. Domestic sewage is one of the most primary sources of water pollution. The industrial wastes also play major role in the pollution of water.
Sewage pollutes rivers, lakes and even oceans. Polluted waters are contaminated with infectious agents for cholera, typhoid, dysentery, jaundice and skin diseases.

In sewage water, there is depletion of oxygen, because the same is required for degradation of sewage. Reduced availability of oxygen causes suffocation and kills many aquatic animals especially fishes. Polluted water becomes unfit for drinking and cooking. The poisonous substances which get dissolved in water, make it unsuitable for aquatic life. It is unfit for agricultural operations also. Scum and sludge get collected and make the water unfit for boating and other recreational purposes.

Question 3.
Write a short note on air pollution.
Answer:
Air Pollution. Air is never found pure due to natural and man-made pollution. An undesirable change in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of air is called air pollution. The substances which pollute the air are called air pollutants. The common air pollutants are carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and suspended particulate matter.

The air pollution is caused by natural processes and human activities. Air pollution has very adverse effects on human beings. It affects raw materials, industrial processes, living conditions and cultural assets like historical monuments. It is posing main dangers to our lives.

Question 4.
Define acidic gases. Give examples. Can you observe its effects on newly constructed buildings made of marble?
Answer:
The gases which combine with water to form acids are called acidic gases.
Example: Sulphur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen dioxide (NO2). Effects on buildings made of marble.

The acidic gases (SO2 and NO2) react with water present in the air and get converted to acids :
2SO2 + O2 + 2H2O → 2H2SO4 Sulphuric acid
4NO2 + O2 + 2H2O → 4HNO3 Nitric acid

The acids come down to earth with rainwater. The rain containing acids is called acid rain. The acid damages the marble stone (CaCO3) by dissolving it.
CaCO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + CO2↑ + H2O
CaCO3 + 2HNO3 → Ca(NO3)2 + CO2 ↑+ H2O Marble stone
Therefore, acidic gases damage the buildings made of marble.

Question 5.
Explain ozone depletion.
Answer:
Ozone Depletion:
Ozone layer acts as protector of life on earth. Due to human activities, CFCs produced by man depletes the ozone layer, more ultraviolet radiations reach the surface of earth. It is termed ozone depletion.

Effects of ozone depletion.

  • UV radiation strikes the earth and these radiations cause skin cancer and damage to eye.
  • These ultraviolet radiations damage the defence (immune) system of the body.
  • It may lead to variations in global rainfall.
  • It causes ecological disturbances such as floods, shortage of food etc.

Question 6.
Describe the sources of water pollution.
Answer:
Sources of water pollution:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water 2

Following are the sources of water pollution-
1. Domestic effluent. In this case, wastewater is discharged into public sewerage system such as-

  • Human and animal excreta
  • Plenty of organic matter in the form of food residue
  • Detergents
  • A large number of bacteria.

2. Industrial effluent. Industries usually discharge wastewater into ponds, lakes, and rivers. Industrial wastewater contains heavy metals as mercury, lead, copper, arsenic, and cadmium.

3. Pesticides and fertilizers. The surface water runoff from the field with inorganic fertilizers, pesticides, insecticides, bring heavy loads of pollutants into natural water bodies. Pesticides like DDT are non-biodegradable.

4. Waste Heat. Waste heat is a rise in the temperature of water by human activity. Thermal power plants, refineries, etc. discharge hot water into nearly lakes, sea, etc. The sudden rise in the temperature of the water has very harmful effects on aquatic organisms, such as fish and algae.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1. Name two breeds of pig.
Answer:
White Yorkshire, Landrace.

Question 2.
How many piglets can be produced by a female pig in a year?
Answer:
20-24 in a year.

Question 3.
How many times does a female pig produce piglets?
Answer:
Twice a year.

Question 4.
How much protein should be in the feed of a dry female rabbit?
Answer:
12-15%.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Question 5.
What is the weight of rabbits at age of 12 weeks?
Answer:
1 to 1.5 kg in 3 months (12 weeks).

Question 6.
Name the breeds of goat.
Answer:

  • Indigenous – Beetal, Jamnapari.
  • Exotic – Saanen, Alpine, Boer.

Question 7.
Name the breeds of sheep.
Answer:
erino, Corridale.

Question 8.
Name the native place of Beetal goat.
Answer:
Gurdaspur, Amritsar, Tarn taran, and Ferozepur.

