PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Long Answer Typt Questions

Question 1.
Show various steps involved in extraction of metal from an ore by a sketch.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 1
Steps involved in the extraction of metals from ores.

Question 2.
Give methods of enrichment of ores.
Answer:
Methods of enrichment of ores. Ores or minerals are mined from earth these are usually contaminated with large amount of impurities which are called gangue. It is necessary to remove these impurities before extraction of metals. By removing gangue the ore is enriched and concentration of metal is increased. Therefore ore in enriched prior to other processes. Methods of removing gangue from ore depends on the difference of physical and chemical properties of both of them.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 2
Enrichment of ore using magnetic method.

Physical methods of enrichment :

  • Hydraulic Washing: In this method finely powdered ore is washed with jet of water. In this strong flow of water light gangue particles are washed away where as heavy ore particles settle down, Tin and lead ores are enriched by this method.
  • Froth Floatation Method: In this method, mixture of powdered ore and water or some appropriate oil is taken in a tank. Ore particles are coated with oil and gangue particles are wet with water. A blast of compressed air is blown through the pipe of a rotating agitation to produce froth, due to this, mineral particles wetted with oil change into foam and float on the surface of water. Froth containing ore particles is easily transferred to another container sulphides of copper, lead and zinc are enriched by this method.

Chemical Methods: The chemical method used for the concentration of the ore is based on the difference in some chemical property of the metal and the impurities. An example of this method is the concentration of bauxite ore of aluminium.

Concentration of aluminium ore by Bayer’s process: In this method, Bauxite is reduced by treating it with hot sodium hydroxide. It gives sodium meta aluminate (NaAlO2) which is soluble in water. The solution in filtered to remove the gangue present in the ore because it does not dissolve in sodium hydroxide. NaAlO2 is allowed to react with hydrochloric acid to obtain Aluminium hydroxide. On strong heating aluminium hydroxide pure aluminium oxide is obtained.

Following reactions take place
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 3

Question 3.
Explain General methods used in the extraction of metals.
Answer:
Steps involved in the extraction of metals :

  • Enrichment (concentration) of ore.
  • Converting concentrated ore into oxide.
  • Reduction of metal oxide to obtain metal.
  • Refining of impure metal.

1. Concentration :
(A) Hydraulic washing: This method is used for concentration of oxide ores Gangue particles are lighter as compared to ore particles. In this method powdered ore is washed with flowing water. Light gangue particles are washed away with water and heavy ore particles are left.

(B) Froth floatation method: In this method powdered ore is taken in a tank containing water pine oil is also added to it. Sulphide ore is wet with oil and gangue is wet with water.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 4
The water is agitated by blowing compressed air violently, a froth is formed on the surface of water. This froth carries the lighter ore particles along with it to the surface. Gangue particles are heavy and settle to the bottom.

(C) Magnetic separation.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 5
Enrichment of ore using magnetic method.

1. Magnetic method: This method is acceptable for magnetic impurities like iron, cobalt, Nickel etc. Minerals which are of magnetic nature got attracted towards magnetic field. Chromite and pyrolusite ores are enriched by this method. In this method ground ore is placed on a conveyer belt. This belt goes around two rollers one of which is magnetic. When ore comes near the magnetic roller then two heaps of magnetic and non magnetic materials are obtained. Iron ore magnetite is enriched by this method.

(D) Chemical separation: This process is based on the difference between chemical – properties of ores and gangue eg. Bauxite Al2O3.2H2O is impure form of aluminium oxide. It contains Iron (III) oxide (Fe2O3) and sand (SiO2) as main impurities. Due to iron (III) oxide its colour is red brown. Bayer’s process is used to obtain pure aluminium from / bauxite. In this methods powdered ore is mixed with heated sodium hydroxide.
Al2O3 (S) + 2NaOH (aq) → 2NaAlO2 (aq) + H2O (l)
NaAlO2 (aq) + 2H2O (l) → Al(OH)2 (s) + NaOH (aq)
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 6

2. Converting concentrated ore into metal oxide
Roasting: In this process ore is heated in the presence of air to obtain metal oxide. Which can easily be reduced to obtain the metal.

Zinc blende contains zinc sulphide when concentrated zinc blende ore (zinc sulphide) is roasted in air then it gets oxidized to give zinc oxide.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 7
Calcination: In this process ore is heated in the absence of air to remove moisture and volatile impurities.
When carbonate ore is heated it dissociates to give metal oxide.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 8

3. Extracting metals from metal oxide.
To obtain metal from metal oxide it is heated with some reducing agent. To obtain metals zinc, iron, tin etc. their oxides ore heated with carbon which acts as reducing agent.
ZnO(s) + C(s) → Zn(s) + CO(g)

Oxides of metals with medium activity can be reduced by using highly reactive metals like sodium, calcium and aluminium etc.
3MnO2(s) + 4Al(s) → 3Mn(l) + 2Al2O3(s) + heat

4. Electrolytic refining.
In this method impure metal is taken as anode and a thin strip of pure metal is taken in the form of cathode metal salt solution is taken as electrolyte. When electric current is passed through the electrolyte, pure metal from anode dissolves into solution and impurities settle down as anode mud.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 9
Electrolytic refining

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 4.
(a). How do metals and non-metals react?
Answer:
Metals and non-metals react on the basis of electronic configuration in the valence shell.

Sodium has only one electron in its outer most shell. If it lose its electrons of the M shell then L will become its outermost shell which have complete octet. Nucleus of this atom will have 11 protons but number of electrons is 10, therefore it is positively charged and gives Na+ sodium positive ions. On the other side, there are 7 electrons in the outer most shell of chlorine and it requires one electron to complete its octet. If there is reaction between chlorine and sodium then lost electron of sodium atom is gained by chlorine atom and chlorine atom becomes negatively charged by one unit. Because there are 17 protons in the nucleus of the chlorine atom and there are 18 electrons in K, L and M shells. Therefore, chloride negative ions Cl- is obtained.

Due to opposite charges sodium and chloride ions attract each other and they form strong bonds involving electrostatic forces and form sodium chloride.

Another ionic compound, magnesium chloride is shown in fig.
Formation of NaCl and MgCl2 by Electron transfer :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 10
Formation of sodium chloride.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 11
Formation of sodium chloride.

Compounds formed by metals and Non-Metals by the transfer of electrons between them are called ionic or electrovalent compounds.

(b) Write four main exceptions from normal properties of metals and Non-Metals.
Answer:

  • All the metals are solid at room temperature except mercury. Melting point of metal is usually high but of Gallium and Cesium is low.
  • Iodine is a non-metal but still shiny.
  • Carbon is a non-metal which can have many forms. Diamond is allotrope of carbon. It is the hardest substance found in nature. Its melting and boiling point are very high. Another allotrope of carbon is graphite which is conductor of electricity.
  • Alkali metal (lithium, sodium, Potassium) are so soft that these can be cut by knife. They have low density and low melting point.

Question 5.
How will you differentiate between metals and non-metals?
Answer:
Differences between metals and non-metals on the basis of physical properties :

Metals Non-metals
1.         All metals are solid at room temperature. But mercury is liquid at room temperature. 1. Non-metals exist in all the three states at room temperature. Phosphorous and sulphur are solid, H2, O2, N2 in gaseous state, and bromine in liquid state.
2. Metals are ductile, malleable and tenacious. 2. These are soft.
3. Metals have lustre i.e. metal shine. 3. They do not have lustre but diamond, graphite and iodine are exceptions.
4. Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity but bismuth is exception.  4.All non metals are non conductors except graphite and carbon gas.
5. Metals have high melting and boiling points.  5. Non metals have low melting and boiling points.
6. Metals are hard but sodium and potassium can be cut by knife. 6. These are not very hard but diamond is the hardest substance.
7. Metals have very high relative densities but Na, K are exceptions. 7. Non metals have very low relative densities.
8. Metals are opaque. 8. Gaseous non metals are transparent.

Difference between metals and non-metals on the basis of chemical properties

Metals Non-metals
1. Metals form alkaline oxides some of them form bases. 1. Non-metals form acidic or neutral oxides.
2. Metals react with acids to displace hydrogen and form salts. 2. Non-metals do not displaces hydrogen from acids.
3. Metals are electropositive in nature. 3. Non-metals are electronegative in nature.
4. Metals combine with chlorine to form chlorides which are electrovalent compounds. 4. Non-metals combine with chlorine to form chlorides which are covalent compounds.
5. Some metals combine with hydrogen to form hydrides which are electrovalent. 5. Non-metals combine with hydrogen to form hydrides which are covalent.
6. Metals are reducing agents. 6. Non-metals are oxidizing agents.
7. Metals form positive ions in aqueous solution. 7. Non-metals form negative ions in aqueous solution.

Question 6.
Discuss about the extraction of metals
Answer:
Some metals are found in free state in nature. Some metals are found in the form of compounds. Metals at the bottom of reactivity series show very low reactivity. These are found in free state. Gold, silver, platinum and copper are found in free state.

Copper and silver are also found in the form of sulphide and oxide ores. Metals (K, Na, Ca, Mg and Al) which are at the top of reactivity series show very high reactivity that they are never found in free state. Metals at the middle of the reactivity series (Zn, Fe, Pb etc.) are moderately reactive. These are found in the form of oxide, sulphide or carbonate. Some metal ores are found in the form of oxides.

Metals are classified into three types:
(a) least reactive metals
(b) Moderately reactive metals
(c) highly reactive metals.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 12
Reactivity series and metallurgy

Question 7.
What is rust? What are the requirements necessary for its completion? Give ways to prevent rusting of iron?
Answer:
Surface of iron aquires a coating of a brown flaky substance called rust. It is a compound of Iron (III) Oxide and iron (III) hydroxide. It weakens the iron surface. Due to this, a great loss occurs to the iron articles.

The presence of moisture and air is necessary for rusting of iron. This can be proved with an experiment. If we take new shining irons nails in three test tubes as shown, then we find that nails which are in contact with water and air, got rusted. If we completely immerse the nails in water and cover the water surface with oil so that there is no air available for the nails, then nails will not get rusted.

Similarly if we use CaCl, in the test tube absorbs all the moisture so that no moisture is available in this case also, nails will not get rusted.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 13

Ways to Prevent Rusting :

  1. Using oil or grease on the surface: If iron surface is covered with oil or grease it does not remain in contact with air and thus rusting is prevented. Machine parts are saved by this method.
  2. Using enamel: By painting iron surface, rusting can be prevented. Buses, cars, scooter, motor cycle, windows, trains etc. are saved by this method.
  3. Covering with plastic: Iron surface is covered with plastic. Iron furniture is saved by this method.
  4. Galvanization: A process of coating thin layer of zinc on iron is called galvanization. This method is used to prevent buckets, tubs, drums, iron sheets etc. from rusting.
  5. By electroplating: Iron can be electroplated by metals like Nickle, Chromium, aluminium etc. Rims, handles, bumpers etc. of vehicles are prevented from rusting by this method.
  6. By tin: Iron is coated with tin. Ghee canisters, boxes used for packing food are tinned.
  7. Converting to steel: Iron can be preverted from rusting by converting it into steel.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 8.
Explain General properties of ionic compounds.
Answer:
General properties of ionic compounds are given below:

  • Physical nature: Due to strong force of attraction between positive ions and negative ions, ionic compounds are solid. They are brittle and break on pressing.
  • Melting and boiling point: They have high melting and boiling points. Because a large amount of energy is required to break the strong inter ionic attraction.
  • Solubility: Ionic compounds are normally soluble in water but are insoluble in Kerosene, Petrol etc.
  • Electric Conductivity: In solid form ionic compounds do not conduct electricity because of strong and firm structure. Movement of ions is not possible. But ionic compounds can conduct electricity in molten state, because electrostatic force of attraction becomes very weak due to heat energy. Therefore ions can move freely and electric current can pass through it. Mobility of charged particles is necessary for conduction of electricity in a solution. Ions are present in aqueous solution of ionic compounds. When electric current is passed through the solution then ions start moving towards the opposite electrodes.

Question 9.
What is an alloy? Magnetic iron oxide explain the objective of their formation?
Answer:
Alloy: An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of a metal with another metal or non-metal, e.g. solder is an alloy of lead and tin (Pb and Sn). Stainless steel, solder, brass, bronze, bell metal etc.

Uses of alloys :

  • For increasing hardness: Iron is mixed with carbon to form stainless steel which is harder than iron. Copper is mixed with gold and lead is mixed with silver to make them hard. Duralium is an alloy made from aluminium and is very hard.
  • Increasing strength: Steel, Duralium are hard as well as strong.
  • Preventing Corrosion: By making stainless steel an alloy of iron, which do not get rusted.
  • To produce sound: Bell metal is an alloy of copper and tin used to produce loud sound.
  • To lower melting point: An alloy of Bismuth, tin and lead has low melting point.
  • Moulding: Bronze and type metal.
  • For change in colour: Aluminium bronze is an alloy of copper and aluminium is of golden colour.
  • Domestic uses: Alloys are used in homes, factories, offices etc. e.g. utensils, almirahs, fans, refrigerators elements etc. are made up of alloys.

Question 10.
Explain the activity series of metals.
Answer:
All metals have different rates of activity. Some metals like sodium, potassium and calcium etc. are highly reactive. These metals combine with oxygen to form oxide and react with hydrogen to form hydrides. Some metals are compratively less reactive e.g. iron, zinc etc. Some metals are least reactive e.g. gold, silver. Reactivity of metals depends on their ability to lose electrons, Metals are arranged in a list in decreasing rate of their activity.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 14
Metals which are above hydrogen are more reactive and those below hydrogen are lower in reactivity and are found in free state. In this series potassium is the most reactive metal in this series.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two metals which are good conductors of heat and electricity. Name metals which are highly and least conducting with reference to heat.
Answer:
Copper and aluminium are good conductors of electricity and heat. Silver is very good conductor of heat whereas lead is not a good conductor of heat.

Question 2.
Define ductility with example.
Answer:
Property of drawing thin wires from a metal is called ductility. Gold is the highest ductile metal. We can draw 2 km long wire from 18 carat gold.

Question 3.
What is electrical conductivity? Name the metals which have the highest conductivity, less than this and the lowest conductivity.
Answer:
It is the ease with which electric current can flow through a metal. Those metals which offer very low resistance to the flow of current they have high conductivity. Silver, copper are very good conductors of current then comes gold, aluminium and tungsten. Lead and iron have least conductivity i.e., they offer very high resistance to the flow of current.

Question 4.
Which property of metals give them characteristic chemical properties?
Answer:
Metals form positive ions by loosing electrons. This property of formation of ions by the metals give them characteristics chemical properties, e.g., Mg form Mg ion by loosing two electrons :
Mg → Mg2+ + 2e

Question 5.
Ionic compounds are found in which state? Comment on the melting and boiling point of ionic compounds.
Answer:
Compounds which are formed by the transfer of electrons from metals to Non¬Metals are called ionic or electrovalent compounds e.g., NaCl, LiCl, CaCl2, CaO, MgCl2. Ionic compounds have very high melting and boiling points because a large amount of energy is required to break the strong inter-ionic attractions.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 6.
What is difference between minerals and ores?
Answer:

Sr. No. Minerals Ores
1. Those natural occuring substances, which contain metals in the form of compounds. 1. These are the minerals from which metals can be extracted easily and cheaply.
2. In many of the minerals percent age amount of metals is large and in some it is less. 2. In all the ores, percentage amount of metals is enough.
3. In some minerals there are so many impurities which create difficulty in the extraction of metals. 3. Ores do not have such problematic impurities.
4. All the minerals can not be used for extracting metals. All the minerals are not ores. 4.         All the ores can be used to extract metals.

Question 7.
How are the metals extracted, which are at the top of reactivity series?
Answer:
Metals which are towards the top of reactivity series are sodium, calcium, magnesium, aluminium. There are very reactive. These metals can not be obtained by heating them with carbon. These have more affinity towards oxygen, therefore these are extracted by electrolytic reduction. Sodium, magnesium and calcium are obtained by the electrolysis of their molten chlorides. Metals got deposited at cathode and chorine is liberated at anode.
At cathode : Na+ + e → Na
At anode : 2Cl → Cl2 + 2e

Aluminium is obtained by the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide.
At cathode ; Al3+ + 3e → Al
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 15

Question 8.
How the metals, which are in the middle of the activity series extracted?
Answer:
Metals which are in the middle of the activity series are iron, zinc, lead, copper etc. These are found in the form of sulphides or carbonates. It is easy to obtain metals from their oxides compared to sulphides or carbonates. Therefore before extraction metal sulphide or carbonates are converted into their oxide. Sulphide ores are converted into metal oxides by heating in the presence of air. This is known as roasting. Carbonate ores are heated in limited supply of air to convert them into oxides. This is known as calcination. Following reactions take place during roasting and calcination of zinc.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 16
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 17
Then by using carbon as reducing agent, metal is extracted from metal oxide, e.g. when Zinc oxide is heated with carbon it gets reduced to give zinc.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 18
In addition to using carbon for reduction, displacement reaction can be used to extract metals. More reactive metals like sodium, calcium, aluminium etc. can be used as reducing agents because these can displace atoms which are below them in the reactivity series. For example, when mangnese dioxide is heated with aluminium powder then following reaction takes place.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 19

Question 9.
How will you extract metals which are low in the activity series?
Answer:Metals low in the activity series are less reactive and can be obtained from metal oxides simply by heating. Cinnabar (Hgs) an ore of mercury (Hg) when heated change to mercuric oxide (HgO), on heating it further it is reduced to mercury.

Question 10.
Explain the reactions of metals with water.
Answer:
On reacting with water, metals form metal oxide and produce hydrogen. These dissolve in water to form metal hydroxide. But all metals do not react with water.

Metals like sodium and Potassium react with cold water, vigorously. The reaction of sodium and Potassium is very vigorous and exothermic that hydrogen produced starts burning simultaneously.
2K (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2KOH (aq) + H2(g) + heat
2Na (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + H2(g) + heat

Reaction of calcium with water is slow. Heat produced in this reaction is not enough to burn the hydrogen produced in the reaction.
Ca (s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca (OH)2 + H2(g)

Metals like iron, aluminium, zinc etc. do not react with cold water and not even with hot water. But they react with steam to form metal oxide and produce, hydrogen.
2Al(s) + 3H2O(g) → Al2O3(S) + 3H2(g)
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
Metals like lead, copper, silver and gold etc. do not react with water.

Question 11.
How do metals react with :
1. Oxygen
2. Dilute acids
3. Chlorine
4. Hydrogen.
Answer:
I. Reaction of metals with oxygen: Metals combine with oxygen to form metal oxides. Metal atoms lose their loosely bound electrons to form positive ions where as oxygen atoms gain electrons to form negative oxide ions. These metal oxide are basic in nature. Since all metals have different level of reactivity therefore they combine with oxygen at different temperatures.
1. Na and K Combine with oxygen at normal temperature to form oxides which dissolve in water to form hydroxide.
4 Na (s) + O2(g) → 2Na2S(s)
Na2O(s) + H2O → 2NaOH (or)

2. If magnesium is burned in air it forms magnesium oxide.
Mg → Mg2+ + 2e-
O + 2e → O2-
Mg2+ + O2- → MgO

3. Copper and iron combine with oxygen at high temperature in dry air.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 21

II. Reaction of metals with dilute acids. Metals reacts with dilute acids to produce hydrogen gas. Rate of reactivity is different.
1. Na, K, Zn, Mg, Fe etc. are reactive in decreasing order.
2Na + HCl → 2NaCl + H2
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2

2. Dilute nitric acid reacts with metals like Cu, Ag, Pb, Hg to form NO (nitrogen oxide).
Cu + 8HNO3 → 3Cu (NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O
3Ag + 4HNO3 → 3AgNO3 + NO + 2H2O

3. Dilute nitric acid reacts with Mg and Mn to produce hydrogen gas.
Mg + 2HNO3 → Mg (NO3)2 + H2

4. Gold and platinum do not react with dilute acids.

III. Reaction of metals with chlorine. Metals combines with chlorine to form electrovalent chlorides.
Ca + Cl2 → CaCl2

IV. Reaction of metals with hydrogen. Reactive metals like Na, K, Ca etc. react with hydrogen to form hydrid.
2Na + H2 → 2NaH
Ca + H2 → CaH2

V. Reaction of metals with water:
1. Water at normal temperature react with Na, K and Ca to liberate hydrogen gas.
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2
Ca + 2H2O → Ca (OH)2 + H2

2. Mg, Zn and Fe react with boiling water to form oxide.
Mg + H2O → MgO + H2
3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 12.
What is roasting? When do you use it?
Answer:
Roasting. After enrichment of ore, it is heated in the presence of dir, this process is called roasting sulphides or carbonates of some metals are converted into oxides, because extraction of metal is easy from oxides. Carbonates and sulphides of zinc and lead are converted into oxides by roasting.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 22

Question 13.
If a copper plate remains immersed in silver nitrate solution for some time then what happens? Write the ionic equation for the reaction.
Answer:
Copper is more reactive than silver. Copper will displace silver from the solution and silver gets deposited on copper. Colour of the solution becomes blue.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 23

Question 14.
Copper sulphate solution is stored in an iron container. After some days holes were seen in the container. Write the reaction. Explain the reaction on the basis of activity series.
Answer:
Iron is more reactive than copper and is placed before copper in the activity series. Therefore iron can displace copper from copper sulphate solution, due to this reaction holes were seen in the container.
CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu
Cu2+ (aq) + Fe(s) → Fe2+ (aq) + Cu(s)
Thus iron displaced copper.

