Class 10 – Page 18 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Plantation of New Orchards

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 5 Plantation of New Orchards Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class10 Agriculture Chapter 5 Plantation of New Orchards

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Plantation of New Orchards Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How much is the area of the fruits under Punjab?
Answer:
76500 hectare.

Question 2.
Name the insecticide used to control the termite attack.
Answer:
Mix 30 gram lindaneror 15 milli litre chloropyriphos 20 EC in 2.5 kg soil per pit to protect the plants from termites.

Question 3.
Name two recommended peach cultivars.
Answer:
Flordaprince, Partap.

Question 4.
Give the number of planting system for the plantation of new orchards.
Answer:
Three systems-square, filler, hexagonal system.

Question 5.
What is the time for plantation of deciduous frujj; trees?
Answer:
Mid January to mid February.

Question 6.
Give the suitable time for the plantation of mango and litchi orchards.
Answer:
September-October.

Question 7.
Give the time of application of FYM to the orchards. Or In which month farmyard manure (FYM) should be added to fruit plants?
Answer:
2-3 months before the initiation of new growth, generally in the month of December.

Question 8.
Write the name of two recommended amla cultivars.
Answer:
Balwant, Neelam, Kanchan.

Question 9.
What is the pit size for the plantation of fruit crops?
Answer:
One metre deep.

Question 10.
Name the fruit trees recommended for cultivation in district Amritsar.
Answer:
Pears, grapes, mango, guava, peach, kinnow and other mandarins, lemon etc.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Which kind of soil is suitable for plantation of fruit trees?
Answer:
Well drained, deep loamy and fertile soil is required for planting of orchard. There should be no hard pan upto depth of 2 m.

Question 2.
Name the fruit trees recommended for cultivation in sub- mountainous zone.
Answer:
Guava, mango, litchi, pears, kinnow and other mandarins, lemon, peach, plums, chikoo (sapota), gooseberry (amla) etc.

Question 3.
Name the fruit trees recommended for cultivation in arid- irrigated zone.
Answer:
Malta, lemon, kinnow and other mandarins, ber, grapes, guava etc.

Question 4.
Define evergreen fruit trees with suitable examples.
Answer:
These plants have leaves throughout the year and are always green examples-Loquat, guava, mango, litchi, kinnow and other mandarins, sweet orange, lime, sapota etc.

Question 5.
Define deciduous fruit trees with suitable examples.
Answer:
These plants completely lose their foliage during the winter or dry season. Example-Pears, grapes, peach, plums.

Question 6.
What is square system of planting?
Answer:
This is a system of planting orchards in which row spacing and plant spacing are kept same. Plants are at right angle tb each other and nearby four plants of two rows form a square.

Question 7.
What is the irrigation interval for the fruit trees?
Answer:
Younger plants should be irrigated at weekly intervals from March to June upto 3-4 years. Then from November to February at intervals of 2-3 weeks and from July to November depending upon rainfall and soil type, irrigation should be applied.

Question 8.
What is the depth of water table for successful cultivation of orchards?
Answer:
Underground water should be lower than 3 m of depth and there should be no fluctuation in this level.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Filler system of planting the fruit trees?
Answer:
Some of the fruit plants like litchi, mango, pears start giving fruits after long time (late bearing). Some plants which are temporary are planted in the orchard, which bear fruits in short interval of time. These act as filler plant. When main fruit plants come to bearing then these filler plants are removed.

Question 10.
From where the nursery plants should be purchased?
Answer:
Healthy, vigorous, insect free, disease free and of known pedigree, good variety plants should be taken from some reliable nursery, if possible, should be taken from PAU Ludhiana, from the department of Horticulture and from government approved nurseries.

Question 1.
What points should be kept in mind while purchasing the fruit plants from nursery?
Answer:

Fruit plants which are free from insects and diseases should be selected from the nursery.
Plants should be healthy, vigorous and of medium height budded or grafted on suitable rootstock.
Lift the evergreen plants in such a way that they carry roots with them and are covered with well sized earthen balls.
Take care that grafting.is done on the original plant. Union should be smooth and should not be high.
Before transplanting remove the Tying material.
Purchase 10% more plants from the requirement, these can be used to fill the gap created due to death of some plants.

Question 2.
Describe the various planting system of orchards in detail.
Answer:
There are three system of planting orchards:
(i) Square pattern
(ii) Filler pattern
(iii) Hexogonal pattern.

(i) Square system:
In this layout method plant rows are equally spaced. Plants are at right angle to each other. In this system four plants opposite to each other form a square. This is the most commonly followed system in Punjab. Orchards planted in this layout give fruits for long time and in the initial phase when orchards are not giving income, the layout permits intercropping and one can get income from this cultivation of crops.

(ii) Filler system:
Some of the fruit plants like, litchi, mango, pears etc. start, bearing after long time. In such orchards some short lived plants are planted, these come to bear earlier than main plants. These are called filler plants. After few years when main trees come to bearing then these filler plants should be removed.

(iii) Hexagonal system:
In this system row spacing is less than the plant spacing but plant to plant spacing is always same. In this layout, 15 to 20% more plants can be planted. To prevent the problem of entangling branches of different trees, should be trimmed and pruned properly.

Question 3.
Why the training and pruning of fruit trees is necessary?
Answer:
Fruit plants need a proper structure and appearance which should be given at younger age. This is done by careful training. Proper appearance and structure is necessary so that plants can get proper sunlight and proper ventilation. This helps in getting better yield and high quality fruits and this also increases the age of tree.

Deciduous fruit plants like grapes, pears, peach, plums etc. which are planted in Punjab are prunned for the first four to five years. When plants come to bearing, plants are trimmed so as to get better yield and high quality fruits. Prusing is necessary to remove non productive parts, diseased, dried, crisscrossed and broken branches. This helps in regulating the fruit crop of better quality and productivity in also improved.

Question 4.
What points should be kept in mind while harvesting the fruits?
Answer:
1. Some standards or certain maturity indices should be followed and maintained while harvesting fruits e.g. some of the fruits can be harvested before proper maturity e.g. mango, banana, plums etc. But grapes, litchi etc. can not be ripened after harvesting. Standards should be set and maintained according to the fruit.

2. Never pull the fruit from the branch. This may cause the branch to break or the fruit skin near the stem end can be ruptured.

3. Grade fruits harvested into 3-4 sizes. Pack these in the card- board boxes, poly nets, crates after grading.

4. Do not pack the fruits which are unripe, more ripe, small, irregular shaped, damaged and injured.

Question 5.
Write down a short note on the use of fertilizers in orchards.
Answer:
We have to dig a pit before planting fruit trees. This pit is refilled with a mixture of top soil and well rotten farmyard manure in equal part. Vegetative growth of fruit plants take place in the months of February to April. During their growth, plants must get all the nutrients. Therefore apply farmyard manure before 2-3 months before the initation of new growth.

FYM is usually applied in the month of December. Nitrogen fertilizer is applied in two parts. One at the before flowering and one at the time of fruit set. Phosphorus should be applied with the first dose of nitrogen. Apply potash before the maturity of fruits so that fruits are of good quality. Use broadcast method to apply fertilizers of main nutrients. Apply micronutrient fertilizers only if deficiency of these nutrients is found.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Plantation of New Orchards Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Nutrients we get from fruits are:
(a) vitamins
(b) minerals
(c) protein
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 2.
When evergreen plants are sown?
(a) February-March
(b) September-October
(c) Both correct
(d) None.
Answers:
(b) September-October

Question 3.
Planting system for establishing orchards.
(a) square
(b) filler
(c) hexagonal
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 4.
…………….is not an evergreen fruit plant.
(a) Pears
(b) Loquat
(c) Mango
(d) Litchi.
Answers:
(a) Pears

Question 5.
Deciduous fruit plants are:
(a) grapes
(b) peach
(c) plums
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 6.
Evergreen fruit plants are:
(a) Mango
(b) Litchi
(c) Lime
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 7.
In which month autumn fruit plants are sown?
(a) April-May
(b) January-February
(c) June-July
(d) May-June.
Answers:
(b) January-February

Question 8.
Which district of Punjab is located in sub-mountainous zone?
(a) Bathinda
(b) Amritsar
(c) Roopnagar
(d) Chandigarh.
Answers:
(c) Roopnagar

True False:

1. Partap is a variety of peach.
Answers:
True

2. Kanchan is a variety of Amla.
Answers:
True

3. Fruits should not be pulled from the branches during harvesting.
Answers:
True

4. Fruit crop is a long term investment.
Answers:
True

5. There are three planting system for new orchards.
Answers:
True

Fill in the blanks:

1. ………… plants are planted from mid january to mid February.
Answers:
Deciduous

2. W. Murcott is a recommended cultivar of ………………… fruit.
Answers:
Mandarin (orange)

3. Cricket ball is a cultivar of …………….. .
Answers:
Spota

4. Ganesh is a eultivar of ……………… .
Answers:
Pomegranate

5. Early Grande in a cultivar of …………… .
Answers:
Peach.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which nutrients are found in fruits?
Answer:
Fruits contain proteins, minerals, vitamins etc.

Question 2.
How many zones are there in Punjab on the basis of climate?
Answer:
Three zones.

Question 3.
How many types of fruit plants are there based on their time of planting?
Answer:
Two types.

Question 4.
Give examples of evergreen fruit plants.
Answer:
Mango, litchi, citrus, chicoo (spota) etc.

Question 5.
Give examples of deciduous fruit plants.
Answer:
Pears, grapes, peach, plums etc.

Question 6.
What is suitable time for planting evergreen fruit plants?
Answer:
February to March, September to October.

Question 7.
What is the time for planting orchards of Mango and Litchi?
Answer:
September-October.

Question 8.
What is the time for planting deciduous plants?
Answer:
In winter when these are in dormant stage.

Question 9.
What is time of planting peach and plums?
Answer:
Mid of January.

Question 10.
What is time of planting pears, grapes?
Answer:
Mid of February.

Question 11.
What should be the level of water under the earth for planting fruit plants?
Answer:
Water should be below three metres from the surface of earth.

Question 12.
Give name of varieties of orange.
Answer:
Kinnow, Local, Daisy, W. Murcott.

Question 13.
Write varieties of malta (sweet orange).
Answer:
Musambi, Jaffa, Blood red, Valencia.

Question 14.
Write varieties of lemon.
Answer:
Kagazi, Baramasi Lemon-1, Galgal.

Question 15.
Write varieties of mango.
Answer:
Dusehari, Langra, Alphonso.

Question 16.
Write varieties of pears.
Answer:
Punjab beauty, Pathamakh (hard pear), Punjab nectar, Punjab gold, Baggugosha, Le Conte.

Question 17.
Write varieties of Peach.
Answer:
Early Grande, Shan-e-Punjab, Partap.

Question 18.
Write varieties of plums.
Answer:
Satluj purple, Kala Amritsari.

Question 19.
Write varieties of guava.
Answer:
Sardar, Allahabad Sufeda, Arka Amulya, Punjab pink.

Question 20.
Write varieties of grapes.
Answer:
Perlette, Beauty seedless, Flame seedless, Punjab purple, Shaweta.

Question 21.
Write varieties of her.
Answer:
Umran, Sanaur 2, Wallaiti.

Question 22.
Write varieties of litchi.
Answer:
Dehradun, Calcuttia.

Question 23.
Write varieties of Chicoo (Sapota).
Answer:
Kali pati, Cricket ball.

Question 24.
Write varieties of pomegranate.
Answer:
Bhagwa, Ganesh, Kandhari.

Question 25.
How many more plants are planted if the planting system is hexagonal?
Answer:
15-20 %.

Question 26.
Write about plant height taken from Nursery.
Answer:
Plants should be of medium height.

Question 27.
Which method is used to apply fertilizers of main nutrients in the orchards?
Answer:
Broadcast method.

Question 28.
Why should not fruit be pulled from the branch?
Answer:
It may rupture the skin of the fruit and branch may break also.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Punjab is divided into how many zones on the basis of climate and name them?
Answer:
Punjab is divided into three zones based on climate –

Submountainous zone
Central zone
Arid irrigated zone.

Question 2.
Name the districts which lies in submountainous zone?
Answer:
Roop Nagar, Hoshiarpur, Pathankot, Sahibjada Ajit Singh Nagar, Shaheed Bhagat Singh Nagar, Union territory Chandigarh.

Question 3. Which fruits are recommended for submountain zone?
Answer:
Mango, cirtrus fruits, lemon, kinnow, lime, litchi, peach, plums, chicoo, amla etc.

Question 4.
Which districts come under the central zone?
Answer:
Amritsar, Tarantaran, Kapurthala, Bamala, Patiala, Jalandhar, Sangrur, Ludhiana, Moga, Fatehgarh Sahib etc. .

Question 5.
Which fruit trees are recommended for central zone?
Answer:
Pears, guava, peach, mango, kinnow, orange, lemon, grapes etQuestion

Question 6.
Which are the districts which come under the arid-irrigated zone?
Answer:
Bhatinda, Manasa, Shri Mukatsar Sahib, Faridkot, Ferozepur, Fazilka etc.

Question 7.
Name the fruit plants which are recommended for arid- irrigated zone.
Answer:
Kinnow and other mandarins, malta, lemon, grapes, ber, guava etc.

Question 8.
What type of soil is required for cultivation of fruit plants? (For an orchard?)
Answer:
For an orchards soil should be well drained, deep, loamy and fertile. There should be not hard pan within two metres of its depth.

Question 9.
Which type of soil is not suitable for orchards?
Answer:
Fruit plants should not be grown in water logged, marshy, saline or acidic soils.

Question 10.
Which of the fruits can ripen after harvesting and which can not?
Answer:
Banana, Mango, Plums etc. can ripen or mature after harvesting but Grapes, Litchi etc. cannot mature after harvesting.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in brief about irrigation and fertilizer application for fruit plants.
Answer:
See above question (for fertilizers)
Irrigation:
Apply irrigation from March to June after every week, from November to February after 2-3 weeks, and July to November depending upon on rainfall and type of soil for young plants. When trees come to bearing then at the time of flowering and at the time of fruit set and in summer irrigation becomes necessary. If irrigation is not applied in summer it results in excessive shedding of flowers/fruits.

Question 2.
Write the improved varieties of following: Mango, Peach, Plums, Guava, Grapes, Amla, Pomegranate.
Answer:
Mango-Langra, Alphonso, Dushari.
Peach-Partap, Shan-e-Punjab, Florida Prince, Early grande, Parbhat.
Plums-Black Amritsari, Satluj Purple.
Guava-Arka Amulya, Alahabad Sufeda, Punjab Pink, Sardar.
Grapes-Beauty seedless, Punjab purple, Flame seedless, Perlette.
Amla-Neelam, Kanchan, Balwant.
Pomegranate-Kandhari, Ganesh, Bhagwa.

Question 3.
What do you know about the square system of plantation of fruit plants?
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 4.
Which points should be kept in mind while selecting fruit plants from the nursery.
Answer:
Do yourself.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Agricultural Development in India

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Agricultural Development in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Agricultural Development in India

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Agricultural Development in India Textbook Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Agriculture is the main source of employment in India.” Write a short note on it.
Answer:
A big part of our total labour force is engaged in agriculture. According to 2017-18, 46,2 percent of India’s working population is engaged in agriculture. In other countries like in England only 2% and in America, only 2% of the working population is engaged in agriculture. It indicates their economic development.

Question 2.
What are the mainlands reforms of India?
Answer:
Following are the mainland reforms of India:

Abolition of the zamindari system.
Acts have been passed to improve the land tenure system.
Maximum ceiling on landholdings.
Consolidation of holdings.
Co-operative farming.
Bhoodhan Movement.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Green Revolution?
Answer:
The revolution that aims at raising the agricultural produce by adopting the latest and scientific methods of cultivation is called the green revolution. “Green Revolution refers to an extraordinary increase in agricultural production especially in wheat and rice which was made possible due to the adoption of new techniques of H.Y.V. seeds.”

Question 4.
How has Green Revolution helped in solving the Indian food problem?
Answer:
After the year 1965-66, there has takeh place a tremendous rise in the production of foodgrains due to green revolution. In the year 1966-67, the year of green revolution, the production of foodgrains increased to 950 lakh tonnes. In 2017-18, the production of foodgrains was 2775 lakh tonnes. This resulted in increased per capita availability of food. It also helped in the reduction of imports of foodgrains. Thus green revolution helped a lot in solving the food problem in India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the importance of agriculture in Indian economy.
Anwer:
1. Contribution to National Income. Agriculture gives an importänt contribution to national income. During 1950-51, 59% of the total domestic production was produced in agriculture. Agriculture has been the basis of Indian economy. At present agriculture contributes about 15.3% to the national income.

2. Source of Employment. A big part of our total labour power is engaged in agriculture. According to 1991 census, 65.5% of the total working population was engaged in agriculture. In 2017-18, 46.2% people are directly engaged in this sector. In other countries, only 3% in England, 4% in America and 20% people in Russia are engaged in agricultural works. It indicates towards their economic developitient.

3. Helpful for Industrial Development. Agricultural development contributes to industrial development too. Agriculture provides raw material to many other fields. Low agricultural products have adverse effect on industrial development. If the production of cotton, sugarcane, jute etc. is low, the industries depending on them will not work properly.

4. Helpful in Internal and External Trade. Agricultural goods are used in internal and external trade. Cotton, jute, tea, foodgrains, tobacco, jaggery are the major parts of internal trade. Agricultural goods are exported too. Tobacco, tea, coffee, dry fruit etc. are exported. Half of the total foreign currency comes by exporting agriculture goods.

5. Basis of Means of Transport. Means of transport help in carrying agricultural products from one market to another, from market to the consumers or to the industries. Manufactured industrial goods like chemical fertilizers, machine-tools etc. can be carried to the agricultural field with the help of means of transport. Means of transport carry foodgrains from one state to the other. So the development of means of transport depends on agricultural development.

6. Income to the Government. Govt, earns income from different types of taxes such as land revenue, irrigation tax, market fee etc. As the agricultural sector develops, it helps in increasing the govt, income.

7. Source of Food. Food is the basis of life. Most of the people in India are vegetarian because of influence of the religious views. So they get their food from agriculture.

8. Helpful in Capital Formation. The increase in agricultural income leads to an increase in saving and if further helps in capital formation and capital is a necessary condition for economic development.

Question 2.
Describe the main problems of Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
Indian agriculture is quite backward. It has so many problems. These problems can be divided into following three categories:

Human Problems
Institutional Problems
Technical Problems.

1. Human Problems. Heavy pressure of population on agriculture is one of the major
causes of backwardness of Indian agriculture. This pressure has resulted in the problem of subdivision, fragmentation and disguised unemployment.

Social atmosphere has been a great obstacle in the development of agriculture. Indian farmers are illiterate, fatalist, superstitious and conservative. On account of ignorance and casteism, Indian farmers are used to fight on petty issues.

2. Institutional Problems. Small size of holidings, land tenure system are the main institutional problems. Most,of the farms are very small in India. The average size of farms is 2-3 hectares. In Punjab the average holding is of 3.77 hectares.

3. Technical Problems. Inadequate irrigation facilities, old agricultural implements, traditional technique of cultivation, lack of improved seeds, lack of manure, defective agricultural marketing system, diseases of crops and attacks of pests, lack of credit facilities and weak cattle are the main technical problems in the developmental path of Indian agriculture.

Question 3.
Explain the contribution of government in the development of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The role of the govt, in agricultural development may be summarised as follows :

Land Reforms. Land reforms play an important role in the development of agriculture. After the independence, the following land reforms have been implemented :
(a) Abolition of Zamindari System
(b) Tenancy reforms
(c) Consolidation of land holdings.
(d) Ceiling on land holdings.
(e) Development of Co-operative farming.
Increase in irrigation facilities.
Improvements in the distribution system.
Special emphasis has been laid on agricultural research and development.
Improvement in agricultural marketing.
Increase in credit facilities.
Emphasis on mechanization of agriculture.
Development of high-yielding varieties.
New measures to conserve water and soil.

Moreover, special agricultural programmes are arranged over the radio and television for the benefit of the farmers.

Question 4.
Write the main elements of success of the Green Revolution.
Answer:
There are various factors responsible for Green Revolution in India. The important among them are:
1. Wonder Seeds. Agricultural revolutipn is primarily due to the miracle of new wonder seeds which have raised agricultural yield per acre to incredible heights.

2. Chemical Fertilisers. The increasing use of chemical fertilizers has played a key role in the breakthrough. Fertilizer consumption increased from a mere 2.92 lakh tonnes in 1960-61 to 34.1 lakh tonnes in 2007-08 and more spectacularly to 255.76 lakh tonnes in 2017-18.

3. Multiple Cropping. Thanks to new seeds maturing early, it has become possible to obtain three and even four crops instead of two from the same plot in a year.

4. Modern Equipment and Machinery. Modern machinery and implements like tractors, harvesters, pumping sets, tube-wells, etc. are being increasingly used and are replacing the bullocks wherever possible.

5. Price Incentives. The Government has taken care to offer support prices to the
growers so that minimum reasonable returns for their labor and investment are assured to them. –

6. Extension of Irrigation. The irrigation system of the country is being speedily
extended to assure adequate water supply, especially in areas where new agricultural strategy is being applied. .

7. Processing, Storage and Marketing Facilities. These facilities are being improved and extended so that the increased agricultural production is put to profitable use.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Agricultural Development in India Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line :

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
It is the art and science of production of crops.

Question 2.
State any one land reform of India.
Answer:
Tenancy reforms.

Question 3.
State the full form of HYV.
Answer:
High Yeilding Variety.

Question 4.
Which country is the largest producer of pulses?
Answer:
India.

