Class 8 – Page 4 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Conservation of Plants and Animals Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) A place where animals are protected in their natural habitat is called …………………..
(b) Species found only in a particular area is known as …………….. .
(c) Migratory birds fly to faraway places because of …………………. changes.
Answer:
(a) Zoo
(b) endemic species
(c) climatic.

Question 2.
Differentiate between the following:
(a) Wildlife sanctuary and biosphere reserve
(b) Zoo and wildlife sanctuary
(c) Endangered and extinct species
(d) Flora and fauna.
Answer:
(a) Difference between Wildlife Sanctuary and Biosphere Reserve.
Wildlife sanctuary is the place where wild animals are protected and preserved. Biosphere reserve is the area meant for conservation of variety of plants, animals and micro-organisms (biodiversity) found in an area.

(b) Difference between Zoo and Wildlife Sanctuary.
Zoo is a place where animals are protected in their natural habitat.
Wildlife Sanctuary is a place where wild animals are protected and preserved.

(c) Endangered and Extinct Species.
Endangered Species are the animals whose numbers are diminishing and face extinction.
Extinct Species are the species which have been disappeared from the earth.

(d) Difference between Flora and Fauna.
Flora is a collection of plants found in a particular area.
Fauna is a collection of animals found in a particular area.

Question 3.
Discuss the effects of deforestation on the following.
(a) Wild animals
(b) Environment
(c) Villages (Rural areas)
(d) Cities (Urban areas)
(e) Earth
(f) The next generation.
Answer:
(a) Effect of deforestation on wild animals.
Plant and trees are the habitat and food for wild animals. So cutting of trees destroy the natural habitat of wild animals and thus they would become endangered species.

(b) Effect of deforestation on environment.
Deforestation decreases the level of oxygen in the atmosphere. Rainfall and the fertility of soil also decreases due to deforestation. As a result, there are increased chances of natural calamities like floods and drought.

(c) Effect of deforestation on villages (rural areas).
Most of the agriculture is done in rural areas. When trees and plants (deforestation) are cut down, it leads to change in soil properties.

(d) Effect of deforestation on cities (urban areas).
In cities there run more factories and automobiles. So deforestation will pollute the environment and hence the life in cities will not be healthy for living.

(e) Effect of deforestation on earth.
Deforestation leads to the increase of natural calamities like flood and drought. Deforestation leads to increase in temperature of earth causing global warming. Less trees would result in more soil erosion.

(f) Effect of deforestation on the next generation.
Deforestation leads to the climatic changes which have a great effect on the next generations. The environment becomes polluted. So the next generation would not be as prosperous as previous one.

Question 4.
What will happen if:
(a) we go on cutting trees
(b) the habitat of an animal is disturbed
(c) the top layer of soil is exposed ?
Answer:
(a) If we go on cutting trees continuously, rainfall and the fertility of the soil will decrease. Hence there are increased chances of natural calamities such as floods and drought.

(b) If the habitat of an animal is disturbed, some of the species do not get appropriate food and shelter and with the passage of time they will come under the category of endangered species.

(c) If the top layer of the soil is exposed, the soil has less humus and become less fertile. Gradually the land converts into deserts. It is called desertification.

Question 5.
Answer in brief:
(a) Why should we conserve biodiversity ?
(b) Protected forests are also not completely safe for wild animals. Why ?
(c) Some tribals depend on the jungle. How ?
(d) What are the causes and consequences of deforestation ?
(e) What is Red Data Book ?
(f) What do you understand by the term migration ?
Answer:
(a) Biodiversity is the variety of plants, animals and micro-organisms generally found in an area. Animals that feed on plants too are selective in their feeding habits e.g. the red panda prefers tender bamboo shoots and the koala bear of Australia feeds mostly on eucalyptus leaves. Birds and antelopes too, are very selective in their feeding habits. Wide variety of plants in the forests fulfil the needs of different herbivorous animals and strengthen the food chain. Therefore, to conserve wild life, it is necessary to conserve the rich variety of plants and animals.

(b) Protected forests are also not completely safe for wild animals because people living in the neighbourhood encroach upon them and destroy them.

(c) Some tribes depend on the jungle. Rock shelters are also found inside the Satpura National Park which are the pre-historic evidences of human life in these jungles.

Figures of animals, men shown as fighting, hunting, dancing, and playing musical instruments are depicted in these rock paintings. Figures of a man-eater tiger and a group of people are also shown in these rock paintings. Many tribals still live in the jungle.

(d) Causes of Deforestation.
Due to changing lifestyle of the people and development of technology in the 20th century, the utilization of forest products has increased tremendously. The main factors leading to the felling of trees for our comfort and convenience are:

Requirement of more timber for housing purpose due to increase in population.
Clearing the forest land for cultivation.
Construction of roads and dams.
Overgrazing by the cattle.
Increased mining industry.

Consequences of Deforestation.
The following are the major consequences of deforestation:

The balance of oxygen/carbon dioxide ratio in air will be disturbed.
Excessive floods.
Soil erosion.
Climatic changes.
Destruction or migration of animals and birds living in forests.
No replenishment of ground water.
Destruction of medicinal plants.
Industries related to timber, rubber etc. will not flourish.
Reduction in fertility of soil.

(e) Red Data Book.
Red Data Book is the source book which keeps a record of all endangered animals and plants. There are different Red Data Books for plants, animals and other different species.

(f) Migration.
Going far away from their original habitat of some species during a particular period of the year is called migration. Migration mostly takes place in birds. Birds migrate to other places due to climatic changes e.g. Bar headed goose, Great Cormorant, Surkhab are the migratory birds.

Question 6.
In order to meet the ever-increasing demand in factories and for shelter, trees are being continually cut. Is it justified to cut trees for such projects ? Discuss and prepare a brief report.
Answer:
It is not justified to cut trees for such projects. Do yourself by discussing in your class.

Question 7.
How can you contribute to the maintenance of green wealth of your locality ? Make a list of actions to be taken by you.
Answer:
We should maintain the green wealth of our locality.

We should grow more and more trees on the either side of road.
We should discourage the cutting of trees.
The government should make laws to prevent the excessive cutting of trees.
Parks should be made in a particular area.

Question 8.
Explain how deforestation leads to reduced rainfall.
Answer:
We know that forest helps in bringing the rainfall. So deforestation leads to reduced rainfall and the fertility of soil also decreases. As a result, there are increased chances of natural calamities such as floods and drought.

Question 9.
Find out about the national parks in your state. Identify and show their locations in the outline map of India.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 10.
Why should paper be saved ? Prepare a list of ways by which you can save paper.
Answer:
Need of saving paper.
One tonne of paper needs 17 full grown trees. So we should save paper. Paper can be recycled for 5-7 times and can be used. We should save, reuse used paper and recycle it. By this we not only save trees but also.save energy and water needed for manufacturing paper. Moreover, the harmful chemicals used in paper making will also be reduced.

List of ways of Saving Paper:

Write on both sides of a paper.
Re use the paper.
Leave less margin.
Make toys, caps etc. out of used papers.

Question 11.
Complete the word puzzle.
Down
1. Species on the verge of extinction.
2. A book carrying information about endangered species.
5. Consequence of deforestation.
Across
1. Species which have vanished.
3. Species found only in a particular habitat.
4. Variety of plants, animals and micro-organisms found in an area.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals 1
Answer:

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Conservation of Plants and Animals Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Students saw a huge squirrel in the forest which is often found in this particular region. Rajinder asked guide about it. Guide told him that it is found in this particular area only. What is this species called ?
(a) Ordinary species
(b) Endemic species
(c) Endangered species
(d) Special species.
Answer:
(b) Endemic species.

Question 2.
In which book, the record of endangered species is kept ?
(a) Blue Data Book
(b) Red Data Book
(c) Yellow Data Book
(d) Green Data Book
Answer:
(b) Red Data Book.

Question 3.
What causes the migration of birds and animals ?
(a) For entertainment
(b) For Respiration
(c) For Abondonment
(d) For Reproduction.
Answer:
(d) For Reproduction.

Question 4.
When was Project Tiger Act launched by our government ?
(a) 5 April 1973
(b) 1 April 1973
(c) 12 April 1973
(d) 14 April 1973
Answer:
(b) 1 April 1973.

Question 5.
The increase in level of which gas causes global warming ?
(a) CO₂
(b) O₂
(c) N₂
(d) H₂
Answer:
(a) CO₂

Question 6.
Which of the following is a migratory bird ?
(a) Parrot
(b) Surkhab
(c) Maina
(d) Pigeon.
Answer:
(b) Surkhab.

Question 7.
In which state is Kanha National Park situated ?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala.
Answer:
(6) Madhya Pradesh

Question 8.
Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve has which of the following animals ?
(a) Wild Dog
(b) Leopard
(c) Wolf
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 9.
The plants and animal found in a particular area are called:
(a) Endemic species
(b) Fauna
(c) Flora and fauna
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Endemic species.

Question 10.
By how many full-grown trees one tone paper is made ?
(a) 17
(b) 27
(c) 7
(d) 37
Answer:
(a) 17.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
1. The removal of the top soil layer is known as ………………..
Answer:
soil erosion

2. Wild plants and animals in the forest constitute ………………
Answer:
wildlife

3. Plants need ……………. gas for photosynthesis.
Answer:
carbon dioxide

4. The conversion of fertile land into deserts is called …………….
Answer:
desertification

5. …………………. is that part of the earth in which living organisms exist or which supports life.
Answer:
Biosphere

6. ………………….. refers to the variety in life existing on earth.
Answer:
Biodiversity

7. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve consists of one national park named …………………. and two wildlife sanctuaries named ………………. and ……………. .
Answer:
Satpura, Bori, Pachmarhi

8. The plants and animals found in a particular area are termed ………………. and ………………. .
Answer:
flora, fauna

9. …………………. species are exclusively found in a particular area only.
Answer:
Endemic

10. …………………… is a group of populations which are capable of interbreeding with each other.
Answer:
species

Question 2.
Define deforestation.
Answer:
Deforestation. Clearing of forests and using that land for other purposes is called deforestation.

Question 3.
Give some natural causes of deforestation.
Answer:
Causes of Deforestation. Forest fires and severe drought are some of the natural causes of deforestation.

Question 4.
What is the result of decrease in rainfall and fertility of soil ?
Answer:
This results in the increase of natural calamities such as floods and drought.

Question 5.
Which gas is needed by plant for photosynthesis ?
Answer:
The plant needs carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

Question 6.
What is the result of increased amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere ?
Answer:
It leads to global warming.

Question 7.
What causes draught ?
Answer:
Causes of Draught. Increase in temperature on earth causes draught.

Question 8.
Define Desertification.
Answer:
Desertification. The conversion of fertile land into desert is called desertification.

Question 9.
Name the place which has plants and animals similar to those of the upper Himalayan peaks and those belonging to lower Western Ghats.
Answer:
Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.

Question 10.
What do the government do to protect and conserve wildlife ?
Answer:
The government lays down rules, methods and policies to protect and conserve them.

Question 11.
What is biosphere ?
Answer:
Biosphere. It is that part of earth in which living beings exist or which supports life.

Question 12.
Define biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity. It refers to variety in life existing on earth, their inter relationships and their relationship with the environment.

Question 13.
What are biosphere reserves ?
Answer:
Biosphere Reserve. Biosphere reserves are the areas that are meant for conservation of biodiversity.

Question 14.
Name one national park and two wildlife sanctuaries in Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
National Park – Satpura
Wildlife Sanctuaries – Bori and Pachmarhi.

Question 15.
Define flora.
Answer:
Flora. The plants found in a particular area is called flora.

Question 16.
Name some flora of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
Sal, Teak, Mango, Jamun, Silver ferns, Arjun etc.

Question 17.
Define fauna.
Answer:
Fauna. These are the animals found in a particular area.

Question 18.
Name fauna of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
Chinkara, blue-bull, barking deer, leopard, wild dog, wolf etc.

Question 19.
Define species.
Answer:
Species. It is a group of population which are capable of interbreeding with each other.

Question 20.
What are endemic species ?
Answer:
Endemic Species. These are exclusively found in a particular area only which may be any geographical unit like a state, zone or a country.

Question 21.
Give two endemic flora of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:

Sal
Wild mango.

Question 22.
Give two endemic fauna of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:

Indian giant squirrel
Flying squirrel.

Question 23.
Which factors affect the natural habitat of endemic species and endanger their existence ?
Answer:

The destruction of their habitat,
Increasing population,
Introduction of new species.

Question 24.
What are Wildlife Sanctuaries ?
Answer:
Wildlife Sanctuaries are some areas where wild animals are protected and preserved.

Question 25.
Name some important threatened wild animals.
Answer:
Black duck, white eyed buck, elephant, golden cat, pink headed duck, gharial, march crocodile, python, rhinoceros, etc.

Question 26.
What are Zoos ?
Answer:
Zoos. Zoos are also the places where animals are protected.

Question 27.
What are national parks ?
Answer:
National parks are large and diverse reserves to protect whole sets of ecosystems.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write causes of soil erosion.
Answer:
Causes of Soil Erosion:

Top soil is carried away by wind sweeping across ploughed soil left unused in dry season.
Dust stroms cause soil erosion.
Loss of the forests by felling or fire starts soil erosion. Soil is carried away by rivers and streams and deposited in the oceans.
Unprotected fields are eroded by wind and water.
Urbanisation has led to removal of vegetation.
Burrowing animals also contribute in soil erosion. They make the soil loose and liable to be carried away by water.
Human activities, such as felling of trees, overgrazing, overcropping and faulty tilling, accelerate soil erosion.

Question 2.
How can soil be conserved ?
Answer:
Soil Conservation:

Stopping clear-cutting of forests and overgrazing of ranges, check soil erosion by streams and rivers.
Intensive cropping helps in checking soil erosion. A field always under a crop is protected against soil erosion.
Bunds around the fields contain rain water and check soil erosion besides washing away of minerals.
Irrigation channels in the fields should be so designed as to carry water at a slow speed.
Drainage canals to carry flood water will protect the fields against soil erosion.
Contour ploughing (ploughing along a slope rather than up and down) checks soil erosion by water.
Erosion of soil by wind may be stopped by planting trees and growing grass. Tree belts round fields act as wind breakers.

Question 3.
Write importance of wild life.
Answer:
Importance of Wild Life:

Plants, animals and microorganisms provide many things to us.
Ecological balance is maintained by maintaining food chains and natural cycles.
Maintenance of gene bank for breeding programmes.
Wild animals are source of fun and recreation to public. .
It is a source of inspiration to poets and artists.
It is source of aesthetic value.

Question 4.
Write two differences between endangered and vulnerable species.
Answer:
Differences between endangered and vulnerable species

Endangered species	Vulnerable species
1. They have extreme danger of dying out and disappearing.	1. They face some danger of dying out.
2. They may become extinct.	2. They have danger of entering category of endangered species.

Question 5.
Explain biosphere reserves.
Answer:
Biosphere Reserve.
It is a specified area in which multiple use of land is permitted by dividing it into certain zones and each zone is specified for particular activity.

The concept of Biosphere Reserve has been evolved by Man and Biosphere (MBA) programme of UNESCO. In the biosphere reserve, multiple land use is allowed by designating various zones such as core, buffer zone and manipulation zone. In a biosphere reserve, wild population, traditional life ,style of tribals and varied domesticated plant and animal genetic resources are protected.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals 3

Question 6.
Discuss the concept of “endangered species.”
Answer:
Endangered Species.
The species (or taxa) which are on the verge of extinction and whose survival is unlikely if the causal factor continue to be operating. These are species with only limited number of individual survivals. They are in immediate danger of extinction e.g., the great Indian bustard bird which is inhabitant of the semiarid areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra is highly endangered bird.

Question 7.
What are the factors responsible for global warming ?
Answer:
The continuously rising levels of carbon dioxide and some other gases in the air result in an increase in the temperature of atmosphere causing warming up of the atmosphere of earth i.e. global warming.

Question 8.
Why are the forests considered to be an important natural resource ?
Answer:
The forests are considered to be a significant natural resource on the earth because:

they help in maintaining the balance of oxygen and CO₂ gases in the air and thus sustain life.
they help in bringing rain.
they regulate climate.
they help in replenishing ground water,
they control floods.
they prevent soil erosion.
they provide a living place to a large number of plants and animals.
they provide us many medicinal plants.
they provide many plant products such as rubber, gums, resins, honey, lac, katha etc.
they decrease run off rate of rain water.
they provide conditions for wild life, the main source of meat for tribal societies.

Question 9.
What measures should be taken for the replenishment of forests ?
Answer:
Measures for Replenishment of Forests.
Man is utilizing the natural resources to fulfil his needs in modern times. However, if the forests are removed for our comforts, it will ultimately lead to elimination of the human species from the surface of the earth. The following measures should be adopted for replenishment of forests:

Growing more plants.
Judicious use of plant products.
Prevent overgrazing by the cattle.
Strict law enforcement for setting up mining and other industries in. . around forests.
Mobilising the public opinion through electronic and print media.
Establishing forest nurseries.

Question 10.
How do plants check soil erosion ?
Answer:
The underground parts of the plants (i.e. roots) help in binding the soil particles. The soil with plant cover is not eroded by water or wind. Hence, plants check the soil erosion.

Question 11.
Why is it necessary to have a wide variety of plants in a forest ?
Answer:
It is essential to have a wide variety of plants in a forest due to the following reasons:

selective feeding habits of animals.
fulfil the needs of animals as well as human beings.
provide shelter to a number of organisms.
a stable diversified food chain/food web offers a better chance of survival to the animals living in the forest.

Question 12.
Name five National Parks.
Answer:
National Parks:

Corbett National Park in Uttrakhand.
Kanha National Park in Madhya Pradesh.
Sanjay National Park in Maharashtra.
Periyar National Park in Kerala.
Bannughatta National Park in Karnataka.

Question 13.
Explain how large scale deforestation could lead to depletion in ground water resource.
Answer:
Vegetation helps the soil to retain water which ultimately replenishes the ground water resource. In recent times, large forest areas have been cleared for various purposes. Overgrazing too has destroyed vegetation and the barren land so formed, has lost the capacity to hold water. And thus there is a depletion in ground water resource.

Question 14.
To protect a forest means to conserve air, soil and water. Explain.
Answer:
The forest is complex biological system. Though it is self-sufficient, it depends on the other renewable resources to maintain itself. Therefore, to protect a forest it is necessary to conserve air, soil and water. A forest relies on specific climatis conditions for its survival. At times, large scale man-made geographical alterations such as huge dams and excessive mining have disturbed the environment of the region causing severe damage to the forests in the area. Air pollution from industries situated even miles away have similar ill-effects on the forests.

Question 15.
How does habitat destruction affect wildlife ?
Answer:
Animals and plants have a strong relationship with their habitat. Certain living organisms can survive only in a specific kind of environment. The golden lion tamarins were found in a small area of Brazilian rain forests. It was their only natural habitat. When this area was destroyed, the beautiful little golden coloured mammal became homeless.

Although, Brazil has many more rain forests, today, few golden lion tamarins survive only in the zoos and probably will never be able to return to the wild habitat because their natural habitat has been destroyed by man. When a forest dies, a large number of animals become endangered or extinct.

Question 16.
Name at least seven wild animals of Khangchendzena National Park, which face the danger of extinction.
Answer:
Wild animals of Khangchendzena National Park which face extinction are snow leopard, clouded leopard, marbled cat, Himalayan black bear, civet binturong, red panda Tibetian wild ass, blud sheep, serow, goral, takin, musk deer and green pigeon.

Question 17.
What is an ecosystem ?
Answer:
Ecosystem. The biotic community together with the physical environment (abiotic components) forms an interacting system called the ecosystem. It may be natural or artificial. An ecosystem may be temporary e.g. crop field or permanent e.g. forest. An ecosystem may be as big as an ocean or forest or as small as wood. Thus ecosystem is any structural and functional unit of the environment that can be identified.

Ecosystem is an interacting system consisting of a community (living) components and environment (abiotic components) where both influence each other.

Question 18.
What are the advantages of silviculture ?
Answer:
Silviculture is the major project started to replenish forest. It is of two-fold advantages:

Produces large quantities of raw materials.
Increases the area under forests.

