Class 6 – Page 12 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Gupta: Empire

September 30, 2024September 29, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 15 The Gupta: Empire Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 15 The Gupta: Empire

SST Guide for Class 6 PSEB The Gupta: Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Write about the conquests of Samudragupta.
Answer:
Samudragupta was a great conqueror. His conquests can be described as under :

Samudragupta first of all defeated three North Indian kings of Aryavarta, namely Nagsen, Achyut and king of the Kot dynasty.
While Samudragupta was busy in the South, Nagsen, Achyut and other kings of North raised a joint front against him. Samudragupta defeated all the kings of this front.
He defeated twelve kings of the South. But he did not annex their territories to his kingdom. He returned their kingdoms to them after their acceptance of his subordination.
Some jungle tribes of Orissa created a disturbance in his area. He defeated these tribes and established peace.
He annexed the areas captured by him in the North but returned the areas in the South to their rulers. He collected taxes from these rulers.

Question 2.
What do you know about Chandragupta Vikrama- ditya?
Answer:
Chandragupta, Vikramaditya was the son of Samudragupta. He is also known as Chandragupta-II. He conducted a victorious campaign in Western India against the Shakas who had been troubling the Guptas. He also maintained friendly relations with the kings of the Deccan and the South by marital alliances. The most important of such marital alliances was with the Vakataka kingdom of the Deccan.

Chandragupta Vikramaditya is best remembered for his patronage of learning and art. He had in his court some of the wisest and most learned men of the country, known as the ‘Nine Gems’. He was a devotee of Vishnu but respected all other religions. He issued a large number of coins in gold, silver and copper. A Chinese traveller Fa-hein came to India in his time. He adopted the title of Vikramaditya that means ‘Sun of Valour’.

Question 3.
Write a note on Kalidasa.
Answer:
Kalidasa was the most famous among ‘Nine Gems’ in Chandragupta Vikramaditya’s court. He was a famous Sanskrit poet. He wrote books on various subjects in Sanskrit. He had written the world famous books Kumar Sambhava, Raghuvamsa, Meghaduta and Abhigyan Shakuntalam. Abhigyan Shakuntalam is famous all over the world.

Question 4.
What do you know about economic life during the Gupta period?
Answer:
The economic life during the Gupta period was very prosperous.

Taxes were light and the articles of daily need were cheap. The common people used only cowries or copper coins to buy these articles. The largest number of gold coins were issued during this period. Such coins were called Dinaras.
Agriculture was the main profession of the people. Besides food crops of various types, fruits and oil seeds were also grown.
Both internal and external trade were developed. India had trade relations with South-East Asia, China, Central Asia and the European countries.
There were unions of bankers, merchants and manufacturers, known as guilds.
Cattle rearing and artisanship were other famous professions.

Question 5.
Why is the Gupta period called the Golden Age of India?
Answer:
The Gupta period was very advanced in every sphere of life. That is why it is called the Golden Age of India.

The people enjoyed a period of peace and prosperity. They enjoyed a high standard of living.
Both inland and international trade was carried on. Trade with other countries brought a lot of wealth and the people became rich and prosperous.
There was. great advancement in the field of education.
The people were honest and devoted to religion.
Caste system prevailed. But the different sections of the people lived in harmony.
Though the Gupta rulers were patrons of Hinduism, yet they showed tolerance towards other religions. Buddhism was allowed to flourish.
There was a great development in literature. Nine learned men known as ‘Nine Gems’ adorned the Gupta court.
Art and architecture were encouraged. Several pillars of artistic beauty and a number of temples were built.
Science and technology made tremendous progress. Two of the famous scientists of this age were Aryabhatta and Varahamihira. Both of them were astronomers and mathematicians.
Indian culture and civilisation spread in foreign lands in the Gupta period.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Samudragupta was a great ________ and ________
Answer:
great warrior, ruler

Question 2.
Chandragupta II issued a very large number of coins in ________ and ________
Answer:
gold, silver, copper

Question 3.
Gupta empire was divided into many provinces which were called ________
Answer:
Bhakti

Question 4.
The districts were called ________
Answer:
Vishayas

Question 5.
________and ________ poem written by Kalidasa are very famous.
Answer:
Sakuntala, Meghaduta.

III. Match the columns :

Question 1.

A	B
(1) Aryavarta	(a) Punjab
(2) Madrakas	(b) Northern India
(3) Iron Pillar	(c) Officers
(4) Kumaramatyas	(d) Delhi

Answer:
Correct columns :

A	B
(1) Aryavarta	(b) Northern India
(2) Madrakas	(a) Punjab
(3) Iron Pillar	(d) Delhi
(4) Kumaramatyas	(c) Officers

IV. Write ‘true’ or ‘false’ in the brackets given after each

Question 1.
Maharaja Gupta was the first Gupta king.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Vikramaditya was the title of Samudragupta.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Yaudheyas were ruling in South India.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Fa-hein was a Greek writer.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Guptas issued gold coins.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Aryabhatta was a famous scientist.
Answer:
True

V. Activities (Something To Do) :

Question 1.
Show the extent of the Gupta empire on the map of India.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Collect pictures of the works of the art of Gupta age and paste them in your scrapbook.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Guide The Gupta: Empire Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Who founded the Gupta empire?
(A) Maharaja Gupta
(B) Samundragupta
(C) Chandragupta
(D) Chandragupta II.
Answer:
(A) Maharaja Gupta.

Question 2.
Who is known as the greatest conqueror of the Gupta Dynasty?
(A) Sri Gupta
(B) Samudragupta
(C) Maharaja Gupta
(D) Chandragupta.
Answer:
(B) Samudragupta.

Question 3.
Horse sacrifice means
(A) Ashvashodha
(B) Ashvashloka
(C) Ashvamedha
(D) None of those.
Answer:
(C) Ashvamedha.

Question 4.
Chandragupta Vikramaditya was the son of
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Sri Gupta
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Maharaja Gupta.
Answer:
(A) Samundragupta.

Question 5.
Fa-hein was a Chinese traveller who visited India during empire.
(A) Mughal
(B) Mavryan
(C) Gupta
(D) Kushana.
Answer:
(C) Gupta.

Question 6.
Shakuntala and Meghaduta were written by
(A) Chanakya
(B) Kalidasa
(C) Charaka
(D) Arujabhatta.
Answer:
(B) Kalidasa.

Question 7.
Aryabhata was a famous of the Gupta period.
(A) Scientist
(B) Mathematician
(C) Astronomer
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

Question 8.
Chandragupta issued many coins of ________
(A) Gold
(B) Silver
(C) Copper
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

Question 9.
Abhigyan Shakuntalam was written by
(A) Tulsidas
(B) Kalidas
(C) Aryabhatta
(D) Varahamihira.
Answer:
(B) Kalidas.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the first great king of the Gupta dynasty?
Answer:
Chandragupta-I.

Question 2.
For how long did Samudragupta rule?
Answer:
Samudragupta ruled for about thirty-five years.

Question 3.
Who was Harishena?
Answer:
Harishena was a court poet of Samudragupta. He recorded a detailed account of Samudragupta’s achievements on a stone pillar at Allahabad.

Question 4.
Which was the biggest conquest of Chandragupta-II, and why?
Answer:
The biggest conquest of Chandragupta-II was over the Sakas of Western India. It brought an end to the foreign rule in India.

Question 5.
Who was Skandagupta?
Answer:
Skandagupta was the grandson of Chandragupta-II. He ruled from 454 A.D. to 467 A.D.

Question 6.
Who were Uparikas?
Answer:
The Governors of provinces in the Gupta administration were called Uparikas or Maharajas.

Question 7.
Name the capital of the Guptas.
Answer:
Patliputra.

Question 8.
What were Dinaras?
Answer:
Dinaras were the gold coins issued by the Gupta kings.

Question 9.
Name some famous writers of the Gupta period.
Answer:
Kalidasa, Amarasimha, Sudraka, Dandin, etc.

Question 10.
Where are the world famous Ajanta Caves situated?
Answer:
The world famous Ajanta Caves are situated near Aurangabad in Maharashtra.

Question 11.
What is meant by Ashvamedha?
Answer:
The meaning of Ashvamedha is a horse sacrifice. Ashvamedha was a symbol of universal rule.

Question 12.
What, were Bhuktis and Vishayas?
Answer:
Provinces within Gupta administration were called Buktis and districts within Gupta administration were known as Vishayas.

Question 13.
Who was Fa-hein?
Answer:
Fa-hein was a Chinese traveller who came to India in the Gupta period and wrote an account of his stay in India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the main source of our information about Samudragupta’s conquests?
Answer:
The main source of our information about Samudragupta’s conquests is an inscription engraved on a pillar at Allahabad. This inscription has been written by Harishena and it describes Samudragupta’s achievements and conquests.

Question 2.
Who were Hunas? How did they affect the Gupta’s kingdom?
Answer:
The Hunas was a savage tribe that lived in Central Asia. Stories about India’s wealth attracted them, and they attacked the northern border of India in the fifth cenutury A.D. Their first invasion was repulsed by Skandagupta. But soon after they conquered Punjab and Kashmir. Their invasions shook the Gupta Empire which soon fell into pieces.

Question 3.
What does Fa-hein write about the society in the Gupta period?
Answer:
Fa-hein was a Chinese traveller, who visited India during the rule of Chandragupta-II. He writes that in the Gupta period, people were happy and honest. There was no crime or theft. People did not even lock their houses when going out. Taxes were light. Most of the people were vegetarians. The caste system had become rigid and one could not change one’s caste.

Question 4.
Name the countries with which India had trade and cultural relations in the Gupta period.
Answer:
In the Gupta period, India had trade and cultural relations with the countries of South-East Asia, such as Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, Vietnam, Indonesia, etc. India had trade relations even with China and Central Asian and the European countries.

Question 5.
Describe the achievements of the Gupta period in science and technology.
Answer:
There was an advance in science and technology in the Gupta period.

Aryabhatta and Varahamihira made new discoveries. Aryabhatta wrote Aryabhattiyam. He explained that the earth moves around the sun. He also told how solar and lunar eclipses occur.
Indian mathematicians used the decimal system and knew about zero.
Books on medicines and other sciences were also written during this period.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the administration of the Guptas.
Answer:
The administration of the Guptas can be described in the following ways :

The king was the highest authority. He administered the country with the help of ministers and several high officials.
The empire was divided into provinces. The provinces were called Bhuktis and were governed by officials called Uparikas or Maharajas.
The provinces were divided into districts, known as Vishayas.
The districts were further divided into cities and towns.
The punishments were not severe.
The officials were allotted jagirs instead of cash salaries during the later period of the Guptas.

Question 2.
Describe the achievements of India in the field of art and literature during the Gupta period.
Answer:
The Guptas were great patrons of art and literature. They paid great attention to the development of art and literature in India.
1. Art. Mathura became the famous centre of art during the Gupta period. It produced the most beautiful statues of the Buddha, Jain and Hindu gods and goddesses. Sarnath near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh was also famous for good sculptures. Many beautiful temples were also made. The temples of Deogarh in Madhya Pradesh and Bhitari near Kanpur are very famous. The world-famous Ajanta Caves near Aurangabad in Maharashtra, with beautiful paintings in them, were also made. The kings made these caves for the residence and worship of the Buddhist monks. The famous Stupa of Sanchi was also rebuilt.

2. Literature. Best pieces of literature were produced during the Gupta period. The famous Sanskrit poet Kalidasa wrote several dramas and poems. His play Shakuntala and his poem Meghaduta are very famous, Other writers of the Gupta period were Amarasimha, Sudraka, Dandin, etc.

Question 3.
Give a brief description of the progress of science and technology under the patronage of the Guptas.
Answer:
Science and technology made huge progress under the patronage of Gupta rulers. “Aryabhata was the famous scientist of this age and he wrote a book called Aryabhattiyam”. In this book, he wrote that the earth moves around the sun and how solar and lunar eclipses occur. In the field of mathematics, the use of decimal systems was also given by this period. Arabs borrowed it from India and then Europeans borrowed it from Arabs. A number of books on astronomy, mathematics, and other sciences were written in this age.

This age also made huge progress in the field of technology. The iron pillar standing near Qutab Minar in Delhi is one of the finest examples of technological advances of this age.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 India: From 200 B.C. – 300 A.D.

September 28, 2024September 27, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 14 India: From 200 B.C. – 300 A.D. Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 14 India: From 200 B.C. – 300 A.D.

SST Guide for Class 6 PSEB India: From 200 B.C. – 300 A.D. Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Write about the administration of Satavahanas.
Answer:
The Satavahana kingdom was well administered. The king was supreme in the state. He was regarded as the protector of religion. He was believed to possess divine powers. The empire was divided into provinces ruled by civil and military governors. The provinces were divided into districts, called Aharas. These were administered by certain officials, namely Amatyas and Mahamatyas, The rural areas were headed by Goulmikas. The Goulmikas were responsible for collecting the revenue or land tax.

Question 2.
Who was the first great Chola ruler and what were his achievements?
Answer:
Karikala was the first great Chola ruler. He bagged several achievements. He defeated badly his neighbouring Chera and Pandya kingdoms. He invaded Sri Lanka. He cleared forests and made the land cultivable. He arranged for canals and tanks for irrigation. He constructed a dam on the river Kaveri to check floods.

Question 3.
Write about the life of people in South India during the period 200 B.C. to 300 A.D.
Answer:
The life of people in South India during the period 200 B.C. to 300 A.D. was very simple. Most of the people lived in villages and their main occupation was agriculture. But the royalty and rich people lived in the interior parts of the towns. Many of merchants and craftsmen lived along the coasts, from where trade was easy. The people lived in their families cordially. After day’s work, amusements consisted of music, dancing, poetry recitations and gambling, etc. Musical instruments like pipes, flutes, string instruments and drums were in use. Music was advanced. There was special music for the different hours of day and night. Farmers, merchants, herdsmen and craftsmen paid taxes to the government.

Question 4.
What do you know about Megalithic Culture?
Answer:
The Megalithic Culture existed in South India around 1000 B.C. This region was inhabited by the people known as the Megalith Builders. These people encircled the graves of the dead with large stones to give them shape of enclosures. That is why their culture is called the Megalithic Culture.

We come to know about the Megalithic Culture from the remains discovered at Inamgaon, Takalghat and Mahurjhari in Maharashtra and Maski, Kopbal and Brahmagiri in South India. These remains show that the people of the Megalithic Culture used black and red pottery. This pottery consisted of a variety of pots and vessels. Many of them were made on wheel.

The people practised both agriculture and hunting as their profession. Agriculture was developed but most of the people liked hunting.

Question 5.
Write about the burial system of the Megalithic Culture. .
Answer:
The people of the Megalithic Culture adopted a peculiar custom to bury their dead. They buried their dead and encircled their graves with large stones. Moreover, they also buried the articles like pottery, weapons and implements of the dead along with him. Probably, they believed that the dead went to another world and would need their belongings in the next world.

Question 6.
Who were Demetrius and Menander?
Answer:
1. Demetrius: Demetrius was the first Indo-Greek invader who invaded India after the decline of the Mauryan Empire and occupied a large part of Afghanistan, Punjab and Sind. But Demetrius had to lose the Bacteria province of Central Asia because Uketice had made a successful revolt there.

2. Menander: Menander was a great Indo-Greek ruler. He is popular as Milinda in the Buddha literature. He was a very able and brave ruler. He invaded India in the time of Pushyamitra Sunga and occupied Punjab (including modern Pakistan) and some parts of Kashmir. He became a Buddhist.

Question 7.
What do you know about the Scythians?
Answer:
The Scythians are also known as the Shakas. They were the original inhabitants of Central Asia. They came to India as invaders in the middle of 200 B.C. and settled down here. In the beginning, they had their establishments in North-West Punjab, Mathura in Uttar Pradesh and Central India. But afterwards, Gujarat in Western India and Ujjain region of Madhya Pradesh became their stronghold. Rudradaman-I was a very famous ruler of the Scythian dynasty, who ruled in 200 A.D. In the end of the fourth century A.D. Chandragupta Vikramaditya (Chandragupta-II) of the Gupta dynasty defeated the Scythians and brought their rule to an end.

Question 8.
Write a note about Kanishka.
Answer:
Kanishka was the most famous ruler of the Kushana dynasty. He ruled from 78 to 102 A.D. As far as his bravery is concerned, he can be compared with Samudragupta. The Kushana Empire was expanded the most during his reign. His empire was extended upto Bihar and included areas of Central India, Gujarat, Sind, Punjab, Afghanistan and Bacteria. He also fought a war with a Chinese General Pan Chao.