Question 5.
Name the input which is used in commercial farming.
Answer:
Modern technology.

Question 6.
Suggest one measure to develop Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
Increase in irrigation facilities.

Question 7.
Name any one .cause responsible for backwardness of Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
Small size of land holding.

Question 8.
Name the persons responsible for bringing green revolution in India.
Answer:
Dr. Norman Verlog and Dr. M.N. Swaminathgh.

Question 9.
Name any one factor responsible for green revolution in India.
Answer:
Use of modern agricultural tools.

Question 10.
Name any one advantage of green revolution.
Answer:
Increase in the production of foodgrains.

Question 11.
Name any one defect of green revolution.
Answer:
Limited to a few crops only.

Question 12.
When was green revolution started?
Answer:
1966-67.

Question 13.
Write down the main source of irrigation in India.
Answer:
Underground water.

Question 14.
What is the present share of agriculture in national income of India?
Answer:
24 %.

Question 15.
How much share of agriculture was in GDP in 2014-15?
Answer:
17.4%.

Question 16.
What is Green revolution?
Answer:
It is an agricultural strategy used to increase the yield of crops.

Question 17.
How much percentage of population of India depends upon agriculture for livelihood?
Answer:
About 46.2 percent.

Question 18.
What is the place of agriculture in the national economy?
Answer:
Agriculture forms the backbone of the Indian economy.

Question 19.
Highlight the contribution of agriculture in the industrial development.
Answer:
Indian agriculture has been the source of supply of raw materials to our leading industries.

Question 20.
What is meant by excessive pressure of population On land?
Answer:
By excessive pressure of population on land we mean that each year the new labour force unable to get employment elsewhere becomes dependent on agriculture.

Question 21.
Name any two causes responsible for the backwardness of Indian agriculture.
Answer:

Shortage of irrigation facilities.
Shortage of good seeds and chemical fertilizers.

Question 22.
Suggest two measures to develop Indian agriculture.
Answer:

Emphasis on scientific farming.
Land reforms.

Question 23.
Name any two land reforms in India.
Answer:

Abolition of intermediaries.
Consolidation of landholdings.

Question 24.
Name any two factors responsible for green revolution in India.
Answer:

Use of high-yielding variety of seeds.
Use of chemical fertilizers.

Question 25.
Name any two advantages of green revolution.
Answer:

Increase in the production of foodgrains.
Improvement in the living standards of farmers.

Question 26.
Name any two defects of green revolution.
Answer:

Increase in regional imbalances.
Benefits to big farmers only.

Question 27.
What is meant by land reforms?
Answer:
Land reforms means deliberate change introduced into system of land and the farming structure.

Question 28.
What is meant by agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture is the art of production of crops and livestock on a farm.

Question 29.
What is green revolution?
Answer:
Green revolution is an agricultural strategy used to increase the yield of crops,

Question 30.
Expand HYV seeds.
Answer:
High yielding variety seeds.

Question 31.
Which country is the largest producer of pulses?
Answer:
India.

Question 32.
Name the inputs in commercial farming.
Answer:
Modem technology, HYV seeds, etc.

Question 33.
Why is the land productivity low in shifting agriculture?
Answer:
Because the manure and fertilizers are not used.

Question 34.
On which two factors, primitive agriculture depends?
Answer:
Monsoon and natural fertility of soil.

Question 35.
How much percentage of population of India depends upon agriculture for livelihood?
Answer:
About 48.9 percent.

Question 36.
Name three activities which besides cultivation are included in agriculture.
Answer:

Animal husbandry
Forestry
Pisciculture.

Question 37.
How many shares of agriculture was in GDP in 2011-2012?
Answer:
13.9 percent.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
_________ is the art and science of production of crops. (Agriculture / Mining)
Answer:
Agriculture

Question 2.
Green Revolution was started in India in _________ year . (1948-49/ 1966-67)
Answer:
1966-67

Question 3.
Agriculture contributed _________ percent of the national income in 1950-51. (48/59)
Answer:
59

Question 4.
___________ is the largest producer of pulses. (Pakistan / India)
Answer:
India

Question 5.
_________ is the main source of irrigation in India. (Underground water/Tubewell)
Answer:
Underground water

Question 6.
_________ is responsible for green revolution in India. (J.L. Nehru/Dr. Norman Verlog)
Answer:
Dr. Norman Verlog

Question 7.
At present agriculture contributes about _________% to the national income. (14.6 / 15.3)
Answer:
15.3.

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
State any one land reform of India.
(a) Tenancy reforms
(b) Abolition of zamindari system
(c) Ceiling of landholding
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 2.
How much share of agriculture Was in GPD in 2067-08?
(a) 14.6%
(b) 15.9%
(c) 17,1%
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) 14.6%

Question 3.
Which country is the largest producer of pulses?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Nepal.
Answer:
(a) India

Question 4.
When was green revolution started?
(a) 1966-67
(b) 1969-70
(c) 1985-86
(d) 1999-2000.
Answer:
(a) 1966-67

Question 5.
What is the present share of agriculture in National Income of India?
(a) 12.6%
(b) 14.8%
(c) 14.2%
(d) 15.3%.
Answer:
(d) 15.3%.

Question 6.
HYV stands for :
(a) Haryana Youth Variety
(b) Huge Yield Variety
(c) High Yielding Variety
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) High Yielding Variety

True / False:

Question 1.
Green revolution in India came into existence in 1947.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Indian economy is agricultural economy.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The father of Green Revolution in India is Dr. Norman Berlog.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Consolidation of holdings is a type of land reform.
Answer:
True.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Agriculture is the backbone of Indian economy.” Discuss.
Answer:
Agriculture forms the backbone of the Indian economy and despite concerted industrialisation in the last four decades, agriculture occupies a place of pride. Being the largest industry in the country, agriculture is the source of livelihood for over 46.2 per cent of population in the country. About 15.3 per cent of national income of the country is contributed by agriculture. In 2017-18, 46.2 per cent of India’s working population was engaged in agriculture. Moreover, Indian agriculture has been the source of supply of raw materials to our leading industries. It is blear, therefore, that agriculture is the backbone of the Indian economy and prosperity of agriculture can also largely stand for the prosperity of the Indian economy.

Question 2.
Name the different factors responsible for low agricultural productivity in India.
Answer:
The different factors responsible for low agricultural productivity in India are :

Heavy dependence on rainfall.
Excessive pressure of population on land.
Lack of improved seeds.
Lack of manures and plant protection.
Out-of-date implements.
Lack of irrigation facilities.
Lack of adequate finance.
Lack of marketing facilities and price incentives.
Poor implementation of land reforms.
Neglect of agricultural research.
Ignorance and illiteracy of farmers etc.

Question 3.
Write a short note on green revolution.
Answer:
Agricultural production during five-year plans has increased tremendously. There are many causes for this rapid increase. India had experienced this increase in production in 1966-67. It is known as green revolution.

Factors responsible for Green Revolution. The different factors responsible for green revolution in India are :

High yielding varieties of seeds.
Chemical fertilizers.
Irrigation.
Multiple cropping.
Agricultural machinery.
Credit facilities.
New techniques.
Research.
Plant protection.
Marketing facilities.
Institutional reforms.
Price-incentives etc.

All these factors contributed in bringing green revolution in India.

Question 4.
Give suggestions to make green revolution successful.
Answer:
Following suggestions can be offered to render Green Revolution successful:
1. Expansion of Green Revolution. Green Revolution should be expanded by bringing under its purview new crops like sugarcane, pulses, oilseeds etc.

2. Development of Means of Irrigation. Means of irrigation should be further developed in Punjab. Thein Dam Project and Ravi-Beas Project should be further expanded. Poor farmers should be given subsidies for installing pumping-sets or tubewells.

3. Help to small farmers. Small and marginal farmers should be brought within the scope of Green Revolution. They should be provided with cheap facilities to enable them to buy HYV seeds, fertilizers, machines etc. They should be enrolled in Cooperative Farming Societies.

4. Growth of Commercial Crops. Green Revolution should include in its ambit such commercial crops as oilseeds, sugarcane, cotton, pulses, potatoes etc. Special efforts should be made in this respect.

5. Integrated farm policy. To make green revolution a success integrated farm policy should be adopted. Farmers should get fertilizers, seeds, pesticides and machines at reasonable price and in reasonable quantity.

Question 5.
What is meant by irrigation? Why is it necessary?
Answer:
Providing water to land by human made resources is called irrigation. Irrigation is necessary in order to increase the productivity of agriculture. Irrigational facilities have been extended. Several major and minor irrigation projects were launched in the country. In 1951 hardly 17% of total land was covered by irrigational facilities which has now extended up to 34% of land. Multiple crop system will be possible only through irrigational facilities.

Question 6.
Write down the main sources of irrigation in India.
Answer:
The main sources of irrigation in India are :
1. Water above the land. It includes rain water, rivers, canals, ponds, lakes etc.

2. Underground water. This water is obtained by digging wells and tubewells. These sources of irrigation in India are divided in the following categories :

Big Irrigation Projects. More than 10 thousand hectares of land is irrigated under these projects.
Medium Irrigation Projects. These projects irrigate 2 thousand to 10 thousand hectares of land.
Small Irrigation Projects. These projects irrigate less than 2 thousand hectares of land.

Question 7.
How has green revolution helped in solving the Indian food problem?
Answer:
Following are the main reasons:

Increase in production. As a result of green revolution production of many crops has increased rapidly from 1966-67 onwards.
Reduction in imports of foodgrain. As a result of green revolution, imports of foodgrains have considerably fallen down in India.
Increase in Trade. Because of green revolution, agriculture production has increased. It has increased the market surplus of agro products, which in turn has expanded domestic and foreign trade. Now surplus agriculture products are even exported.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the problems of agriculture in India?
Answer:
Even after seven decades of Independence, the agricultural sector is not completely developed. There are so many problems which are responsible for its backwardness. The problems are as follows:
1. Problem of Marketing. The marketing system of agricultural products is quite poor in India. As a result, farmers are unable to get fair prices of their crops. They sell their products in villages at lower prices and therefore, they remain poor. Urban markets are far away from the villages and transportation facilities are not developed there.

2. Problem of Credit Facilities. Credit is one of the main problems of Indian farmers. Farmers are unable to get easy loans from banks and co-operative societies. This forces them to get loans from local moneylenders at exorbitant rate of interest. Thus they are caught in debt trap.

3. Problem of Rural Indebtedness. Indebtedness is also the main problem of Indian agriculture. Indian farmers always remain in debt. They take loans for cultivation and even for the sale of their produce.
In the words of M.L. Darling, “Indian peasant is born in debt, lives in debt and dies in debt.”

4. Problem of Weak Cattle. Due to the lack of modernisation in the agricultural sector, the problem of weak cattle is responsible for the low productivity. Cattle used in Indian agriculture are not given required fodder and their death rates are also high due to overwork. As a result, farmers have to buy more cattle, which increases their expenditure along with the cost of production.

5. Problem of Illiteracy. Indian famers suffer from illiteracy on a large-scale. They have no knowledge to increase production and yield.

6. Problem of Disguised Unemployment. A larger number of Indian population is engaged in agriculture because the industrial and service sectors do not absorb them. The productivity of disguised unemployed remains low. Farmers are unable to gain surplus yield from their fields due to disguised unemployment.

Question 2.
Explain the need and type of land reforms implemented in the agriculture sector.
Answer:
Land Reforms. Equity in agriculture is called land reforms. Land reforms refer to the change in the ownership of land holdings.
There were three types of land tenure systems prevailing in the country at the time of Independence:

Zamindari System
Mahalwari System
Ryotwari System.

The basic difference between these three was regarding the mode of payment of land revenue. The land revenue was collected from the farmers by the zamindars in Zamindari System. In the Mahalwari System, the land revenue was collected by the village head on behalf of the whole village. While in Ryotwari System, the land revenue was directly paid to the State or Government by the farmers. In all these systems, the land was cultivated by tenants. The Zamindars and Jagirdars thus collected rent from the actual tillers of the soil without contributing to making improvements on the farm. As a result,, the productivity of Indian agriculture was low which forced India to import food from the United States.

In 1948, a year after Independence, steps were taken to abolish Zamindari (Jagirdari), Mahalwari, and Ryotwari System and to make the tenants or tillers the owners of the land.

Football Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Football Game Rules.

Football Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Write a note on the FootBall playground, Goal Area, Goal, Penalty Area, Corner Area, Lines, and Ball?
Answer:
Football playground:
The football ground will be rectangular. Its Length is a Minimum of 90 M (100 yards), Maximum of 120 M (130 yards). Width Minimum 45 M (50 yards), Maximum 90 M (100 yards).

International Match. Length: Minimum 100 M (110 yards), Maximum 110 M (120 yards) Width: Minimum 64 M (70 yards), Maximum 90 M (100 yards).

Football image 1

Marking:
The playfield should be marked with distinctive lines. These lines should not exceed five inches in width. Long lines are called touch lines and the short lines the goal lines. At each comer of the playfield a flag post is placed. Such a post should not be less than one yard outside the touch line. A circle shall be drawn in the centre of the field of play with a radius of ten yards.

Goal Area:
At each end of the playfield two lines shall be drawn which shall be at right angles to the goal lines. Each line shall extend upto 10 yards in the field, and shall be joined by a line drawn parallel to the goal line. The space encircled by these lines and the goal lines is called the goal area.

Penalty Area:
Two lines shall be drawn at each comer of the field at right angles to the goal lines. These lines shall be at a distance of 18 yards from each goal post, and shall be joined by a line drawn parallel to the goal line. The space enclosed by these lines and the goal lines is called a penalty area.

Goal Post:
Two posts shall be placed in the centre of goal lines at a distance of 8 yards or 24 feet. Their ends are joined by a crossbar. These are 8 high from the ground. The width and the thickness of goal posts and cross bars should not exceed 5″.

Football image 2

Corner Area:
From the post of each corner flag, a quarter circle, with a radius of one yard, will be drawn inside the playground. On all the four comers of the playfield 3 yard high flags are placed. Two flags are placed on either sides of the centre line outside the ground at a distance of 1 yard. The remaining flags are placed on the corner of the ground.

Ball:
The shape of football is spherical. Its upper part is made of leather or of some other approved material. Its circumference is not less than 68.5 cms and not more than 71 cms. Its weight shall be from 14 to 16 ounces. The ball cannot be changed during the play without the permission of the referee.

Question 2.
How many players take part in the game of Foot Ball? Describe the duration of the game, dress, numbers of officials, and goal?
Answer:
Number of players:
A football match is played between two teams. Each team consists of 11 players and 5 extra players. In a match no team is allowed to substitute more than two players. The substituted player is not allowed to take part in the match again.

Dress:
The player can normally wear a shirt or jersey, underpants (knickers), socks and shoes. The colour of the goalkeeper’s shirt or jersey shall be different from that of other players. The shoes are to be worn compulsorily.

Officials:
Among the officials are a referee and two line men. The referee makes the players obey the rules of the game and decides any matter of big dispute. His decision, about what happened in the game and what was the result, is final.

Duration of the Game:
The game is played in two equal durations of 45 minutfes each. An interval of 5 minutes follows the first duration, and of 10 minutes with the consent of the two teams. The start of play. In the beginning of the play the choice of the first kick and the side is made by a toss. The toss winning team is free to choose either side and to kick first.

Score or Goal:
When a ball, according to rules, crosses completely the goal line under the cross bar between the goal posts, a goal is allowed. The team scoring more goals shall be declared the winner. In case, no goal is scored or an equal number of goals are scored, the game shall be termed a draw. But if the tournament is taking place as per league rules, then in case of a draw both the teams shall be awarded 1 point each.

Golden Goal

If the football match ends in draw, the extra time for play will be given of which duration of play will be 15-15 minute each whenever during the period of a goal is scored by a team the match ends there and then. In case there is no result during the play, then 5-5 penalty strokes are made by each team till the winner is decided.

The Ball In and Out of play

The ball is out of play as a result of the following reasons:

If the ball crosses the goal line on the ground or in the air.
When the referee has stopped the game.
When the ball goes out after having touched the goal post, cross bar or comer flag post.
When the ball goes out of the goal line, in the goal posts under the crossbar, provided the ball is not thrown with hand or arm.
When a player played the ball when the ball was at a lesser distance than him from the goal line of his rival.

The ball in the play

The ball remains in the play from the beginning to the end, but when it was in these situations:

If the ball bounces back after having struck the goal post, the crossbar comer and flag.
From a wrong play to the whistling of the umpire.
When the ball strikes the umpire or line man when he is in the playfield.
Till the sound of the whistle from outside the playfield.
The game continues despite any infringement of a rule until the umpire stops the game.

Formation of Players:
The formation of players in football matches varies. Normally, it is 1-2-3-5. But in the European countries it is as follows:

Football image 3

The players continue to change the formation during the play according to the need.

Question 3.
What do you understand by off side, Free kick, Throw in, Penalty kick, Corner kick, Goal kick?
Answer:
(1) Off-side:
A player is off-side when he is in the half of his opponents or their goal line, and when there are no two opponents behind him. Even in such cases he is not off side if he is in the following situations:

When he is in his own half of the field of play.
When the ball last touches him or he plays with it.
When he receives the ball from goal kick, throw-in or comer kick or he is thrown down by the referee.
When the ball has been played by the opponent. For the violation of this rule, a free kick will be awarded to the players of the opposing team from the place of offence.

(2) Free Kick:
Free kick is of two types:
Direct kick and Indirect kick. When a player is taking a direct or indirect kick, opposing players should remain at a distance of 10 yards. The direct kick is that from which a goal can be scored direct. Indirect kick is that from which a goal cannot be scored unless the ball has been touched by any other player. In case of violation of this rule, the defensive team is awarded an indirect free kick from the spot of infringement.

(3) Throw-in:
When the ball passes over the touch line, either on the ground or in the air, it is thrown inside from the point where it has crossed the line. One player of the offending team throws the ball inside the playfield from the point where the ball has crossed the line.

The thrower at the time of delivering the ball must face the field. Either of his foot should be on or outside the touch line. The thrower will make use of both of his hands, and throw the ball from behind and over his head. He cannot play the ball until it has been touched or played by any other player.

If the throw-in is not proper, the opposing team takes the throw-in. If the thrower touches the ball before the ball has been touched or played by any other player, the opposing team is awarded a free indirect kick.

(4) Penalty Kick:
This kick is taken from the penalty mark. When it is being taken, only the player taking the kick and the opposing goalkeeper remain in the field of play. This mark will be at least 10 yards away. In order to complete the penalty kick the half time or the full time may be extended.

When a player is taking the penalty kick, the goalkeeper should remain standing at one place in the goal area. The goalkeeper can move after the kick has been taken. If such infringement takes place, the kick will be taken again. If, for some reason, the player taking the penalty kick misses it, then the defender is asked to take the kick from a distance of 16 yards.

If the defending team violates the rules and a goal has not been scored, the kick shall be taken again. In case of infringement of the rule by the opposing team, then the kick shall be taken again even though the goal has been Scored. If the infringement of the law is made by the player taking the kick, a player of the opposing team shall take a free hit on the place of infringement.

(5) Corner kick:
When the ball passes over the goal line and it has last been played by one of the players of the defending team, a member of the offending team is asked to take comer kick. The player of the opposing team takes the comer kick in a quarter area of the nearest flag post. Until the comer kick is taken, the players of the opposing team shall remain away at a distance of 10 yards. The kicker cannot touch the ball until it has been touched or played by another player.

Football image 4

(6) Goal Kick:
When the ball passes over the goal line (not over the goal posts), and it is being played by the opposing team, then the defending team takes the kick outward the penalty area. When the kick is being taken, the players of the opposing team shall remain outside the penalty area. If the ball does not go out of the penalty area and does not reach the playground direct, the kick shall be re-taken. The kicker cannot touch it until it has been touched or played by another player.

Fouls and Offences in the Game of Football

(a) If a player intentionally commits the following offences or infringement of rules, the opposing team shall be awarded an indirect free kick from the place of infringement:

Kicks or attempts to kick an opponent.
Jumps, pushes or strikes a blow at an opponent.
Charges an opponent in a violent or dangerous manner.
Charges an opponent from behind.
Holds an opponent or plays by holding on to his clothes.
Hurts or attempts to hurt an opponent.
Obstructs an opponent or throws him by the use of his legs or attempts to throw him.
Pushes an opponent with his hand or any part of his arm.
Holds the ball in his hand.

If a player of the defending team commits any of these offences in the penalty area, the attacking team is given penalty kick.

(b) If a player, commits the following offences, the opposing team shall be awarded an indirect free kick from the place of infringement:

When he plays the ball in dangerous way.
When the ball is away and he charges the other player with shoulder.
While playing, he deliberately obstructs the player of the opposing team.
To attack the goalkeeper, except:

- When he is obstructing an opponent.
- When he is holding the ball.
- When the ball goes out of his goal area.

5. (a) When as a goalkeeper, he takes more than four steps without throwing the ball on the ground.

Football image 5

(b) When as a goalkeeper he indulges in such tactics as hold up a game and waste the time, and tries to give undue advantage to his team.

he indulges in abuses and plays foul.
he misbehaves even on being warned.
he plays foul or misbehaves. In that case, the referee can send him off the field for the whole duration of the game.

Question 4.
Describe some important Technique of Football?
Answer:
The important Technique of Football

Kicking:
Kicking is a way of moving the ball towards the required direction with the help of feet, with the required speed keeping in view that the ball reaches its destination. In the art of kicking, accuracy, speed, direction and distance are maintained not by left or right foot but by both feet.

The most important point in the training of the players is about the need of playing the game with both feet. It is easy to teach the young new players how to play with both feet. Without it, it is difficult for a player to reach any level of success in the game.