Question 15.
Why copper becomes green if left open in air. Why?
Answer:
Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide which is present in air. This makes its surface dull and a green layer is seen on the surface of copper. This green substance is copper carbonate.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 24

Question 16.
What is 24 carat gold?
Answer:
Pure gold is called 24 carat gold. It is very soft. It can be used to make ornaments. Small amount of silver or copper is mixed with it to make it harder. In our country usually 22 carat gold is used to make ornaments. This means 22 pure gold is mixed with 2 parts of copper or silver.

Question 17.
Which process is used for the enrichment of sulphide ore. Explain in brief two steps involved in the extraction of metal from enriched sulphide ore.
Answer:
Sulphide ore is finely grounded to get powder. This is then enriched by using ‘Froth floation process’.

Steps involved in the extraction of metal from enriched sulphide ore :
1. Roasting: Enriched ore is heated in the presence of air to get oxides. This process is called roasting.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 25

2. Reduction. Oxide of the enriched ore is heated with reducing agent to extract the metal.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 26

Question 18.
Give differences :
(i) Hydraulic washing and liquation.
Answer:

Hydraulic Washing Liquation
1. This process is used for concentration of an ore. 1. The process is used for refining of metals.
2. Ore is washed with washing. 2. This is used for refining metal having low melting points.

(ii) Electrolytic reduction and reduction by carbon.
Answer:

Electrolytic reduction Reduction by carbon
1. Here cathode acts as reducing agent. It converts metal ions into metals by providing electrons.
  1. Carbon is used as reducing agent.
2. This method is used to reduce the salts of highly reactive metals. 2. This method is used to reduce the oxides of metals which are in the middle of activity series.

Question 19.
An alloy of yellow’ colour is made up of two metals A and B. When this alloy was dipped in dilute sulphuric acid, a layer dissolved in acid and formed colourless solution. B did not dissolve in it and the surface of alloy attained red brown colour. What is A and B?
Answer:
Yellow coloured alloy is brass which is mixture of zinc and copper. In this A is zinc and B is copper.
Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2

Question 20.
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) gas is produced when a certain ore is heated. Write the method involved in the extraction of metal from this ore.
Answer:
SO2 gas is produced when copper pyrites an ore of copper is heated.

Following steps are involved in the extraction of metal from this ore :
1. Ore is ground to get powder. It is mixed with water and pine oil. Compressed air is blown to separate impurities. This way ore gets enriched, this method is called froth floatation method.

2. Now the enriched ore is roasted. A part of CuS converts to CuO
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 27
Copper is in liquid state and is purified by electric refining.

3. Electrical refining. In this process impure copper rod is taken as anode and pure copper plate is taken as cathode. Electric current is passed through copper sulphate solution in the presence of acid
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 28

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 21.
What is Thermite process? Write its uses.
Answer:
Some displacement reactions are highly exothermic. The quantity of heat produced is so high that metals obtained are in molten state. When Iron (III) oxide (Fe2O3) reacts with aluminium then a large amount of heat is produced.
Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + heat

This is known as thermite process. This process is used to weld the rails and to join the cracks in machines.

Question 22.
Give five uses of non-metals.
Answer:

  • Hydrogen is used in the preparation of vegetable oil.
  • Carbon is an important non-metal which is main constituent of vitamins, proteins, carbohydrates, enzymes etc. Graphite is used as an electrode in various cells.
  • Nitrogen is used in ammonia, Nitric acid and fertilizers. Its presence in air controls the rate of combustion.
  • Presence of oxygen is the base of our life. Combustion is also possible in the presence of oxygen.
  • Sulphur is used in many medicines and is also used to make explosives.

Question 23.
Differentiate Roasting and Calcination.
Answer:

Roasting Calcination
1. Roasting is used for sulphide ores. 1. Calcination is used for carbonate and hydrated ores.
2. Ore is heated in the presence of air.  2. Ore is heated in the absence of air.
3. SO2 gas is produced. 3. CO2 gas is produced.

Question 24.
How is ionic compound sodium chloride, forms from sodium and chlorine?
Answer:
Sodium and chloride ions are oppositely charged and thus attract each other
They are bound together by strong electrostatic force of attraction and exist in the form of sodium chloride (NaCl). Sodium chloride does not exist as a molecule but as a set of ions :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 29

Question 25.
Ionic compounds are insulators when in solid state whereas when in aqueous solution they become conductors. Why?
Answer:
There exist a strong force of attraction between positive and negative ions of the ionic compounds, due to which these compounds are solid and hard. Due to their firm and rigid structure ions cannot move. But in molten state or in aqueous solution the force between opposite ions become weak and the ions can move freely. Therefore electricity can pass through ionic compounds when in liquid form.

Question 26.
What is aqua regia? Explain.
Answer:
Aqua regia is a mixutre of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3 : 1. It can dissolve gold where no single acid can do this. Aqua regia (Latin word for Royal water) is highly corrosive and fuming liquid. It can also dissolve platinum.

Question 27.
Give two main ores of aluminium. Also give two alloys of aluminium.
Answer:
Two ores of aluminium are :

  1. Bauxite, Al2O3. 2H2O
  2. Cryolite, Na3 (AlF6).

Two alloys of aluminium are :

  1. Duralium
  2. Magnalium.

Question 28.
Give uses of pure metals.
Answer:

  • Copper and aluminium wires are used in the transmission of power (electricity).
  • Utensils, Machines etc. are made up of iron, aluminium and copper.
  • Gold and silver are used to make ornaments, these are also used in sweets in the form of silver foil.
  • Metals like cadmium, titanium, zinconium etc. are used in nuclear energy and space science projects.
  • Aluminium foil is used to wrap eatables.
  • Titanium and its alloys are used in airplane, airplane structure and engine, chemical reactor.
  • Metals are used in broken bones and body parts.

Question 29.
Which gas is produced, when reactive metals come in contact with dilute hydrochloric acid? Write the chemical reaction between iron and dil. H2SO4.
Answer:
When reactive metals come in contact with dil. hydrochloric acid then (H2) hydrogen gas is produced.
Hydrogen gas is produced when iron reacts with dil. H2SO4.
Fe + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 30.
What is the function of cryolite in the electrolytic reduction of alumina?
Answer:
Cryolite has two functions in the extraction of aluminium :

  • To reduce the melting point of alumina.
  • Alumina is bad conductor of electricity on mixing cryolite (Na2AlF3), Al2+ ions are produced from alumina.

Question 31.
How do iron and aluminium react with water?
Answer:
Aluminium and iron do not react with cold or hot water. But react with steam to form metal oxide and hydrogen.
2Al(s) + 3H2O(g) → Al2O3(s) + 3H2(g)
3Fe(s) + 3H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 3H2(g)

Question 32.
What happen when :
(i) Iron oxide is heated with coke?
Answer:
Iron oxide is readuced to iron.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 30

(ii) Magnesium is treated with dilute sulphuric acid?
Answer:
Hydrogen is produced
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 31

(iii) Zinc is added to blue vitriol solution?
Answer:
Blue colour of solution gradually faders away
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 32

Question 33.
What is rust? Explain it with the help of a chemical reaction.
Answer:
If iron is left open in moist air, a brown layer is produced on its surface. This brown coloured layer is of Ferric oxide and ferric hydroxide. This is called rust. This makes iron weak.
4Fe + 3O2 + 3H2O → Fe2O3 + 2Fe(OH)3

Question 34.
Write names of main alloys and their constituents?
Answer:

Alloys Constituents Uses
1. Steel Iron, carbon used in airplanes, buildings vehicles etc.
2. Stainless steel Iron, Carbon, Chromium utensils, machine parts, knife, blade, food and milk industry, nuts, bolts, taps etc.
3. Brass Copper, Zinc utensils, idols, airplanes, medals, steam driven train parts etc.
4. Bronze Copper, tin utensils and other apparatus.
5. Solder Lead, tin For joining/welding electric wires.
6. German Silver Copper, Nickel, zinc Airplane wings, utensils used in kitchen of airplanes and other mate­rials.
7. Bell metal Copper,tin For making bells.
8. Duralium Aluminium, copper magnesium and mangnese in very small amount. In airplane
9. Magnoleum Aluminium, magnesium Light weight tools and cheap utensils.
10. Gun metal Copper, tin, zinc For making gears of vehicles and machines.

Question 35.
Write the names of metals found in Bronze and Duralium, give uses of these alloys.
Answer:
Bronze. It is 90% copper and 10% tin. It is used in idols, medals, coins and vessels used for cooking food.
Duralium. It consists of 95% aluminium, 4% copper, 0.5% magnesium and 0.5% manganese. It is used in aeroplanes, space crafts, kitchen vessels.

Question 36.
What is rust? What is its chemical formula?
Answer:
When iron is left open in air, then a layer of iron oxide is formed on the surface of iron. This brown matter is rust. It corrodes the metal. Its chemical formula is Fe2O3. xH2O.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 37.
What are metals?
Answer:
The elements which are on the left and in the middle of the periodic table and have metallic lustre are called metals. These are usually ductile, malleable, good conductor of electricity and heat, hard and have high density. They form basic oxides. Examples of metals are gold, iron, silver, copper, platinum etc.

Question 38.
What is ihe reason of catching fire by potassium and sodium on their own?
Answer:
Potassium and sodium reacts with water vigorously and violently. The reaction is very violent and highly exothermic that hydrogen produced in the reaction catches fire on its own.

Question 39.
Observe the figure given below and name the gas produced. Also give the chemical equation.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 33
Answer:
Hydrogen gas is produced
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 34

Question 40.
What is indicated by the following figure?
Or
With the help of a labelled diagram prove that both oxygen/air and water are necessary for rusting of iron.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 35
Answer:
Both air and moisture are required for rusting of iron.

Question 41.
Why the substance obtained by mixing small amount of carbon in iron is used largely for various purposes?
Answer:
When small amount of carbon is mixed with iron it changes to steel. This is stronger than iron. It can be used in ships, vehicles, dams.

Question 42.
Write a chemical equation for the reaction taking place in the test tube. How does the colour of solution change? What is change in colour of iron nails?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 36
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 37
The colour of the solution changes from blue to light green. The colour of Iron nails changes from grey to brown.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give one example of metal which is liquid at room temperature.
Answer:
Mercury.

Question 2.
Name one metal and one non-metal which is liquid at room temperature.
Answer:
Metal-Mercury.
Non-Metal—Bromine

Question 3.
Name one non-metal which has bright lustre.
Answer:
Iodine.

Question 4.
Name one non-metal which does not have bright.
Answer:
Phosphorus.

Question 5.
Which of the following metal are liquid at body temperature (37° C): Gallium, Magnesium, Caesium, Aluminium.
Answer:
Gallium and Caesium.

Question 6.
Name one non-metal which is a good conductor of electricity?
Answer:
Graphite (Carbon).

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 7.
Arrange the following metals in the decreasing order of reactivity,
Fe, Zn, Cu, Na, Ag.
Answer:
Na > Zn > Fe > Cu > Ag.

Question 8.
Out of Sodium, Calcium, Aluminium, Copper and Magnesium name the metal which reacts with
(i) Boiling water
Answer:
Magnesium

(ii) Steam.
Answer:
Copper.

Question 9.
Sodium metal is kept under kerosene oil, why?
Answer:
This is because sodium reacts with moist air as well as water.

Question 10.
A non-metal X, exists in two forms Y and Z. Y is the hardest substance and Z is a poor conductor of electricity. What are X, Y and Z?
Answer:
Y = Diamond Z = Graphite X = Carbon
Y and Z are allotropic forms of carbon.

Question 11.
An element, A form two oxides AO and AOa. AO is neutral and AO2 is acidic : Indicate whether A is metal or non-metal.
Answer:
A is non-metal.

Question 12.
Name the reaction to convert metal into its oxide .
Answer:
Oxidation.

Question 13.
Ionic solids have high melting points, why?
Answer:
In ionic solids, there are strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions and a large amount of energy required to overcome these forces.

Question 14.
An element X reacts with oxide to form oxide, X2O which dissolves in water and turns red litmus solution blue. Give the nature of oxide and indicate X is metal or non-metal.
Answer:
X2O is basic. X is metal.

Question 15.
What is the nature of metal oxides?
Answer:
Basic.

Question 16.
Name two noble metals.
Answer:
Gold and platinum.

Question 17.
Name an ore of mercury.
Answer:
Mercury sulphide (Hgs).

Question 18.
Name two metalloids.
Answer:
Arsenic, antimony.

Question 19.
Metals lose lustre when placed in air, why?
Answer:
This is because their surfaces are covered with oxides, carbonates or sulphide layer’s .

Question 20.
Name two metals which can be cut with a knife.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium.

Question 21.
Why do metals aquire different shapes?
Answer:
This is due to malleability and ductility of metals.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 22.
Name the metal which is poor conductor of heat.
Answer:
Lead.

Question 23.
Name the metal which offers resistance to the flow of electricity.
Answer:
Mercury.

Question 24.
Which of the following metals can be drawn into wires?
Answer:
Cu, Al, Fe, Pb.

Question 25.
Name four non-metals which are solid at room temperature.
Answer:
Carbon, Sulphur, Phosphorous, and iodine.

Question 26.
Name the elements which are present in abundance in earth’s crust.
Answer:
Oxygen and silicon.

Question 27.
What are alkalies? Give one example.
Answer:
Alkali. It is a metal hydroxide soluble in water Example : Sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

Question 28.
Name two amphoteric oxide.
Answer:

  1. Aluminium oxide (Al2O3)
  2. Zinc Oxide (ZnO)

Question 29.
What happens when magnesium is heated to ignition temperature?
Answer:
Magnesium burns with white light producing magnesium oxide.

Question 30.
Name the metal which does not react with dil. HCl.
Answer:
Copper.

Question 31.
Name two metals which react with hydrogen.
Answer:
Sodium and potasium.

Question 32.
Give the reaction when a piece of Calcium reacts with water.
Answer:
Ca + 2H2O → Ca (OH)2 + 4H2.

Question 33.
Give the reactions when red hot iron reacts with steam.
Answer:
Ca + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + H2.

Question 34.
Why is zinc oxide called amphoteric oxide?
Answer:
This is because zinc oxide reacts with both acid as well as base.

Question 35.
The metals Na, K and Ca react with hydrogen to form hydroxide but other metals don’t, why?
Answer:
This is because Na, K and Ca are highly reactive metals.

Question 36.
Give the reactions which occur when zinc plate is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu.

Question 37.
Out of the metals, Na, Cu, Au, which is
(i) Most reactive and
Answer:
Most reactive metal-Sodium (Na)

(ii) Least reactive?
Answer:
Least reactive metal-Gold (Au).

Question 38.
Arrange the following metals in the decreasing order of reactivity, Zinc, Mercury and Aluminium.
Answer:
Al < Zn < Hg.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 39.
Name two metals which occur in free state in nature.
Answer:
Gold and Platinum.

Question 40.
Define corrosion of metals.
Answer:
It is the interaction of surface of metal with air and moisture forming a layer of oxide, halide or carbonate layer on its surface.

Question 41.
Name a metal which undergoes corrosion in air.
Answer:
Iron.

Question 42.
Name two metals which are not corroded easily.
Answer:
Gold and silver.

Question 43.
Why does copper utensils turn green on exposure to air?
Answer:
Copper reacts with oxygen, carbon dioxide and moisture to form a green coloured compound (basic copper carlxmate):
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 38

Question 44.
Name two metals which are both malleable and ductile.
Answer:

  1. Copper
  2. Aluminium.

Question 45.
Name the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust.
Answer:
Aluminium.

Question 46.
Name the metal that gives a green coating when exposed to moisture.
Answer:
Copper.

Question 47.
Which is the most lightest metal known to us?
Answer:
Lithium.

Question 48.
Name two metals which occur in free state in nature.
Answer:

  1. Gold
  2. Platinum.

Question 49.
Name one of the most common ore of aluminium.
Answer:
Bauxite (Al2O3. 2H2O).

Question 50.
What is an amalgam?
Answer:
An amalgam is an alloy of mercury with some other metals.

Question 51.
Name two metals which :
(a) readily burn in air an
Answer:
Metals which readily burn in air are :

  1. sodium
  2. magnesium.

(b) do not burn.
Answer:
metals which do not burn readily in air are :

  1. Copper
  2. iron.

Question 52.
Name the metal which is best conductor of electricity.
Answer:
Silver.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 53.
Name one metal which reacts with cold water.
Answer:
Sodium.

Question 54.
Name one metal
(i) more reactive than hydrogen and
Answer:
Sodium

(ii) less reactive than hydrogen.
Answer:
Silver.

Question 55.
Write the chemical name of any one compound ore of sulphur.
Answer:
Zinc sulphide (ZnS).

Question 56.
Name the metal used in galvanisation of iron.
Answer:
Zinc.

Question 57.
The metal which is found in nature in the free state is
Answer:
Gold and Platinum.

Question 58.
What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?
Answer:
Reduction process.

Question 59.
Which metals do not corrode easily?
Answer:
The metals which are not attacked by air and moisture don’t corrode easily.

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The non-metal which is liquid at room temperature is:
(A) Chlorine
(B) Bromine
(C) Fluorine
(D) Iodine.
Answer:
(B) Bromine

Question 2.
Most reactive metal is:
(A) Na
(B) Mg
(C) Au
(D) K
Answer:
(D) K

Question 3.
The property due to which metals can be beaten into sheets is :
(A) Malleability
(B) Ductility
(C) Metallic lustre
(D) Hardness.
Answer:
(A) Malleability

Question 4.
The axnphoteric oxide is:
(A) ZnO
(B) BaO
(C) K2O
(D) Na2O.
Answer:
(A) ZnO

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 5.
Copper gets covered with green layer when exposed to air due to the formation of:
(A) CuSO4
(B) CuCO3. Cu(OH)2
(C) Cu (NO3)2
(D) CuO.
Answer:
(B) CuCO3. Cu(OH)2

Question 6.
During galvanisation, the metal whose layer is deposited is:
(A) Gallium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Zinc
(D) Silver.
Answer:
(C) Zinc

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Brass is an alloy of copper and ____________
Answer:
Zinc.

Question 2.
____________ is the best conductor of electricity.
Answer:
Silver.

Question 3.
All the ores are ____________
Answer:
Minerals.

Question 4.
Copper can be refined by ____________
Answer:
Electrorefining.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

PSEB 10th Class Science Guide Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions :
(а) NaCl solution and copper metal
(b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal
(c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal
(d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal?
Answer:
(d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal?

Question 2.
Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting :
(a) applying grease
(b) applying paint
(c) applying a coating of zinc
(d) all of the above :
Answer:
(c) applying a coating of zinc

Question 3.
An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be :
(a) calcium
(b) carbon
(c) silicon
(d) iron.
Answer:
(a) calcium

Question 4.
Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because :
(а) zinc is costlier than tin
(b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin
(d) zinc is less reactive than tin.
Answer:
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 5.
You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a switch.
(i) How could you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-metals?
(ii) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing between metals and non-metals.
Answer:
(i) Set up the electric circuit as shown below :
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 11
To distinguish between metals and non-metals on the basis of their electrical conductivity.

