Class 7 – Page 3 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects

October 14, 2024October 13, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Electric Current and Its Effects Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 175)

Question 1.
How many terminals are there in an electric cell? Name them.
Answer:
There are two terminals in an electric cell : (1) Positive and (2) Negative terminal.

Question 2.
What is the role of the switch in the electrical circuit?
Answer:
In electrical circuit the switch completes and breaks the circuit i.e. the switch is there to make the current flow in the complete electrical circuit and to stop the flow of current by breaking the circuit when required.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
When switch is in ‘ON’ position then bulb …………………. and feels ……………… .
Answer:
Glows, hot.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
When switch is OFF the wire feels hot. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
When switch is ON the wire feels cold. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
If you take any other wire, will you feel the same effect.
Answer:
Because the current heats up the wire because of thermal effect of electricity. It will feel the same when you take any other wire.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 178)

Question 1.
Why a magnetic needle point in NS direction when there is no magnetic substance near it ?
Answer:
A magnetic needle is a unique magnet with one end as the North Pole and the other as the South Pole. Our earth behaves like a giant magnet with its magnetic north pole coinciding with its geographical south direction and its magnetic south pole coinciding with geographical north direction. The North Pole of a magnetic needle that is a magnet is free to rotate horizontally on its axis is attracted towards the earth’s magnetic South Pole and the south pole of the magnetic needle towards the earth’s magnetic north pole. So even though no magnetic substance nearby, the magnetic needle still points north-south direction.

Question 2.
Why magnetic needle gets deflected when a bar magnet is brought near it ?
Answer:
Similar poles of magnets repel each other and opposite poles attract each other. So when the rod magnet is brought close to the magnetic needle (which is a tight magnet), the magnetic needle, which is free to rotate, disintegrates.

Question 3.
Why a magnetic needle gets deflected when current is switched on ?
Answer:
When the electric current is turned on, the magnetic field indicates that a magnet is located near it as current carrying wire behaves like a magnet.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Electric Current and Its Effects Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Shorter line in the symbol for cell represents …………………. .
Answer:
Negative terminal

(ii) Combination of two or more cells is called …………………. .
Answer:
Battery

(iii) When key is in ………………….. position current flows through the circuit.
Answer:
On

(iv) In a battery positive terminal of one cell is connected to ………………….. terminal of next cell.
Answer:
Positive

(v) Electric heater works on the ………………… effect of current.
Answer:
Heating

2. State True or False:

(i) To make a battery of two cells, positive terminal of one cell is connected to negative terminal of another.
Answer:
True

(ii) Electric iron works on the basis of heating effect of current.
Answer:
True

(iii) Magnetic crane is based on magnetic effect of current.
Answer:
True

(iv) When current flows in the circuit then circuit is called open circuit.
Answer:
False

(v) An electric bell works on the principle of electromagnet.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Electrical cell	(a) Electric component
(ii) Electrical heater	(b) Heating effect of current
(iii) Electric fuse	(c) Electromagnet
(iv) Magnetic crane	(d) Safety device

Answer:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Electrical cell	(d) Safety device
(ii) Electrical heater	(b) Heating effect of current
(iii) Electric fuse	(a) Electric component
(iv) Magnetic crane	(c) Electromagnet

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which appliance is not based on heating effect of current?
(a) Electric toaster
(b) Loudspeaker
(c) Heater
(d) Electric iron.
Answer:
(b) Loudspeaker.

Question (ii)
Which of these devices are not based on magnetic effect of current ?
(a) Room heater
(b) Magnetic crane
(c) Electric bell
(d) Loudspeaker.
Answer:
(a) Room heater

Question (iii)
The amount of heat produced in wire depends on:
(a) Nature of material
(b) Length
(c) Thickness
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (iv)
The wire used in the bulb is called:
(a) Element
(b) Spring
(c) Filament
(d) Component.
Answer:
(c) Filament.

Question (v)
An electric bell consists of:
(a) Gong
(b) Hammer
(c) Electromagnet
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is an electromagnet ? How does it work ?
Answer:
Electromagnet. A piece of iron temporarily becomes a magnet when placed inside a current carrying coil of enamel-coated copper wire.
While when the electric current is switched off. it behaves like iron again i.e. it loses its magnetic properties.

Question (ii)
What is a magnetic crane ? How does it work ?
Answer:
Magnetic Crane. It is a normal crane with a powerful electromagnet attached to one end. When a current is passed, it becomes a powerful magnet which attracts and separates the iron from the garbage and when the electric current is switched off, it loses its magnetic properties.

Question (iii)
Draw an electric circuit with one battery, one bulb and one switch in open position.
Answer:
Diagram of an electrical circuit with a battery, a bulb, and an open switch.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 1

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define the following:
(1) An Electric cell,
(2) A Battery,
(3) Electric circuit,
(4) Open circuit,
(5) Closed circuit.
Answer:
(1) An Electric Cell. It is a source of energy that converts chemical energy stored in it
into electrical energy. It has two electrodes – (1) positive electrode and (2) negative electrode.

(2) A Battery. This is a combination of two or more cells that are combined in a series order to get current. It is used in flashlights, toys and cars etc. where more current is required.

(3) Electric Circuit. The path that starts from one terminal of the cell through the bulb, reaches the other terminal and in which electric current can flow.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 2
(4) Open Circuit. If there is no current flowing through the electrical circuit, then such a circuit is called open circuit.

5. Closed Circuit. An electrical circuit through which an electric current flows is called a closed circuit.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 4

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain the principle, construction and working of an electric bell using suitable diagram.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 5
Electric bell. It is a mechanical device that works on the principle of an electro magnet. This produces sound on repeated passing of electric current

Principle. A soft iron piece placed inside a copper coil carrying current behaves like a magnet.
Construction. It consists of the following main components:
1. Electromagnet. It consists of a laminated metal wire which is wrapped around an iron bar. This bar becomes an electriomagnet when an electric current passes through wire.
2. Hammer. It is an iron blade/ leaf with a small metal ball at one end called a hammer. It is placed near the electromagnet. There is a contact screw near the iron leaf.
3. Gong. It is made of a cup shaped metal. When the hammer is attracted it hits the bell and a sound is heard.

Working.
When we turn on the switch, Battery the contact screw comes in contact with the iron leaf due to which an electric current flows in the electric coil and it becomes an electromagnet. This electromagnet attracts the iron leaf, causing the hammer to strike the bell and make a sound but during this operation the contact of the hammer is broken by the screw which breaks the electrical circuit. Due to this the coil now has the same properties as an electromagnet and cannot attract an iron leaf. Now the iron leaf returns to its original position and touches the contact screw again. It again generates an electromagnet and the hammer strikes the bell again. This action is repeated quickly and the bell rings again and again.

Question (ii)
What is an electric fuse ? How does it work ? Why is it an essential component in an electric supply ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 6

Electric Fuse.
It is a safety device which prevents damages to electric circuits and prevents electric fires. Sometimes, the two wires of electricity at home and factories come in contact with each other and cause short circuit then the amount of electric current of circuit increases as a result of decrease in resistance and the electric appliances. The circuit catch fire due to production of heat. To Prevent this type of danger, fuse wires are connected to circuit wires.

Working.
In general, the fuse wire is a thin, small wire which is an alloy of copper, tin and lead. It has a very low melting point as compared to copper. This wire is connected between the two terminals of a Porcelain holder. For the circuit which is to keep safe, the two joining wires are connected in series.

The fuse wire has a fixed capacity according to its thickness. The fuse wire, when more current passes through it, melts after getting heated. The circuit breaks with the melting of the wire and the flow of electric current is obstructed. As a result the fault in any instrument or circuit is found out immediately. After removing that fault, a new fuse wire is put in fuse holder and the flow of electric current is started again.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Electric Current and Its Effects Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) An electrical circuit with standard symbols is called ………………….. .
Answer:
Circuit diagram

(ii) When we bring the switch to ‘ON’ position, the hot plate, electric toaster, and electric press get heated up due to ……………….. _ of electricity.
Answer:
Heating effect

(iii) Fuse is a ………………. device.
Answer:
Safety

(iv) Laminated copper wire wound around a wooden cylinder is called ………………. .
Answer:
Coil

(v) Magnet has two poles, one is ……………… pole and other is ……………… pole.
Answer:
North, South

(vi) Long line in the symbol of electric cell represents ……………… terminal.
Answer:
Positive

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Circuit diagram	(a) Making an electromagnet due to current
(ii) Electric bell	(b) Electric fuse
(iii) Safety technique	(c) Fuse wire
(iv) Melts quickly.	(d) An electrical circuit with standard symbols

Answer:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Circuit diagram	(d) An electrical circuit with standard symbols
(ii) Electric bell	(a) Making an electromagnet due to current
(iii) Safety technique	(b) Electric fuse
(iv) Melts quickly.	(c) Fuse wire

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The device that breaks the electrical circuit:
(a) Electric Cell
(b) Electric Bulb
(c) Switch
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Switch.

Question (ii)
There are ……………… terminals of electric bulbs:
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) One
Answer:
(a) Two.

Question (iii)
Used to make connecting wires:
(a) Rubber
(c) Plastic
(b) Aluminium
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Aluminium.

Question (iv)
An electric current passed through an electric bulb but the bulb did not light up because:
(a) The filament is broken
(b) The filament is resistant to electricity
(c) The filament is the conductor of electricity
(d) None of these.
Answer:
The filament is broken.

Question (v)
The direction of electric current flowing from the cell in the electrical circuit is:
(a) From the positive terminal to the negative terminal
(b) From the negative terminal to the negative terminal
(c) Negative to positive terminal for the first half and positive to negative terminal for the next half.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) From the positive terminal to negative terminal.

Question (vi)
Melting point of fuse wire should be:
(a) low
(b) high
(c) neither high nor low
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) low.

Question (vii)
The filament of the bulb is made of:
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Tungsten
(d) Tin.
Answer:
(c) Tungsten.

Question (viii)
Fuse wire is made of:
(a) Tin
(b) Aluminium
(c) Lead
(d) Copper.
Answer:
(a) Tin.

Question (ix)
What is the reason for deflection of compass when the switch in ‘ON’ position ?
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 7
(a) Due to heat
(b) Formation of Magnetic Field
(c) Due to Chemical Reaction
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Formation of Magnetic Field.

4. State True or False:

(i) The electromagnet attracts the safety pin when the flow of electric current is stopped.
Answer:
False

(ii) The strength of electromagnet doesn’t depend up on the number of turns of the coil wrapped around it.
Answer:
False

(iii) The direction of flow of electric current in an electrical circuit is from positive terminal to negative terminal.
Answer:
True

(iv) To make a battery, two or more cells have to be joined in series by connecting the negative terminal of the first cell to the positive terminal of the second cell and the negative terminal of the second cell to the positive of third cell.
Answer:
True

(v) The same poles of a magnet attract and opposite poles repel each other.
Answer:
False

(vi) To make battery of two cells the negative terminal to one cell is connected to negative terminal of another cell.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From where does the torch get electricity ?
Answer:
Electric cell.

Question 2.
How many terminals an electric cell has ?
Answer:
Two terminals, one + ve and other – ve.

Question 3.
What is the function of an electric switch ?
Answer:
To make or break the electric circuit.

Question 4.
Which bulb does not glow even if it is connected to the cell ?
Answer:
Fused bulb.

Question 5.
What is the main reason of fused bulb ?
Answer:
A broken filament.

Question 6.
What is an electromagnet ?
Answer:
Electromagnet. A piece of soft iron which acquires magnetic properties on passing electric current, through a solenoid wound around iron piece, is called electromagnet.

Question 7.
On which factor does magnetism produced depends ?
Answer:
The magnetism produced depends on:

Amount of current flowing through the coil.
Number of turns wound on the soft iron piece.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Show how will you connect a bulb and a torch cell to make it glow ?
Answer:
Diagram showing connection of a bulb and torch cell.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 8

Question 2.
How can you test the conductivity of a given material ?
Answer:
To test conductivity of a given material, we connect the two ends of that material to positive (+) and negative (-) terminal of a cell through a bulb. If after connecting the material the bulb lights up, the material is a conductor and if bulb does not light up, the material is an insulator.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 9

Question 3.
Draw in your note book the symbols to represent the following components of an electrical circuit, connecting wires, switch in the ‘OFF’ position, Bulb, Cell, Switch in the ‘ON’ position and Battery.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 10

Question 4.
Name any two effects of electric current.
Answer:
Effects of electric current:

Heating effect
Magnetic effect.

Question 5.
When the current is switched on through a wire, a compass needle kept nearby gets deflected from its north-south position. Explain.
Answer:
On passing current, the wire behaves like a bar magnet and affects the compass needle kept nearby so that it gets deflected from its N – S position.

Question 6.
An electrician is carrying out some repairs in your house. He wants to replace a fuse by a piece of wire. Would you agree ? Give reasons for your suggestion.
Answer:
Fuse wire cannot be replaced by any wire because fuse wire must have low melting point. If any other ordinary wire is used then it may result in fire and destroy other electrical appliances.

Question 7.
What are the basic requirements for an electric circuit.
Answer:
The basic requirements of an electric circuit are:

Source of current (cell, battery etc.).
Electric device for supplying electric current.
Connectivity wires (for providing a path to the flow of current).
Switch (for making and breaking the circuit).

Question 8.
Do you think an electromagnet can be used for separating plastic bags from a garbage heap ? Explain.
Answer:
No, plastic bags cannot be separated from garbage heap using an electromagnet because electromagnet can attract only magnetic materials towards it. If these plastic bags have metal / iron handles, only then they can be lifted by using an electromagnet.

Question 9.
Will the compass needle show deflection, when the switch in circuit shown in fig. given below is closed ?
Answer:
The compass needle will show deflection because circuit is complete. It is because when switch is closed, passage of current will produce a magnetic field around the in which causes deflection of compass needle.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 11

Question 10.
Zubeda made an electric circuit using a cell holder shown in fig. a switch and a bulb. When she put the switch in the ‘ON’ position the bulb did not glow. Help Zubeda in identifying the possible defect in the circuit.
Answer:
She may have connected -ve terminal to -ve terminal or positive terminal to the positive terminal in a cell holder.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 12

Question 11.
Fig. given below shows four cells fixed on a board. Draw lines to indicate how will you connect their terminals with wires to make a battery of four cells.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 13
Answer:

Question 12.
The bulb in the circuit shown in fig. given below does not glow. Can you identify the problem ? Make necessary changes in the circuit to make the bulb glow.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 15
Answer:

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is an electromagnet ? How can it be prepared ? What are the factors that affect its power ? Also write down the uses of electromagnets.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 17
Electromagnet.
A piece of iron wrapped by enamel-coated copper wire forming a coil. This piece of iron temporarily becomes a magnet when an electric current passes through coil. Such a magnet is called Electromagnet.

Making an electromagnet.
Take approximately 6-10 cm long iron nail and a 50 cm plastic coated wire. Wrap the wire around the iron nail in the form of a coil. Connect the independent ends of the wire to the terminals of the power cell through the switch as shown in the figure.

Turn the switch on and now bring some pins closer to the end of the nail. You will notice that the pins are pulled towards the nail, because the coil behaves like a magnet when an electric current passes through it. An iron nail lies in this magnetic field also becomes a magnet. When the flow of electric current ceases the magnetic effect of the coil and then of the nail disappears. This coil-nail setup becomes an electromagnet.

Factors Affecting the Power of Electromagnetism:

Strength of electric current.
The number of turns of wire wrapped around the iron nail.

Uses of electromagnets:

To lift heavy iron objects and to separate the magnetic material from the heap of scrap: a strong electromagnet is placed at one end of the crane.
Electromagnets are also used in many toys.
Doctors use an electromagnet to remove a small piece of magnetic material that may have entered the eye of a worker accidentally.
It is also used in many devices: such as an electric bells, telegraphs, telephones, speakers, etc.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants

October 14, 2024October 13, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Reproduction in Plants Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 147)

Question 1.
What happens in the regeneration method of reproduction?
Answer:
In the regeneration method, the living organisms (plants and animals) repair themselves or grow their lost parts. In this way they replace their old or dead cells with new ones. Plants have a higher capacity of regeneration than animals.

Question 2.
Give two examples of organisms reproducing through binary fission.
Answer:
Asexual reproducing organisms by binary fission method are:

Moss,
Mould.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Reproduction in Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Anther and filament form the ………………. of a flower.
Answer:
Stamens

(ii) In …………………….. reproduction seeds are formed.
Answer:
Sexual

(iii) Flowers having, both stamens and pistil are called …………………. .
Answer:
Bisexual

(iv) …………………… is an asexual mode of reproduction.
Answer:
Vegetative propagation

2. State True or False:

(i) Yeast reproduces by sexual and asexual means.
Answer:
False

(ii) Pollen grains are the male gametes of a flower.
Answer:
True

(iii) Ginger is a stem which bears nodes and internodes.
Answer:
True

(iv) Cutting and grafting are natural means of reproduction.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Sweet potato	(a) Micropropagation
(ii) Potato	(b) Bryophyllum
(iii) Leaf buds	(c) Artificial propagation
(iv) Grafting	(d) Yeast
(v) Tissue culture	(e) Spirogyra
(vi) Bud	(f) Adventitious root
(vii) Fragmentation	(g) Stem tuber

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Sweet potato	(f) Adventitious root
(ii) Potato	(g) Stem tuber
(iii) Leaf buds	(b) Bryophyllum
(iv) Grafting	(c) Artificial propagation
(v) Tissue culture	(a) Micropropagation
(vi) Bud	(d) Yeast
(vii) Fragmentation	(e) Spirogyra

4. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
In which mode of reproduction new plants are formed from only one parent ?
Answer:
By Asexual reproduction method new plants are formed from one parent. The different examples are:

Grafting,
Layering,
Tissue culture.

Question (ii)
Which part of the flower develops into fruit ?
Answer:
After fertilization, the ovaries become fruit.

Question (iii)
How does yeast multiply ?
Answer:
The most common method of reproduction in yeast is asexual reproduction by budding in which a tiny bud forms on the outer surface of parent cell.

Question (iv)
Give one example where air helps in pollination.
Answer:
When the pollen cells ripe, they burst and the pollen grains come out of them. Pollen grains are very light. So when the wind blows, they are blown away by the wind. These pollinators reach the stigma of the flowers of the same plant or of another flower of the same species where the pollination takes place.

Question (v)
Name the reproductive parts of a flower.
Answer:
The reproductive parts of the flower are:

Stamen (male reproductive part)
Pistil (female reproductive part.)