To kick with the inside of feet.
To kick with the outside of feet.

When the ball is kicked within a short distance these two variations are put into use. The ball moves slowly but a great improvement is brought about, as result of which this method is often put into use at the time of aiming towards the goals.

Football image 6

Half Kick:
When the ball comes bouncing to the player or is in the air, there is then a sort of instability not only about its direction of bouncing because of the level of football ground but also about its height and speed. The most effective way of making it clear is the right time, co-ordination of the movements of kicking feet and the raising of the ball upto a proper height.

Football image 7

Over head kick:
This kick is taken with a three-fold purpose

(a) to deflect the ball from the opposing player
(b) to move the ball towards the direction of the kick, and
(c) to turn the ball back towards the direction from where it came. Over-head kick is an improved form of kick, and is generally taken in case the ball is bouncing.

To Make Pass:
The action of making ‘passes’ in football is the basis of team work. The pass increases the co-ordination among the team and adds to the growth of team work. Connected with the condition of the play a ‘pass’ is an evidence of the team play and hence is a basic element for which special time and attention should be given during the training and practice of the team. To achieve perfection at goals a team pass is a right type of kick by an individual player.

It is said that a successful pass is better than kicks. To give pass is an important part of inter-relatedness. It is to harmonize the complex structure of mutual movement between players with individual intelligence at the time of attack and defence during the play. In giving pass, one who makes ‘pass’ the ball and the one who receives the ‘pass’ are involved.

Making passes are normally categorised into long and short passes:

(a) Long passes:
These passes are made use of when there is rapid movement in the game. In such situations long passes prove to be very useful. In such passes, the ball can be moved both sideways and backward. In all long passes, the upper part of the foot or kick is used. The long passes strengthen the defence and facilitate short passes.

(b) Short passes:
Short passes are used for a distance of 15 yards or so, and they are more quick and accurate than long passes.

Push pass:
The use of push pass is made when the opponent is not very near. It is also made to throw the ball in the goal area at a close distance and to throw the ball towards the sides.

Low-pass:
It is shorter than push-pass. In it, the ball is raised high and bounced. It is used to cross the ball over the head of the opponent when he is quite near or is trying to take the throw-ball.

The Outer-parts of Feet-Flick or Jab Pass

In contrast to the other two passes, the flick pass is used to flick or push the ball, having turned the feet inward. This type of pass is used to give pass towards the back while keeping the ball in possession and dribbling it.

Trapping:
Trapping is the basis of controlling the ball. The trapping of the ball means preventing the ball from going away from the player. It is not merely an activity of stopping the ball or making it stationary but also an essential technique used to take the ball in firm hold. Stopping the ball is first step of ball control, and the second part which the player brings into practice for his own benefit is also essential.

Note:
The training of traps should be given for
(a) dribbling ball and
(b) bouncing ball.

Football image 8

Trap with the Under-foot:
Such a type of trapping is good if you have no hurry and enough freedom, and nobody is beside you.

Trap with Inner Parts of Feet

It is most effective and commonly used trap. Not only does this trap enable a player to trap the ball but also helps him in moving towards any direction. This trap is particularly good for the ball coming from a side or a comer. If the ball comes straight, the body is moved in the direction in which the ball is to go.

Football image 9

Trap with the Outer Part of Foot

It is like the earlier one but it is difficult for in it one has to keep the balance as the weight of the player’s body turns outside and off the centre.

Pet or Chest-trap

When the ball is above the waist and cannot be effectively trapped with feet, it is taken on the abdomen or chest or as it bounces from the ground.

Football image 10

Head-trap

It is meant for those experienced players who are well-versed in the foundation of ‘heading’.

Football image 11

Important Information About the Football Game

The length of the ground = 100 yards to 130 yards 100 metre to 120 metre
The Breadth of the ground = 50 yards to 100 yards 45 meter to 90 metre
The shape of football ground = square
Number of players in one team = 11 and 5 substitutes
Circumference of the ball = 27° to 28°
Weight of the ball = 14 Aunce to 18 aunce
Duration of the match = 45-45 minutes of two half
Interval time = 15 minutes
Substitution of players in one match = 3 players
Official of the match = One table official, one referee, two line man,
Height of the goal post = 2.44 m
Height of the corner flag = 5
The match is played between two teams. Each team has eleven players. The total number of players in a team are 16, out of which only 11 play. Among these players there is a goalkeeper. 5 players are kept in reserve as substitutes.
During the play a team cannot substitute more than two players. A substituted player is not allowed to play again.
The duration of the game will be 45-5-45 minutes. The interval will be of 5 minutes.
After the interval the teams change their ends/sides.
By giving pass to each other on the fixed spot on the centre, line, that players start the game. Ends are decided by toss.
One table official, a referee and two line men are officials for the match.
The dress of the goalkeeper is different from that of his team.
The player should not wear anything which may prove to be dangerous to other players.
The game stops when the ball crosses the goal or side line.
The referee can ask for the stoppage of the game for some reason.

Gymnastics Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Gymnastics Game Rules.

Gymnastics Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Gymnastics is an ancient sports in 2600 BC. Gymnastics exercises used to be performed in China but the actual development started in Greece and Rome. The word ‘Gymnastics’ is derived from the Greek word ‘Gymnos’ which means “Naked body”, actually exercises done by naked body is called Gymnastics. These exercises used to be performed to keep the body healthy.

The Greek laid down the great emphasis on Gymnastics. The spartans were very popular in providing Gymnastics training for their youth. Boys and girls were expected to be good Gymnastics in those days. With the fall of both civilizations i.e. Greek and Roman, Gymnastics disappeared from these civilizations.

The Great Grandfather of Gymnastics John Guts Muths introduced Gymnastics in the Persian schools. In this way Germany rediscovered Gymnastics and owing to that the International Gymnastics Federation was constituted in 1881. In 1884 the first Gymnastics competition was conducted in Modem Olympics which were held in Athens in 1896.

Gymnastics for men was included but later on Gymnastics for women was included in 1928 Olympic games in 1974. In Asian games which were held in Tehran, Gymnastics was made one of the sports. The first world cup of Gymnastics was held in 1975. In these days Gymnastics is an attractive, fascinating and very popular sport.

Latest General Rules of Gymnastics

1. Men compete in six events

floor exercises
vaulting horse.
Pommelled horse
Roman Rings
Horizontal bars and parallel bars. Women compete in four events i.e. vaulting horse, uneven bars, balancing beam and floor exercises.

2. Gymnasts present themselves to a Judge before and after their event. They start their exercise when the signal is given to them. If during the exercise they fall, they have 30 seconds to remount and continue.

3. Regarding team competition, size Gymnastics of each perform is compulsory and an optional exercise on each apparatus. The five highest scores are added to give the team total.

4. A gymnast must wear proper kit. He may wear bandages or socks. He/She must starts the exercise within 30 seconds. When the signal is given by a coach another gymnast may assist a gymnast into hanging position on horizontal bar and Roman Rings.

Question 1.
Write about the Sports Equipment of Gymnastics.
Answer:
Specification of Playfield and related Sports Equipment

(A) Equipment for men
1. Floor = 12 M × 12 M
2. Parallel Bars

Length of bars = 3500 m.m.
Width of bars = 420-520 m.m.
Height of bars = 1750 m.m.

Gymnastics image 1

3. Horizontal Bar

Diameter of Bar = 28 m.m.
Length of Bar = 2400 m.m.
Height of Bar = 2550 to 2700 m.m.
Diameter of uprights = 50-60 m.m.
Diameter of Tension work = 5.6 m.m.

Gymnastics image 2

4. Pommel Horse

Length of Pommel Horse = 1600 m.m.
Width of Pommel Horse = 350 m.m.
Height from the floor = 1100 m
Height of Pommel = 120 m.m.
Distance between Pommel = 400-450 m.m.

Gymnastics image 3

5. Roman Rings

Diameter (Grip) = 28 m.m.
Height of stand from floor = 5500 m.m.
Length of leather straps = 700 m.m.
Thickness = 4 m.m.
Inside diameter of Ring = 180 m.m.
Height of the rings from floor = 2500 m.m.
Width = 35 m.m.

Gymnastics image 4

6. Vaulting Horse

Height of vaulting horse = 1350 m.m.
Adjustable steps in the intervals = 50 m.m.
Length = 1600 m.m.

Gymnastics image 5

(B) Equipment of Women

1. Floor = 12 m × 12 m
2. Vaulting Horse
Height of Vaulting Horse = 1250 m.m.
Adjustable steps in the Intervals = 100-150 m.m.
Length = 1600 m.m.

3. Balancing Beam

Length of Beam = 5000 m.m.
Width of Beam = 100 m.m.
Height of Beam = 1200 m.m.
Adjustable = 700 – 1200 m.m.

Gymnastics image 6

4. Uneven bars

Length of uneven bars = 2400 m.m.
Height of the bars from floor = 2300 m.m. and 1500 m.m.
Distance between bars = 580-900 m.m.
Diameter of uprights = 50-60 m.m.
Thickness of uprights = 30 m.m.

Gymnastics image 7
Gymnastics image 8

Important Tournaments

Olympic Games
Asian Games
World Cup
All India Inter-University Gymnastics Championship
National Championship
Federation Cup
School National
China Cup

Sports Personalities

Indian Sports Personalities

Sham Lai
Km Kripali Patel
Dr. Kalpana Debnalt
Montar Debnalt
Anju Dua
Sunita Sharma

International Sports Personalities

Olga Korbut
Nadia Comaneci
Nelli Kim
Ludmilla Tourscheva
Dov. Lupi
Karin Janz
Elvra Saadi

Question 2.
Describe the fundamental skills of Gymnastics?
Answer:
Fundamental Skills of Gymnastics For Men

(A) Parallel Bars

Up start
Front start
Shoulder stand
Hand stand
Hand stand with 180° Turn
Hand stand to Front turn on the shoulder
Backward Roll 8. Hand stand to cast wheel

(B) Horizontal Bar

Up start with over grip
Up start with under grip
Short circle
One leg circle with heel foot
Heel foot
Swing through vault

Front Support Position
Single Leg Half Circle
Double Leg Half Circle
Front Scissors

(D) Roman Rings

Up start
Back circle to back hang
Muscle up
Back level
Back uprise
Dislocation
Back uprise with L-position.

(E) Vaulting Horse

Straddle vault
Squat vault
Cast wheel
Hand stand with cast wheel
Hand spring.

(F) Floor Exercises

Forward Roll to Hand stand
Backward Roll to Hand stand
Forward Roll to Head spring
Hand spring to Dive Roll
Round off to Flick Flak
One Leg Hand Spring
Hand stand to Forward Roll with straight legs

Fundamental Skills of Gymnastics For Women

(A) Balancing Beam

Gallop step with Balance
Scissors Jump
Forward Roll
Backward Roll
Cast wheel
Bridge
Balance
Dismount

(B) Vaulting Horse

Spit vault
Hand spring
Squat vault

Swing on Upper Bar
Back uprise
One Leg Forward Circle
One Leg Backward Circle
Cross Balancing
Hand Spring.

(D) Floor Exercises

Forward Roll to Hand stand
Backward Roll to Hand stand
Round off
Slow back Hand spring
Split Sitting
Slow Hand spring
Hand spring
Head spring

Points In Gymnastics

For each gymnastic exercise, there are points from 0 to 10, and each point is sub-divided into 10 parts. If the panel of the judges is of five members, the minimum and maximum points are not considered, and an average of mid three points is taken. If the panel is composed of three judges, the marks of three are taken for average.

Decisions:
The following points are important so far as decisions are concerned:

Five or at least three judges are kept till the end of each event of the competition. One of these judges is considered to be Chief Judge.
The judges make an assessment of the feats of other players on the basis of the feats of the first players on eveiy apparatus. They also consult one another for exercises so that there may be a common base of assessment.
Thereafter, they decide independently and do not consult one another except in very special circumstances.
The result shall be decided from the average of points awarded by three judges.
If there is difference in the points awarded by two judges, the points of Chief Judge are also considered.
It is the duty of the Chief Judge to make a compromise between the other two judges in case of dispute. If the other Judges do not reach a compromise, the Chief Judge shall declare his verdict.

Question 3.
Write brief Rules of Gymnastics?
Answer:
General Rules of Gymnastics

Each team consists of 6 players. Each player participates in all events. For team championship, the performance of the best five players is taken into account.
The substitution of players during the competition is not allowed.
The judges of events and teams should reach the ground in time.
If a player meets with an accident or falls ill, the captain should immediately call the doctor and get his advice.
The game may be stopped for half an hour so that the same player recovers and joins the team. If his condition does not improve, he is removed from the game and the game restarts.
Team competitions shall be held in two parts-first for compulsory exercises and second for optional exercises.
The duration of these competitions shall be determined beforehand, and the competitions shall be held according to the fixed schedule.
Only those players, who have taken part in all events of the team competition, are allowed to participate in the final.
Only members of the jury, contestants and their technical managers, secretaries, members of the watch and ward staff looking after the equipment and playground are allowed to be present at the place of competitions.
Each player is entitled for two attempts on Long-Horse vault. The best performance shall be credited.
Optional or voluntary exercises cannot be repeated on any apparatus.
No team can use its own apparatus. It is the duty of the organisers to arrange for the apparatus.
The organisers are to arrange for the apparatus,
If there is difference in the points awarded by judges, the verdict of the Chief Judge shall be considered.
Each player is given two tries (chances) during the competition. If he does not touch vaulting horse or Beam Balance, he is given another chance. But if he touches any of these, a foul is awarded.
There can be no substitution of players during the play.

Points to Remember

For each gymnastic exercise, there are points for 0 to 10, and each point is further divided into ten parts.
The decision of the jury is final. No appeal can be made against it.
A team participating in a gymnastic contest is composed of 6 players. The team participating in School Mini National Games is, however, composed of 6 players.
Players cannot be substituted after the competition has started.
Only those players, who have taken part in all events of team competition, can participate in the final.
If a player gets hurt or feels sick during competition, his team can wait for thirty minutes for his condition to improve.
If a player leaves the team without the permission of the jury, he will not be allowed to rejoin it.
For team championship, the performance of the best five players is considered.

Important Information About the Gymnastics Game

Number of players in Gymnastics = 8
Substitution is allowed or not = no substitution
Decision of the jury = Final
Time for waiting of player = 30 minutes
A player can whether = no leave the court or not
To decide the woman the number of players are wanted = 6 players
Points are given = 0 to ten
Officials for competition = Three to five
Competition for boys =
- Parallel bar
- Vaulting horse
- Ground Gymnastic
- Horizontal Bar
- Roman Ring
- Pommel horse
Competition for girls =
- Beam Balance
- Ground Gym
- Uneven Bar
- Vaulting horse

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Winter Vegetables

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 4 Winter Vegetables Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 4 Winter Vegetables

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Winter Vegetables Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How many vegetables should be consumed per person per day for the maintenance of good health?
Answer:
284 gram.

Question 2.
Which type of soil is best for potato cultivation?
Answer:
Sandy loam soil.

Question 3.
Name the types of fertilizers.
Answer:
Fertilizers are of two types-Chemical and organic.

Question 4.
Write the name of black carrot variety.
Answer:
Punjab Black beauty.

Question 5.
When is Pusa Chetki variety of radish sown?
Answer:
April to August.

Question 6.
Write the name of two early maturing varieties of pea.
Answer:
Matar ageta-6, Arkel.

Question 7.
Give the ideal time of broccoli nursery sowing.
Answer:
Mid August to mid September.

Question 8.
Name two late maturing varieties of potato.
Answer:
Kufri sindhuri and Kufri badshah.

Question 9.
How much seed is required for raising one acre nursery of cabbage?
Answer:
200 to 250 gram.

Question 10.
Write the name of improved varieties of cauliflower.
Answer:
Pusa snowball-1, Pusa snowball K-l, Giant snowball.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Define vegetables.
Answer:
That soft, juicy, fleshy, part of a plant, e.g. flower, fruit, stem, root, leaves etc. which can be consumed uncooked, in the form of salad or by cooking is called vegetable.

Question 2.
Which vegetables are grown through transplantation?
Answer:
Those vegetables are grown through transplantation, which can tolerate the shock of transplanting. Some of the vegetables which can be grown through transplantation are cabbage, Chinese cabbage, onion, lettuce, cauliflower etc.

Question 3.
How vegetable cultivation is useful for livelihood security?
Answer:
Vegetable crops mature in short duration and we can get two to four crops in a year. The yield of vegetable crops is 5-10 times than the yield of paddy-wheat, thus income is also high which we get on daily basis. Cultivation of vegetable is a good source of employment.

Question 4.
How to control weeds in pea?
Answer:
Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre or Tafalon 50 WP 500 gram per acre before the emergence of weeds within two days of sowing. Dissolve these herbicides in about 200 litre of water and spray in the field.

Question 5.
How to control weeds in potato?
Answer:
To control weeds in potato use stomp 30 EC one litre for one acre or arelon 75 EC 500 gram for an acre or sencor 70 EC 200 gram for one acre. Dissolve herbicide in 150 litre water and spray before the emergence of weeds and after first irrigation.

Question 6.
Give seed rate/acre and spacing in carrot.
Answer:
Seed rate: 4-5 kg per acre.
Spacing: Row spacing should be 45 cm.

Question 7.
Write improved varieties and seed rate/acre of potato.
Answer:
Improved varieties: Kufri Surya, Kufri Pukhraj, Kufri Jyoti, Kufri Pushkar, Kufri Sindhuri, Kufri Badshah.
Seed rate: 12-18 quintal seed per acre.
Sowing time: For Autumn season last of September to mid October and for spring season first fortnight of January.

Question 8.
Write ideal time of planting and seed rate/acre in Chinese cabbage.
Answer:
Sow nursery in mid September and transplanting the seedling in field in mid October. Seed rate for one acre of nursery is 200 grams and 1 kg per acre for direct sowing.

Question 9.
Which type of soil is best suited for vegetables cultivation?
Answer:
Vegetables can be grown in different type of soils. But sandy loam or clayey loam soils are best suited for cultivation of vegetables. For root crops like carrot, radish, turnip, potato etc., sandy loam soil is best suited.

Question 10.
Write improved varieties of Chinese cabbage.
Answer:
Chini sarson-1, Saag sarson.

Question 1.
How radish can be raised around the year?
Answer:

Variety of Radish	Time of Sowing	Maturity
Pusa himani	January to February	February to April
Punjab Pasand	Second fortnight of March	End of April-May
Pusa Chetki	April to August	May to September
Punjab safed mulli-2	Mid September to October	October to December
Japanese White	November to December	December to January

Question 2.
What is the importance of vegetables in human diet?
Answer:
Vegetables play very important role in the human diet. Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals and vitamins etc. which are essential for human health. According to dieticians, an adult needs 284 grams of vegetables daily. Out of this quantity 114 gram vegetables should be leafy vegetables, 85 grams should be root vegetables and 85 grams other vegetables. Vegetables can be taken uncooked and cooked. In India maximum population is vegetarian. Therefore vegetables are very important in our diet.

Question 3.
How to save winter vegetables from the attack of insect-pests and diseases?
Answer:

By ploughing in summer many of the insects, fungi and other nemotodes of soil are killed.
If suitable crop rotation is adopted theft potato and peas can be saved from many diseases.
By sowing early varieties and insects can be removed by mechanical method
Destroy the diseased plants to save other plants from diseases.
By treating the seeds with captan or thiram and other suitable chemicals plants can be prevented from diseases and attack of insects-pests.
Savin, Fame insecticides can be used to get rid of some insects like caterpillars and beetles. Sapsucking insects and aphid can be controlled by using Rogor, Metasystox and malathian.

Question 4.
Describe briefly the early cultivation of peas.
Answer:

Improved varieties: Early sowing varieties are Matara ageta – 6 and 7 and Arkel. Main season varieties are Mithi Phali
Yield: 20-24 quintal per acre for early varieties. For main season varieties 47-55 quintal per acre.
Climate: Cool climate
Time of Sowing: Mid-October to mid November.
Seed rate: 45 kg per acre for early maturing and 30 kg per acre for main season. If sowing for the first time, inoculate with Rhizobium.
Spacing: 30×7.5 cm. for early and 30×10 cm for main season varieties.
Irrigation: First irrigation after 15-20 days of sowing second at flowering stage, third at pod forming stage.
Weed control: Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre or Tafalon 50 WP 500 gram per acre before the emergence of
weeds that i§ after two days of sowing: Dissolve these herbicides in about 200 litre of water and spray in the field.
Harvesting: Harvesting should be done at proper edible maturity stage.

Question 5.
Write ideal time of nursery sowing, seed rate/acre and spacing for early, mid and late season cauliflower.
Answer:
1. Sowing nursery:

Early Cauliflower. June to July
Main season. August to mid September
Late maturity. October to first week of November

2. Seed rate:

For early sowing 500 gram per acre
For others 250 gram per acre.

3. Spacing: 45 x 30 cm

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Winter Vegetables Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
According to dieticians, an adult should take gram of vegetable.
(a) 500
(b) 285
(c) 387
(d) 197.
Answer:
(b) 285

Question 2.
Root vegetables are:
(a) carrot
(b) radish
(c) turnip
(d) peas.
Answer:
(d) peas.

Question 3.
Vegetables which are grown by transplanting are:
(a) Cauliflower
(b) Broccoli
(c) Onion
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

Question 4.
Rabi vegetables are:
(a) carrot
(b) peas
(c) cauliflower
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

Question 5.
…………… is not a variety of radish.
(a) Pussa Chetki
(b) Japanese white
(c) Pusa snowball
(d) Pusa Pas and.
Answer:
(c) Pusa snowball

Question 6.
Varieties of potato are:
(a) Kufri surya
(b) Kufri Pushkar
(c) Kufri Jyoti
(d) All.
Answer:
(c) Kufri Jyoti

Question 7.
Which insecticide is used to protect crop against sap sucking insect
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Captan
(c) Stomp
(d) Malathion.
Answer:
(d) Malathion.