As a follower of Buddhism, Kanishka can be compared with Ashoka. He got repaired Buddhist Stupas and monasteries and constructed several new ones. He called a conference of Buddhist scholars in Kashmir, known as the Fourth Buddhist Council. He patronised Buddhist scholars like Ashvaghosha, Nagarjuna and Vasumitra.

Kanishka was also a great lover of art. Many beautiful statues of Buddha were made in his time. Besides Gandhara Art, Mathura Art also developed. He also issued a large number of gold and silver coins.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Gautmiputra Satakarni ruled from _________ to A.D.
Answer:
106, 130

Question 2.
The Satavahanas laid _________ to connect the towns and villages.
Answer:
roads

Question 3.
The Satavahana rulers were the followers of _________
Answer:
Hinduism

Question 4.
_________ was the capital of the Pandya Kingdom
Answer:
Madurai

Question 5.
Pallavas were called _________ in English.
Answer:
Parthians

Question 6.
_________ was the famous king of the Kushana dynasty.
Answer:
Kanishka.

III. Match the columns :

Question 1.

A	B
(1) Gautmiputra Satakarni’s successor	(a) Yajnasri Satakarni
(2) Satavahanas’s last great ruler	(b) Vasishthiputra Pulamayi
(3) Black and redware	(c) Pottery
(4) Sickle and spade	(d) Kushana king
(5) Menander	(e) Chinese General
(6) Kujula Kadphises	(f) Indo Greek invader
(7) Pan Chao	(g) Buddhist scholar
(8) Asvaghosha	(h) Implements

Answer:
Correct columns :

A	B
(1) Gautmiputra Satakarni’s successor	(b) Vasishthiputra Pulamayi
(2) Satavahanas’s last great ruler	(a) Yajnasri Satakarni
(3) Black and redware	(c) Pottery
(4) Sickle and spade	(h) Implements
(5) Menander	(f) Indo Greek invader
(6) Kujula Kadphises	(d) Kushana king
(7) Pan Chao	(e) Chinese General
(8) Asvaghosha	(g) Buddhist scholar

IV. Write ‘true’ or ‘false’ in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
The most important successors of the Mauryas in the Deccan were the Satavahanas.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Gautmiputra Satakarni ruled from 106 A.D.to 131 A.D.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
Music, dancing, poetry recitations and gambling were popular forms of amusement.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Sakas were not defeated by the Chandragupta Vikramaditya.
Answer:
False.

Question 5.
Gondopharns was a Scythian king.
Answer:
False.

Question 6.
Kanishka called the Fourth Buddhist Council.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Huvishka was a Parthian king.
Answer:
False.

V. Activity (Something To Do) :

Question 1.
Show the extent of Madurai, Arikmedu, Kaveripattinam, Amravati, Nagarjuna Konda, Broach on the map of India. Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Guide India: From 200 B.C. – 300 A.D. Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of these was the main feature of Bhakti?
(A) It emphasised the worship of god or goddess by an individual.
(B) It discarded the performance of Yajna and Sacrifices.
(C) It emphasised at the purity of heart.
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

Question 2.
For which of these was South India famous?
(A) Gold
(B) Spices.
(C) Precious stones
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

Question 3.
Which river valley was the most fertile?
(A) Godavari
(B) Kaveri
(C) Krishna
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(B) Kaveri.

Question 4.
Which of these was the capital of Pandyas?
(A) Madurai
(B) Decca
(C) Magadha
(D) Kashi.
Answer:
(A) Madurai.

Question 5.
Kaveripattinam belonged to family.
(A) Chera
(B) Chola
(C) Satavahana
(D) Pandya.
Answer:
(B) Chola.

Question 6.
Name the most important ruler of the Satavahanas.
(A) Gautamiputra Shri Satakarni
(B) Vijayraja I
(C) Vijayraja II
(D) Pulkeshin I.
Answer:
(A) Gautamiputra Shri Satakarni.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who were the most important successors of the Mauryas in the Deccan?
Answer:
The Satavahanas.

Question 2.
Which Satavahana king was described as the Lord of the West?
Answer:
Gautmiputra Satakarni.

Question 3.
Where did Vasishthiputra Pulamayi set up his capital?
Answer:
Vasishthiputra Pulamayi set up his capital at Pratishthana in Aurangabad District of Maharashtra.

Question 4.
When did the Satavahana dynasty come to an end?
Answer:
The Satavahana dynasty came to an end in 220 A.D.

Question 5.
What were Aharas?
Answer:
Districts in the Satavahana administration were called Aharas.

Question 6.
Name the items of import during the Satavahanas’ reign.
Answer:
Wine, copper, tin, glass and precious stones.

Question 7.
Name the capital city of the Cholas.
Answer:
Tanjore.

Question 8.
Name the capital city of the Pandya kingdom.
Answer:
Madurai.

Question 9.
Name the capital city of the Cheras.
Answer:
Vanji.

Question 10.
Name the most important religion which arose in West Asia during the first century A.D.
Answer:
The Christianity.

Question 11.
Who were the Sakas?
Answer:
The Sakas were foreigners who came from Central Asia as invaders and settled down in India.

Question 12.
Name the rribst important ruler of the Parthians.
Answer:
Gondopharns.

Question 13.
During whose reign was the Fourth Buddhist Council held?
Answer:
Kanishka.

Question 14.
Name the areas in which Gandhara Art was popular.
Answer:
Gandhara Art was popular in modern Punjab, Kashmir and modern Afghanistan.

Question 15.
Name the two sects of Buddhism.
Answer:
Mahayana and Hinayana.

Question 16.
Who were the successors of Kanishka?
Answer:
Vasishka, Huvishka and Vasudeva.

Question 17.
Who was the greatest Satavahana ruler and when did he rule?
Answer:
Gautmiputra Satakarni was the greatest Satavahana ruler. He ruled from A.D. 106 till A.D. 130.

Question 18.
Who was the last great ruler of Satavahanas?
Answer:
Yajnasri Satakarni was the last great ruler of Satavahanas.

Question 19.
With which countries Satavahanas had trade relations?
Answer:
Satavahanas had trade relations with many countries like Arabia, Iran, Egypt, Burma and Malaya.

Question 20.
From where the remains of the Megalithic period have been discovered?
Answer:
Inamgaon, Takalghat, Mahurjhari in Maharashtra and Maski, Kopbal and Brahmagiri in South India.

Question 21.
What was Fourth Buddhist Council?
Answer:
Kanishka called a conference of Buddhist scholars at a place Kundalvana in Kashmir. This conference was known as Fourth Buddhist Council.

Question 22.
What were the popular forms of amusement of Cheras?
Answer:
Music, dancing, gambling and poetry recitations were popular forms of amusement.

Question 23.
Name the things exported from Satavahana kingdom.
Answer:
Wine, Copper, tin, glass and precious stones were imported. The exported goods brought gold and silver coins in return.

Question 24.
Who were the Satavahanas?
Answer:
The Satavahanas were also known the Andhras. After the fall of the Mauryas, they arose in the Deccan.

Question 25.
What were the Jatakas?
Answer:
Collection of stories about the Bodhisattvas were the Jatakas. The Bodhisattvas were holy persons who had lived on earth before the Buddha.

Question 26.
What were the Chaityas?
Answer:
Prayer or meeting halls where the Buddhists worshipped were known as the Chaityas.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the most famous Saka ruler, and why?
Answer:
Rudradaman-I was the most famous Saka ruler. He ruled in the second century A.D. He did a lot of work that made him the most famous among other Saka rulers. He promoted agriculture by constructing canals and dams. He exempted his subjects from taxes. He drove the Satavahanas out of Central Asia and forced them to settle in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Indo-Greeks? Name their famous rulers.
Answer:
The Indo-Greeks were the rulers whose forefathers had come from Greece to India. They ruled in Punjab and Kabul Valley Demetrius and Menander were famous Indo-Greek rulers.

Question 3.
Name the countries with which trade was carried on by the merchants of the Satavahana kingdom.
Answer:
The Satavahana kings took great pains to increase trade and make their kingdom prosperous. At that time trade was carried on by the merchants with Persia, Egypt, Iraq, Arabia, Myanmar and Malaya.

Question 4.
What is Gandhara School of Art?
Answer:
With the advent of the Greeks in India, Indian artists and sculptors learnt the Greek art of making the images of Greek and Roman gods. Indian artists working in Gandhara were interested in this new style of sculpture and were influenced by it. The statues of Lord Buddha and scenes from Buddha’s life resembled the Greek style. This type of art came to be known as Gandhara School of Art.

Question 5.
What are the teachings of Christianity?
Answer:
Christianity believes in one God, who is the Almighty. Jesus Christ is the messenger and son of God. Christianity emphasises on love and humanity. It also emphasises on purity of life. Men, according to Christianity, are sons of God and hence they should live a noble life. The souls of the pure-hearted persons will go to heaven and will be united with God.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is meant by Chaityas, Stupas and Viharas? Mention the names of the places where these have been found.
Answer:
1. Chaityas. Chaityas were the halls where the Buddhists worshipped or met. These have been mainly found at Karle and Bedsa in the Western Ghats near Pune.

2. Stupas. Stupas were large semi-circle mounds in which were placed the relics of either Lord Buddha or the Buddhist monks. They were sacred to the Buddhists. These have been mainly found at Sanchi (near Bhopal) and Amravati (in Andhra Pradesh).

3. Viharas. Viharas or monasteries were the places where the Buddhist monks lived. Many of the Viharas were built close to big cities so that the monks could go to the cities every morning and beg for alms. The Viharas have been mainly found at Taxila (near Peshawar in Pakistan) and Sarnath (near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh).

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

September 28, 2024September 27, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Science Guide for Class 6 PSEB Fibre to Fabric Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 21)

Question 1.
List any two types of fabric.
Answer:
Two main types of fabric are
(i) obtained from natural fibres
(ii) obtained from synthetic fibres.

Question 2.
How does silk fabric feel ?
Answer:
Smooth and shiny.

Question 3.
With what kind of fabric your dupatta is made up of ?
Answer:
Dupatta is made up of cotton.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 26)

Question 1.
Name the items that are made from jute plant and coconut fibre.
Answer:
Jute is used to make curtains, chair coverings, carpets, mats, ropes, gunny bags, etc. Coconut fibre or coir is used to make floor mats, door mats, brushes, mattresses and ropes

Question 2.
Yarn is made of ……………………
Answer:
Yarn is made of very small strands called fibres.

Question 3.
What is yarn ?
Answer:
Yarn is a thin thread used for making different fabrics. It is made of very small strands called fibres.

Question 4.
How do you make yarn from cotton ?
Answer:
We made yam from cotton fibres by spinning and weaving.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 28)

Question 1.
Wool is ……………. and ………….. air.
Answer:
soft, full of.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Fibre to Fabric Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Silk is smooth and ……………….
Answer:
shiny

(b) ……………. is extracted from the outer covering of coconut.
Answer:
Coir

(d) Cotton is a ……………… fibre.
Answer:
natural

(e) Yarns are made of ……………
Answer:
fibres

2. Write True or False:

(a) Polyester is a natural fibre.
Answer:
False

(b) In knitting, a single yam is used to make a piece of fabric.
Answer:
True

(d) The process of removing seed from cotton is called retting.
Answer:
False

(e) The fibres are spun in yams by pulling out and twisting the fibres together.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column A with Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Jute	(a) outer covering of coconut
2. Acrylic	(b) stem
3. Coir	(c) separation of seeds
4. Ginning	(d) synthetic fibres
5. Hand spindle	(e) spinning

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Jute	(b) stem
2. Acrylic	(d) synthetic fibres
3. Coir	(a) outer covering of coconut
4. Ginning	(c) separation of seeds
5. Hand spindle	(e) spinning

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following in not a natural fibre ?
(a) Wool
(b) Cotton
(c) Nylon
(d) Jute
Answer:
(a) Wool

Question (ii)
Which of these fabrics will you choose to wear in hot and humid weather ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silk
(c) Wool
(d) Nylon.
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question (iii)
The process of separation of seeds from cotton balls is :
(a) Spinning
(b) Ginning
(c) Retting
(d) Picking.
Answer:
(b) Ginning

Question (iv)
Acrylic is :
(a) Natural fibre
(b) Plant fibre
(c) Animal fibre
(d) Synthetic fibre
Answer:
(d) Synthetic fibre

Question (v)
Which of these is a plant fibre ?
(a) Polyester
(b) Acrylic
(c) Wool
(d) Jute.
Answer:
(d) Jute.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name any two animal fibres.
Answer:
Silk and wool.

Question (ii)
Name the two basic types of animal fibres.
Answer:
Silk and wool

Question (iii)
What is the right time for harvesting of jute plant ?
Answer:
From June to September

Question (iv)
List any two uses of jute.
Answer:
It is used to make curtains, chair coverings, carpets, mats, ropes, gunny bags, etc.

6. Short Answer Type Questions :

Question (i)
Write differences between natural and synthetic fibres.
Answer:
Natural fibres :

Natural fibres are obtained from plants and animals.
Examples are cotton, jute, coir, wool, silk, etc.

Synthetic fibres :

On the other hand synthetic fibres are prepared by man using chemicals.
Examples are polyester, nylon, acrylic, etc.

Question (ii)
What is sericulture ?
Answer:
Sericulture. The rearing of the silk worm for production of silk is known as
sericulture.

Question (iii)
What is meant by ginning of cotton ?
Answer:
Ginning. Separating fibres and seeds from busted cotton balls by combing is called ginning. Ginning was traditionally done by hand but these days we have machines for doing this.

7. Long Answer Type Questions :

Question (i)
Why do we prefer cotton clothes in summer ?
Answer:
We prefer cotton clothes in summer because of following reasons

Cotton clothes are soft.
Cotton clothes absorb heavy amounts of water.

During summer the temperature is very high. In this season we sweat too much. Cotton clothes absorb this sweat. Due to heat this is evaporated. Evaporation causes cooling. This means if we wear cotton clothes in summer we can protect ourselves from the harmful effects of heat around us.

Question (ii)
How spinning of cotton is done ?
Answer:
Spinning. It is an important stage in making clothes. After obtaining fibres we convert these into yarn by spinning. In this process the fibres are converted into yams by pulling out and twisting the fibres together.

The process of making yam from fibres is known as spinning.
Spinning can be done using hand spindle (takli) or on a spinning wheel (charkha). Now a days we have machines for spinning. Hand spindle or charkha is used to produce yam on small scale. For large scale production of yarn spinning machines are better option. After spinning, the next stage is converting yam into fabrics either by weaving or knitting.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Fibre to Fabric Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
We get this fibre from sheep, rabbits, goats and yaks :
(a) Cotton
(b) Silk
(c) Nylon
(d) Wool.
Answer:
(d) Wool

Question 2.
Pick out a synthetic fibre :
(a) Nylon
(b) Cotton
(c) Wool
(d) Jute.
Answer:
(a) Nylon

Question 3.
The process of making a piece of fabric from a single yarn is :
(a) Ginning
(b) Weaving
(c) Spinning
(d) Knitting.
Answer:
(d) Knitting

Question 4.
Un-stitched fabric is used for wearing is :
(a) Shirt
(b) Dupatta
(c) Saree
(d) Rain coat.
Answer:
(c) Saree

Question 5.
The plant which gives us natural fibre is :
(a) Rose
(b) Peepal
(c) Flax
(d) Melon.
Answer:
(c) Flax

Question 6.
Silk and Wool fibres are obtained from :
(a) cotton
(b) animals
(c) plants
(d) coconut.
Answer:
(b) animals

Question 7.
The removal of seeds from the cotton is called :
(a) charkha
(b) bobbins
(c) ginning
(d) retting.
Answer:
(c) ginning

Question 8.
The process of getting jute fibres from
(a) bobbins
(b) retting
(c) gunning
(d) bales.
Answer:
(b) retting

Question 9.
Patsun is a fibre of :
(a) Rayon
(b) Nylon
(c) Cotton
(d) Jute
Answer:
(d) Jute

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Fabrics are made up of …………….
Answer:
yarns

(b) Yarns is made up of ………….
Answer:
fibres

(d) Silk fibre is drawn from ……………… of silkworm.
Answer:
cocoon

(e) Polyester, Nylon and Acrylic are …………….. fibres.
Answer:
synthetic

(f) The separation of fibres from seeds is ……………… .
Answer:
ginning

(g) Jute is harvested at …………… stage.
Answer:
flowering

(h) Spinning is process of making ……………. from fibres.
Answer:
yarn

(i) Use of Charkha was popularized by ………………
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

(j) Weaving of fabric is done on ……………..
Answer:
looms

(k) Early man covered his body with …………… or ……………..
Answer:
bark and leaves of plants, skin of animals

(l) A …………… stitches clothes.
Answer:
tailor

Write (T) against true and (F) against false Statements:

(a) Cotton, jute and coir are synthetic fibres.
Answer:
False

(b) Jute is not grown in India.
Answer:
False

(d) Weaving is setting of yams together in a pattern.
Answer:
True

(e) Socks are made of knitted materials.
Answer:
True

(f) Different kinds of fabrics are used for a variety of clothing items.
Answer:
True

(g) Turban, Saree, Dhoti, etc. are examples of unstitched fabric.
Answer:
True

Matching

Match the following:

A	B
(1) Retting out gunning skin of jute stem to separate fibres	Spinning
(2) Separation of cotton fibres from its seeds	Bailing
(3) Making yam from fibres	Ginning
(4) Compression of saw cotton fibres into bundles.	Retting

Answer:
(1) – Retting,
(2) – Ginning,
(3) – Spinning,
(4) – Bailing

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name different types of fibres.
Answer:
Different types of fibres are : (i) Natural fibres (ii) Synthetic fibres.