Question 19.
What are the functions of biosphere reserves ?
Answer:
Functions of Biosphere Reserve:

It helps to maintain the biodiversity of that area.
It helps to maintain the culture of that area.
It may also contain some other protected area.

Question 20.
Name some animals which are preserved in our wild life Sanctuaries. What do these sanctuaries pose ?
Answer:
Some of the important threatened wild animals like black buck, white eyed buck, elephant, golden cat, pink headed duck, gharial, marsh crocodile, python, rhinoceros, etc. are protected and preserved in our wild life sanctuaries. Indian sanctuaries pose unique landscapes, broad level forests, mountain forests and virgin bush lands in deltas of big rivers.

Question 21.
Write a note on migratory birds.
Answer:
Migratory Birds. Birds who cover long distances to reach another land are known as the migratory birds. The migratory birds are Bar Headed Goose, Great Cormorant. Migratory birds fly to far away specific areas every year during a particular time because of climatic changes. They fly for laying eggs as the weather in their natural habitat becomes very cold and inhospitable.

Question 22.
Write a note on reforestation.
Answer:
Reforestation.
It is the restocking of the destroyed forest by planting more new trees. We should plant at least as many trees as we cut. Reforestation can take place naturally also. If the deforested area is left undisturbed, it re-establishes itself. If we have to retain our green wealth for generations, plantation of more trees is required.

Government of India has implemented the National Forest Policy in 1952. It aimed at forest coverage of one-third of the total land area of the country. On the failure of this policy, Indian government revised the policy in 1980. This was named Forest (conservation) Act. This act aimed at preservation and conservation of natural forests and meeting the basic needs of the people.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List the steps for conservation of wild life.
Answer:
Steps for conservation of wild life :

To preserve the endangered species.
Proper planning and management of land and water so as to protect the natural habitat.
Maximum varieties of food crops, farage plants, timber trees, livestock, animals for aquaculture and their wild relatives should be preserved to maintain gene bank.
Each country should identify the habitat of wild relatives of economically useful organisms and should preserve them.
Wild areas should be protected to preserve the habitat of migratory or wild ranging animals.
To check the over-exploitation of the useful organisms.
International trade in wild plants and animals should be regulated.
Protection of wild life from the activities of poachers and hunters. Indian government enacted “Wild Life Protection Act” in 1972 to declare hunting as an unlawful act.
Emphasis should be laid on the development and creation of parks and sanctuaries, where threatened species could be preserved or introduced.
The observance of “wild life week” is made an annual feature with a view to educate the masses of the importance of wild life.
It is proposed to establish breeding farms, especially for threatened species, so that they can be reared in semi-natural conditions and then introduced in parks and sanctuaries.

Question 2.
List a few advantages of forests.
Answer:
Advantages of Forests:

Forests conserve fertility of soil.
Forests cause rains and maintain water cycle.
Forests provide Wood. Indian forests yield valuable timbers, wood like teak, sal, deodar, shisham etc.
Forests provide Paper. The conifers and bamboos are used as raw material to prepare paper.
Medicinal plants of forests provide medicines of great importance.
Forests provide number of products like resins, gums, rubber, food and insecticides.
Forests also provide the cork e.g. oak (Quercus).
The other useful products which are obtained from the forest e.g. shellac, natural dyes, lac, honey, wax, etc.
Rayon and artificial silk are obtained from cotton linters.
Plastics are also prepared from cellulose nitrate.
Natural rubber is also obtained from the forests.
Forests provide fuel wood.
Forests provide essential oils which are obtained from rosha grass, khas and sandal wood. They are used in the manufacture of soaps, cosmetic, pharmaceuticals, confectionary, pipe and tobacco.
Soap substitute such as ritha and shikakai are important commercial products.
Forests have a great aesthetic value.

Question 3.
Give some sketches of flora and fauna of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals 4

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Force and Pressure Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Give two examples each of situations in which you push or pull to change the state of motion of objects.
Answer:

In a cricket game, fielders stop the ball hit by a batsman.
Brakes applied to stop a moving vehicle.

Question 2.
Give two examples of situations in which applied force causes a change in the shape of an object.
Answer:

1. Pressing a rubber ball placed on a table.
2. Spring fixed in the seat of bicycle pressed down due to weight of the rider.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks in the following statements:
[а] To draw water from a well we have to ………………. at the rope.
[b] A charged body …………….. an uncharged body towards it.
[c] To move a loaded trolley we have to …………………. it.
[d] The north pole of a magnet …………… the north pole of another magnet.
Answer:
(a) pull
(b) attracts
(c) push
(d) repels.

Question 4.
An archer stretches her bow while taking aim at the target. She then releases the arrow, which begins to move towards the target. Based on this information fill up the gaps in the following statements using the following terms.
Muscular, contact, non-contact, gravity, friction, shape, attraction.
[а] To stretch the bow, the archer applies a force that causes change in its …………………. .
[b] The force applied by the archer to stretch the bow is an example of ………………… force.
[c] The type of force responsible for a change in the state of motion of the arrow is an example of a ………………. force.
[d] While the arrow moves towards the target, the forces acting on it are due to ………………….. and that due to ………………….. of air.
Answer:
(a) shape,
(b) muscular,
(c) muscular,
(d) gravity, friction.

Question 5.
In the following situations identify the agent exerting the force and the object on which it acts. State the effect of force in each case.
[a] Squeezing a piece of lemon between the fingers to extract its juice.
[b] Taking out paste from a toothpaste tube.
[c] A load suspended from a spring while its other end is on a hook fixed to a wall.
[d] An athlete making a high jump to clear the bar at a certain height.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 1

Question 6.
A blacksmith hammers a hot piece of iron while making a tool. How does the force due to hammering affect the piece of iron ?
Answer:
The force applied by the hammer flattens the piece of iron i.e. changes its shape and size.

Question 7.
An inflated balloon was pressed against a wall after it has been rubbed with a piece of synthetic cloth. It was found that the balloon sticks to the wall. What force might be responsible for attraction between the balloon and the wall.
Answer:
Electrostatic force.

Question 8.
Name the forces acting on a plastic bucket containing water held above ground level in your hand. Discuss why the forces acting on the bucket do not bring a change in its state of motion.
Answer:
Forces acting on plastic bucket

Force of gravity acting downwards.
Muscular force of arms acting upwards.

The two forces do not bring about any change in state of motion of bucket because both forces are equal and act in the opposite direction and thus cancel each other’s effect.

Question 9.
A rocket has been fired upwards to launch a satellite in its orbit. Name the two forces acting on the rocket immediately after leaving the launching pad.
Answer:
When a rocket leaves launching pad, the following forces act on it:

Gravitational force of earth (downwards).
Propelling force of gases emitted by combustion of fuels (upwards).

Question 10.
When we press the bulb of a dropper with its nozzle kept in water, air in the dropper is seen to escape in the form of bubbles. Once we release the pressure on the bulb, water gets filled in the dropper. The rise of water in the dropper is due to
(a) pressure of Water
(b) gravity of the earth
(c) shape of rubber bulb
(d) atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
(d) atmospheric pressure.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Force and Pressure Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Raman was surprised to see a camel walking easily barefooted on sand but he himself was unable to walk barefoot on sand. What is the reason behind this ?
(a) The surface area of the foot of the camel is more
(b) The surface area of the foot of Raman is more.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) The surface area of the foot of the camel is more.

Question 2.
By exerting force on anything:
(a) results in increasing the speed of the object
(b) results in decreasing the speed of the object
(c) Results in change in the direction of the motion of the object
(d) All the effects are possible.
Answer:
(d) All the effects are possible.

Question 3.
Force is:
(a) a push on an object
(b) a pull on an object
(c) a push or pull on an object
(d) neither a push nor a pull.
Answer:
(c) a push or pull on an object.

Question 4.
The food in the foodpipe is pushed forward during digestive process :
(a) By friction force
(b) Muscular force
(c) Contact force
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Muscular force.

Question 5.
The force of friction on a moving object always acts:
(a) in the direction of motion
(b) opposite to the direction of motion
(c) in the direction of motion upwards
(d) opposite to the direction of motion downwards
Answer:
(b) opposite to the direction of motion.

Question 6.
While carrying luggage on the railway station a ‘coolie’ often rolls his cloth and places it on his head to :
(a) increase force
(b) increase pressure
(c) reduce weight
(d) reduce pressure
Answer:
(d) reduce pressure.

Question 7.
The pressure applied by liquids …………………. with the increase in depth.
(a) decreases
(b) remains same
(c) increases
(d) depends on the nature of liquids
(c) increases.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is common in following actions :
kicking, hitting, lifting, pulling, etc ?
Answer:
In all above actions, force is used to change the motion of the object.

Question 2.
What other terms are used for actions involving motion of objects ?
Answer:
Push or pull.

Question 3.
What is force ?
Answer:
Force. A push or pull that changes or tends to change the state, shape or direction of motion of the body is called force.

Question 4.
What is meant by pressure ?
Answer:
Pressure. Force acting per unit area is called a pressure.

Question 5.
Explain with an example that force can change the speed of an object.
Answer:
Suppose you are going on your bicycle with a speed of 10 m/s in north to south direction, and if your friend gives a strong push to your bicycle in the same direction then the speed of your bicycle will definitely increase.

Question 6.
Give an illustration to show that a force can change the shape of the object.
Answer:
If a rubber ball is pressed in between the two palms, we find that ball is no longer round but becomes oblong.

Question 7.
Give an illustration to show that a force can produce change in both the speed and direction of motion.
Answer:
When the batsman plays the ball thrown by bowler, the speed and direction of the ball changes.

Question 8.
Give an illustration to show that force can change the direction of mofion of an object.
Answer:
In game of football, we can change the direction of a moving football by kicking it.

Question 9.
What causes force to act ?
Answer:
Interaction between two objects.

Question 10.
What happens when force is applied in the direction of motion ?
Answer:
The speed of object increases.

Question 11.
What happens when forces acting on an object are in opposite direction and equal ?
Answer:
Net force will be zero i.e. object will not move in any direction.

Question 12.
What is contact force ?
Answer:
Contact force. The force which acts only, when objects are in contact, is called contact force.

Question 13.
Give examples of contact force.
Answer:
Muscular and frictional forces.

Question 14.
Which type of force is force of gravity ?
Answer:
Non-contact force.

Question 15.
Give an example of non-contact force.
Answer:
Magnetic force.

Question 16.
What is electrostatic force ?
Answer:
Electrostatic force. The force exerted by a charged body is called electrostatic force.

Question 17.
How can pressure be increased or decreased ?
Answer:
By changing the area on which force acts.

Question 18.
Why is the foundation of wall made wider ?
Answer:
To decrease the pressure of the walls on the base.

Question 19.
What is relation between force, area and pressure ?
Answer:
Pressure = Force/Area.

Question 20.
Which type of tool is needed for cutting or piercing ?
Answer:
A sharp edged tool.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is done to stop a moving ball ?
Answer:
To stop a moving ball, equal force is applied in the direction opposite to the direction of motion of the ball.

Question 2.
Can a moving object on a smooth surface stop by itself ? If so, why ?
Answer:
A moving object can stop by itself due to friction between it and the surface on which it is moving. Friction acts in the opposite direction thus, stops the ball.

Question 3.
When is net force applied zero ? Give an example.
Answer:
When two forces are applied in opposite direction and are equal in magnitude then net force is zero. Example : A game of tug-of-war.

Question 4.
Force is a vector quantity. How ?
Answer:
A vector quantity is that quantity which can be represented completely by magnitude as well as direction. To represent the force magnitude as well as direction both are required. Hence force is a vector quantity.

Question 5.
Name various types of forces.
Answer:
The following are the various types of forces:

Muscular force.
Magnetic force.
Electrostatic force.
Gravitational force.
Frictional force.

Question 6.
List two effects of force.
Answer:
Effects of Force.

Force changes the state of motion.
Force changes the shape of an object.

Question 7.
What is state of motion of an object ?
Answer:
State of motion of an object is its speed and direction of motion. The state of rest is when speed is zero. The change in speed or direction of motion or both means a change in state of motion of an object.

Question 8.
Can force change only the direction of motion without any change in speed of an object ? If yes, how ?
Answer:
Yes, force can change only direction of motion without any change in speed of an object. It can be shown as follows:
Experiment.
Take a small stone. Tie it to a string. Whirl string in circular path with your hand. It is noted that stone moves with a constant speed in circular path. But when the whirling is stopped, the stone tries to move in horizontal path. This shows that force applied is used to change the direction of motion of the stone.

Question 9.
Give few examples of muscular force.
Answer:
Muscular force. Walking, breathing, running, lifting, sking, fighting are few activities which require muscular force to accomplish.

Question 10.
Give an example of contact force.
Answer:
When a moving striker collides with a disc on a carrom board, the disc begins to move showing the effect of contact force.

Question 11.
Give two examples of non-contact forces.
Answer:
Examples of non-contact force.

When two magnets lie side by side at a distance they either repel or attract each other.
A charged body can attract or repel other uncharged or charged body even from a distance.

Question 12.
Why is force of gravity termed as non-contact force ? Explain.
Answer:
Force of gravity acts on objects lying on or near the surface of earth. It also acts on distant objects such as shown by leaves falling from trees, water in pipes flowing downwards, revolution of moon around the earth. In all cases, objects are not in contact with the earth. So it is termed as a non-contact force.

Question 13.
Define pressure and what are its units ?
Answer:
Pressure. The force acting per unit area of a surface, is called pressure. Force
Pressure = \(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { Area }}\)
Unit of Pressure is Pascal or N m^-2.

Question 14.
Why do you use sharp edged knife to cut a fruit ?
Answer:
In the sharp edged knife the effect of force increases the pressure on a fruit and thus cut it easily.

Question 15.
Where is pressure greater and the least inside a bottle filled with water ?
Answer:
In a bottle filled with water, the pressure is the greatest at the bottom of the bottle and it is the least at the top of the bottle.

Question 16.
What makes a balloon stretch as it is filled with air ?
Answer:
When we fill air in a balloon, the air exerts pressure on inner surface of the balloon. The pressure of the air inside the balloon stretches it.

Question 17.
Show experimentally that pressure increases with the depth.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 2
The pressure of a liquid depends upon its depth. This can be proved by an experiment given below :
Experiment.
Take a deep vessel having atleast three holes at different heights on one side of the vessel as shown in Fig. Fill it with water. We shall find that the jet of water from the lowest hole reaches the farthest. This proves that at the lowest hole, the force or pressure is
maximum. Fig. Pressure increases with depth.

Question 18.
What is atmospheric pressure ?
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure. Our earth is surrounded by an air column. This air column like liquid columns exerts pressure on all the objects lying on earth. This pressure exerted by air of the atmosphere is called atmospheric pressure.

Question 19.
Atmospheric pressure is so great, why are we not crushed by it ?
Answer:
Our body and the bodies of other organisms are made up of cells which have fluids that exert pressure from within. This pressure exerted from the inside of the cell is equal to the atmospheric pressure and prevents us from being crushed.

Question 20.
The following picture shows the sheet of rubber tied to one side of the pipe filled with water. If the level of water is raised then what will be the effect on balloon of rubber. Give reason.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 3
Answer:
When the level of water is raised in pipe, the rubber sheet tied to the pipe blows. This happens because with the raise of level of water, the pressure exerted on rubber increases.
That is way, rubber sheet blows.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the different types of forces ? Give an example of each.
Answer:
Types of forces:
The following are the different types of forces:
1. Muscular force
2. Magnetic force
3. Electrostatic force
4. Gravitational force
5. Frictional force.

1. Muscular force:
The force applied by a living being with its muscles is known as muscular force e.g., bullocks apply muscular force to draw a cart.

2. Magnetic force:
A magnet has the property of attracting things made of cobalt, nickel, iron or steel. The force produced by a magnetic substance is called the magnetic force e.g., a magnet can move small iron pins.

3. Electrostatic force:
When substances like plastic and terylene are rubbed against each other, charge is excited on them. The force produced due to this electricity is called the electrostatic force e.g., when a glass rod is rubbed with silk, the rod moves bits of paper due to electrostatic force.

4. Gravitational force:
The earth exerts a force of attraction on all things on its surface and beyond. The force of attraction exerted by the earth is called the gravitational force or force due to gravity. An object dropped from a certain height falls on the earth due to the gravitational force.

5. Frictional force:
When an object moves along some other object, the force which acts between the surfaces of a contact of the two objects is called the frictional force. The frictional force opposes the motion of the object e.g., a marble rolled on the ground stops after sometime due to the frictional force.

Question 2.
When a force is applied to a body, state its effect.
Answer:
The following conclusion can be drawn about the effect of force applied to an object:

Change in speed : The applied force can produce a change in the speed of an object.
Change in direction of motion : The applied force can change the direction of motion of object.
Change in both speed and direction of motion : The applied force can produce a change in both the speed and direction of motion.
Change in shape and size of the body : The applied force can change the shape and size of an object.

Question 3.
Mention advantages and disadvantages of force.
Answer:
Advantages of force:

Force can move a stationary object. For example, a toy can be moved by applying force.
It can slow down a moving object. For example, a bicycle slows down on applying force due to brakes.
It can change the direction of motion of an object. For example* a batsman hits the ball and changes its direction.
It can change the shape of an object. For example, squeezing a sponge changes its shape.

Disadvantages of a force:

Frictional force is responsible for wear and tear of tyres of vehicles and of our shoes.
Frictional force also generates heat. This can be harmful. The heat produced in moving machines reduces their efficiency.

Question 4.
Describe an experiment to show that pressure is the same at all points at the same depth.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 4
Experiment.
Take an empty tin can and pierce several holes of equal size at the same height and cover them with cellotape to be opened at will. Now fill the can up to its brim and remove the cellotape in order to open the holes (Fig.). It will be found that water from all the holes traverses equal horizontal distance. This is because of the fact that the pressure at all points is the same at the same depth.

Question 5.
How can you demonstrate the presence of atmospheric pressure experimentally?
Answer:
Experiment.
Take a metallic can. Add little water into it. Remove its cap and heat the can, as shown in Fig. (a). The water boils and steam starts coming out from the mouth of the can. The steam forces out most of the air from the can. Now close the can with an air tight lid. Pour cold water on the can. Due to the cold water, the steam inside the can condenses to a liquid state. A partial vacuum is created. The external pressure (atmospheric) becomes greater than the inside pressure of steam. Hence high external pressure crushes the container [See Fig. (b)].
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 5

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 Colonialism and Tribal Society

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 13 Colonialism and Tribal Society Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 13 Colonialism and Tribal Society

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Colonialism and Tribal Society Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
In which states majority of the people belonging the tribal society lives?
Answer:
Tribal people live more in number in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Orissa.

Question 2.
What are the main occupations of tribal people?
Answer:
Main occupations of tribal people are animal rearing, hunting, catching fish, collection of food items and agriculture.

Question 3.
In which states the tribal people revolted against the Britishers?
Answer:
People of tribal society revolted against the British in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Orissa, Meghalaya, Bengal, etc.

Question 4.
Who was the leader of Khasi tribe?
Answer:
Tirut Singh was the leader of Khasi tribe.

Question 5.
When and which tribe in Chhota Nagpur area revolted against the Britishers?
Answer:
Kol tribe of Chhota Nagpur area revolted firstly against the British in 1820 A.D.

Question 6.
Who was made the leader of Kharodh tribe by the Britishers?
Answer:
One person of Kharodh tribe was thrown out of society. He was called back by the British and was made the head of tribe.

Question 7.
Write a note on Tribal society.
Answer:
Tribal society or tribal people are one of the important part of Indian population. Their population was around 160 millions according to the Census of 1991. A very large population of tribal people live in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh. 23.22% part of total population of Madhya Pradesh belongs to tribes. Some tribes also live in small states and union territories like Sikkim, Goa, Mizoram, Dadra-Nagar Haveli and Lakshadweep. Most of the tribal people belong to Gond, Bhil, Santhal, Mizo and other tribes.