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name different methods of asexual reproduction in plants.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction method is one in which no seed is required for growing new plants. A single plant produces a new plant. Asexual reproduction occurs in the following ways:

Binary fission,
Budding,
Fragmentation,
Spore formation,
Regeneration.

Question (ii)
What is artificial propagation in plants ?
Answer:
Artificial Propagation. Artificial methods of reproduction are adopted to increase the number of useful plants. In these methods neither the reproductive organ takes part nor the seed is produced. In this artificial reproduction new plants grow through roots, stems, branches or leaves.

Below are some of the artificial methods:

Grafting (stems and roots),
Burying,
Pruning,
Tissue culture.

Question (iii)
What is tissue culture technique or micro propagation ?
Answer:
Tissue culture or micro-reproduction: This method involves taking some percent of the tissue from the tip of a plant branch because it contains rapidly developing, underdeveloped and undifferentiated cells. This mass has essential nutrients and hormones stored in it. Small parts of the tissue are kept in a medium until they begin to regenerate as plantlets. These buds (small plants) are transplanted in moist soil. This process is of reproduction is called tissue culture.

Question (iv)
Describe advantages of seed dispersal.
Answer:
Advantages of Seed dispersal:

Seed dispersal spreads the plant over a large area.
The probability of dense vegetation in one place decreases.
Plants have the right growth.
Plants get proper sunlight, water and minerals as competition for nutrients get reduced.

Question (v)
What is germination ? What are the conditions needed for germination ?
Answer:
After reaching the fertile soil, the seeds absorb water and swell up. Now the embryo
begins to germinate and its radical (root sprout) grows down into the soil and forms a root. The plumule grows upward in the air and develops leaves and shoot. It is a form of young small plant.

Essential conditions for germination:
All seeds need (i) water, (ii) oxygen (air) and (iii) proper temperature for germination. Some seeds also need the right amount of light. When the seed finds the right conditions, it activates and germinates the enzyme by moving water and oxygen inward from the outer layer and forms the seed root which receives water from the ground and forms a stem which moves towards the wind and leaves come out on the trunk from which the sun makes food in the light.

6. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Describe different kinds of asexual reproduction with examples.
Answer:
Different kinds of post-asexual reproduction :
1. Fission.
This is the most common method of asexual reproduction in which an organism is divided into new organisms. It is common in plants and some single-celled organisms such as fungi, some mosses. In this method of reproduction the organism is divided into equal parts. The nucleus is divided into two parts and both parts evolve as individual adult.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 1

2. Budding.
The word bud means small outgrowth. In the process of budding, a small bud grows on the body of the parent organism and when it grows to full size individual, it detaches itself to form a new organism.
Budding is commonly seen in hydra and yeast.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 2

3. Fragmentation.
This type of reproduction occurs commonly in Algae. It appears as green spots in ponds, lakes or other standing water bodies. When abundant water and nutrients are available, they are multiplied by fragmentation. In this method an algae is divided into two or more pieces. Each piece develops into new organisms. This process is repeated many times.
Other examples are Star fish, some Worms, Lichens etc.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 3

4. Spore formation.
Spores are very small, round-shaped structures for asexual reproduction. Spores have a hard outer layer and can stay in the air for a long time. Under favourable conditions, each spore germinates to develop into a new organism. Spore formation occurs in both unicellular and multicellular organisms. Rhizopus, a fungus that grows on bread, is produced by asexual reproduction by spores. Plants such as moss and fern also reproduced by spores.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 4

5. Regeneration.
The organism repairs and enhances its broken limbs in one form or another. New cells replace old or dead cells. The ability of living beings to repair themselves and grow their lost parts is called regeneration. Plants have a higher capacity of regeneration than animals.

Question (ii)
Explain different ways with examples in which plants can be reproduced vegetatively by artificial means.
Answer:
Artificial methods of vegetative reproduction.
Humans have adopted artificial methods of vegetative reproduction to increase the number of useful plants. Here are some of the methods:

1. Cutting, (i) (Cutting of stem). Cuttings are small nodules of stems or twigs, when they are pressed in moist soil then under favourable conditions roots germinates to grow as individual plant. As Bougainvillea, sugarcane, cactus and rose can grow by grafting of stem.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 5

(ii) Root Cuttings. When the roots of plants like lemon, tamarind are buried in moist soil new shoots get developed.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 6

2. Layering.
A twig of a plant is twisted so that it touches the ground. The portion of plant in contact of ground is then covered with soil. This buried part develops roots under suitable conditions and upper end of this branch is already in the air. The plant thus developed is cut from the original plant and grown in a new place. Jasmine, Strawberry, Yoganvelia plants are grown by layering.

3. Grafting.
The desired plant is derived from two different individuals. Portion of one plant is called stock while stem portion from the other is called seion. Seion is from the plant that wants to propagate and is, therefore, grafted on the stock. Their ends are obliquely cut and the two are placed face to face. Then the two ends are tied tightly and wrapped with polythene.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 7

4. Tissue culture.
This method involves taking a tissue from the tip of a plant branch as it contains rapidly dividing, underdeveloped and undifferen-tiated cells. This tissue, is cultured and nurtured in a sterilized medium. The mass of tissue develops as an individual plant let. This technique is useful in growing a number of rare and endangered plants which cannot grow under natural conditions.
With this method many plants can be grown in a very short time. This technique is used in disease free orchids, carnations, gladiolus, chrysanthemums, potatoes.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 8

Question (iii)
What is pollination ? What are the two types of pollination ? Discuss the different agents of pollination with examples.
Answer:
Pollination.
It is the act of transferring pollen grains from the male anther of a flower to the female stigma. The goal of every living organism, including plants, is to create offspring for the next generation. One of the ways that plants can produce offspring is by making seeds. Seeds contain the genetic information to produce a new plant
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 9

Types of pollination. There are two types of pollination action:

1. Self-pollination.
This type of pollination occur in asexual flowers, when the pollens of the same flower from the pollen cell (Anther) go to the pollen stem (Stigma) of saffron, this action is called self-pollination, because their genes are similar. This type of pollination is seen in Tomato, mustard etc.

2. Cross-pollination.
In this type of pollination the pollen grains move from the pollen cells (Anther) of one flower to the pollen stalk (Stigma) of another flower. This pollination takes place between the flowers of the same plant or between the flowers of two different plants of same species. In plants cross-pollination is done by air, insects, water and animals.

Various factors of pollination:
1. Air pollination. Many plants are pollinated by wind. With strong winds, pollens of one flower reach the stigma of the other plant. Examples – wheat, cotton, sunflower, millet,

2. Insect pollination. Insects (butterflies and bees) are attracted to flowers because of the color and fragrance of the flowers. Insects help in transferring pollen grains from one flower to another through their feet. Examples are figs, flies, bees etc.

3. Pollination by water. The pollen of the flowers of the plants growing in the water flows with the water and the pollens of the one flower reach the stigma of other flower. Examples are lotus flower, water lily etc.

4. Pollination by animals. Some plants are pollinated with the help of birds and animals like- bats, humming bird and squirrels.

Question (iv)
Explain the process of fertilization.
Answer:
Fertilization action after pollination.
After pollination pollen grains enter a small tube, called the pollen tube. The female pollen reaches the-ovaries through the stigma or vertebrae and then enters the ovule. There is a combination of male and female gametes. The combination of male gamete and female gamete (to form a zygote) is called fertilization.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 10

Question (v)
List the different steps in the formation of seeds and fruits.
Answer:
Fruit and seed formation. The following changes occur in the flower after fertilization:
(1) After fertilization the ovaries get transformed into fruits and ovules get transformed into seeds. The rest of the flowers wither and fall off.

(2) A seed is a developed egg that contains embryos and nutrients. This is covered with a secure layer. This is called seed peel.

(3) Fruits can be fleshy and juicy or dry and hard. Mangoes, apples, oranges are fleshy and juicy fruits while almonds and walnuts are dry and hard fruits.

Question (vi)
What is dispersal ? Explain with examples the different ways in which seeds get dispersed.
Answer:
Seed dispersal. The movement of seeds from one place to another by any means / factor like air, water, insects, birds, human beings and animals so that the seed survives is called seed dispersal.
Different methods of seed dispoersal:
(1) By wind
(2) By water
(3) By animals
(4) By humans
(5) By explosive process.

1. By wind. The seeds to be scattered by wind are small and light. Maple and Drumsticks seeds have wings. So they fly in the air and go far away. Seedlings with light grass seeds, acacia, cactus, cotton seeds and sunflower also fly with wind.

2. By water. Water lilies, lotuses and coconut fruits keep floating on the water so as their pollens. Water waves cany them far.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Reproduction in Plants Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Production of new individuals from the vegetative part of parent is called ……………. .
Answer:
vegetative propagation

(ii) A flower may have either male or female reproductive part. Such a flower is called ……………………
Answer:
unisexual

(iii) The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same or of different flower of the same kind is known as ………………. .
Answer:
self- pollination

(iv) The fusion of male and female gametes is termed as ………………. .
Answer:
fertilization

(v) Seed dispersal takes place by means of ……………….. , ………………. , and ……………… .
Answer:
water, wind, animals

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(a) Bud	(i) Maple
(b) Eyes	(ii) Spirogyra
(c) Fragmentation	(iii) Yeast
(d) Wings	(iv) Bread mould
(e) Spores	(v) Potato
	(vi) Rose.

Answer:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(a) Bud	(iii) Yeast
(b) Eyes	(v) Potato
(c) Fragmentation	(ii) Spirogyra
(d) Wings	(i) Maple
(e) Spores	(iv) Bread mould

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The production of new individuals from their parents is called:
(a) Transportation
(b) Excretion
(c) Reproduction
(d) Respiration.
Answer:
(c) Reproduction.

Question (ii)
Out of the followings which is the vegetative part of a plant ?
(a) Stem
(b) Leaves
(c) Root
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question(iii)
Out of the following which is reproductive organ of a plant ?
(a) Root
(b) Flower
(c) Leaf
(d) Stem.
Answer:
(b) Flower.

Question (iv)
Union of male and female garnets is called:
(a) Fertilization
(b) Pollination
(c) Zygote
(d) Reproduction.
Answer:
(a) Fertilization.

Question (v)
Which method is used for reproduction in a unicellular yeast ?
(a) Fragmentation
(b) Budding.
(c) Spore formation
(d) Binary fission.
Answer:
(b) Budding.

Question (vi)
Bryophyllum reproduces by its:
(a) Leaves
(b) Roots
(c) Stem
(d) Flowers
Answer:
(a) Leaves.

Question (vii)
Name the commonest method of vegetative reproduction in rose and sugarcane
(a) Fragmentation
(b) Budding
(c) Binary Fission
(d) Cutting.
Answer:
(d) Cutting.

Question (viii)
Name the factors, which are helpful in cross-pollination ?
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Insects
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

4. State True or False

(i) Asexual reproduction is more common than sexual reproduction.
Answer:
False

(ii) Bacteria and yeast reproduce by asexual reproduction.
Answer:
True

(iii) The ability to regenerate in many organisms is through some method,
Answer:
False

(iv) A fertilized organ becomes a seed.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is reproduction ?
Answer:
Reproduction. It is the ability of an organism to produce young ones of its own kind.

Question 2.
What is the role of reproduction ?
Answer:

Propagation of species
Evolution of species.

Question 3.
Name the two major kinds of reproduction.
Answer:

Asexual reproduction and
Sexual reproduction.

Question 4.
Name the various methods of vegetative propagation in plants.
Answer:

Cutting
Layering
Grafting.

Question 5.
Name common method for vegetative propagation of Rose and Sugarcane.
Answer:
Cutting.

Question 6.
How do Spirogyra and Mucor reproduce asexually ?
Answer:
Spirogyra – Fragmentation and Regeneration,
Mucor – Spore formation.

Question 7.
Name the mode of vegetative propagation in (i) Begonia (ii) Mint.
Answer:
(i) Begonia – Leaf buds,
(ii) Mint – Runners.

Question 8.
How do yeast, sponges and hydra reproduce asexually ?
Answer:
All the three reproduce by budding.

Question 9.
Which part of bryophyllum can be used for vegetative propagation ?
Answer:
Leaf of Bryophyllum.

Question 10.
Give one example of each : Vegetative propagation by (i) root (ii) stem.
Answer:
(i) Vegetative propagation by root : Sweet potato.
(ii) Vegetative propagation by stem : Potato.

Question 11.
What is pollination ?
Answer:
Pollination. It is the transference of pollen grains from the anther of a flower to the stigma of a flower.

Question 12.
What term is used if the pollen is transferred to the stigma of same flower ?
Answer:
Self-pollination.

Question 13.
Where are pollens and ovules presents in flower ?
Answer:

Pollens – Anther lobes
Ovules – Ovary.

Question 14.
Which floral part is very attractive and coloured ?
Answer:
Petal.

Question 15.
What is fruit ?
Answer:
A ripened ovary.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is reproduction ? What are it basic types ?
Answer:
Reproduction.
All organisms show characteristic life cycle, involving birth, growth, maturation, reproduction and death. Rerproduction is one of the most important processes by which continuation of the species from one generation to another generation takes place. Older and aged organisms are replaced by new and younger organisms by reproduction.

There are two types of reproduction.

Asexual reproduction
Sexual reproduction.

Question 2.
Define asexual and sexual reproduction.
Answer:
Asexual Reproduction. It is a type of multiplication in which a young one is formed from a specialised or unspecialised part of a parent without the formation and fusion of sex cells, gametes.

Sexual Reproduction. It is a type of reproduction which takes place by the formation and fusion of gametes. It involves two major processes :
(a) Meiosis (reductional division) by which diploid sporophytic cells give rise to haploid gametes, and
(b) Fertilization, which reconstitutes the sporophytic diploid generation through gametic fusion.

Question 3.
Where do the moulds on bread come from ?
Answer:
The spores of the moulds are present in the air. The spores of the moulds under suitable conditions settle on the bread and grow.

Question 4.
Define the term unisexual and bisexual giving one example of each.
Answer:
Unisexual Organism. Male and female sex organs are present in different individuals such organisms are called unisexual. Example : Human.

Bisexual organism. Single individual having both male and female sex organs.
Examples : Most of the plants, Tapeworm, Earthworm.

Question 5.
Mention the reproductive parts of a flower.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 11
Reproductive parts of a flower:
Stamens. It consists of stalk and a flattened top called anther. Anthers produce pollen grains. The pollen grains produce two male gametes.

Carpels. It has a swollen ovary at the base and an elongated middle style and terminal stigma.
The ovary contains ovules. Each ovule has an egg or female gamete.

Question 6.
Differentiate between ovule and ovary.
Answer:
Ovule. A structure in the ovary of a plant that develops into a seed after fertilization.
Ovary. The enlarged basal portion of a pistil that bears the ovules in angiosperms.

Question 7.
Describe the different methods of asexual reproduction. Give examples.
Answer:
Type of asexual reproduction
(1) Budding
(2) Fragmentation
(3) Spore formation
(4) Vegetative propagation.

(1) Budding. It is a common method of reproduction in Sponges and Hydra. In this process, the new individual develops from a small outgrowth on the surface of parent called bud.

(2) Regeneration. It is a form of fission in which a parent individual divides into a number of parts, each of which regenerates the missing structures to form a complete organism. It occurs in flatworm, ribbon worm and annelids.

(3) Spore formation. An individual produces spores which during favourable conditions give rise to new individuals e.g. Mucor.

(4) Vegetative propagation. A part of plant body other than reproductive organ gives rise to new individual plant e.g. Rose stem cutting gives to new rose plant.

Question 8.
Explain the process of sexual reproduction in plants.
Answer:
Sexual Reproduction in plants. Plants have male and female reproductive organs respectively called stamens and pistil. Stamens produce male gametes. The eggs are produced by ovules of pistil. These two genitals can be in the same or different flowers. Male and female gametes fuse to form a zygote. Sexual reproduction in plants takes place by seeds.

Question 9.
State the main difference between Asexual and Sexual reproduction.
Answer:
Differences between Asexual and Sexual forms of Reproduction

Asexual Reproduction	Sexual Reproduction
1. The process involves only one cell or one parent.	1. This process involves two cells or gametes belonging to either the same or different parents.
2. The whole body of the parents may act as reproductive unit or it can be a single cell or a bud.	2. The reproductive unit is called gamete which is unicellular and haploid.
3. Only mitotic division takes place.	3. Meiosis and fertilization are essential events.
4. No formation of sex organ.	4. Formation of sex organs are essential.

Question 10.
Explain the differences between Self-pollination and Cross-pollination.
Answer:
Difference between Self-pollination and Cross-pollination.

Self-pollination	Cross-pollination
1. It occurs within a flower or between two flowers of the same plant.	1. It occurs between two flowers borne on different plants of the same species.
2. Flowers do not depend on the other factors for pollination.	2. Agents such as insects, water and wind are required for ensuring pollination.

Question 11.
How does the process of fertilization take place in flowers ?
Answer:
Process of fertilization in flowers:

Pollination is transfer and deposition of pollen grains on stigma.
Pollen grain germinates on the stigma. It gives rise to pollen tube which carries male gametes.
A hypodermal cell of the nucleus in ovule enlarges and forms megaspore mother cell,
The diploid mega-spore mother cell undergoes meiosis to form four mega-spores.
The functional mega-spore enlarges into embryo sac.
The process of nuclear fusion (syngamy) of the male nucleus and one egg nucleus is termed as fertilization. It forms diploid zygote. Second male gamete fuses with secondary nucleus to form primary endosperm nucleus.
Angiosperms exhibit double fertilization.
Fall of the petals, stamens, style and stigma.
The ovules develop into seeds.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write the various steps involved in the formation of a plant seed, starting from pollination.
Answer:
The transference of pollen grains from anther to stigma is called pollination. The stamens in flower have anthers which produce pollen grains. Gynaecium or pistil bears three parts ovary, style and stigma. After pollination pollen grains from pollen tubes. Inside the pollen tube the nucleus divides into vegetative nucleus and generative nucleus. This generative nucleus gives rise to two male gametes inside the pollen tube. Pollen tube after piercing through the style reaches the ovary. One of which fuses with the egg to form a zygote. The second male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei to form a triploid endosperm nucleus which finally gives rise to endosperm. So, the higher plant (angiosperms) shows the process of double fertilization.