Question 2.
What are fibres ?
Answer:
Fibres are long, narrow and thin strands.

Question 3.
What is a fabric ?
Answer:
Fabric is a clothing material made from yams.

Question 4.
From where do we get synthetic fibres ?
Answer:
We get synthetic fibres from chemical substances.

Question 5.
What is a cotton ball ?
Answer:
Cotton ball is fruit of cotton plant.

Question 6.
In which states of India, we grow jute ?
Answer:
We grow jute in West Bengal, Bihar and Assam.

Question 7.
Who popularized the Charkha ?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 8.
Name two processes by which fabrics are made.
Answer:
Knitting and weaving.

Question 9.
How is knitting done ?
Answer:
By hand or on machines.

Question 10.
What is a loom ?
Answer:
Loom. It is a device used to weave fabric.

Question 11.
Name some natural and synthetic fibres.
Answer:
Natural fibres. Cotton, Jute, Wool and Silk.
Synthetic fibres. Rayon, Nylon and Polyester.

Question 12.
Where is cotton grown in India ?
Answer:
In India cotton is grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Punjab.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are fibres twisted ? Give examples.
Answer:
Fibres are twisted to make them strong and to increase their cohesive power, e.g. animal fleece, grass strands are twisted to make long strands of fabrics.

Question 2.
Name few plants and their parts which are used for making fibres.
Answer:
Plants and their parts used for making fibres.
Different plants use their different body parts for making fibres. Some of these are tabulated below :

Plant	Part
Cotton	Seed
Coconut	Seed
Jute	Stem
Banana tree	Leaf

Question 3.
Name the process by which fibre is separated from cotton seeds and tell how is it done ?
Answer:
Ginning. It is process by which fibre is separated from cotton seeds.
Cotton seeds are plucked one by one and then seeds are separated from fibres using a steel comb. These fibres are then spunned.

Question 4.
Why is jute cultivated and when ?
Answer:
Jute. It is a plant, stem of which yields a fibre. This fibre is very strong. So, for obtaining this fibre, jute is cultivated in rainy season.

Question 5.
What is a Charka ? When and why was it popularized ?
Answer:
Charkha. It is a device to spin yam from fibres. This is hand operated. Mahatma Gandhi popularized it as part of Independence movement to encourage people to wear home spun yarn.

Question 6.
Name different processes involved in making a fabric.
Answer:
Process involved in making of a fabric.

Ginning
Spinning
Weaving
Bailing

Question 7.
Write various uses of cotton.
Answer:
Uses of cotton.

Mixed with other fibres, it is used for the manufacture of durable textiles.
It is used as absorbent and as swabs in hospitals.
It is used as raw material for the manufacture of Rayon and Paper.

Question 8.
Why do we wear clothes ?
Answer:
We wear clothes because

It protects us against wind and weather,
It protects us against injury,
It maintains body heat.

Question 9.
Which parts of plants give us cotton, jute and coir fibres ?
Answer:
Cotton fibre is obtained from seed. Jute fibre is obtained from stem, and coir is from its fruit.

Question 10.
What climatic conditions are necessary for cultivation of jute ?
Answer:
Climatic condition for cultivation of Jute. Jute is cultivated during the rainy season. It is grown in alluvial soils in the delta region of rivers like Ganges and Brahmputra.

Question 11.
Write three uses of Jute.
Answer:
Uses of Jute. Jute is extensively used for making gunny bags, carpets, coarse clothes and fopes etc. Now-a-days, it is being used for making jute fabrics.

Question 12.
Why is it necessary to make yarn from fibres for making clothes ?
Answer:
Need of making yarn. Fibres cannot be used directly for making clothes. Twisting of fibres into yam increases the toughness and strength of fibres. So it is necessary to make yam from fibres for making clothes.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How cotton fibres are produced in the fields ?
Answer:
Production of cotton.
Cotton is the most important Industrial crop. It is planted early in the spring in a warm climate. The black soil is excellent for its cultivation. Cotton plants grow steadily and soon become bushes of 3 to 6 feet height. After 2 months, they bear white or yellowish flowers which turn pink or red after a few days.

The tiny green seeds grow into spherical shaped structure of the size of a walnut, which is called cotton nut. They grow steadily, the seeds and fibres grow inside. After maturation these bolls become ready to burst open, exposing white fibres.

Question 2.
How jute is cultivated and spun to fabrics ?
Answer:
Cultivation of Jute.
Jute is most extensively used fibres next to cotton. It is obtained from stem of plant called ‘Patsun’. It is cultivated during the rainy season. It is grown in alluvial soils in the delta regions of rivers like Ganges and Brahmputra. Patsun is an 8 – 10 feet high plant. It bears yellow flowers in 3-4 months. This plant may be cut at the time of flowering. The cut plants are placed in the field when dry leaves fall down.

Their bundles are made and placed in stagnant water of a pond for few days when gummy skin rots out to separate fibres. The process is called retting. The fibre is extracted from the retted jute by hand, with jerks and pulls. These are yellow in colour, very strong, have silky lusture and easy to spun into fabrics.

Question 3.
How seeds are removed from fibres and why are they removed ?
Answer:
Removal of seeds.
The cotton-balls, in which cotton fibres are formed, turn so white that they look as if they are covered with snow. The cotton is then handpicked from the plants. Cotton fibres are hairs that grow on the surface of cotton seeds. The picked cotton is taken to godown where seeds are pulled out of the cotton by steel combs. This process is called ginning. These seeds are removed so that cotton becomes more fluffy and easy to spun to fabric.

Question 4.
What is spinning. Explain the process of making yarn from fibre.
Answer:
Spinning. The process of making yam from fabric is called spinning. In this process, fibres from pinch cotton wool are drawn out and twisted.

Process of making yarn from fibre. Hold some cotton wool in one hand, say right hand. Now pinch some cotton between the thumb and forefinger of your other hand (i.e. left hand). Now, gently and slowly start pulling out the cotton and simultaneously twisting the fibre. You will be getting a yarn.
The various manual devices used for spinning are :

Hand Spindle (Takli)
Spinning wheel (Charkha).

These are also called hand-operated spinning devices. Spinning machines are used for spinning very quantities of yarn.

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Separation of Substances

September 28, 2024September 27, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 5 Separation of Substances Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances

Science Guide for Class 6 PSEB Separation of Substances Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 41)

Question 1.
How will you separate rotten tomatoes from a basket of tomatoes?
Answer:
By handpicking.

Question 2.
How will you separate green grapes from black grapes?
Answer:
By handpicking.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 43)

Question 1.
What is the role of wind in winnowing ?
Answer:
The wind blows away the lighter particles.

Question 2.
Can you separate mixture of channa dal and moong dal by winnowing ?
Answer:
No. this mixture cannot be separated by winnowing.

Question 3.
Can you separate a mixture of salt and flour with sieve? Why or Why not ?
Answer:
No. this mixture cannot be separated with sieve. This is because the particles of salt and flour have almost same sizes.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 45)

Question 1.
You are provided with a solution of chalk powder and water in a beaker. Keep the beaker undisturbed for some time. What will you observe ? Name the process.
Answer:
On keeping the beaker undisturbed for some time we observe that the chalk will settle at the bottom in the form sediment. This process of settling insoluble particles at the bottom is called sedimentation.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 46)

Question 1.
Your father asked you to bring fresh orange juice from market. Do you observe the strainer used to separate pulp and seeds from the juice ? Which strainer is the best for this purpose ? Whether tea strainer, filter paper, muslin cloth or strainer with large holes can be used for this purpose.
Answer:
The best strainer will be that which has holes smaller than the sizes of the pulp particles and seeds. Out of the given strainers we can use muslin cloth. We can also use tea strainer and filter paper but these will do the separation slowly. Strainer with large holes will not separate the pulp.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 47)

Question 1.
Name the process involved in preparation of “Khoya” from milk.
Answer:
We prepare “khoya” from milk by the process called evaporation.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 48)

Question 1.
Name the process by which water changes to vapours.
Answer:
The process by which water changes to vapours is called evaporation.

Question 2.
Name the process by which vapours changes to water.
Answer:
The process by which vapours change to water is called condensation.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Separation of Substances Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Filtration process is helpful in separating an insoluble …………… from a ……………….
Answer:
insoluble, solution

(b) Small pieces of stones can be removed from rice by ……………… method.
Answer:
hand picking

(d) The method in which stalks are beaten to separate the grains is called ………………..
Answer:
threshing

(e) ……………… is the process of pouring out the liquid present on top layer without disturbing
the sediments below.
Answer:
decantation

2. Write True or False:

(a) Sieving is used when the component of mixture has different sizes.
Answer:
True

(b) Process of converting liquid to vapours is called condensation.
Answer:
False

(d) Threshing is a process of separating grains from stalks.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column A with Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Separating salt from water	(a) condensation
2. Heavier particles settle down	(b) winnowing
3. Separating different components by blowing wind or air	(c) evaporation
4. Conversion of vapour into liquid	(d) Sedimentation

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Separating salt from water	(c) evaporation
2. Heavier particles settle down	(d) Sedimentation
3. Separating different components by blowing wind or air	(b) winnowing
4. Conversion of vapour into liquid	(a) condensation

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which method is used to separate heavier and lighter components in a mixture by wind ?
(a) Hand picking
(b) Threshing
(c) Sieving
(d) Winnowing.
Answer:
(d) Winnowing

Question (ii)
Formation of water droplets on the outer surface of glass containing ice cold water is because of:
(a) Evaporation of water from glass
(b) Condensation of atmospheric water vapours.
(c) Water that seeped out from glass
(d) Evaporation of atmospheric water vapours.
Answer:
(b) Condensation of atmospheric water vapours.

Question (iii)
You must have seen your mother taking out fine gravels from rice. Which method can be used to separate pebbles from rice ?
(a) Handpicking
(b) Decantation
(c) Evaporation
(d) Sedimentation.
Answer:
(a) Handpicking

Question (iv)
We need to separate one substance from mixture because :
(a) To separate two different but useful components
(b) To remove undesirable substances
(c) To remove harmful substances
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define sedimentation.
Answer:
Sedimentation is a process in which heavier particles of an insoluble solid settles down in liquid.

Question (ii)
What is evaporation ?
Answer:
The process of converting a liquid into its vapour form is called evaporation.

Question (iii)
For what purpose combine machine is used for ?
Answer:
Combine machine is used for both harvesting and threshing process.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Give difference between evaporation and condensation.
Answer:
The process of converting a liquid into its vapour form is called evaporation. The process by which vapours change to water is called condensation.

Question (ii)
Give difference between saturated solution and unsaturated solution.
Answer:
A saturated solution is that solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at a particular temperature. An unsaturated solution is that solution in which more solute can be dissolved at a particular temperature.

Question (iii)
Explain different types of threshing.
Answer:
Threshing can be done in following three ways:

Manual threshing : It is done by beating the stalks with sticks on the ground or beating against any hard object.
Threshing by Animals : Some animals like bullocks are allowed to trample the stalks.
Threshing by Machine. Threshers are generally used for this purpose.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain the following methods of separation.
(1) Threshing.
(2) Winnowing.
(3) Sieving.
Answer:
(1) Threshing. Threshing is separation of grains from chaff. It can be done using any one method out the three i.e. (a) manual (b) with the help of Animals and (c) using machines.

(2) Winnowing. Winnowing is a method to separate heavier and lighter components of a mixture by wind or by blowing air.
Winnowing is an agricultural method for separating grains from chaff. It is also used to remove hay and chaff or other pests from stored grains.

(3) Sieving. It is a method to separate larger substances from smaller substances using a sieve. It is very easy and cheap method of separation. Components of same sizes in a mixture cannot be separated. For example, you cannot separate chalk powder from flour.

Question (ii)
What is separation ? Why do we need to separate different components of a mixture ?
Answer:
Separation. Separation means process of moving something apart.
We need to sep.arate a mixture into its different components because of the following reasons :

To remove the useless or harmful components. For example, removing tea leaves after making tea.
To obtain the useful component. For getting wheat/rice grains after separating husk, dirt etc.
To remove impurities for getting a pure sample. For example – obtaining sugar crystals from sugarcane juice or salt from sea water.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Separation of Substances Important Questions and Answers

Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
Salt is separated from sea water by :
(a) Evaporation
(b) Decantation
(c) Condensation
(c) Filtration.
Answer:
(a) Evaporation

Question 2.
Cottage cheese (Paneer) is made by adding to milk :
(a) lemon juice
(b) salt
(c) water
(d) tea leaves.
Answer:
(a) lemon juice

Question 3.
Fruit and vegetable juices are filtered to separate :
(a) Seeds
(b) Pulp
(c) Impurities
(d) seeds, pulp and impurities.
Answer:
(d) seeds, pulp and impurities

Question 4.
Filter paper is used in method :
(a) Sieving
(b) Filtration
(c) Condensation
(d) None.
Answer:
(b) Filtration

Question 5.
Sand and sawdust are separated by using method:
(a) Sieving
(b) Winnowing
(c) Hand picking
(d) All.
Answer:
(b) Winnowing

Question 6.
The purity of a substance is determined by:
(a) melting point
(b) colour
(c) source
(d) quantity.
Answer:
(a) melting point

Question 7.
The process in which liquid changes into vapours is:
(a) Sedimentation
(b) Filtration
(c) Evaporation
(d) Decantation.
Answer:
(c) Evaporation

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Tea …………… are separated from liquid with a strainer.
Answer:
leaves

(b) We ……………… cotton to separate its seeds from the fibre.
Answer:
gin

(d) Pieces of stone and husk are separated from wheat, rice or pulses by ………………
Answer:
hand picking

(e) ……………… are also used for threshing grains.
Answer:
machines

(f) Winnowing is used to separate ……………. and ……………. components of a mixture by blowing air.
Answer:
heavier, lighter

(g) Pebbles and stones are removed from sand by ………………
Answer:
sieving

(h) Larger quantities of salt can be dissolved in water on ………………
Answer:
heating

(i) A solution is prepared by …………….. a substance into a liquid.
Answer:
dissolving

(j) Water dissolves different substances in …………….. amounts.
Answer:
different

Write (T) against true and (F) against false statements :

(a) We cannot separate guavas and mangoes by hand picking.
Answer:
False

(b) We separate stones from rice to throw away them.
Answer:
True

(d) Husk is used as a fodder for cattle.
Answer:
True

(e) Rice and pulses are washed before cooking.
Answer:
True

(f) For separating tea leaves, decantation method is used.
Answer:
False

(g) We cannot remove soil from water.
Answer:
False

(h) Paneer can be separated by using a strainer.
Answer:
True

(i) Sea water evaporates continuously.
Answer:
True

(j) Water drops cannot be condensed on cooling.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give few examples of mixture.
Answer:
Air, sea water, soil, rock salt.

Question 2.
What is Churning ?
Answer:
Churning. It is process in which milk is stirred (rotated) to get the lighter particles of butter separated on the surface.