Insert the sample to be tested between clips A and B
If the bulbs glows, the sample is metal.
If the bulb does not glow, the sample is non-metal.
Thus metals are good conductors of electricity whereas non-metals are poor conductors of electricity.

(ii) If a substance produces a sound when struck beating with a hammer, it is a metal and if no sound is produced, it is a non-metal.
Metals are sonorous whereas non-metals are non-sonorous.

Question 6.
What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of amphoteric oxides.
Answer:
Amphoteric oxides. The metal oxide which react both with acids as well as bases to produce salts and water are known as amphoteric oxides.

Examples. Zinc oxide, ZnO Aluminium oxide, Al2O3

Question 7.
Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids, and two metals which will not.
Answer:
Zinc and magnesium can displace hydrogen from dilute acids. Copper and silver cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids.

Question 8.
In the electrolytic refining a metal M, what would you take as the anode, the cathode and the electrolyte?
Answer:
During the electrorefining of metal, the impure metal is made as anode, a thin strip of pure metal M is made as cathode. The electrolyte used a soluble salt of metal M. to be refined.

Question 9.
Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube over it as shown in figure
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 12
Collection of Gas
(a) What will be the action of gas on
(i) dry litmus paper?
Answer:
No action.

(ii) moist litmus paper?
Answer:
It turns moist litmus paper red and then bleaches it.

(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.
Answer:
S + O2 → SO2

Question 10.
State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
Answer:
The rusting can be prevented by

  1. By painting, oiling, greasing, galvanising, chrome plate or anodising.
  2. By forming alloys.

Question 11.
What type of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?
Answer:
As they form two types of oxides :
(a) Neutral oxides such as CO, NO etc.
(b) Acidic oxides such as SO2, CO2 etc.

Question 12.
Give reasons :
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
Answer:
Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery because these are not attacked by air and moisture. They don’t undergo corrosion and retain their lustre for a long time. Also these metals are malleable and ductile.

(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
Answer:
Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil because in contact with moist air containing carbon dioxide, these are covered with a carbonate layer.
e.g. 4Na + O2 → 2Na2O
Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH
2NaOH + CO2 → Na2CO3 + H2O

Also they react with water.
e.g. 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2.
Hence, these metals are stored under oil.

(c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking.
Answer:
This is due to the reason that a thin sticking oxide layer of aluminium is formed on its surface which prevents further reaction. Also aluminium is a good conductor of heat and the oxide layer (Al2O3) is stable even at high temperatures.

(d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction.
Answer:
This is because it is easier to obtain a metal from its oxide as compared to its sulphide and carbonate ore.

Question 13.
You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice. Explain why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the vessels.
Answer:
In tarnished copper vessel there is a layer of basic copper carbonate. This basic layer can be cleaned by using sour substances such as lemon or tamarind juice which are acidic in nature and dissolve the basic coat of copper carbonate

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 14.
Differentiate betw een metals and non-metals.
Or
Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of their chemical properties.
Answer:
Differences between metals and non-metals :

Metals Non-Metals
1. They form basic oxides. 1. They form acidic or neutral oxides.
2. They displace hydrogen from dilute acids. 2. They don’t displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
3. Usually they don’t combine with hydrogen. Only a few reactive metals combine with hydrogen to form metal hydroxide which are electrovalent compounds. 3. They react with hydrogen to form hydrides which are covalent compounds.
4. They form chlorides which are electrovalent compounds. 4. They react with chlorine to form chlorides which are covalent compounds.

Question 15.
A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter of old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new but their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset but after a futile argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to find out the nature of the solution he had used?
Answer:
The solution used by goldsmith to bring back the glitter of old and dull gold ornaments was aqua regia. It is a freshly prepared mixture of cone. HCl and cone. HNOg in the ratio 3 : 1. It can dissolve gold,

Question 16.
Give the reasons why copper is used to make hot water tanks but steel (an alloy of iron) is not.
Answer:
This is because iron present in steel reacts with steam to form ferrosoferric oxide whereas copper has no action with water. As a result of it, the body of the steel tank becomes weaker and weaker in case of iron and not in case of copper.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 13

Science Guide for Class 10 PSEB Metals and Non-metals InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give an example of a metal which :
(i) is a liquid at room temperature
Answer:
Mercury

(ii) can be easily cut with a knife
Answer:
Sodium

(iii) it is the best conductor of heat
Answer:
Silver

(iv) is a poor conductor of heat.
Answer:
Lead.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning of malleable and ductile.
Answer:
Malleable: A substance is said to be malleable, if it can be beaten into sheets. e.g. metals are malleable.
Ductile: A substance is said to be ductile, if it can be drawn into wires e.g. the metals are ductile.

Question 3.
Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?
Answer:
This is because in contact with moist air containing carbon dioxide, it is covered with a carbonate layer.
4Na + O2 → 2Na2O
Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH
2NaOH + CO2 → Na2CO3 + H2O

Also sodium reacts with water.
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2
Hence, sodium is kept immersed in kerosene oil.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 4.
Write equation for the reactions of
(i) iron with steam
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 1

(ii) calcium and potassium with water.
Answer:
Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
2K + 2H2O → 2KOH + H2

Question 5.
Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following solution one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows :
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 2
Use the table above to answer the following questions about metals, A, B, C and D.
(i) Which is the most reactive metal?
Answer:
B is the most reactive metal.

(ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate?
Answer:
B will displace copper from copper sulphate solution.

(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.
Answer:
The decreasing order of reactivity is B > A > C > D.

Question 6.
Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal? Write the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
Answer:
Hydrogen gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 3

Question 7.
What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate? Write the chemical reaction that takes place.
Answer:
When zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate it will displace iron from it and light green colour of solution gradually fades away.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 4

Question 8.
(i) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen and magnesium.
Answer:
Electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen and magnesium are
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 5

(ii) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
Answer:
Formation of Na2O:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 6

(iii) What are the ions present in the above compounds?
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 7

Question 9.
Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?
Answer:
In ionic compounds there are strong electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ion and a considerable amount of energy is required to break the strong interionic attraction.

Question 10.
Define the terms :
(a) mineral
Answer:
Mineral. The compounds of elements occurring in earth’s crust which are associated with earthly impurities are called minerals.

(b) ore
Answer:
Ore. An ore is a mineral from which metal can be extracted conveniently and economically.

(c) gangue.
Answer
Gangue. The earthly impurities such as sand, lime stone, rocks etc. associated with minerals and ores are collectively known as gangue or matrix.

Question 11.
Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state.
Answer:
Gold and Platinum.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 12.
What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?
Answer:
Reduction process.

Question 13.
Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium and copper were heated with the following metals :

Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc oxide
Magnesium oxide
Copper oxide

In which cases will you find displacement reactions taking place?
Answer:
Zinc can displace copper from copper oxide
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 8
Magnesium can displace zinc from zinc oxide
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 9
Also Mg can displace copper from CuO
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 10

Question 14.
Which metals do not corrode easily?
Answer:
The metals which are not attacked by air and moisture don’t corrode easily.

Question 15.
What are alloys?
Answer:
Alloys. These are the homogeneous mixtures of two or more metals or metals and non-metals.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How much population of our country lives in villages?
Answer:
More than two-third.

Question 2.
What proportion of labour force in India is dependent directly on agriculture?
Answer:
54%.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Question 3.
What is the contribution of agriculture in gross domestic product in the country?
Answer:
According to 2012-13 data it was 13.7%.

Question 4.
How much food grains were produced in 1950-51 and how much did it increase to in 2013-14?
Answer:
It was 51 million ton in 1950-51, which was 264 million ton in 2013-14.

Question 5.
Which are the three sectors of Indian economy?
Answer:
Agriculture, Industry and service sector.

Question 6.
Where does India stand in foreign trade?
Answer:
Tenth.

Question 7.
Which country has been left behind by India in the field of rice export?
Answer:
Thailand.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Question 8.
Name the major industries dependent for raft material on agriculture.
Answer:
Textile industry, sugar industry, jute industry.

Question 9.
In which year the Food Security Act was passed?
Answer:
In the year 2013.

Question 10.
What is India’s agricultural balance of trade?
Answer:
According to 2013-14, balance of trade was surplus by 25 billion dollar.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
How agricultural development is linked with dependence of population on agriculture?
Answer:
Dependence of people on agriculture helps in good growth and development of economy. As the economy of country develops, dependence on agriculture automatically decreases.

Question 2.
What are the main agricultural exports of India?
Answer:
Cotton, pulses, oil, fruits, tea, coffee, vegetables, cashew, spices, rice, wheat etc.

Question 3.
What are the main agricultural imports of India?
Answer:
Pulses, oil seed, dry fruits, edible oil etc.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Question 4.
Name a few agricultural based enterprises. Or Write the name of any four agriculture based enterprises.
Answer:
Dairy farming, poultry farming, fish farming, piggry, animal husbandry, fish farming, agroforestry etc. are some agricultural based enterprises.

Question 5.
Why a buffer stock of food grains in the country is maintained?
Answer:
This is done to control the rise in prices in case of inflation in future under the fear of fall in supply. Needy families are provided with foodgrains every month from this stock under Public Distribution System (PDS).

Question 6.
What are the main provisions of Food Security Act, passed by Govt of India in year 2013?
Answer:
The main provisions of the food security act is to provide 5 kg of grains per kg per month to 75% rural population and to 25% urban population.

Question 7.
How development of railways is linked to the agricultural development?
Answer:
Railways are used to transport agricultural produce from one part of the country to other parts of country and this way department of railways get income and this helps in the expansion and development of railways.

Question 8.
Name the industries which depend upon agriculture for marketing of their products. Or Write name of four agro-based industries.
Answer:
Tractor, agricultural implements, fertilizers, weedicides, insecticides etc. are used in agricultural sector. Those industries which manufacture them or produce them depend on agriculture sector for marketing these products.

Question 9.
What type of unemployment do we find in agriculture?
Answer:
Unemployment found in agriculture sector is seasonal and .hidden or disguised unemployment.

Question 10.
What are the benefits of allied activities of agriculture?
Answer:
Allied activities of agriculture are helpful to farmers in the sense these fulfil their daily needs by providing them with better and nutritious diet and also as source of extra income, e.g. milk, eggs, meat, fish, honey etc. are the products which they obtained from these allied activity, consume market and sell these and this helps in adding to their income also.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

(C) Answer in five-six sentences

Question 1.
What is the contribution of agriculture in economic development of India?
Answer:
Nearly two-third population of our country depends on agriculture and 54% of the labour force directly depend on agriculture. GDP of the nation from agriculture was 13.7% in the year 2012-13. Several industries are based on agriculture e.g. sugar, jute and textile industries. Products from many industries are used in agriculture.

Transportation, godowns, warehouses add to the economy of the country. Several agricultural products are exported and country gain in terms of dollars. Due to export of agricultural products central government gain from export duty. State government earns from land taxes and also from irrigation. Marketing fees also adds to the government treasury. Agriculture adds to the economy of the country.

Question 2.
What is the significance of agriculture in India’s foreign trade?
Answer:
Foreign trade of India is very deeply dependent on agriculture. Several agriculture products are imported e.g. tea, coffee, spices, oil, cotton, fruits, vegetables, pulses, cashew and now wheat and rice,also. In 2012, India was at the top in the export of rice by leaving behind-Thailand. India is at 10th place in export of grains in the world. Some materials like cotton fibre, yam, readymade cloth, jute products etc. are also exported. In year 2013-14 gross export of agricultural products was 42 billion dollar and in the same year import was of 17 billion dollar. This way India’s balance of trade was surplus by 25 billion dollar.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Question 3.
What were the main reasons of Green Revolution in the country?
Answer:
After the independence of India, for many decades we remained dependent on other countries for grain. Hard work of farmers of India, researched by scientists, improved seeds, agricultural implements, fertilizers, pesticides etc. helped in bringing green revolution. Grain production became so large that now we export wheat, rice and other agricultural products.

Question 4.
Why the pressure on agriculture should be reduced in India? Give reasons.
Answer:
Large proportion of our population depends on agriculture. Nearly 54% of labour force is directly engaged in agriculture sector. An economy can develop and grow in a better way if we can reduce our dependence on agriculture. Seasonal and hidden unemployment is found in agricultural sector it is necessary to provide some other jobs to such workers. As the economy of the country grows, dependence on agriculture decreases automatically and dependence on industry and services sector increases.

Question 5.
How does agricultural and industrial growth depend on each other?
Answer:
If agriculture develops and grows in a country, then various types I of agriculture produces are available in large quantities. There is need to establish various industries for the processing and consumption of these produces. Some parts of our country where these products are not available, these are transported to such parts of the country. The excess grains are stored in warehouses.

Some of the industries based on agriculture are sugar industry, jute industry, shellar, oil extracting industry etc. This way agriculture development helps in the growth of industry. But for sustained agricultural development, some other products and implements etc. are needed in the agriculture sector. Products from various industries e.g. tractor industry, machinery, fertilizers, pesticide and other chemicals etc. are used in agriculture sector. This way industrial development is related to agriculture development.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
During the year 2012-13, share for GDP from agriculture sector was:
(a) 13.7%
(b) 15.9%
(c) 11.5%
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) 13.7%

Question 2.
Grain production in India during 2013-14 was:
(a) 264 million ton
(b) 51 million ton
(c) 100 million ton
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) 264 million ton

Question 3.
Main agricultural exports of India:
(a) tea
(b) cotton
(c) pulses
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

Question 4.
Which country has been left behind by the India in the field of rice export?
(a) Thailand
(b) Bhutan
(c) America
(d) Sri Lanka.
Answer:
(a) Thailand

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Question 5.
In 2012 buffer stock of food grain was-
(a) 82 million ton
(b) 25 million ton
(c) 52 million ton
(d) 108 million ton
Answer:
(a) 82 million ton

Question 6.
Under provision of Food Security Act-2013, how much grain to be alloted per person per month?
(a) 5 kg
(b) 10 kg
(c) 15 kg
(d) 20 kg.
Answer:
(a) 5 kg

True or False:

1. Many industries get, their raw material from agriculture.
Answer:
True

2. In the year 2012, India got first position in the export of rice leaving behind Thailand.
Answer:
True

3. There is seasonal and disguised unemployment in the field of agriculture.
Answer:
True

4. India’s gross agricultural exports stood at 42 billion dollar in 2013-14.
Answer:
True

5. The yield of food grains increased to about 2125 kg per hectare.
Answer:
True.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Fill in the blanks:

1 is considered to be back bone of Indian economy.
Answer:
Agriculture

2. India is now placed at number in import of agricultural produce and food grains in the world.
Answer:
Ten

3. In the year 2012, our country had a buffer stock of tones of food grains.
Answer:
82 million

4. About of the households are engaged in dairy farming in India.
Answer:
70 million.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is agriculture for our country?
Answer:
Back bone of our economy.

Question 2.
How much population is involved in the occupation for dairy farming in our country?
Answer:
70 million families.

Question 3.
Which of the sectors come under the service sectors?
Answer:
Banking services, transportation, storage and warehouses, insurance, tourism etc.

Question 4.
What is the place of our country in the world on the basis of population?
Answer:
2nd place.

Question 5.
How much percentage in household consumption is from agriculture?
Answer:
60%.

Question 6.
What is the yield of grains?
Answer:
2125 kg per hectare.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Question 7.
How much was the stock of grains in the country in the year 2012?
Answer:
82 million tons.

Question 8.
How much wheat would be supplied at a subsidized rate to feed to 82 crores of population every year?
Answer:
61 million ton.

Question 9.
In export of which agriculture product India remained at top in year 2012?
Answer:
Rice.

Question 10.
How much was the total agricultural export in the year 2013-14?
Answer:
42 billion dollar.

Question 11.
How many percent of workers in India are directly engaged in agriculture?
Answer:
50% workers.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which are the small scale industries based on agriculture?
Answer:
Small scale industries based on agriculture are-rice shellar, oil extraction etc.

Question 2.
Which is the third sector of economy? Give example.
Answer:
Third sector is service sector in economy, e.g. Banking services, transportation, warehouses, insurance sector, tourism etc.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Contribution of Agriculture in Economic Development

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Country has become self-dependent in the production of grains. Explain by comparison.
Answer:
In the year 1950-51, food grain production was 51 million ton which in the year 2013-14 became 264 million tons. Grain yield has also increased and is approximately 2125 kg per hectare. In the year 2012 country had 82 million ton of food grains in the buffer stock which itself is a record. This shows that country has become self-dependent.

Question 2.
Write any five reasons for the green revolution in the country?
Answer:

  • Increased availability and ease of sources of irrigation.
  • The use of fertilizers helped in obtaining higher yields.
  • Discovery and use of high-yielding varieties.
  • Protection of crops against diseases, weeds, and insects became easy.
  • Increased use of Agri machinery.

Question 3.
Write any four reasons for the green revolution in India.
Answer:
Do yourself.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Agroforestry Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How much area should under forests in Punjab, as per National Forest Policy 1988?
Answer:
20%.

Question 2.
How much area is under forests and tree cover in Punjab?
Answer:
6.49%.

Question 3.
How many major agro climatic zones are there in Punjab on the basis of climate?
Answer:
Three.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 4.
In which season acute shortage of fodder is felt in Kandi region of Punjab?
Answer:
In winter.

Question 5.
What is the spacing for planting of poplar on boundary of a field?
Answer:
3 metres.

Question 6.
What types of .soils are there in Kandi region?
Answer:
Soil is undulating that is not uniformly levelled. It has many ups and down.

Question 7.
Name two trees used for fodder in Kandi region.
Answer:
Dhak, Beri, Chhal, Kachnar etc.

Question 8.
What should be the pH of soil for poplar cultivation?
Answer:
6.5 to 8.0.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 9.
Name the trees suitable for commercial agroforestry in Punjab.
Answer:
Poplar, Eucalyptus

Question 10.
How many Poplar plants are planted in per hectare?
Answer:
200 trees per acre.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What is the planting time of Poplar in Punjab?
Answer:
Suitable time for planting poplar in Punjab is January-February.

Question 2.
Define Agroforestry.
Answer:
Agroforestry is a land management system in which cultivation of trees and crops is done together in a field along with rearing of animals on the same piece of land.

Question 3.
What type of soil and irrigation facilities are available in Central plain zone in Punjab?
Answer:
In this zone, soil is fertile and irrigation facilities are available here.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 4.
What type of trees are found in S-W region of Punjab?
Answer:
Kikar, Tahli, Mango, Dhrek, Nim, Jamun, Toot etc. trees are planted in south-western zone.

Question 5.
Write down planting and spacing requirements of Eucalyptus.
Answer:
Cuttings are used for the propagation of Eucalyptus. Eucalyptus can be planted on the boundaries of the field or in block plantation. Plant to plant spacing on the boundaries should be 2 metres and if planted in block plantation the spacing should be 4 x 2 m.

Question 6.
Write the clones of poplar planted in Punjab.
Answer:
PL-1, PL-2, PL-3, PL-4, PL-5, L-47/88, L-48/89 are clones of poplar.

Question 7.
What is the planting time of Eucalyptus in Punjab?
Answer:
Eucalyptus can be planted in March-April and July-August.

Question 8.
Write down the names of the industries where poplar wood is used.
Answer:
Wood obtained from poplar can be used in Match box industry, ply manufacturing, packing cases etc.

Question 9.
What is the spacing for poplar planting?
Answer:
If poplar is planted on boundaries then plant spacing should be 3 metre and if it is planted in die whole field then spacing should be 8 x 2.5 m or 5 x4m.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 10.
Write the name of trees grown in Kandi region.
Answer:
Toot, Nim, Tahli, khair, Kikkar, Bel, Kachnar, Mango, Subabaul, Aijun, Harar, Behra, Phalis and dhak, Dehrek, Sohanjana etc.

(C) Answer in Jive-six sentences:

Question 1.
Write down the clones planted and spacing for poplar planting in Punjab. .
Answer:
PL-1, PL-2, PL-3, PL-4, PL-5, L-47/88, L^18/89 are some of the clones of poplar. If poplar is planted on boundaries then plant spacing should be 3 metre and if it in planted is the whole field then spacing should be 8 x 2.5 m or 5 x 4 m. 200 plants per acre can be planted in the field.

