Class 10 – Page 15 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Industrial Development in India

October 11, 2024October 10, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Industrial Development in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Industrial Development in India

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Industrial Development in India Textbook Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give any two examples of basic industries.
Answer:
Basic industries are those industries which provide necessary inputs to agriculture and industries. Iron and steel, chemical fertilizers are the examples of basic industries.

Question 2.
What is meant by Cottage industries?
Answer:
Cottage industries are those industries which are completely or partially run by the members of a family either as a whole time business or as a part time business.

Question 3.
State one difficulty of small scale industry.
Answer:
Problem of raw material and power.

Question 4.
What is meant by Small Scale Industry?
Answer:
Smalll Scale Industry is designed on different basis but since 1977 all those factories were included in Small Scale industries which have an investment of ₹ 3 crore in fixed Capital.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the reasons behind the need’for rapid.and balanced industrialisation in India.
Answer:
The reasons behind the need for rapid and balanced industrialisation in India are the following :
1. Increase in National Income. Development of industries leads to an increase in national income. History has witnessed the fact that the development of industries has broken the chains of poverty by increasing the income of the countries.

2. Capital Formation. Due to development of industries, national income is increased and thereby savings are also increased and are necessary for capital formation. As a result, the economic development of the country is further increased.

3. Less Pressure of Population on Land. Employment opportunities are increased due to the development of industries. With this the pressure of population on land can be reduced.

4. Agricultural Development. Industrialization also helps in the development of agriculture. In fact, rapid industrialisation is must for the rapid development of agriculture.

5. Self-dependence. Less developed countries like India are dependent upon other countries for the fulfilment of most of their requirements. With the help of industrialization the country can be made self-reliant by producing these goods in the country. This helps in the saving of foreign currency. Self-reliance is also most important for the safety of the country.

6, Production of Socially Useful Goods. With rapid industrialisation Indian economy can be made more sound. Through industrialisation the production of essential goods like cloth, cycles, electric goods, paper, oil, etc. has become possible.

7. Help in Establishment of Balanced Economy. Industrialisation helped in making the economy a balanced one by reducing the dependence on agriculture.

Due to all these reasons there is great need for rapid industrialization in India.

Question 2.
What are the small scale and cottage industries in India? What are their problems?
Answer:
The cottage industry is that industry which is carried by the members of a family under one roof as a part-time or full-time business. As these industries are generally carried in villages, these are also called as rural industries.

As per the new definition, all those firms which have the investment of ₹ 1 crore are included in small scale industries.

Problems of Small Scale and Cottage Industries
The various problems of small scale and cottage industries are as follows :

Problem of raw material and energy. The small scale and cottage industries face the problem of inadequate supply of raw-materials. Also, the available raw-material is poor in quality and highly priced. As a result, the cost of production increases. These industries also face the problem of shortage of electricity, power and coal. ,
Problem of Capital. In India the small scale and cottage industries are not able to receive adequate finance. These industries have to depend upon the local financers who charge a high rate of interest.
Old methods of production. Mostly old methods of production are adopted in these industries due to which these industries have low’ productivity and high per unit cost.
Problems regarding sale. The industries have to face many problems to sell their output at reasonable prices.
Competition with large industries. Another problem of these industries is the competition with large industries. In large industries the products are cheap, good and homogeneous. Therefore the products of small scale industries cannot compete with the products of large industries.

Question 3.
What is the importance of small scale and cottage industries in India?
Answer:
The importance of small scale and cottage industries in India is clear by the following facts :
1. More Employment. In India the problem of increasing unemployment can only be solved by developing small and cottage industries. Population is increasing at a rapid rate in India but employment opportunities have not risen in accordance with the rise in population. Indian agricultural community gets employment for only 6-7 months in a year. Therefore, farmers can work in small and cottage industries in their spare time.

2. Rapid increase in production. Small and cottage industries take less time for their est ablishment and for the production of commodities. With the help of these industries the production of goods and their supply can be increased rapidly and thereby demands of growing population can be fulfilled.

3. Development of villages. In India most of the population lives in villages. With the development of domestic industries the economic condition of the villages will improve. The living standard of the villagers will go up and there will be all-round development of their lives.

4. Equal Distribution of Wealth. With the establishment of large scale industries in a country there are very rich people on one hand and very poor on the other. A large proportion of wealth gets concentrated in a few hands.
With the widening of the gap between the rich and the poor, the peace and comfort of the society gets vanished. Therefore, in order to remove this problem, household industries should be developed.

5. Decentralization. The large scale industries have the tendency of centralization and they are concentrated in a few big cities. Centralization leads to many social evils. Due to this regional economic balance gets deteriorated and this situation is also dangerous from the viewpoint of safety. Therefore decentralisation of industries is very essential. The establishment of small scale and cottage industries is the best tool of decentralisation of industries,

6. Suitable for under-developed country like India. In India capital is scarce and workers are in abundance. Such type of industries are labour-intensive. Therefore in an under-developed country like India these industries are even more important.

Besides these industries have increased the production, exports, used the local resources, reduced the pressure of population on agriculture, produced the artistic goods, produced goods according to tastes, complementary to large industries and helped in overall developmerit.

Question 4.
Distinguish between small scale and cottage industries in India and suggest remedies to solve their problems.
Answer:
Difference between cottage and small scale industries.

Cottage industries are often situated in villages while small scale industries are mostly located in the cities.
Cottage industries can function with the help of family, members alone while in order to run small scale industries labourers are to be hired.
The use of energy and machines in cottage industries is almost negligible. But in small scale industries the use of power and machines is quite common. .
The cottage industries often satisfy the local needs while the small scale industries produce for urban and semi-urban areas. Therefore, the market for their produce is quite large.
Traditional goods like mats and shoes etc. are produced in cottage industries whereas modern goods like Radio, T.V., Electrical goods etc. are produced in small scale industries.

Suggestions for the solution of the problems of small scale and cottage industries:

These industries should be provided with the raw materials in adequate quantity and at reasonable prices.
These industries should get loans of adequate amounts at a reasonable interest rate.
These industries should be provided with adequate exchange facilities so that they can get adequate price for their product.
The methods of production used by these industries should be improved. By doing so their productivity will increase and cost per unit will be reduced.
In order to save these industries from competition with large industries, the government should provide protection to the small and cottage industries by reserving many items only for these industries.

Besides these the problems of these industries can be solved by establishment of district industries centre. Govt, should purchase the manufactured goods from these industries. Small scale industries must be given different types of tax incentives and other financial incentives.

The major problems of these industries can be solved by all these methods and can be put to the path of development.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of big industries.
Answer:
The contribution of large scale industries in the process of industrialization in a country is obvious from the following facts :

Production of Capitalistic and Basic Goods. The process of industrialization in a country requires capital goods and the production of capital goods is only possible by the large scale industries.
Economic Infrastructure. Industrialization requires basic economic structure. The establishment and production of basic economic structure is possible only by the large scale industries.
Research and High Technique, The necessary funds for the research and for able researchers can be generated only by the large scale industries.
Increase in Productivity. Per unit productivity is very much increased with the
establishment of large scale industries. Due to the rise in productivity the prices fall and the demand rises. Small and cottage industries are also developed. Therefore, tendency towards industrialization is increased in a country.
Establishment of Ancillary Industries. The establishment of large scale industries further encourages the establishment of many supplementary industries. For example, with the establishment of Maruti Udyog, many supplementary industries like rubber industry, plastic industry, power industry, etc. have been encouraged. These industries produce raw material for the Maruti Udyog. In this way industrialization is encouraged.

Question 6.
What are the reasons responsible for slow progress of industrialisation in India?
Answer:
In India, the rate of industrialization is slow because of the following reasons :

Scarcity of capital. The development of industries requires a great amount of capital. Most of the Indian population is poor. Therefore, the shortage of capital is the major cause of slow rate of industrialization in India.
Shortage of skilled workers. There is lack of skilled labourers in India. In fact to run the modern industries trained labour force is the foremost requirement.
Shortage of cheap Energy Resources. Cheap energy is required to run the industries. But in India there is lack of cheap energy resources.
Shortage of Efficient Management. The shortage of able managerial administrators is another cause of slow rate of industrialization in India.
Shortage of Raw Material. In India the raw material available for the industries is inadequate and of poor quality.
Poverty. India is a poor country. Due to poverty, savings are low’ and as a result investment is also low.
Shortage of Financial Organisations. There is lack of financial institutions in India. Therefore, industries do not get adequate finance at reasonable rate of interest. As a matter of fact, adequate finance is a pre-condition for the development of industries in any country.
Less Development of Transportation and Communication. Due to underdeveloped means of transportation and communication, the rate of industrialization has been low in the country. Due to all these factors the rate of growth of industrialization has been slow and low in India.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the role of government to encourage the development of industrialization in India.
Answer:
The role of government for encouragement of industrial development in India has been clear from the following facts:

More Credit Facilities. To speed up the industrial development Government has set up many financial institutions in the country for providing loans to industries. For example : IFC in 1948, NIDC in 1954, ICICI in 1955, IDBI in 1964 etc.
Establishment of Basic Industries. The Government of India has given more emphasis on the establishment of basic industries in order to increase the pace of economic development.
Development of Means of Transport and Power Sector. The means of transport have been developed tremendously which are very important for the industrial development. Cheap electric power is very much essential for industrial development. So Government has set up multipurpose projects and thermal power houses.
Export Promotion and Import Substitution. For this purpose Government had set up ‘Inventions Promotion Board’ in 1960 and ‘Import Substitution Board’ in 1966.
Industrialisation of Backward Areas. For the development of backward areas main stress is being given by the Government on the industrialisation of these areas.
Removal of Sick Industrial Units. Board of Industrial Finance and Reconstruction and National Renewal Fund were set up by the government for the renewal of sick industrial units.
New Industrial Policy and Industrial Development. In July 1991, revolutionary changes were made in industrial policy. The concept of liberalisation and globalisation was adopted in this regard. In this way by taking up the above mentioned steps by the government, industrial development has been encouraged a lot in India.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Industrial Development in India Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line :

Question 1.
State any one important factor needed for rapid industrialization in India.
Answer:
Modernisation.

Question 2.
Give any one example of basic Industries.
Answer:
Chemical industry.

Question 3.
What is the investment limit in Small Scale Industry?
Answer:
5 crores.

Question 4.
State one difficulty of Small Scale Industry.
Answer:
Problem of finance.

Question 5.
State one advantage of Small Scale Industry.
Answer:
Rapid increase,in production.

Question 6.
State one advantage of big industry.
Answer:
Production of capitalistic and basic goods.

Question 7.
What is the main reason responsible for slow progress of Industrialization?
Answer:
Scarcity of capital.

Question 8.
How much is the share of Industries production in GDP?
Answer:
About 26.1 %.

Question 9.
What is meant by Industrialization?
Answer:
It means all round industrial development of a country.

Question 10.
Give one reason as to why Small Industries should be given special treatment.
Answer:
Employment or equal distribution of income.

Question 11.
When was new industrial policy applied?
Answer:
In 1991.

Question 12.
Name any two industrial policies.
Answer:

Industrial policy of 1948.
Industrial policy of 1956.

Question 13.
In 1956 industrial policy resolution, how many industries were reserved for public sector?
Answer:
17 Industries.

Question 14.
Give the name of any big industry in India.
Answer:
Textile Industry.

Question 15.
Write any one problem of big industries in India.
Answer:
Industrial unrest.

Question 16.
What is the main feature of industrializati0l?
Answer:
Capital is widely used.

Question 17.
What is the feature of New industrial policy?
Answer:
Contraction of public sector.

Question 18.
Explain the concept of increase in industrial productivity during the Five Year Plans.
Answer:
There has been considerable growth of industrial production in the country under the Five Year Plans.

Question 19.
What do you mean by public enterprise, joint enterprise and private enterprise?
Answer:
Public enterprises are those enterprises which are governed by the government. Joint enterprises are those which are controlled jointly by the government and private sector. Private enterprises are those enterprises which are fully controlled by the private enterprises.

Question 20.
What are the main causes of decline of cottage industries in India?
Answer:

Inability of the cottage industries to compete with cheap and quality products of modern industries.
Inability to get cheap and adequate finance.

Question 21.
What has been done so far for the development of cottage industries?
Answer:

Khadi and Gramodyog Commission has been established which takes care of the major requirements of these industries.
Economic aid is provided to encourage their sale.

Question 22.
Give any one argument in favour of small scale and cottage industries in India.
Answer:
The small-scale and cottage industries are labour intensive. Therefore with the development of these industries there is high possibility of increasing employment opportunities.

Question 23.
What is meant by basic industries?
Answer:
The basic industries are those industries which provide the required inputs’to the agricultural and manufacturing industries.

Question 24.
What is meant by capital-goods industry?
Answer:
Those industries which provide the machinery and other equipments of production to the agricultural and manufacturing industries are called as capital-goods industries.

Question 25.
What is meant by intermediate goods industry?
Answer:
Those industries which manufacture those goods which are further used for the production are known as intermediate goods industry.

Question 26.
What is meant by consumer goods industry?
Answer:
The consumer goods industries are those industries which produce consumer goods.

Question 27.
Give the names of two big industries of India.
Answer:

Iron and Steel Industry.
Textile Industry.

Question 28.
Write any two problems of big industries in India.
Answer:

Industrial unrest
Under-utilization of production capacity.

Question 29.
Define cottage industries.
Answer:
These industries are completely or partially run by the members of a family either as a whole time business or as a part-time business.

Question 30.
Define Small Scale Industries.
Answer:
Small scale industries are those which have an investment of? 3 crores in fixed capital.

Question 31.
Define Large Scale Industries.
Answer:
Large scale industries are those industries where the amount of fixed capital invested is big.

Question 32.
Define joint sector.
Answer:
Joint sector undertakings are jointly owned by the Government and private sector.

Question 33.
What is industrial development?
Answer:
Enhancement of the efficiency of existing industries, increase in production capacity and establishment of new industries is known as industrial development.

Question 34.
Define private sector.
Answer:
Private sector undertakings are owned by private persons for profit motive.

Question 35.
What is meant by industrialisation?
Answer:
By industrialisation is meant complete development of production units of a country.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
__________ is the example of Basic Industries. (Iron Industry / Chemical Industry)
Answer:
Chemical Industry

Question 2.
The new industry policy was established in_________year. (1956 / 1991)
Answer:
1991

Question 3.
__________ sector undertakings are owned by private persons. (Private / Public)
Answer:
Private

Question 4.
___________ sector undertakings are jointly owned by the govt, and private sector. (Joint / Public)
Answer:
Joint

Question 5.
__________ Industries are those which have an investment of ₹ 5 crores in fixed capital. (Small scale / Cottage)
Answer:
Small Scale

Question 6.
ICICI was established in___________ year. (1945 /1955)
Answer:
1955.

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
_______ sector undertakings are those which are owned by the government for the welfare of the society.
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) Joint
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Public

Question 2.
____________ sector undertakings are owned by private persons for-profit motive.
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) Joint
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Private

Question 3.
___________ sector undertakings are jointly owned by the government and private sector.
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) Joint
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Joint

Question 4.
What is the inverstment limit in Small Scale Industry?
(a) 2 Crore
(b) 5 Crore
(c) 4 Crore
(d) 10 Crore.
Answer:
(b) 5 Crore

Question 5.
How much is the share of industrial production in GDP?
(a) 14.8%
(b) 27.9%
(c) 29.6%
(d) 26.1%.
Answer:
(d) 26.1%.

Question 6.
When was New Industrial Policy established?
(a) 1956
(b) 1971
(c) 1991
(d) 2003.
Answer:
(c) 1991

Question 7.
State the difficulties of Small Scale Industries.
(a) Problem of finance
(b) Old methods of production
(c) Problem of raw material
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

True / False :

Question 1.
New Industrial Policy was implemented in 1947.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The private sector is operated by Govt.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Joint sector is the co-existence of private and public sector:
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
ICICI was implemented in 1955.
Answer:
True.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of industrialization for the economic growth?
Answer:
Industrialization is important for the economic growth in following ways :

Industrialization makes balanced growth possible and paves the way for economic development.
Industrialization helps in increasing the gross national product at a faster rate in underdeveloped countries.
Industrialization also helps in increasing per capita output and per capita income in underdeveloped countries.
As a result of industrialization, more and more employment opportunities can be generated.
In the less developed countries, industrialization solves the problem of disguised unemployment and under employment in the agricultural sector and this increases agricultural productivity.
As a result of industrialization there is diversity in the economy.

Question 2.
What is the need for a balanced industrial structure in three different aspects in the case of Indian Economy?
Answer:
Indian economy requires industrializaion but it needs balanced industrial structure in following three aspects:

For the rapid economic development, various industries should be chosen in such a way which can increase the employment opportunities significantly.
The industries thus chosen should be distributed properly among the various regions of a country. In other words, industrial policy should be such which is in the favour of the development of backward regions.
Those industries should be chosen which, instead of producing luxurious goods for a small proportion of population, produce goods of social priorities and significance.

Question 3.
What is meant by industrialization?
Answer:
Industrialization means all round industrial development of a country. In narrow sense, industrialization implies establishment of manufacturing industries whereas in broader sense, industrialization signifies the process whereby the entire economy of a country is transformed.

The main features of industrialization are as follows :

Industrialization is a synonym of economic development.
Capital is intensively and widely used.
Its aim is to make drastic changes in the structure of the economy.
All the sectors are developed timely and rapidly.
New markets are found and new sectors are explored.
There is increase in the rate of capital formation.
There is reduction in regional inequalities.

Question 4.
Mention the suggestions for the development of small-scale and eottage industries.
Answer:

Arrangement of raw material should be there.
There should be adequate capital.
Need for the improvement in methods of production.
Spread of Education.
Arrangement of markets.
Advertisement of produced goods should be done.
Protection should be provided to these industries against the competition from large scale industries.
Reduction in the burden of taxes.
Workers should be united and organised.
Tools and implements should be provided at cheaper rates.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State the importance of small-scale industries.
Answer:
Significance of these industries is as under:

More Employment. Small-scale industries are more labour intensive. With less capital investment, more persons are employed in these industries.
Equity in the Distribution of Income. Due to small-scale industries, there is an equity in the distribution of income. There is no concentration of capital in a few hands. It is distributed among various hands. The profit of these industries is enjoyed by many people.
Decentralization. Small-scale industries are situated in villages and towns and there is no fear of ahy damage caused during wars or other hazards. They reduce the regional imbalances. As a result, the benefits of these industries are shared by the masses.
Less Pressure on Agriculture. Small-scale industries are of great significance in India as a large number of population is engaged in the agricultural activities. Every year their number increases by more than 30 lakhs. Therefore, it is necessary to reduce such ever-increasing pressure on land. This can happen only if we establish more small- scale industries in the rural areas.
Require Less Capital. A smaller capital is required in order to set up small scale industries in contrast to a large scale industry, which requires huge capital investment for the same purpose. In a country, like India where capital is scarce, small- scale industries can easily flourish.
Immediate Increase in Production. The gestation period of small-scale industry remains less. As a result, production immediately starts soon after the establishment of these industries. In India, nearly 40 percent of the industrial production is made in small-scale industries.

Question 2.
Explain New Industrial Policy of 1991.
Answer:
The Government of India announced the New Industrial Policy on July 24, 1991 on the line of liberalisation measures taken during 1980s. This policy made a drastic change from the earlier policy initiatives. It deregulated the industrial economy to a large extent. The main objectives of this policy were to build on the gains already made, maintain a sustainable -growth in the productivity and gainful employment, correct the distortions that might have developed and attain global competitiveness.

The role of public sector was diluted in this policy. The number of public sector industries were reduced to 8 from 17 in 1991. In 1993, this number was further reduced to six and by 1999-2000, only 4 sectors were enlisted and reserved for the public sector viz.

Arms and ammunition
Atomic energy
Railway transport
The substances specified in the schedule to the notification of the Government of India in the Department of Atomic Energy.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Institutions: Allied to Agriculture

October 11, 2024October 10, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 1 Institutions: Allied to Agriculture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 1 Institutions: Allied to Agriculture

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Institutions: Allied to Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Which central agency is responsible for the procurement of agricultural produce in Punjab State?
Answer:
PAIC, Food Corporation of India.

Question 2.
Which Corporation carries out the export of agricultural produce?
Answer:
Punjab Agri Export Corporation Limited (PAGREXCO).

Question 3.
Name the organizations set up jointly by the Punjab Agro Industrial Corporation and Punjab Mandi Board.
Answer:
Punjab Agri Export Corporation Limited (PAGREXCO).

Question 4.
When did the Punjab Horticulture Department came into being?
Answer:
It came into being in 1979-80.

Question 5.
Who is responsible for research, teaching mid extension of Animal Husbandry and Fish farming, in Punjab?
Answer:
Guru Angad Dev Veterinary and Animal Sciences University (GADVASU).