Question 3.
What is Decantation ?
Answer:
Decantation. It is process in which two immiscible liquids are separated by allowing them to stand for some time till they form two separate layers.

Question 4.
By which method heavy and light particles of a solid mixture are separated ?
Answer:
Winnowing.

Question 5.
Which materials are used as filters ?
Answer:
Porous materials such as thin muslin cloth and filter paper and nylon net.

Question 6.
Name some mixtures found in nature.
Answer:
Milk, Sea-water, Jaggery.

Question 7.
Give an example of a gaseous mixture.
Answer:
Air.

Question 8.
How will you separate a mixture of water and cooking oil ?
Answer:
By separating funnel.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a mixture ? Give four examples of mixture.
Answer:
Mixture. A mixture is a substance which consists of two or more elements or compounds not chemically combined together in any ratio.
Examples : Air, sea water, soil, rock salt.

Question 2.
Write two properties of mixture.
Answer:

The constituents are not present in a fixed ratio.
It does not have a fixed melting and boiling point.
The various components of the mixture can be separated easily by physical methods.

Question 3.
How is salt separated from sea water ?
Answer:
Separation of Salt from Sea water. Water is collected in flat-square fields (lagoons) near the sea. It is allowed to stand for few days. Now water gets evaporated in the sun leaving behind crude crystals of salt. This crude salt is purified to get pure salt.

Question 4.
What is the criteria of separating the components of a mixture ?
Answer:
While choosing a method of separating different components of mixture, physical properties of components are considered.

Question 5.
Which methods are used to separate a mixture of sand, black gram (urad) and husk ?
Answer:
At first winnowing process is used to remove husk. Then sand is separated by using sieving process.

Question 6.
What is a solution ?
Answer:
Solution. A solution is a homogeneous mixture of a solid in a liquid. It can be prepared by dissolving a solid substance in a liquid.

Question 7.
What is saturated solution ?
Answer:
Saturated Solution. A solution which cannot dissolve more of the solute at the same temperature in it, is said to be saturated solution.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is filtration ? Write few activities where this method is being used.
Answer:
Filtration. The process of separating components of a mixture of an insoluble solid and a liquid is called filtration.
Activities in which filtration is used :

Fruits and vegetable juices to separate the seeds and solid particles of pulp.
Cottage cheese preparation to separate the whey.
Tea preparation to separate tea leaves.

Question 2.
What are different methods of separating mixtures ? Explain any two of them.
Answer:
There are many methods of separating mixtures :
They are :

Hand Picking
Threshing
Winnowing
Sieving
Sedimentation
Decantation
Filtration
Evaporation
Condensation.

1. Sedimentation.
The process of separating light and heavier components of a mixture by allowing it to stay undisturbed, is called sedimentation.
In this process, the mixture is dissolved in water. The heavier particles tend to settle down at the bottom and the lighter particles make the water muddy or just float on it. When this solution is allowed to stand for some time then a separate layer of heavier particles can be seen at the bottom.

This process is known as Sedimentation. The upper layer of impure water is removed to get a pure sample of substances e.g. rice, pulses, etc. are washed with water to get rid of dust and soil particles and husk components which are light and get removed by water easily.

2. Evaporation.
The process of conversion of water into its vapours is called evaporation. This process is continually taking place all around us. For vapour formation, heat is needed which is provided by sunlight.

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements

September 28, 2024September 27, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 8 Body Movements

Science Guide for Class 6 PSEB Body Movements Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 77)

Question 1.
What are the small bones present in backbone called ?
Answer:
The small bones present in the backbone are called vertebrae.

Question 2.
Name the ridges like bones which we feel when we touch our chest region.
Answer:
Ribs are the ridges like bones which we feel when we touch our chest region.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 78)

Question 1.
When you tie a scale with your arm, are you able to bend your elbow ?
Answer:
No, the tied parts are unable to move and we are unable to bend our elbow. From this we can conclude that we cannot bend a single bone. This means we can bend our body only at joints where the bones meet together.

Question 2.
Name the points where two parts of body are seen to be joined together.
Answer:
The points where two parts of body are joined together are called joints.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 80)

Question 1.
Move your arm at shoulder. Are you able to move it in various directions ? If yes name the type of joint present there.
Answer:
Yes, I am able to move my arm in all directions. Ball and socket joint is present between the arm and the shoulder.

Question 2.
Move your arm at elbow. Are you able to move it in various directions ? If yes name the type of joint present there.
Answer:
No, at elbow, I am not able to move my arm in all directions. Arm can be moved back and forth only. The joint present here is hinge joint.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Body Movements Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercise – 1

1. Fill in the Blanks :

(a) The points where bones meet are called ……………..
Answer:
joints

(b) Human skeleton is made up of …………….. and cartilages.
Answer:
bones

(d) Earthworm can extend or shorten its body by using its ……………….
Answer:
muscles

(e) Knee joint is an example of …………. joint.
Answer:
hinge

2. Write True or False:

(a) Rib cage is conical structure made up of 12 pairs of ribs.
Answer:
True

(b) Cartilages are harder than bones.
Answer:
False

(d) A streamlined body is one in which middle part of body is larger than head and tail part.
Answer:
True

(e) Snakes move very fast in a straight line.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column A with Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Ball and Socket Joint	(a) Skull bones
2. Immoveable Joint	(b) Fingers
3. Hinge joint	(c) Wrist bones
4. Pivot Joint	(d) Shoulder
5. Gliding Joint	(e) Movement of Head

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Ball and Socket Joint	(d) Shoulder
2. Immoveable Joint	(a) Skull bones
3. Hinge joint	(b) Fingers
4. Pivot Joint	(e) Movement of Head
5. Gliding Joint	(c) Wrist bones

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following organ is protected by rib cage ?
(a) Heart
(b) Brain
(c) Eyes
(d) Ear.
Answer:
(a) Heart

Question (ii)
Snail moves with the help of :
(a) Shell
(b) Bones
(c) Muscular foot
(d) Cartilage
Answer:
(c) Muscular foot

Question (iii)
Fish maintains its balance in water and change its directions with the help of
(a) Head
(b) Gills
(c) Fins
(d) Body scales.
Answer:
(c) Fins.

Exercise – 2

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name the longest bone in human body.
Answer:
Femur is the longest bone in the human body.

Question (ii)
Name the type of joint where arms join the shoulder.
Answer:
Ball and socket joint.

Question (iii)
What is the difference between movement and locomotion ?
Answer:
Movement is a change in the position of any part of body of an organism whereas locomotion is movement of whole body of an organism from one place to another.

Question (iv)
Give an example of an organism which can walk, climb and fly.
Answer:
Cockroach.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why we need a pair of muscles to move a bone ?
Answer:
The contraction and relaxation property of the muscles is the basis of movement of bones. Muscles always work in pairs. When one them contracts it pulls the bone in that direction in which it is bulged. The other muscle relaxes. Now to bring back the bone to the original position the relaxing muscle contracts and the contracting muscle relaxes.

Question (ii)
How does earthworm move ?
Answer:
The body of the earthworm is made up of many rings joined together. These rings are connected with the muscles which help to extend or shorten the body.

During movement the earthworm extends the front part of the body while its rear portion is fixed to the ground. Then it fixes the front part and releases the rear part. Then it shortens its bpdy and repeats the whole process. The body secretions of earthworm help in its movement.

Question (iii)
How does the body of a bird help it in flight ?
Answer:
Birds possess streamlined body, and hollow and light weight bones which help them during flight. The birds can fly because their streamlined bodies are well suited from flying. The hollow bones are lighter and the breast bones are modified to hold massive muscles of flight which are used to move the wings up and down. The birds have tails which direction during flight.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain different types of joints present in human body.
Answer:
Joint. A point where two bones meet is called a joint.
Joints are of two types :

(1) Fixed Joints or Immovable joints. The joints where the movement of the bones is not possible are called fixed or immovable joints. For example, upper jaw has fixed joint. The joints in the skull are fixed joints.

(2) Moveable joints. The joints where movement of the bones is possible are called moveable joints.
These are of four types

(a) Ball and Socket Joint. In this joint, a ball like rounded end of one bone fits into socket like cavity of the other bone. This joint allows the movement of the bones in all the directions. Joint between arm and shoulder is an example of this type of joint.

(b) Pivot Joint. In this type of joint, a cylinderical bone turns in a ring type bone. The cylinderical bone rotates inside the ring or the ring rotates outside the cylinder. The joint between skull and the vertebral column is an example of pivot joint. It allows the movement of head backward, forward, left and right.

(c) Hinge Joint. This joint is like hinge in the door. It allows movement of bones only in one direction i.e. up and down or front and back. Knee joint and elbow joint are the examples of the hinge joints.

(d) Gliding joint. This joint allows the bones to glide over each other providing only a little movement in all the direction. The examples of gliding joints are the joints between the ankle bones and wrist bones.

Question (ii)
Explain the locomotion in Fish.
Answer:
Fishes possess streamlined body in which tail and head of fish are smaller than the middle part of the body. Fishes also have certain special structures called fins that help ih movement from one place to another. During swimming, the front part of the body curves into one side and tail part remains on the opposite side. Thus a loop is formed. Fishes produce regular jerks by making such loops and pushes the body forward. Fins help to maintain balance and change directions while swimming.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Body Movements Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Name the animal which slithers on the ground.
(a) earthworm
(b) snail
(c) lizard
(d) snake.
Answer:
(d) snake

Question 2.
Rotation of an arm is due to:
(a) Hinge Joint
(b) Pivotal Joint
(c) Ball and Socket Joint
(d) Fixed Joint.
Answer:
(c) Ball and Socket Joint

Question 3.
Skull is made up of:
(a) many bones
(b) one bone
(c) three bones
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(a) many bones

Question 4.
Outer skeleton of snail is made up of:
(a) bones
(b) muscles
(c) none
(d) both.
Answer:
(b) muscles

Question 5.
A fish swims in the sea with help of :
(a) tail fin
(b) side fins
(c) muscles on the body
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) We bend or rotate our body at ……………….
Answer:
Joints

(b) ……………… joint allows movements in all directions.
Answer:
Ball and Socket

(d) X-rays help to know the ……………. of the bones.
Answer:
shape

(e) Backbone, chest bone and ribs form a cage called ………………..
Answer:
rib cage

(f) Backbone is made up of many ……………. bones.
Answer:
Small

(g) The part of our body below stomach is enclosed by ………………..
Answer:
pelvic bones

(h) Skull protects the ……………………
Answer:
brain

(i) Cartilages are found in the …………… of the body.
Answer:
joints

(j) The movement of bones is due to …………… and ……………… of muscles.
Answer:
contraction, relaxation

(k) The body of earthworm is made up of many ……………… joined end to end.
Answer:
rings

(l) Snails move with the help of ………………..
Answer:
muscular foot

(m) The ………………. muscles move the wings when a cockroach flies.
Answer:
breast

(n) Snake moves forward in ……………… not in a straight line.
Answer:
loops

Write (T) against true and (F) against false statements:

(a) A snake jumps on the earth.
Answer:
False

(b) The hard structure of our body is muscle.
Answer:
False

(d) The pivot joint join head on the neck.
Answer:
True

(e) Bones in head are joined by movable joints.
Answer:
False

(f) Wrist is made of only single bone.
Answer:
False

(g) A long and hard structure at the back of body is back bone.
Answer:
True

(h) The upper part of ear has small bones in it.
Answer:
False

(i) Muscles work in pairs.
Answer:
True

(j) Fishes have a round body.
Answer:
False

Match the Column :

Match the items in Column A with items in Column B.

Column A	Column B
(1) Bone of forearm	cranium
(2) Join bone to bone	ulna
(3) Join bone to muscles	tibia
(4) Bone of leg	ligament
(5) Brain case	tendon
(6) Teeth and gum	scales in the body
(7) Snake	chest cage
(8) Ribs	immovable Joint
(9) Snail	fly in the air.
(10) Cockroach	slow movement.

Answer:
(1) Bone of forearm – ulna
(2) Join bone to bone – tendon
(3) Join bone to muscles – ligament
(4) Bone of leg – tibia
(5) Brain case – cranium
(6) Teeth and gum – cranium
(7) Snake – Scales in the body
(8) Ribs – chest cage
(9) Snail – slow movement
(10) Cockroac – fly in the air.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do plants move ?
Answer:
They sway with wind.

Question 2.
Name some movement of animals.
Answer:
Walk, Run, Fly, Jump, Creep, Crawl etc.

Question 3.
Which parts of human body move in one direction only ?
Answer:
Arm at elbow, leg at knee, Finger inside.

Question 4.
Can we move head to all sides ?
Answer:
No.

Question 5.
Which joint allow movement in all directions ?
Answer:
Ball and Socket joint.

Question 6.
By which joint neck and head are joined ?
Answer:
Pivotal Joint.

Question 7.
What is framework of body known as ?
Answer:
Skeleton.

Question 8.
The bone present at the back of body is made up of many small bones. What is its name ?
Answer:
Backbone.

Question 9.
Is there any bone in our ear ?
Answer:
No.

Question 10.
Name the book written by philosopher Aristotle ?
Answer:
Gait of Animals.

Question 11.
What are vertebrae ?
Answer:
Vertebrae. Vertebrae are small ring shaped bones.

Question 12.
What are floating ribs ?
Answer:
Floating Ribs : The last two pairs of ribs are free called floating ribs because they are attached to bone on one side only.

Question 13.
What is cell ?
Answer:
Cell. It is the smallest and functional unit of life.

Question 14.
What are tissues ?
Answer:
Tissue. A group of similar cells with same kind of function is called a tissue.

Question 15.
What are organs ?
Answer:
Organs. Various cells and tissues combine to form organs which do important body activities. Example : heart, lungs, stomach etc.

Question 16.
What is organ system ?
Answer:
Organ System. Several organs group together as a team to carry out major activities in the body called organ system.
For example : Digestive system comprises organs like mouth, food pipe, stomach, intestine, anus.

Question 17.
How bones differ from cartilages ?
Answer:
The hardest part of our skeleton is made up of bones while cartilages are comparatively soft and elastic.

Question 18.
What do you mean by a joint ?
Answer:
Joint. A place where two or more bones meet together is called a joint.

Question 19.
What are ligaments ?
Answer:
Ligament : Bones are held together at joints by strong cords called ligaments.

Question 20.
What are dislocations ?
Answer:
Dislocation : The bones at the joints dislodged from their normal position are called dislocations.

Question 21.
What are tendons ?
Answer:
Tendons. Muscles are attached to bones by tough cords called tendons.

Question 22.
Name the minerals used to make bones hard and strong.
Answer:
Calcium and phosphorus make the bones hard and strong.

Question 23.
Name the animals which do not have hard structure.
Answer:
The Jelly fishes, Leeches and worms have no hard structure to support their bodies.

Question 24.
Where do the following animals live
(i) Whale
(ii) Elephant
(iii) Frog
(iv) Fish.
Answer:
(i) Whale-In sea water
(ii) Elephant : Forest .
(iii) Frog : In water and on land.
(iv) Fish : River, pond, lake, sea.

Question 25.
Name the various parts of skeletal system.
Answer:
The skeletal system can be divided into following main parts :

Skull
Backbone
Limb bones
Chest bones
Shoulder bones
Hip bones.

Question 26.
Name the organs of locomotion of :
(i) Man
(ii) Birds
(iii) Fish.
Answer:
(i) Man : Legs
(ii) Birds : Wings
(iii) Fish : Fins.

Question 27.
How are bones joined together ?
Answer:
Bones are held together at joints by strong cords called ligaments.

Question 28.
How do fish move ?
Answer:
Fish move with the help of its tail and fins.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Ball and Socket Joint ? Give example.
Answer:
Ball and Socket Joint : In this joint, round end of one bone fits into the hollow space of other bone, thus allowing movement in all directions. Example : The joint between upper arm and the shoulder.

Question 2.
Write a short note on rib cage.
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 1
Rib cage. In the upper part of body, there is a cage of bones. The chest bone, back bone and ribs join together to form a box called ribcage. It encloses the soft and important organs of the body.

Question 3.
Draw a neat diagram of Pelvic bones.
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 2

Question 4.
Which other parts are found in skeleton besides bones ?
Answer:
Besides bones, cartilage, tendon are other parts of our skeleton.

Question 5.
What are the functions of back bone ?
Answer:
Functions of back bone :

It supports the body.
It helps in erect posture of body.
It helps in forming rib cage.
It provides protection to spinal cord.
It helps in bending of the body.
It helps in neck movements.