Question 2.
Write down the source of clonal Eucalyptus plants in Punjab.
Answer:
We should plant Eucalyptus plants prepared from cuttings in Agroforestry. These all grow uniformely. These can be obtained from any nursery of department of forests and wildlife preservation, Punjab, PAU, Ludhiana or any other private registered nursery.

Question 3.
How poplar can be planted?
Answer:
Make a pit which is 3 feet deep and have diameter of 15-20 cm. Use chloropyriphos and Emisan-6 against termies and diseases. Plant poplar trees in the month of January and February. Water the plants immediately after planting the poplar tree. If poplar is planted on boundaries then plants spacing should be 3 metre and if it in planted in the whole field then spacing should be 8 x 2.5 m or 5 x 4 m. 200 plants per acre can be planted in the fields.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 4.
Where poplar wood is used?
Answer:
Cultivation of poplar is helpful in creating employment and also in small enterprises in which wood is the raw-material. Poplar is used in various industries e.g. it is used in the manufacturing of match sticks. It is also used in the manufacture of plywood and also in the packaging industry to make boxes. This way one can earn by the cultivation of poplar. It sheds off its leaves in winter thus has no harm for Rabi crops.

Question 5.
Why Poplar and Eucalyptus are suitable for commercial Agroforestry? Or Why are Eucalyptus and poplar cultivated as commercial agro forestry in Punjab?
Answer:
Poplar and Eudalyptus are suitable for commercial agroforestry in Punjab. Wood obtained from these trees can be easily marketed. The income from these trees in more than wheat-rice cropping system.

Safeda:
It grows in less time, stem is straight, its branches shed off regularly. Its wood is used as building material, its pulp is used in paper industry, wooden beams are also obtained from it. Therefore it is suitable for cultivation in agroforestry.

Poplar:
It provides employement. Its wood is used in small scale industry; like, ply, match sticks, packing boxes etc. It also does not affect the Rabi crops.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Agroforestry Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
According to National Forest Policy 1988, forests should occupy of area in plain states.
(a) 5%
(b) 20%
(c) 50%
(d) 29%.
Answer:
(b) 20%

Question 2.
In central plain region trees are grown.
(a) Poplar
(b) Dek
(c) Eucalyptus
(d) All
Answer:
(d) All

Question 3.
………….. is not a variety of poplar:
(a) PL-5
(b) PL-47/88
(c) PL-858
(d) PL-48/89.
Answer:
(b) PL-47/88

Question 4.
Poplar trees become ready in years for harvesting.
(a) 5 to 7
(b) 1 to 2
(c) 10 to 12
(d) 15 to 25.
Answer:
(a) 5 to 7

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 5.
pH value for soil for poplar cultivation.
(a) 10
(b) 6.5 to 8.0
(c) 3 to 4
(d) 4 to 5.5.
Answer:
(b) 6.5 to 8.0

Question 6.
In which direction the trees are planted on ridges of the farms for agro forestry?
(a) North-South
(b) East-west
(c) South-east
(d) North-east.
Answer:
(a) North-South

Question 7.
For timber production after how many years Eucalyptus can be harvested?
(a) 13 to 15 years
(b) 6 to 8 years
(c) 4 to 6 years
(d) 2 to 4 years.
Answer:
(a) 13 to 15 years

Question 8.
For batten production, after how many years Eucalyptus can be harvested?
(a) 13 to 15 years
(b) 6 to 8 years
(c) 4 to 6 years
(d) 2 to 4 years.
Answer:
(c) 4 to 6 years

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 9.
For paper pulp production, after how many years Eucalyptus can be harvested?
(a) 13 to 15 years
(b) 6 to 8 years
(c) 4 to 6 years
(d) 2 to 4 years.
Answer:
(b) 6 to 8 years

True False:

1. Poplar is more successful in Bet area.
Answer:
True

2. Poplar tree become ready for harvesting after 5-7 years.
Answer:
True

3. To save orchards from wild life, Jatropha are grown around the orchards.
Answer:
True

4. Poplar cultivation is successful in Kallar and water logged soils.
Answer:
False

5. Eucalyptus clonal plants should be planted in Agroforestry.
Answer:
False

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Fill in the blanks:

1. Poplar wood is used in the manufacture of ……………. .
Answer:
Match sticks

2. For boundaries poplar trees are planted at spacing.
Answer:
3 m

3. …………….. erosion is major problem in sub-mountainous zone.
Answer:
Soil

4. Pl-3 is a …………….. clone.
Answer:
poplar

5. In winter the scarcity of ……………. is felt in submountaneous zone.
Answer:
fodder.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is agroforestry suitable for Punjab?
Answer:
It helps in increasing the area under the forests and trees.

Question 2.
Can we take income from agroforestry?
Answer:
Yes, more than the conventional agricultural practices i.e. more than paddy-wheat cropping system.

Question 3.
In which direction, trees should be planted on the boundaries of fields? (PS.E.B. 2017)
Answer:
In North-South direction.

Question 4.
In how many zones is Punjab divided on the basis of climate?
Answer:
Three zones.

Question 5.
On what basis the farmer in Kandi area grow their crops?
Answer:
Agriculture is based on the rainfall.

Question 6.
Which of the trees are planted to save the orchards?
Answer:
Jatroffa, Karonda, Ipomea.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 7.
What type of soil is found in south-western zone?
Answer:
Saline and alkaline soil.

Question 8.
Poplar is not harmful for rabi crops, how?
Answer:
Its leaves shed off in winter and it is not harmful for rabi crops.

Question 9.
What type of soil is not suitable for poplar?
Answer:
Kallar and water-logged.

Question 10.
In which area poplar is must successful?
Answer:
In bet area.

Question 11.
How many poplar trees can be planted in the field?
Answer:
200 trees per acre.

Question 12.
In how many years poplar trees are ready?
Answer:
5 to 7 years.

Question 13.
What type of Eucalyptus plants should be planted?
Answer:
Prepared from cuttings.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 14.
How many Eucalyptus plants are planted In the whole field?
Answer:
500 trees per acre.

Question 15.
If Eucalyptus cultivation is for long time, what should be row spacing?
Answer:
8 metre.

Question 16.
After how many years can we get wood for buildings (timber) from Eucalyptus?
Answer:
13 to 15 years.

Question 17.
After how many years is Eucalyptus ready for pulp?
Answer:
6 to 8 years.

Question 18.
After how many years Eucalyptus is ready for battens?
Answer:
4 to 6 years.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 19.
Write file name of two trees which are mainly grown in Punjab for commercial agroforestry.
Answer:
Poplar, Eucatyplus.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the name bf two main models for agroforestry?
Answer:
There are two main models for agroforestry-Boundary plantation and intercropping in block plantation.

Question 2.
Where do farmers plant trees if they use boundary plantation model?
Answer:
They plant trees on the boundaries of fields.

Question 3.
Which of the trees are used for planting on the boundaries?
Answer:
Subabaul, Drek, Toot, Eucalyptus, Poplar, Siris, Lassora, Sohanjana, Nim, Tahli etc. –

Question 4.
Which farmers do the mixed farming of crops and trees?
Answer:
Those farmers who have more agricultural land can do mixed farming.

Question 5.
Which of the trees are suitable for planting in the whole field?
Answer:
Poplar, Eucalyptus, Dhrek and Tun are suitable trees.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 6.
In which area is the problem of soil erosion found?
Answer:
Soil found in the Kandi area is not uniform and land has many ups and downs (undulating) therefore problem of soil erosion is also found there.

Question 7.
Which type of soil is suitable for poplar?
Answer:
Well drained, loamy to sandy, fertile soil and which have pH value from 6.5 to 8.0 is suitable for growing popular.

Question 8.
List four uses of wood of Eucalyptus.
Answer:
Batten, pulp, wood used in buildings construction, industry, furniture

Question 9.
Write the name of four trees which are grown in whole field in agroforestry.
Answer:
Poplar, Eucalyptus, Toon, Dhrek.

Question 10.
Why salinity is found in the upper surface of the soil in the South-Western zone?
Answer:
Water under the earth in this zone is saline. This makes upper surface of the soil also saline.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about trimming and pruning of poplar? Or Write the benefit of correctly pruning poplar plants at the right time.
Answer:
There is no need of trimming in the first year, but in the second year after shedding off the leaves there is a need of pruning of the trees to make it straight and to give it good appearance. If trimming and pruning is done at proper time then the stem remains straight and without nodes.

Question 2.
Which of the qualities of Eucalyptus make it suitable for cultivation in agroforestry? Or For which qualities Eucalyptus is grown in agroforestry?
Answer:
It grows in less time, stem is straight, its branches shed off regularly. Its wood is used as building material, its pulp i§, used in paper industry, wooden beams are also obtained from it. Therefore it is suitable for cultivation in agroforestry.

Question 3.
Define Agroforestry.
Answer:
According to National Forest Policy 1988, to fulfil the needs based on wood and to keep the environment safe, area under the forests should be 20%. But it is not possible to increase the area under the forests therefore this is achieved by agroforestry. Agroforestry is the cultivation of trees and crops together in the same field. The objective behind this, type of cultivation is that farmers can fulfil their needs e.g. cereals, wood, fuel, fodder and also can save the natural resources e.g. soil, water, air etc. There is also an increase in their income.

Question 4.
What do you mean by agroforestry? Explain in detail about the planting trees on farm boundaries in agroforestry.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Microsoft Publishers-II Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
Now day’s brochures are also available in electronic format and are called:
(a) e-brochures
(b) m-brochures
(c) t-brochures
(d) k-brochures
Answer:
(a) e-brochures

Question 2.
A small card printed with one’s name, occupation, business address, etc. is called:
(a) Brochures
(b) Newsletters
(c) Business cards
(d) Menus
Answer:
(c) Business cards

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 3.
What is the most common document requested of applicants in job applications?
(a) Banner
(b) Resume
(c) Calendar
(d) Flyer
Answer:
(b) Resume

Question 4.
What are longer than resumes-at least two or three pages?
(a) Curriculum vita (CV)
(b) Banner
(c) Invitation
(d) Catalogue
Answer:
(a) Curriculum vita (CV)

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

2. Fill in the Blanks

1. Advertising means how a company encourages people to buy their …………… or ideas.
Answer:
Products and services

2. MS-Publisher offers templates and other tools to help us create a variety of publications, including brochures, newsletters, …………… and …………….
Answer:
Business Cards and Menus

3. Business cards are cards bearing business information about a ……………. or ……………….
Answer:
Company and Individual

4. A resume provides a summary of our ………….., credentials, …………… and other accomplishments and skills.
Answer:
Education and Work history.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

3. True or False

1. A compliment card is a piece of card or high quality paper expressing friendship or any other sentiment.
Answer:
True

2. Certificates of achievement, merit, and honor can be powerful tools.
Answer:
True

3. Brochures are prop national documents, primarily never used to introduce a company, organization.
Answer:
False.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

4. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a piece of paper, cloth, wood or any other material which is painted with pictures or words and which gives some information about a particular place, product, or event.
Answer:
Sign

Question 2.
What is a common packaging item, usually made of thin flat material?
Answer:
Envelop

Question 3.
What is something given to a person, a group of people, or an organization recognition of their excellence in a certain field?
Answer:
Award

Question 4.
What is a form of paper advertisement used for wide distribution, posted or distributed in a public place, handed out to individuals or sent through the mail?
Answer:
Flyer

Question 5.
What is a printed report containing news or information of the activities of a business or an organization more.
Answer:
Newsletter

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

5. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain Signs?
Answer:
A sign is a piece of paper, clothe, wood or any other material which is painted with pictures or words and which gives some information about a particular place, product, or event.

Question 2.
Explain Resumes?
Answer:
A resume provides a summary of our education, work history, credentials, and other accomplishments and skills. There are also optional sections, including a resume objective and career summary statement.

Question 3.
What is Banner?
Answer:
A long strip of cloth bearing a slogan or design carried in a demonstration, procession or hung in a public place. Depending on how it is used, a banner can be a flag or other piece of cloth bearing a symbol, logo, slogan or other marketing message. An online banner is either a graph mage that announces the name or identity of a site.

Question 4.
Explain Newsletters?
Answer:
A newsletter is a printed report containing news or information of the activities of a business or an organization that is send by mail regularly to all its members, customers, employees or people, who are interested in. Newsletters generally contain one topic of interest to its recipients. A newsletter may be considered grey literature.

Question 5.
What are Menus?
Answer:
A menu may be a list from which guests use to choose options available. Basically Menu is the main way to give or take order from guest.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

6. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are Advertisements? Explain various print media used for advertisements?
Answer:
An advertisement or ‘ad” for short is anything that draws good attention towards these things. Advertising is an audio or visual form of marketing communication that employs an openly sponsored, non-personal message to promote or sell a product, service or idea. Advertising means how a company encourages people to buy their products, services or ideas. It is usually designed by an advertising agency. Ads appear on television, as well as radio, newspapers, magazines etc. Sponsors of advertising are often businesses who wish to promote their products or services.

Advertising is communicated through various mass media, including old media such as newspapers, magazines, Television, Radio, outdoor advertising or direct mail; or new media such as search results, blogs, websites or text messages. The actual presentation of the message in a media is referred to as an advertisement or “ad”. Non-commercial advertisers include political parties, interest groups, religious organizations and governmental agencies.
MS – Publisher offers templates and other tools to help us create a variety of advertisements like:

  • Banners
  • Brochures
  • Catalogs
  • Flyers
  • Newsletters

Question 2.
What are Business Cards? Write steps for creating Business Card in Publisher?
Answer:
A small card printed with one’s name, occupation, business address, etc. is called a business card. Business cards are cards bearing business information about a company or individual. They are shared during formal introductions. A usiness card typically includes the givers name, company or business affiliation id contact information such as street addresses, telephone number (s), fax number, mail addresses and website.

Steps to Create Business Cards:
1. Click on File Tab, then New, and then Business Card-
Select any one according to choice. On right side of window, you can customize this selected Business Card with the help of color scheme, font scheme, business information, page size options and logo.

2. After changing of color, fonts scheme, business information and page size, click on Create button.

3. The Business Card is designed successfully. Now you can change Business Name or Individual name also, Address, Contacts etc.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 3.
What is Label? Where labels can be used for?
Answer:
A label is a piece of paper, polymer, cloth, metal, or other material affixed to a container or product. Information printed directly on a container or item can also be considered labeling. Labels have many uses, including providing information on a product’s origin, manufacturer, use, shelf- life and disposal etc. Many hazardous products such as poisons or flammable liquids must have a warning label.
Uses of Labels:

1. Products:
Permanent product labels need to remain secure throughout the life of the product. For example, a food label must be secure until the food has been used.

2. Packaging:
Packaging may have labeling attached to or integral with the package. These may carry pricing, bar codes, UPC (Universal Product Code) identification, usage guidance, addresses, advertising, recipes, and so on.

3. Assets:
In industrial or military environments, asset labeling is used to clearly identify assets for maintenance and operational purposes. Such labels . are frequently made of engraved Trifoliate or a similar material.

4.Textiles:
Garments normally carry separate care/treatment labels which typically indicate how the item should be washed for e.g. machine washed or dry cleaned. Textile labels may be woven into the garment or attached, and may be heat resistant, colorfast, washable. Printed labels are an alternative to woven labels.

5. Mailing: Mailing labels identify the addressee, the sender and any other information which may be useful in transit.

6. Security Labels:
They are used for authentication, theft reduction, and protection against counterfeit and are commonly used on ID cards, credit cards, packaging, and products from CDs to electronics to clothing.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 4.
What is Letterhead? How to create Letterhead in Publisher?
Answer:
A newsletter is a printed report containing news or information of the activities of a business or an organization that is sent by mail regularly to all it members, customers, employees or people, who are interested in. Newsletter generally contain one main topic of interest to its recipients. A newsletter may b( considered grey literature.E-newsletters delivered electronically via e-mail anc can be viewed as spamming if sent unsolicited.

Steps to Create Newsletters using MS-Publisher:

  • Click on File Tab, then New, and then Newsletters.
  • Select newsletter design from available Templates as per requirement and click on Create.
  • Modify the newsletter and add your own content.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Microsoft Publishers-II Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which thing is like a long strip?
(a) Newsletter
(b) Banner
(c) Label
(d) Business card
Answer:
(b) Banner

Question 2
What is called list of things?
(a) Banner
(b) Label
(c) Envelope
(d) Catalogue
Answer:
(d) Catalogue

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 3
What is used for Day planning?
(a) Banner
(b) Label
(c) Calendar
(d) Catalogue
Answer:
(c) Calendar

Question 4
What the Stationary printed with heading is called?
(a) Label
(b) Banner
(c) Letterhead
(d) Catalogue
Answer:
(c) Letterhead

Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………….. menu is used to change the font colour and text bar colour of text.
Answer:
Format

2. Title of newsletter is typed in ………………..
Answer:
Text Box

3. Date of newsletter is typed in …………….
Answer:
Data Text box

4. Post card has ……………… number of sides.
Answer:
two

5. If you do not want to include the logo, then click …………………
Answer:
None.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

True/False

1. You should type note or message in text box.
Answer:
True

2. Different designs are shown in the preview gallery.
Answer:
True

3. Envelopes are used to write letters.
Answer:
True

4. In news letter every page has same layout.
Answer:
False

5. By default, in news letter, there are three columns and three stories.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is resume?
Answer:
Like resume, a curriculum vitae (CV) provides a summary of ones experience and skills. Typically, CVs are longer than resumes-at least two or three pages.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a Banners?
Answer:
Banner an image, usually displayed at the top of each page in a Web site, containing text and design elements. You can create banners for any event and to capture the attention of the public.

Question 2.
Define Newsletter.
Answer:
Newsletter is a letter that consist of schedule of events, information about the chief guest and other distinguished people who will attend that event.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 3.
Write a short note on Postcard.
Answer:
Postcard is a card that contains the some information regarding some particular events, celebration, greating etc. In View Publication task pane, Under News form a design, click publications for Print Post cards. Choose the suitable option from the list. Various post card designs are .displayed in preview gallery, select the post card design. Type the note or message in the text box. In post card options task pane, under side 2 information, click the details, which should appear on the reverse side of the post card. In the last specify the number of post cards, under copies per sheet and save the publication.

Question 4.
How will you open new letterhead?
Answer:
The following are the steps two open new letter head :

  • In New Publication task pane, Under New from a Design, click Publication for print letterhead.
  • Klick any one option from two i.e. Plain paper or special paper.
  • Click the any suitable design from the preview gallery.
  • By default logo is included in the letter head, if you do not want to inclued the logo, then click none, under logo.
  • After making all necessary changes, Save the publication as letter head.

Question 5.
Write the usage of envelope.
Answer:
The following are the usage of envelopes :

  • To send invitating card.
  • To send letters.

Question 6.
What is Banner?
Answer:
Banner an image, usually displayed at the top of each page in a Web site, containing text and design elements. You can create banners for any event and to capture the attention of the public.

Question 7.
What is Newsletter?
Answer:
News Letter is a letter that consist of schedule of events, information about the chief guest and other distinguished people who will attend that event.

Question 8.
What is Postcard?
Answer:
Post Card is a card that contains the some information regarding some particular events, celebration, greating etc.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 9.
State the difference between letterhead and postcard.
Answer:
Post Card is a card that contains the some information regarding some particular events, celebration, greeting etc. Post card has two sides. Letter head is a stationery which is used to write letter.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the steps to create Newsletter.
Answer:
Newsletters are a great way to share information with family, friends and customers. Microsoft Publisher’s newsletter function provides complete design and layout flexibility. Use the program to select a design layout and color scheme, format text and insert images quickly and easily to create a custom newsletter.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II 1
Following are steps that are used to create a newsletter in Microsoft Publisher:
1. Choose a newsletter design. On the main menu click “File” and then “New” to open the Catalog Window. Click the “Newsletters” option on the Wizards menu, select the desired design from the options and then click “Start Wizard.” Enter your contact information in the window prompt. Delete the sample text in the field to leave a field blank. Click “Include color scheme in this set” and select the desired colors. Click “Update” when finished. Complete the steps in the Wizard or click “Finish” to exit the Newsletter wizard.

2. Enter the text. Place the mouse inside the desired text box and click once. Type the text or cut and paste from a Word document. Format the font style, size and appearance by using the main menu at the top of the screen. Place the mouse over the border until the word “Resize” appears. Click and drag the border to the desired size.