Question 6.
Which Co-operative is engaged in fertilizer production and distribution?
Answer:
Indian Farmers Fertilizers Cooperative Limited (IFFCG).

Question 7.
Which department implements schemes of National Horticulture Mission?
Answer:
Department of Horticulture.

Question 8.
How many field laboratories of NSC are functional to assess the quality of seeds?
Answer:
There are five field laboratories.

Question 9.
Which corporation involves farmers in seed production?
Answer:
Punjab State Seeds Corporation Limited (PUNSEED).

Question 10.
Which organization is responsible for procurement and marketing milk in Punjab?
Answer:
Milkfed.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Which agriculture items are exported by the Punjab Agro Export Corporation Ltd.?
Answer:
Punjab Agri Export Corporation Limited (PAGREXCO) mainly exports the following agricultural items:

Fresh and processed fruits.
Export of vegetables and flowers.
Other agricultural products.

Question 2.
What facilities are provided to farmers by IFFCO?
Answer:
This corporation helps the farmers to raise their economical status. This corporation also help in marketing of fertilizers and also use various extension activities so that new agricultural techniques could reach the farmers. Facility of free testing of soil and water is also provided to farmers.

Question 3.
What is the main function of PAIC?
Answer:
Main function of Punjab Agro Industries Corporation Limited (PAIC) is to help in marketing of the agricultural produce, buying the agricultural produce and help in diversified farming through contract farming. This Punjab Agro Foodgrain Corporation (PAFC) procures wheat and rice for food corporation of India.

Question 4.
State any two activities carried out by Punjab Co-operative Department.
Answer:
Activities carried out by Punjab Cooperative Department:

To provide self employment opportunities to rural women under the scheme named “Mai Bhago Woman Empowerment Scheme”.
To fulfil the supply of essential domestic for rural areas through cooperative societies.

Question 5.
How is MARKFED serving the farmers?
Answer:
Markfed is making available agricultural seeds, fertilizers, pesticides etc. at subsidized rates to the farmer. It also help in marketing and processing of the produce.

Question 6.
What are the three main different tasks performed by PAU?
Answer:
Punjab Agricultural University has the following three functions:
Research in the field of agriculture and allied fields. Education related to agriculture i.e. teaching and extension.

Question 7.
Write briefly note on FAO.
Answer:
This organisation was established in 1943. It is an agency by United Nations with main purpose to defeat hunger and starvation in the world. Its headquarters are in Rome (Italy). Its main objective is food security for each and every person of the world. It also act to save the natural resources.

Question 8.
What was the objective behind establishing the WTO?
Answer:
Main objective behind the formation of WTO:

To nullify the restrictions, bans on the sale of agricultural produce.
To reduce the subsidy for exporting agricultural produce.
To stop or to reduce the subsidy given to farmers for their agricultural needs.
To abolish the quota system for exporting and draft a working policy for export.

Question 9.
Why was the ATMA established?
Answer:
This agency is formed to coordinate various activities related to development and extension of Agricultural activities, performed and arranged by agriculture and allied departments. Agricultural Technology Management Agency (ATMA) has been established by department of agriculture.

Question 10.
What was the purpose behind setting up Punjab Khadi and Gram Udyog Board?
Answer:
The main objective of forming Punjab Khadi and Gram Udyog Board is to facilitate and provide help for rural industry and other.

Question 1.
Briefly describe the Department of Agriculture.
Answer:
Department of agriculture was established in 1881. This department has played an important role in the development of agriculture in Punjab. This department enacts as a link between agricultural scientists and farmers. This department is responsible for implementing all the schemes related to agriculture. This department has established laboratories for testing soil, seed, fertilizers, edible substances etc. ATMA has been formed to co-ordinate the activities related with development and extension of agriculture. .

Question 2.
Highlight the reason for establishing the Punjab State Farmers Commission.
Answer:
Main objectives of farming Punjab Farmers Commission are:

To evaluate, present scenario related to agriculture and allied sectors in the state and that of rural infrastructure.
To give suggestions for sustainability of the cropping system and making economy strong.
To give directions for increasing agriculture yield, taking care of the produce after harvesting and developing new techniques for processing at low cost.
To provide financial help for social and economical issues related to rural areas e.g. increase in loans, suicidal incidences, rural unemployment. Suggesting suitable policies to the government on the above said issues.
To suggest suitable policies and solutions to the government on the basis of meetings held with farmer organisations, unions and their representatives for discussing their problems, difficulties and demands.

Question 3.
Discuss the objectives of the PAIC.
Answer:
Punjab Government established PAIC in the year 2002. Main objectives are given ahead:

To market the quality agricultural produce.
To purchase agri produce and to encourage diversified farming through contractual fanning.
To procure wheat-rice from the farmers.

Question 4.
Write a short note on GADVASU.
Answer:
Guru Angad Dev Veterinary and Animal Sciences University (GADVASU) was established in 2005. It works for research, education and extension of livestock, pigs, rabbits, chicken, sheep, goat, horses and fishes etc. 24 x7 hr. facility of Hospital is available, for sick small and large animals. Here Veterinary doctors are well trained and educated. There are four Colleges under the Veterinary University namely Veterinary college, College of Dairy Science and Technology, college of Fishery, college of Veterinary Poly-technic.

There are two departments by I.C.A.R. namely surgery and gynaecology in the Veterinary University, which are nominated as super speciality training centers. There are three Regional research and training centres at Kaljharani (Bhatinda), Booh (Taran-taran) and Talwara (Hoshiarpur) under the university. This university in Punjab is the top most organisation providing all type of facilities and suggestions related to veterinary and animal husbandry in concerned.

Question 5.
Which facilities are provided for dairy development by the Dairy Development Board?
Answer:
Department of dairy development provides training for activities and works related to dairy. Department helps the beneficiaries to get subsidized loans from banks. Subsidy is also provided for some of the works which are given below:

Help in getting subsidy for constructing shed and also provide technical know how.
Providing help to purchase milch animals and giving back 75% of insurance amount for three years to the beneficiaries.
Providing subsidy for purchase of bulk milk coolers.
Giving subsidy for milking machine and fodder harvester and fodder cutter machine.
Providing subsidy for establishing Dairy service centre for giving machines on rent like automatic dispensing machine, total mix ration wagon etc.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Institutions: Allied to Agriculture Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In Agmark Laboratory are tested for their quality.
(a) Turmeric
(b) Honey
(c) Chilli
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

Question 2.
Which type of country is India?
(a) Agriculture based
(b) Sports based
(c) Industry based
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Agriculture based

Question 3.
Punjab Agricultural University came into being in
(a) 1962
(b) 1971
(c) 1950
(d) 1990.
Answer:
(a) 1962

Question 4.
Rate of subsidy fixed by WTO is
(a) 5%
(b) 25%
(c) 10%
(d) 19%.
Answer:
(c) 10%

Question 5.
Where is Guru Angad Dev Veterinary and Animal Sciences University (GADVASU) located?
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Bathinda
(c) Patiala
(d) Jalandhar.
Answer:
(a) Ludhiana

Question 6.
Name the co-operative organisation for purchasing and marketing of milk in Punjab.
(a) Markfed
(b) Housefed
(c) Milkfed
(d) Sugarfed.
Answer:
(c) Milkfed

Question 7.
In which city Punjab Agricultural University is located?
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Palampur
(c) Hisar
(d) Kamal.
Answer:
(a) Ludhiana

Question 8.
What is the name of website of Guru Angad Dev veterinary and Animal Sciences University?
(a) www.gadvasu.xn
(b) www.pddb.in
(c) www.ndri.res.in
(d) www.pau.edu.
Answer:
(a) www.gadvasu.xn

Question 9.
What is the name of website of Punjab Dairy Development Board?
(a) www.gadvasu.in
(b) www.pddb.in
(c) www.ndri.res.in
(d) www.pau.edu.
Answer:
(d) www.pau.edu.

Question 10.
In which city Himachal Pradesh Agriculture University is located?
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Palampur
(c) Hisar
(d) Kamal.
Answer:
(d) Kamal.

Question 11.
In which city Haryana Agricultural University is located?
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Hisar
(d) Patiala.
Answer:
(c) Hisar

Question 12.
Which product is procured through Milkfed in rural areas?
(a) Wheat
(b) Cotton
(c) Milk
(d) Fruit.
Answer:
(c) Milk

True or False

1. ATMA has also been setup under the department of Agriculture.
Answer:
True

2. Multispeciality hqspital at GADVASU is 24 x 7 hospital, catering to sick animals.
Answer:
True

3. Official website of GADVASU is www.gadvasu.in.
Answer:
True

4. There are eight dairy training and extension centres in Punjab.
Answer:
True

5. Punjab State Seed Corporation Limited started operating from 1990.
Answer:
True

Fill in the blanks

1. Punjab Govt, constituted the …………… commission under the chairmanship of Dr. G.S. Kalkat.
Answer:
Punjab State Farmers

2. KRIBCO was established in ……………. .
Answer:
1980

3. Headquarter of FAO is situated in ……………. .
Answer:
Rome (Italy)

4. National Seeds Corporation was setup in the year ……………. .
Answer:
1963

5. Soil and water conservation department came into being in …………… .
Answer:
1969.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What type of country is India?
Answer:
India is country based on Agriculture.

Question 2.
Who is the chairman of department of agriculture?
Answer:
Director of department of agriculture.

Question 3.
Which lab is there to test honey, turmeric, chilli etc. established by department of agriculture?
Answer:
Agmark laboratory.

Question 4.
Who is the head of department of agriculture and who is head in district?
Answer:
Head of department of agriculture is ‘The director of the department’ and in district head is the ‘chief agricultural officer’.

Question 5.
Which agency has been set up by department of agriculture to coordinate various activities related to development and extension of agriculture and allied departments?
Answer:
ATMA, Agricultural Technology Management Agency.

Question 6.
When was Punjab Agriculture University established?
Answer:
In the year 1962.

Question 7.
Which colleges were the Model for establishing P.A.U.?
Answer:
P.A.U. was established on the Model of American Land Grant Colleges.

Question 8.
For how many hours, health facility is available for animals in the veterinary university?
Answer:
For 24 x 7 hours.

Question 9.
How many colleges are there under veterinary university?
Answer:
Four.

Question 10.
Which of the two departments of the veterinary university ; have been nominated by ICAR as super speciality training centres 1 for 15 years?
Answer:
Department of surgery and gynecology.

Question 11.
When was department of horticulture established?
Answer:
In the year 1979-80.

Question 12.
Give one aim of department of horticulture.
Answer:
To increase area under horticulture crops.

Question 13.
When was national horticulture mission launched by department of Horticulture?
Answer:
Since 2005-06.

Question 14.
How many dairy training and extension centres are being run by department of dairy development Punjab?
Answer:
Eight centres.

Question 15.
What is the period of training given for self employment by department of dairy development?
Answer:
Two weeks.

Question 16.
How much amount is returned to the beneficiary for the cost of insurance for three years spent for purchasing milch animals?
Answer:
75%.

Question 17.
How much subsidy is given for the purchase of milking machine and fodder harvester and fodder cutter machine?
Answer:
50%.

Question 18.
In which year department of fisheries Punjab has established fish farmer development agency?
Answer:
In the year 1975.

Question 19.
For how many days, fish farming training is provided by department of fisheries for free?
Answer:
For five days.

Question 20.
When was soil and water conservation department established?
Answer:
In the year 1969.

Question 21.
What is the name given to head of the department of soil and water conservation? •
Answer:
Chief Soil Conservator of Punjab and at block level soil conservation officer.

Question 22.
When did department of cooperatives come into existence and after which act?
Answer:
It came into existence in 1904 after enactment of act of cooperative.

Question 23.
Which department is running the free of cost Bhai Ghanyia Health Scheme’?
Answer:
Department of Cooperation.

Question 24.
Processing milk from rural areas, its processing and marketing in the city, who does it?
Answer:
Milkfed.

Question 25.
What is full form of IFFCO?
Answer:
Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited.

Question 26.
Give full form of KRIBCO.
Answer:
Krishak Bharti Cooperative Limited.

Question 27.
Write full form of NFL?
Answer:
National fertilizer limited.

Question 28.
Who was head of Punjab state farmers commission?
Answer:
Dr. G. S. Kalkat.

Question 29.
When was Punjab seeds corporation limited established?
Answer: In 1976.

Question 30.
When was National seeds corporation limited established?
Answer:
In 1963.

Question 31.
How many types of certified seeds of how many crops are being produced by National Seeds Corporation Limited?
Answer:
600 types of certified seeds of 60 crops.

Question 32.
How many laboratories have been established by NSC as quality control measure for testing standard of seeds?
Answer:
There are five laboratories.

Question 33.
Which corporation is working on tissue culture?
Answer:
National Seed Corporation.

Question 34.
Which corporation does procure wheat-rice for FCI7
Answer:
PAIC through its subsidary branch PAFC.

Question 35.
Where is the main office of ICAR? Or In which city Head office of Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR) is located?
Answer:
New Delhi.

Question 36.
How many institutes and agricultural universities are working under ICAR?
Answer:
101 institutes and 71 state agricultural universities.

Question 37.
When was NABARD established?
Answer:
In 1982.

Question 38.
Where is Head office of NABARD?
Answer:
In Mumbai.

Question 39.
When was GATT established?
Answer:
In year 1948.

Question 40.
How many members are there in GATT?
Answer:
Initially were 23 and now there are 164 members.

Question 41.
Give full form of GATT.
Answer:
General Agreements on Tariff and Trade.

Question 42.
What is changed named for GATT?
Answer:
World Trade Organisation.

Question 43.
What is rate of subsidy as fixed by WTO?
Answer:
10%.

Question 44.
Give full form of FAO.
Answer:
Food and Agricultural Organisation.

Question 45.
When was FAO established?
Answer:
In 1943.

Question 46.
Where is head office of FAO?
Answer:
Rome (Italy).

Question 47.
What is the full form of ICAR?
Answer:
Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

Question 48.
Write full form for W.T.O.?
Answer:
World Trade Organisation.

Question 49.
How much subsidy is given on purchase of milking machine by Department of Dairy Development?
Answer:
50%.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give main objectives of department of Horticulture. Or Write any four functions done by Department of Horticulture Punjab.
Answer:
Main objectives of department of horticulture are:

To increase area under cultivation of horticulture.
To provide high standard seeds for vegetables and also to provide nursery plants for fruits.
To extend and help in reaching technological information upto villages and farmers about horticultural crops.
To provide economic help for exhibition of plants and vegetables.

Question 2.
Name four colleges of GADVASU.
Answer:

Veterinary College,
College of Dairy science and technology
College of Fisheries
Veterinary polytechnic.

Question 3.
What do you know about National Horticultural Mission run by department of horticulture?
Answer:
Department of horticulture started natioqal horticulture mission in 2005-06. This mission helps farmers for pack house, net house, making poly house, to get more profit by establishing processing units, training farmers.

Question 4.
Give objectives of animal husbandry department?
Answer:

To give improved feeding and management for livestock, (e.g. vaccination and de-worming etc.)
To increase genetic potential and improvement in breeding.
To provide extension services.

Question 5.
What are the facilities given to farmers by MARKFED?
Answer:
Markfed helps farmers:
To get agri seeds, fertilizers, pesticides etc. at subsidised rates. It also help in processing and marketing of agricultural produce.

Question 6.
What are the main objectives of Punjab seeds corporation limited? When was it established?
Answer:
This corporation was established in 1976. Its main objectives are to provide better quality seed at lower cost to the farmers and to create infrastructure for seed production and storing so as to cater the increasing demand of seeds.

Question 7.
What are the facilities given to farmers by co-operative department, Punjab?
Answer:
The Co-operative Department played an important role in bringing T Green Revolution in the state. Marketing of the agricultural produce, j production, purchase and marketing of milk in the cities.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about department of fisheries?
Answer:
This is one of the oldest department in Punjab. This department takes care of the fish as in rivers, streams lakes, notified water bodies. Responsibility of this department lies with Assistant Director fisheries at district level. This department earns by lending these resources on rent/lease.

In the year 1975 fisheries department Punjab has established fish farmers development agency to encourage fish farming and new fish breeding farms were also built. This way there was a revolution in fish farming. This department organises a training session for fish farming free for five days in every month at district level. This department grants subsidy and also provide extension services.

Question 2.
Give brief information about department of Dairy development.
Answer:
Department of dairy development was established for all round development of dairy sector in Punjab. Head of the department is Director dairy development and at district level Deputy Director dairy development. This department provides training for dairy farming and also doing the work of extension and development of dairy farming. There are eight dairy training and extension centres in Punjab under this department.

Department provides free training for two week of self-employment training, six week dairy business related to various jobs of dairy farming. Camps are organised in villages to instruct villagers about benefits of dairy farming. Farmers are encouraged to adopt this business. Consumers in the city are made aware of the quality testing measures of milk and also about the possibilities of adultration of milk by organising camps. Trained beneficiaries are helped to get loans from bank, they are also provided with technical information and subsidy.

Question 3.
Write the name of 10 helpful institutions related to Agriculture.
Answer:

Department of Agriculture
Animal Husbandry Department
Department of Dairy Development.
Department of Horticulture.
Department of Fisheries
Department of Cooperation.
Punjab Agro-industries Corporation Limited.
Punjab State Seed Corporation Limited.
National Seed Corporation.
Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 4 Web Development

October 11, 2024October 10, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 4 Web Development Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 4 Web Development

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Web Development Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
There are four stages of planning a website.
(a) Goal of a site
(b) Designing for viewers
(c) Work strategy and development of subject matter
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
A good look of a webpage depends upon:
(a) Font size/ colour
(b) background colour
(c) Table and graphics
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
No internet connection is needed in:
(a) Offline testing
(b) Online testing
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Offline testing

Question 4.
SEO means:
(a) Search engine optimization
(b) System engine optimization
(c) Syncronized engine optimization
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Search engine optimization

Question 5.
SMM Stands for:
(a) Social media marketing
(b) Science media marketing
(c) System macro media
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Social media marketing

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 4 Web Development

2. Fill in the Blanks

1. While planning to build a site, decision about……… site is taken at the end.
Answer:
Publishing

2. …………… is the address of your site.
Answer:
Domain Name

3. After deciding about domain name n&ct step is …………. the domain name.
Answer:
Registration

4. ………… test can be done without the internet.
Answer:
Offline

5. The very first page of any website is called as …………
Answer:
Home page.

3.True or False

1. There is no link of other pages with the home page.
Answer:
False

2. Address of site ends with .com, .org, .net etc.
Answer:
True

3. Off line testing of a site should be done on a single browser only.
Answer:
False

4. To send the webpages to host, we need FTP client.
Answer:
True

5. During online testing of a site your computer should be connected to the internet.
Answer:
True

4. Full Forms

1. IP
Answer:
Internet Protocol

2. FTP
Answer:
File Transfer Protocol

3. URL
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which is the address of your site.
Answer:
Domain Name.

Question 2.
The copy of the website on computer is …………. version, and the copy on the web is called the …………… version.
Answer:
Local, Online

Question 3.
What helps a company get direct feedback from customers.
Answer:
Social media Marketing

Question 4.
What is necessary to check all of the different features on the website.
Answer:
Test and Validate.

Question 5.
How can Designer prevent loss of data and protect against malware and other damages.
Answer:
By taking regular backup and preventive security measures.

6. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the important points to fix the purpose of a site.
Answer:
Following are the important points to fix the purpose of site

important purposes of your site.
Method to develop the site
Fulfilling these requirements.
Working strategy of site to achieve the goal.
Time of developing the site.
Time of updating the site.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Domain Name?
Answer:
Domain name means the name or address of the website. It is like www.yahoo.com

Question 3.
What is role of server in world of internet?
Answer:
In the web world the role of server is very important. Such a specific server is named Web server. Whenever designer opens any site on the browser, it connects to the concerned server. Securing the bandwidth necessary to keep the website running smoothly. Bandwidth is the amount of data transferred within a given time period. Designer may need to buy more bandwidth as the website grows or else the visitors may experience lag, which could drive them away from the website. Many hosts also provide software aid in building the website.

Question 4.
What points are to be taken care of while designing a webpage?
Answer:
The size of the page is an important point in organizing webpage. The following points must be kept in mind while designing a webpage.
1. Size of a web page should not be more than two screens. If we have to use a longer page, the establish internet link through bookmark.

2. If the document is longer than one screen then show only a part of the viewers and remaining part may be shown only on their demand.

Question 5.
What do you mean by offline testing?
Answer:
No internet connection is required for this test that is why it is named as offline test. In offline test first of all home page is opened in different browser. Then we check all the linked pages one by one. Designer should ascertain it here that all pages have a good appearance. The website should be thoroughly tested to confirm that the design and page structure are displayed as intended.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the different steps for planning a website?
Answer:
The website developed by proper planning is always effective. To build a website we should first make its planning. If done with proper planning, the objective of site would be fulfilled. We communicate through websites. Hence we have to decide while planning that what we wish to communicate and by which technique. First & foremost purpose of designing a Website is to keep in mind the goal and target of website. The website should always be built to achieve its goal.