Question 9.
Name the native place of Jamnapari breed.
Answer:
Western Uttar Pardesh.

Question 10.
Name the age of castration of male pigglets.
Answer:
At the age of 3-4 weeks.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Explain the difference between indigenous and exotic breeds of pig.
Answer:
Local indigenous breeds of pigs have a poor growth rate and piglets produced are also less in number.
Exotic breeds grow rapidly and also produce more piglets per year.

Question 2. Explain about economic feeding of pigs.
Answer:
Leftover vegetables in the market, hotel, hostel, etc.; restaurant waste, sugarcane, press mud, buttermilk (Lassi), etc. can be given to pigs as feed.

Question 3.
What is the composition of feed of pigs?
Answer:
Piglets should be given 20-22% protein, and roughage should not be more than 5%. Growing pigs should be given 16-18% protein and adults should also be given 2-3 kg green fodder.

Question 4.
Write the qualities of a good goat.
Answer:
Good quality goat is selected on the basis of its lactation milk for 120 days. It should be able to produce first kidding up to the age of 2 years. It should be high yielding and its body should belong. The udder should be large and teats medium-sized pointing forward. It should have soft shiny hair.

Question 5.
Name the wool and meat-type breeds of rabbits.
Answer:

  • Breeds of rabbit for wool – German Angora, British Angora, Russian Angora.
  • Breeds of rabbit for meat – Grey Giant, Soviet Chinchilla, White Giant, Newzealand white.

Question 6.
Which type of feed is liked by rabbits?
Answer:
Rabbit is a vegetarian animal. It likes to eat Napier bajra, bajra, cowpea, guinea grass, berseem, green leaves and vegetables etc.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Question 7.
Give a description of nest or box used for rabbit.
Answer:
Wooden boxes can be made of different sizes but there should be proper arrangement for light and drainage of urine. Adult animal can be kept in a cage of size 2x2x1 feet.

Question 8.
How many times rabbit produces kitten annually and what is the total number of kittens produced?
Answer:
Rabbit can give birth to 5-7 young ones at one time and can give birth 6-7 times in a year. Thus giving birth to 30-50 young . ones in a year.

Question 9.
What is the wool yield of various breeds of rabbits?
Answer:

Breed of Rabbit Wool
Russian angora 215 gram
British angora 230 gram
German angora 530 gram

Question 10.
What is the protein content in rabbit feed?
Answer:
Protein should be 12-15% in the feed of a dry female and for a milking female protein should be 16-20% in the feed.

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences:

Question 1.
What are the basic points for profitable piggery?
Answer:

  1. Selection of breed.
  2. Select healthy male and female animals.
  3. Providing balanced feed.
  4. Optimum management e.g. for shed, health management against diseases.
  5. A healthy sow should have tight skin, soft hair, bright eyes, strong legs, and 12 teats.
  6. Mating should be done at the age of 8-9 months and when the weight of the sow is about 90 kg.
  7. Get the piglets castrated at the age of 3-4 weeks if they are meant for meat (pork).

Question 2.
Give details of shed for pigs.
Answer:
Shed should be at higher elevation than the ground level. It should not be costly, but it should be comfortable. For a growing pig 8 square feet, for a dry, female 10-12 square feet space is enough. 20 young animals can be reared in 160 square feet space. Ten sows (females pigs) can be kept in one room. There should be guard railing in the room of sows to prevent crushing of newborn piglet under the mother pig. Railing should be 10-12 inch high and should be away from the wall by 10-12 inches.

Question 3.
Write a note on sheep and goat shed.
Answer:
Sheds should be open and airy. The flooring should be damp proof. Length of shed should be in East-West’direction. A goat or sheep needs only 10 square feet of space. Lamb requires 4 square feet space. There should be wall 5-6 feet high all around the shed or barbed wire to prevent stray animals entering into the shed. Plant deciduous shady trees like mulberry, poplar, dharek etc. around the shed.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Question 4.
Give composition of rabbit feed.
Answer:
Feed of Rabbit includes cereals, pulses, green and dry fodder, carrots, cabbage, legumes and kitchen waste. Feed is given in pellet form to reduce respiratory problems and wastage of feed. Dry female should be given 12-15% protein in its feed whereas milking female should be given 16-20% protein in its feed. Rabbit can be given a concentrate which is mixture of wheat, maize, bajra, meat meal, rice polish, ground nut cakes, minerals mixture and common salt etc. Rabbits like to take cowpea, Guinea grass, spinach, green leaves and vegetables, napier bajra, berseem etc. Rabbits consume water also which is 10% of its body weight. Therefore there should be proper arrangement of drinking water.