Question 8.
Write a note on Birsa Munda.
Or
What do you know about Birsa Munda?
Answer:
Birsa Munda was a leader of the revolt of the Munda tribe in Bihar (Chhota Nagpur area). He was a very powerful person. He was considered as the messenger of God. He protested motion against such non-tribal people who took away the land of Munda people. Munda people also hate moneylenders and Zamindars because they treated them badly. Birsa Munda told the Munda people to not to pay the taxes to Zamindars. Munda people in Chhota Nagpur region attacked the British officers, missionaries and police stations. But Birsa Munda was arrested by the British and the revolt was crushed.

Question 9.
Write down the effects of the revolt of Birsa Munda.
Answer:
Munda revolt was a powerful tribal revolt. So government started to care about the problems of tribal people after the suppressing of revolt.

All in all impacts of revolt of Munda tribe are given below :

The British Government passed ‘Chhota Nagpur Act’ in 1908. According to this act marginal farmers were given the rights of land.
Social and religious consciousness came among the people of Chhota Nagpur region. Many people started to worship Birsa Munda.
Many new socio-religious movements were started.
Tribal people started to struggle for their rights.

Question 10.
Explain the revolts by tribal society in northern-eastern regions.
Answer:
Khasi revolt. First revolt in North-Eastern region was started by Khasi tribe. They had complete control from Jaintia mountains in East and upto Garo mountains in the west. Tiruth Singh was the founder of this tribe. Khasi people wanted to throw foreigners out of their region. On 5th May, 1829, Khasi people, with the help of Garo people, killed many Europeans and Bengalis. They put European colonies on fire. Tiruth Singh also wanted to remove foreign rule from Bhots and Singphose and some other mountaineous tribes. So he revolted against the British rule with the help of his 10,000 men. On the other side Khasis villages were put on fire one by one by the British. Later on in 1833 A.D., Tiruth Singh surrendered in front of the British army.

Singphos Revolt. When the British soldiers were busy in suppressing the revolt of Khasi tribe, at that time Singphos tribe also revolted against the British. Both of these tribes also invited the other tribes like Khapti, Garo, Naga, to join the revolt. All of them collectively attacked the British army in Assam and killed many Britishers. But they had to surrender because they were unable to face the modern weapons of the British.

Other Revolts,

Khasi tribe again revolted in 1839 A.D. They also killed the political messenger of the Britishers Colonal White and many other Britishers.
Another tribe of North-east Naga also revolted. This revolt lasted for 2-3 years.
Revolt of Kukis in mountainous region of Manipur also lasted for a long time. They were 7,000 in number. They revolted against the British in 1826, 1844 and 1849 A.D. They also killed many British officers. But later on all of these revolts were suppressed by the British government. arrested Kukis were tortured in a number of ways.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Tribal society is an _______ part of the Indian population.
Answer:
important

Question 2.
Tribal people lived in _______ or _______ rooms huts.
Answer:
one, two

Question 3.
From Jaintiya hills to Garo hills territories in East were under the control of the _______ tribe.
Answer:
Khasi

Question 4.
When the British soldiers were facing the revolt of Khasi, another tribe _______ revolted.
Answer:
Singphos.

III. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
Gonds are in minority among the tribes.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The basic unit among tribal people is family.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The Britishers occupied the tribal land for the opium and indigo farming.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Birsa Munda called upon the farmers of Munda tribe to pay the taxes to the Zamindars.
Answer:
False.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Colonialism and Tribal Society Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Who was Birsa?
(a) Leader of Munda tribe
(b) Leader of Oraon tribe
(c) Leader of Ho tribe
(d) Leader of Khasi tribe.
Answer:
(o) Leader of Munda tribe.

Question 2.
Tribal Society is a Society which lives away from our civilization in , valleys and mountains.
(a) Villages
(b) Forests
(c) Towns
(d) Cities.
Answer:
(6) Forests.

Question 3.
_______ made some laws and started to interfere in the internal matters of tribals.
(a) Indian Government
(b) Local Governments
(c) The British
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) The British.

Question 4.
Who used to do Jhum Cultivation?
(a) Villagers
(b) Urban people
(c) Forest dwellers
(d) Jribals.
Answer:
(d) Tribals.

Question 5.
Large number of tribals recruited to work in tea plantations of
(a) Assam
(b) Jharkhand,
(c) Manipur
(d) West Bengal.
Answer:
(a) Assam.

Question 6.
Birsa Munda was arrested in _______
(a) 1890 A.D.
(b) 1895 A.D.
(c) 1888 A.D.
(d) 1898 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1895 A.D.

Question 7.
Birsa Munda was released in _______
(a) 1896A.D.
(b) 1898 AD.
(c) 1897 A.D.
(d) 1899 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1897 A.D.

Question 8.
When did Birsa Munda die?
(a) 1898A.D.
(b) 1899A.D.
(e) 1897A.D.
(d) 1900A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1900 A.D.

Question 9.
Birsa Munda was died due to _______ disease.
(a) Cholera
(b) Plague
(c) T.B.
(d) Fever.
Answer:
(a) Cholera.

Question 10.
What is Sal?
(a) A type of cloth
(b) A type of tree
(c) A type of honey
(d) A type of herb.
Answer:
(b) A type of tree.

Question 11.
Tell the name of the person shown in the picture.

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Mangal Pandey
(d) Teerath Singh.
Answer:
(b) Birsa Munda.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Tribal society is one of the _______ part of Indian population.
Answer:
important

Question 2.
Tribals live in huts with _______ or _______ rooms.
Answer:
one, two

Question 3.
From Jainia hills in the east till Garo hills in the west the area was under the occupation of ______________ tribe.
Answer:
Khasi

Question 4.
When the British soldiers were facing the Khasi revolt, another tribe of _______ also revolted.
Answer:
Singfosa.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer:

Question 1.
Gonds are in minority among the tribes.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
The first basic unit of tribal social system is family.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
The British occupied tribal land only to produce opium and indigo.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Birsa Munda asked the people to not to pay taxes to Zamindars.
Answer:
(✗).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Revolt of Kharodh Tribe	(i) 1855 A.D.
2. Revolt of Santhal Tribe	(ii) 1846 A.D.
3. Munda Revolt	(iii) 1899-1900 A.D.
4. Kol Revolt	(iv) 1820 A.D.

Answer:

A	B
1. Revolt of Kharodh Tribe	(ii) 1846 A.D.
2. Revolt of Santhal Tribe	(iv) 1820 A.D.
3. Munda Revolt	(iii) 1899-1900 A.D.
4. Kol Revolt	(i) 1855 A.D.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by tribal society?
Answer:
Society of tribal people is known as tribal society.

Question 2.
With which tribes Indian tribal people are associated? Name them.
Answer:
Gond, Bhil, Santhal, Mizo, etc.

Question 3.
Tell in brief the regional distribution of the tribal people.
Answer:
Around 63% tribal people live in the mountainous region, 2.2% in islands and 1.6% in cold regions. Other people are scattered in different urban and rural regions.

Question 4.
What was the basic reason of revolts of tribal people against British rule in 19th century?
Answer:
The main reason of revolts of tribal people against British rule in 19th century was wrong policies of the British government. Their land was snatched and their means of livelihood were destroyed.

Question 5.
When Naga revolt of North Eastern region took place? How much it lasts long?
Answer:
Naga revolt of North Eastern region took place in 1844 A.D. It lasted for 2-3 years.

Question 6.
Why was land of tribal people snatched by the British Government?
Answer:
The British wanted to grow opium and indigo due to the commercialization of crops. That’s why their land was snatched by the British government.

Question 7.
Name any four leaders of different tribal revolts.
Answer:
Tirut Singh (Khasi), Sidhu and Kanhu (Santhal) and Birsa Munda (Munda tribe).

Question 8.
Why did the British government start the commercialization of agriculture?
Answer:
The British government started the commercialization of agriculture for their own selfish economic-interests.

Question 9.
Why were tribals against the British rule?
Answer:
The tribals were completely against the new arrangements of the British rule because they did not approve the social and economic changes brought by the British.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give a brief description of houses and occupations of tribal people.
Answer:
Tribal people live in the huts of barely one-two rooms which are made without any planning. These huts are made in 2-4 lines in front of each other. These huts are surrounded by large trees. These people generally rear tamed animals, sheeps and goats. They depend upon local natural and material means. Except these, their occupations include hunting, catching fish, gathering of food and ploughing the field with the help of bulls.

Question 2.
Write a note on family of tribal society.
Answer:
Family is the first social unit of tribal society. Women play a very important role in household works of the family. Main functions of women are making food, collecting wood, cleaning and washing the clothes. They help males in their agricultural work. This work includes levelling the land, sowing the seeds, cutting the crops, etc. Main functions of males are cutting the jungles, levelling of the land, ploughing the field etc. Because females help in a great deal to men in their works, that’s why the custom of polygamy exists in tribal society.

Question 3.
Write a note on revolt of Khasi tribe in the North-Eastern region of the country.
Answer:
First revolt in the North-Eastern region was started by Khasis tribe. They had complete control from Jaintia mountains in East and upto Garo mountains in the west.

Tirut Singh was the founder of this tribe. Khasi people wanted to throw foreigners out of their region. On 5th May, 1829, Khasis people, with the help of Garo people, killed many Europeans and Bengalis. They put European colonies on fire. Tirut Singh also wanted to remove foreign rule from other mountainous tribes as well. So he revolted against the British rule with the help of his 10,000 people. On the other [side Khasi villages were put on fire one on one by the British. Later on in 1833 A.D. Tirut Singh surrendered before the British army.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the changes that occurred in the tribal society and their economic condition. ‘ (P.S.E.B. 2009)
Answer:
Tribal society. Tribal society or tribal people are one of the most important parts of Indian population. Their population was around 160 millions according to the census of 1991. Large population of tribal society live in the states’of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh. 23.22% of total population of Madhya Pradesh belong to tribal society. Some tribes also live in small states like Sikkim, Goa, Mizoram, Dadra-Nagar Haveli, Lakshadweep. Most of the tribal people belong to tribes like Gond, Bhil, Santhal, Mizo, etc.

Out of these tribal people, 63% live in mountainous region, 2.2% five in islands and 1.6% live in colder regions. Others are scattered in different urban and rural regions. These people live in the huts of one or two rooms. These huts are made in line with each other. These huts are surrounded by large trees. These people rear animals like sheep, goat, etc. They depends upon the local natural and physical means. Main occupations of these people are hunting, catching fish, collecting food and agriculture.

Family: Family is the first social unit of tribal society. Women play very important role in household works of the family. Main functions of females are making food, collecting wood, cleaning and washing the clothes. They help th’e males in agricultural works. This work includes levelling the land, sowing the seeds, cutting the crops, etc. Main functions of males are cutting the jungle, levelling the land, ploughing the field, etc. Because females help in a great deal to men in their works, that’s why the custom of polygamy exist in tribal society.

Changes in Economic Condition of Tribal society : Tribal people were very poor in 19th century under the British rule. Their living style was greatly affected by the British rule. Their ancient social and economic structures were completely changed by the British. It led to adverse impact on tribal society and their economy. Commercialization of crops was done by the British government to protect their economic interests. The government captured the land of tribal people for the agriculture of opium and indigo. As a result, tribal people were forced to do labour work. But they were given very less wages for their work. They were forced to take loans for their livelihood. It’s result came in adverse impact on their economic condition.

Tribal people were totally against these social and economic changes. That’s *.vhy resentment came among them against the British.

Question 2.
Explain the revolts by tribal society in Chhota Nagpur area.
Answer:
Revolts of Chhota Nagpur region against the British rule were very important. Out of these, revolt of Munda tribe was of great importance. A brief description of these revolts is given below :
1. Revolt of Kol tribe. First of all people of Kol tribe revolted against the British rule of Chhota Nagpur region in 1820 A.D. They didn’t tolerate the expansion of the British rule in their region. They put many villages on fire. Koli rebels were killed in great number that’s why they were forced to surrender in front of the British in 1827 A.D.

2. Revolt of Munda tribe. Munda tribe of Chhota Nagpur region also revolted against the British in 1830-31. People of Kol tribe also took part in it. Very quickly, this revolt spread till Ranchi, Hazari Bagh, Palamu and Anmum. Around 1,000 rebels were killed by the British. Even then it was unable to suppress the revolt completely. In the end, this revolt was suppressed in 1832 A.D. after army’s intervention. Even then activities of Munda and Kol people against the government hardly came to an end.

3. Revolt of Kharodh tribe. Kharodh tribe of Chhota Nagpur region also revolted against the British in 1846 A.D. They attacked the camp of British captain Macfferson and forced him to surrender with his 170 officials. People of other neighbouring tribes also joined the Kharodh tribe. But this revolt was crushed by the British in that same year. They called back Kharodh leader from outside and made him the head of Kharodh people.

4. Santhal Revolt. The Santhals also revolted against the British in 1855 A.D. They were 10,000 in number. They were lead by two brothers Sidhu and Kanhu. Santhal’s blocked the railway line between Bhagalpur and mountaineous region of Rajmahal. They attacked the British bunglows with swords and poisonous arrows. Many British officers of Railway and police were killed by them. The British army followed them.

But they went over to jungles. Later on in 1856, they faced the British soldiers. In the end their leaders were arrested and were tortured to a great deal.

5. Second Revolt of Munda tribe. Munda tribe has been a very famous tribe of Bihar. During British rule, many non-tribal people settled in the tribal regions. They snatched land from the tribal people. That’s why tribal people were forced to do labour work for non-tribal people. When they got frustrated, then they revolted under the leadership of Birsa Munda. The main revolt was started in the southern region of Ranchi in 1899-1900. The main objective of this revolt was to replace the British rule with Munda rule.

Birsa Munda stood against those non-tribal people who took away the land from the Munda people. Munda people also hate the moneylenders and Zamindars because they used to treat them badly. Birsa Munda told the Munda people not to pay the rent to Zamindars. Munda people in the Chhota Nagpur region attacked the British officers, missionaries, and police stations. But Birsa Munda was arrested by the British and revolt was crushed by them.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 The Changes in Arts, Painting, Literature and Architecture

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 20 The Changes in Arts, Painting, Literature and Architecture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 20 The Changes in Arts, Painting, Literature and Architecture

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB The Changes in Arts, Painting, Literature and Architecture Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Who has written ‘Anand Math?
Answer:
Anand Math Novel was written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.

Question 2.
Write down the names of the writers of short stories.
Answer:
Famous writers of short stories were Ravindra Nath Tagore, Premchand, Jaspal, Tejendra Kumar, Krishna Chand, etc.

Question 3.
Who established the printing press in India and when?
Answer:
First printing press of India was started by Portuguese in 1557 A.D.

Question 4.
Which two newspapers Bal Gangadhar Tilak started publishing?
Answer:
Newspapers called ‘Kesari’ in Marathi language and ‘Maratha’ in English language.

Question 5.
Write down the famous painters of Art School of Baroda University.
Answer:
G.R. Santosh, Ghulam Sheikh, Shanti Dev, etc.

Question 6.
Write down the famous artists of Madras School of Art.
Answer:
D.R. Choudhary, K.C.S. Pannikar, Satish Gujral, Ram Kumar and K.G. Subramaniyam.

Question 7.
Write down a note on the literature of 19th and the beginning of the 20th century.
Answer:
Every section of literature developed in 19th and at the beginning of 20th century whose description is given below :
1. Novels, Stories, etc. Katha literature.

Famous writers of the Bengali literature were Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, Michael Madhusudan Dutt, Sharat Chandra Chatterjee etc. ‘Anand Math’ novel of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee is known as ‘Bible of modern Bengali Patriotism’.
Munshi Premchand throws light on the exploitation of peasants by the British government through his novels ‘Godan’ and ‘Rangbhumi’. He wrote many other novels in Hindi and in Urdu language.
Writers like Hemchandra Benarjee, Dinbandhu Mitra, Rabindra Nath Tagore etc. wrote a lot about patriotism.

2. Poetry. Romanticism in Indian poetry started when it came in contact with European literature. But more stress is given on nationalism and national movement in Indian poetry. Famous poets, who prospered Indian poetry, were Rabindra Nath Tagore (Bengali), Iqbal (Urdu), Keshav Sut (Marathi), Subramaniyam Bharti (Tamil) etc.

3. Dramas and Cinema. Indian Dramatists and artists tried to write Eastern and Western style of drama. Famous dramatists of this age were Girish Karnands (Kannada), Vijay Tendulkar (Marathi), Mulakhraj Anand and R.K. Narayan (English). Rabindra Nath Tagore gave stress on National consciousness and International Humanism through his writings.

Question 8.
Write down a note on the painting of 19th and the beginning of the 20th century.
Answer:
A new form to painting was given by different art schools and art groups in 19th and at the start of 20th century.

It’s description is given below :

Raja Ravi Verma painted European Naturalism by mixing it with Indian myths legends.
Painters of Bengal Art School, Rabindra Nath Tagore, Havell Kumarswami made paintings based on traditional stories, epics and ancient literature.
Paintings of Amrita Shergill and George Keyt were very much influenced by modern European art, modern spirit and symbols. Colour-scheme used by George Keyt was very impressive.
Rabindra Nath Tagore made beautiful paintings through watercolours and coloured chalks. Rabindra Nath Tagore
Paintings of flowers and women made by famous artists of Bombay were very beautiful because of their colours. Names of Francis Newton Souza, K.H. Ara, S.K. Banner can be taken in this regard. Except this, there is a great contribution of Baroda University of Art, Madras Art School and National Gallery of Modern Art in making painting popular.

Question 9.
What do you mean by the changes in Performing Arts?
Answer:
Mainly music, painting, dances and dramas are included in the fine-art. Indian heritage was very prosperous in these fields before the advent of Britishers. Classical music, Indian and Carnatic music school of our country are some of the examples of this prosperous heritage of India.

Folk music and folk dance of our country fills encouragement among the people. Names of Indian classical dances, Kathakali, Kuchipudi and Kathak are included in this.
Dramas played on the stage and puppet shows are important aspects of our cultural tradition.
Different types of musical instruments, like Sitar, Tumbi, Drum (Harp), (Sarangi), Tabla (Tabor) etc. are famous in India. Flute, Shehnai (clarionet) are musical instruments that run with air.
Great artists of India like Kumar Gandharva, Ravi Shankar, Rukmani Devi, Ragini Devi, Uday Shankar, and Rabindra Nath Tagore became very famous in the fields of Indian music and dance.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Much literature was written in _______ language during the 19th century.
Answer:
Bengali

Question 2.
Bande Matram the national song was written by _______
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chatterji

Question 3.
Munshi Prem Chand wrote many novels in _______ and _______ language.
Answer:
Urdu, Hindi

Question 4.
Amrita Sher Gill and _______ were the great Indian painters.
Answer:
George Keyt.

III. Write True or False in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
Prince of Wales Museum is known as ‘Chhatterpati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahalya’.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Marina Coastal is 10 Kilometer long.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
War Memorial is made in the memory of martyrdoms of the First World War.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The Legislature and Secretariat Offices of Tamil Nadu are located in the Fort St. George building.
Answer:
True.

IV. Things To Do :

Question 1.
Write ‘Bande Matram’ national anthem on chart and sing it.
Answer:
Do it yourself

Question 2.
Make a chart of “Jan Gan, Man’ the National Anthem.
Answer:
Do it yourself

Question 3.
To know about famous folk dances – Bhangra and Gidha etc. of Punjab.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide The Changes in Arts, Painting, Literature and Architecture Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
An accepted norm or style is called
(a) Convention
(b) Commission
(c) Engraving
(d) Mural.
Answer:
(a) Convention.

Question 2.
The art form which observed carefully and tried to capture what the eye saw is called
(a) Realism
(b) Picturesque
(c) Portrait
(d) History painting.
Answer:
(a) Realism.

Question 3.
The Style of painting which showed Indian landscape as a quaint, unexplored land is known as
(a) Portrait
(b) Picturesque
(c) Realism
(d) History painting.
Answer:
(b) Picturesque.

Question 4.
Paintings which showed the social lives of Europeans in India are called
(a) Realism
(b) History painting
(c) Portrait
(d) Picturesque.
Answer:
(c) Portrait.

Question 5.
_______ are the paintings which depicted scenes from British imperial history and their victories.
(a) Picturesque
(b) Realism
(c) Portrait
(d) History painting.
Answer:
(d) History painting.