1. The Goal of the Site:
Every site has some specific purpose. This purpose guides us what to include in the site. User can prepare a detailed and decorative site. But the condition is that it must support the purpose of the site. The following facts are to be kept in mind while building a site:

Purpose of organization
important purposes of your site
Method to develop the site
Fulfilling these requirement
Working strategy of site to achieve the goal
Time of developing the site
Time of updating the site.

2. Designing for the Audience:
After fixing the aim of website, we have to know about nature of viewers of the site, which type of people will be hitting it: children, students, advocates, doctors or housewives. We have to keep in mind about their expectation from your site.
For example if the designer is building the site for a publisher then the viewer’s certainly would be students, children, teachers, professors and other intellectuals. In such a case the site will be designed according to their interest and expectations.

3. Strategy:
When the designer has decided to build a particular site, we will have to think about its work-strategy. The mode of works to carry out for achieving the goal is called work-strategy. Many kinds of information can be included in the website:

Text information
Audio or Voice information
Video information.

Question 2.
What is difference between offline and online testing?
Answer:
Following is the difference between online and offline testing:

Offline Testing	Online Testing
1. No Internet is required	1. Internet is required
2. This is done before uploading a website	2. This is done after uploading a website
3. It can be dong on any computer.	3. It can be done on computer with internet only.
4. You can change code of web page.	4. You cannot change code of a webpage.
5. Website should be on local computer	5. Website should be on serve
6. Offline testing is first step	6. Online testing is later step.

Question 3.
What is SEO ?
Answer:
SEO means search engine optimization. Search engine optimization is a methodology of strategies, techniques and tactics used to increase the amount of visitors to a website by obtaining a high-ranking placement in the search results page of a search engine including Google, Bing, Yahoo and other search engines.

SEO helps to ensure that a site is accessible to a search engine and improves the chances that the site will be found by the search engine. SEO is typically a set of practices that webmasters and Web content producers follow to help them achieve a better ranking in search engine results.

Question 4.
What is SMM ?
Answer:
SMM is a form of Internet marketing that utilizes social networking websites as a marketing tool. The goal of SMM is to produce content that users will share with their social network to help a company increase brand exposure and broaden customer reach. One of the key components of SMM is social media optimization (SMO). Like search engine optimization (SEO), SMO is a strategy for drawing new and unique visitors to a website. SMO can be done in two ways, adding social media links to content, sharing buttons or promoting activity through social media by updating statuses or tweets, or blog posts.

SMM helps a company get direct feedback from customers (and potential customers) while making the company seem more personable. SMM became more common with the increased popularity of websites such as Twitter, Facebook, My space, Linkedin, and YouTube.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Web Development Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What the first page of web site is called?
(a) Main Page
(b) Serach Engine
(c) Home Page
(d) Domain
Answer:
(c) Home Page

Question 2.
What the name of Website is called?
(a) Home Page
(b) Domain name
(c) Search
(d) SCO
Answer:
(b) Domain name

Fill in the Blanks

1. While planning to build a site, decision about……… site is taken at the end.
Answer:
Publishing

2. …………… is the address of your site.
Answer:
Domain Name

3. After deciding about domain name n&ct step is …………. the domain name.
Answer:
Registration

4. ………… test can be done without the internet.
Answer:
Offline

5. The very first page of any website is called as …………
Answer:
Home page.

Select True/False

1. There is no link of other pages with the home page.
Answer:
False

2. Address of site ends with .com, .org, .net etc.
Answer:
True

3. Off line testing of a site should be done on a single browser only.
Answer:
False

4. To send the webpages to host, we need FTP client.
Answer:
True

5. During online testing of a site your computer should be connected to the internet.
Answer:
True

Full Forms

1. IP
Answer: Internet Protocol

2. FTP
Answer: File Transfer Protocol

3. URL
Answer: Uniform Resource Locator.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What should be contents of your site?
Answer:
The important information about the organization.

Question 2.
What do you mean by domain name?
Answer:
Domain name is the address of your website.

Question 3.
How a domain name i§ registered?
Answer:
Domain name can be registered by any ISP f Internet Service Provider) by paying some fees.

Question 4.
What is role of server in world of internet?
Answer:
Server provides the response to the requests of the users.

Question 5.
What points are to be taken care of while designing a web page?
Answer:

Web page should not exceed more than two pages
Use bookmark for long pages.

Question 6.
Write the procedure of uploading a site.
Answer:
We can upload our website by testing and registering with ISP.

Question 7.
What do you mean by offline testing?
Answer:
The testing of the website on the local browser. It is called offline because we test it without the Internet.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the important points to fix the purpose of a site.
Answer:
The website we design must have some goals:

Objectives of the organization
Methods of the designing
Time
Update time
Audience
Function.

Question 2.
What is meant by designing for viewers? Write in brief.
Answer:
Designing audience means the designer must know about the audience that they are professor, doctor, students etc.

Question 3.
How will you decide about work-strategy of your site?
Answer:

Textual Information
Audio
Video
Charts/ Graphs etc.

Question 4.
Write the different steps for planning a website.
Answer:

Objectives of the organization
Methods of the designing
Time
Update time
Audience
Function.

Question 5.
Describe the necessary direction for implementing website.
Answer:

Select a Domain Name
Domain Registration
Server Selection
Website Administration.

Question 6.
What is difference between online and offline testing?
Answer:
Offline is the testing of the website on the local browser. It is called offline because we test it without the Internet. When we test the website by uploading it on the server is called online testing.

Question 7.
What is a URL?
Answer:
It stands for “universal resource locator”. This is the address typed in to view your web page on the Internet. For example, you would type in http:// www.hooverwebdesign.com to access our home page.

Question 8.
What is a domain name?
Answer:
A domain name is a specific website address that you choose and register with Network Solutions(the official registrar of domain names ending in .com, .edu, and .gov). Our domain name is “hooverwebdesign.com”.

Question 9.
What is web hosting?
Answer:
Web hosting is a monthly fee that you pay to have your site accessible on the Internet. We can provide web hosting for our clients.

Question 10.
Write short note on planning for the website.
Answer:
The website developed by proper planning is always effective. To build a website we should first make its planning. If done with proper planning, the object of the site would be fulfilled. We communicate through websites. Hence we are to decide while planning that what we wish to communicate and by which technique. First and foremost purpose of designing a website is to keep in mind the goal/target of website, the website should always be built to achieve its goal.

Question 11.
What is site maintenance?
Answer:
Site maintenance is a fee paid monthly to keep your site updated with new content that you provide. Most good Web site have new content updated regularly. Fresh content is what will keep your visitors coming back. This i$ an optional service that we provide for our custoihers. If you want to maintain your website yourself you can do so.

Question 12.
Why can’t I find my website in the search engines?
Answer:
Once your site has been submitted to the top Search Engines they may require several week, or even months to actually spider and list your website in their directory. How fast your site is listed depends on each individual Search Engines database Update schedule. Watch your server traffic logs for visiting spiders. We suggest ydii use Guaranteed Search Engine Submit.

Question 13.
How much does a website cost?
Answer:
There are quite a few factors that are going to affect the ultimate cost of your website. These factors include how many pages-you are going to have, if you will sell products on your website, the graphic work involved, and how interactive your future website will be. You will also need web hosting and domain name registration.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on purpose of website.
Answer:

Purpose of Website:
The initial stage of planning your website is to “Identity the Purpose of the Site”. It could be as follows:

To educate people
To entertain people
To promote/sell a product
To promote information on companies, products and sources, sports and games, travel and tourism, medicines and health.

Having specific purpose is a necessary since it provides you with the guidelines on what should be put onto your site; what resources (Software, Hardware, and Manpower) are needs for the project etc.

Question 2.
What do you mean by designing for Audience?
Answer:
Designing for the Audience:
The next step is to “Identify the Target Audience”, their knowledge , background, interests and needs, age, gender, geographic location etc. Determining, who the visitors are likely to be crucial in deciding not only the general appearance (look and feel) of the site, but also the technology that might be used to build the site.

If the website is likely to have visitors who access from home, it is necessary to designate the papers with the understanding that users will have probably slow modem connections. On the other hand, if visitors are expected to be fans of music, rock band, then high-end technology such as Macromedia Flash, Animation with sound effects may be acceptable.

Question 3.
What are the various steps to make a website functional?
Answer:
Choosing Domain Name:
Domain Name is the web address of a website. It is placed in database of server.

Domain Name Registration:
A domain name is a way to identify and locate computers connected to the Internet. When using the internet, you use a domain name when you type a web address, or URL. A web address would look something like given below:

Domain names are registered for a variety of reasons. Some build a website right away, or buy a name to build a site later, while others purchase domain names in order to protect a company name or trademark, and some register a domain name so they can have personalized e-mail addresses. You get a domain name from a domain name registrar. Accredited Domain Registrars in India are :

Choosing Web Server:
One of the keys to a successful online business is the web server. In order for a customer to see the products – or to see the page at all, for that matter – the server has to take the request for the web page and upload it from the disk where the file is. Therefore, if you don’t have the right server, nobody is ever going to see your

Organizing Web Page:
Organizing the website into specific sections and then providing links to those sections at the top of each page is an effective and simple way to make the website easy to navigate. The Webpage should be beautifully organized. So that it gives a balanced look. The size of the page is an important-point in organizing webpage.

Look:
Webpage should have a fine look so that one is attracted to read it. In a webpage with a good look designer should insert links graphics, animation, sound and video clips. The various contents in the webpage should give an impression of diversity and a beautiful view. Usage of proper font size/colour, background colour, table, graph etc. gives a good look to the site.

Validate the Code:
Validate the HTML, CSS, XHTML, JavaScript, and XML codes to ensure that the website has clean code and function as intended for visitors. There are several programs available online that validate each type of code.

Offline Testing:
After designing all the webpages it is tested on the browser. No internet connection is required for this test that is why it is named as offline test. In offline test first of all home page is opened in different browser. Then we check all the linked pages one by one. Designer should ascertain it here that all pages have a good appearance. The website should be thoroughly tested to confirm that the design and page structure are displayed as intended. Specifically, view the website with the most popular browsers, including Chrome, Firefox, Internet Explorer, Opera, and Safari, as those browsers are used by the majority of people who are browsing the Internet.

Uploading the Site:
To make the site available to all the viewers on the internet is called Upload. To transfer.
The webpages to the “Host” we need File Transfer Protocol (FTP) client. For this purpose first of all we set FTP programmer as Cute FTP. Then upload the file after coming online. The copy of the website on computer is called the local versibn, and the copy on the web host is called the production version.

Online Testing:
When the site is uploaded online, next step is to test it online. Make the internet connection, open the browser, and type URL of the site. Check that all the links of the site are working property.

SEO:
Utilize both Meta and ALT tags to ensure that the website not only appears in user searches but that pertinent keyword from the content of the website are dis¬played. Doing so will more likely attract searchers 1 interests and will facilitate more visits to the website. ALT tags are merely a written description to go along with the pictures on the website, and so they are necessary’ to tell search engines and searchers what kind of pictures are there on the website.

Installing Website Analytics:
The statistics will enable to monitor the number of visits website receives, the amount of time visitors stay, the average number of page views for each visitor, and many other useful statistics. Making use of such software will enable to make adjustments to the website to increase its effectiveness.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Plantation of New Orchards

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 5 Plantation of New Orchards Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class10 Agriculture Chapter 5 Plantation of New Orchards

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Plantation of New Orchards Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How much is the area of the fruits under Punjab?
Answer:
76500 hectare.

Question 2.
Name the insecticide used to control the termite attack.
Answer:
Mix 30 gram lindaneror 15 milli litre chloropyriphos 20 EC in 2.5 kg soil per pit to protect the plants from termites.

Question 3.
Name two recommended peach cultivars.
Answer:
Flordaprince, Partap.

Question 4.
Give the number of planting system for the plantation of new orchards.
Answer:
Three systems-square, filler, hexagonal system.

Question 5.
What is the time for plantation of deciduous frujj; trees?
Answer:
Mid January to mid February.

Question 6.
Give the suitable time for the plantation of mango and litchi orchards.
Answer:
September-October.

Question 7.
Give the time of application of FYM to the orchards. Or In which month farmyard manure (FYM) should be added to fruit plants?
Answer:
2-3 months before the initiation of new growth, generally in the month of December.

Question 8.
Write the name of two recommended amla cultivars.
Answer:
Balwant, Neelam, Kanchan.

Question 9.
What is the pit size for the plantation of fruit crops?
Answer:
One metre deep.

Question 10.
Name the fruit trees recommended for cultivation in district Amritsar.
Answer:
Pears, grapes, mango, guava, peach, kinnow and other mandarins, lemon etc.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Which kind of soil is suitable for plantation of fruit trees?
Answer:
Well drained, deep loamy and fertile soil is required for planting of orchard. There should be no hard pan upto depth of 2 m.

Question 2.
Name the fruit trees recommended for cultivation in sub- mountainous zone.
Answer:
Guava, mango, litchi, pears, kinnow and other mandarins, lemon, peach, plums, chikoo (sapota), gooseberry (amla) etc.

Question 3.
Name the fruit trees recommended for cultivation in arid- irrigated zone.
Answer:
Malta, lemon, kinnow and other mandarins, ber, grapes, guava etc.

Question 4.
Define evergreen fruit trees with suitable examples.
Answer:
These plants have leaves throughout the year and are always green examples-Loquat, guava, mango, litchi, kinnow and other mandarins, sweet orange, lime, sapota etc.

Question 5.
Define deciduous fruit trees with suitable examples.
Answer:
These plants completely lose their foliage during the winter or dry season. Example-Pears, grapes, peach, plums.

Question 6.
What is square system of planting?
Answer:
This is a system of planting orchards in which row spacing and plant spacing are kept same. Plants are at right angle tb each other and nearby four plants of two rows form a square.

Question 7.
What is the irrigation interval for the fruit trees?
Answer:
Younger plants should be irrigated at weekly intervals from March to June upto 3-4 years. Then from November to February at intervals of 2-3 weeks and from July to November depending upon rainfall and soil type, irrigation should be applied.

Question 8.
What is the depth of water table for successful cultivation of orchards?
Answer:
Underground water should be lower than 3 m of depth and there should be no fluctuation in this level.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Filler system of planting the fruit trees?
Answer:
Some of the fruit plants like litchi, mango, pears start giving fruits after long time (late bearing). Some plants which are temporary are planted in the orchard, which bear fruits in short interval of time. These act as filler plant. When main fruit plants come to bearing then these filler plants are removed.

Question 10.
From where the nursery plants should be purchased?
Answer:
Healthy, vigorous, insect free, disease free and of known pedigree, good variety plants should be taken from some reliable nursery, if possible, should be taken from PAU Ludhiana, from the department of Horticulture and from government approved nurseries.

Question 1.
What points should be kept in mind while purchasing the fruit plants from nursery?
Answer:

Fruit plants which are free from insects and diseases should be selected from the nursery.
Plants should be healthy, vigorous and of medium height budded or grafted on suitable rootstock.
Lift the evergreen plants in such a way that they carry roots with them and are covered with well sized earthen balls.
Take care that grafting.is done on the original plant. Union should be smooth and should not be high.
Before transplanting remove the Tying material.
Purchase 10% more plants from the requirement, these can be used to fill the gap created due to death of some plants.

Question 2.
Describe the various planting system of orchards in detail.
Answer:
There are three system of planting orchards:
(i) Square pattern
(ii) Filler pattern
(iii) Hexogonal pattern.

(i) Square system:
In this layout method plant rows are equally spaced. Plants are at right angle to each other. In this system four plants opposite to each other form a square. This is the most commonly followed system in Punjab. Orchards planted in this layout give fruits for long time and in the initial phase when orchards are not giving income, the layout permits intercropping and one can get income from this cultivation of crops.

(ii) Filler system:
Some of the fruit plants like, litchi, mango, pears etc. start, bearing after long time. In such orchards some short lived plants are planted, these come to bear earlier than main plants. These are called filler plants. After few years when main trees come to bearing then these filler plants should be removed.

(iii) Hexagonal system:
In this system row spacing is less than the plant spacing but plant to plant spacing is always same. In this layout, 15 to 20% more plants can be planted. To prevent the problem of entangling branches of different trees, should be trimmed and pruned properly.

Question 3.
Why the training and pruning of fruit trees is necessary?
Answer:
Fruit plants need a proper structure and appearance which should be given at younger age. This is done by careful training. Proper appearance and structure is necessary so that plants can get proper sunlight and proper ventilation. This helps in getting better yield and high quality fruits and this also increases the age of tree.

Deciduous fruit plants like grapes, pears, peach, plums etc. which are planted in Punjab are prunned for the first four to five years. When plants come to bearing, plants are trimmed so as to get better yield and high quality fruits. Prusing is necessary to remove non productive parts, diseased, dried, crisscrossed and broken branches. This helps in regulating the fruit crop of better quality and productivity in also improved.

Question 4.
What points should be kept in mind while harvesting the fruits?
Answer:
1. Some standards or certain maturity indices should be followed and maintained while harvesting fruits e.g. some of the fruits can be harvested before proper maturity e.g. mango, banana, plums etc. But grapes, litchi etc. can not be ripened after harvesting. Standards should be set and maintained according to the fruit.

2. Never pull the fruit from the branch. This may cause the branch to break or the fruit skin near the stem end can be ruptured.

3. Grade fruits harvested into 3-4 sizes. Pack these in the card- board boxes, poly nets, crates after grading.

4. Do not pack the fruits which are unripe, more ripe, small, irregular shaped, damaged and injured.

Question 5.
Write down a short note on the use of fertilizers in orchards.
Answer:
We have to dig a pit before planting fruit trees. This pit is refilled with a mixture of top soil and well rotten farmyard manure in equal part. Vegetative growth of fruit plants take place in the months of February to April. During their growth, plants must get all the nutrients. Therefore apply farmyard manure before 2-3 months before the initation of new growth.

FYM is usually applied in the month of December. Nitrogen fertilizer is applied in two parts. One at the before flowering and one at the time of fruit set. Phosphorus should be applied with the first dose of nitrogen. Apply potash before the maturity of fruits so that fruits are of good quality. Use broadcast method to apply fertilizers of main nutrients. Apply micronutrient fertilizers only if deficiency of these nutrients is found.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Plantation of New Orchards Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Nutrients we get from fruits are:
(a) vitamins
(b) minerals
(c) protein
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 2.
When evergreen plants are sown?
(a) February-March
(b) September-October
(c) Both correct
(d) None.
Answers:
(b) September-October

Question 3.
Planting system for establishing orchards.
(a) square
(b) filler
(c) hexagonal
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 4.
…………….is not an evergreen fruit plant.
(a) Pears
(b) Loquat
(c) Mango
(d) Litchi.
Answers:
(a) Pears

Question 5.
Deciduous fruit plants are:
(a) grapes
(b) peach
(c) plums
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 6.
Evergreen fruit plants are:
(a) Mango
(b) Litchi
(c) Lime
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 7.
In which month autumn fruit plants are sown?
(a) April-May
(b) January-February
(c) June-July
(d) May-June.
Answers:
(b) January-February

Question 8.
Which district of Punjab is located in sub-mountainous zone?
(a) Bathinda
(b) Amritsar
(c) Roopnagar
(d) Chandigarh.
Answers:
(c) Roopnagar

True False:

1. Partap is a variety of peach.
Answers:
True

2. Kanchan is a variety of Amla.
Answers:
True

3. Fruits should not be pulled from the branches during harvesting.
Answers:
True

4. Fruit crop is a long term investment.
Answers:
True

5. There are three planting system for new orchards.
Answers:
True

Fill in the blanks:

1. ………… plants are planted from mid january to mid February.
Answers:
Deciduous

2. W. Murcott is a recommended cultivar of ………………… fruit.
Answers:
Mandarin (orange)

3. Cricket ball is a cultivar of …………….. .
Answers:
Spota

4. Ganesh is a eultivar of ……………… .
Answers:
Pomegranate

5. Early Grande in a cultivar of …………… .
Answers:
Peach.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which nutrients are found in fruits?
Answer:
Fruits contain proteins, minerals, vitamins etc.

Question 2.
How many zones are there in Punjab on the basis of climate?
Answer:
Three zones.

Question 3.
How many types of fruit plants are there based on their time of planting?
Answer:
Two types.

Question 4.
Give examples of evergreen fruit plants.
Answer:
Mango, litchi, citrus, chicoo (spota) etc.

Question 5.
Give examples of deciduous fruit plants.
Answer:
Pears, grapes, peach, plums etc.

Question 6.
What is suitable time for planting evergreen fruit plants?
Answer:
February to March, September to October.

Question 7.
What is the time for planting orchards of Mango and Litchi?
Answer:
September-October.

Question 8.
What is the time for planting deciduous plants?
Answer:
In winter when these are in dormant stage.

Question 9.
What is time of planting peach and plums?
Answer:
Mid of January.