Question 6.
Why do animals move ?
Answer:
Animals move from one place to another in search of food. They also move to escape from their enemies.

Question 7.
Which movements are shown by a cockroach ? Which parts help in these movements.
Answer:
Movement of Cockroach. Cockroaches can walk, climb and fly in the air. Three pairs of legs help cockroaches in walking. Two pairs of wings attached to breasts help in flying.

Question 8.
How does a snake move ?
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 3
Movement of Snake. The snake curves its body into its many loops. Each loop gives a forward push by pressing against the ground. The number of loops help in quick movement of the snake.
Its movements are not in the straight line.

Question 9.
What is Skeletal System ?
Answer:
Skeletal System. The skeletal system is made up of many pieces of bones and cartilages. The bone is hard. Cartilages are comparatively soft and elastic. Both gives shape and structure to the body. It protects internal organs. It keeps the body erect and helps in movement of the body.

Question 10.
How many bones are there in human baby and human adult ?
Answer:
A human baby is bom with about 300 bones. Some of these gradually become inseparably united or fused and a human adult has 206 bones.

Question 11.
Name the parts of axial skeleton.
Answer:
It consists of bones of skull, vertebral column and chest

Question 12.
Write few lines on human skull. Also draw it.
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 4
Human Skull. Human skull is made of many bones joined together. It encloses and protects a very important part of the body, the brain. The facial bones comprises the upper and lower jaw. The lower jaw is movable.
Fig. The Skull

Question 13.
What is backbone and also draw it ?
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 5
Backbone. The backbone extends from the base of the skull to the hip. It is made of 33 small bones called vertebrae. The rib cage is joined to these bones. The backbone , and strong back muscles help us to stand erect.

Question 14.
What are shoulder bones ? Which body part is attached with it ?
Answer:
Shoulder bones. The shoulder bone is formed by the collar bone and shoulder blade. It connects the upper part of the chest and bones of the hand. The bone of the upper arm attaches with the shoulder bones.

Question 15.
What is pelvis ? Which bones of the body are attached with it ?
Answer:
Pelvis. The hip bone is formed by the fusion of three bones. The hip bones together with the last two parts of backbone form a large bony bowel. It is called the Pelvis. It is the lowest and strongest part on which we sit. The thigh bones are attached to the hip bones.

Question 16.
Write about the bones of fore limb.
Answer:
Bones of fore limb. Fore limb includes Lie bones of upper arm, fore-arm, wrist, palm and fingers. Our palm consists of many small bones.

Question 17.
Give some examples of fixed and hinge joints.
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 6
(i) The elbow has a hinge joint that allows only a back and forth movement. Our knee also has hinge joint.
(ii) Upper jaw and rest part of the head has a fixed joint.

Question 18.
What is pelvic and pectoral girdle ?
Answer:
Girdles are attached to the axial skeleton system and in turn gives support to the bones of the limbs.
Pectoral girdle. The girdle that supports the bones of arm is called pectoral girdle. It consists of two pairs of shoulder bones.

Pelvic girdle. The girdle into which the bones of legs are fitted, is called the pelvic girdle.

Question 19.
What do you mean by bone joints. Name two basic types of joints ?
Answer:
Joint. The place where two or more bones meet together is called a joint. Bones are held together at joints by strong cords called ligaments.
There are basically two types of joints :

Fixed or immovable joint
Movable joints.

Question 20.
What is dislocation and fracture ? What are its causes ?
Answer:
Dislocation. Any sudden movement – a jump, fall may cause an injury to the skeleton and dislocation occurs. In dislocation the bones at the joints are dislodged from their normal position. The ligaments may be tom apart or injured causing pain and swelling. A fracture is a case when bone breaks into one or many pieces.

Question 21.
Name the various organs where cartilages are found.
Answer:
Nose, Ear and various joints.

Question 22.
Write down the functions of skeleton.
Answer:
Functions of skeleton :

It supports the body and gives definite shape to it.
It helps to protect delicate and vital organs like heart, lungs and brain.
It helps in the movement of body parts.
It is a store of minerals and is the place for the formation of RBC cells.

Question 23.
Write down the functions of pectoral girdle.
Answer:
Functions of pectoral girdle

Provides support to the interior parts of the body.
Provides surface for articulation of forearms.
Provides surface for the attachment of muscles.
Provides protection to the vital organs like heart and lungs.

Question 24.
Write down the functions of pelvic girdle.
Answer:
Functions of pelvic girdle

Provides surface for articulation of hindlimbs.
Provides surface for joining of muscles.
Provides protection to the uterus.
Protects from shocks.

Question 25.
How do animals move ?
Answer:
There are two kinds of animal movements :
(i) In one kind of movement, the organisms move their body parts without changing their position. Example : sponges, corals and sea anemone show this kind of movements.

(ii) In other kind of movement, the animals move from place to place. This kind of movement is called locomotion. It helps the animal to escape from their enemies as well as helps them to search food.

Question 26.
How do birds fly ?
Answer:
The birds can fly because their bodies are well suited for flying. The body is streamlined. The bones have air spaces to make them strong and light. The bony parts of the forelimbs are modified as wings. The breast muscles are modified to hold massive muscles of flight which are used to move the wings up and down .

Question 27.
How do fish move about ?
Answer:
Fish has certain special structures called fins that help in its movement from one place to another. During swimming, the front part of the body curves in one side and tail part remains in the opposite side.

It forms a loop. This makes a jerk and pushes the body forward. A series of such jerks make the fish swim ahead.

Question 28.
How does a snail move ?
Answer:
Snails move slowly with the help of a flat foot. The foot glides with the help of muscles. The foot is present under the belly. So, it looks as if it is moving on its belly. The movement of snail is very slow.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do muscles help in movement of bones ?
Answer:
Muscles on contraction become smaller in length and bulge outside. This contraction and relaxation property of muscles is the basis of movement of bones.

Muscles work in pair. When one of them contracts, it pulls the bone in that direction in which it is bulged. The other muscle relaxes. Now to bring back the bone to original position, the relaxing muscles contracts and contracting muscle relaxes. In this way the bones move.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 7

Question 2.
What are joints ? Name different types of joints. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
Joint. A place where two bones meet is called joint.
The joints are held together by stong tissues called ligaments. Joints may be movable or immovable (fixed) in a body. Different movable joints in the body are :

Hinge joint
Ball and Socket joint
Pivot joint
Gliding joint.

Fixed joints (Immovable). The attachements in which bones do not allow movements is a fixed joint e.g. Bones of skull are attached with fixed joints.

Ball and Socket joint. In this attachment the round end of one bone fits into the hollow space of other bone. This joint allows movement in all directions e.g. arm and leg joints.

Question 3.
Explain movement in earthworms.
Answer:
Movement in earthworm:
The body of an earthworm is made up of many rings joined together. These rings are connected with muscles that help to extend or shorten the body.

During movement, the earthworm extends the front part of the body while its rear portion is fixed to the ground. Then it fixes the front part and releases the rear part. Then it shortens its body and repeats the whole process. A body’s secretion helps in its movements.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe – The Model of the Earth

September 27, 2024September 26, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Globe – The Model of the Earth Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Globe – The Model of the Earth

SST Guide for Class 6 PSEB Globe – The Model of the Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Why is Globe called a model of the Earth?
Answer:
Globe shows the earth in its true shape. The shapes and sizes of all the physical features of the earth such as continents and oceans, distances and directions, etc. are correctly represented on it. As such, it is a correct replica of the round shape of the earth. That is why Globe is called a model of the earth.

Globe

Question 2.
What is the name of the ending of screw of Globe?
Answer:
The upper screw of Globe is known as North Pole and lower one is called South Pole.

Question 3.
What is the name given to the semi-circles that connect both the poles?
Answer:
The semi-circles that connect both the poles are named as longitudes.

Question 4.
What is Hemisphere? Name the line that cuts the Globe or Earth into the Hemispheres.
Answer:
The half of a sphere is called hemisphere. The equator cuts the Globe or Earth into the hemispheres.

Question 5.
What is the Prime Meridian? From where it passes?
Answer:
0° longitude is called the Prime Meridian. It passes through Greenwich in England.

Question 6.
What is the difference between Longitudes and Latitudes?
Answer:
Longitudes are angular distances of a place from the Prime Meridian, whereas latitudes are angular distances of a place from the equator.

Question 7.
Why longitudes are called Meridians of Longitude? Into how many Meridians do we divide the Earth or Globe?
Answer:
Longitudes are called Meridians of Longitude because they are drawn through the Prime Meridian. We divide the Earth or Globe into 360° meridians.

Question 8.
Which is the largest circle of Globe? Name it.
Answer:
The circle of equator is the largest circle of Globe.

Question 9.
What is the difference between Parallels of Latitude and Meridians of Longitude?
Answer:

Parallels of Latitude	Meridians of Longitude
1. Parallels of latitude are imaginary circles drawn parallel to the equator.	1. Meridians of longitude are imaginary lines running from North to South.
2. These are circles.	2. These are semi circles.
3. The distance between them is measured in degrees of latitude.	3. The distance between them is measured in degrees of longitude.
4. They are 180+1 in number.	4. They are 360 in number.

Question 10.
What is the importance of Longitudes?
Answer:
The importance of longitudes is as follow :

Longitudes help us in knowing the east-west distance of a place.
They help us in calculating the local time of a place.

Question 11.
Which lines help us to divide the Earth into Heat Zones? Give reasons why there are Heat Zones.
Answer:
Latitudes help us to divide the earth into Heat Zones. Heat Zones are there because of the following reasons :
1. The rays of the sun which are vertical, occupy less space but intensity of heating is very high and the rays of the sun which are slanting, occupy more space but intensity of heating is low.

2. The shape of the earth is spherical. The central, the bulging part of the earth receives maximum heat of the sun and as we go away from the central part towards the poles, the heat reduces.

Question 12.
What is the difference between Local Time and Indian Standard Time?
Answer:
1. Local Time. Local time is the time reckoned by the noon sun at a given place. At any place a watch can he adjusted to read 12 O’ clock when the sun is at the highest point in the sky or when it is mid day. The time shown by such a watch will give the local time for that place. All the places, on a given meridian of longitude, have the same local time.

2. Indian Standard Time. In a particular country, local time of a particular or rather a central place is adopted as the uniform time for the whole country. It is called the standard time of that country or that area. In India, the local time of 8214 ° E Longitude is used as the standard time for the whole country. It is called the Indian Standard Time. 8214° E is thus the standard meridian of India.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Tropic of Cancer is depicted by ________ Parallel of Latitude.
Answer:
0 to 23 1/2° North

Question 2.
Tropic of Capricorn is depicted by ________ Parallel of Latitude.
Answer:
0 to 23 1/2° South

Question 3.
Latitudes and Longitudes make a on a Globe.
Answer:
grid

Question 4.
The distance between any two parallels is always ________
Answer:
equal

Question 5.
The ________ is also known as Zero Meridian.
Answer:
Prime Meridian

Question 6.
In India, the Longitude of ________ is considered the Standard Meridian.
Answer:
82 1/2° East

Question 7.
The time difference between Greenwich Mean Time and Indian Standard Time is ________
Answer:
5 hours 30 minutes.

III. Say whether the following statements are True or False :

Question 1.
Each parallel of Latitude is a semi-circle.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Temperature increases as we go away from the equator.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The Torrid Zone lies between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The Earth rotates from the West to East direction.
Answer:
True.

IV. Things To Do (Activity):

Question 1.
Draw a diagram of the earth, liark the earth’s Axis, the Great Circle, Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn, Arctic Circle and Antarctic Circle on it.
Answer:

N.P. – S.P. = Axis
EQ = Great Circle
TC = Tropic of Cancer
T’C’ = Tropic of Capricorn
AR = Arctic Circle
A’N’ = Antarctic Circle.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Guide Globe – The Model of the Earth Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
As earth is a globe, most accurate model of it is :
(A) Map on chart
(B) Globe
(C) Map on spherical fruit
(D) Map on a circular paper.
Answer:
(B) Globe.

Question 2.
A system of orbiting satellites that send radio signals to receivers on earth is a
(A) Navigator
(B) Radio
(C) Radar
(D) GPS.
Answer:
(D) GPS.

Question 3.
A great circle is a circle which passes through the centre of the earth and bisects it into two equal hemispheres is called :
(A) Arctic circle
(B) Antarctic circle
(C) Great circle
(D) Equator.
Answer:
(C) Great circle.

Question 4.
The ends of the axis are called :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Great Divide
(D) Great Circle.
Answer:
(B) Poles.

Question 5.
The zone with moderate temperatures is called :
(A) Temperate zone
(B) Tropical zone
(C) Equatorial zone
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(A) Temperate zone.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The tropic of capricorn is located at ________
Answer:
23% south of equator

Question 2.
The standard meridian of India is ________
Answer:
82’4° East,

Question 3.
The 0° meridian is also known as ________
Answer:
Prime meridian

Question 4.
The distance between the longitudes decreases towards ________
Answer:
Poles

Question 5.
The arctic circle is located in the hemisphere.
Answer:
Northern.

True/False :

Question 1.
Frigid zone lies between the arctic circle and the north pole.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
With longitudes we can divide the earth into heat zones.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Local time is the time of a central meridian of an area.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Latitude is the angular distance of a place north to south of the equator.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
I.S.T. is termed as Indian Standard Time.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the two Hemispheres.
Answer:
The two Hemispheres are Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere.

Question 2.
What is Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The northern and upper part of Globe from equator is called Northern Hemisphere.

Question 3.
What is Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The southern and lower part of Globe from equator is known as Southern Hemisphere.

Question 4.
Explain Parallel Lines.
Answer:
Parallel lines’are those lines which run at equal distance and never meet with each other. They may be straight or circular.

Question 5.
What is Equatorial Line?
Answer:
The line drawn through the centre or 0° latitude is known as Equatorial Line.

Question 6.
How many Parallels of Latitude are there?
Answer:
There are 180+1 Parallels of Latitude.

Question 7.
What degree of angle does the equator represent?
Answer:
The equator represents 0° latitude.

Question 8.
What does 90° South Latitude indicate?
Answer:
90° South Latitude indicates South Pole.

Question 9.
Where does the Tropic of Cancer lie on Globe?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer lies in the Northern Hemisphere on Globe.

Question 10.
What is the angular distance of the Tropic of Cancer from the equator?
Answer:
The angular distance of the Tropic of Cancer from the equator is 231/4° North.

Question 11.
What is the angular distance of the Tropic of Capricorn from the equator?
Answer:
The angular distance of the Tropic of Capricorn from the equator is 2354° South.

Question 12.
What is the Indian Standard Time?
Answer:
The Indian Standard Time is taken in the longitude of 8214° E.

Question 13.
Which area on the earth receives the maximum heat?
Answer:
The area lying between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn receives the maximum heat.

Question 14.
Into how many Heat Zones has the earth been divided?
Answer:
The earth has been divided into three Heat Zones.

Question 15.
What is the basis of the division of Heat Zones?
Answer:
Temperature is the basis of the division of Heat Zones.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:

Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
1. The part of the earth which lies in the northern part of equator is called Northern Hemisphere.	1. The part of the earth which lies to the south of the equator is called Southern Hemisphere.
2. 0° to 90° North latitude mark Northern Hemisphere.	2. 0° to 90° South latitude mark Southern Hemisphere.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Latitude and Longitude.
Answer:

Latitude	Longitude
1. Latitude is the angular distance of a place North or South of the Equator.	1. Longitude is the angular distance of a place East or West of Prime Meridian.
2. The latitude value increases in North-South directions from the Equator.	2. The longitude value increases in East-West directions from meridian.
3. Its value ranges between 0° to 90° N, 0° to 90°S.	3. Its value ranges between 0° to 180°E, 00 to 180°W.

Question 3.
Distinguish between Local and Standard Time.
Answer:

Local Time	Standard Time
1. Local time of a place is the time of its meridian.	1. Standard time is the time of a central meridian of an area.
2. Each place has its own local time.	2. All places have a uniform or same time.
3. When it is noon, the local time is 12 o’clock.	3. It has not any relation with noon or height. of the sun.
4. All places on the Meridian have same local time.	4. All places within a country have the same standard time.
5. The places in the East are ahead of west in time. For 10 longitude there is difference of 4 minutes of time.	5. There is no change in time. So it is known as standard time.