True or False

1. Palam Smridhi is a variety of Broccoli.
Answer:
True

2. Japan white is a variety of radish.
Answer:
True

3. There are two types of fertilizers.
Answer:
True

4. Punjab black beauty is a variety of carrot.
Answer:
True

5. Pusa snowball-1 is a variety of cauliflower.
Answer:
True

Fill in the blanks:

1. Pusa Himani is a variety of …………….. .
Answer:
radish

2. Kufri Sindhoori is a variety of …………… .
Answer:
potato

3. Average yield for main season varieties of pea …………….. is quintal per acre (q/acre)
Answer:

4. Pea seed is treated ………… with culture to get more yield.
Answer:
Rhizobium

5. Arkel is a variety of …………… .
Answer:
pea.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
According to scientists, what is the required quantity of vegetables for an adult in grams for good health?
Answer:
284 gram.

Question 2.
What is the future of vegetables in our country?
Answer:
Bright future.

Question 3.
How much time is required for maturity of vegetables?
Answer:
Very less, we can get 2-4 crops in a year.

Question 4.
What is the yield of vegetables as compared to paddy-wheat crop cycle?
Answer:
5-10 time more than paddy-wheat cycle.

Question 5.
Which type of soil is best suited for cultivation of vegetables?
Answer:
Sandy loam to clayey loam soil.

Question 6.
What type of soil is best suited for root vegetables?
Answer:
Sandy loam soil.

Question 7.
How many type of fertilizers are there? .
Answer:
Two types.

Question 8.
Which are the two types of fertilizers?
Answer:
Chemical and organic.

Question 9.
What should be the quality of seed?
Answer:
It should be of improved variety and disease free.

Question 10.
Which nutrients are found in fertilizers?
Answer:
Nitrogen, phosphorus and potash etc.

Question 11.
What are the methods of sowing seeds?
Answer:
Direct sowing and transplanting.

Question 12.
Write name of crops which can be directly sown.
Answer:
Potato, carrot, fenugreek, corriander etc.

Question 13.
Which vegetables are grown by transplanting?
Answer:
Chinese cabbage, cauliflower, broccoli, onion, lettuce etc.

Question 14.
What happens if we plough the Held in summer for cultivation of vegetables?
Answer:
Insects, fungi and nemotodes are removed from the soil.

Question 15.
Which chemical can be used to treat the seed of vegetables?
Answer:
Captan or thiram.

Question 16.
Which pesticide is used to control the caterpillars and beetles in vegetables?
Answer: Savin, fame.

Question 17.
Which pesticides are used to control sap sucker insects and aphid?
Answer:
Rogor, Metasystox, Malathion.

Question 18.
Name Rabi Vegetables.
Answer:
Carrot, radish, cabbage, cauliflower, potato, peas etc.

Question 19.
Which variety of carrot can tolerate more heat?
Answer:
Desi variety.

Question 20.
Name varieties of carrot.
Answer:
Punjab black beauty, Punjab carrot red.

Question 21.
What is the colour of PC 34 of carrot and also give its yield?
Answer:
red colour, 200 quintal per acre.

Question 22.
Where is carrot sown?
Answer:
On the ridges.

Question 23.
What should be the spacing between ridges for carrot?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 24.
What is seed rate for carrot?
Answer:
4-5 kg per acre.

Question 25.
What is the harm of over irrigation of carrots?
Answer:
Carrots do not acquire proper colour.

Question 26.
What is the time of maturity of carrots?
Answer:
90-100 days depending on variety.

Question 27.
(a) Name varieties of radish.
(b) Write the name of one improved variety of Raddish.
Answer:
(a) Punjab pasand, Pusa chetki, Pusa himani, Japanese white, Punjab safed muli-2 etc.
(b) Punjab Pasand.

Question 28.
What is the yield of radish?
Answer:
105-215 quintal per acre.

Question 29.
What is seed rate for radish?
Answer:
4-5 kg seed per acre.

Question 30.
Where is radish sown? What is the spacing?
Answer:
On the ridges, spacing is 45 x 7.5 cm.

Question 31.
What is the time for maturity of radish?
Answer:
45-60 days.

Question 32.
Name early varieties of peas.
Answer:
Ageta matar-6 and 7, Arkel.

Question 33.
What is the yield of early varieties of peas?
Answer:
20-24 quintal per acre.

Question 34.
Name main season varieties of peas.
Answer:
Mithi phali, Punjab-89.

Question 35.
‘Mithi Phali’ is the improved variety of which vegetable?
Answer:
Peas.

Question 36.
What is the yield of main season varieties of peas?
Answer:
47-55 quintal per acre.

Question 37.
Which variety of pea can be taken with its peel?
Answer:
Mithi Phali.

Question 38.
What is suitable time of sowing for peas?
Answer:
Mid October to mid November.

Question 39.
What is seed rate for peas?
Answer:
For early varieties 45 kg and for main season crop it is 30 kg per acre.

Question 40.
Write about spacing for peas.
Answer:
For early maturity varieties, spacing should be 30×7.5 cm and for main season variety it is 30×10 cm.

Question 41.
Pea seed is inoculated with what?
Answer:
Pea seed is inoculated with Rhizobium.

Question 42.
What is the suitable temperature for cultivation of cauliflowers?
Answer:
15-20 degree centigrade.

Question 43.
Name main season variety of cauliflower.
Answer:
Giant snowball.

Question 44.
Name late maturity varieties of cauliflower.
Answer:
Pusa snowball-1, pusa snowball K-1

Question 45.
What is the time of maturity for cauliflower?
Answer:
It takes 90-100 days after transplanting.

Question 46.
What is the time for transplanting of cabbage in the fields?
Answer:
September to October.

Question 47.
What is the seed rate for cabbage?
Answer:
200-250 gram per acre.

Question 48.
What is the spacing for cabbage?
Answer:
For early maturing varieties it is 45×45 cm and for late varieties it is 60×45 cm.

Question 49.
(a) Name the varieties of Broccoli and give its yield.
(b) Punjab Brocoli is the improved variety of which vegetable?
Answer:
(a) Punjab Broccoli-1 and Palam Smridhi average yield is 70 quintal per acre.
(b) It is similar to cauliflower-It is improved variety of Brocoli.

Question 50.
Give seed rate for Broccoli.
Answer:
250 gram per acre.

Question 51.
What is the suitable time for nursery raising for Broccoli?
Answer:
Mid August to mid September.

Question 52.
What is the time for nursery raising for Chinese cabbage?
Answer:
Mid September for nursery raising and mid October for transplanting.

Question 53.
What is seed rate for Chinese cabbage?
Answer:
For nursery it is 200 gram per acre and for direct sowing it is one kg per acre.

Question 54.
How many cuttings can be taken for Chinese cabbage?
Answer:
Total six cuttings.

Question 55.
Name early varieties of potato.
Answer:
Kufri surya, Kufri pukhraj.

Question 56.
In how many days early varieties of potato mature?
Answer:
90-100 days.

Question 57.
What is the yield of early varieties of potato?
Answer:
100-125 quintal per acre. .

Question 58.
Name middle season varieties of potato.
Answer:
Kufri Jyoti, Kufri Pushkar.

Question 59.
In how many days middle season varieties of potato mature? Give yield also.
Answer:
Mature in 100-110 days. Yield is 120-170 quintal per acre.

Question 60.
Name late maturing varieties of potato. .
Answer:
Kufri Sindhuri, Kufri Badshah.

Question 61.
In how many days late varieties of potato mature and what is the yield?
Answer:
110-120 days for maturity. Yield is 120-130 quintal per acre.

Question 62.
What is ridge spacing and tuber spacing?
Answer:
60 cm, 20 cm.

Question 63.
How should potato be sown?
Answer:
By cutting the seed.

Question 64.
‘Kufri Pukhraj’ is the variety of which vegetable?
Answer:
Potato.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is vegetable?
Answer:
That soft, juicy, fleshy part of plant e.g. flower, fruit, stem, root, leaves etc. which can be consumed uncooked or cooked is called vegetable.

Question 2.
Which nutrients are found in vegetables?
Answer:
Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins etc. which are essential for body.

Question 3.
Every adult should take 284 grams of vegetables, what is the proportion of different categories of vegetables in it?
Answer:
284 gram of vegetable is divided as below-114 gram leafy vegetables, 85 gram ropt vegetables, 85 gram other vegetables.

Question 4.
What are the benefits of organic manure or fertilizer?
Answer:
Organic manure keep the soil healthy, physical and chemical state of the soil remains balanced. Soil remains soft and well aerated.

Question 5.
Which vegetable can be grown by transplanting?
Answer:
Those vegetables which can tolerate the shock of transplanting e.g. cabbage, broccoli, onion etc.

Question 6.
What is the role of chemicals in preventing insects and diseases of winter crops?
Answer:
Seed is treated with captan or thiram which help in prevention of insects and diseases. Some pesticides are fame, savin etc. can control the caterpillars and beetles. Juice sucking insects and aphid can be controlled by using Rogor, Metasystox and malathian.

Question 7.
Write about irrigation of carrot.
Answer:
Carrot needs 3-4 irrigations. First irrigation is applied immediately after sowing and second irrigation is applied after 10-12 days.

Question 8.
How do we use radish in our diet?
Answer:
Radish is used in our diet as salad, it can be cooked and also used to prepare stuffed pranthas.

Question 9.
Name main varieties of radish, grown in Punjab, also write yield.
Answer:
Punjab Pasand, Punjab safed muli-2, pusa chetki are main varieties of radish which are sown in Punjab and yield is 105-215 quintal per acre.

Question 10.
Write about irrigation for radish.
Answer:
First irrigation is applied immediately after sowing and then in summer after 6-7 days and in winter after 10-12 days depending on the soil type.

Question 11.
If peas are sown for the first time, with what pea seeds are inoculated?
Answer:
Pea seeds are inoculated with Rhizobium culture. It helps in nodule formation and also help in increasing the yield. It helps in fixing the nitrogen in the soil.

Question 12.
Write about weed control in peas.
Answer:
Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre or Tafalon 50 WP 500 gram per acre before the emergence of weeds within two days of sowing. Dissolve these herbicides in about 200 litre of water and spray in the field.

Question 13.
Write about irrigation application for cauliflower.
Answer:
Cauliflower requires total 8-12 irrigations. First irrigation should be applied immediately after transplanting the seedlings.

Question 14.
Write about weed control in cabbage, cauliflower and Broccoli.
Answer:
Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre by dissolving it in 200 litre of water. Apply this solution in the moist soil conditions one day before transplanting of the seedlings.

Question 15.
What is the use of leaves of Chinese cabbage? In how many days it is ready for first cutting?
Answer:
Leaves of Chinese cabbage are used to make saag. First cutting can be taken after 30 days of transplanting. .

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about cultivation of carrot as under:

varieties, colour
yield
seed rate
harvesting
spacing.

Answer:

Varieties: Two varieties-Desi and European. There are two varieties of carrot in Punjab -PC 34 and Punjab black beauty. PC 34 is of red colour and Punjab black beauty is of Blackish violet colour.
Yield: For black variety 196 quintal per acre and for red variety 200 quintals per acre.
Seed rate: 4-5 kg per acre.
Harvesting: Depending upon variety, harvesting can be done in 90-100 days.
Spacing: Sow carrot on ridges and spacing between ridges is 45 cm.

Question 2.
Write the cultivation of broccoli as per given below:

Improved varieties
Sowing time
Seed rate per acre
Distance between plants.

Answer:

Improved varieties: Punjab broccoli-1, Palam smridhi.
Yield: 70 quintal per acre.
Time of sowing: Time of sowing for nursery is from mid August to mid September and when seedlings are one month old, transplant in the field.
Seed rate: 250 gram per acre.
Distance between plants: Row spacing and plant spacing should be 45 cm.

Question 3.
Write about cultivation of potato.
Answer:
1. Varieties:

Early sown: Kufri surya, Kufri pukhraj.
Mid season: Kufri jyoti, Kufri pushkar.
Late varieties: Kufri Badshah, Kufri sindhuri.

2. Yield:

Early varieties: 100-125 quintal per acre.
Mid season varieties: 120-170 quintal per acre.
Late varieties: 120-130 quintal per acre.

3. Harvesting:

Early varieties: 90-100 days
Mid season varieties: 100-110 days
Late varieties: 110-120 days.

4. Time of sowing: For autumn season from last week of September to mid October and for spring season first fortnight of January.

5. Seed rate: 12-18 quintal per acre. In spring season seed rate of early varieties is 8 quintal and for late varieties 4-5 quintal seed per acre. Use cut tubers for sowing.

6. Spacing: Ridges should be spaced 60 cm and between tuber it should be 20 cm.

7. Weed control: Use stomp 30 EC one litre or arelon 75 EC 500 gram or sencor 70 EC 200 gram, by dissolving in 150 litre of water, before the emergence of weeds and after the first irrigation.

8. Irrigation: Apply first irrigation immediately after sowing. This helps in better germination.

Question 4.
Write five advantages of cultivating vegetables?
Answer:

Vegetables are short duration crops and we can get 2 to 4 crops of vegetables in a year.
Vegetables production in our country is less as compared to the requirement.
Vegetables are cheap source of nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins etc.
The yield of vegetables in 5-10 times more than wheat-rice rotatoin and income is also higher.
It provides employment to all the family members in their fields and agricultural resources can be utilized efficiently for whole of the year.

Question 5.
Write the cultivation of radish as per given below :

Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Spacing between ridges
Harvesting
Yield per acre.

Answer:

Two improved varieties- Pusa himani, Pusa chetki
Seed rate per acre- 4-5 kg. per acre.
Spacing between ridges- 45 cm
Harvesting- 45-60 days after sowing.
Yield per acre- 105-215 quintal per acre.

Question 6.
Write the cultivation of early maturing varities of potato as per given below:

Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Spacing between ridges
Irrigation
Yield per acre.

Answer:

Two improved varieties-kufri Surya, Kufri Pukhraj
Seed rate per acre-8 quintal
Spacing between ridges-60 cm
Irrigation-Apply first irrigation just after sowing
Yield per acre-100-125 quintal per acre.

Question 7.
Write the cultivation of early maturing varieties of pea as given below:

Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Spacing
Irrigation
Yield per acre.

Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Rabi Crops

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 3 Rabi Crops Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 3 Rabi Crops

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Rabi Crops Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Name any two oilseed crops.
Answer:
Raya, Linseed.

Question 2.
Name any two improved varieties of wheat.
Answer:
H.D. 2967, DBW 17.

Question 3.
How much seed is required to sow one acre of Raya?
Answer:
1.5 kg seed per acre.

Question 4.
Name two insect-pests of gram.
Answer:
Termite and gram caterpillar.

Question 5.
Name any two diseases of wheat.
Answer:
Kamal Bunt, yellow rust.

Question 6.
Name any two weeds of wheat
Answer:
Canary grass (gullidanda), Senji (sweet clover), Maina (toothed bur clover), Maini.

Question 7.
Which crop is known as king of fodders?
Answer:
Berseem.

Question 8.
What is the sowing time of lentil?
Answer:
Second fortnight of October.

Question 9.
Name any two improved varieties of barley.
Answer:
PL 807, PL 426.

Question 10.
How much is the oil content in sunflower seeds? Or What percent of oil found in sunflower seeds?
Answer:
40-43%.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Write the per acre nutrient requirement of wheat.
Answer:
50 kg nitrogen, 25 kg phosphorus and 12 kg potash per acre.

Question 2.
Name two wheat based crop rotations.
Answer:
Rice-wheat, cotton-wheat.

Question 3.
In which crop and against which weeds herbicide Total is used?
Answer:
Total is used in wheat for gullidanda.

Question 4.
When should oats be harvested for fodder?
Answer:
Harvesting of oats should be done from boot to milk stage.

Question 5.
How to control itsit in berseem?
Answer:
Those fields where itsit is a problem, sow Berseem mixed with Raya and in the fields where itsit is a problem sowing should be delayed and done in second week of October.

Question 6.
When should sunflower be harvested?
Answer:
When heads turn yellowish brown at lower side and discs start drying up then the crop is ready for harvesting.

Question 7.
What is canola sarson?
Answer:
Gobhisarson is Canola Sarson.

Question 8.
Write the time and method of sowing of barley.
Answer:
Time of sowing for barley is 15 October to 15 November. Spacing for normal sowing should be 22.5 cm and for rainfed and late-sown crop spacing should be 18-20 cm. It can be sown like wheat without ploughing i. e. without any preparatory tillage.

Question 9.
Write the sowing time and per acre seed rate of desi gram.
Answer:
For rain fed crop time of sowing is 10 to 25 October and for irrigated conditions crop, time of sowing is 25 October to 10 November. Seed rate is 15-18 kg per acre.

Question 10.
Which soils are not suitable for lentil?
Answer:
Saline, alkaline or waterlogged soils are not suitable for lentil.

Question 1.
Write the sowing time and sowing methods of wheat.
Answer:
Optimum time for sowing wheat is from fourth week of October to fourth week of November. If sowing is delayed then the yield is reduced by 150 kg per acre per week.

Method of sowing:
Wheat is sown using seed-cum-fertilizer drill. Row spacing should be 20 to 22 cm and sowing should be done at a depth of 4-6 cm. Sowing should be done by using bi-directional method. This means use half seed and half fertilizer should be used in one direction and other halves on the other side at right angle to the 1st one. This will help in increasing the yield by 2 quintals per acre. Bed planter can be used to sow wheat on beds. In this method seed rate is 30 kg per acre and water requirement is also reduced.

Question 2.
Give methods of sowing of berseem.
Answer:
Suitable time of sowing for Berseem is last week of September to first week of October. Berseem is sown in standing water using broadcast method. If there is high wind, seed should be broadcasted in dry field and then use raking and irrigation.

Question 3.
Give importance of sulphur in oil seeds and name its sources.
Answer:
Usually, there is less need of sulphur for plants. But oil seed crops require more sulphur. In case of deficiency of sulphur yield is reduced. Use of sulphur is necessary for the use of nitrogen. For proper activity of enzymes and for synthesis of oil sulphur is necessary. Therefore superphosphate should be given in preference for phosphorus because it also contains sulphur. If this fertilizer is not available then use 50 kg gypsum per acre.

Question 4.
Name varieties of raya and give its nutrition requirement.
Answer:
Varieties: RLC-1, PBR-210, PBR-91.

Fertilizers:
40 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre is required. Use potash after testing the soil. This is a oil seed crop and also require sulphur. Therefore use single super phosphate for phosphorus since it also contains sulphur. If this fertilizer is not available use 50 kg gypsum per acre.

Question 5.
Name broadleaf weeds of wheat and give their control measure.
Answer:
Broadleaf weeds which can infest in wheat are-Bathu, Button booti, Kandiali Palak, Maina, Maini, senji.

These weeds can be controlled by using 2, 4-D, Nomor, Algrip, Aim etc. Overdosing 2,4-D should be avoided if PBW 343 variety of wheat is sown. In case of broadleaf crops are sown in wheat then also avoid 2, 4-D.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Rabi Crops Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Rabi crops are:
(a) food grains
(b) pulses
(c) oil seed and fodder
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 2.
Improved variety of wheat:
(a) H.D. 2967
(b) PBW 343
(c) Durum
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 3.
Diseases of wheat are:
(a) powdery mildew
(b) loose smut
(c) kamal bunt
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 4.
Time of sowing for barley:
(а) 15 October to 15 November
(b) July
(c) 15 January to 15 February
(d) None.
Answers:
(а) 15 October to 15 November

Question 5.
Variety of Kabuli grams:
(a) PBG 1
(b) L-552
(c) GPF 2
(d) PDG-4
Answers:
(b) L-552

Question 6.
Seed rate for sunflower per acre:
(a) 5 kg
(b) 10 kg
(c) 2 kg
(d) 25 kg.
Answers:
(c) 2 kg

Question 7.
Which crop is called “King of the fooder”?
(a) Maize
(b) Clover (Berseem)
(c) Oat
(d) Lucerne.
Answers:
(b) Clover (Berseem)

True or False

1. China is the leading country in the production of wheat.
Answers:
True

2. Cool climate is suitable for wheat.
Answers:
True

3. Topic can not be used for gullidanda.
Answers:
False

4. Average yield of Barley is 15-16 quintal per acre.
Answers:
True

5. Shaftal is fodder crop of Rabi.
Answers:
True

Fill in the blanks:

1. Seed rate for wheat crop is …………… kg seed per acre.
Answers:
40

2. Zinc Sulphate is used to cure deficiency of …………………. .
Answers:
Zinc
3. ………….. country is highest producer of barley.
Answers:
Rusian federation

4. Bathu is …………… leaf weed.
Answers:
Broad

5. O.L.-9 is variety of …………….. .
Answers:
Oats.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many categories are there for Rabi crops?
Answer:
Three categories-cereals, pulses and oilseed, fodder crop.

Question 2.
Which country is the highest producer of wheat?
Answer:
China.

Question 3.
Which state in India is highest producer of wheat? Or Which state has highest wheat production in India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
How much land is under the cultivation of wheat?
Answer:
35 lakh hectare.

Question 5.
What is the yield of wheat in Punjab?
Answer:
18-20 quintal per acre on average basis.

Question 6.
Name crop rotations for wheat.
Answer:
Maize-wheat, Mash-wheat, groundnut-wheat.