Question 10.
What is time of planting pears, grapes?
Answer:
Mid of February.

Question 11.
What should be the level of water under the earth for planting fruit plants?
Answer:
Water should be below three metres from the surface of earth.

Question 12.
Give name of varieties of orange.
Answer:
Kinnow, Local, Daisy, W. Murcott.

Question 13.
Write varieties of malta (sweet orange).
Answer:
Musambi, Jaffa, Blood red, Valencia.

Question 14.
Write varieties of lemon.
Answer:
Kagazi, Baramasi Lemon-1, Galgal.

Question 15.
Write varieties of mango.
Answer:
Dusehari, Langra, Alphonso.

Question 16.
Write varieties of pears.
Answer:
Punjab beauty, Pathamakh (hard pear), Punjab nectar, Punjab gold, Baggugosha, Le Conte.

Question 17.
Write varieties of Peach.
Answer:
Early Grande, Shan-e-Punjab, Partap.

Question 18.
Write varieties of plums.
Answer:
Satluj purple, Kala Amritsari.

Question 19.
Write varieties of guava.
Answer:
Sardar, Allahabad Sufeda, Arka Amulya, Punjab pink.

Question 20.
Write varieties of grapes.
Answer:
Perlette, Beauty seedless, Flame seedless, Punjab purple, Shaweta.

Question 21.
Write varieties of her.
Answer:
Umran, Sanaur 2, Wallaiti.

Question 22.
Write varieties of litchi.
Answer:
Dehradun, Calcuttia.

Question 23.
Write varieties of Chicoo (Sapota).
Answer:
Kali pati, Cricket ball.

Question 24.
Write varieties of pomegranate.
Answer:
Bhagwa, Ganesh, Kandhari.

Question 25.
How many more plants are planted if the planting system is hexagonal?
Answer:
15-20 %.

Question 26.
Write about plant height taken from Nursery.
Answer:
Plants should be of medium height.

Question 27.
Which method is used to apply fertilizers of main nutrients in the orchards?
Answer:
Broadcast method.

Question 28.
Why should not fruit be pulled from the branch?
Answer:
It may rupture the skin of the fruit and branch may break also.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Punjab is divided into how many zones on the basis of climate and name them?
Answer:
Punjab is divided into three zones based on climate –

Submountainous zone
Central zone
Arid irrigated zone.

Question 2.
Name the districts which lies in submountainous zone?
Answer:
Roop Nagar, Hoshiarpur, Pathankot, Sahibjada Ajit Singh Nagar, Shaheed Bhagat Singh Nagar, Union territory Chandigarh.

Question 3. Which fruits are recommended for submountain zone?
Answer:
Mango, cirtrus fruits, lemon, kinnow, lime, litchi, peach, plums, chicoo, amla etc.

Question 4.
Which districts come under the central zone?
Answer:
Amritsar, Tarantaran, Kapurthala, Bamala, Patiala, Jalandhar, Sangrur, Ludhiana, Moga, Fatehgarh Sahib etc. .

Question 5.
Which fruit trees are recommended for central zone?
Answer:
Pears, guava, peach, mango, kinnow, orange, lemon, grapes etQuestion

Question 6.
Which are the districts which come under the arid-irrigated zone?
Answer:
Bhatinda, Manasa, Shri Mukatsar Sahib, Faridkot, Ferozepur, Fazilka etc.

Question 7.
Name the fruit plants which are recommended for arid- irrigated zone.
Answer:
Kinnow and other mandarins, malta, lemon, grapes, ber, guava etc.

Question 8.
What type of soil is required for cultivation of fruit plants? (For an orchard?)
Answer:
For an orchards soil should be well drained, deep, loamy and fertile. There should be not hard pan within two metres of its depth.

Question 9.
Which type of soil is not suitable for orchards?
Answer:
Fruit plants should not be grown in water logged, marshy, saline or acidic soils.

Question 10.
Which of the fruits can ripen after harvesting and which can not?
Answer:
Banana, Mango, Plums etc. can ripen or mature after harvesting but Grapes, Litchi etc. cannot mature after harvesting.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in brief about irrigation and fertilizer application for fruit plants.
Answer:
See above question (for fertilizers)
Irrigation:
Apply irrigation from March to June after every week, from November to February after 2-3 weeks, and July to November depending upon on rainfall and type of soil for young plants. When trees come to bearing then at the time of flowering and at the time of fruit set and in summer irrigation becomes necessary. If irrigation is not applied in summer it results in excessive shedding of flowers/fruits.

Question 2.
Write the improved varieties of following: Mango, Peach, Plums, Guava, Grapes, Amla, Pomegranate.
Answer:
Mango-Langra, Alphonso, Dushari.
Peach-Partap, Shan-e-Punjab, Florida Prince, Early grande, Parbhat.
Plums-Black Amritsari, Satluj Purple.
Guava-Arka Amulya, Alahabad Sufeda, Punjab Pink, Sardar.
Grapes-Beauty seedless, Punjab purple, Flame seedless, Perlette.
Amla-Neelam, Kanchan, Balwant.
Pomegranate-Kandhari, Ganesh, Bhagwa.

Question 3.
What do you know about the square system of plantation of fruit plants?
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 4.
Which points should be kept in mind while selecting fruit plants from the nursery.
Answer:
Do yourself.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Agricultural Development in India

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Agricultural Development in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Agricultural Development in India

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Agricultural Development in India Textbook Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Agriculture is the main source of employment in India.” Write a short note on it.
Answer:
A big part of our total labour force is engaged in agriculture. According to 2017-18, 46,2 percent of India’s working population is engaged in agriculture. In other countries like in England only 2% and in America, only 2% of the working population is engaged in agriculture. It indicates their economic development.

Question 2.
What are the mainlands reforms of India?
Answer:
Following are the mainland reforms of India:

Abolition of the zamindari system.
Acts have been passed to improve the land tenure system.
Maximum ceiling on landholdings.
Consolidation of holdings.
Co-operative farming.
Bhoodhan Movement.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Green Revolution?
Answer:
The revolution that aims at raising the agricultural produce by adopting the latest and scientific methods of cultivation is called the green revolution. “Green Revolution refers to an extraordinary increase in agricultural production especially in wheat and rice which was made possible due to the adoption of new techniques of H.Y.V. seeds.”

Question 4.
How has Green Revolution helped in solving the Indian food problem?
Answer:
After the year 1965-66, there has takeh place a tremendous rise in the production of foodgrains due to green revolution. In the year 1966-67, the year of green revolution, the production of foodgrains increased to 950 lakh tonnes. In 2017-18, the production of foodgrains was 2775 lakh tonnes. This resulted in increased per capita availability of food. It also helped in the reduction of imports of foodgrains. Thus green revolution helped a lot in solving the food problem in India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the importance of agriculture in Indian economy.
Anwer:
1. Contribution to National Income. Agriculture gives an importänt contribution to national income. During 1950-51, 59% of the total domestic production was produced in agriculture. Agriculture has been the basis of Indian economy. At present agriculture contributes about 15.3% to the national income.

2. Source of Employment. A big part of our total labour power is engaged in agriculture. According to 1991 census, 65.5% of the total working population was engaged in agriculture. In 2017-18, 46.2% people are directly engaged in this sector. In other countries, only 3% in England, 4% in America and 20% people in Russia are engaged in agricultural works. It indicates towards their economic developitient.

3. Helpful for Industrial Development. Agricultural development contributes to industrial development too. Agriculture provides raw material to many other fields. Low agricultural products have adverse effect on industrial development. If the production of cotton, sugarcane, jute etc. is low, the industries depending on them will not work properly.

4. Helpful in Internal and External Trade. Agricultural goods are used in internal and external trade. Cotton, jute, tea, foodgrains, tobacco, jaggery are the major parts of internal trade. Agricultural goods are exported too. Tobacco, tea, coffee, dry fruit etc. are exported. Half of the total foreign currency comes by exporting agriculture goods.

5. Basis of Means of Transport. Means of transport help in carrying agricultural products from one market to another, from market to the consumers or to the industries. Manufactured industrial goods like chemical fertilizers, machine-tools etc. can be carried to the agricultural field with the help of means of transport. Means of transport carry foodgrains from one state to the other. So the development of means of transport depends on agricultural development.

6. Income to the Government. Govt, earns income from different types of taxes such as land revenue, irrigation tax, market fee etc. As the agricultural sector develops, it helps in increasing the govt, income.

7. Source of Food. Food is the basis of life. Most of the people in India are vegetarian because of influence of the religious views. So they get their food from agriculture.

8. Helpful in Capital Formation. The increase in agricultural income leads to an increase in saving and if further helps in capital formation and capital is a necessary condition for economic development.

Question 2.
Describe the main problems of Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
Indian agriculture is quite backward. It has so many problems. These problems can be divided into following three categories:

Human Problems
Institutional Problems
Technical Problems.

1. Human Problems. Heavy pressure of population on agriculture is one of the major
causes of backwardness of Indian agriculture. This pressure has resulted in the problem of subdivision, fragmentation and disguised unemployment.

Social atmosphere has been a great obstacle in the development of agriculture. Indian farmers are illiterate, fatalist, superstitious and conservative. On account of ignorance and casteism, Indian farmers are used to fight on petty issues.

2. Institutional Problems. Small size of holidings, land tenure system are the main institutional problems. Most,of the farms are very small in India. The average size of farms is 2-3 hectares. In Punjab the average holding is of 3.77 hectares.

3. Technical Problems. Inadequate irrigation facilities, old agricultural implements, traditional technique of cultivation, lack of improved seeds, lack of manure, defective agricultural marketing system, diseases of crops and attacks of pests, lack of credit facilities and weak cattle are the main technical problems in the developmental path of Indian agriculture.

Question 3.
Explain the contribution of government in the development of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The role of the govt, in agricultural development may be summarised as follows :

Land Reforms. Land reforms play an important role in the development of agriculture. After the independence, the following land reforms have been implemented :
(a) Abolition of Zamindari System
(b) Tenancy reforms
(c) Consolidation of land holdings.
(d) Ceiling on land holdings.
(e) Development of Co-operative farming.
Increase in irrigation facilities.
Improvements in the distribution system.
Special emphasis has been laid on agricultural research and development.
Improvement in agricultural marketing.
Increase in credit facilities.
Emphasis on mechanization of agriculture.
Development of high-yielding varieties.
New measures to conserve water and soil.

Moreover, special agricultural programmes are arranged over the radio and television for the benefit of the farmers.

Question 4.
Write the main elements of success of the Green Revolution.
Answer:
There are various factors responsible for Green Revolution in India. The important among them are:
1. Wonder Seeds. Agricultural revolutipn is primarily due to the miracle of new wonder seeds which have raised agricultural yield per acre to incredible heights.

2. Chemical Fertilisers. The increasing use of chemical fertilizers has played a key role in the breakthrough. Fertilizer consumption increased from a mere 2.92 lakh tonnes in 1960-61 to 34.1 lakh tonnes in 2007-08 and more spectacularly to 255.76 lakh tonnes in 2017-18.

3. Multiple Cropping. Thanks to new seeds maturing early, it has become possible to obtain three and even four crops instead of two from the same plot in a year.

4. Modern Equipment and Machinery. Modern machinery and implements like tractors, harvesters, pumping sets, tube-wells, etc. are being increasingly used and are replacing the bullocks wherever possible.

5. Price Incentives. The Government has taken care to offer support prices to the
growers so that minimum reasonable returns for their labor and investment are assured to them. –

6. Extension of Irrigation. The irrigation system of the country is being speedily
extended to assure adequate water supply, especially in areas where new agricultural strategy is being applied. .

7. Processing, Storage and Marketing Facilities. These facilities are being improved and extended so that the increased agricultural production is put to profitable use.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Agricultural Development in India Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line :

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
It is the art and science of production of crops.

Question 2.
State any one land reform of India.
Answer:
Tenancy reforms.

Question 3.
State the full form of HYV.
Answer:
High Yeilding Variety.

Question 4.
Which country is the largest producer of pulses?
Answer:
India.

Question 5.
Name the input which is used in commercial farming.
Answer:
Modern technology.

Question 6.
Suggest one measure to develop Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
Increase in irrigation facilities.

Question 7.
Name any one .cause responsible for backwardness of Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
Small size of land holding.

Question 8.
Name the persons responsible for bringing green revolution in India.
Answer:
Dr. Norman Verlog and Dr. M.N. Swaminathgh.

Question 9.
Name any one factor responsible for green revolution in India.
Answer:
Use of modern agricultural tools.

Question 10.
Name any one advantage of green revolution.
Answer:
Increase in the production of foodgrains.

Question 11.
Name any one defect of green revolution.
Answer:
Limited to a few crops only.

Question 12.
When was green revolution started?
Answer:
1966-67.

Question 13.
Write down the main source of irrigation in India.
Answer:
Underground water.

Question 14.
What is the present share of agriculture in national income of India?
Answer:
24 %.

Question 15.
How much share of agriculture was in GDP in 2014-15?
Answer:
17.4%.

Question 16.
What is Green revolution?
Answer:
It is an agricultural strategy used to increase the yield of crops.

Question 17.
How much percentage of population of India depends upon agriculture for livelihood?
Answer:
About 46.2 percent.

Question 18.
What is the place of agriculture in the national economy?
Answer:
Agriculture forms the backbone of the Indian economy.

Question 19.
Highlight the contribution of agriculture in the industrial development.
Answer:
Indian agriculture has been the source of supply of raw materials to our leading industries.

Question 20.
What is meant by excessive pressure of population On land?
Answer:
By excessive pressure of population on land we mean that each year the new labour force unable to get employment elsewhere becomes dependent on agriculture.

Question 21.
Name any two causes responsible for the backwardness of Indian agriculture.
Answer:

Shortage of irrigation facilities.
Shortage of good seeds and chemical fertilizers.

Question 22.
Suggest two measures to develop Indian agriculture.
Answer:

Emphasis on scientific farming.
Land reforms.

Question 23.
Name any two land reforms in India.
Answer:

Abolition of intermediaries.
Consolidation of landholdings.

Question 24.
Name any two factors responsible for green revolution in India.
Answer:

Use of high-yielding variety of seeds.
Use of chemical fertilizers.

Question 25.
Name any two advantages of green revolution.
Answer:

Increase in the production of foodgrains.
Improvement in the living standards of farmers.

Question 26.
Name any two defects of green revolution.
Answer:

Increase in regional imbalances.
Benefits to big farmers only.

Question 27.
What is meant by land reforms?
Answer:
Land reforms means deliberate change introduced into system of land and the farming structure.

Question 28.
What is meant by agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture is the art of production of crops and livestock on a farm.

Question 29.
What is green revolution?
Answer:
Green revolution is an agricultural strategy used to increase the yield of crops,

Question 30.
Expand HYV seeds.
Answer:
High yielding variety seeds.

Question 31.
Which country is the largest producer of pulses?
Answer:
India.

Question 32.
Name the inputs in commercial farming.
Answer:
Modem technology, HYV seeds, etc.

Question 33.
Why is the land productivity low in shifting agriculture?
Answer:
Because the manure and fertilizers are not used.

Question 34.
On which two factors, primitive agriculture depends?
Answer:
Monsoon and natural fertility of soil.

Question 35.
How much percentage of population of India depends upon agriculture for livelihood?
Answer:
About 48.9 percent.

Question 36.
Name three activities which besides cultivation are included in agriculture.
Answer:

Animal husbandry
Forestry
Pisciculture.

Question 37.
How many shares of agriculture was in GDP in 2011-2012?
Answer:
13.9 percent.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
_________ is the art and science of production of crops. (Agriculture / Mining)
Answer:
Agriculture

Question 2.
Green Revolution was started in India in _________ year . (1948-49/ 1966-67)
Answer:
1966-67

Question 3.
Agriculture contributed _________ percent of the national income in 1950-51. (48/59)
Answer:
59

Question 4.
___________ is the largest producer of pulses. (Pakistan / India)
Answer:
India

Question 5.
_________ is the main source of irrigation in India. (Underground water/Tubewell)
Answer:
Underground water

Question 6.
_________ is responsible for green revolution in India. (J.L. Nehru/Dr. Norman Verlog)
Answer:
Dr. Norman Verlog

Question 7.
At present agriculture contributes about _________% to the national income. (14.6 / 15.3)
Answer:
15.3.

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
State any one land reform of India.
(a) Tenancy reforms
(b) Abolition of zamindari system
(c) Ceiling of landholding
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 2.
How much share of agriculture Was in GPD in 2067-08?
(a) 14.6%
(b) 15.9%
(c) 17,1%
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) 14.6%

Question 3.
Which country is the largest producer of pulses?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Nepal.
Answer:
(a) India

Question 4.
When was green revolution started?
(a) 1966-67
(b) 1969-70
(c) 1985-86
(d) 1999-2000.
Answer:
(a) 1966-67

Question 5.
What is the present share of agriculture in National Income of India?
(a) 12.6%
(b) 14.8%
(c) 14.2%
(d) 15.3%.
Answer:
(d) 15.3%.

Question 6.
HYV stands for :
(a) Haryana Youth Variety
(b) Huge Yield Variety
(c) High Yielding Variety
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) High Yielding Variety

True / False:

Question 1.
Green revolution in India came into existence in 1947.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Indian economy is agricultural economy.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The father of Green Revolution in India is Dr. Norman Berlog.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Consolidation of holdings is a type of land reform.
Answer:
True.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Agriculture is the backbone of Indian economy.” Discuss.
Answer:
Agriculture forms the backbone of the Indian economy and despite concerted industrialisation in the last four decades, agriculture occupies a place of pride. Being the largest industry in the country, agriculture is the source of livelihood for over 46.2 per cent of population in the country. About 15.3 per cent of national income of the country is contributed by agriculture. In 2017-18, 46.2 per cent of India’s working population was engaged in agriculture. Moreover, Indian agriculture has been the source of supply of raw materials to our leading industries. It is blear, therefore, that agriculture is the backbone of the Indian economy and prosperity of agriculture can also largely stand for the prosperity of the Indian economy.

Question 2.
Name the different factors responsible for low agricultural productivity in India.
Answer:
The different factors responsible for low agricultural productivity in India are :

Heavy dependence on rainfall.
Excessive pressure of population on land.
Lack of improved seeds.
Lack of manures and plant protection.
Out-of-date implements.
Lack of irrigation facilities.
Lack of adequate finance.
Lack of marketing facilities and price incentives.
Poor implementation of land reforms.
Neglect of agricultural research.
Ignorance and illiteracy of farmers etc.

Question 3.
Write a short note on green revolution.
Answer:
Agricultural production during five-year plans has increased tremendously. There are many causes for this rapid increase. India had experienced this increase in production in 1966-67. It is known as green revolution.

Factors responsible for Green Revolution. The different factors responsible for green revolution in India are :

High yielding varieties of seeds.
Chemical fertilizers.
Irrigation.
Multiple cropping.
Agricultural machinery.
Credit facilities.
New techniques.
Research.
Plant protection.
Marketing facilities.
Institutional reforms.
Price-incentives etc.

All these factors contributed in bringing green revolution in India.

Question 4.
Give suggestions to make green revolution successful.
Answer:
Following suggestions can be offered to render Green Revolution successful:
1. Expansion of Green Revolution. Green Revolution should be expanded by bringing under its purview new crops like sugarcane, pulses, oilseeds etc.

2. Development of Means of Irrigation. Means of irrigation should be further developed in Punjab. Thein Dam Project and Ravi-Beas Project should be further expanded. Poor farmers should be given subsidies for installing pumping-sets or tubewells.

3. Help to small farmers. Small and marginal farmers should be brought within the scope of Green Revolution. They should be provided with cheap facilities to enable them to buy HYV seeds, fertilizers, machines etc. They should be enrolled in Cooperative Farming Societies.

4. Growth of Commercial Crops. Green Revolution should include in its ambit such commercial crops as oilseeds, sugarcane, cotton, pulses, potatoes etc. Special efforts should be made in this respect.

5. Integrated farm policy. To make green revolution a success integrated farm policy should be adopted. Farmers should get fertilizers, seeds, pesticides and machines at reasonable price and in reasonable quantity.

Question 5.
What is meant by irrigation? Why is it necessary?
Answer:
Providing water to land by human made resources is called irrigation. Irrigation is necessary in order to increase the productivity of agriculture. Irrigational facilities have been extended. Several major and minor irrigation projects were launched in the country. In 1951 hardly 17% of total land was covered by irrigational facilities which has now extended up to 34% of land. Multiple crop system will be possible only through irrigational facilities.

Question 6.
Write down the main sources of irrigation in India.
Answer:
The main sources of irrigation in India are :
1. Water above the land. It includes rain water, rivers, canals, ponds, lakes etc.

2. Underground water. This water is obtained by digging wells and tubewells. These sources of irrigation in India are divided in the following categories :

Big Irrigation Projects. More than 10 thousand hectares of land is irrigated under these projects.
Medium Irrigation Projects. These projects irrigate 2 thousand to 10 thousand hectares of land.
Small Irrigation Projects. These projects irrigate less than 2 thousand hectares of land.