Question 6.
Which of these was brought in India with British art?
(a) Oil painting
(b) Miniatures
(c) Use of perspective
(d) Mural art.
Answer:
(a) Oil painting.

Question 7.
Painting made by Francis Hayman in _______depicts the British victory in the Battle of Plassey.
(a) 1770 A.D.
(b) 1762 A.D.
(c) 1766 A.D.
(d) 1768 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1762 A.D.

Question 8.
Who wanted to develop a national style of art?
(a) Raja Ravi Verma
(b) Ravindranath Tagore
(c) Aabindranath Tagore
(d) Francis Hayman.
Answer:
(c) Aabindranath Tagore.

Question 9.
Who decided to set up a picture production team and printing press in Bombay?
(a) Raja Ravi Verma
(b) Ravindranath Tagore
(c) Aabindranath Tagore
(d) Francis Hayman.
Answer:
(a) Raja Ravi Verma.

Question 10.
Which of these new things was introduced by colonial rule in India?
(a) New art forms
(b) New Styles
(c) New materials
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 11.
European artists came to India along with British
(a) Sailors
(b) Traders
(c) Warriors
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Traders.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
During _______ century, much of the Bengali literature was written.
Answer:
19th century

Question 2.
Vande Matram was written by _______
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 3.
Munshi Prem Chand wrote many novels in _______ and _______ languages.
Answer:
Urdu, Hindi

Question 4.
_______ is famous beach in Chennai.
Answer:
Marina beach

Question 5.
Vande Matram, the national song was written by _______
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Prince of Wales Museum is presently known as ‘Chatrapati Shivaji Museum’.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Marina beach is 10 kilometer long.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
War Memorial was made in the memory of the soldiers martyred during First World War.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Vande Matram was included in a book Anand Marriage.
Answer:
(✗).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Fort St. George	(i) Beach
2. V.G.B. Golden Beach	(ii) Madras
3. Anand Math	(iii) Munshi Prem Chand
4. Godan	(iv) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Answer:

A	B
1. Fort St. George	(ii) Madras
2. V.G.B. Golden Beach	(i) Beach
3. Anand Math	(iv) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
4. Godan	(iii) Munshi Prem Chand

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From which novel National Song of Wande Matram’ was taken?
Answer:
From the novel ‘Anand Math’.

Question 2.
Which novel of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee is known as ‘Bible of Bengali Patriotism’ and why?
Answer:
Bengali novel ‘Anand Math’, because many patriotic songs are there in it.

Question 3.
Name any two famous novels of Munshi Premchand.
Answer:
Godan and Rangbhoomi.

Question 4.
Name two newspapers published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Answer:
Samvad Kaumudi and Mirat-ul-Akhbar.

Question 5.
Who was Raja Ravi Verma?
Answer:
Raja Ravi Verma was a famous painter and sculpture of modern India. His pictures and paintings were associated with Indian epics and Sanskrit literature.

Question 6.
Where was Kala Bhavan established by Rabindra Nath Tagore?
Answer:
At Shanti Niketan.

Question 7.
Name two famous painters of Madras Art School.
Answer:
D.R. Chaudhary and K.C.S. Panikar.

Question 8.
Name three musical instruments which run with air.
Answer:

Flute
Shehnai (clarionet)
Algoza.

Question 9.
What is the modern name of Prince of Wales Museum of Mumbai? With which building it is situated?
Answer:
Modern name of Prince of Wales Museum of Mumbai is ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahqlaya’. It is situated near to Gateway of India.

Question 10.
By which two architects, Gateway of India was built?
Answer:
John Wiltet and his friend John Beigh.

Question 11.
Name two famous Sea Beaches of Chennai.
Answer:
Merina Beach and V.G.B. Golden Beach.

Question 12.
In whose memory, War Memorial of Chennai was built?
Answer:
It was built in the memory of soldiers died in the First World War.

Question 13.
Raja Ravi Verma was a great artist. Which field of art was he associated with?
Answer:
He was a painter.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the development in the field of novels from 19th century till the beginning of 20th century.
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, Michael Madhu Sudan Dutt and Sharat Chandra Chatterjee were famous scholars of Bengali literature in modern age. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee wrote famous novel ‘Anand Math’ in Bengali language. Many national songs were there in it. Our national song Vande Matram’ is also one of them. Presently it is known as ‘Bible of Bengali Patriotism’.

Munshi Prem Chand also wrote many novels in Urdu and Hindi language. He threw light on the exploitation of peasants by British in his novels ‘Godan’ and ‘Rangbhoomi’. Writings of scholars like Hemchandra Benerjee, Dinbandhu Mitra, Rang Lai, Keshav Chandra Sen, Rabindra Nath Tagore became very popular and they filled sense of patriotism among the people.

Question 2.
Describe the development of poetry from 19th century till the beginning of 20th century.
Answer:
Romanceism started in Indian poetry when it came in contact with European literature. But Indian poetry gave more stress on Nationalism and National movement.

Famous poets of India are Rabindra Nath Tagore (Bengali), Iqbal (Urdu), Qazi Nazrool Islam (Bengali), Keshav Sat (Marathi), Subramaniyam Bharti (Tamil) etc. But poetry after 1936 A.D. tells the story of daily life and misery of the people. Faiz and Mezaz (Urdu), Jivan Nand Dass (Bengali), Agya and Mukti Bodh (Hindi) were some of the poets who gave new poetry. After independence, poetry was composed by poets like Raghuvir Sahai, Kedarnath Singh (Hindi), Shakti Chattopadhyaya (Bengali) etc.

Question 3.
Which developments took place in the Helds of dramas and cinema from 19th century till the beginning of 20th century A.D.?
Answer:
Indian artists and dramatists tried to mix western and eastern styles of dramas from 19th century till the beginning of 20th century. Cinema organization gave a great contribution is arosing interests of the people in dramas and cinema. Girish Karnad (Kannada), Vijay Tendulkar (Marathi) etc. were famous dramatists of this age. Mulakh Raj Anand, Raja Rao, R.K. Narayan wrote dramas in English language.

Rabindra Nath Tagore was also a famous dramatist of this age. We can find a beautiful mixture of ancient Indian traditions and European culture in his writings. He tried to develop National Consciousness and International Humanism through his writings.

Question 4.
Write down a note on Fort St. George.
Answer:
Fort St. George situated at Chennai was the first British fort in India. It was made in 1639 A.D. It’s name was kept on the name of St. George. This fort became the centre of commercial activities of the British. This fort gave a great contribution in establishing the British supremacy in the Karnatic region. In present age, Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu state and offices of the Secretariate are situated in this building. Pictures of Tipu Sultan are still there on the walls of this fort which increases its glory.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the development in the field of Painting in the 19th and the beginning of the 20th century.
Answer:
Many changes came in the field of Indian painting during 19th century and at the beginning of 20th century. These changes were brought by art schools and art groups.

Their brief description is given below :
1. Raja Ravi Verma. Raja Ravi Verma was a great artist in the field of painting. He was not only good at painting but he was also famous for the making of sculptures. He made pictures by mixing European naturism with Indian myths legends. Pictures made by him are associated with Indian epics and Sanskrit literature. He expressed Indian glorious past through the medium of paintings.

2. Art School of Bengal. A number of steps were taken by Rabindra Nath Tagore and Havell Kumarswami to popularise Bengali Art school. Famous painters of this school made paintings based on Indian historical stories, epics and ancient literature. They made small pictures with water colours. Rabindra Nath Tagore used water colours in Japanese technique. He even established Kala-Bhavan in Shanti-Niketan.

3. Amrita Shergil and George Keyt. Amrita Shergil and George Keyt were also quite famous Indian painters. They had the knowledge of modern European art, modem animism and symbols. Disserent Paintings of Amrita Shergil were different from each other but she made pictures of Indian females. Colour-style used by George Keyt in his paintings was quite impressive.

4. Rabindra Nath Tagore. Paintings of Rabindra Nath Tagore were based on his own experiences. He made many pictures outlined by coloured chalks and filled with water colours.

5. Famous Artists of Bombay. Francis Newton Souza was one of the most famous artists of this school. He made pictures of different models with impressive colours. Paintings of flowers and women made by K.H. Ara were famous for their colours and specificness. S.K. Bakre, H.A. Gade and M.F. Hussain are other famous painters of Bombay.

6. Art School of Baroda (Vadodhra) University. G.R. Santosh, Ghulam Sheikh, Shanti Dev are famous painters of this school. Every artist of this school has its own style of painting but modernity can be seen in every work of every artist.

7. Art School of Madras. This school was prospered after independence under the guidance of D.R. Chaudhary and K.C.S. Pannikar. Other famous artists of this school were Satish Gujral, Ram Kumar and K.G. Subramaniyam.

Except these art schools, models of modern art can be seen in National Gallery of Modern Art. Lalit Kala Academy has encouraged the artists by giving them scholarships, grants, etc.

Question 2.
Explain the progress of press in the 19th and the beginning of the 20th century.
Answer:
There was no printing press in India before the British rule. Newspapers in Mughal rule were hand written which were prepared by Mughal emperor and rich businessmen for their own use. First printing press in India was established by Portuguese in 1557 A.D. But their objective was to print Christian literature and to propagate Christianity.

Development of Press till 1857 A.D.:

Newspapers started to be printed at Calcutta and other cities due to press related liberal policy of Lord Hastings. One famous journalist J.S. started to print newspaper, called ‘Calcutta Journal’, in 1818 A.D. At the same time G.C. Marshman star ted, to print newspapers ‘Darpan’ and ‘Digdarshan’ in Sarumpur.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy started to publish ‘Samvad Kaumudi’ in Bengali language in 1821 A.D. and ‘Mirat-ul-Akhbar’ in Persian language in 1822 A.D. At the same time Furdoonji Murzbaan started to publish a newspaper ‘Bombay Samachar’ in Gujarati language.

Development of Press After 1857 A.D:
A number of newspapers started to publish after 1857-58 A.D. in different parts of the country. Later on, the Press developed to a great deal during 1881-1907 A.D. For example, Bal Gangadhar Tilak started to publish ‘Kesari’ in Marathi language and ‘Maratha’ in English language. Due to efforts of Ghosh brothers, newspapers of ‘Yugantar’ and “Vande Matram’ started to be published in Bengal and they started to raise their voice against the British rule. Monthly papers also started to be published in this age. ‘The Hindustan Review’ from 1899 A.D., ‘The Indian Review’ from 1900 A.D. and ‘The Modern Review’ from 1907 gaj Gangadhar Tilak A.D. were some of the famous monthly papers.

Question 3.
Explain the case study of: Mumbai and Chennai.
Answer:
Bombay is known as Mumbai these days and Madras is known as Chennai. Both of these cities became the main presidencies during British rule. Very quickly these cities became centres of political, commercial and cultural activities. Both of these cities developed to a great deal in music and dance as well.
1. Mumbai. Instead of political and commercial activities, Bombay became the centre of cultural activities under the East India Company in 1668 A.D. This city got royal protection and that’s why, many new schools and colleges were opened over here. All round development of music, dance and dramas took place over here. Field of literature also developed very quickly due to the development of new style of writing. Except this new styles of literature, painting and architecture were also developed.

Buildings of Mumbai. Different models of architecture of Mumbai still remind us about Colonial rulers and their style. All these building are made in Indo-European style.

Their brief description is given below :
(а) Prince of Wales Museum. Prince of Wales Museum is known as the ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahalya’ these days. It is situated in south Mumbai near to Gateway of India. It was made in the beginning of 20th century in the memory of Indian Journey of Prince of Wales and Ruler of Britain Edward VII. The work of building was given to a famous architect George Wiltet in 1909 A.D. It was completed in 1915 A.D. It is a beautiful mixture of many elements of architectural technique. This building has three floors and on the top, dome is there. This dome looks alike the dome of Taj Mahal. Its windows and floor match with the palaces of Mughals. Symbols of monuments of ancient India and architecture of Indus Valley Civilization can be seen over here.

(b) Gate Way of India. Gate Way of India is situated near to the Prince of Wales Museum on the coast of Arabic Sea. It was made by George Wiltet and his friend John Beigh. It was made in the memory of Delhi Durbar Journey of George V and Queen Mary in India.

(c) Victoria Terminas. Victoria Terminas was prepared in 1888 A.D. Now it is known as the ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminas’. It’s earlier name was kept on the name of the Ruler of Britain Queen Victoria. Its model was prepared by the famous British architect F.W. Starus (Stievans). It took around 10 years to built this terminas. It was given the name of ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminas’ in March 1996. It was included in the world heritage of UNESCO on the 2nd July 2004.

(d) Other Buildings of Mumbai. There are many other important buildings in Mumbai except the previously mentioned buildings and these are General Post Office, Municipal Corporation, Raja Bhai Tower, Bombay University. All these buildings were built in 19th and 20th centuries.

2. Chennai. Chennai (Madras) was built in 1639 A.D. by taking land from the local leaders. It was developed into a metropolitan city in 1658 A.D. and it became a presidency. Every type of art of Southern India, like dance and music, was developed over here. Many buildings were built over here in the 19th and 20th centuries.

Following are the famous places of Chennai:

Sea Beaches of Chennai. Sea beaches of Chennai are very famous all over India. Merina Beach is quite famous out of these beaches. It is around 6 km long. Many famous buildings are situated in front of it. V.G.B. Golden beach is one of the other famous beaches of Chennai. It is generally overcrowded by children due to the availability of toy trains over here.
War Memorial. War memorial is also a beautiful building that was built in Chennai. It was built in the memory of the soldiers who had died during the First World War.
High Court. Building of High Court of Chennai completed in 1892 A.D. It is the second famous Judicial complex in the world. Its dome and galleries are fine examples of Indo-European architectural techniques.
Other Famous Buildings. Other famous buildings of Chennai which were made during British rule are George Tower, Saint Thomas Cathedral Basilika, Presidency College, Rippen Building, Chennai Central Station, Southern Railway Headquarters, etc.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 BeeKeeping

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 6 BeeKeeping Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 6 BeeKeeping

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB BeeKeeping Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one to two words:

Question 1.
Name two hive-bee species.
Answer:
Indian bees, Italian bees.

Question 2.
How many legs a honey bee has?
Answer:
Three pairs.

Question 3.
Name two wild species of honey bees.
Answer:
Rock bee, little bee.

Question 4.
Which is the most suitable period to start beekeeping in Punjab?
Answer:
February-March and November.

Question 5.
How many days a drone bee takes to complete its life cycle?
Answer:
24 days.

Question 6.
Do you have to pay fee for getting beekeeping training?
Answer:
No.

Question 7.
How many bee frames should be used to start a new colony for higher profit?
Answer:
Eight bee frames.

Question 8.
What material is used by honey bees to seal ripe honey?
Answer:
Bees wax.

Question 9.
After how much period, queen bee in a colony should be replaced?
Answer:
After every year.

Question 10.
Are the worker bees male or female?
Answer:
Female.

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
Where do rock bees construct their comb?
Answer:
Rock bees construct their comb on projections of water tanks, buildings, rocks, tree branches, etc.

Question 2.
How will you differentiate new and old queen bee?
Answer:
New queen has long firm abdomen and is golden brown in colour. Old queen has dark brown or black adbomen and is sluggish in movement.

Question 3.
From where training on beekeeping may be obtained?
Answer:
Training on beekeeping may be obtained from PAU, Ludhiana, Krishi Vigyan Kendras or Department of agriculture.

Question 4.
How will you shift honey bee colonies to shady place during summer season?
Answer:
To protect bees from heat in summer, colonies should be shifted to the thick shade by 2-3 feet daily. Ventilation should be proper for the hives. There should be a sources of water near the apiary.

Question 5.
What should be hive to hive and row to row distance of colonies in an apiary?
Answer:
Hive to hive distance should be 6-8 feet and row to row distance should be 10 feet.

Question 6.
What hive products other than honey can be obtained from honey bee colonies?
Answer:
Hive products obtained from colonies other than honey are bees wax, propolis bee venom, royal jelly etc.

Question 7.
Why should not unripe honey be extracted?
Answer:
We should not extract unripe honey because its shelf life is low.

Question 8.
How can honey be filtered?
Answer:
After extracting honey we should remove wax and floating impurities from the extracted-honey for this use double layer muslin cloth for filtering the honey.

Question 9.
What are the equipment’s required for starting beekeeping?
Answer:
Equipment’s required for starting beekeeping are-hive tool, bee veil, smoker and comb foundation etc.

Question 10.
Write a note on honey marketing.
Answer:
There are traders and exporters who procure honey. Several self help groups (SHG) are also involved in the marketing of honey. Bottling of honey in attractive bottles having proper information labels fixed on them add to the profit from honey trading.

Question 1.
What care should be taken while purchasing honey bee colonies?
Answer:

Start beekeeping at suitable time, in Punjab suitable time for starting bee keeping is February to March and November.
For higher productivity starts new colony with eight bee frames.
Purchase new colony which have mated new queen, open and sealed brood, pollen and brood but have minimum number of drone brood and drone bees.
Shift colonies during late night or early morning with closed gates of the hives.

Question 2.
Explain the process of honey extraction.
Answer:
Honey is ready for extraction, it is indicated from the holes in the frame if 75% of holes are sealed, we can extract honey. Honey should not be extracted unripe, because its shelf life is low and it becomes sour in short duration. Remove bees from the frames by shaking and with the help of bees brush. We can use machines for extracting honey or it can be done manually. Remove wax layer from honey combs by using uncapping knife. After extraction, empty combs should be returned to the colonies. Remove the impurities and filter the honey using double muslin cloth.

Question 3.
How can bees wax be extracted?
Answer:
While extracting honey, wax layer is removed from the comb using uncapping knife. Put this wax, very old, broken or damaged combs or wild bee combs in hot water and filter it using thick cloth. Discard the impurities which remained on the top of the cloth. Allow the molten wax in hot water to settle for a night. Wax floats on the water surface as a harden block. This can be collected easily.

Question 4.
What are the. subsidy facilities being provided by the Government in Punjab?
Answer:
For encouraging the beekeeping occupation, government is providing subsidy on bee hive and honey bee colonies through National Horticulture Mission. Government also provides subsidy on honey extracting machine, uncapping knife, drip tray, food grade plastic container for honey.

Question 5.
Explain importance of beekeeping.
Answer:
Beekeeping is an important and beneficial agricultural based subsidiary occupation. One can earn good income from this occupation. This can be adopted by women, farmers, students etc. as subsidiary occupation. Italian Honey bees can yield 20 kg of honey per colony per year under stationary beekeeping and 60 kg honey per colony per year can be obtained under migratory beekeeping conditions. Other than honey, we can get bee wax, propolis, pollen, bee venom and royal jelly. These are also source of income, one can earn by selling queen bees and colonies etc. Honey bees also help in increasing the crop yield by pollination of field, crops, fruit and vegetable crops.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide BeeKeeping Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Which species of the bee was reared earlier, in India?
Answer:
Only Indian bees.

Question 2.
Which states were involved in beekeeping in earlier times?
Answer:
Hilly and southern areas.

Question 3.
How much honey can be obtained per colony per year from Italian bees under stationary conditions?
Answer:
20 kg.

Question 4.
How much honey can be obtained per colony per year from Italian bees under migratory conditions?
Answer:
60 kg.

Question 5.
How many body parts are there in bee body?
Answer:
Three parts-head, thorax, abdomen.

Question 6.
Which are male bees? Do they sting?
Answer:
Drone bee, No they do not have sting.

Question 7.
Does queen bee has sting?
Answer:
Yes, it has.

Question 8.
When does a queen bee use its sting?
Answer:
Against rival queen bee.

Question 9.
Which state is leader in honey production?
Answer:
Punjab.

Question 10.
How many worker bees can be there in a colony of bees?
Answer:
8000 to 80,000 and sometimes more.

Question 11.
Which species of bee is more aggressive?
Answer:
Rock bee.

Question 12.
What is the size of Indian bee?
Answer:
Medium size.

Question 13.
Which bees are produced from unfertilized eggs?
Answer:
Male bees.

Question 14.
What can be the maximum age of worker bees?
Answer:
One to one and half month i.e. six weeks.