3. Insert images by clicking “Insert” and then “Picture.” Select from clip art or photos stored on your computer. Resize the image. Click and drag the mouse diagonally towards the center of the photo until the photo reaches the desired size.

4. Edit the text box-and image layouts as needed. Create a new text box by , clicking the text frame tool (“A”). Place the mouse in the desired location, then click and drag to create the desired box size. Place the mouse over the item until the word “Move” appears. Click and hold down the mouse and drag to the desired location. Place the mouse inside the box and click once, on the main menu click “Edit” and then “Delete Object” if you need to delete a text box.

5. Change the number of pages in the newsletter as needed. Click “Insert” and then “Page” and follow the instructions in the pop up window. Click the desired page number at the page display on the bottom of the screen and click “Edit” and then “Delete Page” to remove pages.

6. Finalize the newsletter. Proofread and spell check. Print the document on paper and place the pages in order to ensure the page numbers line up properly before copying. This is helpful if you plan to copy two-sided or convert to 11 x 17 inch paper.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 2.
Write the steps to create Envelope.
Answer:
Special occasion cards get piled away with the rest of the mail when they are in plain envelopes with no special decal or design to separate them from others. Design a special envelope using Microsoft Publisher for a single use birthday card envelope or to use on all your mailings, so that people will see your envelopes and know that they are from you. Relatives and close friends will also appreciate the time you took to make their envelope special.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II 2
Following are steps that are used to create an envelope in Microsoft Publisher :
1. Launch Microsoft Publisher and click “Publications for Print.” A list of options will appear underneath this section. You can choose from several pre-made envelopes. These envelope designs are for several different types of businesses.

2. Delete any option or area of the envelope you do not need for your purpose. Select the area by left clicking on the area once and it will bring up a border around the box. Right click on the selection and choose “Delete.”

3. Move any of the pre-selected fields by dragging it to where you would prefer it. Select the area; move the mouse pointer till it becomes a four arrowed figure. Left click and hold the mouse button and drag the box to where you want it.

4. Fill in the address fields by highlighting and entering in the correct information.

5. Insert pictures and designs to the envelope to make it more personal. Click “Insert” and “Clipart”, “Object” or “Textbox.” Recipients of your letters will love having designs on the envelopes that display your personality.

6. Choose to make your own envelope from scratch by selecting “Blank Print Publication” from under the New section on the left hand side of the Microsoft Publisher screen. Select “File”, “Page Setup” and a new window will appear. Hit “Envelope” from under the Publication Type and adjust any height and width dimensions you may need. This is easy, just measure your envelope.

7. Insert and edit till your message is clear from the design on your envelope. Try printing in gray scale and on regular paper before printing on any envelopes. This will save money and trees.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by neutralization reaction? Explain with an experiment.
Answer:
It is a chemical reaction in which acids reacts with base to form salt and water. It is known as neutralization reaction.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
Process of neutralization

Experiment: Take a solution of dilute sodium hydroxide in a beaker. Add few drops of phenolphthalein in this solution. Its colour changes to pink. Take a burette filled with dilute hydrochloric acid. Fix it vertically on a stand as shown in Fig. Place a beaker under it. Add the hydrochloric acid slowly to the beaker with the help of burette and go on swirling the beaker slowly. When the colour of solution disappears then stop adding acid to beaker. Now there is no effect of Red to Blue litmus to the solution. Now there is only salt and water in the beaker which is neutral to litmus. This is known as neutralization reaction.

Example:
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O
HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O

Question 2.
Write briefly chemical properties of acids.
Answer:
Acids have several chemical properties :
1. Reaction with metals. Acids reacts with active metals. Zinc, Magnesium, Iron, Mangenese etc. reacts with them to produce hydrogen gas.
Zn(s) + dil. H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Mg(s) +dil.2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Fe(s) + dil. H2SO4 (aq) → FeSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Mn(s) + dil. HNO3 (aq) → Mn(NO3)(aq) + H2 (g)

2. Reaction with metals carbonate and metal bicarbonate. Acids reacts with metal carbonate and metal bicarbonate to produce C02.
Na2CO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
K2CO3 + 2HCl → 2KCl + H2O + CO2

3. Reaction with bases. Acids reacts with base to show neutralization. They produce salt.
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O
Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O

4. Reaction with sulphites and bisulphites. Acids react with metal sulphite and bisulphite to produce SO2 gas.
CaSO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O +SO2 (g)
NaHSO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + SO2(g)

5. Reaction with metal sulphides and hydrogen sulphides. Acids react with metal various metal sulphide and hydrogen sulphides to produce H2S gas.
FeS + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2 S(g)
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

6. Reaction with metal Chlorides. When metal chloride heated with acids the reaction takes place.
NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl (g)
NaCl + NaHSO4 → Na2SO4 + HCl (g)

7. Reaction with metal nitrates. Concentration acid reacts with metal nitrate.
NaNO3 +H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HNO3
NaNO3 + NaHSO4 → Na2SO4 + HNO3

8. Reaction with metal oxides. Metal oxides reacts with dilute acids to form salts of
Na2O + 2HNO3 → 2NaHO3 + H2O
CuO + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2O

Question 3.
Write in brief chemical properties of bases/alkalis.
Answer:
Important chemical properties of bases/alkalis are given below :
1. Reaction with metals, Bases react with some metals to produce hydrogen gas.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

2. Reaction with air. Some bases react with CO2 present in air.
2NaOH + CO2 → Na2CO3
2KOH + CO2 → K2CO3

3. Reaction with acids. Bases react with acids to produce salts.
NaOH+ HCl → NaCl + H2O
Fe(OH)2 + 2HCl → FeCl2 + 2H2O
Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + 2H2O

4. Reaction with salts. Salts of copper, iron, Zinc etc. react with bases and produce insoluble metal hydroxides.
ZnSO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + Zn(OH)2
CuSO4 + 2NH4OH → (NH4)2SO4 + Cu(OH)2
FeCl3 + 3NaOH → 3NaCl + Fe(OH)3

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 4.
What is the importance of pH in everyday life?
Answer:
pH has very important role in our life :
1. In animal world. Many of the processes in our body occur within the pH range of 7-0 to 7-8. We can survive only in this narrow range. pH value of our blood, tears, saliva is nearly 7-4. Survival will become impossible if this value becomes less than 7-0 or more than 7-8. When pH of rain water decreases from 7-0 to 5-6 or less then it is called acid rain. WThen acid rain flows to the rivers then pH value of river water lowers. Survival of aquatic life in such rivers become difficult.

2. For plants. For healthy growth of plants a specific pH range of soil is required. If soil becomes more basic or acidic, produce badly affected.

3. Digestive system. Our stomach produces HCl, which without harming us help in the digestion of food. Duiing indigestion the stomach produces too much of acid. This causes pain and irritation in the stomach. To get rid of this pain, bases are used which are called antacids. For this weak base like milk of magnesia is used.

4. Tooth decay. If pH value of the mouth is lower than 5-5, then tooth decay begins. Our teeth are made up of calcium phosphate which is hardest substance in our body. It is not soluble in water but starts decaying when pH of the mouth is lower than 5-5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by .degradation of sugar and food particles. To get rid of this we should use basic tooth paste. This will neutralize the acid and tooth decay can be prevented.

5. Relief from insect stings. When some insects sting us, they leave a special type of acid in our body. Bees, ants etc. leave methanoic acid in our body by their sting. To get relief from pain, mild base like baking soda is rubbed on the stung area.

6. Safety from special plants. Plants like nettle have stingging hair. By touching them we feel pain similar to insect sting. This pain is due to methanoic acid. Conventionally, one can get relief by rubbing leaves of dock plant on the stung area.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are indicators? How do indicators are categorized? Explain.
Answer:
Those substances which change their colour in acidic and basic solutions, are called indicators.
Indicators are categorized into two types on the basis of their special properties and characteristics.

  1. Indicators which give colour to acids and basic medium.
  2. Indicators which give smell to acids and basic medium.

1. Colour giving indicators :
(A) Litmus solution: Litmus solution is purple dye which is obtained from Lichen plant. This is available as red or blue solution and also in the form of litmus paper. Blue litmus turn to red in the presence of acids and Red litmus turns to blue in the presence of basic media. Litmus is neither acidic nor basic by itself.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 4

(B) Turmeric: Turmeric change to red-brown colour in the presence of bases. That is why vegetable stain on the clothes becomes red brown when washed by applying soap which is alkaline.

(C) Phenolphthalein: This is synthetic indicator. It gives pink colour in the presence of bases.

(D) Methyl orange: This is also synthetic indicator. It gives pink colour in the presence of acidic medium and yellow in the presence of bases.

2. Olfactory indicators: Chopped onion, vanilla essence and clove oil change smell in the presence of acids and bases act as olfactory indicators.

Question 2.
What is dilution?
Answer:
When we mix an acid or base with water, the number of H+/OH~ ions per unit volume decreases, it is called dilution. By dilution, acids and bases are ionized.

Question 3.
Give characteristics of acids.
Answer:

  • They are sour to taste.
  • They turn blue litmus to red.
  • Their solution is not like soap solution.
  • They produce hydrogen gas when reacts with metals.
  • They react with carbonates to produce carbon dioxide.
  • Acid react with bases to produce salts and water.

Question 4.
Give four uses of acids in our everyday life.
Answer:

  1. Vinegar is used in cooking food and acts as preservative and used in pickles.
  2. HCl in our stomach destroys the harmful bacteria, which reach there with our food.
  3. Tartaric acid is used to prepare baking soda.
  4. Carbonic acid is used in soft drinks.

Question 5.
What are the harmful effects of acids in everyday life?
Answer:

  • They can destroy living cells.
  • Concentrated acids can badly damage the skin and soft organs.
  • These can damage eatables.

Question 6.
Differentiate between strong acids and weak acids.
Answer:

Strong acids Weak acids
1. These get completely dissolved in water and produce H+ ions and negative ions. 1. These do not completely dissociate into H+ ions and negative ions.
2. Equilibrium is not established. 2. Equilibrium is established between ions and undissociated ions.
3. Example: H2SO4, HNO3. 3. Example: H2CO3, CH3COOH.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 7.
Differentiate between strong base and weak base.
Answer:

Strong base Weak base
1. These get completely dissolved in water to produce OH ions. 1. These are partially soluble in water.
2. Example: NaOH, KOH 2. Example: Ca(OH)2, Mg(OH)2.

Question 8.
Categorize the following compounds as strong and weak acids and bases,
(i) HCl
(ii) H2SO4
(iii) CH3CHOOH
(iv) HCN
(v) NH4OH
(vi) H3PO4
(vii) NaOH
(viii) Ca(OH)2
(ix) KOH
(x) H2CO3
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 5

Question 9.
What is the reason for electric conduction in acids? Explain.
Answer:
Acids produce H+ ions. Due to ions acids can conduct electricity. This conduction takes place in water solution.
HCl + H2O → H3O + +Cl
HNO3 +H2O → H3O+ +NO3

Question 10.
What happens when a base is dissolved in water? Explain it.
Answer:
Bases when dissolved in water give hydroxide OH ion. The water-soluble bases are called alkalis.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 6

Question 11.
Why are bases not touched or tasted?
Answer:
Bases have a bitter taste like soaps and are harmful to skin. They are harmful when touched or tasted.

Question 12.
Write uses of alkalies/bases.
Answer:

  • These are used to make soap.
  • These are used in basic batteries.
  • These are used in making antacids.
  • Used in Petrol refining and paper industry.
  • To remove stains of grease from cloths.
  • To make hard water, soft.

Question 13.
Give normal characteristics of bases.
Answer:

  • They are bitter to taste.
  • They are soapy to touch and are harmful for skin.
  • These turn litmus to blue.
  • These turn turmeric to red brown colour.
  • These react with acids to produce salts and water.
  • They turn phenolphthalein solution to pink.

Question 14.
What is difference between alkali and base?
Answer:
Those alkalies which are soluble in water are called bases. This means all bases are alkalies but all alkalies are not bases, e.g. Ferric hydroxide [Fe(OH)3] and cupric hydroxide [Cu(OH)2] are alkalies but are not bases since these are not soluble in water.

Question 15.
What are the sources to get common salt (NaCl)? Explain.
Answer:
We can get common salt from following sources :

  • Sea water: A huge amount of salt is dissolved in sea water. Salt in obtained from sea water through salt shallows. Solar heat and air help in the evaporation of sea water. We get salt.
  • Mineral salt: Deposits of solid salt are found in many parts of the world. These beds of rock salts were formed when seas of bygone ages dried up. This salt is mined similar to the mining of coal. These rocks are found in Mandi (Himachal Pradesh), Khewra (Pakistan). Due to impurities this salt is brown in colour.
  • From Lakes: Salt is obtained from Sambher lake in Rajasthan, great salt lake in America, Lake Elton in Roose etc. This salt in obtained by evaporation.

Question 16.
Write characteristics of common salt.
Answer:

  • Colour and state: It is colourless crystalline substance which melts at 820°C.
  • Solubility: Salt is soluble in water.
  • Effect of heat: On heating salt a cracking sound is produced due to breaking of ‘ salt crystals.
  • Hygroscopic: Salt absorb moisture from the air, This is due to presence of magnesium and calcium chloride.

Reaction with sulphuric acid. Salt reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid to produce HCl gas.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 7

Reaction with silver nitrate. Salt reacts with silver nitrate to form white precipitates of silver chloride.
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3

Question 17.
Give uses of common salt.
Answer:

  • Salt is important constituent of our food.
  • This is used as preservative in many eatables.
  • It is used in soap, pottery industry.
  • It is used in making freezing mixture.
  • It is used in the preparation of bleaching powder, caustic soda, hydrochloric acid, washing soda, Baking powder etc.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 18.
What is chlor-alkali process? Give pictorial representation of the products of this reaction. Give their uses.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 8
Important products of chior-alkali process.

When current is passed through aqueous solution of salt gets dissociated and sodium hydroxide is produced. This is known as chlor-alkali process because the products in this reaction are chlorine (chlore) and sodium hydroxide (base)
2NaCl(aq)+ 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

All these products are very important and useful in industry medicine, home and cosmetics etc. Chlorine and hydrogen are the by products of this process.

Question 19.
How is bleaching powder prepared? Give its common characteristics and uses.
Answer:
Bleaching powder is obtained by the reaction of chlorine with slaked lime.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 9
To manufacture bleaching powder at large scale, we have a special tower there is a hopper at the top of tower, slaked lime is added through this hopper. At the bottom hot air and chlorine gas are blown. Chlorine moves upwards and is absorbed completely by slaked lime and bleaching powder is produced.

Characteristics :

  • Bleaching powder is light yellow coloured powder, It has a sharp smell of chlorine.
  • It is soluble in water, but not completely.
  • It reacts with CO2 of air and loose its chlorine.
    CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2
  • It reacts with acids
    CaOCl2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + Cl2
    CaOCl2 +H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + Cl2

Uses

  • It is used in paper and textile industry.
  • Used to disinfect drinking water to make it free from germs.
  • It is used to make unshrinkable work.
  • It is used for preparing chloroform.
  • It acts as oxidising agent.

Question 20.
Write chemical formula for washing soda. When its crystals are open in air, then what happens?
Answer:
Chemical formula for washing soda is Na2CO3. 10H2O. When its crystals are left open in air then due to efforescence nine molecules of water are lost in the air.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3 .H2O + 9H2O

Question 21.
What happens when solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated? Give chemical reaction for the equation.
Answer:
When sodium hydrogen carbonate solution is heated then carbon dioxide gas is produced and sodium carbonate is produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 10

Question 22.
What is common name of the compound CaOCl2? Name the substance which reacts with chlorine to produce bleaching powder?
Answer:
Common name of compounds CaOCl2 is bleaching powder. The substance which reacts with chlorine to produce bleaching powder is slaked lime [Ca(OH)2],

Question 23.
If during the preparation of plaster of Paris the process of heating is not controlled then which substance is formed?
Answer:
Temperature should be maintained at 373 K during the preparation of plaster of Paris. If temperature is not controlled then unhydrated calcium sulphate (CaSO4) is produced which do not have the properties of plaster of Paris. This is known as dead burnt Plaster.

Question 24.
Explain preparation, properties and uses of baking soda (NaHCO3).
Answer:
Chemical formula for baking soda is NaHCO3 and its chemical name is sodium bicarbonate. It is formed when CO2 is passed through aqueous solution of Na2CO3.
Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O → 2NaHCO3

It can also be prepared from sodium chloride.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 11
Properties: When it is heated it swells and becomes light. On heating it produces CO2. It is soluble in water.

Uses :

  • It is used in the preparation of baking powder.
  • It acts as antacid in case of acidity in the stomach.
  • It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.

Question 25.
Explain the following processes.
(i) Deliquescence
Answer:
Deliquescence: When some compounds absorb moisture from air and change to solution then this process is called deliquescence.
e.g. common salt is deliquescence.

(ii) Bleach.
Answer:
Bleach: When some gas or compound decolourises something, this is known as bleach, e.g. bleaching powder or chlorine is used for this purpose.

Question 26.
What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through fresh lime water?
Answer:
When carbon dioxide is passsed through fresh lime water in small quantity then insoluble calcium carbonate is formed and colour of lime water turns to milky.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 12
If excess of CO2 is passed through this solution, calcium carbonate change to soluble bicarbonate and milkiness disappears.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 13
If this solution is heated again, milky colour again appears because calcium bicarbonate again change to calcium carbonate.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 14

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 27.
What is pH scale? How does it respresent acidic and basic nature of a solution? Represent whole range of pH and [H3O]+.
Answer:
A scale which is used to know the concentration of hydrogen ion in a solution is called pH scale. Here ‘p’ stands for ‘potenz’ a German word which means power. We can measure from zero to 14 on this scale. Zero represents strongest acid, and 14 represents strongest base. pH is such a number which represents acidic or basic nature of a solution. More is the concentration of hydrogen ion in a solution less is its pH value. If a solution is neutral its pH value is 7. If pH is lower than 7 then solution is acidic and if pH is more than 7 then solution is basic. Normally pH can be found by using universal pH indicator paper.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 15

Question 28.
Are salt crystals really dry? Explain.
Answer:
Copper sulphate crystals which seems to be dry contains water of crystallization. These seem to be dry hut are not. When we heat the crystals then this water is removed and colour of salt become white. When salt is made wet its colour again change to blue.

Fixed number of molecules of water present in unit formula of salt is called water of crystallization. In unit formula of copper sulphate, there are five molecules of water. Formula for hydrated copper sulphate is CuSO4. 5H2O. In Na2CO3.10H2O there are 10 molecules of water.

Gypsum is another salt which contains water of crystalization. There are two molecules of water in it.
Its formula is CaSO4.2H2O.

Question 29.
How is washing soda prepared? Give its uses.
Answer:
Washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O) is obtained from sodium chloride. By heating soda, we get sodium carbonate. By recrystallization of sodium carbonate, washing soda is obtained. This is a basic salt.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 16
Sodium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate are useful in several industrial processes.

Uses of washing soda :

  • Sodium carbonate is used in glass, soap and paper industry.
  • It is used in the manufacturing of sodium compound such as Borax.
  • It is used in cleaning agent for domestic purpose.
  • It is used to remove permanent hardness of water.

Question 30.
What is efflorescence? Name one compound which shows efflorescence? Explain your answer with an equation.
Answer:
The phenomenon of losing some part of water of cyrstallization into air from a crystal is called efflorescence. This phenomenon takes place on heating or some times spontaneously. Washing soda contain water of crystallization hence its formula is Na2CO3. 10H2O. When it is placed in open then it loose its 9 molecules of water and single hydrate is left.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3.H2O + 9H2O

on heating it looses all of its water.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3 + 10H2O

Question 31.
A baker found that a cake prepared by him is small in size and hard. Which constituent, he forgot to add, due to which cake can become soft and big. Give reason.
Answer:
Baker forgot to add baking powder. When baking powder (a mixture of sodium bicarbonate and Tartaric acid) is added to cake and on heating tartaric acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate to produce carbon dioxide. This carbon dioxide makes the cake to swell and cake becomes light. Baker, definitely forgot to add baking powder that is why cake is small and hard.