Question 7.
How has green revolution helped in solving the Indian food problem?
Answer:
Following are the main reasons:

Increase in production. As a result of green revolution production of many crops has increased rapidly from 1966-67 onwards.
Reduction in imports of foodgrain. As a result of green revolution, imports of foodgrains have considerably fallen down in India.
Increase in Trade. Because of green revolution, agriculture production has increased. It has increased the market surplus of agro products, which in turn has expanded domestic and foreign trade. Now surplus agriculture products are even exported.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the problems of agriculture in India?
Answer:
Even after seven decades of Independence, the agricultural sector is not completely developed. There are so many problems which are responsible for its backwardness. The problems are as follows:
1. Problem of Marketing. The marketing system of agricultural products is quite poor in India. As a result, farmers are unable to get fair prices of their crops. They sell their products in villages at lower prices and therefore, they remain poor. Urban markets are far away from the villages and transportation facilities are not developed there.

2. Problem of Credit Facilities. Credit is one of the main problems of Indian farmers. Farmers are unable to get easy loans from banks and co-operative societies. This forces them to get loans from local moneylenders at exorbitant rate of interest. Thus they are caught in debt trap.

3. Problem of Rural Indebtedness. Indebtedness is also the main problem of Indian agriculture. Indian farmers always remain in debt. They take loans for cultivation and even for the sale of their produce.
In the words of M.L. Darling, “Indian peasant is born in debt, lives in debt and dies in debt.”

4. Problem of Weak Cattle. Due to the lack of modernisation in the agricultural sector, the problem of weak cattle is responsible for the low productivity. Cattle used in Indian agriculture are not given required fodder and their death rates are also high due to overwork. As a result, farmers have to buy more cattle, which increases their expenditure along with the cost of production.

5. Problem of Illiteracy. Indian famers suffer from illiteracy on a large-scale. They have no knowledge to increase production and yield.

6. Problem of Disguised Unemployment. A larger number of Indian population is engaged in agriculture because the industrial and service sectors do not absorb them. The productivity of disguised unemployed remains low. Farmers are unable to gain surplus yield from their fields due to disguised unemployment.

Question 2.
Explain the need and type of land reforms implemented in the agriculture sector.
Answer:
Land Reforms. Equity in agriculture is called land reforms. Land reforms refer to the change in the ownership of land holdings.
There were three types of land tenure systems prevailing in the country at the time of Independence:

Zamindari System
Mahalwari System
Ryotwari System.

The basic difference between these three was regarding the mode of payment of land revenue. The land revenue was collected from the farmers by the zamindars in Zamindari System. In the Mahalwari System, the land revenue was collected by the village head on behalf of the whole village. While in Ryotwari System, the land revenue was directly paid to the State or Government by the farmers. In all these systems, the land was cultivated by tenants. The Zamindars and Jagirdars thus collected rent from the actual tillers of the soil without contributing to making improvements on the farm. As a result,, the productivity of Indian agriculture was low which forced India to import food from the United States.

In 1948, a year after Independence, steps were taken to abolish Zamindari (Jagirdari), Mahalwari, and Ryotwari System and to make the tenants or tillers the owners of the land.

Football Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Football Game Rules.

Football Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Write a note on the FootBall playground, Goal Area, Goal, Penalty Area, Corner Area, Lines, and Ball?
Answer:
Football playground:
The football ground will be rectangular. Its Length is a Minimum of 90 M (100 yards), Maximum of 120 M (130 yards). Width Minimum 45 M (50 yards), Maximum 90 M (100 yards).

International Match. Length: Minimum 100 M (110 yards), Maximum 110 M (120 yards) Width: Minimum 64 M (70 yards), Maximum 90 M (100 yards).

Football image 1

Marking:
The playfield should be marked with distinctive lines. These lines should not exceed five inches in width. Long lines are called touch lines and the short lines the goal lines. At each comer of the playfield a flag post is placed. Such a post should not be less than one yard outside the touch line. A circle shall be drawn in the centre of the field of play with a radius of ten yards.

Goal Area:
At each end of the playfield two lines shall be drawn which shall be at right angles to the goal lines. Each line shall extend upto 10 yards in the field, and shall be joined by a line drawn parallel to the goal line. The space encircled by these lines and the goal lines is called the goal area.

Penalty Area:
Two lines shall be drawn at each comer of the field at right angles to the goal lines. These lines shall be at a distance of 18 yards from each goal post, and shall be joined by a line drawn parallel to the goal line. The space enclosed by these lines and the goal lines is called a penalty area.

Goal Post:
Two posts shall be placed in the centre of goal lines at a distance of 8 yards or 24 feet. Their ends are joined by a crossbar. These are 8 high from the ground. The width and the thickness of goal posts and cross bars should not exceed 5″.

Football image 2

Corner Area:
From the post of each corner flag, a quarter circle, with a radius of one yard, will be drawn inside the playground. On all the four comers of the playfield 3 yard high flags are placed. Two flags are placed on either sides of the centre line outside the ground at a distance of 1 yard. The remaining flags are placed on the corner of the ground.

Ball:
The shape of football is spherical. Its upper part is made of leather or of some other approved material. Its circumference is not less than 68.5 cms and not more than 71 cms. Its weight shall be from 14 to 16 ounces. The ball cannot be changed during the play without the permission of the referee.

Question 2.
How many players take part in the game of Foot Ball? Describe the duration of the game, dress, numbers of officials, and goal?
Answer:
Number of players:
A football match is played between two teams. Each team consists of 11 players and 5 extra players. In a match no team is allowed to substitute more than two players. The substituted player is not allowed to take part in the match again.

Dress:
The player can normally wear a shirt or jersey, underpants (knickers), socks and shoes. The colour of the goalkeeper’s shirt or jersey shall be different from that of other players. The shoes are to be worn compulsorily.

Officials:
Among the officials are a referee and two line men. The referee makes the players obey the rules of the game and decides any matter of big dispute. His decision, about what happened in the game and what was the result, is final.

Duration of the Game:
The game is played in two equal durations of 45 minutfes each. An interval of 5 minutes follows the first duration, and of 10 minutes with the consent of the two teams. The start of play. In the beginning of the play the choice of the first kick and the side is made by a toss. The toss winning team is free to choose either side and to kick first.

Score or Goal:
When a ball, according to rules, crosses completely the goal line under the cross bar between the goal posts, a goal is allowed. The team scoring more goals shall be declared the winner. In case, no goal is scored or an equal number of goals are scored, the game shall be termed a draw. But if the tournament is taking place as per league rules, then in case of a draw both the teams shall be awarded 1 point each.

Golden Goal

If the football match ends in draw, the extra time for play will be given of which duration of play will be 15-15 minute each whenever during the period of a goal is scored by a team the match ends there and then. In case there is no result during the play, then 5-5 penalty strokes are made by each team till the winner is decided.

The Ball In and Out of play

The ball is out of play as a result of the following reasons:

If the ball crosses the goal line on the ground or in the air.
When the referee has stopped the game.
When the ball goes out after having touched the goal post, cross bar or comer flag post.
When the ball goes out of the goal line, in the goal posts under the crossbar, provided the ball is not thrown with hand or arm.
When a player played the ball when the ball was at a lesser distance than him from the goal line of his rival.

The ball in the play

The ball remains in the play from the beginning to the end, but when it was in these situations:

If the ball bounces back after having struck the goal post, the crossbar comer and flag.
From a wrong play to the whistling of the umpire.
When the ball strikes the umpire or line man when he is in the playfield.
Till the sound of the whistle from outside the playfield.
The game continues despite any infringement of a rule until the umpire stops the game.

Formation of Players:
The formation of players in football matches varies. Normally, it is 1-2-3-5. But in the European countries it is as follows:

Football image 3

The players continue to change the formation during the play according to the need.

Question 3.
What do you understand by off side, Free kick, Throw in, Penalty kick, Corner kick, Goal kick?
Answer:
(1) Off-side:
A player is off-side when he is in the half of his opponents or their goal line, and when there are no two opponents behind him. Even in such cases he is not off side if he is in the following situations:

When he is in his own half of the field of play.
When the ball last touches him or he plays with it.
When he receives the ball from goal kick, throw-in or comer kick or he is thrown down by the referee.
When the ball has been played by the opponent. For the violation of this rule, a free kick will be awarded to the players of the opposing team from the place of offence.

(2) Free Kick:
Free kick is of two types:
Direct kick and Indirect kick. When a player is taking a direct or indirect kick, opposing players should remain at a distance of 10 yards. The direct kick is that from which a goal can be scored direct. Indirect kick is that from which a goal cannot be scored unless the ball has been touched by any other player. In case of violation of this rule, the defensive team is awarded an indirect free kick from the spot of infringement.

(3) Throw-in:
When the ball passes over the touch line, either on the ground or in the air, it is thrown inside from the point where it has crossed the line. One player of the offending team throws the ball inside the playfield from the point where the ball has crossed the line.

The thrower at the time of delivering the ball must face the field. Either of his foot should be on or outside the touch line. The thrower will make use of both of his hands, and throw the ball from behind and over his head. He cannot play the ball until it has been touched or played by any other player.

If the throw-in is not proper, the opposing team takes the throw-in. If the thrower touches the ball before the ball has been touched or played by any other player, the opposing team is awarded a free indirect kick.

(4) Penalty Kick:
This kick is taken from the penalty mark. When it is being taken, only the player taking the kick and the opposing goalkeeper remain in the field of play. This mark will be at least 10 yards away. In order to complete the penalty kick the half time or the full time may be extended.

When a player is taking the penalty kick, the goalkeeper should remain standing at one place in the goal area. The goalkeeper can move after the kick has been taken. If such infringement takes place, the kick will be taken again. If, for some reason, the player taking the penalty kick misses it, then the defender is asked to take the kick from a distance of 16 yards.

If the defending team violates the rules and a goal has not been scored, the kick shall be taken again. In case of infringement of the rule by the opposing team, then the kick shall be taken again even though the goal has been Scored. If the infringement of the law is made by the player taking the kick, a player of the opposing team shall take a free hit on the place of infringement.

(5) Corner kick:
When the ball passes over the goal line and it has last been played by one of the players of the defending team, a member of the offending team is asked to take comer kick. The player of the opposing team takes the comer kick in a quarter area of the nearest flag post. Until the comer kick is taken, the players of the opposing team shall remain away at a distance of 10 yards. The kicker cannot touch the ball until it has been touched or played by another player.

Football image 4

(6) Goal Kick:
When the ball passes over the goal line (not over the goal posts), and it is being played by the opposing team, then the defending team takes the kick outward the penalty area. When the kick is being taken, the players of the opposing team shall remain outside the penalty area. If the ball does not go out of the penalty area and does not reach the playground direct, the kick shall be re-taken. The kicker cannot touch it until it has been touched or played by another player.

Fouls and Offences in the Game of Football

(a) If a player intentionally commits the following offences or infringement of rules, the opposing team shall be awarded an indirect free kick from the place of infringement:

Kicks or attempts to kick an opponent.
Jumps, pushes or strikes a blow at an opponent.
Charges an opponent in a violent or dangerous manner.
Charges an opponent from behind.
Holds an opponent or plays by holding on to his clothes.
Hurts or attempts to hurt an opponent.
Obstructs an opponent or throws him by the use of his legs or attempts to throw him.
Pushes an opponent with his hand or any part of his arm.
Holds the ball in his hand.

If a player of the defending team commits any of these offences in the penalty area, the attacking team is given penalty kick.

(b) If a player, commits the following offences, the opposing team shall be awarded an indirect free kick from the place of infringement:

When he plays the ball in dangerous way.
When the ball is away and he charges the other player with shoulder.
While playing, he deliberately obstructs the player of the opposing team.
To attack the goalkeeper, except:

- When he is obstructing an opponent.
- When he is holding the ball.
- When the ball goes out of his goal area.

5. (a) When as a goalkeeper, he takes more than four steps without throwing the ball on the ground.

Football image 5

(b) When as a goalkeeper he indulges in such tactics as hold up a game and waste the time, and tries to give undue advantage to his team.

he indulges in abuses and plays foul.
he misbehaves even on being warned.
he plays foul or misbehaves. In that case, the referee can send him off the field for the whole duration of the game.

Question 4.
Describe some important Technique of Football?
Answer:
The important Technique of Football

Kicking:
Kicking is a way of moving the ball towards the required direction with the help of feet, with the required speed keeping in view that the ball reaches its destination. In the art of kicking, accuracy, speed, direction and distance are maintained not by left or right foot but by both feet.

The most important point in the training of the players is about the need of playing the game with both feet. It is easy to teach the young new players how to play with both feet. Without it, it is difficult for a player to reach any level of success in the game.

To kick with the inside of feet.
To kick with the outside of feet.

When the ball is kicked within a short distance these two variations are put into use. The ball moves slowly but a great improvement is brought about, as result of which this method is often put into use at the time of aiming towards the goals.

Football image 6

Half Kick:
When the ball comes bouncing to the player or is in the air, there is then a sort of instability not only about its direction of bouncing because of the level of football ground but also about its height and speed. The most effective way of making it clear is the right time, co-ordination of the movements of kicking feet and the raising of the ball upto a proper height.

Football image 7

Over head kick:
This kick is taken with a three-fold purpose

(a) to deflect the ball from the opposing player
(b) to move the ball towards the direction of the kick, and
(c) to turn the ball back towards the direction from where it came. Over-head kick is an improved form of kick, and is generally taken in case the ball is bouncing.

To Make Pass:
The action of making ‘passes’ in football is the basis of team work. The pass increases the co-ordination among the team and adds to the growth of team work. Connected with the condition of the play a ‘pass’ is an evidence of the team play and hence is a basic element for which special time and attention should be given during the training and practice of the team. To achieve perfection at goals a team pass is a right type of kick by an individual player.

It is said that a successful pass is better than kicks. To give pass is an important part of inter-relatedness. It is to harmonize the complex structure of mutual movement between players with individual intelligence at the time of attack and defence during the play. In giving pass, one who makes ‘pass’ the ball and the one who receives the ‘pass’ are involved.

Making passes are normally categorised into long and short passes:

(a) Long passes:
These passes are made use of when there is rapid movement in the game. In such situations long passes prove to be very useful. In such passes, the ball can be moved both sideways and backward. In all long passes, the upper part of the foot or kick is used. The long passes strengthen the defence and facilitate short passes.

(b) Short passes:
Short passes are used for a distance of 15 yards or so, and they are more quick and accurate than long passes.

Push pass:
The use of push pass is made when the opponent is not very near. It is also made to throw the ball in the goal area at a close distance and to throw the ball towards the sides.

Low-pass:
It is shorter than push-pass. In it, the ball is raised high and bounced. It is used to cross the ball over the head of the opponent when he is quite near or is trying to take the throw-ball.

The Outer-parts of Feet-Flick or Jab Pass

In contrast to the other two passes, the flick pass is used to flick or push the ball, having turned the feet inward. This type of pass is used to give pass towards the back while keeping the ball in possession and dribbling it.

Trapping:
Trapping is the basis of controlling the ball. The trapping of the ball means preventing the ball from going away from the player. It is not merely an activity of stopping the ball or making it stationary but also an essential technique used to take the ball in firm hold. Stopping the ball is first step of ball control, and the second part which the player brings into practice for his own benefit is also essential.

Note:
The training of traps should be given for
(a) dribbling ball and
(b) bouncing ball.

Football image 8

Trap with the Under-foot:
Such a type of trapping is good if you have no hurry and enough freedom, and nobody is beside you.

Trap with Inner Parts of Feet

It is most effective and commonly used trap. Not only does this trap enable a player to trap the ball but also helps him in moving towards any direction. This trap is particularly good for the ball coming from a side or a comer. If the ball comes straight, the body is moved in the direction in which the ball is to go.

Football image 9

Trap with the Outer Part of Foot

It is like the earlier one but it is difficult for in it one has to keep the balance as the weight of the player’s body turns outside and off the centre.

Pet or Chest-trap

When the ball is above the waist and cannot be effectively trapped with feet, it is taken on the abdomen or chest or as it bounces from the ground.

Football image 10

Head-trap

It is meant for those experienced players who are well-versed in the foundation of ‘heading’.

Football image 11

Important Information About the Football Game

The length of the ground = 100 yards to 130 yards 100 metre to 120 metre
The Breadth of the ground = 50 yards to 100 yards 45 meter to 90 metre
The shape of football ground = square
Number of players in one team = 11 and 5 substitutes
Circumference of the ball = 27° to 28°
Weight of the ball = 14 Aunce to 18 aunce
Duration of the match = 45-45 minutes of two half
Interval time = 15 minutes
Substitution of players in one match = 3 players
Official of the match = One table official, one referee, two line man,
Height of the goal post = 2.44 m
Height of the corner flag = 5
The match is played between two teams. Each team has eleven players. The total number of players in a team are 16, out of which only 11 play. Among these players there is a goalkeeper. 5 players are kept in reserve as substitutes.
During the play a team cannot substitute more than two players. A substituted player is not allowed to play again.
The duration of the game will be 45-5-45 minutes. The interval will be of 5 minutes.
After the interval the teams change their ends/sides.
By giving pass to each other on the fixed spot on the centre, line, that players start the game. Ends are decided by toss.
One table official, a referee and two line men are officials for the match.
The dress of the goalkeeper is different from that of his team.
The player should not wear anything which may prove to be dangerous to other players.
The game stops when the ball crosses the goal or side line.
The referee can ask for the stoppage of the game for some reason.

Gymnastics Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Gymnastics Game Rules.

Gymnastics Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Gymnastics is an ancient sports in 2600 BC. Gymnastics exercises used to be performed in China but the actual development started in Greece and Rome. The word ‘Gymnastics’ is derived from the Greek word ‘Gymnos’ which means “Naked body”, actually exercises done by naked body is called Gymnastics. These exercises used to be performed to keep the body healthy.

The Greek laid down the great emphasis on Gymnastics. The spartans were very popular in providing Gymnastics training for their youth. Boys and girls were expected to be good Gymnastics in those days. With the fall of both civilizations i.e. Greek and Roman, Gymnastics disappeared from these civilizations.

The Great Grandfather of Gymnastics John Guts Muths introduced Gymnastics in the Persian schools. In this way Germany rediscovered Gymnastics and owing to that the International Gymnastics Federation was constituted in 1881. In 1884 the first Gymnastics competition was conducted in Modem Olympics which were held in Athens in 1896.

Gymnastics for men was included but later on Gymnastics for women was included in 1928 Olympic games in 1974. In Asian games which were held in Tehran, Gymnastics was made one of the sports. The first world cup of Gymnastics was held in 1975. In these days Gymnastics is an attractive, fascinating and very popular sport.

Latest General Rules of Gymnastics

1. Men compete in six events

floor exercises
vaulting horse.
Pommelled horse
Roman Rings
Horizontal bars and parallel bars. Women compete in four events i.e. vaulting horse, uneven bars, balancing beam and floor exercises.

2. Gymnasts present themselves to a Judge before and after their event. They start their exercise when the signal is given to them. If during the exercise they fall, they have 30 seconds to remount and continue.

3. Regarding team competition, size Gymnastics of each perform is compulsory and an optional exercise on each apparatus. The five highest scores are added to give the team total.

4. A gymnast must wear proper kit. He may wear bandages or socks. He/She must starts the exercise within 30 seconds. When the signal is given by a coach another gymnast may assist a gymnast into hanging position on horizontal bar and Roman Rings.

Question 1.
Write about the Sports Equipment of Gymnastics.
Answer:
Specification of Playfield and related Sports Equipment

(A) Equipment for men
1. Floor = 12 M × 12 M
2. Parallel Bars

Length of bars = 3500 m.m.
Width of bars = 420-520 m.m.
Height of bars = 1750 m.m.

Gymnastics image 1

3. Horizontal Bar

Diameter of Bar = 28 m.m.
Length of Bar = 2400 m.m.
Height of Bar = 2550 to 2700 m.m.
Diameter of uprights = 50-60 m.m.
Diameter of Tension work = 5.6 m.m.

Gymnastics image 2

4. Pommel Horse

Length of Pommel Horse = 1600 m.m.
Width of Pommel Horse = 350 m.m.
Height from the floor = 1100 m
Height of Pommel = 120 m.m.
Distance between Pommel = 400-450 m.m.

Gymnastics image 3

5. Roman Rings

Diameter (Grip) = 28 m.m.
Height of stand from floor = 5500 m.m.
Length of leather straps = 700 m.m.
Thickness = 4 m.m.
Inside diameter of Ring = 180 m.m.
Height of the rings from floor = 2500 m.m.
Width = 35 m.m.

Gymnastics image 4

6. Vaulting Horse

Height of vaulting horse = 1350 m.m.
Adjustable steps in the intervals = 50 m.m.
Length = 1600 m.m.