Question 7.
Which variety of wheat is used for making Pasta?
Answer:
Durum wheat.

Question 8.
Which herbicide is used before sowing wheat, if there is problem of weeds? ’
Answer:
Use gramoxone before sowing. .

Question 9.
Which machine is used for direct sowing of wheat in combine harvested paddy fields?
Answer:
Happy seeder.

Question 10.
What is seed rate for wheat?
Answer:
40 kg per acre.

Question 11.
If sowing of wheat is delayed for a week, what is the effect on yield?
Answer:
Yield is reduced by 150 kg per acre per week.

Question 12.
How much yield is increased by bi-directional sowing of wheat?
Answer:
2 quintal per acre.

Question 13.
How is wheat sowed on beds?
Answer:
By using bed planter.

Question 14.
How will you control gullidanda in wheat? Name two herbicides for this.
Answer:
Topic, Leader, Treflan.

Question 15.
Name broad leaf weeds.
Answer:
Bathu, Kandiyali, Palak (golden dock), Maina, Maini, Senji, button booti.

Question 16.
In which type of soils, deficiency of zinc occurs?
Answer:
In light textured soils.

Question 17.
Which fertilizer is used if deficiency of zinc is found?
Answer:
Zinc sulphate.

Question 18.
Which fertilizer is used as a remedy for deficiency of manganese?
Answer:
Manganese sulphate.

Question 19.
How many irrigations are required for wheat?
Answer:
4-5 irrigations.

Question 20.
Which country is highest producer of barley?
Answer:
Rusian federation.

Question 21.
In which state is the production of barley highest in India?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 22.
What is the area under the cultivation of barley?
Answer:
12 thousand hectare.

Question 23.
What is average yield of Barley?
Answer:
15-16 quintal per acre.

Question 24.
Give crop rotations for barley.
Answer:
Paddy-barley, Cetton-Barley, Bajra-Barley.

Question 25.
Name improved varieties of Barley.
Answer:
PL 807, VJM 201, PL 426.

Question 26.
What is seed rate of barley for irrigated crop?
Answer:
35 kg per acre.

Question 27.
Which weedicide is used to control jaundhar (wild oats) weed in Barley?
Answer:
Isoproturon or Avadex B.W.

Question 28.
How many irrigations are required for Barley?
Answer:
1-2 irrigations.

Question 29.
Name major pulse crops of RabL
Answer:
Grams and lentils.

Question 30.
Name major oil seed crops of RabL
Answer:
Gobi sarson, Toria, Taramira, Linseed (alsi) and Sunflower.

Question 31.
Which country is the highest producer of pulses?
Answer:
India.

Question 32.
Which state has the highest production of pulses in India?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 33.
How much area is occupied by gram crop?
Answer:
Two thousand hectare.

Question 34.
What is average yield of gram in Punjab?
Answer:
Five quintal per acre.

Question 35.
Name crop rotations for gram crop.
Answer:
Bajra-grams, Paddy/Maize-gram.

Question 36.
Name varieties of grams (irrigated).
Answer:
GPF – 2, PBG – 1.

Question 37.
Name varieties of desigrams (non irrigated).
Answer:
PDG – 4 and PDG – 3.

Question 38.
Name varieties of kabuli grams.
Answer:
552, BG 1053.

Question 39.
Give seed rate for desi grams.
Answer:
15 to 18 kg per acre.

Question 40.
Give seed rate for kabuli grams.
Answer:
37 kg per acre.

Question 41.
What is the optimum time of sowing for desi gram (rain fed)?
Answer:
10 to 25 October.

Question 42.
What is suitable time for sowing kabuli grams?
Answer:
25 October to IQ November.

Question 43.
What is line spacing for gram?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 44.
How many irrigations are required for grams?
Answer:
One irrigation.

Question 45.
How much area is under the cultivation of lentils?
Answer:
1100 hectare.

Question 46.
What is the average yield of lentils?
Answer:
2-3 quintals per acre.

Question 47.
Give crop rotation for lentils.
Answer:
Rice-lentils, Cotton-lentil, groundnut-lentil.

Question 48.
What is seed rate for lentil?
Answer:
12 to 15 kg per acre.

Question 49.
What is sow spacing for lentil?
Answer:
22.5 cm.

Question 50.
How many irrigations are required for lentil?
Answer:
1 to 2 irrigations.

Question 51.
Which insect attack the lentil crop?
Answer:
Pod borer.

Question 52.
Raya is placed in which category commercially?
Answer:
Mustard category.

Question 53.
Name crop rotations for Raya.
Answer:
Maize/Bajra – Raya – Summer Moong, Cotton – Raya.

Question 54.
Name improved varieties of Raya.
Answer:
RLC – 1, PBR – 210, PBR – 91.

Question 55.
What is seed rate for Raya?
Answer:
1.5 kg per acre.

Question 56.
What is row spacing for Raya?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 57.
If superphosphate is not available, which other fertilizer can be used for Raya?
Answer:
Gypsum.

Question 58.
In which category gobhisarson is placed at commercial level?
Answer:
Rape seed category.

Question 59.
Write crop rotations for gobhisarson.
Answer:
Rice/maize-gobhi sarson – summer moong, cotton – gobhi sarson.

Question 60.
Name varieties of gobhisarson.
Answer:
PGSH 51, GSL 2, GSL-1

Question 61.
Which are canola varieties?
Answer:
GSC 6, GSC 5.

Question 62.
What is seed rate for gobhisarson?
Answer:
1.5 kg per acre.

Question 63.
What is the row spacing for gobhisarson?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 64.
Where is the production of sunflower highesf in the world?
Answer:
Ukrain.

Question 65.
How much land area is occupied by sunflower in Punjab?
Answer:
20-21 thousand hectare.

Question 66.
What is the average seed yield for sunflower?
Answer:
6.5 quintal per acre.

Question 67.
Which soil is not suitable for cultivation of sunflower?
Answer:
Salt affected soils.

Question 68.
Give sunflower crop rotation.
Answer:
Rice/maize – Potato – sunflower, Rice – Toria – sunflower, Cotton – sunflower, Basmati – sunflower.

Question 69.
Name varieties of sunflower.
Answer:
PSH 996, PSH 569, Jawalamukhi.

Question 70.
Give row spacing for sunflower.
Answer:
60 cm.

Question 71.
Where should the seed of sunflower be placed below the ridge top?
Answer:
6 to 8 cm below the ridge top.

Question 72.
What is used to control weeds in sunflower?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 73.
How many irrigations are required for sunflower?
Answer:
6 to 9 irrigations.

Question 74.
How much fodder is required for an adult animal?
Answer:
40 kg per day.

Question 75.
Write the name of four fodder crops of Rabi.
Answer:
Berseem, safflower, shaftal, lucerne, oats, ryegrass, senji.

Question 76.
Write the name of two improved varieties of Berseem.
Answer:
BL 42, BL 10, BL1.

Question 77.
What is seed rate for Berseem?
Answer:
8 – 10 kg per acre.

Question 78.
What is optimum time for sowing of Berseem?
Answer:
Last week of September to first week of October.

Question 79.
What should be used for controlling of Bueen?
Answer:
Basalin.

Question 80.
If there is problem of itsit what should be mixed with Berseem?
Answer:
Raya.

Question 81.
When is Berseem ready for first cutting?
Answer:
About 50 days after sowing.

Question 82.
Name varieties of oats.
Answer:
OL 9, Kent.

Question 83. What is seed rate for oats?
Answer:
25 kg per acre.

Question 84.
What is time of sowing for oats?
Answer:
Second week of October to last week of October.

Question 85.
How many irrigations are required for oats?
Answer:
3-4 irrigations including Rauni (pre-sowing irrigation)

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is cool climate required at the time of sowing for wheat?
Answer:
Warm climate is unfavourable to tillering and it becomes helpful in promoting several diseases.

Question 2.
What type of soil is required for wheat?
Answer:
Wheat can be grown on all types of soils except water logged and highly deteriorated alkaline soils. Well drained medium textured loamy soil is the best. For durum wheat medium to fine textured soils are best suited.

Question 3.
How will you control the problem of gullidanda in wheat?
Answer:
If problem of gullidanda is found, it can be reduced by rotation of wheat with Berseem, Potato, Raya etc. Stomp, Leader, Topik, Total herbicides can be used to control gullidanda.

Question 4.
When should we not use leader or stomp in the Helds of wheat?
Answer:
If wheat is grown mixed with gobhi sarson or Raya, then we should not use leader or stomp.

Question 5.
What are the symptoms for deficiency of zinc in wheat?
Answer:
Generally, deficiency of zinc appears in light soils. Due to deficiency of zinc, plants do not develop properly. Crop becomes stunted and bushy. Leaves become chloiatic, which break and keep hanging.

Question 6.
What are the symptoms of deficiency of manganese in wheat?
Answer:
Generally, deficiency of Manganese appears in light soils. The symptoms appear on middle leaves and specks are seen at lower part as intervenial chlorosis. These specks then coalesce and form bands but the veins remain green.

Question 7.
What do you know about soil type for Barley?
Answer:
Barley can grow well in sandy and salt affected soils. In the initial phases of reclamation of these soils, Barley can be-grown.

Question 8.
What do you know about seed rate and seed treatment for Barley?
Answer:
For timely and irrigated crop seed rate is 35 kg seed per acre, is required. For delayed and rain fed crop seed rate is 45 kg per acre. Treat the seed with Vitavax or Raxil to control smut.

Question 9.
Write about fertilizer application in Barley.
Answer:
Requirement of fertilizers for barley is 25 kg nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus and 6 kg Potash per acre. Apply Potash after getting tested the soil Drill all the fertilizers at the time of sowing.

Question 10.
Write about weed control in Barley.
Answer:
Broad leaf weeds like Bathu can be controlled by applying 2, 4-D or algrip, Jaundhar (wild oats) by isoproturan or avadex BW and gullidanda by Puma Power or topic.

Question 11.
Write about major insect-pest and major diseases of Barley.
Answer:
Insect which can attack barley is aphid. Diseases of barley are – stripe disease, covered smut, yellow rust etc.

Question 12.
Why is there a need of importing Pulses?
Answer:
India is a leading country in the production of pulses but consumption of pulses in India is also very high therefore there is a need of importing pulses.

Question 13.
Write climate requirement for grams.
Answer:
Severe cold and frost are injurious to this crop but due to early onset of summer, crop matures before time and yield is reduced. This is a crop of low-rainfall areas.

Question 14.
What type of soil is suitable for grams?
Answer:
Well drained, light to medium textured soil is best suited for grams. This crop can grow, even in those soils, in which other crops can not grow. Saline, alkaline or water logged soils are not suitable for grams.

Question 15.
What do you know about field preparation for grams?
Answer:
There is no requirement of field preparation for grams. If soil is ploughed deeply (deep tillage!, it helps in increasing the yield and it also help in preventing some of the diseases.

Question 16.
What do you know about irrigation for grams?
Answer:
Generally, one irrigation is required for grams. This irrigation should be applied between mid December to last January but never irrigate before sowing.

Question 17.
What do you know about harvesting of gram?
Answer:
When pods mature and plants dry up, crop is ready for harvesting.

Question 18.
What type of climate and soil is suitable for lentil?
Answer:
Cool climate is best suited for lentil. It can tolerate frost and severe cold. It can be grown in all types of soils except alkaline, water logged and salt affected soils.

Question 19.
What do you know about land preparation for Lentil?
Answer:
Plough the field two-three times followed by planking each time.

Question 20.
What do you know about fertilizer application in lentil?
Answer:
Lentil require 5 kg nitrogen per acre. When the seeds are inoculated with Rhizobium then 8 kg phosphorus and if not inoculated than 16 kg phosphorus per acre is required. Apply the fertilizers at the time of sowing.

Question 21.
What do you know about irrigation of lentil?
Answer:
Depending on rain, 1 to 2 irrigations are required for lentil. If one irrigation is to be applied, apply it after six weeks of sowing. But if two irrigations are to be applied then first water is given after 4 weeks and second at flowering stage or pod formation is given.

Question 22.
What do you know about harvesting of lentil?
Answer:
Crop is ready for harvesting when plants dry up and pods mature.

Question 23.
Write about climate and soil type for Raya.
Answer:
Raya is best suited for medium to high rain fall areas. It can grow in nearly all types of soils.

Question 24.
What do you know about method of sowing for Raya?
Answer:
Row spacing for Raya is 30 cm and thinning of the crop is done after three weeks of sowing by keeping the spacing 10 to 15 cm.

Question 25.
Write about field preparation for Raya.
Answer:
Field is prepared by ploughing 2 to 4 times followed by planking everytime. Raya can be sown by using zero till drill without ploughing.

Question 26.
Write about harvesting and threshing for Raya.
Answer:
Crop is ready for harvesting when pods mature and become yellow. Harvested crop should be stacked. Threshing is done after a week of cutting the crop.

Question 27.
Write about climate and soil requirement for gobhisarson.
Answer:
Gobhisarson is best suited for medium to heavy rainfall areas. All types of soils are suitable for growing the crop.

Question 28.
Write about seed rate and preparation of land for gobhi sarson.
Answer:
Seed rate for gobhisarson is 1.5 kg per acre. Field is prepared by ploughing 2-4 times followed by planking each time.

Question 29.
Write about oil extracted from sunflower seeds.
Answer:
Oil obtained from sunflower seeds is low in cholestrol. Edible refined oil is prepared from this. This oil is also used for manufacturing of soaps.

Question 30.
What type of soil is required for growing sunflower?
Answer:
Well drained medium textured soil is best suited for sunflower. Salt affected soil is not suitable. .

Question 31.
Write about land preparation, seed rate and seed treatment for sunflower.
Answer:
Seed rate for sunflower is 2 kg per acre and it is treated with A . recommended fungicides. For land preparation 2-3 ploughings followed by planking are required.

Question 32.
Write about hoeing and weed control in sunflower.
Answer:
First hoeing should be done after 2-3 weeks of the emergence of weeds. After that hoeing should be done after 3 weeks. Use stomp to control weeds.

Question 33.
Write about harvesting and threshing of sunflower.
Answer:
When heads turn yellowish brown at lower surface and disc starts drying up, crop is ready for harvesting. Harvested sunflower should be threshed immediately after harvesting.

Question 34.
How many cuttings can be taken for berseem?
Answer:
From November to mid of June many cuttings of berseem which are tasty and nutritious can be taken.

Question 35.
How do the seeds of Kashni (Chicory) separated from seeds of Berseem?
Answer:
Seeds of Berseem are put in water. Kashni seeds are light in weight and float on water. These can be separated by sieve.

Question 36.
Write about application of fertilizer in Berseem.
Answer:
At the time of sowing 6 tonne of farm yard manure (FYM) and 20 kg phosphorus per acre is required. If FYM is not available then 10 kg nitrogen and 30 kg phosphorus per acre should be applied.

Question 37.
Write about irrigation in Berseem.
Answer:
First irrigation is applied after 6-8 days after sowing. Next irrigations are applied, in summer after 8-10 days and in winter after 10-15 days.

Question 38.
What do you know about harvesting of Berseem?
Answer:
First cutting is ready after 50 days of sowing and subseqent cuttings are ready after 40 days interval in winter and then after every 30 days in spring.

Question 39.
Which type of soil is required for oats?
Answer:
Oats can be grown in all types of soils except waterlogged and alkaline soils.

Question 40.
What is the time and method of sowing for oats?
Answer:
Time of sowing for oats is from second week of October to last week of October. Row spacing is 20 cm. It can be sown by using zero till drill without ploughing.

Question 41.
What dq you know about hoeing and irrigation for oats?
Answer:
Generally, there is no need of hoeing. But if there is problem of weeds then hoeing should be done. 3-4 irrigations including Rauni are required.

Question 42.
Write about fertilizer application for oats.
Answer:
8 kg phosphorus, 15 kg nitrogen per acre to be applied at the time of sowing. 15 kg of nitrogen per acre is required after 30-40 days of sowing.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about following for cultivation of wheat:
(i) Improved varieties
(ii) Land preparation after paddy
(iii) Irrigation
(iv) Pest insects and diseases.
Answer:
(i) Improved varieties: PBW 621, DBW 17, PBW 343, PDW 291 etc.

(ii) Land preparation after harvesting paddy:
If wheat is to be grown after paddy, there is enough soil moisture otherwise apply rauni. Plough the field using disc hasrow in wattar (idealistic moisture in soil) state. If paddy is harvested using combine, then left over straw can be ploughed and mixed with soil, for this plough twice followed by planking. After this, use cultivator once and if soil is heavy plough it twice and apply planking each time. Use happy seeder machine to sow wheat in combine harvested paddy field without burning the left over of paddy.

(iii) Irrigation:
If wheat is sown in October then apply first irrigation after three weeks of sowing and then irrigate after four weeks. At this time, special roots are formed in wheat which are known as crown roots. 4-5 irrigations are needed for wheat.

(iv) Pest-insects and diseases:
Army worm, aphid, termite, gram pod borer etc. attack the crop. Diseases which can harm the crop are yellow rust, brown rust, loose smut, ear cockle (mamni) and yellow ear rot (tundu), and kamal bunt etc.

Question 2.
Describe following cultivation practices for Barley.

Improved varieties
Climate
Time of sowing
Row spacing
Irrigation.

Answer:

Improved varieties: VJM 201, PL 426, PL 807.
Climate: Barley require cool climate during initial stage (i.e. during early growth) and at maturity it required warm and dry weather: Barley can be grown in low rainfall areas.
Time of sowing: 15 October to 15 November.
Row spacing: For timely sowing 22.5 cm and for late-sown and rainfed condition 18 to 20 cm.
Irrigation: 1-2 irrigations are required.

Question 3.
Describe the following for cultivation of grams:

climate
soil type
rotation
improved varieties
seed rate
weed control
harvesting
insects pests and diseases.

Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 4.
Describe cultivation of lentil with respect to following points

climate and soil
improved varieties
crop rotation
seed rate and treatment
fertilizers
harvesting.
irrigation

Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 5.
Give cultivation details for Raya.
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 6.
Give fertilizer application for wheat, barley, grams and lentil.
Answer:
Fertilizer application per acre is as follows:

	Nitrogen	Phosphorus	Potash
1. Wheat	50 kg	25 kg	12 kg (after testing of soil)
2. Barley	25 kg	12 kg	6 kg (after testing of soil)
3. Grams (i) Desi grams (ii) Kabuli grams	6 kg 6 kg	8 kg 16 kg	– –
4. Lentil	5 kg	8 kg (if seed inoculation is done) otherwise 16 kg.

Question 7.
What do you know about irrigation of sunflower?
Answer:
First irrigation should be done after one month of sowing of sunflower. After that, irrigation should be done at intervals of 2-3 weeks. During summer in the months of April-May irrigations should be done at intervals of 8-10 days. At the flowering stage and at soft and hard dough stages of crop, irrigation application is must. Total 6-9 irrigations are required for sunflower.

Question 8.
How is field prepared for sowing of wheat?
Answer:
See above question.

Question 9.
Write a note pn sowing time and method of sunflower.
Answer:
See above question.

Question 10.
Write the description of cultivation of Kabuli Gram as per given below:

Soil
Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Sowing time
Irrigation
Harvesting.

Answer:

Soil: Well-drained, light to medium textured soil is best suited for grams. This crop can grow, even in those soils, in which other crops can not grow. Saline, alkaline, or waterlogged soils are not suitable for grams.
Two improved varieties: L 552, BG 1053.
Seed rate per acre: 37 kg.
Sowing time: 25 October to 10 November.
Irrigation: Only one.
Harvesting: When pods mature and plants dry up, the crop is ready for harvesting.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 HTML II

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 3 HTML II Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 3 HTML II

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB HTML II Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is the use of Forms in HTML?
(a) To display contents of email
(b) To display animation effect
(c) To collect user’s input
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
(c) To collect user’s input

Question 2.
Which of the following is most commonly used HTTP methods?
(a) PRE and POST
(b) GET and SET
(c) ASK and REPLY
(d) GET and POST
Answer:
(d) GET and POST

Question 3.
Is it possible to link within the current page?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Only in frames
(d) Null
Answer:

Question 4.
An html form is part of a web page that includes areas where:
(a) Information is feeded by the user
(b) And sent to the website server
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
A container tag and is used to allow multiple lines of text in a single input item is known as:
(a) Text area
(b) Checkbox
(c) Radio Button
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Text area

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 3 HTML II

2. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
……………. tag is used to create a linkon a webpage.
Answer:
Anchor

Question 2.
………….is used to feed informationinto the Webserver.
Answer:
Form

Question 3.
If you want to allow multiple lines oftext ………………. is used in the form.
Answer:
Textarea

Question 4.
To select multiple options in a form we can use …………….
Answer:
Checkbox

Question 5.
To clear all options from a form we can use ……………… button.
Answer:
Reset

3. True or False

Question 1.
An unvisited Link is underlined and blue.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
<input type=”password”> will show asterisks in the text box.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Selection lists are used to define the dropdown lists.
Answer:
True

4. Full Forms

1. <A>
Answer:
Anchor tag

2. HREF
Answer:
Hyperlink REFerence

3. URL
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator

4. BGCOLOR
Answer:
Background Color

5. SRC
Answer:
Source

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which tag is used to link a webpage?
Answer:
<A> Anchor Tag.

Question 2.
Which attribute is defined to specify where to send the form-data when a form is submitted?
Answer:
Action attribute.

Question 3.
This method is used to encode the feeded data by the user by using URL path and is sent to the server.
Answer:
GET method.

Question 4.
What are used to perform some action on the given webpage?
Answer:
Button.

6. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is hyperlink?
Answer:
Hyper link is a method to connect two destinations on web pages. These destinations can be with in a webpage or it can be outside web page i.e. on another webpage.