Question 4.
In which hemisphere does the Tropic of Cancer lie?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer lies in the Northern Hemisphere. It is at an angular distance of 23’A° North from the equator. It runs in an east-west direction almost mid-way through our country.

Question 5.
What are Temperate Zones?
Answer:
The areas bounded by the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle in the Northern Hemisphere and the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle in the Southern Hemisphere are called Temperate Zones.

Question 6.
What are Frigid Zones?
Answer:
The areas lying between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in the Southern Hemisphere are known as Frigid Zones.

Question 7.
Where is Greenwich? For what is it famous?
Answer:
Greenwich lies near London in England. It is the place where British Royal Observatory is located. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) has been fixed here.

Question 8.
Discuss the importance of Grid.
Answer:
The importance of Grid is as follows :
1. Grid helps us in making maps and atlases.
2. It helps us in reading maps.
3. It helps us in fixing the boundary between two countries.

Grid

Question 9.
What is the importance of Latitudes?
Answer:
The importance of latitudes can be discussed as under :
1. We can very easily form an idea of the temperature of a place.
2. We can divide the earth into Heat Zones.
3. We can find the exact location of a place.

Question 10.
Why do we use models to show earth?
Answer:
The earth is very large in size. We cannot’ see the whole of the earth in its actual size and shape in one go. So we use models, photographs, and maps to see the earth.

Question 11.
Why is the globe a correct replica of the earth?
Answer:
On the globe, shapes, sizes, distance and directions of continents and oceans are correctly represented.

Question 12.
How many parallels of latitude are there?
Answer:
There are 90 imaginary lines drawn to the north of equator and 90 imaginary lines drawn to the south of equator. It makes 181 parallels of latitude in all.

Question 13.
How to locate a place on it (The Earth/Globe)?
Answer:
If we want to locate a place on the globe we have to do the following exercise :

First we have to know the latitude and longitude of that place.
Now we draw the meridian and parallel of latitude of that place on the basis of its longitude and latitude.
The point where these meridian and parallel of latitude intersect themselves, will be the location of that place.

Question 14.
Do you know what is the time difference between India and England?
Answer:
The time difference between India and England is of 5.30 hours.
1. If it is noon in England, it is 5.30 p.m. in India because time is ahead in India than in England by 5.30 hours.

2. This can be calculated in the following manner :

Difference between 0° longitude and 82 1/4° E longitude = 82 1/4°
Time in the East is ahead by 4 minutes on passing every meridian
Hence time ahead 82 1/4° × 4 = 330 minutes or 5.30 hours.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In what way is a globe different from maps?
Answer:
Globe is a true jnodel of the earth while a map is a picture of the earth. A globe has three dimensions, while a map has two dimensions. Globe gives correct idea of shape of the earth, but a map gives details of an area. It is easy to carry maps, but globes are not portable. Globe is not*fixed. It can be rotated while map is fixed. A globe can be rotated as a top spin or a potter’s wheel. On the globe, countries, continents and oceans are shown in their correct size.

Question 2.
List the situation in which the globe is far more useful than maps.
Answer:

Earth is truly shown by a globe. It gives shapes and directions correctly.
It is a true model of our planet.
Lines of latitudes and longitudes are shown correctly on a globe.
NoW-a- days relief features can be shown on globe.
It can be rotated on its axis.
Globe is an important tool of Geography.
Globe can be rotated like a top spin or a potter’s wheel.

Question 3.
What are the shortcomings of a globe?
Answer:
A globe has some limitations :

It is not easy to carry globes.
It is not useful for studying an area of a country.
Only one hemisphere can be studied from a globe.
Distances cannot be measured on a spherical globe.
Globes do not show details.

Question 4.
Into how many Heat Zones can tile earth be divided? Explain each zone.
Answer:
The earth can be divided into three Heat Zones. They are Torrid Zone, Temperate Zone and Frigid Zone.
1. Torrid Zone: It lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. It is the hottest zone of the world. The noon sun shines vertically over this part of the earth.

2. Temperate Zone: It lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle in the Northern Fig. Heat Zones of Earth
Hemisphere and between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle in the Southern Hemisphere. The sun is never overhead in this zone. It is neither very hot in summer nor very cold in winter. It is, therefore, called the Temperate Zone.

3. Frigid Zone: It lies between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 5.
Describe the important Parallels of Latitude.
Answer:
The Equator, the Tropic of Cancer, the Tropic of Capricorn, the Arctic Circle, and the Antarctic Circle is the important Parallels of Latitude.

The Equator: The equator is the most important parallel of latitude. It divides the earth into two equal parts. These parts are the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere. It is the largest possible circle that can be drawn around the earth.
The Tropic of Cancer: It lies in the Northern Hemisphere at 23°30′ latitude. It is an angular distance of 2314° N from the equator.
The Tropic of Capricorn: It is also an imaginary circle measuring the angular distance of 23/4° to the south from the central point of the equator.
The Arctic Circle: It is the parallel of latitude that lies at a distance of 6614° North of the equator.
The Antarctic Circle: It lies in the Southern Hemisphere and is at 66!4° South to the equator.

Question 6.
How do longitudes help us in calculating time?
Answer:
Longitude and Time.

Longitudes help us to calculate time.
It takes 24 hours for the earth to complete one rotation.
This means in 24 hours the Earth completes 360°.
Hence, it takes about 4 minutes for crossing one degree of longitude.
This means each place has a different time of Sunrise and Sunset.
Places East of the Greenwich Meridian experience day or sunrise earlier than the places lying west of this Meridian.

In other words, time is ahead in the east than that in the west, at the rate of 4 minutes per degree of longitude.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Major Dhyan Chand-The Magician of Hockey

September 27, 2024September 26, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 3 Major Dhyan Chand-The Magician of Hockey Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Physical Education Chapter 3 Major Dhyan Chand-The Magician of Hockey

Physical Education Guide for Class 6 PSEB Major Dhyan Chand-The Magician of Hockey Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
When was Major Dhyan Chand Born?
Answer:
Major Dhyan Chand was born on 29 August 1905 at Allahabad in the house of father Sameshwar Dutt.

Question 2.
When did Indian hockey team participate for the first time in the Olympic games? Which medal was won by Indian team in these games?
Answer:
In 1928, the Indian team participated in Amesterdom Olympic Games for the first time and also won the gold medal in it.

Question 3.
Describe any one episode related to Major Dhyan Chand’s life.
Answer:
There are many legends about this great player. Once in Holland, the authorities broke Dhyan Chand’s hockey stick to check if there was any magnet like element inside it. Actually Dhyan Chand had a great control on ball. His ball did not separate from his stick. Many people believed that his hockey stick was a magical stick. Dhyan Chand won the heart of German Dictator Hitler. Hitler even had offered a high post in German army, but Dhyan Chand declined the offer and felt proud to play only for India.

Question 4.
hen and where did Major Dhyan Chand play his first International match?
Answer:
He played his first International match in New Zealand on 13th May, 1926. In New Zealand 21 matches were played. India won 18 matches, out of these.

Question 5.
In which country Major Dhyan Chand’s statue is installed?
Answer:
Statue of Dhyan Chand was placed in Biana at Australia. This statue was made with four hands and one hockey stick is put in each hand.

Question 6.
Write a brief note about Major Dhyan Chand’s life.
Answer:
Major Dhyan Chand was bom on 29th August, 1905 at Allahabad in the house of father Sameshwar Dutt. Dhyan Chand’s father & elder brother were also prominent players of hockey. Thus Dhyan Chand received his game in heritage. He was a famous player of hockey in India. He brought laurels for India at World level. He won gold and silver medals on International level in the field of sports. His father worked in British Indian Army.

Major Dhyan Chand joined army as the soldier at a age of t sixteen. There a Subedar Major Tiwari motivated him to play hockey. Major Dhyan Chand used to practise hockey with great dedication after his duty hours in the evening till late night in the moonlight. He participated in sports competitions of army from 1922 to 1926. Dhyan Chand’s game was highly appreciated during the annual sports competition in Delhi. The appreciation boosted Dhyan Chand’s spirit high. He played his first International match in Newzealand on 13th May, 1926. In New Zealand 21 matches were played, India won 18 matches out of these.

Question 7.
What efforts have been done by the Indian government dedicated to the memory of Major Dhyan Chand?
Answer:

Indian government recognized Dhyan Chand’s wonderful game skill & honoured him with “Padam Bhushan” in 1956.
Dhyan’s birthday is celebrated as National Sports Day in India with great pomp & show.
The Indian postal service had even issued a postage stamp in his memory.
International Stadium at New Delhi has been named after him in his memory.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Guide Major Dhyan Chand-The Magician of Hockey Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When Major Dhyan Chand was born?
(A) 1905
(B) 1910
(C) 1912
(D) 1916.
Answer:
(A) 1905

Question 2.
When did Indian hockey team participate for the first time in the Olympic games?
(A) 1928
(B) 1932
(C) 1936
(D) Never.
Answer:
(A) 1928

Question 3.
When and where did Major Dhyan Chand play his first International Match?
(A) 1926 Newzealand
(B) 1928 Koser
(C) 1932 England
(D) All above.
Answer:
(A) 1926 Newzealand

Question 4.
In which country Major Dhyan Chand’s statue is installed?
(A) In Biana at Australia
(B) America
(C) Newzealand
(D) All above.
Answer:
(A) In Biana at Australia

Question 5.
Which awards were given to Major Dhyan Chand by the Govt, of India?
(A) Padam Bhushan in 1956.
(B) Dock ticket was released on his name.
(C) International Stadium at his name in New Delhi.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 6.
Major Dhyan Chand was attached with which game?
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Cricket
(D) Badminton.
Answer:
(B) Hockey

Question 7.
Dhyan Chand started playing hockey in which place?
(A) At home
(B) In Military
(C) School
(D) College.
Answer:
(B) In Military

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Major Dhyan Chand was attached with which game?
Answer:
Major Dhyan Chand was attached with Hockey.

Question 2.
Dhyan Chand started playing Hockey in which place?
Answer:
Dhyan Chand started playing Hockey in Army.

Question 3.
Who is called the magician of Hockey?
Answer:
Major Dhyan Chand.

Question 4.
When was Dhyan Chand Born?
Answer:
Dhyan Chand was bom on 29 August, 1905 at Allahabad.

Question 5.
What was his father’s name?
Answer:
His father’s name was Sameshwar Dutt.

Question 6.
His elder brother was also hockey player or not?
Answer:
Yes, his elder brother ‘Roop Singh’ was also a good player of hockey.

Question 7.
In which place Major’s father did his job?
Answer:
He did job in British India Army.

Question 8.
Major started job of army in which age?
Answer:
At the age of 16 years.

Question 9.
Dhyan Chand first participated in which International match?
Answer:
13 May, 1926 at New Zealand.

Question 10.
In which Olympics he participated first?
Answer:
In 1928, at Amesterdom.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did Major Dhyan Chand born and died?
Answer:
Major Dhyan Chand was bom on 29 August, 1905 in Allahabad and he died on 3 December, 1979.

Question 2.
Major Dhyan’Chand did how many goals against another teams?
Answer:
He did 1000 goals.

Question 3.
How many goals Major Dhyan Chand did in International matches?
Answer:
He did 400 goals in International matches.

Question 4.
What did Hitler offer to Dhyan Chand?
Answer:
Hittler offered him to play as a team member of Germany.

Question 5.
What question was asked by Bradman to Dhyan Chand?
Answer:
He said that how you could do so many goals by hockey.

Question 6.
After awarded Padam Bhushan award Indian Olympic Association gave which award to Dhyan Chand?
Answer:
Shtabdi of Sarvotam player.

Question 7.
Statue of Dhyan Chand is installed in which country?
Answer:
In Australia.

Question 8.
Why Dhyan Chand’s hockey was broken?
Answer:
Te see if it was magical stick or not.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the story attached to the life of Dhyan Chand.
Answer:
Even great cricketer Don Bradman became Dhyan Chand’s fan. He asked Dhyan Chand how he scored so many goals? Dhyan Chand
answered him that as he made runs by cricket bat, similarly goals are scored by a hockey stick.

Question 2.
What things got Dhyan Chand in his life?
Answer:
Indian Government recognized Dhyan Chand’s wonderful game skill & honoured him with “Padam Bhushan” in 1956. He was declared the best player of the century by the Indian Olympic Association. 29 August, Chand’s birthday is celebrated as National Sports Day in India with great pomp & show. A statue of Dhyan Chand has been set up in Vienna, Australia to honour him. This statue has four hands holding four sticks. This statue is a symbol of his marvellous skills of his game. He also won a lot of gold & silver medals.

Question 3.
Dhyan Chand play first international match in which state? In 1928 he participated in which Olympic game?
Answer:
He played his first international match in New Zealand on 13th May, 1926. In 1928, the Indian team participated in Amesterdom Olympic Games for the first time. Indian team after winning initial matches defeated Australia by 6-0, Beligum 9-0, Denmark 5-0, Switzerland 6-0 & Holland 3-0 in final match & India emerged as a hockey champion of Olympic games. In this final match two goals out of three were exclusively scored by Dhyan Chand.

Question 4.
Write the achievements of Dhyan Chand in 1932 Olympics.
Answer:
Dhyan Chand played’a crucial role as a centre forward player. In these Olympic games the final match was played between India and America. In which India defeated America team by 24-1. Among these 24 goals, Dhyan Chand alone scored 8. An American newspaper after the shameful defeat of America wrote that Indian team was a typhoon that came from East. Indian team scored 262 goals during these Olympic games. Dhyan Chand scored 101 goals alone. Major Dhyan Chand’s name was included among the top most players of the world.

Question 5.
Write two lines about the family of Dhyan Chand?
Answer:
Dhyan Chand was bom in 29 August, 1905 at Allahabad. His father’s name was Sameshwar Dutt and his elder brother was Roop Singh. His brother was also a famous player of hockey. Dhyan Chand received his game as a heritage. His father worked in Indian Army. He participated in Olympic & Asian games and won so many awards. In this way the whole family was related with Hockey.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 1 Earth – As a Member of Solar System

September 27, 2024September 26, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 1 Earth – As a Member of Solar System Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Earth – As a Member of Solar System

SST Guide for Class 6 PSEB Earth – As a Member of Solar System Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief :

Question 1.
What do you mean by the Universe? Enlist the different forms of the Universe.
Answer:
The Universe is a vast and infinite space having millions of galaxies.

Composition of Universe

It consists of the sun, the planets, the earth, the moon, stars, dust particles, gases, etc. It is so large that one can’t estimate its size.

Forms of the Universe.The galaxy, milky way, planets, satellites, asteroids, comets, meteors and meteorites are the different forms of the Universe.

Question 2.
What is a planet? Is our earth a planet? How?
Answer:
A planet is a celestial (heavenly) body which draws heat and light from the sun and also revolves around it.The word ‘planet’ comes from the Greek word ‘planetai’ which means wanderer (moving thing). Planets are opaque bodies and reflect the Sun’s light.

Yes, our earth is a planet. It gets heat and light from the sun and moves around it in a particular direction in the space. There are eight planets.

Question 3.
What do you understand by Solar System?
Answer:
The sun and, the eight planets which revolve around it make up the Solar System. In addition to the eight planets, there are 63 satellites in the Solar System. The Solar System is also known as the Family of the Sun. The sun is the centre of solar system. Sol in Roman mythology means Sun God.

The eight planets in the order of their distance from the Sun.

Question 4.
Enlist the distance of planets from the sun. Also tell which planet is far away and which is nearest.
Answer:
There are eight planets. As per their distance from the sun, they are :

Mercury,
Venus,
Earth,
Mars,
Jupiter,
Saturn,
Uranus,
Neptune.

Of these planets, Neptune is the farthest and Mercury is the nearest.

Question 5.
Enlist planets according to the size of planets.
Answer:
In ascending order, the sizes of planets are as follows :

Mercury,
Mars,
Venus,
Earth,
Neptune,
Uranus,
Saturn,
Jupiter.

Question 6.
Which facts do you know that tell us the shape and size of the earth?
Answer:

Shape of the Earth: The earth is not flat, it is round in shape. It is like a very big ball.
Size of the Earth: As far as size of the earth is concerned, it ranks fifth among the planets. It is smaller than Jupiter and Saturn. Its diameter is 12,756 km. Its circumference is 40,000 km. On poles its diameter is 12,712 km. It means that its diameter on the poles is lesser by 44 km than the equator.