Gymnastics image 5

(B) Equipment of Women

1. Floor = 12 m × 12 m
2. Vaulting Horse
Height of Vaulting Horse = 1250 m.m.
Adjustable steps in the Intervals = 100-150 m.m.
Length = 1600 m.m.

3. Balancing Beam

Length of Beam = 5000 m.m.
Width of Beam = 100 m.m.
Height of Beam = 1200 m.m.
Adjustable = 700 – 1200 m.m.

Gymnastics image 6

4. Uneven bars

Length of uneven bars = 2400 m.m.
Height of the bars from floor = 2300 m.m. and 1500 m.m.
Distance between bars = 580-900 m.m.
Diameter of uprights = 50-60 m.m.
Thickness of uprights = 30 m.m.

Gymnastics image 7
Gymnastics image 8

Important Tournaments

Olympic Games
Asian Games
World Cup
All India Inter-University Gymnastics Championship
National Championship
Federation Cup
School National
China Cup

Sports Personalities

Indian Sports Personalities

Sham Lai
Km Kripali Patel
Dr. Kalpana Debnalt
Montar Debnalt
Anju Dua
Sunita Sharma

International Sports Personalities

Olga Korbut
Nadia Comaneci
Nelli Kim
Ludmilla Tourscheva
Dov. Lupi
Karin Janz
Elvra Saadi

Question 2.
Describe the fundamental skills of Gymnastics?
Answer:
Fundamental Skills of Gymnastics For Men

(A) Parallel Bars

Up start
Front start
Shoulder stand
Hand stand
Hand stand with 180° Turn
Hand stand to Front turn on the shoulder
Backward Roll 8. Hand stand to cast wheel

(B) Horizontal Bar

Up start with over grip
Up start with under grip
Short circle
One leg circle with heel foot
Heel foot
Swing through vault

Front Support Position
Single Leg Half Circle
Double Leg Half Circle
Front Scissors

(D) Roman Rings

Up start
Back circle to back hang
Muscle up
Back level
Back uprise
Dislocation
Back uprise with L-position.

(E) Vaulting Horse

Straddle vault
Squat vault
Cast wheel
Hand stand with cast wheel
Hand spring.

(F) Floor Exercises

Forward Roll to Hand stand
Backward Roll to Hand stand
Forward Roll to Head spring
Hand spring to Dive Roll
Round off to Flick Flak
One Leg Hand Spring
Hand stand to Forward Roll with straight legs

Fundamental Skills of Gymnastics For Women

(A) Balancing Beam

Gallop step with Balance
Scissors Jump
Forward Roll
Backward Roll
Cast wheel
Bridge
Balance
Dismount

(B) Vaulting Horse

Spit vault
Hand spring
Squat vault

Swing on Upper Bar
Back uprise
One Leg Forward Circle
One Leg Backward Circle
Cross Balancing
Hand Spring.

(D) Floor Exercises

Forward Roll to Hand stand
Backward Roll to Hand stand
Round off
Slow back Hand spring
Split Sitting
Slow Hand spring
Hand spring
Head spring

Points In Gymnastics

For each gymnastic exercise, there are points from 0 to 10, and each point is sub-divided into 10 parts. If the panel of the judges is of five members, the minimum and maximum points are not considered, and an average of mid three points is taken. If the panel is composed of three judges, the marks of three are taken for average.

Decisions:
The following points are important so far as decisions are concerned:

Five or at least three judges are kept till the end of each event of the competition. One of these judges is considered to be Chief Judge.
The judges make an assessment of the feats of other players on the basis of the feats of the first players on eveiy apparatus. They also consult one another for exercises so that there may be a common base of assessment.
Thereafter, they decide independently and do not consult one another except in very special circumstances.
The result shall be decided from the average of points awarded by three judges.
If there is difference in the points awarded by two judges, the points of Chief Judge are also considered.
It is the duty of the Chief Judge to make a compromise between the other two judges in case of dispute. If the other Judges do not reach a compromise, the Chief Judge shall declare his verdict.

Question 3.
Write brief Rules of Gymnastics?
Answer:
General Rules of Gymnastics

Each team consists of 6 players. Each player participates in all events. For team championship, the performance of the best five players is taken into account.
The substitution of players during the competition is not allowed.
The judges of events and teams should reach the ground in time.
If a player meets with an accident or falls ill, the captain should immediately call the doctor and get his advice.
The game may be stopped for half an hour so that the same player recovers and joins the team. If his condition does not improve, he is removed from the game and the game restarts.
Team competitions shall be held in two parts-first for compulsory exercises and second for optional exercises.
The duration of these competitions shall be determined beforehand, and the competitions shall be held according to the fixed schedule.
Only those players, who have taken part in all events of the team competition, are allowed to participate in the final.
Only members of the jury, contestants and their technical managers, secretaries, members of the watch and ward staff looking after the equipment and playground are allowed to be present at the place of competitions.
Each player is entitled for two attempts on Long-Horse vault. The best performance shall be credited.
Optional or voluntary exercises cannot be repeated on any apparatus.
No team can use its own apparatus. It is the duty of the organisers to arrange for the apparatus.
The organisers are to arrange for the apparatus,
If there is difference in the points awarded by judges, the verdict of the Chief Judge shall be considered.
Each player is given two tries (chances) during the competition. If he does not touch vaulting horse or Beam Balance, he is given another chance. But if he touches any of these, a foul is awarded.
There can be no substitution of players during the play.

Points to Remember

For each gymnastic exercise, there are points for 0 to 10, and each point is further divided into ten parts.
The decision of the jury is final. No appeal can be made against it.
A team participating in a gymnastic contest is composed of 6 players. The team participating in School Mini National Games is, however, composed of 6 players.
Players cannot be substituted after the competition has started.
Only those players, who have taken part in all events of team competition, can participate in the final.
If a player gets hurt or feels sick during competition, his team can wait for thirty minutes for his condition to improve.
If a player leaves the team without the permission of the jury, he will not be allowed to rejoin it.
For team championship, the performance of the best five players is considered.

Important Information About the Gymnastics Game

Number of players in Gymnastics = 8
Substitution is allowed or not = no substitution
Decision of the jury = Final
Time for waiting of player = 30 minutes
A player can whether = no leave the court or not
To decide the woman the number of players are wanted = 6 players
Points are given = 0 to ten
Officials for competition = Three to five
Competition for boys =
- Parallel bar
- Vaulting horse
- Ground Gymnastic
- Horizontal Bar
- Roman Ring
- Pommel horse
Competition for girls =
- Beam Balance
- Ground Gym
- Uneven Bar
- Vaulting horse

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Winter Vegetables

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 4 Winter Vegetables Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 4 Winter Vegetables

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Winter Vegetables Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How many vegetables should be consumed per person per day for the maintenance of good health?
Answer:
284 gram.

Question 2.
Which type of soil is best for potato cultivation?
Answer:
Sandy loam soil.

Question 3.
Name the types of fertilizers.
Answer:
Fertilizers are of two types-Chemical and organic.

Question 4.
Write the name of black carrot variety.
Answer:
Punjab Black beauty.

Question 5.
When is Pusa Chetki variety of radish sown?
Answer:
April to August.

Question 6.
Write the name of two early maturing varieties of pea.
Answer:
Matar ageta-6, Arkel.

Question 7.
Give the ideal time of broccoli nursery sowing.
Answer:
Mid August to mid September.

Question 8.
Name two late maturing varieties of potato.
Answer:
Kufri sindhuri and Kufri badshah.

Question 9.
How much seed is required for raising one acre nursery of cabbage?
Answer:
200 to 250 gram.

Question 10.
Write the name of improved varieties of cauliflower.
Answer:
Pusa snowball-1, Pusa snowball K-l, Giant snowball.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Define vegetables.
Answer:
That soft, juicy, fleshy, part of a plant, e.g. flower, fruit, stem, root, leaves etc. which can be consumed uncooked, in the form of salad or by cooking is called vegetable.

Question 2.
Which vegetables are grown through transplantation?
Answer:
Those vegetables are grown through transplantation, which can tolerate the shock of transplanting. Some of the vegetables which can be grown through transplantation are cabbage, Chinese cabbage, onion, lettuce, cauliflower etc.

Question 3.
How vegetable cultivation is useful for livelihood security?
Answer:
Vegetable crops mature in short duration and we can get two to four crops in a year. The yield of vegetable crops is 5-10 times than the yield of paddy-wheat, thus income is also high which we get on daily basis. Cultivation of vegetable is a good source of employment.

Question 4.
How to control weeds in pea?
Answer:
Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre or Tafalon 50 WP 500 gram per acre before the emergence of weeds within two days of sowing. Dissolve these herbicides in about 200 litre of water and spray in the field.

Question 5.
How to control weeds in potato?
Answer:
To control weeds in potato use stomp 30 EC one litre for one acre or arelon 75 EC 500 gram for an acre or sencor 70 EC 200 gram for one acre. Dissolve herbicide in 150 litre water and spray before the emergence of weeds and after first irrigation.

Question 6.
Give seed rate/acre and spacing in carrot.
Answer:
Seed rate: 4-5 kg per acre.
Spacing: Row spacing should be 45 cm.

Question 7.
Write improved varieties and seed rate/acre of potato.
Answer:
Improved varieties: Kufri Surya, Kufri Pukhraj, Kufri Jyoti, Kufri Pushkar, Kufri Sindhuri, Kufri Badshah.
Seed rate: 12-18 quintal seed per acre.
Sowing time: For Autumn season last of September to mid October and for spring season first fortnight of January.

Question 8.
Write ideal time of planting and seed rate/acre in Chinese cabbage.
Answer:
Sow nursery in mid September and transplanting the seedling in field in mid October. Seed rate for one acre of nursery is 200 grams and 1 kg per acre for direct sowing.

Question 9.
Which type of soil is best suited for vegetables cultivation?
Answer:
Vegetables can be grown in different type of soils. But sandy loam or clayey loam soils are best suited for cultivation of vegetables. For root crops like carrot, radish, turnip, potato etc., sandy loam soil is best suited.

Question 10.
Write improved varieties of Chinese cabbage.
Answer:
Chini sarson-1, Saag sarson.

Question 1.
How radish can be raised around the year?
Answer:

Variety of Radish	Time of Sowing	Maturity
Pusa himani	January to February	February to April
Punjab Pasand	Second fortnight of March	End of April-May
Pusa Chetki	April to August	May to September
Punjab safed mulli-2	Mid September to October	October to December
Japanese White	November to December	December to January

Question 2.
What is the importance of vegetables in human diet?
Answer:
Vegetables play very important role in the human diet. Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals and vitamins etc. which are essential for human health. According to dieticians, an adult needs 284 grams of vegetables daily. Out of this quantity 114 gram vegetables should be leafy vegetables, 85 grams should be root vegetables and 85 grams other vegetables. Vegetables can be taken uncooked and cooked. In India maximum population is vegetarian. Therefore vegetables are very important in our diet.

Question 3.
How to save winter vegetables from the attack of insect-pests and diseases?
Answer:

By ploughing in summer many of the insects, fungi and other nemotodes of soil are killed.
If suitable crop rotation is adopted theft potato and peas can be saved from many diseases.
By sowing early varieties and insects can be removed by mechanical method
Destroy the diseased plants to save other plants from diseases.
By treating the seeds with captan or thiram and other suitable chemicals plants can be prevented from diseases and attack of insects-pests.
Savin, Fame insecticides can be used to get rid of some insects like caterpillars and beetles. Sapsucking insects and aphid can be controlled by using Rogor, Metasystox and malathian.

Question 4.
Describe briefly the early cultivation of peas.
Answer:

Improved varieties: Early sowing varieties are Matara ageta – 6 and 7 and Arkel. Main season varieties are Mithi Phali
Yield: 20-24 quintal per acre for early varieties. For main season varieties 47-55 quintal per acre.
Climate: Cool climate
Time of Sowing: Mid-October to mid November.
Seed rate: 45 kg per acre for early maturing and 30 kg per acre for main season. If sowing for the first time, inoculate with Rhizobium.
Spacing: 30×7.5 cm. for early and 30×10 cm for main season varieties.
Irrigation: First irrigation after 15-20 days of sowing second at flowering stage, third at pod forming stage.
Weed control: Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre or Tafalon 50 WP 500 gram per acre before the emergence of
weeds that i§ after two days of sowing: Dissolve these herbicides in about 200 litre of water and spray in the field.
Harvesting: Harvesting should be done at proper edible maturity stage.

Question 5.
Write ideal time of nursery sowing, seed rate/acre and spacing for early, mid and late season cauliflower.
Answer:
1. Sowing nursery:

Early Cauliflower. June to July
Main season. August to mid September
Late maturity. October to first week of November

2. Seed rate:

For early sowing 500 gram per acre
For others 250 gram per acre.

3. Spacing: 45 x 30 cm

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Winter Vegetables Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
According to dieticians, an adult should take gram of vegetable.
(a) 500
(b) 285
(c) 387
(d) 197.
Answer:
(b) 285

Question 2.
Root vegetables are:
(a) carrot
(b) radish
(c) turnip
(d) peas.
Answer:
(d) peas.

Question 3.
Vegetables which are grown by transplanting are:
(a) Cauliflower
(b) Broccoli
(c) Onion
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

Question 4.
Rabi vegetables are:
(a) carrot
(b) peas
(c) cauliflower
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

Question 5.
…………… is not a variety of radish.
(a) Pussa Chetki
(b) Japanese white
(c) Pusa snowball
(d) Pusa Pas and.
Answer:
(c) Pusa snowball

Question 6.
Varieties of potato are:
(a) Kufri surya
(b) Kufri Pushkar
(c) Kufri Jyoti
(d) All.
Answer:
(c) Kufri Jyoti

Question 7.
Which insecticide is used to protect crop against sap sucking insect
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Captan
(c) Stomp
(d) Malathion.
Answer:
(d) Malathion.

True or False

1. Palam Smridhi is a variety of Broccoli.
Answer:
True

2. Japan white is a variety of radish.
Answer:
True

3. There are two types of fertilizers.
Answer:
True

4. Punjab black beauty is a variety of carrot.
Answer:
True

5. Pusa snowball-1 is a variety of cauliflower.
Answer:
True

Fill in the blanks:

1. Pusa Himani is a variety of …………….. .
Answer:
radish

2. Kufri Sindhoori is a variety of …………… .
Answer:
potato

3. Average yield for main season varieties of pea …………….. is quintal per acre (q/acre)
Answer:

4. Pea seed is treated ………… with culture to get more yield.
Answer:
Rhizobium

5. Arkel is a variety of …………… .
Answer:
pea.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
According to scientists, what is the required quantity of vegetables for an adult in grams for good health?
Answer:
284 gram.

Question 2.
What is the future of vegetables in our country?
Answer:
Bright future.

Question 3.
How much time is required for maturity of vegetables?
Answer:
Very less, we can get 2-4 crops in a year.

Question 4.
What is the yield of vegetables as compared to paddy-wheat crop cycle?
Answer:
5-10 time more than paddy-wheat cycle.

Question 5.
Which type of soil is best suited for cultivation of vegetables?
Answer:
Sandy loam to clayey loam soil.

Question 6.
What type of soil is best suited for root vegetables?
Answer:
Sandy loam soil.

Question 7.
How many type of fertilizers are there? .
Answer:
Two types.

Question 8.
Which are the two types of fertilizers?
Answer:
Chemical and organic.

Question 9.
What should be the quality of seed?
Answer:
It should be of improved variety and disease free.

Question 10.
Which nutrients are found in fertilizers?
Answer:
Nitrogen, phosphorus and potash etc.

Question 11.
What are the methods of sowing seeds?
Answer:
Direct sowing and transplanting.

Question 12.
Write name of crops which can be directly sown.
Answer:
Potato, carrot, fenugreek, corriander etc.

Question 13.
Which vegetables are grown by transplanting?
Answer:
Chinese cabbage, cauliflower, broccoli, onion, lettuce etc.

Question 14.
What happens if we plough the Held in summer for cultivation of vegetables?
Answer:
Insects, fungi and nemotodes are removed from the soil.

Question 15.
Which chemical can be used to treat the seed of vegetables?
Answer:
Captan or thiram.

Question 16.
Which pesticide is used to control the caterpillars and beetles in vegetables?
Answer: Savin, fame.

Question 17.
Which pesticides are used to control sap sucker insects and aphid?
Answer:
Rogor, Metasystox, Malathion.

Question 18.
Name Rabi Vegetables.
Answer:
Carrot, radish, cabbage, cauliflower, potato, peas etc.

Question 19.
Which variety of carrot can tolerate more heat?
Answer:
Desi variety.

Question 20.
Name varieties of carrot.
Answer:
Punjab black beauty, Punjab carrot red.

Question 21.
What is the colour of PC 34 of carrot and also give its yield?
Answer:
red colour, 200 quintal per acre.

Question 22.
Where is carrot sown?
Answer:
On the ridges.

Question 23.
What should be the spacing between ridges for carrot?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 24.
What is seed rate for carrot?
Answer:
4-5 kg per acre.

Question 25.
What is the harm of over irrigation of carrots?
Answer:
Carrots do not acquire proper colour.

Question 26.
What is the time of maturity of carrots?
Answer:
90-100 days depending on variety.

Question 27.
(a) Name varieties of radish.
(b) Write the name of one improved variety of Raddish.
Answer:
(a) Punjab pasand, Pusa chetki, Pusa himani, Japanese white, Punjab safed muli-2 etc.
(b) Punjab Pasand.

Question 28.
What is the yield of radish?
Answer:
105-215 quintal per acre.

Question 29.
What is seed rate for radish?
Answer:
4-5 kg seed per acre.

Question 30.
Where is radish sown? What is the spacing?
Answer:
On the ridges, spacing is 45 x 7.5 cm.

Question 31.
What is the time for maturity of radish?
Answer:
45-60 days.

Question 32.
Name early varieties of peas.
Answer:
Ageta matar-6 and 7, Arkel.

Question 33.
What is the yield of early varieties of peas?
Answer:
20-24 quintal per acre.

Question 34.
Name main season varieties of peas.
Answer:
Mithi phali, Punjab-89.

Question 35.
‘Mithi Phali’ is the improved variety of which vegetable?
Answer:
Peas.

Question 36.
What is the yield of main season varieties of peas?
Answer:
47-55 quintal per acre.

Question 37.
Which variety of pea can be taken with its peel?
Answer:
Mithi Phali.

Question 38.
What is suitable time of sowing for peas?
Answer:
Mid October to mid November.

Question 39.
What is seed rate for peas?
Answer:
For early varieties 45 kg and for main season crop it is 30 kg per acre.

Question 40.
Write about spacing for peas.
Answer:
For early maturity varieties, spacing should be 30×7.5 cm and for main season variety it is 30×10 cm.

Question 41.
Pea seed is inoculated with what?
Answer:
Pea seed is inoculated with Rhizobium.

Question 42.
What is the suitable temperature for cultivation of cauliflowers?
Answer:
15-20 degree centigrade.

Question 43.
Name main season variety of cauliflower.
Answer:
Giant snowball.

Question 44.
Name late maturity varieties of cauliflower.
Answer:
Pusa snowball-1, pusa snowball K-1

Question 45.
What is the time of maturity for cauliflower?
Answer:
It takes 90-100 days after transplanting.

Question 46.
What is the time for transplanting of cabbage in the fields?
Answer:
September to October.

Question 47.
What is the seed rate for cabbage?
Answer:
200-250 gram per acre.

Question 48.
What is the spacing for cabbage?
Answer:
For early maturing varieties it is 45×45 cm and for late varieties it is 60×45 cm.

Question 49.
(a) Name the varieties of Broccoli and give its yield.
(b) Punjab Brocoli is the improved variety of which vegetable?
Answer:
(a) Punjab Broccoli-1 and Palam Smridhi average yield is 70 quintal per acre.
(b) It is similar to cauliflower-It is improved variety of Brocoli.

Question 50.
Give seed rate for Broccoli.
Answer:
250 gram per acre.

Question 51.
What is the suitable time for nursery raising for Broccoli?
Answer:
Mid August to mid September.

Question 52.
What is the time for nursery raising for Chinese cabbage?
Answer:
Mid September for nursery raising and mid October for transplanting.

Question 53.
What is seed rate for Chinese cabbage?
Answer:
For nursery it is 200 gram per acre and for direct sowing it is one kg per acre.

Question 54.
How many cuttings can be taken for Chinese cabbage?
Answer:
Total six cuttings.

Question 55.
Name early varieties of potato.
Answer:
Kufri surya, Kufri pukhraj.

Question 56.
In how many days early varieties of potato mature?
Answer:
90-100 days.

Question 57.
What is the yield of early varieties of potato?
Answer:
100-125 quintal per acre. .

Question 58.
Name middle season varieties of potato.
Answer:
Kufri Jyoti, Kufri Pushkar.

Question 59.
In how many days middle season varieties of potato mature? Give yield also.
Answer:
Mature in 100-110 days. Yield is 120-170 quintal per acre.