Question 32.
When bleaching powder is left open in air, then what happens?
Answer:
When bleaching powder is left open in air, then its properties change. C02 present in air reacts with it due to which calcium carbonate and chlorine gas are produced. Properties of bleaching are lost.
CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 33.
What are the important uses of bleaching powder?
Answer:

  • It is used to bleach cotton cloths, linen and wood pulp.
  • It is used to disinfect drinking water and to make it free of germs.
  • It is used to make chloroform.
  • Unshrinkable wool is prepared using bleaching powder.
  • It acts as oxidizing agent in Laboratories and in industry.

Question 34.
Name the compounds used in hospitals for supporting fractured bones in the right position. How is it prepared?
Answer:
The compound used in hospitals for supporting fractured bones in the right position is plaster of paris. It is calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4. \(\frac{1}{2}\)H2O). It is prepared at a temperature of 373 K by heating gypsum.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 17

Question 35.
Write important uses of Plaster of Paris.
Answer:

  • It is used in making toys, moulds, ceramic, containers etc.
  • It is used for making material for decoration and statues.
  • In hospitals it is used by doctors to set fractured bones and by dental doctors for creating mould to make dentures.
  • Used in buildings, to give plane look to walls and ceiling.
  • Material used by fire fighters.
  • It is used to stop leakage of gases in Laboratories.

Question 36.
Many people complaint about gas problem in stomach. What is main reason for this? Why do they use ‘milk of magnesia’ to get relief from this?
Or
What are antacids?
Answer:
A juice is secreted in the stomach which contains enzyme pepsine and hydrochloric acid. Enzyme pepsine is active in acidic medium. When hdyrochloric acid is produced in excess quantity, then we get burning and pain in the stomach, which is known as acidity.

Those substances which are used to neutralize this acid are called antacids. Usually people take a mild base like milk of magnesia for this purpose. It neutralizes the excess acid and provide relief.

Question 37.
Idols and utensils made up of copper and brass become shiny when rubbed with lemon? Why?
Answer:
Idols and utensils made up of copper and brass become dull due to coating of copper oxide. Citric acid present in lemon react with it to form salt, which can be easily washed with water. Brass and copper surface becomes shiny.

Question 38.
For the safety of teeth what type of toothpaste should be used. Why?
Or
How does change in pH-value helps in tooth decay?
Answer:
Bacteria present in mouth produce acid by degradation of sugar and food particles. This reduces the pH value of mouth which causes tooth decay. After foods we should used basic tooth pastes to prevent tooth decay. Mild bases present in it neutralizes the excess acid. This reducing the chances of tooth decay.

Question 39.
What is the remedy for sting of Nettle plant? Write.
Answer:
Nettle is a herbaceous plant found in jungles. Its leaves have stinging hair. These hair cause painful sting if touched accidentally. This pain is due to the secretion of methanoic acid by stinging hair in the body. To get rid of this pain leaves of dock plant are rubbed on the area of sting. Leaves of dock plant have base in them. This plant often grows beside the nettle plant. It neutralizes the acidic effect and gives relief from pain.

Question 40.
What is acidic rain? How is the pH of soil can be measured?
Answer:
Some of the gases like SO2, SO3, NO2 etc. present in the atmosphere gets dissolved in rain water and fall on earth in the from of acid is called acid rain. This corrodes some of the metals and marble.

pH value of soil can be measured by using paper soaked in universal indicator. This way we can know the nature of soil as acidic or basic. When pH value of rain water is less < than 5-6 then it is called acid rain. To know the pH value of soil, it is dissolved in water in a test tube and its filter is tested with universal indicator pH paper.

Question 41.
Is human life possible on venus planet?
Answer:
No, human life is not possible on venus plant the atmosphere of venus is covered with thick white and yellow clouds of sulphuric acid. If there is a rain is presence of water, it will be acidic and the existence of human life will be impossible.

Question 42.
Magnesium is treated with dil. H2SO4. The gas evolved is collected as shown below. Name the method used for collection of gas and the gas produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 18
Answer:
Downward displacement of water. The gas produced is hydrogen.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 43.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 19
Answer:
Fix two nails on a cork and place it in a 100 ml beaker. Connect thses nails to a 6 volt battery through a bulb and switch as shown in the figure.

Pour some aqueous solution of alcohol or aqueous solution of glucose in the beaker so that nails dip in it. Switch on the current. The bulb does not glow indicating that alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in aqueous solution and hence do not produce H+(aq) ions although they contain hydrogen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 20
Aqueous solution of alcohol or glucose does not conduct electricity

1 — Cathode
2 — Anode

Question 44.
Observe the figure and answer the following:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 21
(i) What are 1 and 2?
Answer:
1-Soap bubble filled with hydrogen 2-Burning of hydrogen gas with a pop sound

(ii) Write down the reactions taking place in test tube.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 22

Question 45.
In the pH paper shown in figure given below, pH of lemon juice is 2.2 and that milk of magnesia is 10. What is its significance?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 23
Answer:

  • Lemon justice is acidic because pH is less than 7.
  • Milk of magnesia is basic because pH is more than 7.

Question 46.
Which gas is being produced during reaction in the test tube? How does this gas react with Calcium Hydroxide/Lime water?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 24
Answer:
Carbon dioxide (CO2).
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 25

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What makes food sour?
Answer:
Presence of acids.

Question 2.
What is the reason of bitterness?
Answer:
Presence of bases.

Question 3.
What is the reason of acidity in stomach?
Answer:
excess of HCl acid.

Question 4.
What is the effect of acid on litmus?
Answer:
Blue litmus changes to red.

Question 5.
What are olfactory indicators?
Answer:
Some substances which change their smell in acidic or basic medium are called . olfactory indicators.

Question 6.
Give three examples of olfactory indicators.
Answer:
Chopped onions, clove coil, vanilla essence.

Question 7.
Which gas is produced when Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
Hydrogen gas.

Question 8.
Which gas is produced when metal carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates react with acid?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 9.
What happens when CO2 is passed through lime water?
Answer:
Lime water turns milky.

Question 10.
Why milkiness of lime water disappear when excess of CO2 is passed through it?
Answer:
Due to formation of Ca(HCO3)2 which is soluble in water.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 11.
Write the name and colour of the compound formed when copper oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
Blue-green copper chloride.

Question 12.
Which name is used for metal oxide?
Answer:
Alkaline oxide.

Question 13.
What is the nature of non-metal oxide?
Answer:
Acidic nature.

Question 14.
Why does current flow in acids?
Answer:
Due to ions.

Question 15.
Which ion is produced in acidic solution?
Answer:
Hydrogen ion (H+).

Question 16.
What is used to dry, moist gas?
Answer:
Calcium chloride.

Question 17.
How do we represent hydrogen ion?
Answer:
H+(aq) or hydronium ion (HgO+).

Question 18.
Which ions is produced by bases in water?
Answer:
Hydroxide (OH) ion.

Question 19.
What is base?
Answer:
Alkalies which are soluble in base.

Question 20.
What should we do to dilute an acid?
Answer:
We should add acid to water slowly and not vice versa.

Question 21.
What is dilution?
Answer:
When we add acid or base in water, concentration of ions (HgO+/OH) per unit volume decreases, this is known as dilution.

Question 22.
What is name of mixture of various indicators?
Answer:
Universal indicator.

Question 23.
What is that which show different colour at different concen-tration of hydrogen ion in a solution?
Answer:
Universal indicator.

Question 24.
What is pH scale?
Answer:
To know the strength of H+ ion in a solution a scale is used known as pH scale.

Question 25.
What is p in pH?
Answer:
‘p’ means ‘potenz’.

Question 26.
What is the range of pH scale?
Answer:
0 to 14.

Question 27.
What is pH value of neutral solution?
Answer:
pH value is 7.

Question 28.
If pH value of solution is less than 7, then what does it indicate?
Answer:
Acidic solution.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 29.
If pH value of a solution is more than 7, then what does it indicate?
Answer:
Solution is basic.

Question 30.
What is the value on pH scale for lemon juice?
Answer:
Nearly 2.2.

Question 31.
What is the value on pH scale for pure water?
Answer:
7

Question 32.
What is the value on pH scale for milk of magnesia?
Answer:
10.

Question 33.
What is the value on pH scale for sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
Nearly 14.

Question 34.
What is pH range in which our body works?
Answer:
Our body works in the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8.

Question 35.
What is pH value of acid rain?
Answer:
It is less than 5.6.

Question 36.
In which type of river survival of aquatic animals is difficult?
Answer:
When acid rain water flows to the river.

Question 37.
What surrounds the venus planet?
Answer:
Thick white and yellow clouds of sulphuric acid.

Question 38.
Which acid is produced in our stomach?
Answer:
Hydrochloric acid.

Question 39.
What is produced in the stomach when there is indigestion.
Answer:
Excess of HCl.

Question 40.
What is used for treating excess of acid in the stomach?
Answer:
Antacids (mild bases).

Question 41.
When does tooth decay begin?
Answer:
When pH value in less than 5.5.

Question 42.
Teeth are made up of which substance?
Answer:
Calcium phosphate.

Question 43.
Why do we feel pain due to bee sting?
Answer:
Due to acid.

Question 44.
Which substance is applied on the stinging area which gives relief from pain?
Answer:
Weak base like baking soda.

Question 45.
What do the stinging hair of nettle plant secret?
Answer:
Methanoic acid.

Question 46.
What is the remedy for sting of herbaceous plant Nettle?
Answer:
Rub leaves of dock plant.

Question 47.
Which acid is there in vinegar?
Answer:
Acetic acid.

Question 48.
Which acid is there in lemon, orange?
Answer:
Citric acid.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 49.
Which acid is in curd and milk?
Answer:
Lactic acid.

Question 50.
What is main source of salt?
Answer:
Sea water.

Question 51.
What is exothermic reaction?
Answer:
Those chemical reactions in which heat is produced.

Question 52.
What is endothermic reaction?
Answer:
Those chemical reactions in which heat in absorbed are called endothermic reactions.

Question 53.
Solid sodium chloride does not conduct electric current, why?
Answer:
In sodium chloride, Na+ and Cl- ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction and ions can’t move freely. Hence solid sodium chloride does not conduct electric current.

Question 54.
In which state chemical reactions take place easily.
Answer:
Gaseous or liquid state.

Question 55.
What is solute?
Answer:
It is a compound, which in aqueous solution, dissociate into positive and negative ions.

Question 56.
What is a strong electrolyte?
Answer:
A compound which dissociate in water and its dissociation percentage is 30%, is called strong electrolyte.

Question 57.
What is weak electrolyte?
Answer:
A compound which dissociate in water and its dissociation percentage is less than 30% is called weak electrolyte.

Question 58.
Which acids are obtained from animals?
Answer:
Organic acids.

Question 59.
Who gave pH scale and when?
Answer:
pH scale was given by Danish Chemist Soren Sorensen in 1909.

Question 60.
Concentration of which ion is important in every Biological and many industrial processes?
Answer:
Concentration of hydrogen ion.

Question 61.
What is the reason for burn feeling in stomach and chest? How to get rid of this situation?
Answer:
When excess of hydrochloric acid is produced in stomach, then we feel burn feeling in stomach and chest. We can be relieved by taking baking soda.
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2

Question 62.
What is baking powder?
Answer:
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and tartaric acid.

Question 63.
If we do not use tartaric acid in baking powder for making a cake. How will the cake taste?
Answer:
It will be bitter due to sodium carbonate.

Question 64.
Which chemicals are used in fire extinguishers?
Answer:
Sodium hydrogen carbonate and sulphuric acid.

Question 65.
Which gas is produced in soda acid fire extinguisher?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide gas.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 66.
Which compound is used to make water free of germs?
Answer:
Bleaching powder (CaOCl2).

Question 67.
Name chemical name of quick lime.
Answer:
Calcium oxide (CaO).

Question 68.
Name the deliquescent present in salt.
Answer:
Magnesium chloride (MgCl2).

Question 69.
What type of smell is given by bleaching powder?
Answer:
Smell of ehlorme gas.

Question 70.
Sometimes eyes become red after swimming in a swimming pool why?
Answer:
Due to excess of bleaching powder in water.

Question 71.
When did Egyptions used plaster of paris?
Answer:
They used it 5000 years ago.

Question 72.
How did the Egyptions prepare plaster of Paris?
Answer:
They heated Gypsum in open air.

Question 73.
What was the use of Plaster of Paris for Egyptions?
Answer:
They used to fix rocks with it as cement for their monuments.

Question 74.
What is the relation of ‘Paris’ in plaster of Paris?
Answer:
In the beginning Gypsum was obtained from Montmarti in Paris, thus paris is related with it.

Question 75.
What is heated to which temperature from preparing plaster of Paris?
Answer:
Plater of Paris is obtained from gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) by heating it to 373 K.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
pH of an acidic solution is:
(A) >7
(B) <7
(C) 7
(D) 14.
Answer:
(B) <7

Question 2.
Neutral solution has pH:
(A) 7
(B) >7
(C) < 7
(D) 14.
Answer:
(A) 7

Question 3.
Common name of NaCO3. 10H2O is :
(A) Bleaching powder
(B) Baking powder
(C) Plaster of Paris
(D) Washing soda.
Answer:
(D) Washing soda.

Question 4.
Acid and base react to form salt and water. This reaction is called:
(A) Washing soda.
(B) Chioro-alkali
(C) Reduction
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(D) None of these.

Question 5.
What is used for plastering fractured bones?
(A) Cement
(B) Gypsum
(C) Plaster of Paris
(D) Soda.
Answer:
(C) Plaster of Paris

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 6.
Toothpaste used for cleaning teeth is :
(A) Acidic
(B) Neutral
(C) Basic
(D) None.
Answer:
(A) Acidic

Question 7.
A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is :
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 10
Answer:
(D) 10.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The common name of CaOCl2 is ______
Answer:
Bleaching powder.

Question 2.
The sodium compound used for softening hard water is ______
Answer:
Washing soda.

Question 3.
The common name of Na2CO3.10H2O is ______
Answer:
Washing soda.

Volleyball Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Volleyball Game Rules.

Volleyball Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Describe Volleyball court, Net, Ball, Behaviour of players and Coaches, Number of players, Position of players.
Answer:
Playfield:
The length of the volleyball playfield shall be 18 metres and breadth 9 metres. There should be no obstruction of any kind upto a height of 7 metres from the ground. The court shall be marked by lines of 5 cms. These lines shall be drawn at least 2 metres away from all obstructions. The centre line under the net divides the court into two equal parts.

Attack Line:
In each half of the court an attack line of 9 metres 5 cms, parallel to the central line, shall be drawn. Its width is included in 3 metres. One line on the right hand side is drawn as its extension and the second line of 3 metres to the left of it. The extension of the service area shall be minimum 3 metres.
Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2
Volleyball Court:
The court of this game should be 18×9 metres. There should be no obstruction of any kind upto a height of 7 metres from the ground. The court is like a rectangle. The width of its boundary lines should be 5 cms. These lines should be atleast 2 metres away from all obstructions. Two lines of 15 x15 cms. In length and 5 cms. in width are drawn behind the last line and parallel to it. These lines mark the service area of the court.

Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

One line is drawn right to the side line and the other is drawn to the left of the side line.. The minimum extension of the depth of the service area shall be 2 metres. The centre line under the net divides the court into two equal parts. In each half of the court a line of 9 metres 6 cms., parallel to the central line, at a distance of 3 metres is drawn. It is called attack line.

Net:
The net shall be 9 metres long and 1 metre wide. The squares of the net should be 15 cms. On its upper part a canvas strap of 5 cms. should be placed in such a way that a flexible cable may pass through it. The net is attached to the posts with this cable. The rope is not used under the net now-a-days. The height of the net for men from the centre should be 2.43 metres from the ground, and for women, it should be 2.24 metres. Flexible straps of 5 cms. width are attached on the ends of net. Both the sign posts supporting the net shall be at least 50 cms. from the side line.

Ball:
The ball should be round and made of supple leather. In it there should be a bladder. Its circumference should be 66 cms. + 1 cms. and weight should be 270 gms. + 10 gms. The pressure of air in the ball should be between 0.48 and 0.52 kg/cm2. The colour of the ball should be uniform.
Conduct of Players and Coaches-

  • Every player should be aware of the rules of game.
  • During the play a player can talk to the referee only through his captain.
  • All of the following acts of breach will be punished :
  • To talk to the officials time and again about their decisions.
    • To use improper words while talking to the officials.
    • To act indecently with the aim of influencing the decisions of officials.
    • To misbehave with or use uncivilised remarks to the opponent.
    • To give coaching to players by any one from the outside of the court.
    • To walk out of the court without the referee’s permission.
    • Clapping or crying by the players when the ball is touched and particularly at service

Warning is given for a minor offence. When the offence is repeated, a player is given a personal warning, by which his team loses the service or a point. A penalty is recorded on the score sheet in case of a serious offence. It entails the lose of service and one point. It the offence is repeated, the referee may disqualify the player fora set or for the rest of the match.

Dress of Player:
The player shall wear jersey, pants and pliable foot wear. He shall not wear on his head turban or cap or any such jewellery as may cause injury to other players.
Number of Players and Substitutes-
1. The number of players in one team shall not exceed 6 under all circumstances. The number of players including substitutes shall not be more than 12.

2. Substitutes and coaches shall sit in the court in front of the referee.

3. The captain of a team or coach can request the referee for a substitute. In this game only 6 players in maximum can play. Before a substitute enters the court he shall go to the scorer in dress and after his approval shall immediately take his place.

4. Any player in the beginning of the set may be replaced only once by a substitute. During the same set the original player may go back to the court, but this can be done only once. A substitute leaving the game cannot come back again in the same set. Only that player may come back who has gone out for the substitute.

Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Position of Players:
The court is divided into two parts. In each half a team of six members plays. After the service, players of both teams stand in their respective areas. They stand in lines in numbers 3-3. It is not essential that the lines shall be straight. Players parallel to the net take their positions from left to right in a way that in doing the service the players 4, 3, 2 are in front of the attack line, and the players 5, 6, 1 are behind. This position remains until the service of a team changes.
Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
After the service, the players can occupy any position. The rotation order recorded on the score sheet shall have to be kept in use till the end of the set. The game shall be stopped owing to some fault in the rotation, and the faults is removed. All points made by the team during the fault are cancelled. The points scored by the opposing team are retained. If the fault or error is not known at the proper time the defaulter team shall resume its correct position and shall have to lose the service or a point according to the situation.

Officials:
The following officials are appointed to conduct the game:
(i) Referee:
The referee sees to it whether a player is playing according to rules or not. He keeps control over the game, and his decisions are final. If any player breaks the rules, he is entitled to stop him from playing and may award him punishment.

(ii) Umpire:
He substitutes players. In addition to it, he gives signals on crossing the lines, time-on and touching the line. On the request of a captain he allows the substitution of a player. He assists the referee as well. He also brings the players to their positions turn by tarn:

(iii) Scorer:
During the play the scorer asks for the change of end, and keeps in view the rotation of the players. At the start of the game, he notes down the numbers and names of players, and keeps a record of scores.

(iv) Two Linesmen:
In case of a foul, the linesmen of both the teams give signals to the referee. In each end there is a lineman for a team. He announces when the ball falls in or out.

Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 2.
Describe the main Rules of Volleyball game.
Answer:
Rules of Play –

  • The number of players in each team shall be compulsorily 6. The number of players including the substitutes in a team cannot exceed 12.
  • All international matches are played to the best of five or to the best of three sets. In all international matches, five winning sets are played.
  • At the start of the game the captains of both the teams toss to decide ends and service. The toss winning team is free to choose either service or ends.
  • After each set the ends are changed. In the last set when a team has made 8 points, the ends are changed.
  • No team can play the game with less than 6 players.
    Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 4

Time out:

  • The referee or umpire will grant time-out only in case the ball is damaged (dead).
  • A captain or a coach may ask for time-out for rest.
  • During a time-out the players cannot leave the court to talk to any one. They can only seek advice from their coach.
  • Each team can take two times-out in a set. The duration of such a time-out is not more than 30 seconds. Two times-out can be taken consecutively.
  • If a team, after getting two times-out, requests for the third, the referee shall give a warning to the concerned captain or coach. If the time-out is demanded even after this, the concerned team has to lose a point or service.
  • During the time-out for rest, neither can the players leave the court without permission nor the coach can enter the court. Of course, the coach, while remaining out of the court, can talk to the players.
  • A maximum interval of 2 minutes is permitted between two sets, but the interval between the fourth and fifth sets is of five minutes.
  • The game starts immediately after the substitution of a player.
  • In case a player is injured a time-out of 3 minutes is granted. It is allowed if the player is not substituted.