Soon after fertilization the petals, stamens, stigma, and style fall off. The sepals wither and hold on to the ovule. The zygote divides in a fixed fashion to form an embryo. It may bear one or two cotyledons, an embryo axis made up of plumule and radicle. Radicle gives rise to root and plumule to shoot after germination of seed. Cotyledons contain food reserves.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants 12

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 4 Microsoft Word (Part-II)

October 14, 2024October 13, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Computer Science Book Solutions Chapter 4 Microsoft Word (Part-II) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Computer Science Chapter 4 Microsoft Word (Part-II)

Computer Guide for Class 7 PSEB Microsoft Word (Part-II) Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
To select a whole word, ……….. click on it.
(a) Single
(b) Double
(c) Triple
(d) None.
Answer:
(b) Double

Question 2.
The …………….. group of home tab allows us to change our text font, style, size, color and many other elements.
(a) Font
(b) Paragraph
(c) Styles
(d) Editing.
Answer:
(a) Font

Question 3.
…………. means draw a horizontal line underneath the letters.
(a) Bold
(6) Italic
(c) Underline
(d) None.
Answer:
(c) Underline

Question 4.
………………. Option means that the text is shown like it was marked with a highlighter pen.
(a) Font Color
(b) Text Color
(c) Text Highlight Color
(d) All of above.
Answer:
(c) Text Highlight Color

Question 5.
After inserting a shape, a new tab will appear which is called ……………….. .
(a) Drawing Tools Format
(b) Shape Tools Format
(c) Drawing Shapes Format
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Drawing Tools Format

2. Write the Shortcut keys of the following

1. To cut the selected text
Answer:
Ctrl + X

2. To paste the copied/cut contents
Answer:
Ctrl + V

3. To increase the font size
Answer:
Ctrl + >

4. To Underline the Text
Answer:
Ctrl + U

5. To change the case of the Selected Text
Answer:
Shift + F3

6. For Center Alignment
Answer:
Ctrl+ E

7. For double line spacing
Answer:
Ctrl + z

8. To Replace the text
Answer:
Ctrl + H

9. To Undo the last operation
Answer:
Ctrl + z

10. To Insert a Page Break.
Answer:
Ctrl + Return.

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about Undo commend.
Answer:
If we have made a mistake while editing the text in the document, we can correct it by clicking on the Undo command from the “Quick access” toolbar and this will undo the last change we made to the document. Or you can press the Ctrl + Z keys from the keyboard.

Question 2.
Which are basic three font styles?
Answer:
Word processor software uses three basic font styles for text, these are as below:
1. Bold:
If you want to thicken the text in your document, then use Bold option, by pressing the “Ctrl + B” shortcut or by clicking “B” button from the font group.

2. Italic:
If you want to italicize the text in your document, then use Italic option by pressing the “Ctrl + I” shortcut or by clicking “I” button from the font group.

3. Underline:
If you want to underline the text in your document, then use underline option by pressing the “Ctrl + U” shortcut or by clicking “U” button from the font group.

Question 3.
What are Headers and Footers in MS Word?
Answer:
Header and Footer are parts of a document that contain specific information such as page number and total number of pages, title of the document, company logo, any photo, etc. A header appears at the top of each page, and footer appears at the bottom of each page. To insert the header and footer in your document, click the “Header/Footer” option from the Header & Footer group on the insert tab.

Question 4.
How many change cases options are available in MS Word? Write their names.
Answer:
There are five options available to change the case in Microsoft Word, these are:

Sentence case: It capitalizes the first letter of each sentence.
Lowercase: It changes the text from uppercase to lowercase.
Uppercase: It capitalizes all the letters of your text.
Capitalize Each Word: It capitalizes the first letter of each word.
Toggle case: It allows you to shift between two case views, e.g. to shift between Capitalize Each Word and Captalized each word.

Question 5.
How many alignments are available in MS Word? Write their names and shortcut keys.
Answer:
There are four types of alignments available in the paragraph group, which are as follows:

Align Text Left: Aligns the selected text with the left margin. Shortcut key is (Ctrl + L).
Align Text Right: Aligns the selected text with the right margin. Shortcut key is (Ctrl + R).
Center: This aligns the selected text to the center within the margin. Shortcut key is (Ctrl + E).
Justify: Aligns text to both left and right margins, adding extra space between words as necessary. Shortcut key is (Ctrl + J).

Question 6.
How can we insert page break in MS Word?
Answer:
This option is used to delete a page at the current cursor position and start a new page. In simple words we can say that it divides the page into two parts.
The steps to insert page break are given below:

Place the cursor where you want to insert the break.
Click the Page Break Option on the Pages Group from the Insert Tab.
Your page will break into two parts.
Long Answer Type Questions

(ii) Cut Paste Option:
Cut Paste Option means to move the selected text from one place to another. In Microsoft Word, you can cut text from a document and paste that text into another document or anywhere in the same document. After cutting the text, it is stored in the clipboard.

MS Word offers a variety of ways to cut and paste text. Some popular methods are given below :
Method 1.

First select the text you want to cut.
Click the Home tab and then click the Cut command.
Place the cursor where you want to paste the text.
Click on the Paste command in the Home tab.

Method 2.

First select the text you want to cut.
Now click the right button of the mouse on selected text.
A menu will appear; select the “Cut” option from this menu.
Now, move the cursor to the desired position and right click on the mouse.
A menu will appear; select the “Paste” option.

Method 3.

First select the text you want to copy.
Now press the Ctrl + X button.
Now, move the cursor to the desired position and press the Ctrl + V button.

(iii) Format Painter:
With the help of Format Painter we can copy the format already applied to the text in our document very easily and without wasting time. Below are the steps for copying text formatting :

Method 1.

First select the text whose formatting you want to copy.
Click the Home tab and click the Format Painter command.
The pointer changes to a paintbrush icon.
Use the brush and drag it over the text where you want to apply the formatting.
To cancel formatting, press the Esc key or click on the Format Painter command.

Method 2.

First select the text whose formatting you want to copy.
Now press the Ctrl + Shift + C button.
Click on the text where you want to apply the copied formatting.
Now press the Ctrl + Shift + V button.

Question 2.
Write about the options available in Font group of Home tab in MS Word.
Answer:
The Home tab’s font group gives us many commands for character formatting. These commands are as follows:

Font Style: This button is used to change the font type (Font face) for the entire document or for the selected text within the document.
Font Size: This button is used to change the font size for the entire document or for the selected text within the document.
Font Color: This button is used to change the font color for the entire document or for the text selected within the document.
Bold: This button is used to make the selected text or entire document bold.
Italic: This button is used to italicize the entire document or the selected text within the document.
Underline: This button is used to underline the entire document or the selected text within the document.
Changing the Text Case: This button is used to convert the selected text to lower case or to apply other capitalization.
Grow Fonts: With the help of grow fonts we can increase the size of the selected text by one size.
Shrink Font: With the help of Shrink font we can reduce the size of selected text by one size.
Strike Through: This button is used to draw a line in the middle of the selected text in a document.
Subscript: This button is used to create lowercase letters below the text baseline, such as X2.
Superscript: This button is used to create lowercase letters above the line of text such as X2.
Clear Formatting: This option works to remove the formatting applied to the text document.
Text Highlight Color: Used to highlight the selected text.

Question 3.
What is Word Art? How will you insert Word Art in a Word document?
Answer:
Word Art is designed to allow you make your text more attractive. You can format your text to make it look like a picture or 3D art and enhance its appearance in different ways. The steps to insert Word Art are given below:

Select the text you want to change.
Then click on the Insert tab.
Click on the Word Art drop-down arrow in the Text group.
A drop-down menu of Word Art style will appear. Click the style you want to use.
Word will automatically create a text box for the text.
Now click Ok button, the text will appear in the selected style.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Guide Microsoft Word (Part-II) Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
……………. is used to create documents.
(a) Word processing
(b) DOS
(c) Numbers
(d) Word Art.
Answer:
(a) Word processing

Question 2.
MS Word is an important …………… Processor.
(a) Text
(b) Word
(c) DOS
(d) Number.
Answer:
(b) Word

Question 3.
In Word, there are ………….. types of tool bars.
(a) 2
(6) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5.
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 4.
………… is a blinking line.
(a) Mouse
(b) Insertion Point
(c) Command
(d) Instructions.
Answer:
(b) Insertion Point

Question 5.
To Select a …………. double click on it.
(a) Word
(b) Text
(c) Sentence
(d) Paragraph.
Answer:
(a) Word

Question 6.
Cut and Copy commands are available in ………….. menu.
(a) File
(b) Edit
(c) Format
(d) Help.
Answer:
(b) Edit

Question 7.
Backspace key is used to delete the alphabet from the ………….. side of Cursor.
(a) Right
(b) Left
(c) Above
(d) Below.
Answer:
(b) Left

Question 8.
color line appears below the wrong word.
(a) Green
(b) Yellow
(c) Red
(d) Blue.
Answer:
(c) Red

Question 9.
The Page number, Page name, date and time are written in the and, which appears on every page of document.
(a) Upper, Lower
(b) Header, Footer
(c) Margin, Footer
(d) Word, Spreadsheet.
Answer:
(b) Header, Footer

Question 10.
Margins and tabs are available in page setup dialog box.
(a) Orientation
(b) Layout
(c) Page
(d) Columns.
Answer:
(b) Layout

2. True/False

1. Title bar appears below the Screen of word.
Answer:
False

2. Word Pad is a Word Processing Package.
Answer:
False

3. The small screen that appears on the right side of the window is called task pane.
Answer:
True

4. The text is added to where the insertion point is.
Answer:
True

5. To exit from the word click File Exit.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Columns
Table 1
Answer:
Table 2

4. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the steps to select a text with the help of mouse.
Answer:
Place the cursor in front of the text and then left click on the mouse button, hold it and drag it over the text and then release it. The text will be selected.

Double click on the word to select the same word.
To Select the entire paragraph, click within the paragraph three times.
To select the complete document, in the Home tab from the editing group, click Select command and then click the Select All button.

Question 2.
Write steps to select the text with the help of keyboard.
Answer:
Press Shift + Arrow keys from the keyboard; Hold down the Shift key and press the arrow button, Word will select the text in the direction of the arrow button. There are three arrow keys in numeric keypad, so you can select text in three different directions.

Question 3.
What do you mean by font?
Answer:
A Font is a graphical representation of the text that may include type, size, design, color, weight of the text.

Question 4.
Write steps to change case of the text.
Answer:

Sentence case: It capitalizes the first letter of each sentence.
Lowercase: It changes the text from uppercase to lowercase.
Uppercase: It capitalizes all the all letters of your text.
Capitalize Each Word: It capitalizes the first letter of each word.
Toggle Case: It allows you to Shift between two case views, e.g. to Shift between Capitalize Each Word and CAPITALIZE EACH WORD.

Question 5.
What do you mean by alignment?
Answer:
You can change the text alignment in your document to make it more presentable and readable.
There are four types of alignments available in the paragraph group which is as follows :

Align Text Left (Ctrl + L): Aligns the selected text with the left margin.
Align Text Right (Ctrl + R): Aligns the selected text with the right margin.
Center (Ctrl + E): This aligns the selected text to the center within the margin.
Justify (Ctrl + J): Aligns text to both left and right margins, adding extra space between words as necessary.

Question 6.
Write down the ways to delete page number.
Answer:
If you want to delete the previously, entered page number, click on the Page Number option from the Header & Footer group of the Insert tab and click on the Remove Page Number option from the drop-down list.

Question 7.
How can you format the shapes?
Answer:
Shapes: This button is used to insert the shapes such as circles, squares, arrows and triangles into a document, When the button is clicked. Here are the steps to insert the shape:

In the Insert tab, click on the Shapes option from the Illustrations tab.
A gallery of different shapes will appear.
Click the desired shape and then drag the shape into the document.

If you want to write something in the drawn shape, here are the steps :

Right click on the drawn shape.
Click Add Text from the pop-up menu.

5. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Format Painter? How can we use it?
Answer:
Format Painter:
With the help of Format Painter we can copy the format already applied to the text in our document very easily and without wasting time. Below are the steps for copying text formatting :
Method 1.

First select the text whose formatting you want to copy.
Click the Home tab and click the Format Painter command.
The pointer changes to a paintbrush icon.
Use the brush and drag it over the text where you want to apply the formatting.
To cancel formatting, press the Esc key or click on the Format Painter command.

Method 2.

First select the text whose formatting you want to copy.
Now press the Ctrl + Shift + C button.
Click on the text where you want to apply the copied formatting.
Now press the Ctrl + Shift + V button.

Question 2.
What is Font Color? How can we change it?
Answer:
Font Color:
If you want to change the color of a word or paragraph in your document, you must select a font color for this purpose. Here are the steps to change the color of the text.
1. Select the text you want to change color.
2. Select the appropriate color from the Font dialog box as shown in the picture above.
Or
1. Select the text you want to change the color.
2. Click on the Font Color option from the Font group as shown in thepicture below. Now a pull down menu will open.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 4 Microsoft Word (Part-II) 1
3. Choose your favorite color from this menu. Now your text will change to that color.

Question 3.
What is text highlight color? Write steps to use it.
Answer:
Text Highlight Color:
Just as we can highlight a word or a sentence in our written document with the help of a pen, we can highlight our text with any color in MS Word.

Select the text you want to highlight.
Click on the Text Highlight option from the Fonts group. Now a pull down menu will open.
Now choose your favorite color from this menu. Your text will be highlighted in that color.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Word Art? How can we add it?
Answer:
Word Art:
Word Art is designed to allow you make your text more attractive; you can format your text to make it look like a picture or 3D art and enhance its appearance in different ways. The steps to insert Word Art are given below :

Select the text you want to change.
Then click on the Insert tab.
Click on the Word Art drop-down arrow in the Text group.
A drop-down menu of Word Art style will appear. Click the style you want to use.
Word will automatically create a text box for the text.
Now click Ok button, the text will appear in the selected style.

Question 5.
Write steps to change the alignment of the text.
Answer:
You can change the text alignment in your document to make it more presentable and readable.
There are four types of alignments available in the paragraph group which is as follows:

Align Text Left (Ctrl + L): Aligns the selected text with the left margin.
Align Text Right (Ctrl + R): Aligns the selected text with the right margin.
Center (Ctrl + E): This aligns the selected text to the center within the margin
Justify (Ctrl + J): Aligns text : to both left and right margins, adding extra space between words as necessary.

Here are the steps to change the alignment:

Select the text.
Click the appropriate alignment button from the Paragraph group of the Home tab.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Microsoft Word (Part-I)

October 14, 2024October 13, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Computer Science Book Solutions Chapter 3 Microsoft Word (Part-I) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Computer Science Chapter 3 Microsoft Word (Part-I)

Computer Guide for Class 7 PSEB Microsoft Word (Part-I) Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Ctrl + S used to …………………
(a) Save
(b) Open
(c) New
(d) Close.
Answer:
(a) Save

Question 2.
Below the ruler, the large area is called the ………………..
(a) Text Area
(b) Open Area
(c) Close Area
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Text Area

Question 3.
There are two scroll bars in a word document ……………. and …………… .
(a) Horizontal, vertical
(b) Left, Right
(c) Upper Bar, Lower Bar
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Horizontal, vertical

Question 4.
To Open a new document, ……………. Press keys from the keyboard.
(a) Ctrl + O
(b) Ctrl + N
(c) Ctrl + S
(d) Ctrl + 5.
Answer:
(b) Ctrl + N

Question 5.
The view shows the document as it will look when it is printed.
(a) Print Layout
(b) Draft
(c) Outline
(d) Full size.
Answer:
(a) Print Layout

2. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the name of option that is present at the bottom-right corner of every group.
Answer:
Dialog Box Launcher.

Question 2.
Write the name of the top most bar of the Word window.
Answer:
The top bar of the Word window is the title bar.

Question 3.
Which View of MS Word displays the document in the same way as we get it after printing?
Answer:
Print layout View

Question 4.
Write the shortcut to create a New document.
Answer:
The Ctrl + 0 shortcut key is used to open a new document.

Question 5.
Which layout view shows the outline of a document?
Answer:
Outline view represents the outline of the document.

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a Word Processor?
Answer:
Word processing is a process by which we can create, save, and print any type of document in a computer and it can be used anytime in the future and can be edited if required. The software that is used for word processing process called word processor. For example: MS Word, Note Pad, Word Pad and word perfect all are word processors.

Question 2.
Write the name of some Word Processing Software.
Answer:
The software that is used for word processing process called word processor. For example: MS Word, Note Pad, Word Pad and word perfect all are word processors.

Question 3.
How to start the MS Word?
Answer:
The steps to start MS Word are as follows:
2. Now click on All Program from the popup menu as shown in the picture below.
3. Now click MS Office→MS Word.
Or
Type ‘Word” in the search bar as shown in the picture below and press Enter key from the keyboard

Question 4.
Write the name of different parts of MS word window.
Answer:
Components of MS word window are as follow:

File menu/Office button:
- Home
- Insert
- Page layout
- References
- Review
- view
Quick access toolbar
Title bar
Ribbon
- Tabs
- Group
- Commands
Ruler
Help
Document area
Status bar
Dialog box launcher 10, view Buttons
- Print layout view
- Full Screen view
- Web Layout view
- Draft view
- Outline view

Question 5.
Define the Text Area.
Answer:
Right below the ruler, there is a large space called the text area. This is the area where we type our document; the blinking line in this area is called the insertion point which indicates that your typing will start from this place.

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the special features of MS Word.
Answer:
Some of the special features of Microsoft word are as follows:

MS Word allows us to include text anywhere in the document.
We can delete any word, line or page from the document as easily as we erase the words written on paper.
We can cut and copy the text and paste it anywhere in the same document or any other document.
MS Word allows us to set the page margin and page size according to our needs.
We can add Bold, Italic and Underline effects to the text.
We can change the size, style, color of the text.
We can add header on the top of pages and footer on the bottom of the page.
We can add pictures, chart, graphs and smart art.
We can convert the text into tables.
You can also set different margins in a document and also determine the different locations to start a paragraph.
It also provides us with the facility of macro. This is a list of many commands with which our time is saved.
MS Word also provides us the facility of spelling checks. It shows a red line below the words that are incorrect.
MS Word also provides us the facility of grammar checks.
It also provides Find and Replace option.
It also provides the facility of dictionary with which we can find many words with the same meaning and use them in our document.

Question 2.
Explain Document views in MS Word.
Answer:
At the bottom right of the window screen is a set of 5 buttons that allow us to view the document in a different view.
1. Print Layout:
This is the default document view in Word. The Print Layout view shows the document as it would appear after printing. Full Screen Layout view: This view opens the document to a full screen. This layout helps us to make our document easily readable above the screen.

2. Web Layout:
This view displays a document on the screen the way it will look when viewed in a Web browser if you saved it as a web page. Out Line view: The outline view shows the document as an outline form.