Question 5.
Give details of cages used for rabbits.
Answer:
Wooden boxes can be made of different sizes but there should be proper arrangement for light and drainage of urine. Adult animals can be kept in 2x2x1 feet cages. Weaned kitten are also kept in cages. One cage can be used to keep 20 young animals. Males and females should be kept separately.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about size and colour of White Yorkshire breed of pig.
Answer:
Size, medium, colour, white.

Question 2.
Which breed of pig is popular in north India?
Answer:
White Yorkshire.

Question 3.
Landrace breed of pig is Native of which country?
Answer:
Denmark.

Question 4.
When does a healthy female pig come in heat for the first time?
Answer:
At the age of 5-6 months.

Question 5.
How much protein should be present in the feed of growing pigs?
Answer:
16-18%.

Question 6.
How much space is required by a growing pigs?
Answer:
8 square feet.

Question 7.
How much space is required by a non-milking female pig?
Answer:
10-12 sQuestion feet.

Question 8.
What should be the height of railing of the room of female pig?
Answer:
10-12 inch.

Question 9.
Which animal is called poor man’s cow?
Answer:
Goat.

Question 10.
Name Indigenous breeds of goat.
Answer:
Beetal, Jamnapari.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Question 11.
How many days of milk is the basis of selection of a goat?
Answer:
120 days.

Question 12.
What is gestation period for goat/sheep?
Answer:
145-157 days.

Question 13.
What should be the direction of shed?
Answer:
East-West.

Question 14.
How much space is required by sheep or goat?
Answer:
10 square feet.

Question 15.
How much space is required by youngone of sheep or goat (i.e. lamb)?
Answer:
4 square feet.

Question 16.
How many times youngones are produced by goat/ sheep in a year?
Answer:
Three times.

Question 17.
How many times a female rabbit gives birth in a year?
Answer:
6-7 times.

Question 18.
How much is the average age of rabbit?
Answer:
5 years.

Question 19.
Name wool types of Rabbit.
Answer:
Russian Angora, German Angora.

Question 20.
Name meat types of rabbit?
Answer:
Soviet chinchilla, grey giant.

Question 21.
How much protein should be present in feed of dry female rabbit?
Answer:
12-15 %.

Question 22.
How much protein should be present in feed of milking female rabbit?
Answer:
16-20%.

Question 23.
How much green fodder and feed is eaten by a 6 week old rabbit?
Answer:
100 gram green fodder and 50 gram feed.

Question 24.
At what age wool can be taken for the first time from a rabbit?
Answer:
At the age of 4 months.

Question 25.
How much wool do we get from a rabbit in a year?
Answer:
500-700 gram.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about White Yorkshire breed of pig.
Answer:
It is white colored medium-sized breed of pig. It has long body and erected ear.

Question 2.
Write about Landrace breed of pig.
Answer:
It is an exotic breed. Its colour is white, body is long and has drooping ears. It originally belongs to Denmark. Its meat has less fat.

Question 3.
Write about female pig when it comes to heat.
Answer:
Female pig comes in heat at the age of 5-6 months for the first time. But mating should be done when female attains a weight of 90 kg and is of 8-9 months old.

Question 4.
Write about health of female pig (sow).
Answer:
It should be healthy with soft and tight skin. It should have soft hair. Its eyes should be bright. It should have strong legs and 12 teats.

Question 5.
How much space is required by pigs?
Answer:
Growing pigs need 8 square feet space whereas dry female needs 10-12 feet space.

Question 6.
Why is guard railing fixed in the room of sow?
Answer:
This is put to prevent the crushing of the newborn piglets under their mother.

Question 7.
Write about the beetle breed of goat.
Answer:
It is black brownish with white spots on it. its ears are long, drooping and twisted. Its forehead is convex. It has large udder. First kidding occurs at an age of 18 months. It is found in Gurdaspur, Amritsar, Tarantarn, and Ferozepur.

Question 8.
Write about Jamnapari breed of goat.
Answer:
It is white in color and sometimes light brown. It has a long body and legs are also long. It has brown spots on the head and face. Its ears are long flat and drooping. The nose is convex. It gives a beautiful look and is found in Western Uttar Pradesh.