Question 2.
What is Anchor tag? Explain with example.
Answer:
Anchor tag is the tag which is used to create a link in html document. This tag creates link within a webpage and also with another webpage. The tag uses href as compulsory attribute.
Example : Following is an example of anchor tag <a href= “www.Google.com” > Google </a>

Question 3.
What is a form?
Answer:
An html form is part of a web page that includes areas where readers can enter information to be sent back to website or the publishers of the web page It is a container that consists of other form elements such as text box, radio buttons ,list box etc.

Question 4.
Name diffefent types of buttons used in html form.
Answer:
Following are the types of buttons in HTML.
1. Submit Button
2. Reset Botton

Question 5.
What is checkbox?
Answer:
Check box appears as a small square the user can select or deselect by clicking on it. It is generally used where a group is used for sharing a common name from where information can be selected It is used in <input> html element. We must give each check box a name attributes the value defined in the type at¬tribute is checkbox. These Eire explained below with an example.
<input type-‘checkbox” name=”Child”>Children Toys <input type-‘checkbox” name=”Fumiture”> stool
You can check any option or both by clicking on it. It also supports some additional attributes.

7. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss different types of buttons with example. .
Answer:
Buttons are used to perform some action on the given webpage. Some important buttons are discussed below :
Submit button:
Every form must include a button that submits the form data to the server. You can put any label you like on this button. It has two attributes these are type, which has submit value and value attribute defines the name of the • submit button which can be displayed on the button. These are explained below with an example:
Ex.:<input type=”submit” value=”OK”>
A button will appear on screen. When the user clicks it, all data items on the form are submitted

Reset Button:
You can also include a button that clears all entries on the form so users can start over if they change their minds or make mistakes. It has two attributes these are “type”, which has reset value and value attribute defines the name of the reset button, which can be displayed on the button. These are explained below with an example:
Ex.:<input type= “reset”value= “Reset”>

Question 2.
What is selection list in form?
Answer:
Selection list is an option in which user can select single or multiple options from a given list. In this option multiple inputs are available but some options can be displayed at a time. Scrolling Lists and Pull-Down pick lists are created with the<select>tag. You can use this tag together with the<option>tag: <select>
<option> wjndows</option><option> Linux </option><option> Mac</option>
</select>
No html tags other than <option> and </option> should appear between the <select> and </select> tags.
Attributes of select tag:
Select tag has following attributes-
1. Size Attribute:
Size determines how many items are shown at once on the selection list. If size=”3″ were used in the preceding code, only the first three options would be visible, and a scrollbar would appear next to the list so the user could scroll down to see the third option.
Ex.: <Select name – ‘Weekday” size=4>

2. Name:
It is used to define name to the drop down menu.
<Select name =”WeekDay” size=4 multiple>

3. Multiple:
This is used to select multiple options from the given list. This is the value which has to be given back to the website and defined in the option tag.
Ex.: <optionValue=”Sunday”>Sunday
When this option is used the given option will be preselected.

Question 3.
Explain Text Area with an example.
Answer:
This is a container tag and is used to allow multiple lines of text in a single input item. It has two attributes these are ROWS and COLS. Row defines the number of rows defined in the text area and cols defines the number of columns used in the text area. If user wants to define some default text then he can define in-between the open closing tags of text area element. All this is explained in the given example. <textarea name=”comments” rows=”5″ cols=”25″>
Please type in more information.
</textarea>

Question 4.
What is the purpose of action and method in forms?
Answer:
Get Method:
This method is used to encode the fed data by the user by using URL path and is sent to the server. Limited data can be sent to the server. Its parameters remain in the browser history.
<FORM method=get action-‘ action.php”>

Post Method:
This method is used to store the data to the server without interfering JRL and is more secure to send information than GET method from the website form to the server. There is no restriction on sending data. Its parameters don’t remain in the browser history.
<form method=post action=”action.php”>

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Office Tools Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is used to link two pages?
(a) Page
(b) Glue
(c) Button
(d) Hyperlink
Answer:
(d) Hyperlink

Question 2.
What is not used in Form:
(a) Button
(b) Text Box
(c) Radio Button
(d) Row
Answer:
(d) Row

Question 3.
How many types of links are?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 4.
How many types of Methods are in a form?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The text which is highlighted in Blue is called ……………..
Answer:
Hyperlink

Question 2.
…………….. attribute is used to change color in table.
Answer:
BGCOLOR

Question 3.
………… attribute is used to change sell spacing.
Answer:
Cell spacing

Question 4.
………….. is used to change cell width. (2019)
Answer:
Colspan

Question 5.
Brower shows a hyper link in ……….color.
Answer:
Blue

Question 6.
…………… is used to go to another place in a webpage.
Answer:
Bookmark.

Select True/False

Question 1.
Anchor tag is used to create Hyperlink.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
<img> tag is used to insert images.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
HREF is an attribute of <img> tag.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
We can insert image in background.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
SCR is an attribute of <img> tag.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the use of anchor tag?
Answer:
Anchor tag is used to create hyperlink

Question 2.
What is linking?
Answer:
Linking is the process of joining two webpages.

Question 3.
What is SCR attribute?
Answer:
SCR attribute is used to tell the source of image in<img> tag.

Question 4.
What are various alignment option for an image?
Answer:

Left
Right
Top
Bottom
Middle.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the purpose of submit button?
Answer:
Every form must include a button that submits the form data to the server. We can put any label on this button. It has two attributes these are type, which has submit value and value attribute defines the name of the submit button which can be displayed on the button.

Question 2.
What is Marquee?
Answer:
Marquee tag is used to move the text in html document. The text starts moving when is viewed in web browsers.

Question 3.
What is inline style?
Answer:
The style in which style is defined in the tag is called inline style. It is stored in same html document and is used when the style is not repeated anywhere in the document. It effects only to that style on which it is applied.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
How external Movie or image can be used in HTML document?
Answer:
Adding Audio/Video files in HTML:
User can link audio/video files in HTML document using anchor (<a>) tag. User has to give the path of audio/video file in href attribute of anchor tag. Whenever the user clicks on the link, the files will automatically gets downloaded and is played in the associated software.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB HTML Fundamentals Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What should be the first tag in any HTML document?
(a) <head>
(b) <title>
(c) <html>
(d) <document>
Answer:
(c) <html>

Question 2.
What is the correct HTML tag for inserting a line break?
(a) <br>
(b) <lb>
(c) <break>
(d) <newline>
Answer:
(a) <br>

Question 3.
A webpage displays a picture. What tag was used to display that picture?
(a) picture
(b) image
(c) img
(d) src
Answer:
(c) img

Question 4.
Page designed in HTML is called is:
(a) Yellow Page
(b) Web Page
(c) Server Page
(d) Front Page
Answer:
(b) Web Page

Question 5.
HTML document is saved using extension:
(a) .htl
(b) .html
(c) .hml
(d) .htnl
Answer:
(b) .html

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals

Question 6.
Table tag has various other tags, these are:
(a) <TR>
(b) <TD>
(c) <TH>
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

2. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
HTML stands for …………..
Answer:
Hyper-Text markup Language

Question 2.
…………… list to represent an unorganized list.
Answer:
Unordered List

Question 3.
…………….. tag is used to define the elements of a list.
Answer:
<LI>

Question 4.
ALT stands for …………….
Answer:
Alternate

Question 5.
………… is the main part of the HTML document in which whole information about the webpage resides.
Answer:
<body>

Question 6.
The ………………… contains title that identifies the heading of the html document.
Answer:
Heading

3. True or False

Question 1.
HTML is a structured Language.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Table heading starts with <TH> tag and ends with</TH>tags
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Align does not defines the alignment of the attached image in contrast to the other contents of the webpage
Answer:
False

Question 4.
CELLPADDING is the pixel space between-the cell contents and the cell border.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Definition list generally contains the definitions of different terms and their meaning.
Answer:
True

4. Full Forms

Question 1.
HTML
Answer:
Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 2.
<B>
Answer:
Bold

Question 3.
<I>
Answer:
Italic

Question 4.
<U>
Answer:
Underline

Question 5.
<OL>
Answer:
Ordered List

Question 6.
<UL>
Answer:
Unordered list

Question 7.
<P>
Answer:
Paragraph

Question 8.
<BR>
Answer:
Break

Question 9.
SRC
Answer:
Source

Question 10.
<IMG>
Answer:
Image

Question 11.
<TR>
Answer:
Table row

Question 12.
<TH>
Answer:
Table Heading

Question 13.
<TD>
Answer:
Table Data

Question 14.
LI
Answer:
List Item

Question 15.
URL
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the tag which is by the beginning and ending tags.
Answer:
Container Tag

Question 2.
Name the tag of the HTML document in which whole information about the webpage resides.
Answer:
Body tag

Question 3.
Name a tag which is an empty element that is used to break a line and display the proceeding text from the next line, without giving any space between two lines.
Answer:
<br>

Question 4.
Name the list which have information related to each other but their sequence is not important.
Answer:
Bulleted Lists

6. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is HTML ?
Answer:
HTML stands for Hyper Text markup Language. It is a language used for designing a web page in which text, graphics, and other information are organized, formatted, and linked together. HTML is extremely simple, Flexible, easy to learn, interactive, widely accepted Markup Language.

Question 2.
What is a Tag ?
Answer:
Tag is a HTML command which is understood by web browser. These are also called as elements. These are enclosed in angle brackets. HTML document can not be prepared without these tags.

Question 3.
What is <Img> tag. Explain.
Answer:
<img> tag is used to embed an image in HTML document. It means it displays an image in HTML web page. The general syntax of thi stag is <image SRC=””FILENAME”>

Question 4.
Name different tags used to create a table.
Answer:
Following tabgsa re used to create a table in HTML.
(i) <table> </table>
(ii) <th> </th>
(iii) <tr> <tr>
(iv) <td> </td>

Question 5.
Explain Font tag with its attributes.
Answer:
Font tag is used to change the style and shape of the text which is used in any HTML document. It allows to format data on a given web page. Font tag has four main properties:

Style: Font style can be changed in three ways – Bold, Italic and Underline.
Font Face: Face defines the type face to be used like writing.
Font Colour: Font colour gives different colours to the text.
Font Size: Font size changes size of text matter.

7. Differentiate Between

(i) Ordered and Unordered List.
The difference between ordered and unordered lists is as follows:

Ordered List	Unordered list
1. In an Ordered list, the order of the list item is important. If we charge the order, the meaning of the whole list changes.	1. In an unordered list the order of the items is not significant .We can swap two items or reverse the whole list and it still remains the same list
2. Ordered List starts with <OL> and ends with</OL> tag.	2. Unordered List starts with <UL> and aids with</UL> tag.
3. Ordered List has an <U> (list Item) tag which defines the list dements defined in the list	3. Unordered List has an <U> (List Item) tag which defines the list dements defined in the list
4. In an Ordered List, the attribute used is TYPE Which has values as 1, A, a, I, i.	4. In an Ordered List the attribute used is TYPE Which has values as, o, and SQUARE.
5. Default value of TYPE ATTRIBUTE is 1.	5. Default “value of TYPF. ATTRIBUTE is “Disc”.

(ii) Background and BGCOLOR.
The difference between background and BGCOLOR is as follows:

Background	BGCOLOR
1. Background attribute is used in body as well as in table tag ,to add background image in the given webpage or a table.	1. BGCOLOR attribute is used in body as well as in table tag, to change the background color of the webpage or a table.
2. Syntax <body background=”Red”>	2. Syntax is <table bgcolor=nGreen”>
3. Example <BODY background-“image.jpg”>	3. Example <body bgcolor=”green”>

(iii) Colspan and Rowspan.
The difference between colspan and rowspan is as follows

1. Sometimes it makes sense for a cell to span multiple columns . This might be used for a header cell that titles a group of columns of entries.	1. Sometimes it makes sense for a cell to span multiple rows. This might be used for a side-bar that groups rows of entries.
2. Allows a single table cell to span the width of more than one cell or column.	2. Allows a single table cell to span the height of more them one row.
3. COLSPAN is attribute that is used in i.e. <th> and <td> tag.	3. ROWSPAN is attribute that is used in i.e. <th> and <td> tag.
4. It provides the same functionality as “merge cell” in spreadsheet programs like Excel.	4. It provide the same functionality as “merge cell” in spreadsheet programs like Excel.
5. Example: <th colspan=”3″>	5.Example: <th rowspann=”3″>

(vi) Tag and Attribute.
Difference between tag and attribute is as follows

Tag	Attribute
1. Tags contain elements which provide instructions for how information will be processed or displayed. There are both starter tags <TAG> and end tags </ TAG> Tags are used to mark up the start and end of an HTML element.	1. An attribute defines a property for an element, consists of an attribute. Its value appears within the element’s start tag.
2. Tags contains elements as well as attribute	2. Attribute is a part of starting Tag of an element.
3. These are of two types:-Empty Tag and Container Tag	3. Types of Attribute depend upon the tag used .i.e. each tag has its own number of attributes.
4. Example:- <Table > Here table is a tag.	4. Example:- <Table Border=”2″ >

Here a table is the Tag and border is its attribute.

8. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the basic structure of HTML in Details.
Answer:
HTML document has two main parts :
1. Head: The head section contains title that identifies the heading of the HTML document.
2. Body: The body element contains the actual contents or information that you want to display on a web page to the end user.
HTML document contains the following syntax:
<html> <head>
<title>Title Of Webpage </title>
</head>
<body>
Body of HTML Document
</body>
</html>
The tags defined in the above structure basically define or instruct the web browser about the different operation to be performed on the text defined in the given TAGS.

<html> </html>:
HTML document is started <html>and ended </html>with this tag. This TAG informs the web browser from where a web page will start and where it ends. If the commands are not defined in tags then the commands are taken as text by the web browser.

<head> </head>:
Head tag provides Header information. The document title is written in Head Tag. It always occurs in pair. Head Tag is considered very important for a web page. This is a container tag. It defines the Heading of the html document. It starts with<head> tag and ends with </head>. This Tag is always defined below <html> and above <body>tag. It contains information regarding title of the webpage, keywords used by the search engines etc. It contains no text in itself.

<Title> </Title>:
TITLE tag defines the title of the webpage, which is to be displayed on the title bar of the web browser when the web page is loaded in the web browser. It is enclosed in between <Title> and</Title>tags. It should be short and meaningful of <Title> First Web Page </Title>

<body> </body>:
This tag contains the actual information to be displayed on the web browser. When the webpage is loaded in the web browser. It may contain any element or contents related to text, images, audio, video etc. These contents are defined with in <body> and </body> tags.

For Example:
<body>This is document in HTML document. </BODY>
Each Body tag has different characteristics. These characteristics (properties) are termed as attributes. We can select Background colour, text colour, font size etc. with these attributes.

Question 2.
What are the various tags used in table ? Explain with an example.
Answer:
HTML table is created using <table> </Table Tag. HTML tables are composed row by row. You indicate a new row with the <TR> (table row) tag, and you separate the data with either the <TH> (table header) or <TD> (table data) tags. Think of the <TR> tag as a line break, signaling that the following data starts a new table row. Table headers are generally shown in bold and centered by WWW browsers, and table data is shown in the standard body text format.
The basic HTML table tags
1. <TABLE></TABLE>: These HTML tags are the containers for the rest of the table data.

2. <TR></TR>:
Each row in the table is contained by these tags. You can optionally leave off the closing </TR> tag.

3. <TD></TD>:
Defines a cell. Table data is contained within these tags: You can also nest additional tables within a single cell. You can optionally leave off the closing </TD> tag.

4. <TH></TH>:
These table header tags are used to define headers, usually in the first row or column of the table. You can optionally leave off the closing </TH> tag. In addition to the basic tags shown here, some other characteristics of table tag.

5. BORDER attribute:
By using the BORDER attribute of the <TABLE> tag, borders are put around the table. You set the value of this attribute to the number of pixels wide you want the border, like this: BQRDER=1. If you set this attribute to 0, the browser will not display a border.

6. ALIGN attribute:
The ALIGN attribute can be specified in the <TABLE> tag with possible values of LEFT, RIGHT, and CENTER (the default is LEFT). HTML 4.0 specifies a new value for ALIGN of CHAR, which implements alignment on a specified character, such as a decimal point.

7. Table heads:
In most browsers, table heads enclosed by the <TH> </TH> tags are emphasized and centered.

Question 3.
Explain ordered list with an example ?
Answer:
Ordered list is created using <ol> </ol> Tag. The attribute type may be ‘a’, ‘A’, 1,1, ‘i’, etc. On the face of it, ordered lists look a lot like unordered lists, and a lot of the same rules apply to both constructs. The only difference in HTML is that instead of using <UL> and </UL>, an ordered list is contained within the tags <OL> and </OL>. Ordered lists are based on list items, just as unordered lists are.
However, when an ordered list is displayed in a Web browser, it uses an automatically generated sequence of item markers. In other words, the items are numbered. The markup for a simple ordered list, based on the first example in this chapter: <OL>
<LI>Monday
<LI>Tuesday
<LI> Wednesday
<LI>Thursday
<LI>Friday
</OL>
The above markup will look similar to the previously discussed simple unordered list, with the important difference that each day of the week is numbered instead of preceded by a “bullet.” In other words, it looks like this :
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday
Ordered lists are as nestable as unordered lists, and you can nest unordered lists in ordered lists, as well as the other way.

Question 4.
Explain Nested List with example.
Answer:
A list within a list is called nested list. It can be any type of list. i.e. an ordered list can contain unordered list or a definition list or vice-versa. A list can contain any number of lists in it.
This can be seen in following example
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 1

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Office Tools Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which is related with Internet ?
(a) HTML
(b) XML
(c) CSS
(d) All of Above
Answer:
(d) All of Above

Question 2.
HTML document cannot work without which tag ?
(a) <p>
(b) <hr>
(c) <html>
(d) <table>
Answer:
(c) <html>

Question 3.
What is essential to view a website ?
(a) Internet
(b) Web Brower
(c) None of these
(d) Both of these
Answer:
(d) Both of these

Question 4.
How many types of methods are in a form ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………. types of tags are used in HTML.
Answer:
Two

2. Opening and closing tags are used in …………………
Answer:
Container

3. There is no closing tag in ……………………… tag.
Answer:
Empty

4. The text editor named ………….. is set for creating HTML document.
Answer:
Text.

5. HTML document is opened in ………………
Answer:
Browser.

6. …………… extension is used to save HTML document.
Answer:
HTML or HTM.

7. In HTML document first and last tag should be ………… and ………..
Answer:
<HTML>, </HTML> .

8. Unordered list’is also called ……………. list.
Answer:
<UL>

9. …………. list represents numbers.
Answer:
Ordered Nested.

10. When a list U created in another list, it is named …………….. list.
Answer:
Ordered Nested.

True or Flase

1. The HTML tags can be written in Capital or small Letters of English Alphabets.
Answer:
True

2. Text is written in word pad to create a home page.
Answer:
True

3. Body tag is written after Head tag.
Answer:
True

4. Container tag is a solo tag.
Answer:
False

5. Title is written in Head Tag.
Answer:
True

6. There are six levels in Heading.
Answer:
True

7. The tag <P> is used for paragraph.
Answer:
True

8. The attributes of a list: Face, Size, Colour.
Answer:
False

9. The tag <BR> is used to make the text dynamic
Answer:
False

10. The bullets are marked in an Ordered List.
Answer:
False.

Match the Following

A	B
1. HTML Document	Body Tag
2. Container Tag	Number
3. <OL>	Bullet
4. <UL>	Face, Size and Color
5. Font attribute	Word Pad

Answer:

A	B
1. HTML Document	Word Pad
2. Container Tag	Body Tag
3. <OL>	Number
4. <UL>	Bullet
5. Font attribute	Face, Size and Color

Full Forms

Question 1.
HTML
Answer:
Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 2.
<B>
Answer:
Bold

Question 3.
<I>
Answer:
Italic

Question 4.
<U>
Answer:
Underline

Question 5.
<P>
Answer:
Paragraph

Question 6.
<BR>
Answer:
Break

Question 7.
<OL>
Answer:
Ordered List

Question 8.
<UL>
Answer:
Unordered list

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the attributes of Unordered Lists?
Answer:

Bullet
Disc
Square

Question 2.
What is a table row?
Answer:
<TR><VTR>-Each row in the table is contained by these tags. You can optionally leave off the closing </TR> tag.

Question 3.
Which tags are used to show table heading and table data?
Answer:
<th> tag is used to give table heading and <td> tag is used to show the data.

Question 4.
Write the procedure of changing the table size.
Answer:
We can change the size of the table by using the width and height attributes of table tag.
<table width = “300” height = “400”>

Question 5.
How will you make the border of a table?
Answer:
By giving the border attributes of table tag.

Question 6.
What is meant by cell spacing?
Answer:
The space between two cells is called cell spacing.

Question 7.
Write a short note on colspan.
Answer:
To span two adjacent cells in a column, use the COLSPAN attribute with <TH> or <TD>, as follows:
<TD COLSPAN=2>

Question 8.
What is the use of Anchor tag?
Answer:
Anchor tag is used to create link between two documents.
<a href= “c:\jsb\jap.htmT>

Question 9.
What do you mean by Linking?
Answer:
Linking is used to connect the two documents. It is also called hyperlink.

Question 10.
What is SRC attribute?
Answer:
SRC indicates the source of the file.

Question 11.
What are the methods of aligning an image?
Answer:

Left
Right
Center
Top
Bottom
Middle.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write names of any four tags used in HTML.
Answer:

Tags	Description
<HTML> …</HTML>	Encloses the entire HTML document.
<HE AD>… < / HE AD>	Encloses the head of the HTML document.
<TITLE>… </TITLE>	Indicates the title of the document. Used within <HEAD>.
<BODY>…</BODY>	Encloses the body of the HTML document.
<P>…</P>	A paragraph. The closing tag (</P>) is optional.
<BR>	A line break.