3. Draft view: This is the most commonly used view, in this view we can edit our document very quickly and easily.

Question 3.
How to Create and Save a New Document in MS Word?
Answer:
Follow these steps to create a new document:
2. Now click on New option from the drop down menu.
3. A New Document dialog box will appears on the screen.
4. Click Blank Document option from this dialog box and then Click Create Option.
5. Now a blank document will appear on the screen.
Or
You can create a new document by pressing the Ctrl + N keys from the keyboard.
Saving A File:
To save a newly created document follows these steps:
1. Click the File tab or Office Button.
2. Click Save option. The Save dialog box appears.
3. Now type the name of your document in File name box and then click Save button.
Or
You can also save your document by pressing the Ctrl + S keys from Keyboard.
Now your document is safe for future use.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Guide Microsoft Word (Part-I) Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
……………… is used to open other options in any group.
(a) Open button
(b) New button
(c) Dialog Box Launcher
(d) All these.
Answer:
(c) Dialog Box Launcher

Question 2.
The …………….. tab is used to prepare the thesis or books.
(a) Insert
(b) design
(c) Review
(d) Reference.
Answer:
(d) Reference.

Question 3.
Orientation option is available in …………..tab.
(a) Design
(b) insert
(c) Page Layout
(d) home.
Answer:
(c) Page Layout

Question 4.
Which keys are used to secure the work done.
(a) Ctrl + N
(b) Ctrl + S
(c) Ctrl + 0
(d) Ctrl + P.
Answer:
(b) Ctrl + S

Question 5.
The total number of pages and words appears on the …………… bar.
(a) Title
(b) Status
(c) Horizontal
(d) None.
Answer:
(b) Status

Question 6.
Document can be typed in ………………. area in Word window.
(a) Text
(b) font
(c) Format
(d) View.
Answer:
(a) Text

Question 7.
The table option is available in the ……………. menu.
(a) File
(b) home
(c) Insert
(d) design.
Answer:
(c) Insert

Question 8.
Prepared documents are called …………………… .
(a) Template
(b) Blank document
(c) Table
(d) Margin.
Answer:
(a) Template

2. True/False

Question 1.
MS-Word is not a word Processing Software.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
We cannot find and replace a word in MS-Word.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Tabs appear on the top of ribbon.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Ctrl+C keys are used to create a document.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
In MS-Word there are three types of ruler.
Answer:
False

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Microsoft Word?
Answer:
MS Word is word processor software published by Microsoft Company that works on formatting text and graphics and creating a variety of documents.

Question 2.
Write the names of all the groups available in the Home tab.
Answer:
It consists of clipboard, font, paragraph, styles and editing groups.

Question 3.
Which option is used to check grammatical errors in a document?
Answer:
The grammar check option is used to check the grammatical errors.

Question 4.
Which option is used to check the spellings of words in the document?
Answer:
The Spell check option is used to check the spellings of words.

Question 5.
What are tabs?
Answer:
Tabs are groups of related commands that appear at the top of the ribbon.

Question 6.
Which view can you use to view the document as an outline form?
Answer:
Outline view is use to view the document as an outline form.

Question 7.
Which option is used for MS-Word related help?
Answer:
Help icon is used for MS-Word related support.

Question 8.
Which option is used to add one document to another document?
Answer:
Mail-Merge option is used to add one document to another document.

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is word processing? Write down its features also.
Answer:
Wort Processing:
We make a lot of mistakes when typing a document with the help of typewriter, which we can’t correct again, we have to type the document again to make it better, but word processing gives us a facility through which we can easily correct our mistakes in typed documents without having to retype them.

Word processing is a process by which we can create, save and print any type of document in a computer and it can be used anytime in the future and can be edited if required. The software that is used for word processing process called word processor. For example: MS Word, Note Pad, Word Pad and word perfect all are word processors.

Features of Word Processing:
Following are the features of word processor :

A word processor provides an easier and faster method to type the text.
It offers so many styles, size, color, effects for text.
Using a word processor, you can apply editing operations to the text.
It stores all your documents for. future use.
It allows you to insert photos, music, background etc. into the document.
It can move any document from one place to another with the help of cut, copy, and paste option.
You can delete, edit, update the data in the pre-created document at any time.
It helps us to find and correct mistakes in the typed text.
It also provide the facility to check the grammar mistakes in the typed text.

Question 2.
How we can open a document in MS Word?
Answer:
Open an Existing Document:
Follow these steps to open an existing document:

Click the File tab or Office Button.
Click Open option. The Open dialog box appears.
As shown in picture below select a document which you want to open and then Click Open button.
Now your document will open on the screen.
Or
You can open an existing document by pressing the Ctrl + O keys from the keyboard.

Question 3.
Write down all the commands of File Menu.
Answer:
1. File Menu:
This option is available in the upper left corner of the window, it contains many of the following commands:

(a) Home:
It has options like font color, font size, font style, alignment, bullets, line spacing, etc. All the basic elements that someone might need to edit their document are available in the Home option.

(b) Insert:
Tables, sizes, images, charts, graphs, headers, footers, page numbers, etc. are available in insert options.

(c) Design:
The template (pre-created document design) or the design in which you want your document to be created can be selected under the Design tab.

(d) Page layout:
Under the Page Layout tab we can find the options such as Margins, Orientation, Columns, Lines, Indentations, Spacing, etc.

(e) Reference:
This tab is most useful for those who are preparing thesis or writing books or working on a long document. Footnote, table of content, bibliography, captions etc. options can be found under this tab.

(f) Review:
Spell check, grammar, thesaurus, word count, language, translation, comments, etc. can all be tracked under the Review tab.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

October 11, 2024October 10, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Sports injuries and their Treatment Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Sports Injuries?
Answer:
Injuries are common things in human life. There is a little risk of injury during work. If there is a minor mistake or negligence, there can be an injury. Similarly, players receive injuries in the playground, they receive injuries. There is a difference between the injuries we receive during the general work & the injuries received in the playgrounds.

If a player comes to the ground fully prepared & carefully, there are fewer chances of injuries for him as compared to other players, but we cannot say that he will not receive injuries at all, every player receives some injuries in his sports life. Common injuries received during playing games can be cured within one or two days, but sometimes a player receives a serious injury, as a result he has to be out of the field for a long time.

Question 2.
What are Exposed Injuries?
Answer:
These kind of injuries are generally received in playground during playing games. These injuries are received on outer parts of the body & these can be seen clearly.
It is of three types-
1. Abrasion:
Under this kind of injury the outer part of the skin is peeled off due to abrasion, even internal part of the. skin is also peeled off. This Injury is received, when a player falls on hard ground.

2. Incision:
Sometimes players strike against each other very hard during the game as a result one player’s sharp body part like elbow, knee or other sharp part hits the other player & his skin gets torn as a result. The player may receive this injury due to striking in some hard objects.

3. Punctured Wound:
This Injury received during game is considered very serious. This injury is caused by some sharp or pointed objects.

Question 3.
Which injuries are called unexposed injuries?
Answer:
These injuries are visible on the outer part of the body. They are called unexposed or invisible injuries. These injuries are received usually on heavy muscles or on joints. The main cause of these injuries is over strain or burden put of the muscles or on Joints. The player feels sharp pain in these injuries and it takes much time to heal the injury.

Question 4.
What is the difference between dislocation and fracture?
Answer:
Dislocation:
People misunderstand dislocation as fracture whereas there is a great difference between both injuries. The bone dislocates from the joint due to overstrain or sudden jerk. The affected joint stops moving in this injury and the player is unable to play. This injury is received while running fast in the ground, striking hard against other player, hitting a pole or a table or over bending of joint while falling down.

Fracture:
Bone broken into two pieces due to an injury is called fracture. Breaking of the bone is a serious injury. It causes a great pain to the player and takes a long time in healing. There are many kinds of fracture, among these there are common and serious injuries as well.

Question 5.
What is fracture? Write its symptoms & treatments of the fracture.
Answer:
Bone broken into two pieces due to an injury is called fracture. Breaking of bone is a serious injury. It causes a great pain to the player & takes a long time in healing. There are many kinds of fracture, among these there are common & serious injuries as well.

Symptoms:

The Injured bone gets deformed.
There is severe pain on the injured Spot.
There can be cracking sound. If the bone is moved.
The injured body parts stops working.

Treatment:
The Injured bone should be supported with iron or wooden plate by tying them up with it, after the fracture even gauge can be used to support the injured bone. It should not be moved at all. One must try to stop bleeding, if it flows from the injury. The player should be taken to the doctor immediately so that X-ray of the injury can be done to know in details of it.

Question 6.
What are the main causes of sports injuries?
Answer:
(a) Lack of knowledge:
The player should have complete knowledge of the rules & the equipments used in the games. Sometimes the players starts playing without having the complete knowledge of sports equipments and hence, there remain a risk of injury.

(b) Lack of Physical ability:
There is a great importance of training for good performance in games. If a player starts playing without proper training of the game he may receive injuries due to lack of strength, speed and flexibility.

(d) Faulty methods of warming up:
Warming up of the body is very necessary before playing a game, so that muscles of a player are able to bear the burden of the game properly.

(e) Improper playgrounds:
Sometime due to unlevelled playground, pits scattering of sharp objects and nails causes injuries. The playground should be checked properly before playing.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Sports injuries and their Treatment Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Types of exposed injury:
(A) Abrasion
(B) Incision
(C) Punctvfred wound
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 2.
What is Dislocation?
(A) When bone of joint misplaced
(B) Joint become immovable
(C) Player is unable to play
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 3.
Causes of Sprain.
(A) Heavy pain on the joint
(B) Swelling on the affected joint
(C) The place of joint become red
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
What are the main causes of Sports Injuries?
(A) Lack of knowledge
(B) Lack of physical ability
(C) Negligence
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 5.
Write the symptoms of fracture.
(A) Bone gets deformed
(B) Injured parts stop working
(C) Severe pain in the part of injury
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 6.
Causes of Sprain.
(A) Severe pain on injured place
(B) Player can not run
(C) Swelling on the spot
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What should not be there in playfield?
Answer:
Pieces of glass and stones.

Question 2.
What Should not be there near the boundary line of field?
Answer:
Wire and Wall.

Question 3.
What types of equipment should be used in play?
Answer:
It should.be of International level.

Question 4.
In which spirit we should not play?
Answer:
Revenge.

Question 5.
What type of ground is?
Answer:
Even.

Question 6.
Write the type of Injuries of Sports?
Answer:
It is of 2 Types:

Exposed injuries
Unexposed injuries

Question 7.
What is Sprain?
Answer:
Sprain is the Injury of joints. Tissue which connect the joints are affected in the injury. Pressure is put on joints of the player while running in the playground. Tissues of his joints get strained or broken is called sprain.

Question 8.
What is Strain?
Answer:
This is an injury of the tissues & generally received on the heavy muscles. A Player’s muscles are pulled under this injury’ as a result he feels a severe pain & he is unable to work, run or to do any other activity properly.

Question 9.
What is dislocation?
Answer:
People misunderstand dislocation as fracture. The bone dislocates from the joint due to over strain. The affected, joint stops moving in this injury & the player is unable to play

Question 10.
What is Fracture?
Answer:
Bone broken into two pieces due to an injury is called fracture.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down the symptoms of dislocation of bone?
Answer:

The joint is deformed
There is severe pain
There is swelling on the joint & the skin turns red.

Question 2.
Write the Symptoms of Fracture.
Answer:

The injured bone gets deformed.
The injured body parts stop Working.
There is severe pain on the injured spot.

Question 3.
Write the causes of injuries in the field of sports?
Answer:

Lack of Knowledge
Lack of Physical ability
Negligence
Faulty Methods of Warming up
Improper Playgrounds.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Strain? Write its symptoms & treatment.
Answer:
Strain is an injury of tissues & generally received on heavy muscles. A player’s muscles are pulled under this injury as a result he feels a severe pain & he is unable to walk, run to do any other activity properly.

Symptoms:

There is a severe pain on the injury spot.
The injury spot turns red.
There is a Swelling on the spot.
There is a huge pain during any movement.

Question 2.
What is Fracture? Write its symptoms & treatment?
Answer:
Bone broken into two pieces due to an injury is called fracture. Breaking of the bone is serious injury. It causes a great pain to the player & takes a long time in healing.

Symptoms:

The Injured bone gets deformed.
There is a severe pain on injured spot.
There can be cracking sound, if the bone is moved.
The injured body part stops working.

Treatment:
The injured bone should be supported with iron or wooden plate by tying them up with it. Even gauge can be used to support the injured bone. One must try to stop bleeding, if it flows from the injury. The player should be taken to the doctor, so that X-ray of the injury can be done to know the details.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire

October 11, 2024October 10, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Why did Daulat Khan Lodhi and Rana Sanga invite Babar to attack on India?
Answer:
The nobles invited Babar to fight the Lodhis because of the following reasons :

The Lodhi kings tried to suppress the power of their nobles who had tried to become independent rulers in different provinces.
Ibrahim Lodhi, the last of the Lodhi kings, was proud, cruel and inefficient.
He also ill-treated Daulat Khan Lodhi, the Goveror of Punjab.
The nobles had thought that after plundering some parts of northern India, Babar, like other invaders, will leave for Kabul and then they would be able to assert their independence.

Question 2.
What do you know about Babar’s conquests?
Answer:
In the first battle of Panipat in 1526 A.D., Babar defeated Ibrahim Lodhi and occupied Delhi and Agra. Rana Sanga became angry with this. As a result, he led a huge army against Babar in the battle of Kanwah. Rana Sanga was defeated in the battle of Kanwah by Babar. With this victory, North India came under complete control of Babar.

Babar also defeated the Rajputs in the battle of Chandri in 1528 A.D. Babar also defeated the Afghans in 1529 A.D. at the battle of Ghaghara. He died in 1530 A.D.

Question 3.
Write about the conquests of Akbar,
Answer:
At the time of Humayun’s death, Akbar was only thirteen years old. He was not a ruler of any part of India. Akbar’s first conflict came with Hemu. He was an ambitious general of one of the Afghan princes. A battle of Panipat was fought between Bairam Khan, the Regent of Akbar and Hemu. Hemu was defeated in the battle of Panipat. Akbar captured Delhi and Agra which the Mughals had lost.

In 1560 A.D., Akbar himself took the reigns of the administration. After that his victories are as under :
1. Victories in North India :

Victories over Rajputs. In 1562 A.D., Akbar attacked the Rajputs. The King of Amber, Raja Bihari Mai accepted the subordination of Akbar and married his daughter to him. Besides, other Rajput rulers also accepted the subordination of Akbar e.g. Kalinjar, Marwar, Jaisalmer, Bikaner etc.
Struggle of Mewar. The ruler of Mewar Rana Pratap never wanted to . accept the subordination of Akbar. In 1569 A.D. Akbar occupied the capital of Mewar, Chittor. Still Maharana Pratap continued his struggle with the Mughals.
Victory over Gujarat. In 1572-73 A.D., Akbar got victory over Gujarat, (in) Victory over Bihar-Bengal. In 1574-76 A.D., Akbar defeated the rulers of Bihar and Bengal and occupied those states.
Other victories. Slowly Akbar got hold of Kashmir, Sindh, Orissa, Balochistan and Kandhar.

2. Victories in South India. After north India, Akbar shifted his attention to south India, then in south India he got the following victories :

Victory in Bijapur and Golkunda. This was achieved in 1591 A.D.
Victory over Khandesh. In 1601 A.D. Sultan Ali Khan of Khandesh accepted the subordination of Akbar. •
Control over Ahmednagar. In 1601 A.D., Akbar’s army defeated Chand Bibi of Ahmednagar and took control of the city.
Control over Berar. Akbar even took control over the Berar area of south India.

Question 4.
What do you mean by the Agrarian system of the Mughals?
Answer:
In Mughal state, the main source of revenue was Land Tax.

Improvement in the tradition of Land Tax.

The crop produce in some parts of the state was more than the other. The kind of crop too was different, so Akbar managed to collect land tax differently.
The total production of the empire and the total revenue collected on it.
One-third of the production was decided to be the land tax. This helped the peasants a lot.
In case of drought or excessive rains, the land revenue was often remitted.
The land was measured in ‘bighas’.

Classification of Land: Akbar classified the land into four parts :

Polaj Land: It was very fertile land. Any crop could be sown on this land at anytime.
Parauti Land: On this land, sowing could be done after one or two years.
Chhachhar Land: The sowing could be done after three-four years.
Barren Land: Sowing could be done after five-six years.

Collection of Land Tax: The land tax collection systems were as follows :

Kankut System: According to this system the govt, would collect land tax by approximating the value of the standing crop.
Batai System: According to this system when the crop was harvested, then 1/3 part was taken by the govt.
Nasak System: According to this system the crop of the whole village was approximated and the land tax was fixed.

The Mughal govt, gave loans to the farmers to make more and more land agriculturable. At the time of drought and flood, the land tax was given exemption.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Tuzuk-i-Babari is the autobiography of ________
Answer:
Babar

Question 2.
The battle of Kanwaha was fought between Babar and ________
Answer:
Rana Sanga

Question 3.
Akbar defeated Hemu in ________
Answer:
1556 A.D, Panipat

Question 4.
Babar wrote ________
Answer:
Tuzuk-i-Babari

Question 5.
Abul Fazl wrote ________
Answer:
Akbarnama.

III. Write True or False for each statement :

Question 1.
The Mughals came to India in 1525 A.D.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Daulat Khan Lodhi and Rana Sanga invited Babar to invade India.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Sher Shah Suri was a Mughal ruler.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Rajputs were very well treated during the reign of Aurangzeb.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The Deccan policy of Aurangzeb strengthened the Mughal Empire.
Answer:
False

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, show the extent of Mughal Empire.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of Indian Map.

Question 2.
Collect the pictures of Mughal Emperors and paste in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When Akbar came into Power?
(a) 1560
(b) 1558
(c) 1564
(d) 1556
Answer:
(d) 1556.

Question 2.
Who wrote Ain-i-Akbari?
(a) Abul Fazl
(b) Tansen
(c) Raja Man Singh
(d) Todar Mai
Answer:
(a) Abul Fazl.

Question 3.
Mughal tradition of succession was to divide state into ________ of the father.
(a) Sons
(b) Daughters
(c) A & B Both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Sons.

Question 4.
Mother of Jahangir was the princess of
(a) Raikot
(b) Amber
(c) Ajmer
(d) Jaisalmer.
Answer:
(b) Amber.

Question 5.
Term Mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a
(a) Jagir
(b) Land
(c) Mansab
(d) Suba.
Answer:
(c) Mansab.