Question 9.
Write about shearing of wool in the case of rabbits.
Answer:
First-time wool cutting can be done at the age of 4 months. Wool should be at least 2 inches long. At the age of one year, maximum wool yield can be obtained. Annual production from one animal is 500-700 gm of wool.

Question 10.
Write about getting training about the rearing of sheep/goats, rabbits, etc.
Answer:
One can get training from the Deputy Director (Animal husbandry) of the concerned district, Rishi Vigyan Kendra, GADVASU Ludhiana.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write details about breeds of goat.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Write details about the breeds of pigs.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. White Yorkshire is breed of :
(a) Hen
(b) Pig
(c) Cow
(d) Sheep
Answer:
(b) Pig

2. Breed of goat is :
(a) Saanen
(b) Boer
(c) Beetal
(d) Marino
Answer:
(d) Marino

3. Males which are for mutton purpose should be castrated at the age of:
(a) 2 month
(b) 10 month
(c) 15 month
(d) 20 month
Answer:
(a) 2 month

4. Female pig can give birth to piglets per farrowing :
(a 25-30
(b) 10-12
(c) 20-25
(d) 30-40
Answer:
(b) 10-12

5. Female rabit can become pregnant at the age of ……………….. for the first time :
(a) 3-4 month
(b) 6-9 month
(c) 15-20 month
(d) 12-13 month
Answer:
(b) 6-9 month

True/False:

1. Reproduction in pigs is very rapid and they also eat less.
Answer:
True

2. Healthy female pig comes in beat at the age of 3-4 months for the first time.
Answer:
False

3. In a shed of 160 square feet, 10 young pigs can be reared.
Answer:
False

4. Indigenous breeds of goat are-Beetal, Jamnapari.
Answer:
True

5. Breeds of sheep are-Marino, Corridale.
Answer:
True

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Female pig can give birth twice in a year and can produce ……………… piglets per farrowing.
Answer:
10-12

2. Gestation period of sheep and goat is same and is ……………. days.
Answer:
145-157

3. Female rabbit can become pregnant at the age of …………………… months for the first time.
Answer:
6-9

4. Annual wool yield from Russian, British and German Angora is respectively 215, 230, …………… grams.
Answer:
530

5. Average age of rabbit is ………………….. years.
Answer:
5

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Physical Education Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why Olympic Games are called Olympic?
Answer:
Olympic games were started in village Olympia. That is why it is known as Olympic.

Question 2.
When Ancient Olympics started?
Answer:
It was started in 776 in Greece.

Question 3.
What prizes were given to the winner of the Ancient Olympics?
Answer:
The roots of tree from the Goddess of Jess Temple were given.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 4.
Write any two rules of Ancient Olympic.
Answer:

  • Participants must be citizens of Greece.
  • Professional players cannot take part in Ancient Olympic.

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Modern Olympic games?
Answer:
Baron De Coubertin.

Question 6.
When and where modern Olympic games were started?
Answer:
It was started in 1896 in Athens.

Question 7.
Write any two rules of Modern Olympic games.
Answer:

  • There is no bar to participate in Olympic of caste and creed.
  • Professional players cannot take part in Olympic.

Question 8.
Who has originated Asian Game?
Answer:
It was started with the effort of Maharaja Yadvinder Singh of Patiala and Mr. G.D. Sondhi.

Question 9.
When and where Asian Games were started?
Answer:
It was started in 1951 at New Delhi.

Question 10.
After how many years Olympic games were held?
Answer:
After every four years.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 11.
Where were the fifth Asian games held?
Answer:
It was held in 1966 in Jakarta (Indonesia).

Question 12.
In which Olympic Mr. Milkha Singh got 4th position in 400 metres race?
Answer:
1960 (Rome Olympic) Mr. Milkha Singh got fourth position in 400 meters race.

Question 13.
In which year India participated in Olympic First Time?
Answer:
In 1920 Olympic Games.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 14.
Which Indian player won gold medal in 2008 Beijing Olympic Games?
Answer:
Mr. Abhinav Bindrg, won the gold medal in the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.