Question 15.
Which season is suitable for starting beekeeping?
Answer:
Spring (February to April).

Question 16.
Name species of bees found in India.
Answer:
Little bee, rock bees, Indian bee, Italian bee.

Question 17.
What is common name of Apis Florea?
Answer:
Little bee.

Question 18.
What is common name of Apis Mellifera?
Answer:
Italian bee.

Question 19.
Which bee species is reared in Punjab?
Answer:
Italian bee.

Question 20.
What is life period for a queen bee?
Answer:
2-4 years.

Question 21.
What is the function of drones in the colony?
Answer:
They mate with queen bee.

Question 22.
Which bees are produced from fertilized eggs?
Answer:
Worker bees.

Question 23.
In which direction should bee hives face?
Answer:
Facing the sun.

Question 24.
What is the position of Punjab in the production of honey?
Answer:
It is a leading state.

Question 25.
How do bees help us?
Answer:
They help by pollinating crops in the fields, flowers, vegetables etc. and help in increasing the yield.

Question 26.
Name the wild species of bee.
Answer:
Rock bee and Little bee.

Question 27.
Where does the rock bee construct its comb?
Answer:
Projection of water tanks, buildings, rocks and thick branches of trees.

Question 28.
Where does the little bee construct its comb?
Answer:
In bushes, stacked sticks or thin twigs of trees.

Question 29.
Which species of the bees are reared?
Answer:
Indian and Italian bees.

Question 30.
How many castes of Honey bees are there in a colony?
Answer:
Three-queen, worker, drones.

Question 31.
Describe queen bee.
Answer:
It is long, light brown and shining.

Question 32.
What is difference between abdomen of worker and drone bee?
Answer:
Worker bees have conical abdomen and drones have roundish and hairy adbomen.

Question 33.
Write name of crops which are used by bees for getting nectar and pollen?
Answer:
Sheesham, khair, litchi, ber, cucurbits, peach etc.

Question 34.
Which is the second best season for bee keeping?
Answer:
October-November (Autumn Season).

Question 35.
In which season bee activities are slow?
Answer:
Winter season (December to January).

Question 36.
Why should there be water source near the bee live?
Answer:
Bees use water to cool their comb.

Question 37.
What should be distance between boxes?
Answer:
10 feet.

Question 38.
What is Propolis?
Answer:
It is honey gum.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about queen bee?
Answer:
Queen plays the role of laying eggs and maintains the colony. It can lay 1500 to 2000 eggs in a day. It can live for many years but its capacity to lay eggs starts reducing after one year. It have long firm abdomen, light brown in colour, wings of queen bee does not cover its abdoment completely.

Question 2.
How is Italian bee better than other species of bees?
Answer:
Quantity of honey obtained from Italian bee is more than the quantity of honey obtained from other species and it is not aggressive.

Question 3.
What arrangement should be done at bee farm for sunlight and shade?
Answer:
There should be arrangement of sunlight in winter and of shade in summer, plant autumn trees near it.

Question 4.
What are the four stages of honey bee?
Answer:
Egg, larva, pupa, adult.

Question 5.
Write a note on life span of queen and its replacement?
Answer:
Queen honey bee has a life span of 2-4 years. Queen bee is replaced every year with new queen bee.

Question 6.
Write note on life span of worker bee.
Answer:
Worker bee has life span of one to one and half month, but in winter it can live for six months.

Question 7.
Write a note on the body structure male bees?
Answer:
Drones (male bees) are black and big in size than worker bees. They have large compound eyes which unite at top of their head. Tip of abdomen is round and hairy.

Question 8.
Which equipment is required for starting bee keeping?
Answer:
Hive, gloves, hive tool, bee veil, smoker, comb foundation, honey extractor, queen cage, uncapping knife, bee brush, containers etc.

Question 9.
What is the importance of honey in human diet?
Answer:
Honey is a good food. One should take 50 gram honey daily. It contains carbohydrates, minerals and vitamins. It contains many antibiotics. It can be used in case of cough. It is also beneficial for eyes and brain.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many species of honey are there? Write about their size and nature.
Answer:
There are four species of honey bees. Little bee, rock bee, Indian bee. Italian bee. Rock bee is larger of all and is very aggressive. Little bee is smallest among them. Rock bee and little bee are wild species. Indian bees and Italian bees can be reared and medium sized. Italian bee is calm in nature.

Question 2.
What do you know about life cycle of honey bee and write about management of colony?
Answer:
Honey bee has four stages in life cycle-egg, larva, pupa, adult. Life cycle of queen bee completes in 16 days, worker bee and drone bee complete their life cycle in 21 days and in 24 days respectively.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 BeeKeeping 1
There are three castes of honey bees. Queen, worker, and drone (male) bees. There is one queen in a colony. There are thousands of worker bees and drones are a few hundred in number. Worker bees construct the comb, collect pollen and nectar, and can sacrifice their life for the betterment of their hive.

Question 3.
How many worker bees are there is a colony? What are the tasks they do?
Answer:
There can be 8000-80,000 worker bees in a colony depending upon in size. These do not lay eggs but perform all other duties. They keep the hive clean, take care of the brood, make a hive, collect nectar and pollen and fill in the comb, take care of the live, temperature regulation and guard the live, feeding young ones and queen.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Mushroom Cultivation

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 5 Mushroom Cultivation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 5 Mushroom Cultivation

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Mushroom Cultivation Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one to two words:

Question 1.
Name two important commercially grown mushrooms.
Answer:
Button mushroom, Paddy straw mushroom, shiitake mushroom.

Question 2.
Name the health benefits of mushrooms.
Answer:
Mushrooms are rich in proteins, minerals such as calcium, phosphorus, iron, potassium etc. These are also suitable for patients having Sugar and blood pressure.

Question 3.
How many crops of button mushroom can be obtained in the winter season in Punjab?
Answer:
Two crops can be obtained from September to March.

Question 4.
What is the maximum height of the compost stack during compost preparation for button mushroom?
Answer:
Five feet.

Question 5.
What is the ratio of farm yard manure and sandy soil for preparation of casing soil?
Answer:
FYM and garden soil should be in the ratio of 4:1.

Question 6.
Which insecticide is used for control of insect pests of mushrooms?
Answer:
Nuvan (Dichlorovos).

Question 7.
What is the gap period between spray of insecticide for control of flies and next harvest of mushrooms?
Answer:
48 hours.

Question 8.
What is the amount of spawn required for 3 quintals of straw?
Answer:
300 grams.

Question 9.
What is the total mushroom production in Punjab presently?
Answer:
Nearly 45000-48000 tones per annum.

Question 10.
How many turnings are given during preparation of compost?
Answer:
Seven turning.

Question 11.
What is the pH of good quality ready compost?
Answer:
7.0 to 8.0 pH.

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the important nutritional attributes of mushrooms?
Answer:
Calcium, phosphorus, iron, potash, minerals and vitamin C etc. are present in mushrooms in ample quantity.

Question 2.
What are the requirements for growing mushrooms?
Answer:
Fresh paddy straw (not older than one year), bamboo sticks and mushroom seed (spawn), Kisan Khad, urea, murate of potash, gypsum,
gamma, B.C. 20E, Furadan, Molasses etc. are required.

Question 3.
Why is it important to turn the compost stack during compost preparation?
Answer:
By turning the compost stack the original outer portion goes inside and central portion becomes the outer part. This helps in increase in microbial activity.

Question 4.
How is the compost prepared for mushroom growing treated?
Answer:
Before sowing the mushroom seeds, prepared compost is treated with Bavistin 50% soluble 20 mg per litre. 20 gram dust of Bavistin is required for one quintal compost which is enough for four boxes.

Question 5.
What is the significance of casing? How is casing soil prepared?
Answer:
Casing provides proper environment for growth of mushrooms. Casing mixture is obtained by mixing FYM and garden soil in the ratio 4: 1 or spent compost and FYM in the ratio of 1:1.

Question 6.
What are the recommended varieties of mushrooms for cultivation in Punjab and give their technical names?
Answer:
According to environment of Punjab, there are five varieties of mushrooms-Button mushrooms, shiitake mushroom, Chinese mushrooms, Milky, oyster mushrooms.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Mushroom Cultivation 1
Question 7.
Give the turning schedule for preparation of compost and the details of what all is required for compost production.
Answer:
Turning schedule for preparation of compost:

Turning	After how many days turning is done after preparing the stack	Things to add
First	4	Molasses
Second	8	–
Third	12	gypsum
Fourth	15	–
Fifth	18	Furadan
Sixth	21	–
Seventh	24	Lindane.

Thus seven turnings are done. Initial three turning after even’ four days and the remaining turnings after every three days.

Question 8.
How is casing soil mixture disinfected before use?
Answer:
Disinfecting soil:
Wet the mix of compost and garden soil. Spray 4-5% of Formalin on it. In addition 20 g Furadan per quintal of casing soil is also added. Treated soil is covered with tarpaulin sheet or Polythene sheets for at least 48 hours. Then it is opened and turned again and again, so that formalin evaporates completely from it.

Question 9.
What are the quality attributed of well prepared compost?
Answer:
Attributes of well prepared compost are its colour, smell and moisture content. When colour of compost is dark brown and there is no smell of ammonia and moisture is 65-72% then the compost is ready for spawning and pH value should be 7.0 to 8.0.

Question 10.
What is the production of mushrooms from one square meter bed area?
Answer:
Production of mushrooms from one square metre bed area is 8-12 kg. mushrooms.

Question 1.
What is the importance of mushrooms in our diet?
Answer:
Mushrooms are used as food in whole of the world. It contains many nutrients and thus help in keeping the body fit. Mushrooms contain protein in large quantity, which is easily digestible. Mushrooms also contain potassium, calcium, iron, phosphorus, minerals and vitamin C in large amount. Carbohydrates and fats are present in small amounts. Therefore, mushrooms are beneficial for blood pressure and sugar patients.

Question 2.
Give the procedure for preparation of stack for composting in button mushroom?
Answer:
Spread wheat straw on “pucca” floor and wet it with clean water. Keep this straw as such for 48 hours. Mix bran and fertilizers separately and wet it with water. After 24 hours bran fertilizer mixture is broadcasted on the wetted wheat straw. Prepare stacks of the size 5 feet high, 5 feet broad and 5 feet long on the wooden boards. Height and breadth of the stack should not be more than 5 feet each.

Question 3.
What do you know about the marketing of mushrooms?
Answer:
Do not cut or pull the Mushrooms rather pick them by gentle twisting of the buttons. The mature unopened mushrooms are harvested once a day. This way no harm is done to the small button mushroom. After picking, clean off the straw pieces sticking to the mushrooms. Pack them in perforated polythene bags in 200 g lots. These packed mushrooms are sent for marketing. Mushrooms can be dried in sun or in shade and can be used in off season marketing.

Question 4.
What is mushroom spawn? How is spawning done in trays for button mushroom?
Answer:
See next questions.

Question 5.
What are the different steps in button mushroom production and briefly discuss each one?
Answer:
Steps in button mushroom production-
1. Ingredient, for compost preparing:
Wheat straw 300 kg., wheat bran 15kg, CAN 9 kg; urea, super phosphate and murate of potash 3 kg each of the three; gypsum 30 kg, gamma BHC (20% E.C.) 60 ml, molasses 5 kg, Furadan (3G) 150 gram.

2. Stack preparation:
Spread the wheat straw on a pucca floor and wet properly with water, leave it open for at least 48 hours. Mix wheat bran/husk powder with fertilizers (separately) mentioned in step 1 and moisten with water. Broadcast wheat bran mixture on the wet wheat straw after 24 hours. Mix using pitchforks. Prepare a stack of 5 x 5 x 5 foot high with the help of 3 wooden boards. Stack should not be higher than 5 feet.

3. Turning the compost stack:
Layer of stack is removed from top and all sides, it is thoroughly mixed and wetted. This way the inner part of the stack forms outer part of the new stack and outer part of the original stack goes inside the new stack. Repeat the same process when needed. Turning is necessary to increase the microbial activity which helps in decomposition. Turn the stack every fourth day and add to it. molasses, gypsum, furadan, lindane dust respectively at first, third, fifth, sixth and seventh turning.

The compost prepared from 300 kg wheat straw is used to fill 20-25 crates of the size 100 x 150 x 18 cm. When color of compost is dark brown and there is no smell of ammonia and moisture content is 65-72% then the compost is ready for spawning and pH should be 7.0 to 8.0.

4. Disinfecting the compost:
Before spawning, prepared compost is mixed with Bavistin 50% soluble 20 mg per litre. 20 gram Bavistin dust is required for one quintal compost which can be filled in four crates or boxes.

5. Filling crates and spawning:
Dismantle the compost stack and let it attain the room temperature. Take out spawn from the bottles and by using two layer growing method, broad cast spawn on the compost and fill in the boxes. Cover it with thick layer of compost. Broadcast the remaining part of spawn on this layer. Cover the boxes with wet newspaper or other papers.

6. Covering crates with soil:
Crates covered with 80-100% mycelium are covered uniformly with FYM and garden soil in the ratio 4:1 or covered with well rotten rice bran- and gobar gas slurry in the ratio 1:1. Before covering, treat it with 4-5% formalin.

7. Disinfecting soil:
Wet the mix of compost and garden soil. Spray 4-5% of Formalin on it..In addition 20g Furadan per quintal of casing soil is also added. Treated soil is covered with tarpaulin sheet or polythene sheets for at least 48 hours. Then it is opened and turned again and again so that formalin evaporates completely from it.

8. Covering of trays:
After 2-3 weeks of spawning remove the news paper and cover the compost covered with mycelium with a l’to 15 inch thick layer of disinfected soil.

9. Arranging containers:
Trays can be stacked and the area under cultivation can be increased. The trays are arranged one above the other in lines and the lines are 2 to 2.5 feet apart up and below. This way adequate working area is available and no harm is done to small pinheads of mushroom. After picking, the lower most part of the stalk of the mushroom is cut off with the help of a knife and clean mushrooms are collected.

10. Packing: Fresh Mushrooms are packed in perforated polythene bags in a lot of 200 grams.

11. Yield: 12 kg Mushrooms are available in one square metre area in one season.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Mushroom Cultivation Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many trays are covered with Mycelium in 2-3 weeks?
Answer:
80-100 percent.

Question 2.
How many grams of Mushrooms are filled in poly bags for marketing?
Answer:
200 grams.

Question 3.
What is name of Mushroom seed?
Answer:
Spawn.

Question 4.
Which nutrients are found in less quantity in Mushrooms?
Answer:
Carbohydrates and fats.

Question 5.
Which variety of Mushroom is grown in summer and how many crops can be obtained?
Answer:
It is paddy straw mushroom. We can obtain four crops from this.

Question 6.
For how many boxes the compost prepared from 300 kg of wheat straw is enough?
Answer:
20-25 boxes of. the size 100 x 150 x 18 cm.

Question 7.
How will you identify the prepared compost?
Answer:
When color of the compost becomes dark brown and there is no ammonical smell, compost is ready.

Question 8.
Name any disease, which can be cured by taking mushrooms.
Answer:
Blood pressure.

Question 9.
How many crops of mushrooms are obtained in winter?
Answer:
White button mushrooms give two crops in winter.

Question 10.
When the winter mushrooms sown?
Answer:
From October to April.

Question 11.
Which materials are required for Mushroom compost?
Answer:
Molasses, Gypsum, furadan, gamma B.H.C. etc. are required.

Question 12.
How much seed is required for one square metre?
Answer:
300 gram seed is required for one square metre.

Question 13.
What is the yield of Mushrooms obtained from one square metre?
Answer:
In one season 8-12 kg of fresh Mushrooms can be obtained from one metre square.

Question 14.
How many crops are taken from summer season Mushroom?
Answer:
From milky mushroom three crops can be taken.

Question 15.
How many mushroom growers are there in Punjab?
Answer:
400.

Question 16.
What is the time when we can take crop of button mushroom?
Answer:
September to March two crops.

Question 17.
What is the time when we can take crop of oyster.
Answer:
October to March, one crop.

Question 18.
What is time of taking shiitake Mushroom?
Answer:
One crop September to March.

Question 19.
Which variety of Mushroom is cultivated more in Punjab?
Answer:
Button mushroom.

Question 20.
From where can we get seed of mushroom?
Answer:
Punjab Agricultural University, Department of Micro Biology.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is spawning done in boxes or crates?
Answer:
Dismantle the compost pile and let it attain the room temperature. Take out spawn from the bottles and by using two layer growing method, broad cast spawn on the compost and fill in the boxes. Cover it with thick layer of compost. Broadcast the remaining part of spawn on this layer. Cover the boxes with wet newspaper or other papers.

Question 2.
How will you fill the bags for cultivation of Dhingri (Oyster Mushroom)?
Answer:
Polythene bags are filled up-to 3 level with wheat straw and bits of spawn are broadcast on it. Fill the bag again up-to 2 level with wheat straw and broadcast spawn. Fill the bag with alternate layers of straw and spawn to its full capacity. The upper end of the bag is tied with gunny thread and bottom comers of the bag are given cut to drain off the excess of water. Place these bags in a room with proper facility of light. After 3¬4 weeks of spawning small mushroom primordia appear and at this stage bags are cut open. Water the straw only to keep them moist.

Question 3.
What should be taken care of while picking mushrooms (harvesting)?
Answer:
Do not cut or pull the Mushroom they are picked by gentle twisting of the buttons. The mature unopened mushrooms and harvested once a day.

Question 4.
Which insect is harmful for Mushrooms? How can we control it?
Answer:
Mushroom flies are harmful for Mushrooms, When these are seen in the beds, on the window panes, walls or ceiling then spray 30 millilitre Nuvan 100 EC (WP) per 100 cubic metre. After spray close the doors and windows for at least 2 hours and do not pick the mushrooms for at least 48 hours. Do not spray directly on the beds.

Question 5.
What is done to increase the crop area?
Answer:
Boxes are placed on each other to increase the crop area and the Distance between boxes placed in sines is 2 to 2.5 feet and the distance between trays placed over each other is one foot.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
How are paddy straw mushrooms cultivated?
Answer:
1. Material required: Fresh paddy straw (not older than one year) bamboo stick, spawn.

2. Method or procedure:
Make bundles weighing 1-1.5 kg from dry paddy straw. Tie both ends and cut the protruded ends on both sides to make them equal-sized. Soak these bundles in clean water for 16 to 20 hours. Place these bundles on a sloping surface to drain the excess water. Place five bundles on two bamboo sticks which are kept one foot apart. Spawn is broadcasted on these bundles. This way a bed of 22 bundles per square metre is prepared. To get more area under the cultivation, beds are laid on one another. For one bed 300 grams of seed is required.

3. Seed Broadcast (Spawning): 300 grams of seed is required for a bed. Keep uniformity for each layer.

4. Watering: Water after 2-3 days of spawning. Ventilation is not required initially but later on proper ventilation is required.

5. Crop appearance:
After 7-9 days of spawning small plant heads start appearing. Fruit bodies of mushrooms become worth harvesting on the tenth day. Mushroom continues to appear for 15-20 days in 4 flushes. One crop of this mushroom is over in one month. This way four crops from April to August can be obtained.

6. Packing: Mushrooms are packed in perforated polythene bags in a lot of 200 grams.

7. Yield and cost: 22 kg of dry paddy straw can give a yield of 2.5 to 3 kg of fresh mushrooms.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 4 Solar Energy

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Solar Energy Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer In one to two words:

Question 1.
What is the major benefit of solar water heater?
Answer:
It is used to heat water for temperatures less than 100°C.

Question 2.
Give two examples of renewable sources of energy.
Answer:
Solar energy, Bio-gas.

Question 3.
Give two examples of non-renewable sources of energy.
Answer:
Coal, Petroleum products etc.

Question 4.
How many types of solar dryers are?
Answer:
There are two types of solar dryer on the basis of their use domestic solar dryer and multi product solar dryer.

Question 5.
Name any two vegetables which are dried in the solar dryer.
Answer:
Spinach, Fenugreek, Chilli etc.

Question 6.
What is the capacity of multiple solar dryer for drying agricultural product?
Answer:
20 to 30 kg agricultural product.