Question 6.
The Mansabdars were required to maintain specified number of
(a) Horses
(b) Cavalry men
(c) Soldiers
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Cavalry men.

Question 7.
Revenue Minister of Akbar was
(a) Todar Mai
(b) Tansen
(c) Abul Fazl
(d) Birbal.
Answer:
(a) Todar Mai.

Question 8.
Revenue circle with its own schedule revenue rates for individual crops is known as
(a) Mansab
(b) Zat
(c) Zabt
(d) Jagir.
Answer:
(b) Zat.

Question 9.
Whole of the Mughal Empire was divided into “different
(a) Cities
(b) Towns
(c) Faujdars
(d) Subas.
Answer:
(d) Subas.

Question 10.
Subedar of every Suba was supported by officer like
(a) Bakshi
(c) Sadr
(b) Faujdar
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When and between whom was the first battle of Panipat fought? Who was defeated?
Answer:
It was fought in 1526 A.D., between Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi. Ibrahim Lodhi was defeated in this battle.

Question 2.
Who was Babar? Write in brief about his victories.
Answer:

Babar was a good general and he knew how to use his soldiers to the best advantage.
Babar had brought artillery from central Asia and this was one of the main reasons for his success.
Babar’s cavalry was better trained.
The soldiers of Lodhi King were not faithful to him.
Babar arranged his soldiers in such a way that they could easily move from one part of the battle to another.

Babar’s Victories. Babar was the founder of the Mughal empire in India. He was a great conqueror who within a period of four years (1526-1529) won four battles:

Battle of Panipat
Battle of Kanwaha
Battle of Chaderi and
Battle of Ghagra.

In these battles, he proved himself to be a great military genius. He was also a great writer who patronised great scholars. His autobiography known as ‘Tuzuk-i-Babari’, in Turkish language, is a great piece of literature. He died in 1530 A.D. and was buried at Kabul in a beautiful grave.

Question 3.
Who exiled Humayun from India and when? When did he regain his state?
Answer:
Sheh Shah Suri exiled Humayun in 1540 A.D., but Humayun regained his state after defeating his successor Sikandar Suri in 1555 A.D. In 1556 A.D. Humayun died.

Question 4.
Who was Sher Shah? Why was he successful? Why is it said that he might have become a great Sultan?
Answer:
Sheh Shah Suri was an Afghan king. He defeated Humayun and founded the Suri Dynasty.

Reasons of his success:

Sher Shah was a determined man.
Before becoming the ruler, he administered the jagir of his father, so he had the experience of administration.
He was liberal and well-wisher of his people. Sher Shah Suri died in A.D. 1545.

Sher Shah ruled Delhi only for five years. He administered his state well. His land revenue system was of highest order. He did many works for the welfare of the people. His army was well disciplined. Thus we see that Sher Shah did many important works in a brief tenure of his rule. Had he lived for longer period, he would have been the greatest ruler.

Question 5.
What were the features of the administration of Sher Shah Suri?
Answer:
Sher Shah ruled only for a short span of five years (1540-45 A.D.) but even during such a short period, he had achieved so much that it is said that he might have become a great Sultan.

There are many reasons for his success or greatness :
1. Man of Great Qualities: He was a great military genius and clever statesman. He duped Humayun several times and ultimately defeated him.

2. Administrative Reforms: Sher Shah was successful because he was a great administrator. He appointed efficient and honest officers to administer his state well. He treated all his subjects alike and even appointed Hindus on high posts.

3. Gearing up the Revenue Administration: Sher Shah got the whole land measured. A new assessment was made in order to fix a just tax. Land revenue was fixed at nearly one-third of the produce. Land revenue could be paid both in cash or in kind.

4. Reforming the Military Administration: Sher Shah fully knew that if he wanted to be successful he must organize his army on a strong footing. As such, he organized his army into a strong military force. .

5. Construction of Roads and Highways: Sher Shah built several good roads for promoting trade and commerce for the safe travel of the public.

Question 6.
Who made Altbar sit on the throne and when?
Answer:
It was Bairam Khan in 1556 A.D.

Question 7.
Who was Bairam Khan? When did Akbar depose him from his post?
Answer:
Bairam Khan was patron of Akbar. He was deposed in 1560 A.D. by Akbar.

Question 8.
Name the main features of Akbar’s Rajput policy.
Answer:
Akbar captured the Rajput kingdoms of Gwalior, Ajmer and Malwa. These conquests brought him into the neighbourhood of the Rajput kingdoms. Akbar was very far-sighted. He realised that there could be no permanent Mughal rule in India without the help and loyalty of Rajput princes. So he made friends with them. He entered into marital alliances between his family and various Rajput royal families. He himself married a number of Rajput princesses. They became his sincere friends, trusted advisers and his loyal and gallant comrades on the battlefield. Rhagwan Dass and Man Singh were his famous Rajput generals. But the Rana of Mewar, Rana Partap did not relent to Akbar.

Question 9.
Write about the central administrative system of Akbar/Mughals.
Answer:
The description is as follows :
1. King. King was the chief of administration. He had many assistants to help him, e.g. Wakil, Diwan-i-Ala, Mir-Bakshi, Sadar-i-Sadur, Qazi-ul-Qazat and Khan-i- Saman.

2. Wakil. He was the prime minister of the state. He would give information to the emperor about chief happenings. He would always carry out the orders of the emperor.

3. Diwan-i-Ala was the finance minister. He would take care of income-expenditure account of the state. He would also make laws about the taxes.

4. Mir Bakshi. He would keep records of Mansabdars. He would distribute salary to them. He would also take care of military institutions.

5. Sadar-i-Sadur. He was the chief of department of religious affairs. He would keep an account of religious affairs and educational institutions.

6. Qazi-ul-Qazat. He would give his opinions to emperor on Islamic laws for delivering the justice.

7. Khan-i-Saman. He would take care of the royal family and factories.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on the state administrative system of Akbar/Mughals.
Answer:
Akbar had divided his empire into 15 states for running his administration properly. The main state officials were as follows.

Subedar: He was the highest official of the state. His main function was to keep law and order in the state.
Diwan: He was the chief of finance of the state. The accounts of income-expenditure of state were under his department.
Bakshi: He would take care of military arrangements as well as horses.
Sadar: He would prepare details about saints, seers, peers and fakirs.
Waqiyanavis: He was the chief of detective department.
Kotwal: He was the police official. His main function was to maintain peace and order in the city.

Question 11.
Write a comment on the local administration of the Mughals/Akbar.
Answer:
Akbar had divided his empire into states and states were further sub-divided into districts, parganas and villages :
1. Administration of District :

Faujdar: He was the chief administrator of the district. He would carry out the orders of the Badshah and maintain law and order.
Amil-Guzar: His main function was to collect taxes.
Bitikchi and Khazandar: Both these official were the assistants of Amil Guzar.

2. Administration of Parganas:

Shiqdar: To maintain law and order in the pargana.
Amil: To collect land tax.
Potdar and Qanungo: Both these were assistants of Amil.

3. Administration of Villages: Most villages were administered by Panchayats. These developed the villages and take care of the village conflicts. ‘Chowdhary’, ‘Muqqadam’ and ‘Patwari’ were the assistants of Panchayat.

Question 12.
Write a short note of Mansabdari System.
Answer:
The Mansabdari system was the most important feature of the Mughal administration. The Mansab means rank. Each noble was given a mansab or rank and was called the mansabdar. The mansab or rank was based on the numbers of mounted soldiers at the command of the officers. Each mansabdar was required to perform any civil and military duty as was assigned to him by the emperor. Mansab was not hereditary. Hence it could not be passed on to his descendants. Thus every mansabdar owed his allegiance to the emperor.

Classes of Mansabdars. In the period of Akbar, Mansabdars had 33 classes. The lowest mansabdar had 10 soldiers and the highest mansabdar had 10,000 soldiers in his subordination.

Duties of Mansabdars. Mansabdars were appointed by the emperor at the recommendation of Mir Bakhshi. He could be put to any work. The salary was also given according to his class. He could be promoted as well as denoted in status as well as salary.

Question 13.
What do you know about Nur Jahan? What was her importance in Jahangir’s Court?
Answer:
Nur Jahan was a talented woman. Her original name was Mehr-un-Nisa. Jahangir married her in 1611 A.D. She set the fashion in dress and manners at the court. She had a great consideration in the Mughal court. She had a great influence in the administration. There was hardly any affair of importance in which she was not consulted. Jahangir fell ill for a long period. During this period she became a real ruler of the empire. Her name was associated with Jahangir on coins and privy seals.

Question 14.
“The reign of Aurangzeb (1658-1707) is described as the most disturbed among Mughal emperors.” ‘Why?
Answer:
The reign of Aurangzeb is described as the most disturbed due to the following reasons or facts :
1. Aurangzeb was a Sunni Muslim bigot. He ill-treated the followers of other religions. He ill-treated even the Sufi Saints.

2. Aurangzeb imposed Zazia on all the non-Muslim subjects particularly on the Hindus. He also destroyed their temples.

3. Aurangzeb martyred the ninth Guru of Sikhs, Guru Teg Bahadur Ji at Delhi. As a result, the Sikhs became sworn enemies of the Mughals.

4. The Rajput rulers of Mewar and Marwar also rose against the Mughals because they were discontented by the policies of Aurangzeb.

5. To conquer the Deccan states of Bijapur and Golkunda, Aurangzeb remained away from his capital for full 25 years (1682-1707 A.D.) His absence from his capital encouraged disruptive forces and gave rise to discontentment among the people.

Question 15.
How were the Marathas able to build up a strong and independent state? Was Aurangzeb able to control their rebellion?
Answer:
Following were the reasons for the establishment of an independent state of the Marathas.
1. Geographical reasons: Marathas lived in the hilly region of Maharashtra. They got natural forts on the hills. These forts helped them to establish an independent state.

2. Impact of Bhakti Movement: The Marathas were greatly benefited by the conversings of Bhakti movement in Deccan. The mutual differences of Marathas were reduced and a sense of brotherhood originated among them.

3. Political experience: After the decline of Delhi Sultanate, a number of small states were established in Deccan. They had a close look of the political life, which brought an awakening among them.

4. Hard workers: Marathas were the inhabitants of the hilly region. They struggled to earn their living. This habit of hard work made them brave.

5. Leadership of Shivaji: They were fortunate enough to have the leader like Shivaji. He united the scattered Marathas community and established a strong and independent state.

Rebellion of Marathas: The Marathas had become a great power. Aurangzeb wanted to crush them but could not succeed. In 1674 Shivaji declared himself an independent ruler. After Shivaji’s death, his son Shambhaji sat on throne. In 1689, Aurangzeb killed Shambhaji and occupied Maratha areas but Marathas continued their struggle under Raja Ram and afterwards his queen Tarabai. In 1707 A.D. after the death of Aurangzeb, Marathas reoccupied a large area of Mughals.

Question 16.
Describe the Sikh struggle against the Mughals during and after the administration of Aurangzeb. _
Answer:
The struggle of Sri Guru Teg Bahadur Ji: After Sri Guru Har Krishanji, Sri Guru Teg Bahadurji became the 9th Guru. He was against the anti-Hindu policies of Aurangzeb. So Aurangzeb was annoyed with Guruji. Guruji raised his voice against Aurangzeb when he tried to demolish the gurdwaras and he also spoke against Aurangzeb when he tried to expel the citizens who were having soft corners for the Guruji. Guruji was brought to Delhi and was asked to convert to Islam. Guruji declined and then he was severely tortured and he was martyred in Delhi’s Chandni Chowk in 1675 A.D.

Struggle of Guru Gobind Sahib Ji. Sri Guru Gobind Sahibji became the 10th Guru and continued his struggle against Mughal cruelty. In 1699 A.D., he founded the ‘Khalsa Panth’ and after that there was a struggle between the Sikhs and the Mughals. Guruji’s two elder sons Sahibzada Ajit Singh and Sahibzada Jujhar Singh became martyrs. Guruji’s younger two sons Sahibzada Zorawar Singh and Sahibzada Fateh Singh were buried alive in the wall at Sirhind.

Struggle of the Sikhs after Aurangzeb’s death. In 1707 A.D., Aurangzeb died. His successor Bahadur Shah tried to establish friendly relations with Sikhs but the Faujdar of Sirhind Wajir Khan sent a Pathan who by deception put knife into Guruji’s stomach. Guruji’s soul became one with God in 1708 A.D. After that the struggle continued under the leadership of Banda Singh Bahadur

Question 17.
Comment on the Deccan policy of Aurangzeb.
Answer:
Aurangzeb spent almost 25 years of his life in south India. He was a Sunni Muslim. So, he wanted to crush the independent Shia states of Bijapur and Golkonda in south India. These states helped Marathas against Mughals, so he wanted to crush the power of Marathas also.

In 1686 A.D., Aurangzeb occupied Bijapur and in 1687 A.D., he occupied Golkunda also. Shivaji died in 1680 A.D. but still Marathas continued their struggle. Aurangzeb failed to crush Marathas. In 1707 A.D., he died.

Question 18.
What were the causes that brought about the break-up of the Mughal empire?
Answer:
Following were the causes that brought about the break-up of the Mughal empire :

The successors of Aurangzeb were weak rulers.
The Mughal empire met with financial troubles.
Mughal administration was no longer as efficient as it used to be under Akbar.
The military administration of the Mughals had also become weaker.
Mughal India showed little awareness to the discoveries which the new science of Europe was revealing to Europeans.

Question 19.
Write about the visits of Europeans during Mughal period in India.
Answer:
During the period of Jahangir many European traders came to India. William Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe were the main visitors.

William Hawkins stayed in India for three years (1608-1611 A.D.). Based on his reports the British government established a factory in Surat in 1612 A.D.

Sir Thomas Roe was an English man who visited the court of Jahangir as an Ambassador from King James I. He remained at Agra for three years hoping to obtain some sort of permanant agreement with regard to trade which would place the English commerce in East Indian waters upon a sound basis. But he failed in his object. Sir Thomas Roe had left a very interesting account of his travels and experiences in India. He also left a wonderful account of king’s life and about the splendour and magnificence of the imperial court.

Question 20.
Describe the political condition of India during the Babar’s invasion.?
Answer:
The political condition was very pitiable. There was no centralized authority. The states were always fighting with each other.

The magnificence of Delhi Sultanate had declined. It was limited to Delhi and its nearby areas.
In Mewar, Rana Sanga had become quite powerful.
The Governor of Punjab, Daulat Khan Lodhi was thinking of taking revenge from Delhi Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi.
The rulers of Bengal and Bihar had also became powerful.
In South India, there were many states. Vijaynagar was the main kingdom. Bahmani Kingdom was also divided into many parts.

Question 21.
Write notes on each of the following :
1. Humayun
Answer:
Humayun: Humayun was the eldest son of Babar. He sat on the throne in 1530 A.D. He was defeated by Sher Shah Suri, in 1540 A.D. in the battles of Chausa and Kanauj. He spent almost 15 years in Persia. He succeeded in getting back his throne in 1555 A.D. but next year he died.

The following were the difficulties that he had to face at the time of accession :

Although Babar had conquered a vast territory in India and founded a Mughal dynasty but he did not live long enough to make it secure against his enemies. So Humayun faced with trouble from the beginning.
Being new to India the Mughals had difficulty in consolidating their position.
The Afghan nobles attacked the newly founded kingdom because they wanted them to leave India.
Bahadur Shah was the ruler of Gujarat and Sher Shah an ambitious Afghan king also threatened Delhi.

2. Jahangir
Answer:
Jahangir: Jahangir was the son of Akbar the Great. After the death of Akbar in 1605 A.D., he sat on the throne. He sent a military expedition against the son of Maharana Pratap-Rana Amar Singh. But afterwards, made peace with him on liberal terms and thus ended the long struggle between the Mughals and Mewar state.

The main events of his ruling period are as follows :

He faced a rebellion from his son Khusro but he crushed this rebellion.
Jahangir subjected Guru Arjan Devji to death penalty in a false case and after torture for five days, Guruji became martyr in 1606 A.D.
Another important event was the marriage to Noor Jahan. He gave Nur Jahan the name of ‘Noor Mahal’ (Light of the Palace).
In the court of Jahangir two diplomats from England, Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe came. They had come to India in order to obtain trading facilities.
Jahangir’s reign was most peaceful because :
(a) There were not too many campaigns in the reign of Jahangir.
(b) The struggle between Akbar and Rana of Mewar too was brought to an end by Jahangir.
(c) In order to create peace in the country Jahangir adopted the policy of matrimonial relations with Rajputs. .
(d) The struggle of the Mughals with Ahmednagar state, which had become a cause of anxiety, also came to an end.

This brought peace in the whole kingdom. Contrary to it, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb had to face many revolts and wars. This was the main cause of disturbance during their reigns.

3. Shah Jahan.
Answer:
Shah Jahan: Shah Jahan was the son of Mughal emperor Jahangir. His real name was Khurram, He sat on the throne in 1628 A.D., after the death of Jahangir. He ruled for almost 29 years.

Some main events of his ruling period are as follows :

The Bundels from hilly areas declared a rebellion. Shah Jahan sent a big army to crush this rebellion and compelled Jhujhar Singh to sign a treaty with Mughals.
In 1628 A.D, Shah Jahan celebrated the occasion of Noroz and organised a big lunch on this occasion.
He was in deep love with his wife Mumtaz Mahal. When she died on 7th June, 1631, Shah Jahan went into deep depression.
Shah Jahan was very fond of building magnificent buildings. He is known as an Engineer King. His reign is called the golden age of Mughal architecture. He is reminded even today for his two things the Taj Mahal and the Peacock Throne. He had built the Taj Mahal in memory of his queen Mumtaz Mahal.

The Peacock Throne was a golden jewel-studded throne which he used. It was later looted by Shah of Iran and taken to his country. Other beautiful buildings built by Shah Jahan were Jama Masjid, Moti Masjid, Red Fort at Delhi and Red Fort at Agra. Shah Jahan built a new city Shah Jahanabad as his capital.

Question 22.
Give an account of the main features of Shah Jahan and Jahangir’s rule.
Answer:
1. Shah Jahan (1628-1657 A.D.): Shah Jahan was the son of Mughal emperor Jahangir. His real name was Khurram. He sat on the throne in 1628, after the death of Jahangir. He ruled for almost 29 years.