Question 15.
When and where did the Indian Hockey team won Gold Medal for the first time?
Answer:
In 1928 India Hockey team won Gold Medals at Amsterdam.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the founder of Modern Olympic Games? What do you know about him?
Answer:
Modern Olympic Games:
In 1859, the Olympic games were brought to life with the efforts of James. Only the Greeks could take part in these games. These games were held four times, but could not get much success. But the attention of the whole world was drawn towards these games, and the efforts began to make the games successful.
PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games 1
In 1893, a conference of all nations was convened with the sole aim of reviving the Olympic games. In June, 6, 1894, another conference was convened in Paris. It was unanimously resolved that these games would be conducted every four year in some country of the world. Baron de Coubertin made a great contribution in the revival of Olympic games. With his efforts the Olympic games were a new in the Greek city of Athens in 1896.

Question 2.
Discuss the rules for the competition of Modern Olympics.
Answer:
Entries and Rules For Olympic Games. In order to participate in the Olympic games, a player, whether man or woman, of age-group must be Amateur. All entries in the games are routed through National Olympic Committee. National Sports Committees select players to represent their respective countries, and send their names to the International Olympic Committee.

International Olympic Committee:
In order to organize Olympic games a committee was named International Olympic Committee was formed. It had one representative of each country in the world. Its head office is located in Compague Mon Zeps Lausanne (Switzerland). For this committee, one President, two Vice Presidents and members of the Executive are elected. This committee decides the time and venue of the Olympic games to be held every four years.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 3.
Discuss the various events which have been included in Modern Olympic games. Discuss the opening and closing ceremonies of Olympic games.Answer:
Olympic Programme:
Whichever event is to be included in the Olympic games is recognized first by the International Olympic Committee two years before the start of the games.This event must be played by at least 25 countries. With the inclusion of more games, new programmes and events came into being. The following events have been included in the Modern Olympic games :

  • Athletics
  • Football
  • Basketball
  • Hockey
  • Boxing
  • Volleyball
  • Weight-lifting
  • Cycling
  • Gymnastics
  • Handball
  • Swimming and Diving
  • Roving
  • Canoeing
  • Fencing.
  • Judo
  • Wrestling
  • Equestrain
  • Water polo
  • Shooting
  • Archery
  • Yachting
  • Pentathlon.

Opening and Closing Ceremonies of Olympic Games:
The opening ceremony of the Olympic games is very impressive. The torch which is kept burning with sunrays in Olympia is brought to that city where the Olympic games are to be held. The King, President or Prime Minister of that place announces the opening of the games . It is followed by the March Past by the athletes and oath-taking ceremony. The Olympic flag unfurled and pigeons and balloons are released.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 4.
When and where the Modern Olympic were held?
Answer:
List of Olympic Games held so far:

Second 1954 Manila Phillipines
Third 1958 Tokyo Japan
Fourth 1962 Bangkok Thailand
Fifth 1966 Jakarta Indonesia
Sixth 1970 Bangkok Thailand
Seventh 1974 Tehran Iran
Eighth 1978 Bangkok Thailand
Ninth 1982 New Delhi India
Tenth 1986 Seoul South Korea
Eleventh 1990 Beijing China
Twelfth 1994 Hiroshima Japan
Thirteenth 1998 Bangkok Thailand
Fourteenth 2002 Passan S.Korea
Fifteenth 2006 Doha Quatar
Sixteenth 2010 Goingz China
Seventeenth 2014 To be held S. Korea

The 1906 Olympic games were organised to mark the 10th anniversary of the Games. These were not held after a period of 4 years as usual:
At the time of holding ancient Olympic Games battle between the countries used to be stopped. But it is a matter of pity and shame that the Olympic Games stated for 1910 and then for 1914 were stopped because of the First World War and then the Second World War, and lovers of games could not participate in these games.

Moreover, in 1980 many countries did not participate in Olympic Games held in Moscow (U.S.S.R.) on political considerations. A large number of players who had put in their best efforts in their preparation had to face disappointment when their countries boycotted these games held in Moscow.

The world remained in tension as to what might happen in the Games which were held in Barcelona in 1992. In the Olympic Games of 1972 held in Munich, some players were attacked on narrow consideration of colour forgetting the true spirit of the Olympics. Many players were killed, and the whole world was plunged in sorrow and shame.