Question 7.
What is the major benefit of solar cooker?
Answer:
It is used to cook food.

Question 8.
What percentage of conventional fuel can be saved by the use of solar cooker?
Answer:
It saves 20% to 50% conventional fuel.

Question 9.
For how many hours solar lantern can be used?
Answer:
For 3-4 hours.

Question 10.
How many types of solar cooker are there?
Answer:
These are of two types storage cum collector solar water heater and thermosiphon solar water heater.

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the types of energy sources? Give examples.
Answer:
There are two types of energy sources:

Renewable
Non-renewable.
Renewable energy sources: Biogas, solar energy, chemical energy etc. These sources are plenty and less costly.
Non-renewable energy sources: Electricity, coal, petrol etc. These are limited in nature.

Question 2.
Name the products which are dried with solar dryer.
Answer:
Spinach, tomato, fenugreek, mustard leaves, potato, turmeric, chilli, plums, peach, grapes etc.

Question 3.
What is meant by solar cooker?
Answer:
It is a device used to cook food using solar energy. It can save 20% to 50% of non-renewable fuel.

Question 4.
Briefly discuss solar street light.
Answer:
This light is used after the sun sets to light the street, roads etc. A battery is charged using solar energy which is used to give power to these solar lights. These are automatic lights which are operated automatically when sun sets.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 1

Question 5.
What are the points kept in mind when the cooking is done in solar cooker?
Answer:

Pre heat the solar cooker by setting up it in the sun.
Add just sufficient water to the container having food ingredients to be cooked in the solar cooker.
Vegetables, eggs etc. do not need water for cooking in solar cooker. Cut potatoes and vegetables into small pieces before placing these into the solar cooker for cooking.
The container containing ingredients and water should not be filled more than half of its level.

Question 6.
Briefly discuss the solar home lighting system.
Answer:
In this system sunlight is used to charge the inverter battery system. It can be used to light 2 tube lights and two fans up to 5 to 6 hours in case of power cuts.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 2

Question 7.
What is solar water pump?
Answer:
This pump is used to lift water from a level of 35 to 40 feet. It consists of a motor which runs by electricity produced by solar panels.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 3

Question 8.
Briefly discuss solar lantern.
Answer:
This is an emergency light system. It is charged in the sun light and it can be used for 3-4 hours for lighting.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 4

Question 9.
Briefly explain the working of domestic solar dryer.
Answer:
It is a small-sized solar dryer. It can be used to dry 2 to 3 kg fresh products in 2 to 3 days. Products which are dried in this dryer are normally used in powder form in the kitchen e.g. red chillies, onion, garlic, mango powder, ginger, spinach leaves etc.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 5

Question 10.
Briefly discuss the multi-product solar drier.
Answer:
Agricultural products should be dried at low air temperature than the maximum allowed temperature. High temperature may destroy the quality of the food items. This solar drier can be used for drying 20-30 kg of agricultural products per day.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 6

Question 1.
Explain the method of cooking in solar cooker.
Answer:

Pre heat the’solar cooker by setting up it in the sun.
Add just sufficient water to the container having food ingredients to be cooked in the solar cooker.
Vegetables, eggs etc. do not need water for cooking in solar cooker. Cut potatoes and vegetables into small pieces before placing-these into the solar cooker for cooking.
The container containing ingredients and water should not be filled more than half of its level.
Keep the top of solar cooker towards the sun.
Do not open the solar cooker again and again. This will delay in cooking.
Open the lid carefully after cooking the food, so that steam cannot hurt our body.

Question 2.
Explain the solar water heater in details.
Answer:
Solar water heater is a device used for heating water using solar energy. It consists of tubes, storage tank, tube and fix assembly, glass sheet etc.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 8
Collector tubes are joined to the header of the bottom and top storage tank is insulated and is mounted in such a way that its bottom is above the top of collector by at least 60-70 cm. Front of the tube and fin assembly is covered by a glass sheet and all other sides and back are insulated. The sun rays fall on the tube and fin assembly, as a result water gets heated up, as hot water is lighter than cold water, hot water moves to the upper part of the storage tank.

Question 3.
Explain two solar dryer in detail.
Answer:
Solar dryer is used to dry vegetables and fruits. These are of two types.
Cabinet dryer:
This is a wooden box which is black from inside. It is covered with a glass sheet. Inside the box. there are perforated trays arranged at different levels, one above the other. Product to be dried is placed in these trays. There are two holes in this dryer, lower hole allows the air to enter and the hole at upper side allows the air to leave, this way air circulation takes place.

Multi product solar dryer:
This device is made up of sheets of wood and iron or of fiber glass. There are many holes at lower part and upper part for circulation of air. An arrangement has been done on the sides for placing and removing the products. There are shining rods for absorbing sunlight. Single glass sheet is fitted on the top of the box. Those trays which are used for drying the products have many holes in them. Trays are 3-4 cm in height. Cut pieces of vegetables and fruits can be dried in these trays. To protect the products from getting direct sunlight shining black plates are fixed. Since this is a solar device and uses sun rays it is placed in sunlight. Its glass top should be towards south.

Question 4.
Briefly discuss the different gadgets of solar energy.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 5.
How the solar energy can be used in different ways?
Answer:
Sun is the ultimate source of energy in the world. Plants make their own food in sunlight and living beings take their food from the plants. Sun is responsible for air – water cycle, but all these things are happening automatically in nature. We can use solar energy in different ways by using different techniques, e.g.

We can heat water using solar energy, cook food, produce electricity. We can dry fruits and vegetables using solar energy.
Electricity can be produced using solar cells.
We can save non-renewable sources of energy by using solar energy.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Solar Energy Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many types of natural energy source are there?
Answer:
Two types.

Question 2.
What type of energy is electricity obtained from burning of coal?
Answer:
Conventional (Non-renewable) energy source.

Question 3.
Which type of energy sources are limited?
Answer:
Non-renewable.

Question 4.
Which type of energy sources are in plenty?
Answer:
Renewable (Non-conventional).

Question 5.
How much fresh product can be dried in domestic level solar dryer and in how many days?
Answer:
2-3 kg fresh products in 2-3 days.

Question 6.
Can we prepare chapati in solar cooker?
Answer:
No.

Question 7.
In which direction solar water should face?
Answer:
Towards south.

Question 8.
How many fans and lights can be operated using solar home lighting system?
Answer:
2 tubes, 2 fans for 5 to 6 hours.

Question 9.
What is the name of solar water heater.
Answer:
Thermosyphen solar water heater and storage-cum-collector solar water heater.

Question 10.
Name any one conventional source of energy.
Answer:
Coal.

Question 11.
How much percent of conventional fuel is saved by using solar cooker?
Answer:
20% to 50%.

Question 12.
Frame of trays is made up of which material?
Answer:
G.I. sheets.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the uses of solar energy?
Answer:
Solar energy is used to heat water, for drying fruits and vegetables, for cooking food etc.

Question 2.
What is the disadvantage of drying bruits and vegetables in direct sun light?
Answer:
Insects, birds and dust can harm the fruits and vegetables and their color may change.

Question 3.
What is solar heater?
Answer:
This is a device which absorb solar energy and convert it in heat energy.

Question 4.
Why is it necessary to clean the glass of solar water heater?
Answer:
Dust collects on the glass which hinders the path of sun light and therefore efficiency of the water heater is reduced. It becomes necessary to clean the glass top.

Question 5.
How can solar energy be concentrated?
Answer:
By using various types of lenses and mirrors.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
How much conventional fuel is saved by using solar cookers? What are the types of solar cookers? What are the limitations of solar cookers?
Answer:
By using a solar cookers we can save 20% to 50% of conventional fuel which is used to cook food. Solar energy can be concentrated by using various types of lenses, normally these are of two types:

Box type solar cooker
Double reflector solar cooker.

Limitations:
We have to Place the solar cooker in such a way that it is always facing The sunlight and it has to be set again and again. The solar cooker can not be used to prepare chapatis.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Physical Education Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet

Physical Education Guide for Class 8 PSEB Nutritious and Balanced Diet Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by food?
Answer:
Food is very important for our body because it helps in the growth and development of our body. It repairs old cells and forms the new cells. Food prevents us from diseases. We consider such things as food which becomes part of our body after taking it and develops the body.

Question 2.
What do you mean by nutritious food?
Answer:
The following are the constituents of nutritious food:

Proteins
Vitamins
Carbohydrates
Fats
Mineral Salts
Water.

Question 3.
What do you mean by balanced diet?
Answer:
Balanced Diet. Balanced diet is the diet which has all the nutrients in right proportion and which is capable of fulfilling all the needs of the body. It should have all nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, salts and water in proper proportion. Such a diet needs to be taken for the proper development of body, protection from diseases and good health. No single item of food is balanced diet in itself. Only milk is an exception, as it has got almost all nutrients.

Question 4.
What do you understand by protein? How many types of proteins are there?
Answer:
Proteins:
Protein is a complex compound consisting of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulphur, phosphorus and nitrogen. It is of two kinds vegetable protein and animal protein.

Sources:
1. Vegetable Protein: It is available in soyabeans, groundnuts, cashew-nuts, pistachio, walnuts, wheat, millet, maize, etc.
2. Animal Protein: It is available in meat, fish, egg, cheese, etc.
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet 1
Advantages of Protein:

It ensures physical growth and development
It repairs broken tissues
It keeps the body temperature normal
It produces energy in case there is lack-of the quantity of carbohydrates or fats in the body.

Harms due to lack of Proteins:
The body catches the following diseases due to lack of proteins-
1. Kwashiorkor:
This disease is common in children in the age group of 1-3 years in case there is lack of proteins. At first, the child’s legs are affected. Then this disease causes swelling on the face and then the whole body. The skin of the child becomes rough and red. The child becomes irritated.

2. Rickets or Rachitis:
As a result of the lack of proteins children suffer from rachitis. A child affected with this disease looks very thin and weak. Bones are visible through his flesh.

3. Hunger Oedema:
Because of prolonged hunger and lack of protein, the body does not get nourishment, and water gets accumulated in cells, and body appears to be swelled up.

4. Pellagra: As a result of this disease, one’s skin appears to be rough and dry.

5. Defect in the Liver. Liver gets damaged due to the lack of protein in food.

Harms due to excess of Proteins:
One may suffer from kidney ailments in case of excessive intake of proteins. Blood vessels too get affected and one begins to have joint pains.

Proper quantity:
Children in the age group of 1-6 years are in dire need of proteins in large amount. A normal person should consume 70 to 100 gms. of proteins every day.

Question 5.
What are carbohydrates? What are the harmful effects of its deficiency and excess.
Answer:
Carbohydrates: Carbohydrates provide heat and energy to the body. Indians, in general, compensate 70-80% of their food with this element.

Sources: Carbohydrates are available in wheat, rice, barley, maize, millet, jaggery, sugar, potatoes, etc.

Advantages of Carbohydrates:

Carbohydrates provide heat and energy to the body.
They help in digesting fat.
They cleanse intestines and liver.

Harms due to lack of Carbohydrates:

As a result of the lack of carbohydrates, blood loses its alkaline nature, and becomes more acidic. In such a condition, a person may become unconscious. In such a condition due to hunger one may get diabetes.
Intestines are not cleaned properly.
As a result of lack of carbohydrates, fats remain undigested in the body.
As a result of lack of carbohydrates acidic elements in the liver get cleansed, and it is harmful to the body
A person becomes very weak and may die in case there is excess of lack of carbohydrates in his food.

Harms due to excess of Carbohydrates:
The excess of carbohydrates causes-

fatness
high blood pressure
joint pains and
diabetes.

Proper Quantity:
Our food has 50-80% of carbohydrates. 50-60% part of balanced diet consists of carbohydrates. A normal person should have 400 to 700 gms. of carbohydrates in his daily food.

Question 6.
What do you mean by fats? What are its types.
Answer:
Fats are of two types-
(i) vegetable fats
(ii) animal fats.

Sources.
1. Vegetable Fats. These are available in almonds, walnuts, soyabeans, groundnuts, coconut oil, mustard, etc.
2. Animal Fats. These are available in ghee, butter, milk, meat, fish, egg, etc.
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet 3

Advantages:

It provides energy to the body.
It keeps the body temperature stable.
It protects all parts of the body against external injuries.
It keeps in reserve vitamins A, D and K according to the needs of the body.

Harms due to the lack of Fats:
The body suffers in the following ways in case there is lack of fats-

Skin becomes dry.
The deficiency of vitamins A, D and K follows.
The skin goes dry because of the lack of acids of fat.

Harms due to excess of Fats:
The excess of fats in one’s food also proves to be harmful in the following ways-

One suffers from obesity.
Heart diseases are caused.
Digestion weakens.
One suffers from diabetes.
Stones may form in the abdomen.

Proper Quantity: A normal person should have 50 to 75 gms. of fats in his daily food.

Question 7.
Milk is a complete food. Explain it?
Answer:
Milk:
Milk is an ideal and whole food. It has got all the essential nutrients. It has 3.6% fat, 3.4% protein, 4.8% carbohydrates, 0.7% salts and 7.5% water. Milk is given to growing children because it is a complete food. At home, patient is also given milk which acts as complete food.
For good health, milk serves as a balanced diet.

All the essential nutrients as proteins, carbohydrates, fats, minerals, salts, water, vitamins are available in milk in right proportion. All these nutrients have different functions to perform in our body. Milk is considered to be an ideal food as it has all the essential nutrients including vitamins, though it does not have iron.

Question 8.
What are the principles of cooking food?
Answer:
Cooking Food:
Properly cooked food is useful for health. Food must be cooked properly, if food is over cooked, it does loses some essential nutrients like vitamins C and D. Food must be cooked properly for the following reasons:

Properly cooked food becomes easily digestible.
By cooking food disease causing germs get killed.
Cooked food is tasty. One feels like eating it.
We can preserve the cooked food for long.

Methods of Cooking food:
The following methods for cooking food are generally followed-

Boiling
Cooking with steam
Roasting
Frying

These methods are explained in brief below:
1. Boiling:
In this method, food articles are cooked by boiling in water. But essential vitamins and mineral salts dissolve in water and are lost in this method of cooking. A little quantity of water should be used in boiling eatables. If water used in boiling is excessive, it should not be thrown. Rice, pulses, meat and vegetables are cooked by boiling.

2. Cooking with Steam:
Food is also cooked with steam. Essential nutrients do not get lost in cooking by this method. The food cooked in a steam cooker is nutritious and beneficial to health. So this method is considered to be better than other methods.

3. Roasting:
In this method, food is directly roasted on the fire. Excessive roasting also destroys essential nutrients. The roasted meat is tasty and easily digestible.

4. Frying:
There are many food items such as ‘pakora’, ‘samosa’ and “purian” which are fried. Food is cooked very soon by frying. But essential nutrients also get lost in this method. Moreover, fried food is not easily digestible, and is often harmful to one’s health. Best Method. Of all the methods of cooking, cooking with steam is the best. The food cooked in this way does not lose essential nutrients and it is very beneficial to one’s health.

Question 9.
Explain the rules of taking food.
Answer:

Always have your food at a fixed time. Untimely eaten food causes indigestion.
Wash your hands with soap before taking meals and always wear clean clothes. Nails should be cut and cleaned.
We should not eat too hot or too cold food. Hot food causes blisters or boils and cold food cannot be chewed properly.
Food should be taken in an adequate quantity, over-eating may cause indigestion.
Food should be chewed slowly and properly so that it can be digested easily.
Food should be nutritious and easily digestible.
Never take stale food because it causes food poisoning.
We should be happy while taking food. Never talk or watch T.V. while taking food.
Take dinner at least two hours before sleeping because it is dangerous to sleep immediately after taking a meal.
Rest a while after meals.

Question 10.
Right notes on the following:
(a) Roughage
(b) Water
(c) Minerals
(d) Cooking food.
Answer:
(a) Roughage:
Wheat, pulses, vegetables, fruits, dry fruits, milk, meat, fish are the main food products. The advantages of these are as under:
(i) Cereals:
Wheat, rice, grams, maize, barley are generally taken as food.

Advantages of Cereals:

These are helpful for the formation of our body.
Food provides energy to body.
They contain too much carbohydrates.
The outer parts of these food material provide iron, lime, vitamins and proteins.
They are very useful to remove constipation.

(ii) Pulses:
Soyabean, peas, turnip, almonds are counted in pulses. These pulses provide us vitamins A, B, and C. They also supply us with proteins, minerals, salt, iron and phosphorus.

Advantages of Pulses:

These provide energy.
Increase appetite.
Improve digestion.

(iii) Vegetables:
Cauliflower, palak, sarson ka saag, methi, carrots, walnut, turnip, tomatoes, potatoes, peas, cabbage and onion are the main vegetables.

Advantages of Vegetables:

Vegetables protect our body.
Vegetables maintain the health of a person.
They purify the blood.
They prevent constipation.

(b) Water:
Our body is composed of 2/3rd of water. It is formed of the combination of oxygen and hydrogen. It is as important as air for our body.
Sources. It is available in pure form in many nutrients also such as milk, fruit and vegetables.

Uses of Water:

Water helps in the formation of cells.
It carries nourishment to cells. It helps in the excretion of waste products from the body.
It helps in digestion of food.
It regulates the heat in our body.
It helps in mixing nutrients with blood.
It keeps the parts and joints of body soft.
It ensures blood circulation in the body.

Harms due to lack of Water:
There are many harms of drinking less water-

The food does not digest properly in case one drinks less water.
Liver remains heavy.
Constipation is caused.
One feels physical fatigue all the time.
The body gets weakened.
The face turns pale.
Waste products in the body do not get excreted properly.
One is afflicted with joint pains.
Stones are formed in kidneys.

Harms due to excess of Water:
Water should always be taken in right proportion. Liver remains filled by taking water in excess and one does not feel appetite. If one continues taking water with food, food does not digest properly.

Proper Quantity:
The quantity of water intake varies with season, exercise and food. Normally, 5-6 glasses of water a day are enough for a normal person.

(c) Minerals:
Our body has 4% of minerals and salts. Phosphorus, calcium, sodium, chlorine, potassium, magnesium, manganese, iodine and zinc are some prominent minerals.
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet 4
Sources:
Minerals and salts are available in green vegetables, fruits, meat, milk. Milk has less amount of iron, but it has all other minerals.

Advantages of Minerals:
1. They help in the development of muscular tissues.
2. They make the blood red.
3. Calcium helps in blood clotting.
4. Iron is very important for the formation of blood.
5. Minerals help in the Topper functioning of all parts of the body.

Harms due to lack of Minerals:

The lack of calcium causes the weakening of teeth and bones.
Body loses its power of resistance to diseases.
The lack of iodine is the cause of goitre in the body.

(d) Cooking Food:
Properly cooked food is useful for health. Food must be cooked properly, if food is over cooked, it does loses some essential nutrients like vitamins C and D. Food must be cooked properly for the following reasons:

Properly cooked food becomes easily digestible.
By cooking food disease causing germs get killed.
Cooked food is tasty. One feels like eating it.
We can preserve the cooked food for long.

Methods of Cooking food:
The following methods for cooking food are generally followed-

1. Boiling
2. Cooking with steam
3. Roasting
4. Frying

3. Roasting:
In this method, food is directly roasted on the fire. Excessive roasting also destroys essential nutrients. The roasted meat is tasty and easily digestible.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Guide Nutritious and Balanced Diet Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Balanced diet contains:
(A) Protein
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Fats and Mineral Salts
(D) Above all.
Answers:
(D) Above all.

Question 2.
How the protein is made?
(A) Carbon
(B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) None of them.
Answers:
(A) Carbon
(B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen

Question 3.
How many types of Protein?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five.
Answers:
(A) Two

Question 4
Write the sources of Fat:
(A) Fruits .
(B) Soyabeans
(C) Groundnuts
(D) All above.
Answers:
(A) Fruits .
(B) Soyabeans
(C) Groundnuts

Question 5.
Mention the types of carbohydrates
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five.
Answers:
(A) Two

Question 6.
Important food is:
(A) Butter
(B) Fruits
(C) Almond or Milk
(D) None of these.
Answers:
(C) Almond or Milk

Question 7.
The rules of eating food:
(A) Always have your food at fix time.
(B) Wash your hands with soap before taking meal.
(C) Food should be chewed slowly.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(A) Always have your food at fix time.
(B) Wash your hands with soap before taking meal.
(C) Food should be chewed slowly.
(D) All above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of food?
Answer:
Those eatable things which satisfy our hunger and develop our body are called food.