Tags	Description
<HR>	A horizontal rule line.
<H1>…</H1>	A first-level heading.
<H2>…</H2>	A second-level heading.
<H3>…</H3>	A third-level heading.
<H4>…</H4>	A fourth-level heading (seldom used).
<H5>…</H5>	A fifth-level heading (seldom used).
<H6>…</H6>	A sixth-level heading (seldom used).

Question 2.
Write types of tags used is HTML.
Answer:
There are two kinds of HTML tags:
1. Paired (Container) Tag:
A tag is said to be a paired tag if the text is placed between a tag and its companion tag. In paired tags, the first tag is referred to as Opening Tag and the second tag is referred to as Closing Tag.

2. Unpaired ( Empty) Tag:
Unpaired tags work alone, and are usually placed before the text you,want formatted. An impaired tag does not have a companion tag. Unpaired tags are also known as Singular or Stand-Alone Tags. An unpaired tag sometimes also called empty.

Question 3.
What are container tags?
Answer:
Paired (Container) Tag:
A tag is said to-be a paired tag if the text is placed between a tag and its companion tag. In paired tags, the first tag is referred to as Opening Tag and the second tag is referred to as Closing Tag.

Question 4.
What is a Nested List?
Answer:
Nested List. The list entities mentioned above can be combined to produce nested lists. For example, the following contains two numbered lists within one unordered list:
1. Departments in the B-Block:

Chemistry
Engineering
Geology

2. Departments in the C-Block:

Economics
Politics
Sociology

This document describes glossary lists. The following document ([Next] from the menu at the top of the page) explains the formatting of regular lists.

Question 5.
What is HTML?
Answer:
The Hypertext Mark-up Language (or HTML) is the language used to create documents for the World Wide Web. As the name implies it is a mark-up language – the original (ASCII) text is edited and new (text) codes i.e. tags are added to indicate how (and where) the text should appear.

Question 6.
How will you create home page of a Website? Write the steps.
Answer:
The first page of the website is called home page.
The followings are the steps to design home page:
1. Start___ Program_____ Accessories ______Notepad.
2. Write HTML coding and save with .html extension.
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<IT1LE> Titlf Text Goes Here </TlTLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
Hello Students
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 7.
Explain definition lists with an example.
Answer:
As you might expect, definition lists begin and end with the tags <DL> and </DL>. However, unlike the unordered and ordered lists, definition lists are not based on list items. They are instead based on term-definition pairs.

Question 8.
Write names of various attributes of font.
Answer:
The various attributes of Font tag are:

Face
Size
Color.

Question 9.
For what purpose Marquee tag is used?
Answer:
The marquee tag is used to navigate the text on web page.
<Marquee> Hello </Marquee>

Question 10.
Mention the names of different types of lists used in HTML.
Answer:
There are three types of Lists in HTML:

Ordered List
Unordered List
Definition List

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the features of HTML?
Answer:
HTML:
Originally, HTML was developed with the intent of defining the structure of documents like headings, paragraphs, lists, and so forth to facilitate the sharing of scientific information between researchers. Web page has many elements as page style, paragraph, list, table and picture etc. Each section is written in the form of tag. The tags indicate that the element viz. heading, list, paragraph etc to which the section of web page relates. Picture, sound and movie can be included in addition to the text in a web page.

Question 2.
Discuss the structure of HTML Document.
Answer:
Structure Of Document:
It is easier to understand the structure of a HTML document. The complete document is written between <HTML> and </HTML> tags. The tags <Head>, <Body>, <Title>etc are written between these. The structure of HTML document is explained in detail below:
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 2
Question 3.
What are the different Headings Tags in HTML?
Answer:
HTML Headings:
The heading tag is used to fix the heading. There are 6 levels of heading in all. The levels are numbered as heading 1 to heading 6. All the letters of the heading in a given level have same font. The font size go^S on decreasing as we move from heading 1 to heading 6. The heading in level 1 is expressed by tags <H1> and </Hl>. Similarly in the heading in level 2 we use the tags <H2> and </H2>. <H6> is the lowest level. The font size in it is the smallest.

Tags	Description
<HR>	A horizontal rule line.
<H1>…</H1>	A first-level heading.
<H2>…</H2>	A second-level heading.
<H3>…</H3>	A third-level heading.
<H4>…</H4>	A fourth-level heading (seldom used).
<H5>…</H5>	A fifth-level heading (seldom used).
<H6>…</H6>	A sixth-level heading (seldom used).

Question 4.
Explain type attribute in an Ordered list.
Answer:
HTML Ordered Lists:
If you are required to put your items in a numbered list instead of bulleted, then HTML ordered list will be used. This list is created by using <ol> tag. The numbering starts at one and is incremented by one for each successive ordered list element tagged with <li>.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 3
The type Attribute
You can use type attribute for <ol> tag to specify the type of numbering you like. By default, it is a number. Following are the possible options :
<ol type = “1”> – Default-Case Numerals.
<ol type = “I”> – Upper-Case Numerals.
<ol type = “i”> – Lower-Case Numerals.
<ol type = “A”> – Upper-Case Letters.
<ol type = “a”> – Lower-Case Letters.
The start Attribute
You can use start attribute for <ol> tag to specify the starting point of numbering you need. Following are the possible options:
<ol type = “1” start = “4”> – Numerals starts with 4.
<ol type = “I” start = “4”> – Numerals starts with IV.
ol type = “a” start = “4”> – Letters starts with d
<ol type = “A” start = “4”> – Letters starts with D.

Question 5.
What are the tags used to creating tables in HTML? Explain.
Answer:
The HTML tables allow web authors to arrange data like text, images, links, other tables, etc. into rows and columns of cells.
The HTML tables- are created using the <table> tag in which the <tr> tag is used to create table rows and <td> tag is used to create data cells. The elements under <td> are regular and left aligned by default.
Example
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 4
Table Heading:
Table heading can be defined using <th> tag. This tag will be put to replace <td> tag, which is used to represent actual data cell. Normally you will put your fop row as table heading as shown below, otherwise you can use <th> element in any row. Headings, which are defined in <th> tag are centered and bold by default.

Cellpadding and Cellspacing Attributes:
There are two attributes called cellpadding and cellspacing which you will use to adjust the white space in your table cells. The cellspacing attribute defines space between table cells, while cellpadding represents the distance between cell borders and the content within a cell.

Colspan and Rowspan Attributes:
You will use colspan attribute if you want to merge two or more columns into a single column. Similar way you will use rowspan if you want to merge two or more rows.

Question 6.
Can you use insert image in your website? If yes, how? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Html Images:
Images are very important to beautify as well as to depict many complex concepts in simple way on your web page. This tutorial will take you through simple steps to use images in your web pages.

Insert Image:
You can insert any image in your web page by using <img> tag. Following is the simple syntax to use this tag.
<imgsrc = “Image URL” … attributes-list/>
The <img> tag is an empty tag, which means that, it can contain only list of attributes and it has no closing tag.
Example
To try following example, let’s keep our HTML file test.htm and image file test.png in the same directory.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 5
Set Image Location:
Usually we keep all the images in a separate directory. So let’s keep HTML file test.htm in our home directory and create a subdirectory images inside the home directory where we will keep our image test.png.

Set Image Width/Height
You can set image width and height based on your requirement using width and height attributes. You can specify width and height of the image in terms of either pixels or percentage of its actual size.

Set Image Border :
By default, image will have a border around it, you can specify border thickness in terms of pixels using border attribute. A thickness of 0 means, no border around the picture.
Example
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 6
Set Image Alignment:
By default, image will align at the left side of the page, but you can use align attribute to set it in the center or right.
Example

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Infrastructure of the Indian Economy

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Infrastructure of the Indian Economy Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Infrastructure of the Indian Economy

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Infrastructure of the Indian Economy Textbook Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by infrastructure?
Answer:
Infrastructure of the economy signifies that part of the capital stock of the economy is necessary from the viewpoint of providing various types of services.

Question 2.
What are the main components of economic infrastructure in India?
Answer:
The main components of economic infrastructure in India are :

Transport and communication
Electric power
Irrigation
Banking and financial institutions.

Question 3.
Name the various modes of transport in India.
Answer:
The following are the important means of transport in India :

Rail transport
Road transport
Water transport
Air transport.

Question 4.
What do you main by irrigation?
Answer:
Irrigation means providing the necessary water to the cultivable land through man-made or artificial means. Due to uneven, irregular and uncertain rainfall, irrigation assumes added importance.

Question 5.
What are the major sources of irrigation in India?
Answer:
Tubewells, river, tank etc. are the major sources of irrigation in India.

Question 6.
Write a short note on Reserves Bank of India.
Answer:
The reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the Central Bank of India, which was established on April 1, 1935 monetary institution which supervise, regulates controls and develops the monetary and financial system of the country. The Reserve Bank of India is fully owned and operated by the Government of India.

Question 7.
Write a note on the Commercial Bank of India.
Answer:
A Commercial Bank is a financial institution which performs the functions of accepting deposits from the general public and giving loans for investment with the aim of earning profit. Commercial Banks plays a singificant role in fulfilling the short term and medium term finacial requirements of Industries. Commercial Back can be described as a financial institution, that offers basic investment products like a savings account, current account, etc to the individuals and corporates.

Question 8.
What are the specific banking institutions of India?
Answer:
The specific banking institutions of India are :

Industrial Development Bank of India
Industrial Finance Corporation of India
Land Development Banks
Co-operative Banks
Regional Rural Banks
National Bank For Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Export-Import Bank (Exim Bank),

Question 9.
What do you mean by consumer protection? What are its main methods?
Answer:
Consumers’ protection means to prevent the exploitation of the consumers from the unfair trade practices of the producers of consumer goods.

Consumer protection methods are:

MRTP Act was passed in 1969.
Consumer Protection Act 1986 was passed.
Consumers’ Disputes Redressal forums have been established.

Question 10.
Write a short note on Public Distribution System.
Answer:
Through Public Distribution System, Government distributes the necessities of life; like foodgrains, sugar, kerosene, coarse cloth etc. at concessional prices through Fair Price Shops at fixed quantities to the general public especially to the poor sections of the society.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by infrastructure? Why- is it required?
Answer:
Infrastructure is that part of the capital stock of the economy which is necessary from the viewpoint of providing various kinds of services. In other words infrastructure means those activities, facilities and services which are helpful in the operation and development of other sectors for example, Roads, Rails and Buses offering transport services. Canals and dams facilitating irrigation, etc.

It is required for the development of the country. Infrastructure like electricity, transport and communication are important for the development of every country.

Lack of infrastructure facilities will create hurdles in the development of industries and agriculture sectors. As a result of it their rate of growth will come down. Therefore, in every underdeveloped country there is a need of availability of infrastructure in a sufficient quantity which will be helpful in acceleration of their development.

Infrastructure is required to increase production and decrease cost.

Question 2.
What are the main kinds of infrastructure in India? Explain.
Answer:
That part of the capital stock of the economy which provides direct services to the system of production and distribution is called the economic infrastructure of the economy.

The main constituents of economic infrastructure in India are as follows :

Transport and Communication
Electric Power
Irrigation
Banking and other Financial Institutions.

Economic infrastructure like transport, communication, power, irrigation, banking etc. have played a very important role in the economic development of our country.

Question 3.
What are main monetary institutions of India?
Answer:
The main monetary institutions in India are:

Moneylenders
Reserve Bank of India
Commercial Banks
Specialised Banking Institutions :
(a) Industrial Development Bank of India
(b) Regional Rural Banks
(c) Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank)
(d) Land Development Banks
(e) Co-operative Banks
(f) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
(g) Industrial Finance Corporation of India etc.
Non-Banking Financial Institutions:
(a) Unit Trust of India
(b) Life Insurance Corporation of India
Stock Exchanges.

Question 4.
What do you mean by consumer exploitation? What are the main methods of consumer protection?
Answer:
Consumers exploitation means the exploitation of the consumers from unfair trade practices of the producers of consumer goods. Trading classes are putting their all out efforts to exploit the consumers as they are the most confused and unorganised persons in modern Indian Economy. Adulteration, substandard packed goods, use of non-standard weights or misleading and fabricated advertisements are such activities which exploit the consumers to a large extent.

Methods of Consumers’ Protection. In order to protect consumers’ interest, the govt, has enacted the following legislations:

Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
The Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976.
The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1976. ‘
The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969.
The Prevention of Black Marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980.
Consumers’ Protection Act, 1986.

In order to redress the grievances of the consumers at very low expenses and for their early disposal ‘Consumer Disputes Redressal Forums’ have been established at the district, state and national levels. Along with this, consumer protection councils have also been established to protect the interest of the consumers. They can lodge a complaint. Besides this consumer education and consumer organisations also play a vital role to protect the interests of the consumers.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Public Distribution System? Explain the present position of Public Distribution System in India.
Answer:
Public distribution system signifies a system through which the govt, of a country makes provision to supply essential items like foodgrains, sugar, kerosene, etc. to its people, especially the poor people, in fixed quantity at controlled prices through fair price shops.

There are three main constituents of public distribution system in India :
1. Public Procurement System. In 1988, over 14 million tonnes of foodgrains were procured by the govt, at procurement prices. In 2006, this figure rose to 26.4 million tonnes.

2. Buffer Stock. Black-marketing in the foodgrains can be checked if the govt, has buffer stock of foodgrains and adequate storage facilities. In India, we have many warehouses in the public sector. Important among them are the warehouses of Food Corporation of India. The Corporation has got its warehouses throughout India. It stores agricultural goods and releases stock under public distribution system.

3. Fair-Price Shops. The system of public distribution in India operates fairly successfully through a network of fair-price shops selling foodgrains, sugar, kerosene and soft coke. At present, we are having around 4.37 lakh fair price shops. In 1988, 23 million tonnes of foodgrains and in 2006,26.8 million tonnes of foodgrains were distributed through these fair-price shops.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Infrastructure of the Indian Economy Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line :

Question 1.
Define Consumer.
Answer:
When we buy and use any commodity we become consumer.

Question 2.
State any one component of economic infrastructure.
Answer:
Irrigation.

Question 3.
Name any one mode of Transport in India.
Answer:
Railway.

Question 4.
Which are the two main modes of Irrigation in India?
Answer:
Rain and Rivers.

Question 5.
When was R.B.I. established?
Answer:
1935.

Question 6.
When was Consumer Protection Act established?
Answer:
1986.

Question 7.
State any one function of R.B.I.
Answer:
It issues notes.

Question 8.
State the name of the apex bank of India.
Answer:
R.B.I.

Question 9.
State any one specific banking institution in India.
Answer:
NABARD.

Question 10.
State the full form of P.D.S.
Answer:
Public Distribution System.

Question 11.
Name one infrastrucuture of the economy.
Answer:
Transport.

Question 12.
What is stock exchange?
Answer:
Where securities are bought and sold.

Question 13.
Name the non-banking financial institution in India.
Answer:
L.I.C.

Question 14.
Name any one multipurpose project in India.
Answer:
The Bhakra-Nangal project.

Question 15.
Name one public sector shipping company in India.
Answer:
Mugal lines.

Question 16.
Name the important mean of communication.
Answer:
Telephone.

Question 17.
Name the source of electric power.
Answer:
Thermal Power.

Question 18.
What is a commercial bank?
Answer:
It generally gives short term loans.

Question 19.
What is the objective of multipurpose river valley projects?
Answer:
Production of hydro electricity.

Question 20.
State any one feature of Consumers’ Protection Act, 1986.
Answer:
To seek redressal against unfair trade practices.

Question 21.
State any One cause for the need of PDS.
Answer:
Inadequate shortage and marketing facilities.

Question 22.
What is Irrigation?
Answer:
It means providing the necessary water to the cultivable land.

Question 23.
Name some infrastructures of the economy.
Answer:
Transport and communication, power, irrigation, banking and financial institutiolis, Education, Health and family welfare, housing and other civic amenities.

Question 24.
What is meant by economic infrastructure?
Answer:
That part of the capital stock of the economy which is necessary for providing-the different types of direct services to the system of production and distribution is called the economic infrastructure of the economy.

Question 25.
What is meant by transport system of a given country?
Answer:
All those means which help in the transportation of goods and people from one place to another constitute the transport system of a country.

Question 26.
Name the important means of communication.
Answer:
Postal services, telegram, telephone, radio, television, newspapers, etc.

Question 27.
Name two public sector shipping companies in India.
Answer:

Shipping Corporation of India and
Mugal Line.

Question 28.
Name any two multipurpose projects in India.
Answer:

The Bhakra-Nangal Project and
The Damodar Valley Project.

Question 29.
Name any one specialised banking institution in India.
Answer:
Industrial Development Bank of India.

Question 30.
Name the important non-banking financial institutions in India.
Answer:

Unit Trust of India and
Life Insurance Corporation of India.

Question 31.
What is meant by Stock Exchange?
Answer:
A market in which securities are bought and sold is known as stock exchange or share market.

Question 32.
Write any one main function of R.B.I.
Answer:
To issue notes.

Question 33.
What is meant by Consumer Education?
Answer:
By consumer education we mean the education to be imparted to the consumers which may enable them to safeguard their interest and help them to become rational consumers.

Question 34.
Name the important means of transport.
Answer:
Railways, Road, Water and Air transport are the main means of transport.

Question 35.
Name the sources of electric power.
Answer:
Thermal power-, Hydel power and Nuclear power are the sources of power in India.

Question 36.
What are the sources of irrigation?
Answer:
Rainfall, Wells, Tubewells, Ponds are the main sources of irrigation.

Question 37.
What is the name of Central Bank of India?
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India.

Question 38.
When was R.B.I established?
Answer:
1935.

Question 39.
What are Commercial Banks?
Answer:
Commercial Banks are those banks which generally give short term loan.

Question 40.
Name two Non-Banking institutions.
Answer:
L.I.C., U.T.I.

Question 41.
When was Consumer Protection Act launched?
Answer:
1986.

Question 42.
What do you mean by Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Supply of essential commodities to the people through government agencies is known as Public Distribution System.

Question 43.
Which is one mode of Electric power in India?
Answer:
Thermal Power.

Question 44.
What are the major sources of Power in India?
Answer:
The major sources of Power in India are:

Thermal Power
Nuclear Power
Hydel Power.

Question 45.
How many commercial banks are nationalised?
Answer:
In 1969, fourteen banks were nationalised, 6 more banks were nationalized inl980 which accounted for 20. But now its number is 19.

Question 46.
Write the name of India’s Central Bank.
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
RBI was established in ___________ (1945 / 1935)
Answer:
1935

Question 2.
When we use any commodity we become__________(Producer / Consumer)
Answer:
Consumer

Question 3.
Consumer Protection Act was estabhshed in_________year. (1985 / 1986)
Answer:
1986

Question 4.
_______ is the Apex Bank of India. (SBI / RBI)
Answer:
RBI

Question 5.
________ gives short terms loans. (Central bank / Commercial bank)
Answer:
Commercial bank

Question 6.
NABARD was estabhshed in_______year. (1982 / 1999)
Answer:
1982

Question 7.
Irrigation is a component of __________ infrastructure. (Social / Economic)
Answer:
economic

Question 8.
_______ issues notes in a country. (RBI / SBI)
Answer:
RBI.

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
State any one function of RBI.
(a) Note issue
(b) Bank of the Govt.
(c) Banker’s Bank
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 2.
When was RBI established?
(a) 1925
(b) 1935
(c) 1945
(d), 1955.
Answer:
(b) 1935

Question 3.
When was Consumer Protection Act established?
(a) 1980
(b) 1982
(c) 1986
(d) 1988.
Answer:
(c) 1986

Question 4.
When was NABARD established?
(a) 1982
(b) 1986
(c) 1988
(d) 1989.
Answer:
(a) 1982

Question 5.
Which is the Central Bank of India?
(a) SBI
(b) PNB
(c) RBI
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) RBI

Question 6.
What are the main components of economic infrastructure in India?
(a) Banking
(b) Electric power
(c) Irrigation
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 7.
What are the specific Banking Institutions in India?
(a) Regional Rural Bank
(b) NABARD
(c) Exim Bank
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 8.
PDS stands for :
(a) Public Demand Supply
(b) Public Distribution System
(c) Private Demand and supply
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Public Distribution System

True / False :

Question 1.
RBI was estabhshed in 1935.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
SBI is the apex bank of India.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
There are three sources of electricity in India.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
NABARD was estabhshed in 1992.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
COPRA was implemented in 1986.
Answer:
True

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the need for infrastructure?
Answer:
The prosperity of a country depends directly upon the development of agriculture and industry. Agricultural production, however requires power, credit transport facilities etc. Industrial production requires not only machinery and equipment but also skilled man-power, management, energy .banking facilities, marketing faclities, transport services, communication facilities etc.All these facilities and services constitute collectively the infrastructure of the economy and the development and expansion of these facilities are an essential pre-condition for increasing agricultural and industrial production in a country.

Question 2.
What is the importance of means of transport in a given economy?
Answer:
Transportation is the most important constituent of economic infrastructure. It helps trade,commerce and industry. Transportation connects one place with the other. It reduces regional imbalances. It carries passengers and goods. It adds directly to our economic structure i.e. the process of production and distribution. It has been rightly said that “If agriculture and industry are regarded as the body and bones of the economy, transport constitutes its nerves.”