The founder of the modern Olympic games Baron de Coubertin might not have even imagined of this tragic fate which the Games met. It would be indeed fortunate if we could continue the Olympic Games in the spirit with which they were revived. History changes, and new incidents happened giving new turns to history. One is afraid if such tragic incidents would bring the Olympic Games to the same point when another Baron de Coubertin had to make efforts to revive them.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 5.
What do you know about Olympic Oath?
Answer:
Olympic Oath:
Olympic oath taking ceremony was started in 1920 in Antwerp. In the Charter of Olympic Games 63 it has been mentioned that an outstanding sportsperson of the host country would take oath by holding comer of the flag by one hand, and raising other hand upward swear as :
“We swear that we will take part in the Olympic Games in loyal competition respecting the regulations which govern them and with the desire to participate in the true spirit of sportsmanship for the honour of our country and glory of sports.”

Question 6.
What is the importance of Olympic Flag and Olympic Motto? What type of prizes are awarded to the winners of Modern Olympics?
Answer:
Olympic Flag:
Olympic flag was first hoisted in the city of Antwerp of Belgium in Olympic games. It was of white colour. It contains five connected circles of different colours (Red, Green, Yellow, Blue and Black). These are like the English alphabet W. It represents five continents i.e. Europe, America, Asia, Africa and Australia. The motto of Olympic games was shown by three words Citius, Altius and Fortius.
PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games 2

Olympic Awards – Certificates are awarded to persons who are placed in first three positions:

  • First Position – Gold Medal
  • Second Position – Silver Medal
  • Third Position – Bronze Medal

In addition to this a medal was awarded to an employee who helps in organising Olympic games.

Olympic Motto:
The Olympic Motto consists of three Latin words Citius, Altius and Fortius. The modern interpretation of this motto is Faster, Higher, Stronger. This represents the athletic games of running faster, jumping higher and throwing more strongly.

Question 7.
Which prizes were won by the Indian players in the 2008 Olympic games? Write the name of players and their games.
Answer:
The 2008 Beijng Olympic Indian won these medals:

Name Medal Sports
Abhinav Bindra Gold Shooting
Sushil Kumar Bronze Wrestling
Vijander Kumar Bronze Boxing

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 8.
Write the contribution of Indian in 2012 Olympic.
Answer:
2012 Olympic games were held, at London. In this games Indian performed very well and won six medals as under :

Medal Name Sports
Silver Sushil Kumar Wrestling
Silver Vijay Kumar Shooting
Bronze Mary Kom Boxing
Bronze Gagan Narang Shooting
Bronze Yogeshwar Dutt Wrestling
Bronze Saina Nehwal Badminton

2016 Olympic games were held of Rio (Brazil) in this game India won two medal as under:

Medal Name Sports
Silver P.V.Sindhu Badminton
Bronze Shakshi Malik Wrestling

Question 9.
When and where Asian Games were started? What is the contribution of India in organizing the Asian Games?
Answer:
Asian Games:
Brief History. The Asian Games were born on Feburary 13, 1949 when representatives of Afghanistan, Burma, India, Pakistan and Phillipines signed the Constitution at Patiala house, New Delhi and thus became the founder-members of Asian Games Federation. The representatives adopted “Ever Ownard as the motto of the games.” However behind that date lies a long period of gestation on the part of the member countries plus the efforts of late Sh. G.D. Sondhi, a former member of International Olympic Committee, President of Amateur Athletics Federation of India and the prime mover behind the founding of the western Asiatic Games.

The inspiration for the Asian Games can be traced back to these fore manners. The Far Eastern Games were held periodically between Japan-China and Phillipines in the first three decades of the century. The Olympic games in which the Asian countries were taking increasing interest, and Western Asiatic Games (for countries east of Suez and west of Singapore), which were held in 1934, but were discontinued with the start of World War II, gave rise to Asian Games.

These two types of sports festival had the idea of bringing together the youth of Asia on the field of sports. This idea was dormant until March, 1947, when the Asian Relation Conference called by Pt. Nehru in New Delhi, presented an opportunity to bring to the notice of the countries attending that conference, the proposal for Asian Games.

Mr. Sondhi raised the question of the Asian Games project with some assembled representatives attending the Asia Relation Conference and also approached Mr. Nehru who readily offered his support for the idea. During the London Olympics in 1948 the plan way again put before a gathering of Asian representatives and the First Asian Games were initially set to take place in 1950. After several postponements, the first Games were finally held in New Delhi March 1951. Since then Asian games have been held regularly four years interval.