Obstacles of Play:
If a match is interrupted for some reason and cannot be completed, the problem shall be solved like this-

  • The game shall be re-started on the same court, and the score also shall remain the same as it was left earlier.
  • If the interruption in the game does not exceed 4 hours, the match shall be resumed at the fixed court.
  • In case the match is resumed on another court, the score of the interrupted set shall be deemed to be cancelled but the results pf the completed sets shall remain the same.

Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Passes:
1. Under-hand Pass. This technique is now considered to be very useful. It makes even a difficult service easy. In this pass, the left hand is tightly closed. The ball is placed on the right fist such a way that the thumbs remain parallel to each other. The under-hand ball is received when the ball is quite low.

2. Back Pass. The back pass is made use of to dodge an opponent. The player who is to make pass makes it behind his head. The volley server volleys.

3. Under-hand Ball with Back Rolling. When the ball is beside the net, the hit should be made by opening the fingers and touching them with the ball.

4. Under-hand Ball with Side Rolling. When the ball is to one side of the player, the hand is opened in the direction of the ball. The ball is received by side rolling.

5. Under hand Pass with the Hand. This method is used to return the ball when the ball is to the one side of the player in the direction in which it is to be received. The ball is taken by slightly bending the leg, extending the arm and closing the fist.

6. Taking the Ball Struck with the Net. This type of ball is taken by under-hand, otherwise it is cut towards the fellow players so that it may be passed carefully.

Service:
(a) By service we mean the putting of the ball into play by the right hand back line player. The player hits the ball with his hand either open or closed or any part of the arm in such a way that the ball passes over the net to the opposite court. The service should be done from the fixed place. Throwing the ball by hand is prohibited. A player after service can remain on the boundary line or enter the court.

If the served ball falls on the ground untouched by any player, the service is re-taken. If the service ball passes over the net without touching it and between the antennae, the service is considered to be good. The service will have to be re-taken as soon as the referee blows the whistle. A player shall continue to serve until a fault is committed by any player of his team.

(b) Faults of Service.
If any of the following faults are committed, the referee will blow his whistle for the change of service :

  • When the ball touches the ground.
  • When the ball passes under the net.
  • When the ball touches the antennae or it does not pass over the net completely.
  • When the ball touches a player or an object before it reaches the opponent’s court.
  • When the ball lands outside the limit of the opponent’s court.
  • When the player’s foot, while the service is being taken, is on the line or touches the line.

(c) Second and later Service:
In each new set that team shall serve which has not served in the preceding set. The service in the final set is decided by toss.

(d) Obstacles of Play: If, in the opinion of the referee, a player deliberately obstructs a game, he is penalized.

Change in Service:
When the serving team commits a fault, the service is changed. The service also undergoes a change when the ball is side-out.

Hitting the Ball:

  • Each team can contact the ball three times so as to pass the ball into the court of the opposing team.
  • A ball can be hit with any upper part of the body.
    A ball can pass touching the various upper parts of the body but it should be simultaneous. The ball should not be caught; rather it should bounce forcibly.
  • If a ball lodges for sometime in the player’s hands or arms, it shall be reckoned to bathe ball held. Lifting, pushing, carrying shall also be considered as holding. To hit the ball distinctly with both hands from below is in conformity with the rules.

Blocking:
Blocking is that activity by which, as soon as the ball crosses the net, the attack by an opponent is attempted to be stopped with any upper part of the body, above the abdomen. Blocking is done by the players of the first line. Players of back line are not allowed to do blocking. After blocking any player who takes part in blocking may get the ball.

Games of Net:

  • A ball is considered to be good if it (other than served) touches the net completely.
  • A ball is also considered to be good when it passes the net from inside the marks.
  • A ball hitting the net can be played. If a ball that has been played three times by a team touches the net the fourth time or falls on the ground, the referee shall blow the whistle for the offence.
  • A ball which hits the net so hard that the net contacts an opponent, the opponent shall not be penalized for this contact.
  • If two opposing players touch the net simultaneously, it is considered a double fault.

Crossing Hand Over Net:

  • During blocking, the touching of the ball with hands over the net in the court of the opponents is not considered a fault provided the contact has been made after the attack by the opponents.
  • To pass hands over the net after an attack is not a fault.
  • If the ball is touched by the blocking players, then the same team can cross the ball over the net by touching the ball with hands three times.

Crossing Centre Line:

  • If during the play, any part of the body of any player contacts or enters the opponent’s court, it is considered a fault.
  • Passing of the ball under the net, and attracting the attention of the opponent by touching the ground with any part of the body after crossing from under the net shall be considered a fault.
  • To enter the opponent’s court before the referee whistles shall be deemed as a fault.

Ball out of Play:

  • If the ball touches the net outside antennae or the antennae, it is considered a fault.
  • If the ball touches the ground or any object outside the court, it is considered to be ‘out’. A ball touching hands shall be deemed correct.
  • The play stops with the referee’s whistle, and the ball shall be considered out of play.

Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Score:

  • When a team is leading by two sets, it is declared to be the winner. A set has 15 points. If the score is tied at 14-14, the play is continued upto 16-14, 17-15 and 19-17.
  • If a team refuses to come into the court on being asked by the referee, it loses the game. A wait of 15 minutes for the team to play is possible. It is left in case of injury to a player during the game.
  • If a team fails to return the ball correctly in the court of the opponent, the points is awarded to the opposing team.

Fouls in Volleyball:

  • If during the game a player touches the net, it is considered to be foul.
  • To touch the centre line is a foul.
  • Crossing the line before service is a foul.
  • When the ball hits the face, back and waist, it is a foul.
  • If there is a sound while taking the ball.
  • Holding is a foul.
  • If the ball is touched more than three times, it is a foul.
  • If a player touches the ball with hands continuously for two times, it is a foul.
  • If during the service he is pursued in a wrong situation.
  • If the rotation is faulty.
  • If the ball is given side-pass.
  • If the ball crosses the net from below.
  • When the service is not done from the service area.
  • If the service is not correct, even then it is a foul.
  • If the served ball is crossed by a player of the serving side.
  • While doing service it is a foul to form group.
  • Doing the service before the whistle is a foul. If any of these fouls is done, the referee asks for the change in service. He can give warning to any player or can expel him.

Decisions:

  • The decisions of the officials are final. .
  • Only the captain of a playing team can protest against the decisions about the interpretation of rules.
  • If the referee’s’decision is not correct, the game is played under protest, and the protest is sent to the higher officials.

Important Information about the Volleyball Game

  • The length and breadth of = 18 x 9m
    Volleyball ground
  • The breadth f the post of the = 7 c.m.
    canvas strap
  • The number of Antenica = Two
  • Length of Antenia = 1.80m
  • Distance of poles from line = 1 meter
  • Length and breadth of the net = 9.50 x 1 meters
  • The height of the net for men = 2.43 meters
  • The height of the net for women = 2.24 meters
  • Circumference of the ball = 65 to 67 c.m.
  • Colour of the ball = Multiple colour
  • Weight of the ball = 260 to 280 gm
  • Number of player in a team = 12 (size players 6 substitute)
  • Officials of the match = Two referee, One scorer, Two or four lineman
  • The size number of the back = Height 20 c.m.,15 c.m. Length, 2 c.mBreadth.
    of players
  • Twelve (12) players take part in the game of volleyball, out of which 6 play and 6 are substitutes.
  • Both the teams participating in a match has 6 players each.
  • Standing in their court these players make the ball pass over the net.
  • A point is awarded against the team in whose court the ball falls.
  • There is no time limit for the game of volleyball; instead the best of three or the best of five games is played.
  • No rope is now used under the net.
  • The toss winning team is free to choose service or end.
  • Only two players can be substituted in the game of volleyball.
  • A player of the opposing team can block the service if it is going beside the net. Service will be considered
    correct when the ball during service touched to the net and reached in opponent’s playing area.
  • A team can be scratched if it does not enter the ground in fifteen minutes.
  • Each game of volleyball is of 25 points.
  • Libro player is allowed substitution whenever he desire but for defence purpose only.
  • A player can throw the ball in opponents playing area by hitting the ball with foot and knee.

Lezium Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Lezium Game Rules.

Lezium Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Write down the measurement of lezium and its types.
Answer:
Lezium:
Lezium consists of a wooden handle of 16″ to 18″ in length with an iron chain fixed at both ends of the wooden handle and a rod of 15 cm (6″) in the middle. The iron chain contains iron plates in each ring which produces rhythmic and jingling sound when the lezium is in use. The weight of the whole apparatus is between 1 3/4 to 2 lbs.

Lezium Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Types of Lezium:
Lezium Skand, Aram, Husshyar, Pavitra, Char Awaj, Ek Jagah, Aidi Lagala, Starting position, Do Rukh, Age Shlang, Peechhe Shlang.

Lezium Skand:
In this position, lezium is kept on right shoulder. In this position, lezium is like egg position, and the wooden handle is remain behind and the chain of iron remain in front of the body.
Lezium Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
Aram:
In this position, iron chain kept in a right hand and hanging in left hand when a student is remain in husshyar position the order of aram is given.

Husshyar:
Before starting of the Lezium, student should come in husshyar position. This position is kept when the lezium is on the shoulder. This exercise is performed by counting two on counting one, the iron chain and on counting two the lezium should be kept up to left shoulder and bring it in front of the chest with left hand. Wooden handle is race iron chain in the right hand and pull towards the body. After this exercise, came into the first position.

Pavitra:
This position is obtain from the Skand position. Keeping front left knee is little bend, bring the right foot behind the body. The weight should be on the left toe and push toward the floor. The remain straight chest and head must be raised upward. In this position, left leg must be towards the right and lezium should be in husshyar position.

Char Awaj:
In the starting of husshyar position on counting one keep the knee straight and bend the body, take the first stock near the feet in this position. Wrist goes out side and the handle of the lezium become parallel to the body, one counting to range the body up and snatch the iron chain from the wooden handle.

In the position, lezium will be on waist, on counting three and in a first position. The wooden handle should be moved to the right side and right hand should be in front of the body. On counting four, wooden handle should be taken in front of mouth, which we can see through the lezium.

Ek Jagah:
In the exercise, in counting four rotate the lezium in a round left to right after this next four counting should be repeated from left side.

Adha Lagao:
In this exercise, all the eight counting must be repeated and foot movement should be performed on char awaj. The left leg should be brought to the right leg and the left toe .. should be brought to right, the thumb should be kept between the finger.

Starting position:
In this position, rotating the back Char awaj should be performed four times. In coming first position, the exercise rotate the body from left side and lezium should be in front of the chest. In keeping the taal on counting four rotate the body in fast position. By doing this exercise, arm should be rotate in circle motion.

Do Rukh:
This exercise consist of eight counting and pavitra is N starting position just counting three. It will be like pavitra on counting four in a opposite direction from the left position. In a quick motion, perform four on counting five, rotate the lezium upward to down ward from left toe to right toe. Char awaj perform on counting six. It should be like to on counting seven take the Pavitra position, and char awaj take three counting. On counting eight, it should be like first position.

Lezium Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Aage Shalang:
This is the exercise of ten counting. Starting position is of pavitra, on counting one, bending forward near the left toe to the char awaj should be done. When taking left foot is completed on counting three, right foot should be forwarded like near the left foot, char awaj should be perform. In this way, left toe is done up on counting five, char awaj to be perform.

Taking six and seven stock with the left lezium should be nearer and foot should be kept in pavitra position. On counting eight, char awaj should be performed on counting nine, bending forward char awaj must be one stock. On counting ten, raise the body by farming char awaj and return to pavitra position.

Peechhe Shalang:
In this exercise, counting should be in ten, starting position must be a pavitra perform. The char awaj near the left toe on counting. In second and third, rotate to right and make two perform. In opposite direction, perform char awaj on four counting four times. Six and seven rotate from left foot keeping the right foot behind, on counting eight perform the char awaj, in this position student should be in pavitra position while counting nine char awaj should be performed.

Forward Bend:
On counting one, keep the right foot ahead. Bend on right side and open the lezium in same position. On counting two, raise the right foot up to three inches and by bending forward, lezium should be close on counting three, keep the left foot ahead and repeat the counting one. In this way, the exercise should be performed.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions and Answers

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Practical Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions and Answers

Hockey

Question 1.
How does the game of hockey start?
Answer:
The game of hockey starts when a player passes over the ball under certain rules to another player of his side from the centre line.

Question 2.
How many players are there in a hockey team?
Answer:
There are 16 players in the game of hockey. Eleven of these players play the game while 5 players are substitutes.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
How many players in the game of hockey can be replaced?
Answer:
Five players can be replaced in this game.

Question 4.
How much time is fixed for this game and how much extra time is given in case of a draw?
Answer:
The time allowed in the game of hockey is 35-5-35.

Golden Goal Rule:
If both the teams remain equal during the allotted time the extra time given is 7 \(\frac{1}{2}\), 7 \(\frac{1}{2}\) minutes . As soon as the goal is scored during this time the game ends. The team scoring the goal is declared the winner. Even then if a goal is not scored both the teams are given 5, 5, penalty strokes up to the time the match is decided.

Question 5.
Tell the length and breadth of hockey ground?
Answer:
The length of a hockey ground is 100 yards 91.25 m and its breadth is 60.55m yards.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
Tell the weight and diameter of a hockey ball?
Answer:
The weight of a hockey ball is 5 \(\frac{1}{2}\) ounce and its diameter is 9 \(\frac{1}{2}\) inches.

Question 7.
Tell about the number of people involved in the administration of a hockey game?
Answer:
Following administrators help to organise a hockey match:

  1. Referee – 1
  2. Empire – 2
  3. Linemen – 2

Question 8.
Give the positions of the players in a hockey game?
Answer:
There are 11 players in a hockey game:

  1. Goal keeper.
  2. Right full back.
  3. Left full back.
  4. Right half back.
  5. Centre halfback.
  6. Left half back.
  7. Right-out forward.
  8. Right-in forward.
  9. Centre forward.
  10. Left in forward.
  11. Left out forward.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
Tell the length and height of the goal post?
Answer:
A goal post is 4 yards in length and 7 feet in height

Question 10.
What is the length and height of a goal board?
Answer:
Goal board is 4 yards long and not higher than 18 inches.

Question 11.
What is the weight of a hockey-stick?
Answer:
The weight of a hockey stick for men is 28 ounce and 23 ounce for women.

Question 12.
What type of uniform should be there for a hockey player?
Answer:
The uniform for a hockey player includes a shirt, a nicker, socks, shoes. A goal-keeper needs pads and gloves also.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 13.
What is the striking diameter for the game of hockey?
Answer:
In front of each goal-post there is a white line which is 4 yards, 3.66 m long and 3 inches wide. It is drawn parallel to the goal post at a distance of 16 yards. It goes to the diameter of the breadth of the 3 inch line. Its centre will be the goal post. The striking diameter is the outer corners of the 16 yard line and the centre of the goal line including the lines.

Question 14.
Tell the distance of the penalty stroke?
Answer:
Penalty stroke is hit from a distance of 8 yards from the goal post.

Question 15.
Is there stick in the game of hockey?
Answer:
Now a days there is no stick in the game of hockey. Even if the hockey is raised above the shoulder it is not treated as a foul provided the hit is not dangerous.

Football 

Question 1.
Tell the length and breadth of a football ground?
Answer:
The length of a football ground should not be more than 130 yards and less than 100 yards. Its breadth should not be more than 100 yards and less than 50 yards.

Question 2.
How many players are there in a football game also tell their position in the game?
Answer:
In a football game there are 16 players out of which 11 play the game and 5 are the substitutes.
Position. Goal keeper = 1, Full-back = 2, Half = 3, Forward = 5.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Tell the time for a football game?
Answer:
The time for a football game is 45-5-45 minutes.

Question 4.
What is the weight of a football and what is its diameter?
Answer:
The weight of a football is from 14 ounce to 16 ounce arid its diameter is 27 to 28 inches.

Question 5.
Tell the breadth of the lines of a football ground?
Answer:
All the lines of a football ground are 5 centimetre wide.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
What is the weight of air in a football?
Answer:
The weight of air in a football is 0.6007 or 9.01505 pound per square inch.

Question 7.
How does the game of football start?
Answer:
The game of football starts with a pass of ball.

Question 8.
Tell the length and height of the goal posts?
Answer:
The goal posts are 8 yards in length and 8 feet in breadth.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
Tell the distance of a penalty kick?
Answer:
Penalty kick takes place from a distance of 16 yards.

Question 10.
When does a goal take place?
Answer:
When the ball crosses the line in between the goal posts the goal takes place.

Question 11.
At what distance should the players of the opposite team stand when the jkick takes place?
Answer:
This distance should be 10 yards.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 12.
What is throw-in?
Answer:
When the ball goes out of the ground and the player of the opposite team throws the ball in from that very placg it is called throw-in.

Question 13.
How many flags are put in a football game?
Answer:
Six flags are fixed in a football game. Four of them are fixed at the corners of the ground and two are fixed at the end of the centre line at a distance of one yard each.

Question 14.
Tell four fouls in a football game?
Answer:
Following are the four main fouls in a football game:

  1. To hit the player of the opposite team.
  2. To touch the ball with hands.
  3. To push a player.
  4. To attack the opposite player from behind.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 15.
Give the number of the administrators in the football game?
Answer:
Referee = 1, Goal Judge = 2, Lineman = 2.

Question 16.
Can there be a penalty corner foul outside the D also?
Answer:
Penalty corner can be awarded outside the D also if the attacking player is stopped in a dangerous way.

Question 17.
When is the penalty-stroke awarded?
Answer:
When the players of the defending team deliberately catch the ball or keep it under foot the penalty stroke is given.

Volleyball

Question 1.
How many players are there in a volleyball game?
Answer:
There are 12 players in a volleyball game out of which six are the players and six are the substitutes.

Question 2.
How many players in a volleyball game can be substituted?
Answer:
Six players can be substituted. All the six players can be substituted.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Tell the length and breadth of a volleyball court?
Answer:
A volleyball court is 18 metres long and 9 metres wide.

Question 4.
Tell the length and width of a volleyball net?
Answer:
The length of a volleyball net is 9 metre and its breadth is one metre.

Question 5.
Tell the height of a volleyball net?
Answer:
The height of a volleyball net for boys is 2.43 metres and for girls it is 2.24 metres.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
What is the weight of air in a volleyball?
Answer:
The weight of air in a volleyball should be 0.48 kg to 0.52 Kg.

Question 7.
How does the rotation take place in a volleyball game?
Answer:
In a volleyball game six players play from each side. Three out of them are in front of the attacking line and three are behind it. The first one takes the service. At the time of service 4, 3, 2 are before the attack line and 5, 6, 1 are behind them.

Question 8.
What is the position of players in a volleyball game?
Answer:
Following is the position of the players in a volleyball game:
4 3 2
5 6 1

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
Give the number of the administrators in a volleyball game?
Answer:
1. Referee = 1, 2,
Umpires = 1, 3
Linemen = 2.

Question 10.
How is a match decided in a volleyball game?
Answer:
The team that wins two sets out of the three sets is declared the winner. Five sets take place in national and international games. The team that wins three out of five is declared the winner.

Question 11.
For how many times the time-out can be availed in a volleyball game and what is the time span of a time out?
Answer:
Two time-out can be availed in one set. The time out is for 30 seconds only.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 12.
Give five main fouls in a volleyball game?
Answer:
Following are the five main fouls in a volleyball game:

  1. To catch the ball when the game is going on.
  2. To touch the centre-line.
  3. To touch the line while taking the service.
  4. To touch the ball for more than three times.
  5. When the player touches the ball twice continuously.

Question 13.
What is the score fixed for a volleyball game?
Answer:
There are 15 points in a volleyball game. If both the teams score 14-14 points each it is obligatory for the game to be played upto 16-14, 17-15, 19-17.

Question 14.
Is a rope put at the lower side of the net?
Answer:
No rope is put at the lower side of the net.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 15.
Can the opposite team block a service?
Answer:
If the ball comes just near the net, the opposite team can block the service.

kho-kho

Question 1.
How many players are there in a Kho-Kho game?
Answer:
There are twelve players in a Kho-Kho game out of which 9 are the players and three are the substitutes.