Question 7.
Write notes on the following :
(а) Planet
Answer:
Planet: A planet is a gaseous ball that moves around the sun. It moves in a particular direction in the space. It has no heat or light of its own. It receives heat and light from the sun. There are eight known planets.

(b) Meteors
Answer:
Meteors: Meteors are also known as Shooting Stars. They are small bodies which come from inter-planetary space. When they enter the earth’s surface, they get fire by friction. As a result, a lot of light appears trailing,. These are called meteors.

(c) Sphere
Answer:
Sphere: The earth has two ends. Northern end is known as Northern Pole and southern end is called Southern Pole.

(d) Equator
Answer:
Equator: Equator is an imaginary line that runs east to west in the centre of the earth. It divides the earth into two equal halves.

(e) Tailed Star
Answer:
Tailed Star: A comet is called a tailed star. It is trailed by a long tail of light.

(f) Axle/Axis
Answer:
Axle/Axis: Axle/Axis is an imaginary line that passes through and joins Northern Pole and Southern Pole of the earth.

(g) Asteroids
Answer:
Asteroids: Asteroids are small planets which revolve around the sun. They lie between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

(h) Lunar Eclipse.
Answer:
Lunar Eclipse: The earth revolves around the sun and the moon moves around the earth. During their revolution, when the earth comes between the sun and the moon, it casts its shadow on the moon. It is called Lunar Eclipse.

II. Fill in the blanks in the following :

Question 1.
Our earth is a flat sphere, therefore it is called ____________
Answer:
an oblate spheroid

Question 2.
The circumference of the earth is ____________ km.
Answer:
40,000

Question 3.
The diameter of earth on equator is ____________ km and diameter of earth at poles is km.
Answer:
12,756, 12,712.

III. Activity (Something To Do)

Question 1.
Show the planets according to the distance from the Sun.
Answer:

S.No. Planet	Distance from the Sun (million kms)
1. Mercury	58 (The nearest)
2. Venus	108
3. Earth	150
4. Mars	226
5. Jupiter	778
6. Saturn	1427
7. Uranus	2870
8. Neptune	4496 (The farthest)

Question 2.
Enlist the planets according to their size.
Answer:

S. No. Planet	Size
1. Jupiter	1st (The largest)
2. Saturn	2nd
3. Uranus	3rd
4. Neptune	4th
5. Earth	5th
6. Venus	6th
7. Mars	7th
8. Mercury	8th (The smallest)

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Guide Earth – As a Member of Solar System Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which is the nearest planet to the sun?
(A) Neptune
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Earth.
Answer:
(C) Mercury.

Question 2.
The tilting of earth is responsible for :
(A) Change of the days
(B) Change of the sunrays
(C) Change of the seasons
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(C) Change of the seasons.

Question 3.
Stars appear to move from :
(A) West to East
(B) East to West.
(C) North to South
(D) South to West
Answer:
(B) East to West.

Question 4.
What are the tiny bodies between the orbit of Mars and Jupiter called?
(A) Asteroids
(B) Comets
(C) Meteor
(D) Meleorities
Answer:
(A) Asteroids.

Question 5.
Which is the largest planet in solar system?
(A) Mercury
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn.
Answer:
(C) Jupiter.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
____________ planet appears to be yellowish.
Answer:
Saturn

Question 2.
____________ study the space and travel.
Answer:
Astronauts

Question 3.
Group of shining stars is called ____________
Answer:
Constellation

Question 4.
____________ is a group of seven stars.
Answer:
Saptarishi

Question 5.
____________ is called a tailed star.
Answer:
A comet.

True/False :

Question 1.
There are 7 planets in our solar system.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The universe includes the sun, satellites, planets, stars etc.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Geoid means sunlike shape.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Moon is a natural satellite of the earth.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The earth has a circumference of 40000 km.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Geoid?
Answer:
Geoid means earth like shape.

Question 2.
Who are astronauts?
Answer:
Astronauts are the persons who study the space and travel in the space. Kalpna Chawla was an astronaut of Indian origin.

Question 3.
Why does the sun appear big to us?
Answer:
The sun appears big to us because it is nearest to the earth.

Question 4.
What do you understand by constellation?
Answer:
A group of shining stars is called constellation.

Question 5.
What is Saptarishi?
Answer:
Saptarishi is a group of seven stars, which appears like a Great Bear.

Question 6.
Which planets rotate in a different direction than our earth?
Answer:
Venus and Uranus rotate in a different direction than our earth.

Question 7.
What is the name of the star nearest to earth?
Answer:
The sun is the star nearest to earth.

Question 8.
How much time does the light of the sun take to reach the earth?
Answer:
It takes eight minutes to reach the earth.

Question 9.
What is the distance between the sun and the earth?
Answer:
The distance between the sun and the earth is 15 crore kms.

Question 10.
What is Akash Ganga or Milky Way?
Answer:
Akash Ganga or Milky Way is a part of galaxy consisting of a million of stars and planets.

Question 11.
Name the largest and the smallest planets.
Answer:
Jupiter is the largest and Neptune is the smallest planet.

Question 12.
Name the planets which have no satellites.
Answer:
Mercury and Venus.

Question 13.
How much time does the moon take to complete one cycle around the earth and its own axis?
Answer:
27 days and 7 hours.

Question 14.
After whose name has the Comet Halley been named?
Answer:
Comet Halley has been named after the astronomer of England ‘Almond Halley’.

Question 15.
What are spheroids?
Answer:
The spheres of the earth which are flat on the top and bottom are called spheroids.

Question 16.
Name the four planets which are bigger than the earth.
Answer:
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is the earth called a blue planet?
Answer:
Astronauts, who have seen the earth from space, say that the earth appears blue in colour. It is due to the presence of water. Therefore, the earth is called a blue planet.

Question 2.
What is the distance of the earth from sun and from the moon?
Answer:

Earth from sun-1,50 million kms.
Earth from moon-3,84,400 kms.

Thus the distance of earth from the sun is about 40 times more than that from the moon.

Question 3.
Why do we see only one side of the moon?
Answer:
The moon revolves around the earth in 27 days and 7 hours.
It takes exactly the same time in completing one rotation about its axis. As such, we see only one side of the moon while the other side always remains away from us.

Question 4.
Describe the composition of the Solar System.
Answer:
The Solar System is composed of the sun and the eight planets which revolve around it. The sun is the creator of the planets.

The planets are named after Greek gods and goddesses. In addition, there are in all 63 satellites or moons in the Solar System.

Question 5.
What is meant by a satellite? How many satellites are there in the Solar System?
Answer:
The word ‘satellite’ means a smaller companion to anything.
There are 63 satellites in the Solar System. The satellites revolve j around their planets and also follow them in their revolution around the sun. For example, the moon is the satellite of the earth which moves around the earth and also around the sun along with the earth.

Question 6.
Tell the main physical conditions prevalent on the moon.
Answer:
The moon has rugged and barren surface. There is no air or water on the moon. It is very hot during the day and very cold during the night.

Question 7.
What are Novae?
Answer:
Novae are stars which seem to appear out of nowhere and later disappear. They are also known as new stars. Today, we know a truly new star does not appear and only a dim star suddenly brightens up.

Question 8.
Why do the stars twinkle?
Answer:
The light from the stars travels through different layers of space. Therefore, the light rays deviate from its original path. Further, these rays are not stationary but keep on moving. This leads to the twinkling effect of the stars.

Question 9.
State some characteristics of celestial bodies.
Answer:

They are very big and hot.
These are made up of gases.
These have their own heat and light.
These are numerous.
These are very away from us and look tiny.

Question 10.
What is a Tailed Star?
Answer:
Comets are called Tailed Stars. These are clusters of gases and dust. The comet is trailed by a long tail of light. That is why it is called a Tailed Star.

Question 11.
What is Halley’s comet?
Answer:
Halle/s comet is a narrow loop-like comet. This star appears after a gap of 76 years, It last appeared in the sky in 1956.

Question 12.
What are shooting stars?
Answer:
Meteors and Meteorites are called shooting stars. When these enter the atmosphere, the matter gets fire. So these are called shooting stars. Half burnt meteors are called Meteorites. Arizona (USA) crator is formed due to falling of a meteorite.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the place of the earth in the Solar System?
Answer:
The earth is the third nearest planet to the sun. It lies between Venus and Mars and is the fifth largest planet. It has an equatorial diameter of 12,756 km and a polar diameter of 12,712 km. Its circumference is 40, 000 km. It is the only planet in the Solar System where life is possible. Water and air support all forms of life on the earth.

Question 2.
What do you know about the moon?
Answer:
The moon is the only satellite of the earth. It is over one quarter size of the earth. Its diameter is 3,476 km. It is also the nearest neighbour of the earth. It is at a mean distance of 3,84,000 km centre to centre and 3,76,284 km surface to surface. Its average orbital speed is 3,680 km per hour.

The moon revolves round the earth. Its position in relation to the sun changes every day, as it reflects the light of the sun.

Various phases of the moon

Question 3.
Distinguish between a star and a planet.
Answer:

Star	Planet
1. Stars are heavenly bodies shining by their own heat and light.	1. Planets are opaque heavenly bodies which reflect the light of the sun.
2. Millions of stars, scattered in space, occur in clusters.	2. Nine planets revolve around the sun.
3. Stars emit a large amount of heat and light.	3. Planets reflect the light of the sun.
4. Stars twinkle due to radiation of their heat and light.	4. Planets do not twinkle.

Question 4.
Distinguish between a planet and a satellite.
Answer:

Planet	Satellite
1. Planet receives heat and light from the sun.	1. They have no light of their own.
2. These are spherical in shape.	2. These are small bodies.
3. There are 8 planets in our solar system.	3. There are 110 Satellites.
4. A planet means a wanderer.	4. A satellite means a companion.

Question 5.
Why is the earth called a unique planet?
Answer:
The earth is a unique planet because it is the only planet having life for animals and plants. It is a unique planet due to the ahead reasons :

The presence of Oxygen and Nitrogen in the atmosphere around the earth favours the existence of life on the earth.
Water cycle on the earth provides water for all living beings. No other planet of the solar system has water.
The earth is neither too hot nor too cold. Moderate temperatures favour life on the earth. It has suitable temperatures for life.
Ozone layer protects us from harmful solar rays (ultra-violet rays).

Question 6.
Why do we see only one side of the Moon always?
Answer:
The Moon is a satellite of the Earth.

It moves around the Sun along with the Earth.
It takes 27 days to revolve around the earth.
It takes exactly the same time to complete one rotation about its axis.
That is why we can see only one side of the Moon. The other side always remains away from us.
The places on the moon correspond to places on earth always.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Hygiene And Maintenance

September 27, 2024September 26, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 2 Hygiene And Maintenance Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Physical Education Chapter 2 Hygiene And Maintenance

Physical Education Guide for Class 6 PSEB Hygiene And Maintenance Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why cleanliness is important for our house?
Answer:
Our human body is just like a machine. If we do not maintain our machines then they get damaged as well as if we can’t clean our body well then it can covered with diseases. We need petrol and diesel to move vehicles as same as a human body needs balanced diet, clean water and air to work. If we do not give proper attention to our body then physically, mentally & socially our structure also gets effected.

It is too important to clean our body parts. It is also important to clean our home and our surroundings. Cleanliness is the sign of health. It is not even imagined that a life without cleanliness. If we do not take care of our home then it also causes a lot of problems. By this our surroundings also become dirty and our nation as well as we all are harmed.

Question 2.
How can the cleanliness of the house be maintained?
Answer:
(a) There should be proper arrangement for the outflow of the dirty water to keep the house safe from moisture & fungus etc. Sunlight & air should be sufficiently available in all parts of the house. There should be lattictel windows & doors. They should always be kept closed.

(b) Kitchen is a vital part of house. Kitchen & the utensils, hearth/gas stove used in the kitchen should be cleaned daily. The eatable food should always be kept covered because flies, worms & cockroaches poison the uncovered food. Stale vegetables, stale food, rotten fruits spread diseases if kept in the kitchen. They should be dropped in the garbage tin with a lid, outside the house. The garbage should not be kept for a long time even outside the house.
PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Hygiene And Maintenance 1
(c) Children should not scatter the peels here & there while eating vegetables & fruits etc. They should be put into some utensil & then thrown into the bin.

(d) Proper care should be taken of the cleanliness of the bathrooms. The floor of the bathroom should not remain wet.

Question 3.
Which things should be borne in mind for the cleanliness of the surroundings of the house?
Answer:
Cleanliness of surroundings is also important as such as cleanliness of home. If our home is clean but our surroundings are dirty then we also cause by different diseases. Some steps should be taken to maintain cleanliness of surroundings of the home are as follow-

Streets and roads should be cleaned.
Water flowing pipes or areas should also be cleaned time-to-time.
Do not tie your pets outside the house.
Do not throw garbage on the road or in the streets. Put it in the ground to decompose itself.
Do not spit on road while walking.
Always use washrooms to expell out your waste.

Question 4.
What role can be played by the students in maintaining the .cleanliness of the school?
Answer:
School is a temple. Cleanliness of school is also very important. School is a place in which children spend their lot of time. If we do not maintain our school then children have to fight with so many diseases. So hat’s why it is very important to maintain our schools well. There are some steps to maintain it:

Do not throw pieces of papers here & there.
Always throw it in the dustbin.
Benches, classrooms & doors should be cleaned daily.
Always clean washrooms daily.
Maintain your water-tank properly.
Always clean your playgrounds.

Question 5.
How can the objects of the house be maintained?
Answer:
We also have to take care of things of the house. All the objects of the house should be at proper places, so that there is no difficulty in finding them. Things placed at proper places also look good. They add to the beauty on one hand, save us from many accidents on the other hand.
In winter, we should manage the summer clothes and in summer the winter clothes at home according to the season.

We should sprinkle insecticide on wooden fruniture, windows & doors etc. to make them safe from woodworms. The iron articles which get rusted should be painted from time to time. The glass-made things used in the houses knife, scissors, screw driver, needle, nail cutter, blade, insecticide made to protect wheat, medicines for the sick at home, phenyl, Bottle of acid etc should be placed separately and at safe places so that they may remain out of reach of small children.

Question 6.
Which things should the children keep in their mind to maintain the objects of the school?
Answer:
Every child should take care of the school & its objects. Children should not be damaged’the walls by drawing lines on them. Furniture of the schools should not be damaged. They should not damage the fans, tubelights, the taps of drinking water. They should switch off the electric buttons when not needed. They should not pluck flowers of their garden of school.

They should protect these flowers & beautify the school. Boxes in the library should be placed properly in separate boxes according to the subjects. Students should not tear the pages from the books, newspapers & magazines. They should observe silence while sitting in library.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Guide Hygiene And Maintenance Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
How can the cleanliness of the house be maintained?
(A) There should be proper care for the outflow of waste and dirty water.
(B) Everyday clean all rooms of the house.
(C) Keep the water of the house in pot which must have cover
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 2.
Rules for the student in maintaining the cleanliness of school.
(A) Clean the bench and desk everyday.
(B) Don’t throw waste in rooms.
(C) Never prick ink while writing.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 3.
Write the causes of dirty house.
(A) Keep the waste garbage of house at proper place.
(B) Proper arrangement of dirty water of kitchen and bathroom.
(C) Garbage are not properly outlet.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 4.
Where we should construct our house?
(A) Hard and high place.
(B) Have must be away from Railway station, Mandir.
(C) Proper arrangement of air and light.
(D) All. above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 5.
Rules of the body cleanliness.
(A) We should take bath everyday with fresh water.
(B) Rub your body after bath with clean towel.
(C) Comb your hair after bath.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is necessary to be cleaned while cleaning your own body?
Answer:
Our house & our surroundings.

Question 2.
Where our house should be placed?
Answer:
At hard and high place.

Question 3.
What will happen if we live in dirty house?
Answer:
Lot of diseases are caused.

Question 4.
Which type of place is required while making house?
Answer:
Deep, Broad and Strong.

Question 5.
What is important in the rooms?
Answer:
Light, air and water.

Question 6.
If we live in dirty, less light and tight houses then what will happen?
Answer:
Then we don’t become fit.

Question 7.
Which things should be away from the house?
Answer:
Railway station and Mandi.

Question 8.
Where we have to place our garbage in house?
Answer:
In a covered dustbins.

Question 9.
Where animals should not be tied?
Answer:
In streets.

Question 10.
What is to be put in water to pure it?
Answer:
Pottasium Permagnet.