The cavelcade of Asian Games went forward as follows :

Second 1954 Manila Phillipines
Third 1958 Tokyo Japan
Fourth 1962 Bangkok Thailand
Fifth 1966 Jakarta Indonesia
Sixth 1970 Bangkok Thailand
Seventh 1974 Tehran Iran
Eighth 1978 Bangkok Thailand
Ninth 1982 New Delhi India
Tenth 1986 Seoul South Korea
Eleventh 1990 Beijing China
Twelfth 1994 Hiroshima Japan
Thirteenth 1998 Bangkok Thailand
Fourteenth 2002 Passan S.Korea
Fifteenth 2006 Doha Quatar
Sixteenth 2010 Goingz China
Seventeenth 2014 To be held S. Korea

Member Contries:

  • Afghanistan
  • Behrain
  • Burma
  • China
  • Hongkong
  • India
  • Indonesia
  • Iran
  • Iraq
  • Israel
  • Japan
  • Republic of Khemer
  • Democratic Republic of Korea
  • Republic of a Korea
  • Kuwait
  • Laos
  • Malaysia
  • Republic of Mangolia
  • Nepal
  • Pakistan
  • Phillipines
  • Saudi Arabia
  • Singapore
  • Sri Lanka
  • Thailand
  • Republic of Vietnam

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the History of Ancient Olympics. (OR) When and where the Ancient Olympic Games started ? Why are these known as Olympic Games ?
Answer:
History:
The Ancient Olympic Games came into existence in the Greek city of Olympia in 776 A.D. The credit for starting these games is given to Ifitus and Claustheius. The games began on full moon night in the months of August and September. The first winner of the Olympic games was Corbus. These games were organised after a year. They got banned in 394 A.D. on the orders of Roman Emperor Theodosius. The Olympic city was situated on the bank of Elfis river. It was the sacred city of Elis state. These games acquired special status in 1100 A.D., and began to be taken care of like a temple. With the beginning of the Olympic games, all battles in Greece used to be stopped. Nobody with weapons could enter Olympia. These games are related to Greek God Zeus.

Sports :
The Ancient Olympic games used to begin with race. It used to be 100 yards. In 724 A.D. the distance of the race was increased to 400 yards. In the 15th Olympic games the distance of the race was increased to 3 miles. In the 18th Olympic games Pentathlon was started. It included five games-long jump, 200-yard race, javelin throw and wrestling. In 25th Olympic games, chariot race was introduced, and in 30th Olympics, boxing, water- sports, wrestling pekprium and some other games were introduced. At first women were not allowed to participate in games, but then they were allowed to do so.

Rewards :
The winners of the games were amply rewarded. They were taken to the temple of Zeus and were presented the leaves and branches of olive tree. People would sing in their praises. The games were named after these winners. The companions of these winners would bring them home in the accompaniment of instrumental music. The country would take pride in her winners, and all Greeks would pray for good luck to all participants of these games.

End :
With the passage of time these games became more and more popular, and other countries also began to take part in these games. After the victory of Greece by Romans, these games had a severe setback. Some professionals began to take part in these games, thus giving rise to many evils in the games. On the orders of Roman Emperor Theodosius in 394 A.D., these games came to an end. In 395 A.D., the statue of the Greek god Zeus was also broken. The Olympic city got deserted. Roman Emperor Theodosius also destroyed stadiums. For some time even the relics of Olympic games and Olympic city disappeared.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 2.
What were the rules for competition in Ancient Olympics ?
Answer:
Rules of Ancient Olympics. It was extremely essential to follow the following rules to take part in Olympic games :

  • All players participating in the games ought to be Greeks.
  • It was essential for a player to take up training for 10 months under the care of somebody before taking part in these games.
  • No professional could participate in the games.
  • In the initial stage, women were neither allowed to witness, nor participate in these games.
  • The players had to take oath to participate in the games properly.
  • The players should not have any criminal charge.
  • The first and last days of games were fixed for religious ceremonies and sacrifices.

Sports:
In the beginning, only one game was included in the Olympics, but more games were slowly introduced. First of all the race used to be of 100 yards. In 724 A.D. at the 14th Olympic games 400 yards race was introduced. At the 18th Olympic games Pentathlon was started. It include long jump, Javelin throw, 200 yards race, discus throw and wrestling. In 23rd and 25th Olympics, 3 miles race was introduced. In 28th Olympics, chariot race, and in 30th Olympics, water sports were included. These games used to last for there to five days. At first women were not allowed to take part in games, but they were allowed to do so later on.