Question 2.
Write down the salts, which are found in our food?
Answer:
Calcium, phosphorus, iron, sodium, magnesium, potassium, iodine, chlorine, and sulphur are salts found in our body.

Question 3.
Why the food cooked on steam is considered well?
Answer:
Because the food cooked by steam does not destroy the nutritious elements.

Question 4.
What is the percentage of water in our body?
Answer:
There is 60% of water in the body of a human being.

Question 5.
How many types of proteins are there? Write their names.
Answer:
Proteins are of two types:

Animal proteins
Vegetable proteins.

Question 6.
Mention sources of Animal Proteins
Answer:
It is available in meat, fish and milk.

Question 7.
Mention the three sources of Vegetable Proteins.
Answer:
It is available in soyabeans, groundnuts and cashew-nuts.

Question 8.
What are Carbohydrates?
Answer:
Carbohydrates contain Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen.

Question 9.
Mention the types of vitamins.
Answer:
Vitamins are of six types-A, B, C, D, E and K.

Question 10.
Lack of which vitamin causes night blindness?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin A.

Question 11.
Lack of which vitamin causes Berry-Berry disease?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin B.

Question 12.
Lack of which vitamin causes Scurvy disease?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin B.

Question 13.
What is the cause of Pyoria?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin C.

Question 14.
Lack of which vitamin causes infertility in women?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin E.

Question 15.
Mention the vitamins which are not soluble in water?
Answer:
Vitamins C, D and K.

Question 16.
Which milk is useful for a child?
Answer:
Mother feed.

Question 17.
What are the various methods of cooking food? Name them.
Answer:

Boiling
Roasting
Frying
Cooking with steam.

Question 18.
How much quantity of proteins should we take in our daily meals?
Answer:
70 to 100 grams.

Question 19.
Describe the main constituents of carbohydrates.
Answer:
Starch and sugar.

Question 20.
Name the constituents of proteins.
Answer:
Carbon, Nitrogen, Hydrogen and Sulphur.

Question 21.
To whom do we call life giving?
Answer:
Vitamins.

Question 22.
Which vitamins are soluble?
Answer:
Vitamins B and C.

Question 23.
How much Fat do we require in our meals?
Answer:
50 to 70 gms.

Question 24.
Which disease is caused by lack of iron?
Answer:
Lack of Haemoglobin.

Question 25.
What should be kind of Dinning site?
Answer:
Clean and airy.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of food?
Answer:
Food is very important for our body because it helps in growth and development of our body. It repairs olcfcells and forms the new cells.
Food prevents us from diseases. We consider such thing as food which becomes part of our body after taking it and develops the body.

Question 2.
Why it is necessary for our body?
Answer:
Everybody needs food for living. Daily we take part in many activities or perform so many types of work. To perform these activities we need energy. This energy is derived from food.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of food?
Answer:

Food provides energy to the body.
Food helps growth and development of the body.
Food helps in the formation of new cells.
Food helps in repairing the broken cells.
Food helps in preventing diseases.

Question 4.
Name the main nutrients of food.
Answer:
The following are the constituents of food:

Proteins
Vitamins
Carbohydrates
Fats
Mineral Salts
Water.

Question 5.
How is water useful for our body?
Answer:
Our body needs water to live. We cannot live without water. Advantages of Water.

It carries nourishment to cells. It helps in the excretion of waste products from the body.
It regulates the heat in our body.
It helps digestion of food.
It helps in mixing nutrients with blood.
It keeps the parts and joints of the body soft.
It ensures blood circulation in the body.

Question 6.
Why it is compulsory to cook food?
Answer:
Need for cooking food. Properly cooked food is useful for health. Food must he cooked properly. If food is overcooked, it loses some essential nutrients like vitamins C and D. Food should be cooked for the following reasons:

Properly cooked food becomes easily digestible.
By cooking food disease-causing germs get killed.
Cooked food is tasty, one feels like eating it.
We can preserve the cooked food for long.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Colonialism and Urban Change

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 19 Colonialism and Urban Change Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 19 Colonialism and Urban Change

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Colonialism and Urban Change Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by colonialism?
Answer:
The meaning of colonialism is control of one country over the other from a political, economic, and social point of view.

Question 2.
Which new towns came into existence with the establishment of East India Company?
Answer:
Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras.

Question 3.
Name the worth seeing places of Madras.
Answer:
Churches, Buildings, Monuments, Beautiful temples and Beaches.

Question 4.
Write down the names of the worth seeing places in Bombay.
Answer:
Juhu Beach, Chaupati, Kolaba, Malabar Hill, Jahangiri Art Gallery, Museum, Bombay University, Mahalaxmi Temple, Victoria Garden, Kamla Nehru Garden, etc.

Question 5.
Where and when the Britishers established their first trading factory in India?
Answer:
The British established their first trading factory at Calcutta in 1695 A.D.

Question 6.
In which three cities the municipalities were established in India during the British rule?
Answer:
During the British rule, first of all municipalities were established at Madras, Bombay and Calcutta in India.

Question 7.
Which British officer established Public Works Department in India?
Answer:
Public Works Department was established Jjy Lord Dalhousie in India.

Question 8.
Which Governor-General started the department of police in India?
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis started department of police in India during the British rule.

Question 9.
When and by whom the first railway line was made in India? What was its route?
Answer:
First railway line in India was made by Lord Dalhousie in 1853 A.D. It was made from Bombay to Thane city.

Question 10.
Write a note on the Madras city.
Answer:
Madras city is situated on the Eastern coast of India. Its present name is Chennai and it is the capital of Tamilnadu state. This city was one of three centres established by the British East India Company i.e. Bombay, Calcutta and Madras. It was also a Centre of Presidency of the East India Company. This centre of the Company was established by Francis De in 1639 A.D. This city was snatched by the French from the British after the first Carnatic war. But this city was taken back by the British at the end of the war. Madras became one of the important and prosperous cities due to last win of the British in the Carnatic wars.

This city was developed into a Port city and industrial Centre very rapidly. Many beautiful places are there in Madras. Churches, buildings, monuments, beautiful temples and beaches are included in these beautiful places.

Question 11.
Write a note on police System.
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis established police department to maintain law and order in the country. Police duties of Zamindars were taken away by the government. He divided all the districts of Bengal in Divisions (Thanas) in 1792 A.D. The head of every division was a police officer called Daroga (inspector). He worked under District Magistrate. In 1860

A. D., the British Government appointed a police commission to establish the same police administration in all the provinces of the country. On its recommendation, civil police, Inspector General of police, Police Superintendent and Deputy Suprintendent of police were appointed in each district. Police inspector, Head constable and other police officials worked under them. Generally the British officials were appointed on these posts. This structure of police is still going on with very few changes.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
In ancient period __________ and Mohanjodaro were two developed towns.
Answer:
Harappa

Question 2.
__________ was the capital of the emperor of Akbar.
Answer:
Fatehpur Sikri

Question 3.
__________ is the present name of Chennai.
Answer:
Chennai

Question 4.
Lord set up police department for the maintenance of law and order.
Answer:
Cornwallis.

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A	B
1. During the reign of Shahjahan Delhi	(i) Inderprastha
2. Engineering College	(ii) Kolkatta
3. of West Bengal	(iii) Rurki
4. Delhi in epic	(iv) Shahjahanabad

Answer:

A	B
1. During the reign of Shahjahan Delhi	(iv) Shahjahanabad
2. Engineering College	(iii) Rurki
3. of West Bengal	(ii) Kolkatta
4. Delhi in epic	(i) Inderprastha

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Colonialism and Urban Change Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Political, economic and social control of a country over the other is known
(a) Colonialism
(b) Urbanism
(c) Communism
(d) Socialism.
Answer:
(a) Colonialism.

Question 2.
Once, Fatehpur Sikri was the capital of
(a) Humanyun
(b) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Jehangir.
Answer:
(b) Akbar.

Question 3.
Which presidency cities were developed by the British?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Madras
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 4.
Which of the following cities did not develop under the British East India Company in India?
(a) Madras
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Calcutta.
Answer:
(c) Chandigarh.

Question 5.
Madras is situated on the coast of India.
(a) East
(b) West
(c) South
(d) North.
Answer:
(a) East.

Question 6.
Madras (Chennai) is the capital of
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Telangana.
Answer:
(b) Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
In the first Carnatic war the French Commander La-Bourdnnais took the possession of
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Madras
(d) Delhi.
Answer:
(c) Madras.

Question 8.
Which City was given in dowry to Charles II King of England by the Portuguese King?
(a) Delhi
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) Madras.
Answer:
(b) Bombay.

Question 9.
Which of these is a famous place of Bombay?
(a) Juhu Beach
(b) Chaupati
(c) Malabar Hills
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 10.
In 1687-88, the British East India campnay for the first time set up Municipal Corporation in
(a) Delhi
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 11.
Delhi became capital of India in
(a) 1911 A.D.
(b) 1912 A.D.
(c) 1913 A.D.
(d) 1914 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1911 A.D.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
During ancient, times __________ and Mohenjodaro were famous cities.
Answer:
Harappa

Question 2
__________ was the capital of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.
Answer:
Fatehpur Sikri

Question 3.
The present name of __________ is Chennai.
Answer:
Madras

Question 4.
Lord __________ establish Police system in India.
Answer:
Cornwallis.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
The British made Calcutta as their capital in 1911 A.D.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
During medieval tiiftes, Akbar made Delhi as his capital.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
The first railway line in India was laid in 1853 A.D.
Answer:
(✓).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. During the reign of Shahjahan Delhi	(i) Inderprastha
2. Engineering College	(ii) Kolkatta
3. of West Bengal	(iii) Rurki
4. Delhi in epic	(iv) Shahjahanabad

Answer:

A	B
1. During the reign of Shahjahan Delhi	(iv) Shahjahanabad
2. Engineering College	(iii) Rurki
3. of West Bengal	(ii) Kolkatta
4. Delhi in epic	(i) Inderprastha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Urban Change?
Answer:
When political condition of any country changes, the position and importance of towns and cities of that country, also changes. This is known as Urban Change.

Question 2.
Name two developed cities of Ancient Age which are now completely destroyed.
Answer:
Harappa and Mohenjodaro.

Question 3.
Why was the importance of Surat as a commercial centre declined?
Answer:
Importance of Surat in the form of commercial centre was declined because Bombay became the port and centre of political power of the East India Company. Most of the Traders of Surat were migrated to Bombay.

Question 4.
Where city of Madras is situated and what is its present name?
Answer:
City of Madras is situated on Eastern Coast of India. Its present name is Chennai.

Question 5.
What is the present name of Calcutta?
Answer:
Present name of Calcutta is Kolkata.

Question 6.
Write the names of capitals of states of Tamil Nadu, Maharasthra and West Bengal.
Answer:

Tamil Nadu – Chennai
Maharashtra – Mumbai
West Bengal – Kolkata.

Question 7.
Where is city of Bombay situated and what is its present name?
Answer:
City of Bombay is situated in the state of Maharashtra at Eastern Coast of Arabian Sea. Its present name is Mumbai.

Question 8.
When was Delhi made the capital of the British India by Britishers?
Answer:
The British made Delhi as capital of the British India in 1911 A.D. Their earlier capital was Calcutta.

Question 9.
Where and when was first Municipal Corporation established by the British Government?
Answer:
At city of Madras in 1687-88 A.D.

Question 10.
When was water released in River Ganga?
Answer:
On 8th April, 1853 A.D.

Question 11.
Write three facilities given to cities under Urban Planning by the British Government. –
Answer:

Supply of Water through pipes
Light in Streets
Parks and Playgrounds.

Question 12.
When railway line was laid from Calcutta (Kolkata) to Raniganj?
Answer:
In 1854 A.D.

Question 13.
How did the East India Company get Bombay (Mumbai)?
Answer:
In 1661 A.D. Portuguese Princess Catherine got married to the king Charles II and the city of Bombay was given to England in Dowry. It was farther given to East India Company on rent.

Question 14.
Name few famous places of Bombay (Mumbai).
Answer:
Juhu Beach, Kolaba, Chaupati, Jahangir Art Gallery, Malabar Hills, Museum, Mahalaxmi Temple, Bombay University, Kamla Nehru Park, Victoria Garden etc.

Question 15.
Name the worth seeing places of Calcutta (Kolkata).
Answer:
Victoria Memorial, Hawrah Bridge, Botanical Garden, Alipur Zoo, Indian Museum, National Library, Velloor Math, Eden Garden stadium etc.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Public Works Department during the British Rule.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie established Public Works Department in India during the British rule for doing welfare works of the people.

This department made roads, canals and bridges.

This department prepared G.T. road from Calcutta to Peshawar.
Ganga river was built by it on 8th April, 1853 A.D. and released the water in Ganga river.
It established an engineering college in Roorkee.
Many other welfare works were also done by this department.

Question 2.
Write a note on the work of laying down Railway lines during the British rule. Also tell that why Railway lines were laid?
Answer:
First railway line iri India was laid during the reign of Lord Dalhousie in 1853 A.D. from Bombay to Thane city. In 1854 A.D. railway line was laid from Calcutta to Raniganj. There were many reasons of laying down railway lines in India by the British rulers.

Some of these reasons are given below :

The British wanted to secure their empire in India and wanted to lay down railway lines for the easy transport of army from one place to another.
Goods prepared in mills of England could be easily transported from one place to another.
The British companies and the British capitalists wanted to earn more profit by using their surplus wealth in laying down railway lines.
It was easy to collect raw materials from different parts of the country for the factories of England.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down Colonized organisations and policies which helped in the development of cities.
Answer:
The British government founded many local organizations, to organise their empire, which helped a great deal in the development of cities. Municipal committees, the Public works department, laying down net of railway lines etc. are included in it.

Their brief description is given below :
1. Municipalities. First Municipal Corporation was established by the British East India Company at Madras in 1687-88 A.D. Its members were nominated. After some time, Municipal Corporations were also established at Bombay and Calcutta. Slowly and slowly district boards and municipal committees were established for village and cities of different provinces. Many primary, middle and high schools were, opened through these organizations. Municipal committees used to arrange cleaning of City and light in the streets at night. People were given facility of supplying drinkirig water through pipes. Dispensaries were opened in cities in which arrangements of free medicines and injections were made so that the spreading of diseases could be prevented.

2. Public Works Department. During the British rule, Public Works Department was established by Lord Dalhousie for the welfare of the people. This department prepared many roads, canals, and bridges. G.T. Road from Calcutta to Peshawar was made by this department. This department also prepared Ganga-river on 8th April, 1853 and released water in it. It also established an engineering college in Roorkee. This department also done many other works for the welfare of people.

3. Planning. Many urban facilities were spread in different cities of India during the British rule. Arrangement of supply of drinking water through pipes and proper sanitation was made in most of the cities of India. Except this modern markets, parks and playgrounds were prepared in major cities of country.

4. Railway Lines. First railway line of India was made during the tenure of Lord Dalhousie in 1853 A.D. from Bombay to Thane city. Railway line between Calcutta and Raniganj was also laid in 1854 A.D.

Britishers wanted to start railway in India due to given ahead reasons :

The British wanted to secure their empire in India and wanted to lay down railway lines for the easy transport of army from one place to another.
Goods prepared in mills of England could be easily transported from one place to another.
The British companies and the British capitalists wanted to earn more profit by using their surplus wealth in laying down railway lines.
It was easy to collect raw material, from different parts of the country, for the factories of England.

Question 2.
Write down the importance of Calcutta city during the British rule.
Answer:
Calcutta is the capital of West Bengal. Its present name is Kolkata. It was a famous commercial centre of India during the British rule. The British established their first factory over here in 1695 A.D. and fortified it from all sides. Till 1757 A.D., the British East India Company spent most of its time in commercial activities. When war started between Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-daula and the East India Company, the Britishers won the war. Later on their different commercial centres (Bastis), like Bombay, Madras and Calcutta, were developed into cities. Most of Indian traders started to live in these cities because every type of trading facility was available over here. In the battle of Plassey and battle of Buxar respectively in 1757 A.D. and 1764 A.D., Nawabs of Bengal were defeated and the British emerged victorious. That’s why, the importance of city of Calcutta was increased.

These days many beautiful places are there in Calcutta. Howrah Bridge, Victoria Memorial, Botanical Garden, Indian Museum, Alipur Zoo, Vailoor Math, National Library etc. are some of them which increase the importance of Calcutta.

Question 3.
Write down in detail about Delhi city.
Answer:
Delhi is one of the famous cities of India. It is the capital of India. It is situated on the banks of Jamuna river. Delhi was known as ‘Indraprastha’ in the Mahabharat age. Later on, Mughal emperor Shahjahan gave it the name of Shahjahanabad. The British made it the capital of the British India in 1911 A.D. and the name of New Delhi was given to it.

Importance of Delhi. Right from the early age, Delhi was a centre of political, commercial and cultural activities of India. This city became more famous in medieval age because Iltutmish made it his capital. After this, Delhi remained the capital of almost all the kings. During the age of great Mughal King Akbar, Agra and Fatehpur Sikri remained capital of Mughals for quite some time. But all the other Mughal rulers

kept Delhi as their capital. That’s why, the importance of city of Delhi was increased to a great extent.

Famous places of Delhi: Old fort, Zoo, India gate, Fort Rai Pithar, Fatehpuri Mosque, Tomb of Nizamuddin Aulia, Jantar-Mantar, Tombs of Bahlol Lodhi and Sikandar Lodhi, Parliament House, President’s House, Museum, Raj ghat, Tin Murti Bhawan, Shakti Sthal, Shantivan, Delhi University, Jawahar Lai Nehru University, Birla Mandir, Gurudwara Sis Ghanj, Gurudwara Bangla Sahib etc. are some of the famous places of Delhi.

Question 4.
During urban changes which new cities emerged? Explain them.
Answer:
Three new cities came into existence due to urban change in the British age. These cities were—Madras, Bombay and Calcutta.

A brief description of these cities is given below :
1. Madras. The city of Madras is situated on Eastern coast of India. It’s present name is Chennai and it is the capital of State of Tamil Nadu. Madras was one of the three main centres which were-Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. It was also centre of of Presidency of the East India Company. French General La-Bourdnnais snatched it from the British in first Carnatic War (1746-1748). But it was given back to the British at the end of this war (1748 A.D.)

Madras became one of the important and prosperous cities after the British win in three Carnatic wars.
Madras was developed into a port city and a famous industrial city very rapidly. It has many beautiful places to see. Churches, Buildings, Monuments, Attractive Temples and Beaches are some of the beautiful places of Madras.

2. Bombay. The City of Bombay (Mumbai) is situated in Maharashtra on Eastern coast of Arabian Sea. It’s present name is Mumbai. It is not only a famous commercial centre but it is also a centre of industrial and cultural activities. In 1661 A.D., Portuguese princess Catherine was married to the British King Charles II. Then this city was given in the form of dowry by Portuguese to the British. He gave this city on rent to the East India Company. Gradually Bombay became the Presidency of Britishers. Some of the famous places of this city are Juhu Beach, Chaupati, Kolaba, Malabar Hill, Jahangiri Art Gallery, Museum, Bombay University, Mahalaxmi Temple, Victoria Garden, Kamla Nehru

3. Calcutta. Calcutta is the Capital of West Bengal. It’s present name is Kolkata. It was a famous commercial centre of India during the British rule. Britishers established their first factory over here in 1695 A.D. and fortified it from all sides. Till 1757 A.D., the British East India Company spent most of its time in Commercial activities. When war started between Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-daula and the East India Company, the British won that war. Later on their different Commercial centres (Bastis), like Bombay, Madras and Calcutta, were developed into cities. Most of Indian traders started living in these cities because every type of trading facility was available over here. In the battle of Plassey and battle of Buxar respectively in 1757 A.D. and 1764 A.D., Nawabs of Bengal were defeated and the Britishers emerged victorious. That’s why, the importance of the city of Calcutta was increased.