Some main events of his ruling period are as given ahead :

The Bundels from hilly areas declared a rebellion. Shah Jahan sent a big army to crush this rebellion and compelled Jhujhar Singh to sign a treaty with Mughals.
In 1628 A.D., Shah Jahan celebrated the occasion of Noroz and organised a big lunch on this occasion.
He was in deep love with his wife Mumtaz Mahal. When she died on 7th June, 1631, Shah Jahan went into deep depression.
Shah Jahan was very fond of building magnificent buildings. He is known as an Engineer King. His reign is called the golden age of Mughal architectures. He is reminded even today for his two things the Taj Mahal and the Peacock Throne. He had built the Taj Mahal in the memory of his queen Mumtaz Mahal.

2. Jahangir (1605-1627 A.D.). Jahangir was the son of Akbar the Great. After the death of Akbar in 1605 A.D., he sat on the throne. He sent a military expedition against the son of Maharana Pratap-Rana Amar Singh. But afterwards; made peace with him on liberal terms and thu3 ended the long struggle between the Mughals and Mewar state.

The main events of his rutirig period are as follows:

He faced a rebellion from his son Khusro but he crushed this rebellion.
Jahangir subjected Guru Arjan Devji to death penalty in a false case and after a torture for five days. Guruji became martyr in 1606 A.D.
Another important event was marriage to Noor Jahan. He gave Nur Jahan the name of ‘Noor Mahal’ (Light of the Palace.).
In the court of Jahangir two diplomats from England, Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe came. They had come to India in order to obtain trading facilities.
Jahangir’s reign was most peaceful because ;
(a) There were not too many campaigns in the reign of Jahangir.
(b) The struggle between Akbar and Rana of Mewar too was brought to an end by Jahangir.
(c) In order to create peace in the country Jahangir adopted the policy of matrimonial relations with Rajputs.
(d) The struggle of the Mughals with Ahmednagar state, which had become a cause of anxiety, also came to an end.

This brought peace in the whole kingdom. Contrary to it, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb had to face many revolts and wars. This was the main cause of disturbance during their reigns.

Question 23.
Illustrate how Akbarnama and Ain-i-Akbari are used to reconstruct history.
Answer:
These are two famous creations of ‘Abul Fazl’. These books tell us about the court of Akbar, his victories, his administration, his social, economic and religious policy, art and architecture.

Question 24.
What do you mean by Mansabdari System?
Answer:
The Mughal rulers appointed the members of different classes in the administration. These appointees were known as Mansabdars under the Mansabdari system, court used to fix the post, income and the position of a Mansabdar. Mansabdar belonged to the civil and military departments of the country.

There were many categories of Zat and Sawar Mansabdar.

The first category: Mansabdars held equal Zat and Sawar i.e. 5000/5000.
The second category: Their sawar mansab was more than the half of their zat mansab i. e. 5000/3000.
The third category: They held their sawar mansab less than the half of their zat mansab i.e. 5000/2000.

Mansabdars were appointed by the Mughal emperors on their own or on the recommendation of the Mir Bakshi. There were 33 categories of the Mansabdars during the reign of Akbar. Its rank was from 10 to 10,000. These could be appointed in any department. They were given their salaries according to their ranks.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Posture and Its Deformities Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by body posture? How does our body stand on both legs?
Answer:
Posture may imply the proper care of the structure of the body. A good posture is one that has less pressure on different organs of the body and by which these organs may remain at ease and do the maximum work. In case the posture is not kept right, many deformities arise in the body. If we try to arrive at the precise definition of posture, the uppermost thought in our mind is that we have to keep our body in such a way that keeps balance among all the different organs of our body.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 1
Posture is indeed, deeply related to human body. The person who.does not pay attention to his posture suffers from many weakness and deformities small children should be asked to give proper attention to posture in childhood itself so that they may not become prey to the posture related deformities and weakness and may lead a healthy and comfortable life. A good & balanced posture is the relative correct position of various parts of our body.

A person with good and balanced posture looks natural & graceful in his positions of standing, sitting, walking, sleeping & reading. When weight of upper parts of body is uniformly distributed on lower parts of body, a line may be drawn from the head to foot, indicating-the weight line. This weight line starts from uppermost part of the head & goes down at the level of knees. It starts from the end of the skull & passing through vertebrae of back it passes through the hip, knee and ankle & goes downward. In this way, the weight of the parts of the body is uniformly disturbed from the top of the bottom.

Question 2.
What are the qualities of a good posture?
Answer:

We have to spend less energy by possessing balance posture.
Movements become very easy.
Balance posture influence others.
A person possessing good posture develop self-confidence.
Very active and clever in all daily work.
Good posture does not put pressure on bones or muscles.

Question 3.
What are the benefits of having a good posture?
Answer:
Good health is the first precondition of good body posture. A straight & balanced body is beautiful to look at. It gives a good impression to others and one feels good about oneself whereas people make fun of a man with asymmetrical body. So having a good symmetrical body.

A straight & balanced body puts less pressure on the muscles because the weight is balanced and equally divided between front & back muscles. If the posture is good internal organs work properly without any problem. It is easier for a man to achieve good posture without much effort, when he is young, say, till the age of twenty.

Question 4.
How are deformities formed in the body posture? Write down the main deformities of the body.
Answer:
1. Vocation:
A person sits, get up, walk according to the nature of work such as sitting work or standing work or some type of work, so his body parts change their nature of working eg. a person who has to work sitting in chair with the head down his body take the shape according to his sitting posture.

2. Nutritious food:
For the better physical structure and nourishment, a nutritious food is not taken, the body structure & development are badly affected. In the lack of calcium, bones become bending towards one side.

3. Bad habits:
Bad postures are also affected by mimic activities of bad posture persons are not balancing at the time of walking, getting up & running.

4. Proper Dress: Our body is stressed due to tight clothes, boots, pants, shirts so our dress should be proper.

5. Over weight: Body also feels abnormal due to over weight & wears bad posture.

6. Due to Injury: Walking is also effected by some injury & body bears bad posture.

Physical deformities:

Kyphosis
Lordosis
Scoliosis
Having both kyphosis & Lordosis
Knock knees
Flat foot
Depressed chest
Pigeon shaped chest
Flat chest
Bent neck.

Question 5.
Give the reasons of kyphosis. What are the exercises recommended to correct the deformity?
Answer:
It is a type of curvature, he neck leans forward & backward. In kyphosis the spinal cord bends in the shape of bow. The chest cannot remain erect. This condition in a boy develops due to continuous sitting for hours in one incorrect posture. If the fault is correct indue time the backbone comes to its right position. In case the back gets completely bent, it becomes difficult to bring it back to its right position. The improper posture creates kyphosis, as a result of which heart & legs donot function properly.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 2
Causes:

Reading in dim light, while bending forward.
Short eye sight.
Head of hearing.
Use of worthless furniture for sitting.
Wearing tight & shapless clothes.
Weakening of muscles by less or no exercise.
Quick development of body.
Sickness or accident.

Prevention:

Keeping the straight body while doing daily activities walking, sitting & standing.
The chin should be up. The chest forward & heat straight.
While resting on the back of the chair the head should be bent back with the eyes looking straight forward.
Deep breathing exercises should be alone.
Push ups, swimming & other chest exercises should be done.
Back shoulders should be supported by pillow.
Hanging from walls bars. The back should be towards the wall bars.

Question 6.
Give the reasons of lordosis. What exercises are recommended to correct the deformity?
Answer:
Causes:

The habit of walking with belly protruding in younger age.
Not taking balanced diet in chilhood.
Taking excessive food.
Women’s giving birth to many children.
Not doing exercise.

Preventions:

Standing fully erect, bending the trunk forward & then straightening.
Lying on the back and then raising. Head & legs turn by turn.
Lying on the back, rising & again lying.
Practising ‘hal-asana’.
Standing attentively & touching the feet with hands again & again.

Question 7.
Why flat foot are formed? Give the recomended exercises for flat foot. Write down the method of finding out whether the foot is flat or not.
Answer:
If we look carefully at the sole of the feet, we find that there is an arch which goes upward toward toe. When the muscles of the feet become weak & lose, there arches lose their curvaciousness & the feet become flat. A flat foot cannot bear the bodv weight well. It causes pain. Runing & walking becomes difficult.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 4
Reasons:
Lack of exercise, Obesity, standing for long hours wearing ill-fitting shoes, wrong and faulty body posture.
Test of flat foot-spread some soft & wet soil levelled on the ground. Then placing your foot on it & move forward. If the foot is normal, it will look like the foot in figure. The figure makes it clear that the inner portion of the sole of the normal foot does not touch the ground while the whole sole of the flat foot touches the ground because its aches have become straight.

Exercises:

Walking & running on the toes.
Walking & running slowly on heels.
Cycling forcefully with toes.
Climbing the stair bars.
Dancing.
Walking on heels & toes of foot.
Walking on the slope of the triagular wooden board.

Question 8.
What deformities are formed in the chest bones? How can it be corrected?
Answer:
Depressed Chest: In this type of deformity the bones get pressed inward.

Flat Chest: In it the ribs instead of protruding carer gets flattened to the level of the chest bones.

Pigeon-Type Chest: In this type of deformity the chest bones get raised upward.

Causes:

Not doing exercises regularly.
Some dangerous diseases.
Bending excessively forward while sitting, standing or walking.
Deficiency of phosphorus, calcium & vitamin D.

Corrective Exercise:

Cutting the fodder with hand driven toka.
Practising breathing exercises.
Doing arm & trunk exercises.
Performing ‘dandas’ while hanging from a pole.
Performing ‘dandas’.

Question 9.
Give the reasons for the following deformities. Also write down the exercises recommended for them:
1. Bent neck
2. Knock knees
3. Flat chest.
Answer:
1. Bent neck:
When the muscles on one side of the neck become weak & loose & those of the other side shrink, the neck turns on one side.

Reasons:

Carrying the child only on one side.
Making the infant lie on one side for long hours.
Having weak eye-sight on one side.
Bad posture while-studying.

2. Knock knees:
Deficiency of calcium, phosphorus & vitamin D can cause bent bones in small children. The lack of above nutrients make the bones weak & they cannot bear the body weight because of which the bones turn inwards. A person with knock knees cannot stand at attention. His knees knock with each other when he tries to put his feet together in the attention.

3. Flat Chest:
In it the ribs instead of protruding nearer gets flattened to the level of the chest bones. Depressed chest-In this type of deformity, the bones get pressed inward.

4. Pigeon-type Chest:
In this type of deformity the chest bones get raised upward. These deformities occur in early childhood, destructing the respiratory process.

Question 10.
Give a list of Good habits which help in having a good Posture.
Answer:

Sufficient amounts of Calcium, Phosphorus & Vitamin D should be included in diet of children.
The children should be given sun bath and massage at least twice a week.
Eyesight should be got tested at regular intervals.
It is not good to stand for a long time putting weight only on feet.
Good quality furniture with proper shape and sufficient light should be provided for school-going children.
Breathing exercises should be done daily.
Narrow-fitting clothes and shoes should not be worn.
Exercises should be done regularly.
Specific exercise for the particular problem of the posture should be done as per requirement.

Question 11.
Explain about Lordosis.
Answer:
Lordosis is a different type of curvature from kyphosis. In this type of defc nity the spine is bent not from the upper side, but it leans forward from the stomach. Lordosis can be checked at an early stage. It is not possible to rectify it at a later stage.

Exercises Related to Lordosis:
1. Bend knees forward while allowing hips to bend back behind, keeping back straight and knees pointed in same direction as feet. Descend until thighs are just parallel to floor. Extend knees and hips until legs are straight. Come back in starting position and then repeat the same.

2. Lie down in prone position, with hands under abdomen. Then keep hips and shoulders down, press hands up on abdomen and raise lower back.

3. Sit on a chair with feet wide apart. Bend and position your shoulders between knees. Then reach to the floor under back of chair, and hold this position for some duration.

4. Lunge forward with knee on a mat. Take position of the foot beyond knee. Place both hands on knee. Straighten hips of rear leg by pushing hips forward and hold stretch. Repeat with opposite side.

5. Sit down with knees extended, feet together and hands at sides. After that bend forward, touching the fingers to toes. Hold this position for some time. Then come back and repeat.

6. Lie in prone position on the floor. Keep the palms of your hands on the floor according to shoulders’ width. Push torso up keeping pelvis on floor. Hold this position for some time.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Posture and Its Deformities Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What are the benefits of good posture?
(A) Good looking body
(B) Running, activeness
(C) Healthy body
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(A) Good looking body

Question 2.
Deformities of the body:
(A) Kyphosis
(B) Lordosis
(C) Scoliosis
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 3.
Causes of Kyphosis:
(A) Weak eye sight
(B) Hard hearing
(C) Sickness or accident
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
Method of corrective of Kyphosis.
(A) Keeping the straight body
(B) The Chin should be up
(C) Deep breathing exercises should be done
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 5.
Reasons of Lordosis:
(A) No taking balance diet in Childhood
(B) Taking excessive food
(C) No doing exercises
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 6.
Pretention of Lordosis Corrective.
(A) Standing fully or erect, bending the trunk forward
(B) Lying on the back and then moving head and legs turn by turn
(C) Lying on the back rising and again lying
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 7.
Exercises to removed the flatrfoot.
(A) Walking and running on the toes
(B) Walking and running on heels
(C) Climbing the stairs bar
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
After how long a person derived the posture of standing on both legs?
Answer:
After lakhs of years.

Question 2.
What is attached to the after and before of bones?
Answer:
Muscles.

Question 3.
If the Muscles don’t have co-ordination and balance then what happens?
Answer:
Body bends forward.

Question 4.
How the straight body looks?
Answer:
Beautiful.

Question 5.
At what age body posture becomes good and bad?
Answer:
20 years.

Question 6.
What steps should be taken to keep the body fit?
Answer:
Exercise.

Question 7.
Which type of foot cannot bear the weight of the body?
Answer:
Flat foot.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define body posture.
Answer:
If the body frame is straight and in good shape and if the lower part of the body balances the upper part well, it can be called a good body posture.

Question 2.
what deformities are formed in chest?
Answer:

Depressed chest
Pigeon chest
Flat chest

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Nutrition in Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The process of obtaining and utilization of food by an organism is called ……………..
Answer:
nutrition

(ii) ………………. from the air is taken in through the tiny pores called stomata present on the surface of leaves.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

(iii) ……………… is the initial product of photosynthesis.
Answer:
glucose (Carbohydrate)

(iv) The plants which depend on the food produced by other plants are called ………………..
Answer:
heterotrophs

2. State True or False:

(i) Carbohydrates is not an essential component of food.
Answer:
False

(ii) All green plants are autotrophs.
Answer:
True

(iii) Euglena is an organism that has both plant and animal like characters.
Answer:
True

(iv) Sunlight is not necessary for photosynthesis.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Agaricus	(a) Parasite
2. Rhizobium	(b) Feaves
3. Chlorophyll	(c) Feguminous plants
4. Cuscuta	(d) Saprophyte

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Agaricus	(d) Saprophyte
2. Rhizobium	(c) Leguminous plants
3. Chlorophyll	(b) Leaves
4. Cuscuta	(a) Parasite

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
An Organism that fixes atmospheric nitrogen in the soil is :
(a) Amarbel
(b) Mushroom
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Chlorophyll
Answer:
(c) Rhizobium.

Question (ii)
The Organisms that cannot prepare their own food and depends on others for food are known as :
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Fleterotrophs
(c) Nutrients
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(b) Heterotrophs.

Question (iii)
Food factory of the plants is :
(a) Leaf
(b) Stem
(c) Root
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Leaf.

Question (iv)
Which of the following is a saprophyte ?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Agaricus
(c) Cuscuta
(d) Protein
Answer:
(c) Cuscuta.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define Nutrition.
Answer:
Nutrition. The act of obtaining and using food by the organism is called nutrition. Not all living things have the same food.

Question (ii)
What is photosynthesis ?
Answer:
Photosynthesis. It is a process in which food (carbohydrates) is produced by the plants. During this process, carbon dioxide and water are synthesized into glucose (simple carbohydrates) in the presence of sunlight by plant’s green matter (chlorophyll pigment).
Through this action green plants convert light energy into chemical energy.
Chemical Equation :
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 1

Question (iii)
Name the raw materials required for photosynthesis.
Answer:
Ingredients for photosynthesis :

Carbon dioxide
Water
Solar Energy

Question (iv)
What are insectivorous plants ?
Answer:
Insectivorous plants. Plants that have a system for catching and digesting organisms are called insectivorous plants, such as pitcher plant. The leaves of these plants are transformed into pot compositions to catch insects.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What do you mean by parasitic mode of nutrition ?
Answer:
Parasitic Nutrition. Nutrition in which the parasitic organism harms another organism and derives its food from it is called parasitic nutrition.

Question (ii)
Explain symbiotic relationship.
Answer:
Symbiotic relationship. Two different organisms co-exist with each other and depend on each other for their nourishment, then it is called symbiotic relationship. In this kind of relationship both the beings get benefit from each other. Like the fungus found on the roots of many plants. The fungus gets nourishment from the roots of the plant and in turn absorbs water and minerals from the soil. Fungus and moss are a good example of symbiotic relationship. Here the fungi absorb water from the earth and in turn the algae provide food through photosynthesis.

Question (iii)
How does the pitcher plant catch insects ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 2
The pitcher plant transforms its leaves into pot-like structures to catch insects. This pot-like creation has curly hair on the face. When an insect sits on it, it slips down and cannpt climb up again and falls to the bottom of the pot. The enzymes present at the bottom digest the insect.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How are nutrients replenished in the soil ?
Answer:
Regain of nutrients by soil. Plants continue to absorb water, minerals and other nutrients from the soil which leads to lack of nutrients in the soil. Time to time nutrition should be provided to the soil so that the fertility of the soil is maintained. Farmers usually recreate these nutrient deficiencies by mixing manure in the soil and Fertilizers (which contain one or more preservatives) to fulfil nutrients.
In forest the forest waste, leaves and animal waste is decomposed by decomposers into nutrients to improve fertility of the soil.

Question (ii)
What do you mean by nutrients ? Explain various modes of nutrition in plants.
Answer:
Nutrients. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins and minerals are the main components of food. They help in the formation and function of the body and are called nutrients.

The main methods of nutrition in plants are :
(a) Autotrophic Nutrition. Those who prepare their own food from simple foods are called Autotrophs. This process of preparing food by such plants is called Autotrophic nutrition. All green plants are Autotrophic. In this method, chlorophyll, a green pigment present in plants, takes carbon dioxide and water from the air and makes food in the form of carbohydrates in the presence of solar energy. This action is called photosynthesis. Example-all green plants.