Question 3.
What do you know about the opening ceremony of Ancient Olympics ?
Answer:
Opening ceremony and conduct of Games:
Before the start of the games, all the players, their father’s and brothers and the coaches used to assemble in a hall. The Chief Judge would utter some words to them, and they used to take the oath that they would not resort to only illegal ways and means in the games, and that they had a training of 10 months prior to the games. Thereafter, the player and some other people would take part in the March Past. When a player came out in sight, his name, his father’s name, and the name of his state were announced so that the spectators would become familiar with him fully. If a spectator had some objection to his participation, he would make it known.

If no objection was raised, it was presumed that nobody had any objection to his participation, he would make it known. If no objection was raised, it was presumed that nobody had any objection to his participation. Thereafter-, the opening of the games was announced. Some distinguished person or the chief judge would address the players, and the games would start immediately thereafter.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 4.
What do you know about the awards of the Ancient Olympic Games ?
Answer:
Awards. Till the 6th Olympic games the winners were given cattle and corn in the form of awards, but this practice came to an end. Then the winners used to be honoured with garlands or crown made of the leaves and branches of olive tree. The players were highly honoured and rewarded, and they used to enjoy high status in society. The award distribution ceremony used to be very impressive. The names of the winners were noted down in the calender, and poems in their praises were composed. The sculptors would make their statues. Gates were erected to honour the winners. Friends used to give them gifts. The Greeks used to honour them in all ways, and look upon these games as a matter of pride and glory.

We can realize the importance of these games from one incident. Once a player, who has earlier won some game, came alongwith his two sons to see them honoured for having won two races in a single day. When the awards were being given, people were so happy and excited that they said that the father had got so much happiness in his life because of his sons that he could not expect more happiness in life, and, it would be better if he simply ceased to be. This incident reveals the people’s extreme love for Olympic games, and their importance in one’s life. During those days people did not participate in these games in expectation of any material or economic reward. They participated in these games for the love of games. They had no temptation.

Question 5.
Write a note on the decline of the Ancient Olympic Games.
Answer:
Decline for the Ancient Olympic Games:

The Olympic games continued for many years with much enthusiasm and zeal, and people in large number used to participate in them. But when people from outside Greece began to take part, the people forgot the spirit of the amateur and turned professionals. These people then made the victory in the games their sole motive.One of the reasons of the decline of these games was the Roman victory over Greece. The decline started because the Romans were not very enthusiastic about these games.

Many evils cropped, up in the games. People began to bribe the judges in order to win. Then some such events came to be included in the Olympics as caused the death of one or the other player everyday. In game like boxing players began to hold iron pieces in their hands which would prove very injurious or fatal, thereby discouraging the honest people from taking part in such games.

In 394 A.D. these games were banned on the orders of the Roman Emperor Theodosius. The contribution of the Greeks in the sprots field was, thus, put to an end. The stadiums and temple where life buzzed with activity turned into ruins, and revealed the decline of the Olympic games. No doubt, everything that takes birth in the world ceases to exist one day as per the law of nature. In accordance with this law, the zeal of the Olympic games got buried under the debris of time, but people continued to have sweet memories of the old days. They continued to talk about these games.

Question 6.
In which country were the 1982 Asian Games were held?
Answer:
In India.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 7.
What place has the Indian player achieved in 2012 Olympic Games?
Answer:
56th.

Question 8.
Which prizes were won by the Indian in the eleventh Asian games?
Answer:
Medals of Indian players in Asian Games Beijing (China), 1990.

Game Gold Silver Bronze Total
Athletics 4 2 6
Boxing 1 1
Hockey 1 1
Kabaddi 1 1
Rowing 4 4
Shooting 1 1
Tennis 1 1
Weight Lifting 2 2 4
Wrestling 1 1 2
Yachting 2 2
Total 1 8 14 23
  • 12th Asian game India won 4 Gold and silver and 15 bronze Medals.
  • Thirteenth Asian games in 1998 and India won 7 Gold, 11 Silver and 17 Bronze Medals.
  • Fourteenth Asian games India get 14 Gold 17^Silver and 33 Bronze Medals. „
  • Seventeenth Asian games were held in incheon South Koren in 2014 in these games won 57 Medals (11 Gold, 10 Silver, 36 Bronze).