Question 60.
Name late maturing varieties of potato. .
Answer:
Kufri Sindhuri, Kufri Badshah.

Question 61.
In how many days late varieties of potato mature and what is the yield?
Answer:
110-120 days for maturity. Yield is 120-130 quintal per acre.

Question 62.
What is ridge spacing and tuber spacing?
Answer:
60 cm, 20 cm.

Question 63.
How should potato be sown?
Answer:
By cutting the seed.

Question 64.
‘Kufri Pukhraj’ is the variety of which vegetable?
Answer:
Potato.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is vegetable?
Answer:
That soft, juicy, fleshy part of plant e.g. flower, fruit, stem, root, leaves etc. which can be consumed uncooked or cooked is called vegetable.

Question 2.
Which nutrients are found in vegetables?
Answer:
Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins etc. which are essential for body.

Question 3.
Every adult should take 284 grams of vegetables, what is the proportion of different categories of vegetables in it?
Answer:
284 gram of vegetable is divided as below-114 gram leafy vegetables, 85 gram ropt vegetables, 85 gram other vegetables.

Question 4.
What are the benefits of organic manure or fertilizer?
Answer:
Organic manure keep the soil healthy, physical and chemical state of the soil remains balanced. Soil remains soft and well aerated.

Question 5.
Which vegetable can be grown by transplanting?
Answer:
Those vegetables which can tolerate the shock of transplanting e.g. cabbage, broccoli, onion etc.

Question 6.
What is the role of chemicals in preventing insects and diseases of winter crops?
Answer:
Seed is treated with captan or thiram which help in prevention of insects and diseases. Some pesticides are fame, savin etc. can control the caterpillars and beetles. Juice sucking insects and aphid can be controlled by using Rogor, Metasystox and malathian.

Question 7.
Write about irrigation of carrot.
Answer:
Carrot needs 3-4 irrigations. First irrigation is applied immediately after sowing and second irrigation is applied after 10-12 days.

Question 8.
How do we use radish in our diet?
Answer:
Radish is used in our diet as salad, it can be cooked and also used to prepare stuffed pranthas.

Question 9.
Name main varieties of radish, grown in Punjab, also write yield.
Answer:
Punjab Pasand, Punjab safed muli-2, pusa chetki are main varieties of radish which are sown in Punjab and yield is 105-215 quintal per acre.

Question 10.
Write about irrigation for radish.
Answer:
First irrigation is applied immediately after sowing and then in summer after 6-7 days and in winter after 10-12 days depending on the soil type.

Question 11.
If peas are sown for the first time, with what pea seeds are inoculated?
Answer:
Pea seeds are inoculated with Rhizobium culture. It helps in nodule formation and also help in increasing the yield. It helps in fixing the nitrogen in the soil.

Question 12.
Write about weed control in peas.
Answer:
Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre or Tafalon 50 WP 500 gram per acre before the emergence of weeds within two days of sowing. Dissolve these herbicides in about 200 litre of water and spray in the field.

Question 13.
Write about irrigation application for cauliflower.
Answer:
Cauliflower requires total 8-12 irrigations. First irrigation should be applied immediately after transplanting the seedlings.

Question 14.
Write about weed control in cabbage, cauliflower and Broccoli.
Answer:
Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre by dissolving it in 200 litre of water. Apply this solution in the moist soil conditions one day before transplanting of the seedlings.

Question 15.
What is the use of leaves of Chinese cabbage? In how many days it is ready for first cutting?
Answer:
Leaves of Chinese cabbage are used to make saag. First cutting can be taken after 30 days of transplanting. .

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about cultivation of carrot as under:

varieties, colour
yield
seed rate
harvesting
spacing.

Answer:

Varieties: Two varieties-Desi and European. There are two varieties of carrot in Punjab -PC 34 and Punjab black beauty. PC 34 is of red colour and Punjab black beauty is of Blackish violet colour.
Yield: For black variety 196 quintal per acre and for red variety 200 quintals per acre.
Seed rate: 4-5 kg per acre.
Harvesting: Depending upon variety, harvesting can be done in 90-100 days.
Spacing: Sow carrot on ridges and spacing between ridges is 45 cm.

Question 2.
Write the cultivation of broccoli as per given below:

Improved varieties
Sowing time
Seed rate per acre
Distance between plants.

Answer:

Improved varieties: Punjab broccoli-1, Palam smridhi.
Yield: 70 quintal per acre.
Time of sowing: Time of sowing for nursery is from mid August to mid September and when seedlings are one month old, transplant in the field.
Seed rate: 250 gram per acre.
Distance between plants: Row spacing and plant spacing should be 45 cm.

Question 3.
Write about cultivation of potato.
Answer:
1. Varieties:

Early sown: Kufri surya, Kufri pukhraj.
Mid season: Kufri jyoti, Kufri pushkar.
Late varieties: Kufri Badshah, Kufri sindhuri.

2. Yield:

Early varieties: 100-125 quintal per acre.
Mid season varieties: 120-170 quintal per acre.
Late varieties: 120-130 quintal per acre.

3. Harvesting:

Early varieties: 90-100 days
Mid season varieties: 100-110 days
Late varieties: 110-120 days.

4. Time of sowing: For autumn season from last week of September to mid October and for spring season first fortnight of January.

5. Seed rate: 12-18 quintal per acre. In spring season seed rate of early varieties is 8 quintal and for late varieties 4-5 quintal seed per acre. Use cut tubers for sowing.

6. Spacing: Ridges should be spaced 60 cm and between tuber it should be 20 cm.

7. Weed control: Use stomp 30 EC one litre or arelon 75 EC 500 gram or sencor 70 EC 200 gram, by dissolving in 150 litre of water, before the emergence of weeds and after the first irrigation.

8. Irrigation: Apply first irrigation immediately after sowing. This helps in better germination.

Question 4.
Write five advantages of cultivating vegetables?
Answer:

Vegetables are short duration crops and we can get 2 to 4 crops of vegetables in a year.
Vegetables production in our country is less as compared to the requirement.
Vegetables are cheap source of nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins etc.
The yield of vegetables in 5-10 times more than wheat-rice rotatoin and income is also higher.
It provides employment to all the family members in their fields and agricultural resources can be utilized efficiently for whole of the year.

Question 5.
Write the cultivation of radish as per given below :

Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Spacing between ridges
Harvesting
Yield per acre.

Answer:

Two improved varieties- Pusa himani, Pusa chetki
Seed rate per acre- 4-5 kg. per acre.
Spacing between ridges- 45 cm
Harvesting- 45-60 days after sowing.
Yield per acre- 105-215 quintal per acre.

Question 6.
Write the cultivation of early maturing varities of potato as per given below:

Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Spacing between ridges
Irrigation
Yield per acre.

Answer:

Two improved varieties-kufri Surya, Kufri Pukhraj
Seed rate per acre-8 quintal
Spacing between ridges-60 cm
Irrigation-Apply first irrigation just after sowing
Yield per acre-100-125 quintal per acre.

Question 7.
Write the cultivation of early maturing varieties of pea as given below:

Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Spacing
Irrigation
Yield per acre.

Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Rabi Crops

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 3 Rabi Crops Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 3 Rabi Crops

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Rabi Crops Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Name any two oilseed crops.
Answer:
Raya, Linseed.

Question 2.
Name any two improved varieties of wheat.
Answer:
H.D. 2967, DBW 17.

Question 3.
How much seed is required to sow one acre of Raya?
Answer:
1.5 kg seed per acre.

Question 4.
Name two insect-pests of gram.
Answer:
Termite and gram caterpillar.

Question 5.
Name any two diseases of wheat.
Answer:
Kamal Bunt, yellow rust.

Question 6.
Name any two weeds of wheat
Answer:
Canary grass (gullidanda), Senji (sweet clover), Maina (toothed bur clover), Maini.

Question 7.
Which crop is known as king of fodders?
Answer:
Berseem.

Question 8.
What is the sowing time of lentil?
Answer:
Second fortnight of October.

Question 9.
Name any two improved varieties of barley.
Answer:
PL 807, PL 426.

Question 10.
How much is the oil content in sunflower seeds? Or What percent of oil found in sunflower seeds?
Answer:
40-43%.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Write the per acre nutrient requirement of wheat.
Answer:
50 kg nitrogen, 25 kg phosphorus and 12 kg potash per acre.

Question 2.
Name two wheat based crop rotations.
Answer:
Rice-wheat, cotton-wheat.

Question 3.
In which crop and against which weeds herbicide Total is used?
Answer:
Total is used in wheat for gullidanda.

Question 4.
When should oats be harvested for fodder?
Answer:
Harvesting of oats should be done from boot to milk stage.

Question 5.
How to control itsit in berseem?
Answer:
Those fields where itsit is a problem, sow Berseem mixed with Raya and in the fields where itsit is a problem sowing should be delayed and done in second week of October.

Question 6.
When should sunflower be harvested?
Answer:
When heads turn yellowish brown at lower side and discs start drying up then the crop is ready for harvesting.

Question 7.
What is canola sarson?
Answer:
Gobhisarson is Canola Sarson.

Question 8.
Write the time and method of sowing of barley.
Answer:
Time of sowing for barley is 15 October to 15 November. Spacing for normal sowing should be 22.5 cm and for rainfed and late-sown crop spacing should be 18-20 cm. It can be sown like wheat without ploughing i. e. without any preparatory tillage.

Question 9.
Write the sowing time and per acre seed rate of desi gram.
Answer:
For rain fed crop time of sowing is 10 to 25 October and for irrigated conditions crop, time of sowing is 25 October to 10 November. Seed rate is 15-18 kg per acre.

Question 10.
Which soils are not suitable for lentil?
Answer:
Saline, alkaline or waterlogged soils are not suitable for lentil.

Question 1.
Write the sowing time and sowing methods of wheat.
Answer:
Optimum time for sowing wheat is from fourth week of October to fourth week of November. If sowing is delayed then the yield is reduced by 150 kg per acre per week.

Method of sowing:
Wheat is sown using seed-cum-fertilizer drill. Row spacing should be 20 to 22 cm and sowing should be done at a depth of 4-6 cm. Sowing should be done by using bi-directional method. This means use half seed and half fertilizer should be used in one direction and other halves on the other side at right angle to the 1st one. This will help in increasing the yield by 2 quintals per acre. Bed planter can be used to sow wheat on beds. In this method seed rate is 30 kg per acre and water requirement is also reduced.

Question 2.
Give methods of sowing of berseem.
Answer:
Suitable time of sowing for Berseem is last week of September to first week of October. Berseem is sown in standing water using broadcast method. If there is high wind, seed should be broadcasted in dry field and then use raking and irrigation.

Question 3.
Give importance of sulphur in oil seeds and name its sources.
Answer:
Usually, there is less need of sulphur for plants. But oil seed crops require more sulphur. In case of deficiency of sulphur yield is reduced. Use of sulphur is necessary for the use of nitrogen. For proper activity of enzymes and for synthesis of oil sulphur is necessary. Therefore superphosphate should be given in preference for phosphorus because it also contains sulphur. If this fertilizer is not available then use 50 kg gypsum per acre.

Question 4.
Name varieties of raya and give its nutrition requirement.
Answer:
Varieties: RLC-1, PBR-210, PBR-91.

Fertilizers:
40 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre is required. Use potash after testing the soil. This is a oil seed crop and also require sulphur. Therefore use single super phosphate for phosphorus since it also contains sulphur. If this fertilizer is not available use 50 kg gypsum per acre.

Question 5.
Name broadleaf weeds of wheat and give their control measure.
Answer:
Broadleaf weeds which can infest in wheat are-Bathu, Button booti, Kandiali Palak, Maina, Maini, senji.

These weeds can be controlled by using 2, 4-D, Nomor, Algrip, Aim etc. Overdosing 2,4-D should be avoided if PBW 343 variety of wheat is sown. In case of broadleaf crops are sown in wheat then also avoid 2, 4-D.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Rabi Crops Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Rabi crops are:
(a) food grains
(b) pulses
(c) oil seed and fodder
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 2.
Improved variety of wheat:
(a) H.D. 2967
(b) PBW 343
(c) Durum
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 3.
Diseases of wheat are:
(a) powdery mildew
(b) loose smut
(c) kamal bunt
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 4.
Time of sowing for barley:
(а) 15 October to 15 November
(b) July
(c) 15 January to 15 February
(d) None.
Answers:
(а) 15 October to 15 November

Question 5.
Variety of Kabuli grams:
(a) PBG 1
(b) L-552
(c) GPF 2
(d) PDG-4
Answers:
(b) L-552

Question 6.
Seed rate for sunflower per acre:
(a) 5 kg
(b) 10 kg
(c) 2 kg
(d) 25 kg.
Answers:
(c) 2 kg

Question 7.
Which crop is called “King of the fooder”?
(a) Maize
(b) Clover (Berseem)
(c) Oat
(d) Lucerne.
Answers:
(b) Clover (Berseem)

True or False

1. China is the leading country in the production of wheat.
Answers:
True

2. Cool climate is suitable for wheat.
Answers:
True

3. Topic can not be used for gullidanda.
Answers:
False

4. Average yield of Barley is 15-16 quintal per acre.
Answers:
True

5. Shaftal is fodder crop of Rabi.
Answers:
True

Fill in the blanks:

1. Seed rate for wheat crop is …………… kg seed per acre.
Answers:
40

2. Zinc Sulphate is used to cure deficiency of …………………. .
Answers:
Zinc
3. ………….. country is highest producer of barley.
Answers:
Rusian federation

4. Bathu is …………… leaf weed.
Answers:
Broad

5. O.L.-9 is variety of …………….. .
Answers:
Oats.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many categories are there for Rabi crops?
Answer:
Three categories-cereals, pulses and oilseed, fodder crop.

Question 2.
Which country is the highest producer of wheat?
Answer:
China.

Question 3.
Which state in India is highest producer of wheat? Or Which state has highest wheat production in India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
How much land is under the cultivation of wheat?
Answer:
35 lakh hectare.

Question 5.
What is the yield of wheat in Punjab?
Answer:
18-20 quintal per acre on average basis.

Question 6.
Name crop rotations for wheat.
Answer:
Maize-wheat, Mash-wheat, groundnut-wheat.

Question 7.
Which variety of wheat is used for making Pasta?
Answer:
Durum wheat.

Question 8.
Which herbicide is used before sowing wheat, if there is problem of weeds? ’
Answer:
Use gramoxone before sowing. .

Question 9.
Which machine is used for direct sowing of wheat in combine harvested paddy fields?
Answer:
Happy seeder.

Question 10.
What is seed rate for wheat?
Answer:
40 kg per acre.

Question 11.
If sowing of wheat is delayed for a week, what is the effect on yield?
Answer:
Yield is reduced by 150 kg per acre per week.

Question 12.
How much yield is increased by bi-directional sowing of wheat?
Answer:
2 quintal per acre.

Question 13.
How is wheat sowed on beds?
Answer:
By using bed planter.

Question 14.
How will you control gullidanda in wheat? Name two herbicides for this.
Answer:
Topic, Leader, Treflan.

Question 15.
Name broad leaf weeds.
Answer:
Bathu, Kandiyali, Palak (golden dock), Maina, Maini, Senji, button booti.

Question 16.
In which type of soils, deficiency of zinc occurs?
Answer:
In light textured soils.

Question 17.
Which fertilizer is used if deficiency of zinc is found?
Answer:
Zinc sulphate.

Question 18.
Which fertilizer is used as a remedy for deficiency of manganese?
Answer:
Manganese sulphate.

Question 19.
How many irrigations are required for wheat?
Answer:
4-5 irrigations.

Question 20.
Which country is highest producer of barley?
Answer:
Rusian federation.

Question 21.
In which state is the production of barley highest in India?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 22.
What is the area under the cultivation of barley?
Answer:
12 thousand hectare.

Question 23.
What is average yield of Barley?
Answer:
15-16 quintal per acre.

Question 24.
Give crop rotations for barley.
Answer:
Paddy-barley, Cetton-Barley, Bajra-Barley.

Question 25.
Name improved varieties of Barley.
Answer:
PL 807, VJM 201, PL 426.

Question 26.
What is seed rate of barley for irrigated crop?
Answer:
35 kg per acre.

Question 27.
Which weedicide is used to control jaundhar (wild oats) weed in Barley?
Answer:
Isoproturon or Avadex B.W.

Question 28.
How many irrigations are required for Barley?
Answer:
1-2 irrigations.

Question 29.
Name major pulse crops of RabL
Answer:
Grams and lentils.

Question 30.
Name major oil seed crops of RabL
Answer:
Gobi sarson, Toria, Taramira, Linseed (alsi) and Sunflower.

Question 31.
Which country is the highest producer of pulses?
Answer:
India.

Question 32.
Which state has the highest production of pulses in India?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 33.
How much area is occupied by gram crop?
Answer:
Two thousand hectare.

Question 34.
What is average yield of gram in Punjab?
Answer:
Five quintal per acre.

Question 35.
Name crop rotations for gram crop.
Answer:
Bajra-grams, Paddy/Maize-gram.

Question 36.
Name varieties of grams (irrigated).
Answer:
GPF – 2, PBG – 1.

Question 37.
Name varieties of desigrams (non irrigated).
Answer:
PDG – 4 and PDG – 3.

Question 38.
Name varieties of kabuli grams.
Answer:
552, BG 1053.

Question 39.
Give seed rate for desi grams.
Answer:
15 to 18 kg per acre.

Question 40.
Give seed rate for kabuli grams.
Answer:
37 kg per acre.

Question 41.
What is the optimum time of sowing for desi gram (rain fed)?
Answer:
10 to 25 October.

Question 42.
What is suitable time for sowing kabuli grams?
Answer:
25 October to IQ November.

Question 43.
What is line spacing for gram?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 44.
How many irrigations are required for grams?
Answer:
One irrigation.

Question 45.
How much area is under the cultivation of lentils?
Answer:
1100 hectare.

Question 46.
What is the average yield of lentils?
Answer:
2-3 quintals per acre.

Question 47.
Give crop rotation for lentils.
Answer:
Rice-lentils, Cotton-lentil, groundnut-lentil.

Question 48.
What is seed rate for lentil?
Answer:
12 to 15 kg per acre.

Question 49.
What is sow spacing for lentil?
Answer:
22.5 cm.

Question 50.
How many irrigations are required for lentil?
Answer:
1 to 2 irrigations.

Question 51.
Which insect attack the lentil crop?
Answer:
Pod borer.

Question 52.
Raya is placed in which category commercially?
Answer:
Mustard category.

Question 53.
Name crop rotations for Raya.
Answer:
Maize/Bajra – Raya – Summer Moong, Cotton – Raya.

Question 54.
Name improved varieties of Raya.
Answer:
RLC – 1, PBR – 210, PBR – 91.

Question 55.
What is seed rate for Raya?
Answer:
1.5 kg per acre.

Question 56.
What is row spacing for Raya?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 57.
If superphosphate is not available, which other fertilizer can be used for Raya?
Answer:
Gypsum.

Question 58.
In which category gobhisarson is placed at commercial level?
Answer:
Rape seed category.

Question 59.
Write crop rotations for gobhisarson.
Answer:
Rice/maize-gobhi sarson – summer moong, cotton – gobhi sarson.

Question 60.
Name varieties of gobhisarson.
Answer:
PGSH 51, GSL 2, GSL-1

Question 61.
Which are canola varieties?
Answer:
GSC 6, GSC 5.

Question 62.
What is seed rate for gobhisarson?
Answer:
1.5 kg per acre.

Question 63.
What is the row spacing for gobhisarson?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 64.
Where is the production of sunflower highesf in the world?
Answer:
Ukrain.

Question 65.
How much land area is occupied by sunflower in Punjab?
Answer:
20-21 thousand hectare.

Question 66.
What is the average seed yield for sunflower?
Answer:
6.5 quintal per acre.

Question 67.
Which soil is not suitable for cultivation of sunflower?
Answer:
Salt affected soils.

Question 68.
Give sunflower crop rotation.
Answer:
Rice/maize – Potato – sunflower, Rice – Toria – sunflower, Cotton – sunflower, Basmati – sunflower.

Question 69.
Name varieties of sunflower.
Answer:
PSH 996, PSH 569, Jawalamukhi.

Question 70.
Give row spacing for sunflower.
Answer:
60 cm.

Question 71.
Where should the seed of sunflower be placed below the ridge top?
Answer:
6 to 8 cm below the ridge top.

Question 72.
What is used to control weeds in sunflower?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 73.
How many irrigations are required for sunflower?
Answer:
6 to 9 irrigations.

Question 74.
How much fodder is required for an adult animal?
Answer:
40 kg per day.

Question 75.
Write the name of four fodder crops of Rabi.
Answer:
Berseem, safflower, shaftal, lucerne, oats, ryegrass, senji.

Question 76.
Write the name of two improved varieties of Berseem.
Answer:
BL 42, BL 10, BL1.

Question 77.
What is seed rate for Berseem?
Answer:
8 – 10 kg per acre.