Question 3.
Write a short note on Railways as a means of transport in India.
Answer:
In India railway services were started on April 16,1853 when the first train was run between Bombay (Muihbai) and Thane. Now Indian railways are first in Asia and fourth in the world. Indian railways have a route length of nearly 62,759 kilometres. Indian railways rim 13,000 trains everyday connecting 7056 railway stations.

Question 4.
Write a short note on air transport in India.
Answer:
Air transport is the fastest and costliest means of transportation. There are two public sector companies for air transportation in India-Indian Air Lines Corporation and Air India International. Some private sector companies have also been established sincel992. There are four international aerodromes in India at Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. In recent years, important policy decisions have been taken to speed up the development of civil aviation in the country.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Communication system in India.
Answer:
The Communication system comprises posts and telegraphs, telecommunication system, broadcasting, television and information services. Since 1950-51, the postal network has been expanded throughout the country, and in recent years, with special emphasis on the rural, hilly and tribal areas. As far as the telecommunications are concerned, India has a network comprising over 18,000 exchanges with a capacity of 84 lakh lines and 72 lakh working telephones. The network has been expanding at an annual rate of 15 to 17 per cent. The outlay for the telecommunication in the Ninth Plan was over? 30,000 crore.

Question 6.
Highlight the main sources of power in India.
Answer:
There are three main sources of power in India:

Thermal power stations-using coal or oil.
Hydro-electric power stations-using potential power of fast-flowing rivers or high dams.
Nuclear power or atomic power-India is one of the few countries which have developed their nuclear capacities. At present, we are having five atomic power stations.

In our economy, we traditionally had thermal power which still accounts for the largest part of our electricity generation. With the emergence of the great multi-purpose river- valley projects, we have also developed hydroelectric power on a big scale. Finally, we also went in for nuclear power.

The priority for power distribution in our economy is shifting to the rural areas.

Question 7.
What are the objectives of multi-purpose river-valley projects?
Answer:
Multi-purpose projects are so named as they aim at serving several purposes at one and the same time. The important objectives of these multi-purpose river-valley projects are :

Production of hydroelectricity.
To help in storing water, which can be used for irrigation at the time of need.
To prevent erosion of soil and conserve land.
To promote fish rearing and navigation.
To help in checking floods.
To promote tourism in the country, etc.

Question 8.
Highlight the various features of the Consumers’ Protection Act, 1986.
Answer:
Consumers’ Protection Act, 1986 is the latest act which safeguards the interests of the consumers in the following ways :

Protects against the marketing of commodities hazardous to life and property.
Informs about the quality, purity, potency, weight and price of the commodity.
Ensures the availability of goods at a competitive price.
Seeks redressal against unfair trade practices.
Provides setting up of:
(a) Consumers’ forum at district level.
(b) State forum and commission at state level.
(c) National Consumers’ Grievances Redressal Cell at national level.

Question 9.
Write a short note on need for public distribution system in India.
Answer:
The forces of demand and supply do not always achieve the socially desirable objectives, so it becomes necessary that the Govt, should interfere in the production and distribution of commodities.

The necessity of public distribution system in India is because of the following reasons:

Limited resources and means of production.
Inadequate production.
Inadequate storage and marketing facilities.
Corrupt practices of producers and traders i.e. hoarding and black-marketing.
Inequality of income and poverty leading to starvation.

Question 10.
Briefly describe the economic infrastructure of transport in India.
Answer:
Transport. After the railways, the principal mode of transport in our economy is the roadways. In fact, over the last two decades, the heavy trucks on our highways linking the main industrial centres have become quite a match for the railways in many spheres. Passenger bus services also compete successfully with the railways in many regions. All this has come about mainly because of the improved network of well-made roads that make up a new and important part of our economic infrastructure today.

Besides railways and roads, our economy is served by coastal shipping, inland waterways and, of course, domestic airlines as the other modes of inland transportation. International shipping is handled by the major ports of the country like Mumbai, Kolkata, Haldia, Chennai, Mangalore, Marmugao and Vishakhapatnam and many minor ports. The Air India and other international airlines operate through the airports maintained by the International Airports Authority of India.

Question 11.
Describe the economic infrastructure of Power in India.
Answer:
The rate at which electric power is consumed by an economy is often an index of its state of industrialisation. The power produced and consumed per head of population in our country is very low indeed, but it is rising fast. This is an indication that modern industries are growing in the economy and the country is developing.

In our economy, we traditionally had thermal power which still accounts for the largest part of our electricity generation. With the emergence of the great multi-purpose river- valley projects we also developed hydro-electric power on a big scale. Finally, we also went in for nuclear power.

The priority for power distribution in our economy is shifting to the rural areas.

Question 12.
Describe the economic infrastructure of Irrigation in India.
Answer:
Irrigation provides an important input in the production of most crops, particularly in areas where rains are scarce or highly irregular. For centuries our economy has depended on fairly extensive systems of man-made irrigation besides natural irrigation for agriculture. We have dug wells, tanks and canals not only for the supply of our drinking water but also for watering our cultivated land from time immemorial. But whether natural or man-made, irrigation in most parts of our country has always been partially rain-fed. Rains, however, in India are mostly seasonal and dependent on the monsoons and the monsoons, till this day, are one of the world’s most difficult to understand weather phenomena. Thus, inspite of the introduction of modem technology and management techniques, Indian agriculture still is a gamble, though the magnitude of the uncertainty has diminished.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the role of transport in economic development.
Answer:
Role of Transport in Economic Development:
Transport, as said, is called as the lifeline of the country. It has a vast impact on the economic development of the country. The importance of transport with reference to economy is as follows :

Means of transport enable the maximum use of the resources because the movement of the sources is possible to the various parts of the country.
With the help of transport we can grow new markets and specialization as resources can be moved from different areas of the world.
Labour and capital become mobile. As a result the regional imbalances are removed.
Due to transport means the agricultural sector has been transferred.
Due to means of transport industries have been developed as they require cheap, best and faster means of transport for their growth.
Due to easy means of transport there has been a manifold increase in the encouragement to the tourism department.
Due to means of transport the gaps between the places have been narrowed and it has improved the social relationships.
Means of transport are of strategic importance as they provide internal security as well as external security.
Means of transport help in checking the fluctuation in prices thereby maintaining the economic stability.
Hence, we can conclude that thinking of economic activities in the absence of means of transport will be such as flowers without fragrance.

Question 2.
Explain the main functions of central bank.
Answer:
The main functions of central bank are as follows :

Bank of note issue. In the modern time, issuing of notes is the main function of central bank of every country in the world. Central bank has the monopoly in this regard. In India, RBI issues notes as a central bank of the country except one rupee note which is issued by the ministry of finance, government of India.
Banker, Agent and Advisor to the Government. The central bank acts as a banker, agent and advisor to the government.
Bankers’ Bank. Central bank acts as a banker of all other banks in the country. Central bank keeps relation with the banks in the same way as commercial banks keep relation with their customers.
Lender to the Last Resort. In a time of crisis, the central bank acts as a lender to the last resort. It provides loans to commercial banks when they are in deep trouble.
Custodian of the Foreign Exchange Reserves. The central bank acts as a custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country.
Custodian of Cash Reserves of the commercial banks. The central bank also keeps the cash reserves of the commercial banks.
Bank of central clearance, settlement, and transfer. A central bank is an institution where all the transactions of commercial banks are cleared, settled, and transferred very easily.
Control of credit. The central bank has got so many instruments to control credit like bank rate, open market operation, change in cash reserve ratio, credit rationing, moral persuasion, and direct actions, etc.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Office Tools

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 1 Office Tools Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 1 Office Tools

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Office Tools Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which tool is used to maintain a budget, financial statements, and sales records?
(a) Multimedia
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Presentation
(d) Database
Answer:
(b) Spreadsheet

Question 2.
Word automatically inserts a page break when we reach the ………… of a page.
(a) Starting
(b) End
(c) Mid of page
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) End

Question 3.
As we type our document, …………. wavy lines will appear under any word that is spelled incorrectly.
(a) Blue
(b) White
(c) Red
(d) Black
Answer:
(c) Red

Question 4.
The most common types of effects include entrances and exits.
(a) Animation
(b) Sound Effect
(c) Design
(d) Transition
Answer:
(a) Animation

Question 5
…………. is the blank space around the edges of the page.
(a) Graphics
(b) Design
(c) Margin
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Margin

2. Fill in the Blanks

1. Computer software is classified into two categories ………. and ………….
Answer:
System software and Application software

2. Database software is a collection of related data. The purpose of this tool is to ………… and ………. data.
Answer:
Organize and Manage

3. We can choose either ……….. (vertical) or ………….. (horizontal) orientation for all or part of our document.
Answer:
Portrait or Landscape

4. The image file extensions supported by PowerPoint include ………… TIFF (.tiff) and Bitmap (.bmp)
Answer:
JPEG (.jpg),GIF

5. Multimedia software is tool that allows the user to create ……….. and …………. with the help of media players and real players.
Answer:
Audio and Videos.

3. True or False

Question 1.
The main purpose of Spread sheet tool is to produce documents.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Application software is software that can perform a specific task for the user
Answer:
True

Question 3.
We can drag existing tab stops left or right along the ruler to a different position.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Print Preview automatically displays when we click on the Print tab.
Answer:
True

4. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write extension of Word document in Ms Office 2010.
Answer:
.docx

Question 2.
Write extension of Spread Sheet in Ms Office 2010.
Answer:
.xlsx

Question 3.
Write extension of Power Point Presentation Ms Office 2010.
Answer:
.pptx

Question 4.
Write the full form of bmp (Image file).
Answer:
BitMaP

Question 5.
Write the full form of PDF.
Answer:
Portable Document Format

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 1 Office Tools

5. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define System Software?
Answer:
System software are the set of software which are used for the working of computer system and its hardware. It includes operating system, language translators etc.

Question 2.
Explain database software?
Answer:
Database is a collection of related data. The purpose of database tools is to organize and manage data. The advantage of these tools is that we can change the way data is stored and displayed. SQL Server, MS access, data Base, FoxPro, Paradox, and Oracle are some of the examples of database software tools.

Question 3.
Explain multimedia software.
Answer:
Media players and real players are the examples of multimedia tools. These tools allow the user to create audio and video files. The different forms of multimedia tools are audio converters, audio and video players, video encoders and decoders.

Question 4.
What is Page Break? How to insert a page break?
Answer:
Page break is a way to tell MS word that the page has ended. These can be automatic and manual.
Inserting a Page Break:
1. Click where we want to start a new page.
2. On the Insert tab, in toe pages group, click Page Break.
We can also insert breaks into our document by going to the Insert tab, Pages group and clicking on the Page Breaks command to view a variety of page.

6. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is office tool ? Explain any five types of office tools?
Answer:
Office tools are software programs designed to make computer users more productive and efficient at our workplace. Office productivity tool is a category of application programs that help users produce things such as documents, databases, graphs, worksheets and presentations.

Types of office tools are-
1. Word Processing Tools:
The main purpose of word processing tools is to produce good looking documents. MS-Word, WordPad, Notepad and Adobe Pagemaker are some of the examples of word processing tools.

2. Database Software Tools:
Database is a collection of related data. The purpose of database tools is to organize and manage data. The advantage of these tools is that we can change the way data is stored and displayed. SQL Server, MS access, dataBase, FoxPro, Paradox, and Oracle are some of the examples of database software tools.

3. Spreadsheet Tools:
The spreadsheet tools are used to make calculations, maintain budget, financial statements, and sales records. The purpose of these tools is to work with numbers. It allows the users to perform simple as well as complex calculations on the numbers. MS-Excel, Open Office are examples of spreadsheet tools.

4. Presentation Tool:
Presentation tools are used to display the information in the form of slide shows. The main functions of presentation tools is editing that allows insertion and formatting of text, including graphics in the text and executing the slide shows. The examples for these tools are Microsoft PowerPoint, Open Office Present.

5. Multimedia Software:
Media players and real players are the examples of multimedia tools. These tools allow the user to create audio and video files. The different forms of multimedia tools are audio converters, audio and video players, video encoders and decoders.

Question 2.
Write steps to create Student Annual Report using mail merge with spreadsheet?
Answer:
Student Annual Report can be created using MS Word and MS Excel using following steps:
1. Prepare the annual report format in MS word. Mention student’s detail like admission no, roll no, name, father’s name, marks of each subject, overall result and percentage of marks of student.

2. On the other side, prepare a excel worksheet, in which student’s admission no, roll no, name, father’s name, subject-wise marks obtained in subjects Punjabi, English, Maths, Science, Social Studies and grades etc. are-entered.

3. Next calculate the percentage of marks of each student using a formula.

4. Now, click on Mailing Tab, and start mail merge. Then, choose Letter option which we already prepared.

5. Next Click on Select Recipients and select Use Existing List option. Choose excel sheet from Select Table dialog box and click OK.

6. Place the cursor where you want to insert the value of field from excel sheet. Now go to Insert Merge Field option in Write & Insert Fields group. A dropdown menu will be displayed having field names.

7. Select the field names one by one after placing the cursor in proper place in the student annual report. All fields will be displayed.

8. After inserting all the clicking Preview Results next and previous button, you can preview the result of students by option.

9. Now click on Finish & Merge option and select Edit Individual Documents from the menu. A dialog box Merge to New Document will open. Choose option All and click OK to show the report card of all the students in excel worksheet.

10. Now a new Word document will open having report card of all the students. Save this document and we can also take printouts.

Question 3.
What are Tab Stops? Explain setting manual tab stops.
Answer:
Tabs are the facility which help to display the content in more structured and tabular form without using tables.
Setting up the Tab Stops:
1. Click the tab selector at the left end of the ruler it displays the type of tab that you want.
2. Click in the ruler at the top of our page, where we want to set the tab stop.
The different types of tab stops are:

Left Tab stop sets the start position of text that will then run to the right as we type.
Center Tab stop sets the position of the middle of the text. The text centers on this position as we type.
Right Tab stop Sets the right end of the text. As we type, the text moves to the left.
Decimal Tab stop aligns numbers around a decimal point. Independent of the number of digits, the decimal point will be in the same position. (We can align numbers around a decimal character only)

Bar Tab stop doesn’t position text. It inserts a vertical bar at the tab position. Desired Tab stop will be placed at the point in the present paragraph.

Question 4.
Explain Print Preview and Print Command?
Answer:
Print Preview. Print Preview displays the document as it will appear when printed. When we make a change to a print-related setting, the preview is automatically updated. To print preview of the document, following steps are used:
Click the File tab, and then click Print. To go back to our document, click the File tab.
A preview of our document automatically appears. To view each page, click the arrows below the preview.
Print Command. Print command is used to print a document using some printer. Following steps are followed to print a document in
MS-Word:

Click the File tab.
Click the Print command to print a document.
Click the Print button to print our document.
This dropdown shows the currently selected printer. Clicking the dropdown will display other available printers.
These dropdown menu show currently selected gettings.
Select the printer and other setting and click on Print.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Office Tools Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What are the types in which PowerPoint files can be saved?
(a) PDF
(b) Video file
(c) Presentation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
What are the extension of an image file?
(a) .jPg
(b) .gif
(c) .bmp
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
Which one is system software?
(a) Word
(b) Excel
(c) Windows
(d) PowerPoint
Answer:
(c) Windows

Question 4.
Mail merge is a feature of which software?
(a) Word
(b) Excel
(c) Windows
(d) PowerPoint
Answer:
(c) Windows

Question 5.
Which one is not a type of office tools?
(a) Word Processing
(b) DBMS
(c) Multimedia Software
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Fill In The Blanks

1. Word processing tool prepares ………….. .
Answer:
Documents

2. Theme helps to choose ……………… in PowerPoint.
Answer:
Background

3. …………. is pre defined document structure.
Answer:
Template

4. ……………is used for calculation.
Answer:
Excel.

True Or False

Question 1.
Application software is used for specific work
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Any document can have two orientations.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Presentation can be saved as PDF.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
We cannot do calculations in Excel.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Page margins are empty space in mid of page.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the different type of Softwares?
Answer:
System Software and Application Software.

Question 2.
Beneficial software for our work are called?
Answer:
Office tools.

Question 3.
Note pad is an example of?
Answer:
Word processing tool.

Question 4.
Give an example of spreadsheet software.
Answer:
MS Excel.

Question 5.
PowerPoint is an example of?
Answer:
Presentation tool.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question l.
What are Page Margins?
Answer:
Page margins pre the blank space around the edges of the page. In general, we insert text and graphics in the printable area inside the margins. When we change a document’s page margins, we change where text and graphics appear on each page.

Question 2.
Write steps of setting predefined page margins.
Answer:

On the Page Layout tab, in the Page Setup group, click Margins. The margins gallery dropdown menu Will appear.
Click the margin type that we want to apply

Question 3.
Write steps to change Page Orientation.
Answer:

On the Page Layout tab, in the Page Setup group, click Orientation.
Click Portrait or Landscape.

Question 4.
Write steps to apply different page orientations.
Answer:
1. Select the pages or paragraphs that we want to change to portrait or landscape orientation.
2. On the Page Layout tab, in the Page Setup group, click Margins.

Click Custom Margins at the bottom of the dropdown menu.
A Page Setup dialog box will appear.
On the Margins tab, click Portrait or Landscape.
In the Apply to list, click Selected text or This point forward.

Question 5.
Write steps to apply custom margins.
Answer:

On the Page Layout tab, in the Page Setup group, click Margins.
At the bottom of the margins gallery dropdown menu, click Custom Margins.
The Page Setup dialog box will appear.
Enter new values for the margins in all or some of the top, bottom, left or right text boxes.
Click OK.

Question 6.
Write steps to save presentation as PDF.
Answer:
Steps to save a presentation as a pdf file are:

Go to the backstage view under the File tab.
Click on Save As to open the Save As dialog.
Add a proper name to the file.
Select the file type as. .pdf from the list of supported file types and click save.
The .pdf file is created in the specified location.

Question 7.
Explain PPT broadcast slide show.
Answer:
PowerPoint 2010 offers users to broadcast their presentations on the internet to audience worldwide. Microsoft offers the free broadcast Slide Show service; all we need to do is share the link with our audience and they can watch the presentation from anywhere. There is no special setup or charges required to do this, all we need is a Windows Live account.

Question 8.
What is PPT Packaging Presentation?
Answer:
Certain presentations are better suited for distribution as a CD to audience. In such cases, we can create a CD packaging which can be burned into a CD and distributed. These CDs are called PPT packaging presentation.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write steps to save a presentation as a Video file.
Answer:
Saving Presentation as Video File:
PowerPoint allows presentations to be saved as files that can be posted on video sharing platform like YouTube or just played on any other-media.
Steps to save a presentation as a video file are:

Go to the backstage view under the File tab.
Click on Save As to open the Save As dialog.
Add a proper name to the file.
Select the file type as .wmv from the list of supported file types and click Save.
The video creation is not an instant process like other file types as PowerPoint needs to create the video file. We can track the progress of video creation at the bottom of our presentation window.
Once the creation is complete, the video file is created in the specified location.

Question 2.
What are the steps of clearing Tab stops.
Answer:
Clear Tab Stops:
We can clear tab stops in a variety of ways, the simplest is going to the ruler, click and hold on the tab stop and drag in down towards the document. The tab stop will disappear. To quickly clear multiple tab stops and start fresh:

Click the Home tab, click the Paragraph Dialog Box Launcher.
A Paragraph box will appear, click on the Tabs button at the bottom left of the dialog box.

A Tabs dialog box will appear.
In the list under Tab stop position, click the tab stop position that we want to clear, and then click Clear. To remove the spacing from all manual tab stops, click Clear All.
Click OK.

Question 3.
What are the ways to use Spell Check feature?
Answer:
Using the “Spell Check” Feature:
As we type our document, red wavy lines will appear under any word that is spelled incorrectly. The fastest way to fix spelling errors is to:

Put the cursor over the misspelled word and right click.
A drop down box will appear with correct spellings of the word.
Highlight and left click the word you want to replace the incorrect word with.

To complete a more comprehensive Spelling and Grammar check, we can use the Spelling and Grammar feature:

Click on the Review tab.
Click on the Spelling & Grammar command.
A Spelling and Grammar box will appear.
We can correct any Spelling or Grammar issue within the box.

Question 4.
Write steps to print a document.
Answer:
Print Command:
The Print tab is the place to go to make sure that we are printing what we want.

Click the File tab.
Click the Print command to print a document.
Click the Print button to print your document.
This dropdown shows the currently selected printer. Clicking the dropdown will display other available printers.
These dropdown menu show currently selected Settings. Rather than just showing us the name of a feature,, these dropdown menu show us what the status of a feature is and describes it.

Question 5.
Write a note on Transition in PowerPoint.
Answer:
Transitions in MS – Power Point:
PowerPoint supports slide transition feature which allows us to specify how the slides should transition during the slide show.
PowerPoint presentation that had special effects between each slide, are slide transitions. A transition can be as simple as fading to the next slide or as complex as a flashy effect. This means we can choose transitions to fit the style of any presentation. There are three categories of unique transitions to choose from, all of which can be found on the Transitions tab:

1. Subtle (slight transitions)
2. Exciting (Strong Transition)
3. Dynamic Content (strong transitions that affect only the content, such as text or images)
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 1 Office Tools 5
The steps to add and preview slide transitions are:
1. Select the slide to which we want to apply the transition.
2. Go to the Transition Scheme under the Transitions ribbon.

3. Select one of the transition schemes from the list available. PowerPoint will instantly show us a preview of the scheme. If we are not satisfied, we can pick an alternate scheme. The last selected scheme will apply to the slide.

4. We can change the effects on the selected transition scheme from the Effect Options menu. Every scheme has a unique set of effect options.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 1 Office Tools 7
We can also modify the transition timing settings from-the Timing section. To preview the slide transition, click on Preview.