These days many beautiful places are there in Calcutta. Howrah Bridge, Victoria Memorial, Botanical Garden, Indian Museum, Alipur Zoo, Vailoor Math, National Library, etc. are some of them which increase the importance of Calcutta.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 12 Rural Life and Society

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 12 Rural Life and Society Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 12 Rural Life and Society

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Rural Life and Society Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Who, when and where, started permanent system?
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis introduced Permanent Settlement of land in Bengal in 1793 A.D.

Question 2.
Who, when and where introduced Ryatwari system?
Answer:
Ryatwari system was started by a British officer Thomas Munro in 1820 A.D. in Madras and Bombay.

Question 3.
In which three areas Mahalwari system implemented?
Answer:
Mahalwari system was introduced in Uttar Pradesh. Punjab and some states of Central India. In this system, revenue was collected from whole of the community.

Question 4.
How the commercialization of agriculture started?
Answer:
Agriculture fulfilled the needs of people of villages before the advent of the British. But the British introduced new land settlements because of which farmers started to produce things to sell in the markets so that more and more money could be earned. In this way commercialization of agriculture took place.

Question 5.
Which were the commercial crops?
Answer:
The main commercial crops were wheat, cotton, oilseeds, sugarcane, jute, etc.

Question 6.
Mention two benefits of the commercialization of agriculture.
Answer:

People started growing different crops due to the commercialization of crops. It lead to increase in production.
Means of transport were developed so that crops could be taken to the market.

Question 7.
Mention two losses of commercialization of agriculture.
Answer:

Indian farmers did agriculture with ancient methods. That’s why their crops were unable to compete with those crops which were grown with the help of machines. That’s why farmers were unable to take maximum advantage out of it.
A farmer had to sell his crop in market through middlemen and middlemen took their share as well. It led to less profit for farmer.

Question 8.
What was permanent Settlement? What were the economic effects of this system? (P.S.E.B. 2004)
Answer:
Permanent Settlement was a type of land settlement. It was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal in 1793 A.D. Later on it was also introduced in Bihar, Orissa, Benaras and Northern India. According to this system, zamindars were made the owners of the land. Government fixed the land revenue given by them. They deposited the fixed amount in government treasury. But they collected tax from the farmers according to their wish. If any zamindar was unable to pay the land revenue then government sold some part of his land to complete the amount of fixed revenue.

Economic Impact. Income of government was fixed with this system but it left a very bad impact on farmers. Zamindars started to exploit them. Zamindars were not paying any attention on land reforms. That’s why production of farmers started to reduce day by day.

Question 9.
Write a short note on commercialization of agriculture.
Answer:
Villages, before the British empire in India, were self-dependent. People used to do agriculture whose main aim was to fulfil the needs of the village. Crops were not sold. Other workers of village like blacksmith, carpenter, barber, etc. collectively used to fulfil the needs of the village. But the self-dependency of the villages come to an end after the establishment of the British empire in India. According to new land revenue systems, farmers had to pay the fixed amount to government as land revenue and at a particular time as well. Now the main aim of agriculture was just to earn money. It was known as the commercialization of agriculture. This process of commercialization of agriculture became more complex with the advent of the industrial revolution in England. The farmers were forced to produce those crops which could be used as the raw material in factories of England.

Question 10.
Write a note on Indigo-revolt.
Or
What do you know about Indigo Revolt?
Answer:
Indigo revolt was started by the Indigo-producing farmers against imposing more tax on the production of Indigo. Indigo revolt took place between 1858 to 1860 A.D. in a large part of Bengal and Bihar. Farmers of this area refused to produce Indigo. Government threatened them but they remained stick to their demand. When government took some hard steps then they attacked the factories of the British. All the efforts to stop them gone in vain.

One revolt also took place in Champaran district in 1866-68 A.D. against the cultivation of Indigo. This revolt remained continued till the beginning of 20th century. Then Gandhiji came in their favour and then their problem was solved.

Question 11.
Write a short note on mahalwari system.
Answer:
Mahalwari system was introduced to remove the shortcomings of Ryatwari system. It was introduced in U.P., Punjab and various parts of central India. Main feature of this system was the land was neither associated with any zamindar and nor with any farmer. This system was actually took place with whole community of the village. Whole of the community was responsible to pay land revenue. It was fixed in community that what a farmer has to pay. If any farmer was unable to give his share then it was taken from the community of the village.

This system was known as the best system because features of both the earlier systems were there in it. The only drawback which was there in it was that people had to pay a lot of tax.

Question 12.
Write down the benefits of ryatwari system.
Or
Write a note on Ryatwari system.
Answer:
Thomas Munro was appointed as the Governor of Madras in 1820 A.D. He made a new system of land which was known as Ryatwari system. It was introduced in Madras and Bombay. Government decided to take land revenue from those people who themselves tilled the land. So all the middlemen between government and farmers were removed. This system was much better than the Permanent Settlement. Farmers were made owners of their land. Their revenue was fixed which was 40% to 55% of the total produce. It led to increase in income of the government.

Some defects were also there in this system. This system reduced the community feeling among the people of the village. Importance of Panchayats was reduced. Except this government started to exploit the farmers. Farmers were forced to take loans from moneylenders by mortgaging their lands to them.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The contractors _______ the farmers.
Answer:
exploited

Question 2.
The _______ became land owners due to permanent settlement.
Answer:
Zamindars

Question 3.
Zamindars committed _______with the farmers.
Answer:
atrocities

Question 4.
_______ was the main occupation of the Indians before the British rule.
Answer:
Agriculture

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Warren Hastings	(i) Permanent Settlement
2. Lord Cornwallis	(ii) Ryatwari System
3. Thomas Munro	(iii) Permanent Settlement

Answer:

A	B
1. Warren Hastings	(iii) Permanent Settlement
2. Lord Cornwallis	(i) Permanent Settlement
3. Thomas Munro	(ii) Ryatwari System

IV. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
Due to British rule self sufficiency of the vtllage economy got much benefit in India.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Mahalwari system was made with whole community of the village.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The Britishers implemented sale rule according to Permanent settlement ift Bengal.
Answer:
True.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Rural Life and Society Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The British came to India as
(a) Conquerer
(b) Sellers of goods
(c) Winner
(d) Traders.
Answer:
(d) Traders.

Question 2.
_______ were known as ryots.
(a) Cultivators
(b) Zamindars
(c) Landlords
(d) Labourers.
Answer:
(a) Cultivators.

Question 3.
The Champaran Movement was against
(a) The British
(b) The Indigo planters
(c) Landlords
(d) Revenue officials.
Answer:
(b) The Indigo planters.

Question 4.
Who were asked to collect rent from the peasants and pay fixed revenue to the company in Permanent Settlement?
(a) Headman of village
(b) Revenue officials
(c) Cultivators
(d) Zamindars.
Answer:
(d) Zamindars.

Question 5.
Who was given the charge to collect and to pay revenue to the company in Mahalwari system?
(a) Headman of village
(b) Cultivators
(c) Zamindar
(d) Revenue officials.
Answer:
(a) Headman of village.

Question 6.
What was done by thousands of Indigo ryots of Bengal in 1859?
(a) Refused to pay rents
(b) Attacked indigo factories
(c) Agents of planters were beaten up
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 7.
_______ introduced Mahalwari System.
(a) Holt Mackenzie
(b) Lord Carnwallis
(c) Lord Hastings
(d) Alexander Read
Answer:
(a) Holt Mackenzie.

Question 8.
Who introduced Ryotwari System?
(a) Holt Mackenzie
(b) Lord Hasting
(c) Captain Alexander Read
(d) Lord Carnwallis
Answer:
(c) Captain Alexander Read.

Question 9.
Which of these crops were encouraged by the British?
(a) Opium
(b) Tea
(c) Indigo
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 10.
When did a terrible femine occur in Bengal?
(a) 1760
(b) 1770
(c) 1765
(d) 1775.
Answer:
(b) 1770.

Question 11.
Which of these was the demerit of Permanent Settlement?
(a) A new class of landlords loyal to the British came in front
(b) Landlords had to sell their lands to pay the tax
(c) It hardly paid any attention to rights of farmers
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 12.
Between 1866 A.D. and 1868 A.D. Champaran in Bihar witnessed a revolt. The revolt was against which of the following :
(a) Against the Indigo planting
(b) Against the wheat planting
(c) Against the Cotton planting
(d) Against the Sugarcane planting.
Answer:
(a) Against the Indigo planting.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Contractors _______ the farmers.
Answer:
exploited

Question 2.
Due to Permanent Settlement, _______ became owners of land.
Answer:
Zamindars

Question 3.
Zamindars committed _______ on farmers.
Answer:
atrocities

Question 4.
Before the establishment of the British rule, main occupation of the Indian people was _______
Answer:
Agriculture.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
The self-sufficient -system of Indian villages got geat advantage of the British administration.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
Mahalwari arrangement was done with the whole village.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
According to Bengal’s permanent settlement, the British made sales Law.
Answer:
(✓).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Warren Hastings	(i) Permanent Settlement
2. Lord Cornwallis	(ii) Ryatwari System
3. Thomas Munro	(iii) Contractual System

Answer:

A	B
1. Warren Hastings	(iii) Contractual System
2. Lord Cornwallis	(i) Permanent Settlement
3. Thomas Munro	(ii) Ryatwari System

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why were Indian industries destroyed by economic policies adopted by the Britishers?
Answer:
Some new industries were established by the British. Their main aim was to fulfill the British interests. As a result, Indian industries were destroyed.

Question 2.
Which three new systems were introduced by the British in India to collect land revenue?
Answer:

Permanent Settlement
Ryotwari system and
Mahalwari system.

Question 3.
What was the main aim of the British regarding land policies?
Answer:
To collect more and more money from India.

Question 4.
When did the British get Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa? To whom the work of collecting revenue was given?
Answer:
The British got Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in 1765 A.D. The work of collection of revenue was given to Aamils.

Question 5.
Who introduced contract system? What is meant by it?
Answer:
Contract system was introduced by Lord Warren Hastings. Its meaning was the system of giving land on contract.

Question 6.
After how many years, the land revenue in Ryatwari system was supported to be increased?
Answer:
After 20 to 30 years.

Question 7.
What was the main defect of Mahalwari system?
Answer:
Farmers had to pay a lot of land revenue.

Question 8.
Which 5 areas were greatly affected by commer-cialization agriculture?
Answer:
Punjab, Bengal, Gujarat, Khandesh and Barar.

Question 9.
What was sales law according the Permanent Settlement of Bengal?
Answer:
According to the sales law, whichever zamindar was unable to pay his land revenue till 31 March, his land was supposed to sell to other zamindars to collect the remaining revenue.

Question 10.
What was the main reason of revolt of farmers?
Answer:
The main reason of farmers revolt was more taxes on land. It led to deteriorating condition of farmers. That’s why they revolted against the Britishers.

Question 11.
Give one merit of Permanent Settlement.
Answer:
The zamindars became rich and they invested money for the development of the industry and trade.

Question 12.
Give one demerit of Permanent Settlement.
Answer:
The income of the company was fixed but the expenditure started to increase. Gradually the company was in loss.

Question 13.
What was the main purpose of the British land revenue policies?
Answer:
The main purpose of the land revenue policies of the British was to get maximum profit and to serve their self interests.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on contract system introduced by Lord Warren Hastings.
Answer:
Meaning of the contract system is the system of giving land on contract. This system was introduced by Warren Hastings. According to this system, land was given for contract of 5 years. Higher bidder was given the contract of land for collection of land revenue for 5 years. Later on in 1777 A.D., this term of 5 years was reduced to 1 year. But this system was very defective. Zamindars or contractors used to collect lot of tax from the farmers. It lead to deterioration of economic condition of farmers.

Question 2.
How were zamindars more benefitted by the Permanent Settlement as compared to the farmers?
Answer:
Zamindars were benefitted by the Permanent Settlement. They became the permanent owners of their lands. They got the right to sell or to change the land. They paid definite land revenue to company but they used to collect more land revenue from the farmers. If any farmer was unable to pay tax they captured his land. Most of the zamindars used to live a leisure life in cities but farmers were forced to live a hell like life. In the end we can say that zamindars were greatly benefitted by the Permanent Settlement as compared to the farmers.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the consequences of land revenue systems introduced by the British?
Answer:
There were some of the evil consequences of the land revenue systems introduced by the British and these are given below :

Zamindars used to exploit the farmers. Even they committed atrocities on farmers while collecting land revenue. The government did not take care of them.
Zamindars became owners of the land by paying definite land revenue to the government. Now zamindars were free to collect land revenue from the farmers according to their own wish. It led to richness of zamindars. Farmers became poorer with this.
The government itself exploited the farmers of those areas where Ryatwari and Mahalwari systems were introduced. One third or half portion of the total produce was collected as the land revenue. Rate, of land revenue was increased each year.
When land became private property then it started to be divided among the members of family. It fed to division of land into small pieces.
Farmers had to pay their land revenue till a particular date. They were forced to pay the land revenue even in the case of femine, flood, etc. That’s why they had to mortgage their land to moneylenders so that they could get money to pay their land revenue. In this way their debt increased day-by-day and they left with no option except by leaving their right over the land.

Actually the main aim of agriculture related policies of the British government was to get more and more money and to fulfil their administration interests. In the end farmers became poor and they came under the clutches of moneylenders.

Question 2.
Explain in brief the permanent settlement, ryatwari system and mahalwari system introduced under the British rule.
Answer:
Permanent Settlement, Ryatwari and Mahalwari system were the new revenue systems introduced by the British. Their brief description is given below :
1. Permanent Settlement: It was a type of land settlement. It was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal in!793 A.D. Later on it was also introduced in Bihar, Orissa, Benaras and Northern India. According to this system, zamindars were made the owners of the land. Government fixed the land revenue given by them. They deposited the fixed amount in government treasury. But they collected tax from the farmers according to their wish. If any zamindar was unable to pay the land revenue then government used to sell some part of his land to compensate the amount of fixed revenue.

2. Ryatwari System: Thomas Munro was appointed as the Governor of Madras in 1820 A.D. He made a new system of land which was known as the Ryatwari system. It was introduced in Madras and Bombay. Government decided to take land revenue from those people who themselves used to till the land. So all the middlemen between government and farmers were removed. This system was much better than the Permanent Settlement. Farmers were made owners of their land. Their revenue was fixed which was 40% to 55% of the total produce. It lead t* increase in income of the government.

Some defects were also there in this system. This system reduced the community feeling among the people of the village. Importance of Pancbayats was reduced. Except this government started to exploit the farmers. Farmers were forced to take loans from moneylenders by mortgaging their lands to them.

3. Mahalwari System: It was introduced to remove the shortcomings of the Ryatwari system. It was introduced in U.P., Punjab and some parts of Central India. The main feature of this system was that land was neither associated with any zamindar and nor with any farmer. This system was actually taking place with whole community of the village. Whole of the community was responsible to pay land revenue. It was determined in community that what a farmer has to pay. If any farmer was unable to give his share then it was taken from the community of village.

This system was known as the best system because features of both the earlier systems were there in it. The only drawback which was there in it was that people had to pay a lot of tax.

Question 3.
What was permanent system? Mention its benefits and losses.
Answer:
During the time of Lord Clive, the British East India Company got the Diwani Rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa from the Mughal Emperor. The Company had no means to collect the taxes. Therefore, the work regarding the collection of land revenue was given to the local officers. The method of collecting revenue by these officers was very faulty. Warren Hastings, therefore, made some reforms in this system. But neither the landlords were happy nor the income of the Company was increasing. Cornwallis, therefore, introduced what is called the ‘Permanent ^Settlement’ of land. This system was started in 1793 A.D.

Benefits of Permanent Settlement. The following were the advantages of the Permanent Settlement:

Income of the Company became certain. Now it was easy for the Company to prepare its budget.
Landlords were now made permanent owners of the land. They, therefore, started making improvements in agriculture and to make their lands fertile.
Now the Company had not to assess the land revenue time and again.
As the landlords were made the permanent owners of land, they were pleased with the British and sided with the government in times of internal revolts.

Losses:

Landlords became the permanent owners of the land as a result of this settlement. It gave birth to a new class of landlords loyal to the British.
Landlords who lived away from their lands were adversely affected. They could not collect revenue from the farmers and were unable to deposit it with the government in time. As a result, they had to sell their lands to pay the tax.
Due to lack of proper measurement of land, less revenue was fixed. As a result thereof, income of the landlords increased. But the income of the government remained stagnant.
Most of the landlords did not pay attention to the improvement of their lands. They gave their lands on contract and themselves stayed in big cities like Calcutta (Kolkata) and enjoyed a luxurious life there.
The Permanent Settlement did not give due attention to the rights of farmers. They were left at the mercy of the landlords. The landlords collected revenue from them mercilessly and did not behave well with them. As a result, the condition of the farmers worsened.

In brief, we may say that the objective of Lord Cornwallis was to improve the condition of the farmers through Permanent Settlement. But it did not benefit them. Only landlords were benefited. .The condition of the farmers became more miserable.

Question 4.
What were the causes of farmers’ revolt? Explain any one farmer’s revolt.
Answer:
The following were the reasons of revolts of farmers :
1. More taxes: The British introduced new systems of land revenue in their conquered states of India. Farmers were forced to pay high land revenue. That’s why they came in the debt of moneylenders with which their economic condition deteriorated.

2. Sales law: Government introduced sales law according to Permanent Settlement of Bengal. According to this law, if any zamindar was unable to pay his land revenue till March then government was free to sell his land to other zamindar for the recovery of its arear. That’s why zamindars and farmers were very angry with the government.

3. Capturing the Land: Zagirdars were given large pieces of land by the Mughal Emperor as gift. These lands were free of taxes. But these large pieces of land were captured by the British and they again imposed taxes on them. Not only this, taxes were raised. The British took harsh steps to collect taxes.

Farmers’ Revolts:

One revolt took place exactly after the establishment of British rule in Bengal. Farmers, Sanyasi’s and Faqir’s took part in it. They made their groups and even used arms. The British regiments were irritated by these groups. It took 30 long years for the government to suppress this revolt?
Farmers of Chittore and Satara revolted in 1822 A.D. against too much land tax. This revolt was suppressed by the government with the help of military and with politics. Some of the rebels were recruited in police and others were given land to till in die form of grant.
Farmers of the Sendove district revolted against the British government in 1829 A.D. They attacked the British police under the leadership of their leader and they killed a number of Britishers.
Farmers of Ganjam district revolted in 1835 A.D. under the leadership of Dhananjay. This revolt lasted till Feb. 1937. Later on this revolt was also suppressed by government with the help of large number of military forces.
Another farmers’ revolt took place in Sagar in 1842. Its leader was Madhuker, a Bundela Zamindar. A number of police officers were killed by farmers and they plundered many towns.
A number of farmers’ revolts also broke out against more taxes and the capturing of land by the British. Some of other important farmers’ revolts were revolt of Patiala and Rawalpindi (Modern Pakistan).

Question 5.
Write down about the commercialization of agriculture during the British rule.
Answer:
Villages, before the British empire in India, were self dependent. People used to do agriculture whose main aim was to fulfil the needs of the village. Crops were not being sold. Other workers of village like blacksmith, carpenter, barber, etc. collectively fulfilled the needs of the village. But the self-dependency of the villages come to an end after the establishment of the British empire in India.

According to the new land revenue system, farmers had to pay the fixed amount to the government as land revenue and at a particular time as well. Now the main aim of agriculture was just to earn money. It is known as the commercialization of agriculture. This process of commercialization of agriculture became more complex with the advent of the Industrial Revolution in England- Now farmers were forced to produce those crops which could be used as the raw material in factories of England.

Impact of Commercialization
Merits:

Production of different types of crops was increased.
Means of transport were developed to take crops to markets of cities.
Things became very cheap due to more production.
Farmers came in contact with urban areas because of which their point of view was changed. As a result, national consciousness aroused among them.

Demerits:

Indian farmers used to do agriculture with ancient methods. That’s why their crops were unable to compete with those crops which were grown with the help of machines. That’s why farmers were unable to take maximum advantage out of it.
Farmers had to sell their crops in the market through middlemen and middlemen took their share as well. It led to less profit for farmers.