Question 78.
What is optimum time for sowing of Berseem?
Answer:
Last week of September to first week of October.

Question 79.
What should be used for controlling of Bueen?
Answer:
Basalin.

Question 80.
If there is problem of itsit what should be mixed with Berseem?
Answer:
Raya.

Question 81.
When is Berseem ready for first cutting?
Answer:
About 50 days after sowing.

Question 82.
Name varieties of oats.
Answer:
OL 9, Kent.

Question 83. What is seed rate for oats?
Answer:
25 kg per acre.

Question 84.
What is time of sowing for oats?
Answer:
Second week of October to last week of October.

Question 85.
How many irrigations are required for oats?
Answer:
3-4 irrigations including Rauni (pre-sowing irrigation)

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is cool climate required at the time of sowing for wheat?
Answer:
Warm climate is unfavourable to tillering and it becomes helpful in promoting several diseases.

Question 2.
What type of soil is required for wheat?
Answer:
Wheat can be grown on all types of soils except water logged and highly deteriorated alkaline soils. Well drained medium textured loamy soil is the best. For durum wheat medium to fine textured soils are best suited.

Question 3.
How will you control the problem of gullidanda in wheat?
Answer:
If problem of gullidanda is found, it can be reduced by rotation of wheat with Berseem, Potato, Raya etc. Stomp, Leader, Topik, Total herbicides can be used to control gullidanda.

Question 4.
When should we not use leader or stomp in the Helds of wheat?
Answer:
If wheat is grown mixed with gobhi sarson or Raya, then we should not use leader or stomp.

Question 5.
What are the symptoms for deficiency of zinc in wheat?
Answer:
Generally, deficiency of zinc appears in light soils. Due to deficiency of zinc, plants do not develop properly. Crop becomes stunted and bushy. Leaves become chloiatic, which break and keep hanging.

Question 6.
What are the symptoms of deficiency of manganese in wheat?
Answer:
Generally, deficiency of Manganese appears in light soils. The symptoms appear on middle leaves and specks are seen at lower part as intervenial chlorosis. These specks then coalesce and form bands but the veins remain green.

Question 7.
What do you know about soil type for Barley?
Answer:
Barley can grow well in sandy and salt affected soils. In the initial phases of reclamation of these soils, Barley can be-grown.

Question 8.
What do you know about seed rate and seed treatment for Barley?
Answer:
For timely and irrigated crop seed rate is 35 kg seed per acre, is required. For delayed and rain fed crop seed rate is 45 kg per acre. Treat the seed with Vitavax or Raxil to control smut.

Question 9.
Write about fertilizer application in Barley.
Answer:
Requirement of fertilizers for barley is 25 kg nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus and 6 kg Potash per acre. Apply Potash after getting tested the soil Drill all the fertilizers at the time of sowing.

Question 10.
Write about weed control in Barley.
Answer:
Broad leaf weeds like Bathu can be controlled by applying 2, 4-D or algrip, Jaundhar (wild oats) by isoproturan or avadex BW and gullidanda by Puma Power or topic.

Question 11.
Write about major insect-pest and major diseases of Barley.
Answer:
Insect which can attack barley is aphid. Diseases of barley are – stripe disease, covered smut, yellow rust etc.

Question 12.
Why is there a need of importing Pulses?
Answer:
India is a leading country in the production of pulses but consumption of pulses in India is also very high therefore there is a need of importing pulses.

Question 13.
Write climate requirement for grams.
Answer:
Severe cold and frost are injurious to this crop but due to early onset of summer, crop matures before time and yield is reduced. This is a crop of low-rainfall areas.

Question 14.
What type of soil is suitable for grams?
Answer:
Well drained, light to medium textured soil is best suited for grams. This crop can grow, even in those soils, in which other crops can not grow. Saline, alkaline or water logged soils are not suitable for grams.

Question 15.
What do you know about field preparation for grams?
Answer:
There is no requirement of field preparation for grams. If soil is ploughed deeply (deep tillage!, it helps in increasing the yield and it also help in preventing some of the diseases.

Question 16.
What do you know about irrigation for grams?
Answer:
Generally, one irrigation is required for grams. This irrigation should be applied between mid December to last January but never irrigate before sowing.

Question 17.
What do you know about harvesting of gram?
Answer:
When pods mature and plants dry up, crop is ready for harvesting.

Question 18.
What type of climate and soil is suitable for lentil?
Answer:
Cool climate is best suited for lentil. It can tolerate frost and severe cold. It can be grown in all types of soils except alkaline, water logged and salt affected soils.

Question 19.
What do you know about land preparation for Lentil?
Answer:
Plough the field two-three times followed by planking each time.

Question 20.
What do you know about fertilizer application in lentil?
Answer:
Lentil require 5 kg nitrogen per acre. When the seeds are inoculated with Rhizobium then 8 kg phosphorus and if not inoculated than 16 kg phosphorus per acre is required. Apply the fertilizers at the time of sowing.

Question 21.
What do you know about irrigation of lentil?
Answer:
Depending on rain, 1 to 2 irrigations are required for lentil. If one irrigation is to be applied, apply it after six weeks of sowing. But if two irrigations are to be applied then first water is given after 4 weeks and second at flowering stage or pod formation is given.

Question 22.
What do you know about harvesting of lentil?
Answer:
Crop is ready for harvesting when plants dry up and pods mature.

Question 23.
Write about climate and soil type for Raya.
Answer:
Raya is best suited for medium to high rain fall areas. It can grow in nearly all types of soils.

Question 24.
What do you know about method of sowing for Raya?
Answer:
Row spacing for Raya is 30 cm and thinning of the crop is done after three weeks of sowing by keeping the spacing 10 to 15 cm.

Question 25.
Write about field preparation for Raya.
Answer:
Field is prepared by ploughing 2 to 4 times followed by planking everytime. Raya can be sown by using zero till drill without ploughing.

Question 26.
Write about harvesting and threshing for Raya.
Answer:
Crop is ready for harvesting when pods mature and become yellow. Harvested crop should be stacked. Threshing is done after a week of cutting the crop.

Question 27.
Write about climate and soil requirement for gobhisarson.
Answer:
Gobhisarson is best suited for medium to heavy rainfall areas. All types of soils are suitable for growing the crop.

Question 28.
Write about seed rate and preparation of land for gobhi sarson.
Answer:
Seed rate for gobhisarson is 1.5 kg per acre. Field is prepared by ploughing 2-4 times followed by planking each time.

Question 29.
Write about oil extracted from sunflower seeds.
Answer:
Oil obtained from sunflower seeds is low in cholestrol. Edible refined oil is prepared from this. This oil is also used for manufacturing of soaps.

Question 30.
What type of soil is required for growing sunflower?
Answer:
Well drained medium textured soil is best suited for sunflower. Salt affected soil is not suitable. .

Question 31.
Write about land preparation, seed rate and seed treatment for sunflower.
Answer:
Seed rate for sunflower is 2 kg per acre and it is treated with A . recommended fungicides. For land preparation 2-3 ploughings followed by planking are required.

Question 32.
Write about hoeing and weed control in sunflower.
Answer:
First hoeing should be done after 2-3 weeks of the emergence of weeds. After that hoeing should be done after 3 weeks. Use stomp to control weeds.

Question 33.
Write about harvesting and threshing of sunflower.
Answer:
When heads turn yellowish brown at lower surface and disc starts drying up, crop is ready for harvesting. Harvested sunflower should be threshed immediately after harvesting.

Question 34.
How many cuttings can be taken for berseem?
Answer:
From November to mid of June many cuttings of berseem which are tasty and nutritious can be taken.

Question 35.
How do the seeds of Kashni (Chicory) separated from seeds of Berseem?
Answer:
Seeds of Berseem are put in water. Kashni seeds are light in weight and float on water. These can be separated by sieve.

Question 36.
Write about application of fertilizer in Berseem.
Answer:
At the time of sowing 6 tonne of farm yard manure (FYM) and 20 kg phosphorus per acre is required. If FYM is not available then 10 kg nitrogen and 30 kg phosphorus per acre should be applied.

Question 37.
Write about irrigation in Berseem.
Answer:
First irrigation is applied after 6-8 days after sowing. Next irrigations are applied, in summer after 8-10 days and in winter after 10-15 days.

Question 38.
What do you know about harvesting of Berseem?
Answer:
First cutting is ready after 50 days of sowing and subseqent cuttings are ready after 40 days interval in winter and then after every 30 days in spring.

Question 39.
Which type of soil is required for oats?
Answer:
Oats can be grown in all types of soils except waterlogged and alkaline soils.

Question 40.
What is the time and method of sowing for oats?
Answer:
Time of sowing for oats is from second week of October to last week of October. Row spacing is 20 cm. It can be sown by using zero till drill without ploughing.

Question 41.
What dq you know about hoeing and irrigation for oats?
Answer:
Generally, there is no need of hoeing. But if there is problem of weeds then hoeing should be done. 3-4 irrigations including Rauni are required.

Question 42.
Write about fertilizer application for oats.
Answer:
8 kg phosphorus, 15 kg nitrogen per acre to be applied at the time of sowing. 15 kg of nitrogen per acre is required after 30-40 days of sowing.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about following for cultivation of wheat:
(i) Improved varieties
(ii) Land preparation after paddy
(iii) Irrigation
(iv) Pest insects and diseases.
Answer:
(i) Improved varieties: PBW 621, DBW 17, PBW 343, PDW 291 etc.

(ii) Land preparation after harvesting paddy:
If wheat is to be grown after paddy, there is enough soil moisture otherwise apply rauni. Plough the field using disc hasrow in wattar (idealistic moisture in soil) state. If paddy is harvested using combine, then left over straw can be ploughed and mixed with soil, for this plough twice followed by planking. After this, use cultivator once and if soil is heavy plough it twice and apply planking each time. Use happy seeder machine to sow wheat in combine harvested paddy field without burning the left over of paddy.

(iii) Irrigation:
If wheat is sown in October then apply first irrigation after three weeks of sowing and then irrigate after four weeks. At this time, special roots are formed in wheat which are known as crown roots. 4-5 irrigations are needed for wheat.

(iv) Pest-insects and diseases:
Army worm, aphid, termite, gram pod borer etc. attack the crop. Diseases which can harm the crop are yellow rust, brown rust, loose smut, ear cockle (mamni) and yellow ear rot (tundu), and kamal bunt etc.

Question 2.
Describe following cultivation practices for Barley.

Improved varieties
Climate
Time of sowing
Row spacing
Irrigation.

Answer:

Improved varieties: VJM 201, PL 426, PL 807.
Climate: Barley require cool climate during initial stage (i.e. during early growth) and at maturity it required warm and dry weather: Barley can be grown in low rainfall areas.
Time of sowing: 15 October to 15 November.
Row spacing: For timely sowing 22.5 cm and for late-sown and rainfed condition 18 to 20 cm.
Irrigation: 1-2 irrigations are required.

Question 3.
Describe the following for cultivation of grams:

climate
soil type
rotation
improved varieties
seed rate
weed control
harvesting
insects pests and diseases.

Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 4.
Describe cultivation of lentil with respect to following points

climate and soil
improved varieties
crop rotation
seed rate and treatment
fertilizers
harvesting.
irrigation

Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 5.
Give cultivation details for Raya.
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 6.
Give fertilizer application for wheat, barley, grams and lentil.
Answer:
Fertilizer application per acre is as follows:

	Nitrogen	Phosphorus	Potash
1. Wheat	50 kg	25 kg	12 kg (after testing of soil)
2. Barley	25 kg	12 kg	6 kg (after testing of soil)
3. Grams (i) Desi grams (ii) Kabuli grams	6 kg 6 kg	8 kg 16 kg	– –
4. Lentil	5 kg	8 kg (if seed inoculation is done) otherwise 16 kg.

Question 7.
What do you know about irrigation of sunflower?
Answer:
First irrigation should be done after one month of sowing of sunflower. After that, irrigation should be done at intervals of 2-3 weeks. During summer in the months of April-May irrigations should be done at intervals of 8-10 days. At the flowering stage and at soft and hard dough stages of crop, irrigation application is must. Total 6-9 irrigations are required for sunflower.

Question 8.
How is field prepared for sowing of wheat?
Answer:
See above question.

Question 9.
Write a note pn sowing time and method of sunflower.
Answer:
See above question.

Question 10.
Write the description of cultivation of Kabuli Gram as per given below:

Soil
Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Sowing time
Irrigation
Harvesting.

Answer:

Soil: Well-drained, light to medium textured soil is best suited for grams. This crop can grow, even in those soils, in which other crops can not grow. Saline, alkaline, or waterlogged soils are not suitable for grams.
Two improved varieties: L 552, BG 1053.
Seed rate per acre: 37 kg.
Sowing time: 25 October to 10 November.
Irrigation: Only one.
Harvesting: When pods mature and plants dry up, the crop is ready for harvesting.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 HTML II

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 3 HTML II Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 3 HTML II

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB HTML II Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is the use of Forms in HTML?
(a) To display contents of email
(b) To display animation effect
(c) To collect user’s input
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
(c) To collect user’s input

Question 2.
Which of the following is most commonly used HTTP methods?
(a) PRE and POST
(b) GET and SET
(c) ASK and REPLY
(d) GET and POST
Answer:
(d) GET and POST

Question 3.
Is it possible to link within the current page?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Only in frames
(d) Null
Answer:

Question 4.
An html form is part of a web page that includes areas where:
(a) Information is feeded by the user
(b) And sent to the website server
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
A container tag and is used to allow multiple lines of text in a single input item is known as:
(a) Text area
(b) Checkbox
(c) Radio Button
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Text area

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 3 HTML II

2. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
……………. tag is used to create a linkon a webpage.
Answer:
Anchor

Question 2.
………….is used to feed informationinto the Webserver.
Answer:
Form

Question 3.
If you want to allow multiple lines oftext ………………. is used in the form.
Answer:
Textarea

Question 4.
To select multiple options in a form we can use …………….
Answer:
Checkbox

Question 5.
To clear all options from a form we can use ……………… button.
Answer:
Reset

3. True or False

Question 1.
An unvisited Link is underlined and blue.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
<input type=”password”> will show asterisks in the text box.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Selection lists are used to define the dropdown lists.
Answer:
True

4. Full Forms

1. <A>
Answer:
Anchor tag

2. HREF
Answer:
Hyperlink REFerence

3. URL
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator

4. BGCOLOR
Answer:
Background Color

5. SRC
Answer:
Source

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which tag is used to link a webpage?
Answer:
<A> Anchor Tag.

Question 2.
Which attribute is defined to specify where to send the form-data when a form is submitted?
Answer:
Action attribute.

Question 3.
This method is used to encode the feeded data by the user by using URL path and is sent to the server.
Answer:
GET method.

Question 4.
What are used to perform some action on the given webpage?
Answer:
Button.

6. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is hyperlink?
Answer:
Hyper link is a method to connect two destinations on web pages. These destinations can be with in a webpage or it can be outside web page i.e. on another webpage.

Question 2.
What is Anchor tag? Explain with example.
Answer:
Anchor tag is the tag which is used to create a link in html document. This tag creates link within a webpage and also with another webpage. The tag uses href as compulsory attribute.
Example : Following is an example of anchor tag <a href= “www.Google.com” > Google </a>

Question 3.
What is a form?
Answer:
An html form is part of a web page that includes areas where readers can enter information to be sent back to website or the publishers of the web page It is a container that consists of other form elements such as text box, radio buttons ,list box etc.

Question 4.
Name diffefent types of buttons used in html form.
Answer:
Following are the types of buttons in HTML.
1. Submit Button
2. Reset Botton

Question 5.
What is checkbox?
Answer:
Check box appears as a small square the user can select or deselect by clicking on it. It is generally used where a group is used for sharing a common name from where information can be selected It is used in <input> html element. We must give each check box a name attributes the value defined in the type at¬tribute is checkbox. These Eire explained below with an example.
<input type-‘checkbox” name=”Child”>Children Toys <input type-‘checkbox” name=”Fumiture”> stool
You can check any option or both by clicking on it. It also supports some additional attributes.

7. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss different types of buttons with example. .
Answer:
Buttons are used to perform some action on the given webpage. Some important buttons are discussed below :
Submit button:
Every form must include a button that submits the form data to the server. You can put any label you like on this button. It has two attributes these are type, which has submit value and value attribute defines the name of the • submit button which can be displayed on the button. These are explained below with an example:
Ex.:<input type=”submit” value=”OK”>
A button will appear on screen. When the user clicks it, all data items on the form are submitted

Reset Button:
You can also include a button that clears all entries on the form so users can start over if they change their minds or make mistakes. It has two attributes these are “type”, which has reset value and value attribute defines the name of the reset button, which can be displayed on the button. These are explained below with an example:
Ex.:<input type= “reset”value= “Reset”>

Question 2.
What is selection list in form?
Answer:
Selection list is an option in which user can select single or multiple options from a given list. In this option multiple inputs are available but some options can be displayed at a time. Scrolling Lists and Pull-Down pick lists are created with the<select>tag. You can use this tag together with the<option>tag: <select>
<option> wjndows</option><option> Linux </option><option> Mac</option>
</select>
No html tags other than <option> and </option> should appear between the <select> and </select> tags.
Attributes of select tag:
Select tag has following attributes-
1. Size Attribute:
Size determines how many items are shown at once on the selection list. If size=”3″ were used in the preceding code, only the first three options would be visible, and a scrollbar would appear next to the list so the user could scroll down to see the third option.
Ex.: <Select name – ‘Weekday” size=4>

2. Name:
It is used to define name to the drop down menu.
<Select name =”WeekDay” size=4 multiple>

3. Multiple:
This is used to select multiple options from the given list. This is the value which has to be given back to the website and defined in the option tag.
Ex.: <optionValue=”Sunday”>Sunday
When this option is used the given option will be preselected.

Question 3.
Explain Text Area with an example.
Answer:
This is a container tag and is used to allow multiple lines of text in a single input item. It has two attributes these are ROWS and COLS. Row defines the number of rows defined in the text area and cols defines the number of columns used in the text area. If user wants to define some default text then he can define in-between the open closing tags of text area element. All this is explained in the given example. <textarea name=”comments” rows=”5″ cols=”25″>
Please type in more information.
</textarea>

Question 4.
What is the purpose of action and method in forms?
Answer:
Get Method:
This method is used to encode the fed data by the user by using URL path and is sent to the server. Limited data can be sent to the server. Its parameters remain in the browser history.
<FORM method=get action-‘ action.php”>

Post Method:
This method is used to store the data to the server without interfering JRL and is more secure to send information than GET method from the website form to the server. There is no restriction on sending data. Its parameters don’t remain in the browser history.
<form method=post action=”action.php”>

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Office Tools Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is used to link two pages?
(a) Page
(b) Glue
(c) Button
(d) Hyperlink
Answer:
(d) Hyperlink

Question 2.
What is not used in Form:
(a) Button
(b) Text Box
(c) Radio Button
(d) Row
Answer:
(d) Row

Question 3.
How many types of links are?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 4.
How many types of Methods are in a form?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The text which is highlighted in Blue is called ……………..
Answer:
Hyperlink

Question 2.
…………….. attribute is used to change color in table.
Answer:
BGCOLOR

Question 3.
………… attribute is used to change sell spacing.
Answer:
Cell spacing

Question 4.
………….. is used to change cell width. (2019)
Answer:
Colspan

Question 5.
Brower shows a hyper link in ……….color.
Answer:
Blue

Question 6.
…………… is used to go to another place in a webpage.
Answer:
Bookmark.

Select True/False

Question 1.
Anchor tag is used to create Hyperlink.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
<img> tag is used to insert images.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
HREF is an attribute of <img> tag.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
We can insert image in background.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
SCR is an attribute of <img> tag.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the use of anchor tag?
Answer:
Anchor tag is used to create hyperlink

Question 2.
What is linking?
Answer:
Linking is the process of joining two webpages.

Question 3.
What is SCR attribute?
Answer:
SCR attribute is used to tell the source of image in<img> tag.

Question 4.
What are various alignment option for an image?
Answer:

Left
Right
Top
Bottom
Middle.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the purpose of submit button?
Answer:
Every form must include a button that submits the form data to the server. We can put any label on this button. It has two attributes these are type, which has submit value and value attribute defines the name of the submit button which can be displayed on the button.

Question 2.
What is Marquee?
Answer:
Marquee tag is used to move the text in html document. The text starts moving when is viewed in web browsers.

Question 3.
What is inline style?
Answer:
The style in which style is defined in the tag is called inline style. It is stored in same html document and is used when the style is not repeated anywhere in the document. It effects only to that style on which it is applied.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
How external Movie or image can be used in HTML document?
Answer:
Adding Audio/Video files in HTML:
User can link audio/video files in HTML document using anchor (<a>) tag. User has to give the path of audio/video file in href attribute of anchor tag. Whenever the user clicks on the link, the files will automatically gets downloaded and is played in the associated software.