(b) Heterotrophic Nutrition. Some plants do not have green pigment (chlorophyll) and cannot make their own food, so they rely on food prepared by other plants for food. Such plants are called Heterotrophic plants and this method of obtaining food is called Heterotrophic nutrition. Example. Amar Bel.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Nutrition in Plants Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Green plants are called …………….. since they synthesise their own food.
Answer:
Autotrophs

(ii) The food synthesised by the plants is stored as ………………..
Answer:
Starch

(iii) In photosynthesis solar energy is captured by the pigment called …………….. .
Answer:
Chlorophyll

(iv) During photosynthesis plants take ……………… and produce …………….. .
Answer:
Carbondioxide, Oxygen

2. State True or False:

(i) Carbondioxide is released during photosynthesis.
Answer:
False

(ii) Plants which synthesise their food themselves are called saprotrophs.
Answer:
False

(iii) The product of photosynthesis is not a protein.
Answer:
False

(iv) During photosynthesis solar energy is converted into chemical energy.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column I with Column II :

Column I	Column II
(i) Chlorophyll	(a) Bacteria
(ii) Nitrogen	(b) Pitcher plant
(iii) Amarbel	(c) Leaf
(iv) Animals	(d) Parasite
(v) Insects	(e) Heterotrophs

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Chlorophyll	(c) Leaf
(ii) Nitrogen	(a) Bacteria
(iii) Amarbel	(d) Parasite
(iv) Animals	(e) Heterotrophs
(v) Insects	(b) Pitcher plant

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
The organisms which depend upon other organisms for food are called ……………..
(a) Symbionts
(b) Parasites
(c) Autotrophs
(d) Saprophytes.
Answer:
(b) Parasites.

Question 2.
Which part of the plant usually contains stomata ?
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) Flower.
Answer:
(c) Leaves.

Question 3.
Which gas is released during photosynthesis ?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen.
Answer:
(a) Oxygen.

Question 4.
What is the unit of living beings
(a) Organ
(b) Organ system
(c) Cell
(d) Tissue.
Answer:
(c) Cell.

Question 5.
What is the ultimate source of energy in the living beings ?
(a) Moon
(b) Sun
(c) Stars
(d) Planet.
Answer:
(b) Sun.

Question 6.
Name one eatable fungus.
(a) Alga
(b) Bacteria
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Mushroom.
Answer:
(d) Mushroom.

Question 7.
Plants breathe through:
(a) Epidermis
(b) Buds
(c) Stomata
(d) Root hairs.
Answer:
(c) Stomata.

Question 8.
What are green coloured thread like structures over the pond water called ?
(a) Fungi
(b) Algae
(c) Amoeba
(d) Paramecium.
Answer:
(b) Algae.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the nutrients.
Answer:
Nutrients. Carbohydrates, vitamins, fats, proteins, minerals, roughage.

Question 2.
How do plants synthesise food ?
Answer:
Green plants synthesise their food material using carbondioxide, water and solar energy.

Question 3.
Name the various type of nutrition.
Answer:
Types of Nutrients. Autotrophic, Heterotrophic, Saprotrophic and Parasitic.

Question 4.
What are openings / pores in a leaf known as ?
Answer:
Stomata.

Question 5.
What is function of chlorophyll in a leaf ?
Answer:
Chlorophyll capture the energy of sunlight.

Question 6.
Which is ultimate source of energy for all living organisms ?
Answer:
Sun.

Question 7.
What are products of photosynthesis ?
Answer:
Carbohydrates and oxygen.

Question 8.
Name the various parts of plants which take part in photosynthesis.
Answer:
Green stems and green leaves.

Question 9.
Besides green leaves, which other coloured leaves are found in plants ?
Answer:
Deep red, violet or brown.

Question 10.
What is algae ?
Answer:
Algae It is a slimy, green patch found in pond or in stagnant water.

Question 11.
Do algae photosynthesis ? Why ?
Answer:
Yes, algae do photosynthesis as they contain chlorophyll.

Question 12.
From which elements are carbohydrates made up of ?
Answer:
Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

Question 13.
Name some four human parasites.
Answer:

Mosquitoes
lice
bed bug
leech.

Question 14.
Write one eatable fungus.
Answer:
Mushrooms.

Question 15.
Where does mould grow ?
Answer:
Moist and rainy areas.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the definite word for the following:
(i) Weak stem parasitic plant.
(ii) A plant in which both Autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition are found,
(iii) The holes through which gases are exchanged in the leaves.
Answer:
(i) Amar bel (Cuscuta)
(ii) Pitcher plant
(iii) Stomata

Question 2.
Differentiate autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition.
Answer:
Differences between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition.

Autotrophic nutrition	Heterotrophic nutrition
(1) Organisms prepare their own food by obtaining energy from sun.	(1) Organisms obtain ready-made food from other plants or animals.
(2) It occurs in green plants and blue green algae.	(2) It occurs in parasitic plants, fungi, most of bacteria and animals.

Question 3.
Why do coloured leaves photosynthesise when they are not green in colour ?
Answer:
Coloured leaves (red, brown etc.) do contain chlorophyll but large amount of red, brown pigment mask the green colour. So, they can photosynthesise.

Question 4.
How do fungus grow on the things ?
Answer:
Spores of fungi are present in air. When they land on wet and warm things, they germinate.

Question 5.
How do lichens show symbiotic relationship ?
Answer:
Lichens, a chlorophyll partner algae and non-green fungus live together. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to algae while algae provides food which is synthesised by it. So they both show symbiotic relationship.

Question 6.
Explain the parasitic relationship between Rhizobium and plants.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 3
Rhizobium is a bacterium that lives in nodules on the roots of legumes. It converts the nitrogen in the air into a usable form which is used by the plant and in return provides shelter and food to bacteria.

Question 7.
What do you understand by a parasites, saprophytes and symbiosis ? Give one example for each.
Answer:

Parasites. Those plants or animals which obtain their food from a host and also get shelter from it, are known as parasites, e.g. Cuscuta and Viscum etc.
Symbiosis. It is a type of relationship which is mutually beneficial for both the parents (host and parasite), e.g. Lichens are combination of algae and fungi. The fungus holds the algal cells in its mat of web-like hyphae and in return supplies water and dissolved minerals.
Saprophytes. Those organisms which grow on dead and decaying organic matter and obtain their food from decomposed bodies are known as saprophytes, e.g. Bacteria, mushrooms etc.

Question 8.
Distinguish between a parasite and a saprotroph.
Answer:
Differences between a parasite and saprotroph.

Parasite	Saprotroph
(1) These organisms depend upon other living organisms for its food. Example : Cuscuta, tape- worms, roundworms.	(1) These organisms obtain their food from dead organic matter. Example : Fungi, bacteria.
(2) They produce special type of organs like suckers, hooks to obtain their food.	(2) They secrete some enzymes to decompose complex molecules into simple form.

Question 9.
What are the conditions required for Autotrophic nutrition and its basic and by-products ?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is essential for Autotrophic nutrition which requires the following conditions : (1) sunlight (2) chlorophyll (green pigment), (3) carbon dioxide and (4) water.

The by-products of this process are: The basic products of photosynthesis are oxygen gas and glucose. Afterwards glucose is stored in the form of starch.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Symbiosis is beneficial for both the partners, justify.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 4
Symbiosis. The type of association in which both the partner’s benefit is called symbiosis.
In plants like lichens, there is an association between green algae and non-green fungus. The fungus forms a mat of web-like hyphae to hold the algal cells. The fungal hyphae supply water and minerals to the algae. The algae can synthesize food for themselves as well as for the fungus.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Winds, Storms and Cyclones Intext Questions and Answers

Think and answer (Textbook Page No. 85)

Question 1.
The can gets crushed because of the atmospheric pressure. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Air exerts pressure. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
Both balloons should be of equal size. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The fast moving wind creates …………………. pressure.
Answer:
More.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 87)

Question 1.
The air ……………. on heating.
Answer:
expands.

Question 2.
On cooling the boiling tube, the balloon expands. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 88)

Question 1.
Hot air is ……………………… than cold air.
Answer:
lighter.

Question 2.
The paper cup over the burning candle comes down as it becomes heavier. (True / False)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Winds, Storms and Cyclones Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Air exerts …………………..
Answer:
Pressure

(ii) Moving air is called …………………
Answer:
Wind

(iii) Near earth the …………………. air rises up and ………………………. air comes down.
Answer:
hot, cold

(iv) Winds are generated due to ………………………….. heating of earth.
Answer:
uneven

(v) The centre of a cyclone is called its ………………. .
Answer:
Eye

2. State True or False:

(i) A bicycle tube expands when we fill air in it.
Answer:
True

(ii) Air moves from a region of low pressure to high pressure.
Answer:
False

(iii) The speed of wind can be measured by an instrument called Anemometer.
Answer:
True

(iv) Thunder is a loud sound produced by lightning.
Answer:
True

(v) We should ignore the cyclone warnings.
False

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following is not an example of air exerting pressure ?
(a) Flying a kite
(b) Filling air in bicycle tube
(c) Filling air in balloon
(d) Hot air balloon.
Answer:
(d) Hot air balloon.

Question (ii)
Moving air is called ………………… .
(a) Wind
(b) Cyclones
(c) Lightning
(d) Storm.
Answer:
(a) Wind.

Question (iii)
Which is the property of air ?
(a) Expands on cooling
(b) Contracts of heating
(c) Expands on heating
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Expands on heating

Question (iv)
Winds are produced due to ……………………. .
(a) Heating of air
(b) Cooling of land
(c) Heating of water
(d) Uneven heating of land and water.
Answer:
(d) Uneven heating of land and water.

Question (v)
High speed winds can cause …………………… .
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclones
(c) Tornado
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Cyclones

4. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 1
Answer:

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Which property of air is described by the inflated balloon ?
Answer:
Moving air exerts pressure.

Question (ii)
Which is lighter, cold air or hot air ?
Answer:
Hot air is lighter than cold air.

Question (iii)
Which region of earth gets maximum heat from the sun ?
Answer:
Equator and its adjoining areas are exposed to direct sunlight for a long time, resulting in higher temperatures in the vicinity of the equator.

Question (iv)
Which winds bring rain in India ?
Answer:
Rainfall in India is caused by monsoon winds. These winds filled with water vapour come from the sea.

Question (v)
Name the instrument used for measuring the speed of wind.
Answer:
Wind / air speed can be measured with an Anemometer.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why are the holes made in hanging banners and hoardings ?
Answer:
Holes are made on hanging banners and advertisements so that they cannot be blown away due to blowing winds or wind pressure. The air will pass through the holes and there will be no pressure on the banner.

Question (ii)
In which situation does the uneven heating of the earth produces winds ?
Answer:
The sun does not heat different parts of the earth uniformly. So there is a difference in temperature and pressure. The wind that moves from a high pressure area to a low pressure area is called a wind. The higher the pressure, the higher is the wind speed.

Question (iii)
Which winds blow from ocean to land in summer ? What is their significance ?
Answer:
In summer season, the air near the surface of the earth becomes warmer and lighter and rises upwards. The air above the sea is colder and heavier than the air on the earth. So the wind moves from the ocean to the land. This cool breeze from the ocean is called Sea breeze. Due to this breeze, the weather is very pleasant for the people living near the coastal areas.

Question (iv)
What is the difference between a thunderstorm and a cyclone ?
Answer:
Thunder Storm.
Lightning strikes thunderstorms and heat up the air to a higher temperature, causing the air to expand faster and produce a louder sound. This loud sound is called thunder. The wind that blows with rain is called a storm. Sometimes a storm is accompanied by a thunder, which is then called a thunderstorm.

Cyclone.
When water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change it into vapours for the formation of cloud. These water vapours cool and condense to form raindrops and release the absorbed heat. This heat causes the surrounding air to heat up and form a low pressure area. A strong wind blows towards this low pressure center. This action is repeated several times to form a low pressure area and dense clouds from the center of a strong wind.

Many layers of high winds begin to revolve around the low pressure center. This condition is called a cyclone. Center of the storm is a quiet area called the Eye of cyclone. The area of the eye is free from clouds. Outside the Eye is a circle of clouds and thunderstorms. The wind blows here at a speed of 150 to 250 kilometre per hour.

Question (v)
State effective measures to be taken in areas vulnerable to cyclones ?
Answer:
Effective safety measures to be adopted in areas prone to post-cyclone :
1. Measures to be taken by the government :

Tall and dense trees of native species should be planted on the coastal areas to reduce wind/wind speed.
Ponds should be constructed in coastal areas to absorb excess water.
Cyclone shelters should be constructed in cyclone sensitive areas.
To issue early warning to the people of the affected area by adopting advance information technology.

2. Measures that can be adopted by the people :

Do not ignore cyclone warnings.
Areas that have frequent cyclones should be evacuated.
Make appropriate arrangements to move their livestock, valuables and household members to safer places.

Question (vi)
What is a Tornado ? Give two safety measures.
Answer:
Tornado. It is strong rotating winds in Funnel shaped cloud. Its diameter varies from 1 m to 1 km. On account of very low pressure at the centre of the funnel it pulls the dust, debris and even people and vehicles towards the centre.
Safety measures from Tornado:

Take shelter inside a room, having no window. If a room without window is unavailable then closed all doors and windows.
If a person is in the vehicle or driving, he should get out of it and sit in low laying area.
Whenever you face tornado you can protect yourself by sitting on your knees and
putting down your head by wrapping arms around your neck.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain why does a tin can get crushed when water is boiled in it and after closing it cold water is poured on it ?
Answer:
When water is boiled in an iron container, all the air in the container heats up and becomes lighter and rises upwards. In this way all the air in the box goes out. On further heating, the boiling water turns into steam and the can is filled with water. Covering the vessel with a lid ensures that the vapours are trapped inside the container. This reduces the air pressure inside the box compared to the outside air. In this way on pouring cold water the outside air pressure causes the box to shrink inwards.

Question (ii)
Explain with an activity that air expands on heating.
Answer:
Air expands by heating. This fact can be proved by the following activity:
Activity.
Take a thick glass test tube. Tightly tie a balloon over its mouth with tape. Take hot water in a beaker. Place the test tube in the water such that balloon stays out of the water. Watch the balloon for 3-4 minutes to look for any change in the size of balloon. Now take out the test tube from water and let it cool down to normal temperature. In another beaker take a small amount of ice cold water and place the test tube carrying balloon in the beaker. Wait for 3-4 minutes. Observe the change in size.

You will notice that the balloon placed in hot water swells (increases in size) after some time and the balloon when on the other placed in cold water shrinks (decreases in size).

Conclusion.
When the test tube is placed in hot water, the air in the balloon heats up and expands causing the balloon to inflate. This indicates that the air expands on healing. When the test tube is placed in ice, the air present in balloon contracts. It shows cooling causes air to contraction.

Question (iii)
How is a cyclone formed ? Describe how a cyclone caused widespread destruction in Odisha in 1999.
Answer:
Formation of Cyclone.
When water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change it into vapours for the formation of cloud. These water vapours cool and condense to form raindrops and release the absorbed heat. This heat causes the surrounding air to heat up and form a low pressure area. A strong wind blows towards this low pressure center. This action is repeated several times to form a low pressure area and dense clouds from the center of a strong wind.

Destruction caused by cyclone in Odisha. A very strong cyclone strike to Indian state Odisha on 18 October, 1999. The speed of this cyclone was 200 km/h and it destroyed 45000 houses leaving 70,000 people homeless. Again on 29th October 1999 a cyclone hits Odhisa with a speed of 260 km/h accompanied by 9 meter high wave. Many people lost their lives and property worth of crores was destroyed.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Winds, Storms and Cyclones Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Wind is air.
Answer:
moving

(ii) Winds are generated due to heating on the earth.
Answer:
uneven

(iii) Near the earth’s surface air rises up whereas air comes down.
Answer:
warm, cooler

(iv) Air moves from a region of pressure to a region of pressure.
Answer:
high, low

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Hot air	(a) Low pressure area of the cyclone
(ii) Changes in atmospheric pressure cause	(b) Sunlight
(iii) The eye of the cyclone	(c) Blows away the roof
(iv) High speed air over the roof	(d) Winds, storms and cyclones.

Answer:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Hot air	(b) Sunlight
(ii) Changes in atmospheric pressure cause	(d) Winds, storms and cyclones
(iii) The eye of the cyclone	(a) Low pressure area of the cyclone
(iv) High speed air over the roof	(c) Blows away the roof

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following place is likely to be affected by a cyclone?
(a) Amritsar
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Jaipur
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question (ii)
An instrument used to measure wind speed is called ………………. .
(a) Anemometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Thermometer
(d) Lactometer.
Answer:
(a) Anemometer.

Question (iii)
How many hours in advance cyclone chart is issued of expected storm by satellites and radars ?
(a) 72
(b) 48
(c) 96
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 48

Question (iv)
Which winds carry water and bring rain ?
(a) Unequal
(b) Equal
(c) Monsoon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Monsoon.

Question (v)
A dark funnel shaped cloud that reaches from sky to the ground is called ……………….
(a) Wind
(b) Tornado
(c) Cyclone
(d Monsoon.
Answer:
(b) Tornado.

Question (vi)
Hurricane in America, Typhoon in Japan are nothing but ………………. only.
(a) Cyclones
(b) Tornado
(c) Monsoon wind
(d) Thunder storms.
Answer:
(a) Cyclones.

Question (vii)
In which year did Orissa was hit by a cyclone ?
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2004.
Answer:
(a) 1999.

State True or False:

(i) Wind always blows from low pressure area to high pressure area.
Answer:
False

(ii) Wind speed is measured with an anemometer.
Answer:
True

(iii) Heavy rains accompanied by strong winds are called cyclones.
Answer:
False

(iv) A hurricane is a storm with strong winds blowing through a funnel-shaped cloud.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What disaster fell on 18 October, 1999 in India ?
Answer:
A cyclone hits Orissa.

Question 2.
When did second cyclone hit Orissa ?
Answer:
29 October, 1999.

Question 3.
What was the number of homeless people hit by cyclone ?
Answer:
About 700000 people.

Question 4.
What is wind ?
Answer:
Air in motion.

Question 5.
Give the characteristic of air.
Answer:
Air exerts pressure.

Question 6.
Why do we fill air into bicycle tubes ?
Answer:
To keep the tube tight so that it can run smoothly on a surface.

Question 7.
What happens to air pressure when speed of wind is increased ?
Answer:
Air pressure reduces.

Question 8.
Why does hot air move upwards ?
Answer:
Because it is lighter than cold air.

Question 9.
What are monsoon winds ?
Answer:
Monsoon winds are those winds which come from the oceans and seas and carry water with them and bring rain.