Question 11.
By which thing be used to clean the toilets?
Answer:
With Phenyl.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write five steps to maintain the cleanliness of our home.
Answer:

We should sprinkle insecticide on wooden furniture, windows & doors to make them safe from woodworms.
The iron articles which get rusted should be painted time to time.
Always put garbage in the closed dustbins.
Clean your washrooms with Phenyl.
Clean your rooms daily with Brooms.

Question 2.
Write five steps to clean your schools?
Answer:

Classrooms, should be large & airy. There should be proper arrangements of light in classrooms.
There should be no dust or dirt in the classroom of the children. The study tables and chairs should be cleaned. Tables and chairs should be cleaned properly before sitting.
Pure drinking water should be provided.
The meals provided by the school should be pure & balanced.
Children should come to school in neat & clean uniform. Teachers should also check the children clothes & cleanliness.

Question 3.
What are the causes of dirt in the house?
Answer:

Fruits, vegetables, leaves & other waste materials etc. are not put in a particular place.
Washrooms and flushes are not properly built.
Family members are not awared about cleanliness.
Many members live in small house.
Due to large family & many members, proper cleanliness can’t be maintained.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What should be kept in mind while building your home?
Answer:
(A) Situation of a house:

House should be built on height & strong floor.
House should be built away from factories, railway stations etc.
Ways of House is straight & vast.
House should be very airy.
Neighbours should be friendly.

(B) Construction of house:

House should be placed at deep, broad & strong foundation.
Floor should be very strong and plain.
Net should be placed on window to prevent house flies and mosquitoes from house.
Also clean your house daily.
Rooms & kitchen should be away from washrooms.
There is also a proper arrangement of light.

Question 2.
Write the steps of cleanliness of body.
Answer:

Take bath daily with fresh water.
Rub your body after bath with clean towel.
Take proper head/hair wash.
Wear clothes according’ to the climatic conditions.
Wash your eyes with cold water.
Always brush your teeth twice in a day.
Wash your hands before and after meal.
Wash your hair with lemon, amla, with best shampoos.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Health

September 27, 2024September 26, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 1 Health Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Physical Education Chapter 1 Health

Physical Education Guide for Class 6 PSEB Health Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How many kinds are there of health?
Answer:
According to World Health Organisation “Health is a state to complete physical, mental & social well being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.
Kinds of Health:
1. Physical Health
2. Mental Health
3. Social Health
4. Emotional Health

1. Physical Health:
A physical health is that all organs of the healthy person work properly. His body become active, healthy and ready to do the physical work. His body structure remains beautiful. He looks scout & beautiful. His all systems, circulatory, respiratory, excretory, digestive system work properly.

2. Mental Health:
Mental Health means a person should take right, decision with his mind. His confidence must be remained up. He adjusts himself according to the circumstances.

3. Social Health:
In social health, the relationship of a person describes with his family & society as we know man is a social animal who has to go in hand with his family & society to fulfil his daily needs. He gets respect from his family or society. A person is incomplete without society.

4. Emotional Health:
In a different situation, different type of emotions arise in our mind Fear, Happiness, Anger etc. These emotions require a great balance in our life. So, we can perform our work very well.

Question 2.
What kind of food should children eat?
Answer:

Children should eat balance diet, it must consist of necessary elements, like children should eat pure
Balanced diet. It should contain all the necessary elements, like proteins, carbohydrates, oily substance, minerals & water.
Wash your hands properly before your meals.
They should not take hot & cold water.
Children should not take food while watching T.V. or working on computers.
They should take food while sitting straight, do not eat it while lying down.
Fast food like-Pizza & burger is harmful to health, children should prefer homemade food.
The food should be clean from dust & flies.
The fruits should be clean & wash properly before eating.

Question 3.
Which things should we take care of to remain healthy?
Answer:
(a) Medical check up:
Children should take medical check up time-to-time. Vaccination is also important. If there is any injury treatment is necessary.

(b) Nature:
Children should lead happy life. Good nature also requires for health. Irritating nature has bad effect on our health.

(c) Habits:
Children should follow the good habits to maintain the health. To wake up, eat, read, play or rest in time. Somebody has rightly said in Punjabi “vele da kam, kuvele diyan takkran.”

(d) Exercise, Games & Yoga:
Children should do exercise and yoga daily to keep themselves fit. Yoga & exercise should be performed empty stomach. Airy & open environment should require. Before participating in any game children should warm up properly.

Question 4.
Which things should we take care of while eating?
Answer:

We should wash hands properly before & after taking meal.
We should take balanced diet.
Always refrain from fast food and take homemade food.
They should not take hot & cold food.
Food should be taken according to need & chew it properly.
Don’t take food while watching T.V. & working on computer.
Don’t eat food while lying down.
We should take meal while sitting straight.
Fruits should be washed properly before eating.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the following:
1. Cleanliness of the skin
2. Cleanliness of the hair
3. Cleanliness of the eyes
4. Cleanliness of the ears
5. Cleanliness of the nose
6. Cleanliness of the teeth
7. Cleanliness of the nails
Answer:
1. Cleanliness of the skin:
The skin covers all of our body parts and protects them. It is helpful in maintaining our body temperature. It beautifies our body. If we neglect the cleanliness of our skin, then skin pores will be blocked with dust particles, due to which unwanted & harmful elements do not exit our body & many kinds of skin diseases develop.

2. Cleanliness of the hair:
Long hair add charm to one’s beauty. Balanced diet contributes a lot to make the hairs beautiful & strong. Hair should be combed daily with a clean comb. The hairs should be dried properly after washing. Let lice not be developed. Lice do not develop if you want your hair keep clean and healthy.

3. Cleanliness of the Eyes:
Eyes are more sensitive part of the body. We cannot enjoy scenic beauty of nature without eyes. Therefore, care of eyes is very necessary, wash your eyes 2-3 times daily with cold water. Protect your eyes from dizzling light. Sunglasses should be used while going out in the sun.
PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Health 1
4. Cleanliness of the Ears:
Cleanliness of ears is equally impotant as of the other orgAnswer: The ear drums of our ears are very delicate. We should not insert any sharp thing inside the ear, as it can tear the ear drum. Do not listen music on mobile while putting head phone.

5. Cleanliness of the Nose:
We breathe through nostrils & mouth, but breathing through nostrils is useful. Breathing through nostrils makes the inhaled air pure & in accordance with the body temperature when it enters the body. Nose works as a filter. The tiny hair in the opening of the nose like filter hold the dust particles & germs in them. If any tiny particle does not get stuck in these tiny hair of the nose, it sticks to the inner side of the nose. In this way the nose purifies the air that goes to our lungs. We should clean our nose also while breathing.

6. Cleanliness of the teeth:
Teeth help us in chewing the food. Chewed food is good for digestion. We should daily brush our teeth in morning. Always gargle properly after eating anything, so that no food particle should be left stuck in teeth. Teeth start becoming hollow inside which results in the weakning of teeth.
PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Health 2
7. Cleanliness of the Nails:
Cleanliness of nails of hands & feet is also very important like other parts of body. Dirt gets stuck in long grown nails. As a result of it enters our body while eating. That is why we should wash our hands & feet properly. Nails should be pared once or twice in a week.

Question 6.
Write about five healthy habits to maintain good health.
Answer:

Always take balanced diet and fresh food.
Internal organs of our body like lungs. We should know the complete knowledge of all organs.
Take proper sleep according to your age.
Always take medical check up time-to-time.
We should exercise & stall according to the age.
Always inhale from nose.
Always live in fresh air.
We should wear the clothes according to the seasons.
Always remain happy.
Always keep standing posture, sitting & walking posture.
Always wear neat & clean clothes.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Guide Health Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Write the types of health.
(A) Physical health
(B) Mentle health
(C) Emotional health
(D) All mentioned above.
Answer:
(D) All mentioned above.

Question 2.
Which type of foods you will provide to the children?
(A) Balanced diet
(B) Clean the hands before taking meals.
(C) Don’t take food very hot.
(D) All mentioned above.
Answer:
(D) All mentioned above.

Question 3.
Which things be born in mind to lead healthy life?
(A) Medical check-up
(B) Good habits
(C) Exercise, games & yoga
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 4.
How you will keep your skin clean?
(A) Taking bath with fresh water everyday.
(B) You must go toilet before bath.
(C) Don’t take bath after taking meal.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 5.
How you will clean your teeth?
(A) Keep your teeth clean early morning and sleeping at night with brush.
(B) Don’t take very hot milk or tea.
(C) Never prick the teeth with iron stick.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 6.
Write the rules of personal hygiene.
(A) Clean and Balanced diet
(B) Inhale with nose
(C) Always be happy
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 7.
How you will clean your hair when hair fell the clutch of dandruff?
(A) Take 250 gram fresh water and pour borik of one spoon and wash your hair.
(B) Use coconut oil in hair.
(C) Use glycerine with lemon in hair.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What we should call the Science which give us knowledge of health?
Answer:
Personal Health Hygiene.

Question 2.
Where the healthy mind lives?
Answer:
In Healthy Body.

Question 3.
If we do not clean the skin properly which diseases are caused?
Answer:
Internal & External diseases.

Question 4.
What parts of eyes are called in our body?
Answer:
Soft and costless.

Question 5.
What we should do in a day to clean the eyes?
Answer:
Wash it with cold water.

Question 6.
What we should do daily to clean our teeth?
Answer:
Brush or Datun.

Question 7.
How for we should keep the eyes from books?
Answer:
30 cm or 1 feet.

Question 8.
If we do not clean the teeth then what will happen?
Answer:
Pyorrhoea.

Question 9.
What should we do to clean the skin daily?
Answer:
Taking bath.

Question 10.
What type of clothes we should wear after bath?
Answer:
Neat & Clean.

Question 11.
Do, we read books while sitting on train or bus?
Answer:
No.

Question 12.
What thing is not used to clean our ears?
Answer:
Pen or sharp objects.

Question 13.
If anything enters in our eye then what we should do?
Answer:
Do not rub your eyes.

Question 14.
Which posture is harmful for us to study?
Answer:
Lying down or bending while sitting.

Question 15.
In which disease we should have to give more attention to the child?
Answer:
Chicken pox.

Question 16.
Which part of our mouth is safe to respirate?
Answer:
Nose.

Question 17.
If teeth are not present in our mouth then what would happened?
Answer:
Our Taste will end.

Question 18.
In which stage permanent teeth will grow in a child’s mouth?
Answer:
6 to 12 years.

Question 19.
If dust is collected in our ears then which thing is used to clean it?
Answer:
Hydrogen Peroxide.

Question 20.
By which things nails should not be cut?
Answer:
With mouth.

Question 21.
If peek is collected in our ears then how should we clean it?
Answer:
By using Boric Acid Or Glycerine.

Question 22.
How we can cut our growing nails?
Answer:
By using nail cutter.

Question 23.
The hair present in our nose work as a?
Answer:
Net.

Question 24.
Beautiful hair make a lady?
Answer:
Attractive.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give five steps to live healthy?
Answer:

Eat neat & clean food.
Always respiratef through nose.
Take proper sleep.
Always be happy.
Take regular medical check-up.

Question 2.
Why should we always respirate through nose?
Answer:
We always respirate through nose because small hairs-are present in our nose. When we respire with oxygen we also inhale a lot of impurities. These hair catch that impurities in it & fresh air passes to wind pipe. If we take breath through mouth then the impurities also enter in our lungs through wind pipe, it causes many diseases in our body.

Question 3.
If we do not clean our skin then what will happen?
Answer:
Skin makes safe our internal body organs. If we do not clean skin then skin pores will be blocked with dust particles, due to which unwanted and harmful elements do not exit our body and many diseases develop.

Question 4.
How we prevent dandruff present in our hair?
Answer:
If dandruff is present in our hair then take 250 gms water put one spoon of Boric Powder, mix it well and wash your hair with it. After washing your hairs put coconut oil in it. It is always prevented by Glyerine or lemon.

Question 5.
Why it is important to clean our teeths?
Answer:
Teeths are the important part of our body. If our teeths damages then heart also. Our mouth also releases bad smell. A person can also make irritate others. It also causes a disease named Pyorrhoea. That’s why it is important to clean our teeth well.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why it is important to clean our hair? How we can clean them?
Answer:
Long hair add charm to one’s beauty. Long and beautiful hair make our body beautiful and attractive. If we don’t give proper care to hair then they become weaker and falling down. They causes with dandruff and some more diseases can also cause. So, that’s why it is important to clean our hair. We should clean our hairs by following these steps-

Comb your hair before sleeping at night.
Properly comb your hair with clean comb.
Comb them daily at morning also.
Do not use sharp pins in your hair.
Do not leave your hair more oily and more rough.
Always take proper hair wash & after washing it rub it with clean towel.
Wash your hair with Egg, Amla, Curd, Soap or Shampoo of better . company. In summer in one week wash your hair atleast for 2 times and in winter atleast one time.
Sometimes also put some coconut oil in your hair.
In your daily food eat, butter, cheese, salad, green vegetables & fruits.

Question 2.
What is called Personal Hygiene?
Answer:
To take care of your body is called personal hygiene. It is made of two words-Personal and Hygiene. Personal is a English word which means Self and Hygiene is a European word Hygienous which means without diseases. Now-a-day it means life test. To prevent from diseases there is compulsory to have a knowledge about personal health.

Personal hygiene is that part which gives the knowledge to maintain ourself. By this education we know about environment, its causes & prevention also. By this knowledge we also physically & mentally developed. The importance of health of a person is like a fragrance of flowers. To live healthy personal hygiene helps us a lot. It is that branch by which we get the knowledge about the rules of disease free life.

Question 3.
What rules are followed to science of personal hygiene?
Answer:

Always take fresh food.
Take proper knowledge about internal and external parts of our body.
Take proper sleep according to your age.
Take proper medical check up time-to-time.
Do exercise daily.
Always respirate through nose.
Take breath in open air.
Wear clothes according to climatic conditions.
Always be happy.
Always stand, sit & walk in a good posture.

Question 4.
Write the harmful effects of dirty hair.
Answer:
If we do not take proper care of our hair then it causes a lot of problems which are as follows-
1. Dandruff: Dandruff takes place at rough hair. They cause due to dust particles and soap.

2. Treatment:
If there a lot of dandruff is present in your hair then take 250 gms water and one spoon of Boric powder mix it well and wash your head with this mixture. Before washing your hair massage your hair with coconut oil. It is also prevented by glycerine as well as lemon. It is also prevented with the usage of amla.

3. Lice:
If we do not give proper attention to hair then lice grow in our hair. One louse gives 300 eggs at one time. After two weeks these eggs break and they start growing. Except daily cleanliness some suggestions are also there to prevent from lice; these are-

Do not use others comb, handkerchief, cap, turban etc.
Do not lie down your head on seat of bus, cinema hall on chair.
Use clean comb. Try to place the comb at dust free area in clean box.

4. Falling of hair:
If we don’t take proper care of hairs then they start falling down. To prevent from these give proper attention to your hair. Always take proper balance diet and use shampoo of good company.

5. Change in Colour:
If we do not take proper balanced diet then our hair become white before old age. If we want to prevent it then eat well balanced diet, and clean your body daily.

Question 5.
Why hair of our nose are advantageous for us?
Answer:
We breathe through nose and mouth, but breathing through nose is useful. Breathing through nose makes the inhaled air pure and in accordance with the body temperature when it enters the body. Nose works as a filter. The short hair in the opening of the nose like a filter held the dust particles and germ in them. If any tiny particle does not get stuck in these tiny hair of the nose, it sticks to the inner side of the nose. In this way the nose hair purifies the air that goes to our lungs. We should clean our nose also while bathing. This results in protecting our body from many diseases. So, that’s why hair of nostrils are more advantageous.

Question 6.
How we clean our feet?
Answer:

It is also important to clean our feet as same as our body. During bath we also have to wash & clean our feet and spaces between our fingers of foots.
Always wear neat and clean socks.
Before sleep at night we should also have to wash our feet and properly rubbed with towel.
Always wear slippers & shoes of your own size.
Do not move without slippers.
Cut your nails of feet at proper time.
Sometimes massage your feet with oil or glycerine.

Question 7.
How should we dean our hands?
Answer:

Always wash your hands with soap after and before taking meal.
Always keep your hands soft and clean.
Massage your hands with cream or glycerine.
Wash your hands with clean water. By which we can prevent it from a lot of diseases.