Question 10.
Name few natural disasters caused by wind.
Answer:
Cyclones, thunder storms, tornadoes etc.

Question 11.
In winter what is direction of winds ?
Answer:
From land to oceans.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a cyclone ? On which factors it depends ?
Answer:
Cyclone. A low pressure system with very- high speed winds revolving around it is called cyclone.
Wind speed, wind direction, humidity and temperature are some factors which contribute to the development of a cyclone.

Question 2.
Give a brief account of formation of thunderstorms.
Answer:
In hot, humid climate, the rising temperature produces strong winds. These rise upwards and carry lot of water droplets. These water droplets freeze at height and fall downwards. The swift falling water droplets along with rising air produce lightning and sound. This phenomenon is called thunderstorm.

Question 3.
How are clouds important to farmers ?
Answer:
Importance of clouds to farmers.

Clouds are important for harvest. If harvest is good, farmers are happy.
Clouds bring rains.
They make the weather pleasant.

Question 4.
How will you help your neighbours in case cyclone approaches your village/town ?
Answer:
Helping neighbours during cyclones:

Moving them to cyclone shelters.
Shifting their household property to safer places.
Providing them medical aid.

Question 5.
What planning is required to deal with situation created by a cyclone ?
Answer:
Plans to deal with situation created by cyclone.

Shift essential household good, domestic animals to safer places.
Keep handy phone numbers of all emergency services like Police, fire brigade and medicle centres.
Avoid driving on roads with standing water.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How will you show air expands on heating ?
Answer:
Experiment to show air expands on heating. Take a boiling tube and fix a balloon tightly over the neck of the tube. Insert the boiling tube carrying balloon into a beaker containing hot water.
Watch the balloon for 2-3 minutes you will notice that the balloon has start inflating. This experiment shows that air expands on heating.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 3

Question 2.
What precautions should be taken when a thunderstorm is accompanied by lightning?
Answer:
Precautions to be taken during lightning in thunderstorms accompanied by lightning:

Never take shelter under an isolated tree.
Do not lie on the ground.
Do not use an umbrella having a metallic rod.
Window, open garages, storage sheds, metal sheds are not safe places.
Never stay in the water.
Inside a car or bus is a safe place to take shelter.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Delhi Sultanate Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer these questions :

Question 1.
What role was played by the historical buildings in constructing the history of the Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:
Historical Monuments. The historical structures during the period of the Delhi Sultanate e.g. Quwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Alahi Darwaja, Tughlakabad, Hauz Khas, Lodhi Tomb, Firozshah Kotla, etc. These buildings and monuments give us knowledge and information about the artistic hobbies of Delhi Sultans.

Question 2.
How did Balban consolidate the Sultanate?
Answer:Balban became the Sultan of Delhi in 1266 A.D. He was the greatest of the slave kings of Delhi. He was a strong and iron willed ruler who believed that the power of the Sultan was absolute. He commanded absolute obedience from his amirs who had to bow in sajdah in his presence.

Problems faced by Balban. Balban had to face the following problems in order to consolidate the Sultanate :

He had to defend his Sultanate from the Mongol invasions on his northern frontiers.
He had to fight against the local rulers like the Rajputs who troubled him both within the Sultanate and on its borders.
His major problem was to deal with the powerful Turkish nobles who threatened his position as Sultan.
He crushed the rebellion of Mawatis near Delhi and the pirates of Doaba region.
He crushed the rebellion of Tugril Khan of Bengal.
His strong policy towards Mongols is known as “Blood and Iron policy”. In 1286 A.D. Balban died.

Question 3.
Why did Muhainmad-bin-Tughlaq shift the capital from Delhi to Devagiri?
Answer:
Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq had a large empire to rule. He wanted to build his captial at a place which was in the centre of his ruled area. So, in 1327, A.D., he decided to change his capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad).

There were two reasons for it :

He believed that by doing so he could defend himself against the invasions of the Mongols.
He thought that the administrative system will be better administer from Devagiri as compared to Delhi.

Question 4.
Describe the results of schemes of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
Answer:
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (1325-1351 A.D.) had high political ambitions. He made many political plans but all these plans were unsuccessful. The description about these plans and their results are as follows :
1. Taxation in Doab. He wanted to extend his empire. For this purpose, he needed money. So he increased the revenue of the land in Doab. But unluckily, the rains failed and the peasants found it hard to pay the increased revenue.

2. Transfer of the Capital. The Sultan transferred his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad because he wanted to have a better control over his Deccan territories. But it was not possible to control north Indian territories from Daulatabad.

3. Token Currency. He issued token coins of brass and copper which had made the same legal value as the coins of gold and silver. The people started minting copper and brass coins at their home which they would exchange with gold and silver from the royal treasury.

4. Plan to win Khurasan. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq wanted to be a great administrator. So, he decided to win Khurasan (Iran). So, he collected a big army. The soldiers were given the salary for one full year. Lot of money was spent on their training and weapons but after one year, he shed the idea of invading Khurasan and the army was disbanded. The unemployed soldiers; became rebels. The Sultan lost his confidence among the public. Many states declared freedom and Sultan lost control over his empire. In 1351 A.D. he died.

Causes of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq’s failure.

As given above, all his projects were visionary and beyond the people’s comprehension.
He lacked patience and people suffered because of his hasty actions.
He emptied his treasury as a result of his extravagant schemes and boundless generosity.
His empire was too vast to be controlled by one man.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The Qutub-ud-din Aibak was the founder of the _______ Dynasty.
Answer:
Slave

Question 2.
Razia Sultana was a daughter of _______
Answer:
Iltutmish

Question 3.
Iltutmish became the ruler in _______
Answer:
1211 A.D

Question 4.
Iltutmish nominated _______ as his successor.
Answer:
Razia Sultana

Question 5.
Malik Kafur was the General of _______ Khalji.
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji

Question 6.
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq decided to shift his capital from _______ to Devagiri.
Answer:
Delhi

Question 7.
Timur invaded India during the reign of the rulers of the _______ Dynasty.
Answer:
Tughlaq.

III. Write True or False for each statement :

Question 1.
Iltutmish was a slave of Qutab-ud-din Aibak.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Balban was the first ruler of the slave dynasty.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Ala-ud-din Khalji introduced the market control policy.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The Lodhis were overthrown by the Sayyids.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Sikandar Lodhi and Babar clashed at the first battle of Panipat.
Answer:
False

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
On an outline map of India, mark the important extent of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of Indian Map.

Question 2.
Collect pictures of monuments of the Sultanate period and paste them in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Delhi Sultanate Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When slave dynasty ruled Delhi?
(a) 1206-1290
(b) 1210-1320
(c) 1220-1315
(d) 1224-1296.
Answer:
(a) 1206-1290.

Question 2.
When Raziyya Sultan became queen of Delhi?
(a) 1246
(b) 1256
(c) 1236
(d) 1226.
Answer:
(c) 1236.

Question 3.
Which of these was not the Sultan of Delhi?
(a) Balban
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Akbar
(d) Muhammad Tughlaq.
Answer:
(c) Akbar.

Question 4.
Which of these Sultans implemented to keep control on prices?
(a) Muhammad Tughlaq
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Balban
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Allauddin Khalji.

Question 5.
Which of these dynasties was the last dynasty of Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Lodi dynasty
(b) Tughlaq dynasty
(c) Khalji dynasty
(d) Mughal dynasty.
Answer:
(a) Lodi dynasty.

Question 6.
Who defeated Mughal emperor Humayun?
(a) Balban
(b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Akbar
(d) Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:
(d) Sher Shah Suri.

Question 7.
In which century Delhi became an important city?
(a) 12th century
(b) 15th century
(c) 16th century
(d) 17th century.
Answer:
(a) 12th century.

Question 8.
Which of the Delhi ruler is also known for its economic and military reforms?
(a) Balban
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Babar
(d) Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
(b) Allauddin Khalji.

Question 9.
Chief Minister and adviser to Sultan was known as
(a) Patwari
(b) Ulama
(c) Wazir
(d) Iqtadar.
Answer:
(c) Wazir.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the time span of Sultanate period in India.
Answer:
It was from 1206 A.D. to 1526 A.D.

Question 2.
Which Kingdoms ruled over Delhi during the Sultanate period?
Answer:
They were Slave dynasty, the Khalji dynasty, Tughlaq dynasty, Sayyids and Lodhis.

Question 3.
Name some great Sultans of Sultanate period.
Answer:
Iltutmish, Balban, Alauddin Khalji, Mohammad Tughlaq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq.

Question 4.
How and when did Qutubudin Aibak die?
Answer:
In 1210 A.D., he died by falling from a horse.

Question 5.
Who was Aram Shah?
Answer:
He was a son of Qutub-ud-din Aibak who became the Sultan afterward. He was an incapable ruler, so he was made a prisoner by Iltutmish and later on killed.

Question 6.
What was Chalisa?
Answer:
Iltutmish appointed 40 Amirs to run administrative system. They were called Chalisa.

Question 7.
Wlho was Razia Sultana?
Answer:
She was the daughter of Iltutmish and who succeeded him after his death. She ruled from 1236 A.D. to 1240 A.D. She crushed the rebellion of state governors, but Amirs and army generals did not obey her. She was killed in 1240 A.D.

Question 8.
Describe in brief the ruling period of Qutubdin Aibak.
Answer:
He was the real founder of Turk state. He was the first ruler of Delhi Sultanate. At the time of ascending the throne, he had to face many difficulties. He occupied Punjab to stop the invasion of Yaldoz, who was the ruler of Ghazni. He made Lahore his capital. He was a great art lover. Many mosques in Delhi and Ajmer have been built by him. He started the construction of Qutub Minar, but in 1210 A.D. he fell from a horse and died.

Question 9.
Describe in brief the successes of Iltutmish.
Answer:
Iltutmish was one of the greatest rulers of the Slave dynasty. He ruled from 1211 to 1236 A.D.

Some of his achievements are the following :

He shifted his capital from Lahore to Delhi which remained the capital of all the Sultan-rulers.
For the first ten years, he remained busy in crushing his different rivals who were also claimants to the throne.
He organized the ruling elite or the nobles into a strong group of faithful nobles of forty known as ‘Chalisa’.
For the promotion of trade and commerce, many new coins like those of ‘Tanka’ and ‘JitaV were introduced.
He divided his empire into many big or small pieces of land, known as ‘Iqtas’ and handed them over to his nobles and officers in lieu of salary.
In 1221, he defended India against the Mongol invasion under Changez Khan.
He occupied the Rajputana castles of Ranthambhor, Gwalior and Ujjain.

Question 10.
Write a brief comment on Jallaludin Khalji.
Answer:
Jallaludin Khalji was the founder of Khalji Dynasty. He ruled from 1290 to 1296 A.D. During his ruling period the Delhi Darbar became a centre of scandals. In 1296, his nephew and son-in-law Alauddin Khalji killed him and ascended the throne.

Question 11.
Write about the victories and reforms of Alauddin Khalji.
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji was the most famous ruler of Khalji Dynasty. He ruled from 1296 A.D. to.1316 A.D. He was an optimist ruler. He wanted to established an empire in India.

Victories:

In 1299, he won Gujarat.
In 1301 A.D. he accupied Ranthambhor.
In 1303 A.D. Chittor was under his control.
He sent his General Malik Kafur to South India, where his army won the areas of Devagiri, Warangal, Dwar Samudra and Madurai, but Alauddin Khalji did not annex these areas into Delhi Sultanate.

Reforms of Alauddin Khalji:

Economic reforms: He reduced the price of essential commodities. To control the
prices, he appointed market officers. Anybody who went against his orders and rules was severely punished. .
Military reforms: He started the custom of writing the physical measurements of the soldiers. He started paying cash salary to soldiers. He also appointed spies to control his empire.

Question 12.
Write about the administrative period of Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
Answer:

Feroz Shah considered the support of the nobles and the Ulema necessary for success.
He made peace with them and kept them content by giving them grants of revenue.
He was lenient in his dealings with the nobles.
He allowed the orthodox ulema to influence state policy in certain matters.
He improved his relations with the powerful groups at the court but at the same time, the power of the Sultan decreased.
The governors of certain provinces like Bihar and Bengal had rebelled against the Sultanate.
He tried to bring them under his control but he was not very successful.
He established a department called ‘Diwan-i-Khairat’ to help the poor.

Question 13.
Write about the period of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodhi was the last ruler of Lodhi dynasty. He ruled from 1517 A.D. to 1526 A.D. He wanted to make his central administration very powerful. But he was not liked by Afghan Chiefs and they created many difficulties for him. Infact, Ibrahim Lodhi was not a farsighted Sultan. He could make friendly relations with his Amirs, but he made them his enemies because of his egoistic behavior. As a result, they started revolts against Delhi Sultanate. In 1526 A.D., Ibrahim Lodhi was killed while fighting against Babar in the first battle of Panipat.

Question 14.
Describe in brief the Timur’s raid on India.
Answer:
Timur was a Turkish chief. He was brave, powerful and ambitious ruler of Central Asia.

Effects of Timur’s raid on India.

Timur’s raid on India gave a death blow to the Tughlaq dynasty and it ended in 1413 A.D.
Delhi Sultanate met with financial crisis.
A local governor occupied Delhi and founded the Sayyid dynasty.
Timur’s raid encouraged the Mughals to establish their empire in India.

Question 15.
Briefly comment on Sayyid Dynasty (1414 A.D. to 1451 A.D.).
Answer:
When Timur left Delhi he appointed Khizar Khan as the governor of Multan, Lahore and Depalpur. In 1414 A.D. Khizar Khan won Delhi and established Sayyid dynasty. This dynasty ruled from 1414 A.D. to 1451 A.D. The last ruler Ala-ud-din Alam Shah was defeated by the Governor of Lahore, Bahlol Lodhi.

Question 16.
Briefly introduce Behlol Lodhi and Sikandar Lodhi.
Answer:
Bahlol Lodhi. He was the founder of Lodhi dynasty and was its first ruler. He tried to restore the pride of Delhi Sultanate. He established law and order in the country. In 1488 A.D. he died. His son Sikandar Lodhi became his successor.

Sikandar Lodhi. He was (1488 A.D. – 1517 A.D.) the most powerful ruler of Lodhi dynasty. He was a good administrator. He performed many functions for the welfare of public. He brought reforms in agriculture and reduced the prices of essential commodities. In 1503 A.D., he established Agra city and made it his capital. He died in 1517 A.D.

Question 17.
Give a brief account of the Deccan campaigns of Ala-ud-din Khalji.
Answer:
Ala-ud-din Khalji sent a very big army under his army General Malik Kafur. Malik Kafur won the areas of Devagiri, Warangal, Dwar Samudra and Madurai but Ala- ud-din didn’t annex these areas to his ruling state.

Question 18.
Describe the development of political institutions during the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
The description in brief is as follows :
1. Central Government. Sultan was an autocratic ruler who had unlimited powers. He ran his government with the help of ministers. All the departments were run by the concerned ministers according to the orders of the Sultan. The administrative system of Delhi Sultanate was mainly based on Islamic laws.

The following were the main ministers in-charge of different departments :

Wajir: He was the most important minister of the state. He was the chief of finance and land revenue. Many officials were employed for his assistance. Mushrif Mamalik (Accountant General) and ‘Mustafi-i-Mamalik’ (Auditor-General) were the main assistants.
Ariz-i-Mamalik: Minister of army.
Diwan-i-Insha: Minister of Spy Department.
Diwan-i-Risalat: Minister of External Affairs.
Sadar-i-Sadur: Minister of Religion & Education Affairs.

2. Provincial Administration. The empire was divided into many states and governors were appointed for these states. They were called Subedars, Muqtis or Walis. The states were further divided into parganas. A combination of. many villages created one Pargana. The chief official of Pargana was named ‘Amil’. The chief of a village was called ‘Muqadam’.

3. Military Arrangement. The army consisted of horses, elephants and soldiers. The military officers were usually granted jagirs but sometimes they were paid their salaries cash. The military power was must for crushing rebels. They could never think of their existence without a powerful army. So the Delhi Sultans used all the means of military arrangements.

Question 19.
Write short notes on the following :
1. The Court
Answer:
The Court: Delhi Sultans established their own Courts. The front seats were given to Princes. Ministers, Department’s Chiefs, other officials and foreign diplomats were given the permanent places. The Departmental Chiefs were always present in the Court to answer the questions posed by the Sultan.

2. The Nobility
Answer:
The Nobility: The Delhi Sultans were complete Autocrates. They ruled with the help of noble class. Most of them were related to Turk or Afghan families. But after the period of Allaudin Khalji, Muslims and Hindus were also employed as high officials. Thus a noble class was also developed among these religions. The central ministers, state governors and army chiefs, all belonged to noble class.

3. Land Control
Answer:
Land Control: Revenue -was the chief source of the income of the state. There were three systems prevalent at that time. These were Batai, Kankut and measurement of land. Revenue was collected either in cash or in some other form. Alauddin Khalji paid special attention towards land reforms. He got the measurement done and to look after the agriculture, he created a department called ‘Diwan-i-Must-Kharaz’. At that time the rate of land revenue was very high. Firoz Shah Tughlaq also developed agriculture. He got canals built for irrigation. The rate of land revenue was lowered and loans were remitted.

4. Resource Mobilization.
Answer:
Resource Mobilization: There were many temporary sources of revenue also namely—Kharaz, Khamas, Jakat and Zazia. Kharaz was taken from non-Muslims. It was 10% to 50% of the total produce. Khamas was the 1/5 part of plundered stock from battles. The Sultan had the right over this portion. The rest 4/5 part was distributed among the army. Jakat was a religious tax, which was charged from Muslims. It was 2.5% of their property. Zazia tax was again charged from non-Muslims. It is said that women, children and poor people were exempted from this tax. This tax was charged from 10 to 40 Takas on the basis of income.

Question 20.
Write the names of the main historical sources of the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
The main sources are as follows:
1. Accounts of Foreign Travellers: Iban-batuta and Marco Polo travelled to India during the Sultanate period and wrote accounts about the personality of Sultans and knowledge about different sectors.

2. Royal Description: Tughlaq Nama, Tarikh-i-Alahi, Tarikh-i-Firozshahi, Futuhat-i-Firozshahi, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, and Makhzari-i-Afghan, etc. were the royal descriptions, where we get knowledge about Delhi Sultans and main events.

3. Historical Monuments: The historical structures during the period of the Delhi Sultanate include Quwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Alahi Darwaja, Tughlakabad, Hauz Khas, Lodhi Tomb, Firozshah Kotla, etc. These buildings and monuments give us knowledge and information about the artistic hobbies of Delhi Sultans.