Question 2.
Tell the length and breadth of a Kho-Kho ground?
Answer:
A Kho-Kho ground is 29 metres in length and 16 metres in breadth.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Who is called a chaser and who is a runner in a Kho- Kho game?
Answer:
The players who sit are called the chasers and those who run are called the runners.

Question 4.
How many innings are there in a Kho-Kho match?
Answer:
There are two innings in a Kho-Kho match.

Question 5.
What is the time for a Kho-Kho match?
Answer:
The time for a Kho-Kho match is 9-5-9,10 rest, 9, 5,9 minutes second innings.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
How does the match start?
Answer:
Toss takes place before the beginning of the match. The team that wins the toss decides to become chaser or runner.

Question 7.
How many points are scored when a runner gets out?
Answer:
One point is scored when a runner gets out.

Question 8.
How is the match decided?
Answer:
The team that scores more points is declared the winner.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
How many squares are there in a Kho-Kho game and what is their size?
Answer:
There are 8 squares measuring 30 c.m. x 30 c.m in a Kho- Kho game.

Question 10.
Is there a playing lobby in Kho-Kho? Tell its breadth?
Answer:
There is a playing-lobby in Kho-Kho and its breadth is 3 metres.

Question 11.
Tell the length and diameter of a Kho-Kho pole?
Answer:
The length of Kho-Kho pole is 1.22 metres and its diameter in 20 cm.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 12.
What is the distance between the Kho-Kho poles?
Answer:
The distance between the Kho-Kho poles is 24.40 metres.

Question 13.
What is the total number of the administrators of a Kho-Kho game?
Answer:
Two umpires, One referee, One time keeper, One scorer.

Question 14.
When is a player considered ‘out’ in Kho-Kho?
Answer:
When the chaser touches the runner or the runner goes out of the ground he is considered to be ‘out’.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 15.
Name five main fouls in Kho-Kho?
Answer:
The main fouls are given below:

I. To get up before getting the ‘Kho’.
II. To cut the centre line.
III. To turn without touching the pole.
IV. The wrong running by the chaser.
V. The runner goes out of the ground on his own.

Question 16.
What is the situation of a draw in Kho-Kho?
Answer:
If both the teams score equal points another innings is played and another innings is played if the match is yet undecided. If the match remains undecided the whole match is played again.

Kabbadi

Question 1.
Mention the length and breadth of the Kabaddi ground?
Answer:
The length of Kabaddi ground is 12.50 metres and Breadth 10 metres. For junior boys and girls length and breadth is 11 and 8 metres respectively.

Question 2.
Mention the number of players in Kabaddi?
Answer:
There are twelve players in Kabaddi game. Out of them seven players actually play and five are substitutes.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
What is the time duration of the game of Kabaddi?
Answer:
The duration of Kabaddi game is 20-5-20 and for junior boys and girls is 15-5-15.

Question 4.
How many scores does Lona have?
Answer:
Lona has two extra points.

Question 5.
When is a player considered to be out?
Answer:
A player who goes out of the boundary during the play shall be considered ‘out’. If an opponent goes out of the boundry and catches the raider, the raider shall not be considered ‘out’ but all the players catching shall be ‘out’.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
How many time-outs can be taken in Kabaddi?
Answer:
Two time-outs can be taken in Kabaddi. The duration of each time out is of 30 seconds.

Question 7.
How is the game of Kabaddi Match decided?
Answer:
Any team which gets more points shall be winner. In case of draw 5 extra minutes will be given until the match is decided.

Question 8.
Mention the number of officials conducting the game of Kabaddi?
Answer:
Officials in Kabaddi are:

  1. One referee
  2. Two umpires
  3. Two lines-men
  4. One scorer.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
Describe the main fouls in the Kabaddi game?
Answer:

  1. To hold the raider with help of leg-scissors.
  2. Outside coaching is not allowed,
  3. To catch by hair intentionally is foul.
  4. To try to stifle a raider by shutting his mouth or throttling him.
  5. Using violent tackling by one player against the other.

Question 10.
Mention the new amendment in the game of Kabaddi?
Answer:
In the game of kabaddi one metre Bonus line is added from the bonus line.

Question 11.
What do you understand by a Bonus for raider?
Answer:
When a raider comes after having crossed bonus line he gets one point.

Badminton 

Question 1.
What is the total number of players in Badminton?
Answer:
There are two types of Badminton game. Singles and Doubles. In singles there are two players out of them one plays the game and one is a substitute. In doubles there are three players out of them two play and one is a substitute.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 2.
Mention the length and breadth of the badminton court?
Answer:
Badminton is of two types, Singles and Doubles, For singles the length and beadth is 44′ × 17′. For doubles the length and breadth is 44′ × 20′.

Question 3.
How does the game of badminton start?
Answer:
The two teams shall toss before the play starts. The toss winning team shall have the option of:
(I) Serving First
(II) Choosing Sides.

Question 4.
How many points does the game of Badminton have?
Answer:
Men’s doubles and singles games consist of 7.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 5.
In how many parts the Badminton court can be divided?
Answer:
We can divide Badminton court into two parts. Right court and left court.

Question 6.
Mention the length and breadth of the side gallery of the Badmintion Court?
Answer:
The side and back gallery shall be of 2\(\frac{1}{2}\), and 1\(\frac{1}{2}\), respectively.

Question 7.
Mention the weight of the shuttle?
Answer:
The weight of the shuttle is from 73 to 85 grams.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 8.
Discuss the main rules of the doubles game of Badminton?
Answer:
Doubles:
In the game, there are two players on each side. After having been decided which side is to deliver the service first, the player in the right hand service court of that side shall start the game. He shall serve to the opposing player in the right service court. This matter is decided by the toss winners, and the other matters by the losing one. It is decided before hand whether the game shall have 15 points or 21.

If the opponent returns the shuttle before it touches the ground to the player who started the game, he shall again return it to the latter. In this way, the play shall continue until the foul is made or the shuttle falls down on the ground. In case the service is not returned or the foul is made by the opposing side, the player doing the service shall score one point.

The members of the team delivering the service shall change their service court. Now the player doing the service shall be in the left hand service court and shall serve to the player of the opposing team in the left hand service court. In the beginning of each game, each team shall deliver the service from the right hand service court.

Question 9.
Write the main rules of the single game of Badminton?
Answer:
Singles:
All the above-mentioned rules shall be applicable to singles games but

(i) the player serves from, and receives service in his respective right hand service court. When the player who serves is at 0 or there is an even number of points in the game, the service is always deliverd from the right hand service court. In case of odd numbers, the service is delivered from the left hand service court.

(ii) Both the players change service courts after each has scored 1 point.

(iii) The ladies single game consists of 11 points. When the score is 9-all, the player who first reaches 9 can set the game to 3 points. In case of the score is 10-all, the game is set to 2 points.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 10.
Describe the main Faults of the game of Badminton?
Answer:
Faults:
In case a fault is committed by a player of the playing side, the player who delivers the service shall be “out”. If the fault is committed by an opponent, the playing side gets one point. It shall be considered a fault:

(a) When the struck or served shuttle is higher than the server’s waist or it is struck by the shaft of the racket higher than the server’s hand holding the racket.

(b) When in serving, the shuttle falls into the wrong service court or falls short of the short service line or beyond the long service line or outside the side boundary line.

(c) When serving, the player’s feet are not in the service court.

(d) When before or during service any player intentionally obstructs his opponents.

(e) When in service, the shuttle falls outside the boundary of the court, passes through under the net, fails to pass the net, or touches the person or dress of a player.

(f) If the shuttle is struck before it crosses the striker side of the net.

(g) When the shuttle is in play, a player touches the net or its supports with his body, racket or dress.

(h) When the shuttle is held on the racket, a player strikes it twice in succession or it is struck twice in succession by the player first and then by his partner.

(i) The opponent shall be reckoned as ready if in play he returns the shuttle or tries to hit it, whether he is in or outside the boundary.

(j) When a player obstructs an opponent.

Wrestling – Free Style And Greeco Roman 

Question 1.
Mention the duration of the Wrestling?
Answer:
The duration of Wrestling is 5 minutes.

Question 2.
Describe the length and breadth of the Wrestling Mat?
Answer:
The size of the Wrestling Mat should be 9 × 9 metres. The size of the mat of Olympic and World Championship is 9 × 9 metres.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
How many times can a referee warns a wrestler?
Answer:
If any referee warns a wrestler, thrice wrestler will be considered the loser.

Question 4.
How is the score made in Wrestling?
Answer:
Score
(a) One point,

  • To a player who throws a rival on the mat and maintains control over him,
  • to that player who rises from beneath and maintains his hold on his opponent,
  • to a player who makes a good grasp and does not allow his opponent’s head and shoulder to touch the mat,
  • for one precaution the opponent gets one point.

(b) Two Points,

  • to that player who keeps good hold on his opponent and maintains his hold on him for some time,
  • to that player whose opponent immediately falls or falteringly falls.

(c) Three Points,

  • to a player who keeps his opponent in danger (when shoulders make an angle of less than 90° from the mat) for five seconds,
  • bridge position for three seconds or fall takes five seconds.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 5.
How is the victory or defeat decided in Wrestling?
Answer:
When there is a difference of one point in the score of the opposite players, the bout ends in a draw. Again, if Tio contestant scores any point, or the points are equal, the match ends iii a draw. If the difference is of more than one point, a player with more points is declared the winner.

Question 6.
Describe the officials who conduct the Wrestling?
Answer:
There are three officials in all types of Wrestling bouts:

  1. Mat chairman
  2. Referee
  3. Judge.

No official can be changed during the bout.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 7.
Discuss the main rules of weighing of the competitors?
Answer:

  1. Weighing of competitors shall begin two to four hours before the Wrestling competition begins.
  2. The competitors shall be weighed without clothes. They shall be medically examined by a doctor before they are weighed. The doctor will remove any player suffering from any contagious disease.
  3. Each contestant can participate in Wrestling with a player belonging to his weight-group.
  4. The competitors should be in a prefect physical condition. Their nails should be well pared. They shall be checked at the time of medical examination.
  5. Weighing shall start at beast two hours before the competition and must conclude an hour before the first wrestling bout.

Question 8.
Mention the foul holds in Wrestling?
Answer:
Foul-holds:
The following fouls are taken into consideration:

  1. Pulling of hair, ears, dress, private organs etc.
  2. Twisting of fingers, grasping of the throat and other holds which may be life-endangering.
  3. Holding in such a’ manner as may put the opponents’s life in danger, or may hurt any of his body part, or cause him pain so that the opponent helplessly leaves the bout.
  4. Treading on the feet of the rival.
  5. Touching the face of the opponent (from the eye-brows to the chin)
  6. Grasping the opponent by throat.
  7. Lifting the rival when he is in bridge position, and then throwing him on the mat.
  8. Breaking the bridge by giving a push from the head.
  9. Twisting the opponent’s arm at above 90° angle.
  10. Grasping the opponent’s head with both hands.
  11. Thrusting the elbow or knee into the abdomen or stomach of the rival.
  12. Turning the opponent’s arm to the back and pressing it.
  13. Grasping the opponent’s head in any manner.
  14. Applying leg-scissors on the body or head.
  15. Holding on to the mat.
  16. Talking to each other and making dangerous assault.

Gymnastics 

Question 1.
What type of implements are required for Gymnastics?
Answer:
We need the following implements:

For Men and Boys

  1. Parallel Bar (compulsory and optional)
  2. Vaulting Horse compulsory and optional
  3. Ground Gymnastic compulsory and optional
  4. Horizontal Bar optional and compulsory.

For Women and Girls

  1. Beam Balance compulsory and optional
  2. Ground Gymnastic compulsory and optional
  3. Vaulting Horse optional.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 2.
How many players take part in Gymnastics?
Answer:
There are eight players in Gymnastics, out of the six players participate in competition and two are substitutes.

Question 3.
How are points awarded in Gymnastics?
Answer:
For each gymnastic exercise, there are points from 0 to 10, and each point is sub-divided into 10 parts. If the panel of the judges is of five members, the minimum and maximum points are not considered, and an average of mid three points is taken. If the panel is composed of three judges, the marks of three are taken for average.

Question 4.
Is the decision of the Jury final?
Answer:
The decision of the Jury is final. Participants cannot protest against their decision.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 5.
If a contestant in Gymnastics is ill, for how long can he be awaited for?
Answer:
If any contestant in Gymnastics falls ill, officials have to wait for him for thirty minutes.

Question 6.
How many players can be taken for team championship?
Answer:
For team championship six best Gymnasts shall be considered.

Swimming

Question 1.
How many types of swimming competitions are there?
Answer:
Following types of swimming competition are held:

For Boys:

  1. Free style – 100, 200, 400, 800, 1500 m.
  2. Back Stroke – 100, 200 m.
  3. Breast Stroke – 100, 200 m.
  4. Butterfly Stroke – 100 m.
  5. Relay – 4 × 100 metre free style.
  6. 4 × 100 metre Medley (Breast, Back, Butterfly, Free Style)

For Girls :

  1. Free Style – 100, 200 and 400 m.
  2. Back Stroke – 100 m.
  3. Breast Stroke – 100 m.
  4. Butterfly Stroke – 100 m.
  5. Relay – 4 × 100 metre free style.
  6. 4 × 100 metre Medley (Breast, Back Stroke)

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 2.
How Heats and Finals in swimming competitions are organised?
Answer:
Heats and Finals in Swimming Competitions:
Seeding of Heats and Finals. The heats in all semi-finals and final swimming competitions shall be seeded as follows:

(1) Trial Hit

(1) The name, the order of time and the competitive time of all entrants are recorded on the admission form which is, then, sent to the competition committee. The competitor who does not get his or her time recorded in the form is listed at the bottom of the list. If there are more than one such competitors, their positions are decided by lots.

(2) The fastest swimmer or team is placed in the last heat, the next to him/it is placed in the last but one heat, and so on. In this way, all the swimmers or teams are fixed in various heats.

(3) When the lanes are in odd numbers, the fastest swimmers or team is placed in the central lane ; in case there are 6 or 5 lanes, the fastest swimmer or team is placed in third or fourth lane. The next to him/it in speed is placed to the right of the fastest swimmer/ team, and in this way, the other swimmers/teams are placed right or left according to their timing. The lane-position for the swimmers with equal timing is decided by lots.

(ii) Finals:
The lanes are determined in accordance with the above – mentioned rule 3 where the starting heats are not required. Where the starting heats have already been over, the lanes are determined according to Rule No. 3.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Mention the officials appointed to conduct swimming competitions?
Answer:
Officials for Olympic and International Swimming Competitions and other Swimming Competitions:

  1. Referee-1
  2. Starter-1
  3. Chief Time Keeper-1
  4. Time Keppers-3 per lane
  5. Chief Judge-1
  6. Finishing Judges-3 per lane
  7. Inspectors of Turns-1
  8. Announcer-1 each at both ends
  9. Judges of Strokes-2
  10. Recorder-1
  11. Clerk of the House-1

For other competitions, the following minimum officials shall be as under:

  1. Referee-1
  2. Starter-1
  3. Time Keepers-1 per lane
  4. Finishing Judges-1 per lane
  5. Inspectors of Turns and strokes-1 per every two lanes
  6. Recorder-1

Question 4.
What precautions should we take in swimming?
Answer:
We must take following precautions in swimming:

  1. We should come out from the water when the water enters our nose or mouth.
  2. Inhale yourself according to your capacity.
  3. When learning how to swim, do not go in deep water.
  4. Shout at the time of drowning.
  5. Don’t make noise while swimming.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 5.
How the points are awarded in swimming competition?
Answer:
The points are awarded by the following method. First, Second and Third position holders get 5-3-1 points respectively and in Relay races 16-6-2 points are awarded to first, second and third position holders.

Question 6.
Mention the main rules of swimming?
Answer:
Rules For Swimming:

  1. The swimmer who obstructs any other swimmer during the swim shall be disqualified.
  2. If a foul endangers the chance of success of a swimmer, the judges shall have the right to allow him to compete in the next round. If a foul occurs in the finals, the referee can allow him to swim again.
  3. On return a competitor shall touch the end of the pool or end of the track with one or both hands. Diving from the bottom of the pool is not allowed.
  4. A swimmer who stands on the both shall not be declared disqualified, but he shall not move.
  5. Only the swimmer who covers the entire course shall be declared the winner.
  6. In relay race, the competitor whose feet have lost touch with the starting block before his or her partner, going ahead of him or her touches.

Basketball 

Question 1.
How many players take part in a Basket-Ball Game?
Answer:
There are twelve players in a Basket-ball game. Out of which 5 are taking part and seven are the substitutes.

Question 2.
What is the ledgth and breadth of a Basket-Ball court?
Answer:
Basket-Ball court is 28 metres in length and 15 metres in breadth.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
What is the duration of a Basket-Ball Game? How you will decide the match in case of draw?
Answer:
The duration of the Basket-ball game is 10-2-10-10-10-2-10. At the time when match ended in draw extra 5-2-5 minutes are given, in case again it remains draw, extra 5-5 minutes are given without rest, after five minutes sides of basket-ball court are changed. This duration will be given till the match is decided.

Question 4.
How the Basket-Ball match is decided?
Answer:
The Basket-Ball match is decided in the way either team gets more points will be considered winner.

Question 5.
How many fouls are there in Basket-Ball Game?
Answer:
There are five fouls in Basket-Ball game. For examples:

  1. Personal foul.
  2. Technical foul.
  3. Double foul.
  4. Multiple foul.
  5. Intentional foul.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
After committing, how many fouls a player can be debarred from further play?
Answer:
When a player has committed five fouls, he is not allowed to play further.

Question 7.
How many time-outs are there in Basket-Ball game? Mention the duration of these time-outs?
Answer:
In Basket-Ball game two time-outs are there before interval for each team and two after the interval each team can take. The duration of time outs is one minute.

Question 8.
How many players can be substituted in game of Basket-Ball? How much time is consumed?
Answer:
In Basket-Ball game at any time, players can be substituted on the condition that the substituting team has a side throw and duration of the substitution is twenty seconds.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
What is the weight of Basket-Ball? Also tell its diameter?
Answer:
The weight of Basket-ball is from 600 to 650 grams and its diameter from 75 to 78 cm.

Question 10.
What is the distance of poles outside from the Basket-Ball ground?
Answer:
The distance of pole from the end line of the court is one metre.

Question 11.
How the scores are made in Basket-Ball?
Answer:
When the basket is made directly a player gets two points. If it is made from free throw then there is one point. If the basket is made outside the shooting area, then there will be three points.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 12.
What is foul rule?
Answer:
If any team commits seven fouls in any half, the opponents get two free throws after each foul.

Question 13.
What is Eight Second rule?
Answer:
According to eight second rule a team is allowed only eight seconds to bring the ball in front court (opponent’s court). The same team cannot come back from front court.

Question 14.
What is three seconds rule?
Answer:
When a player stays more than three seconds in opponent restricted area, three seconds is given and opponents are awarded a throw in.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 15.
What do you understand about twenty six seconds rule?
Answer:
When a team has the control of the ball, and don’t try for score within 26 seconds then twenty six second rule is applied and opponents are awarded a throw-in. This opportunity seldom comes in the game.

Question 16.
How many officials are there to officiate the Basket-Ball game?
Answer:
There are following officials in a Basket-Ball game:

  1. Referee – 1
  2. Umpire – 1
  3. Scorer – 1
  4. Time Kepper – 1
  5. 30 Second Operators – 1

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 17.
What is the length of Basket-Ball net?
Answer:
The length of the Basket-Ball net is 40 cm.

Athletics 

Question 1.
In how many categories can we divide Athletics?
Answer:
We can divide athletics into two categories:

  1. Track events – It includes all races.
  2. Field events – It includes all jumps and throws.

Question 2.
In how many events can Athletics be divided?
Answer:

  1. Races: 100, 200, 400, 800, 1500, 5000, 10,000 metre Races.
  2. 4 × 100, 4 × 400 metre relay races.
  3. Throws: Discus throw, Hammer throw, Shot put, Javelin Throw.
  4. Jumps: High Jump, Long Jump, Tripple Jump, Pole Vault.

Question 3.
What do you mean by sprints?
Answer:
Sprints are those races in which sprinters run at full speed for a short distances. These are 100, 200, 400, 4 × 100, 4 × 400 metre; relay races.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 4.
What are the middle distance races?
Answer:
Middle distance races are those races in which sprinters can run fast and are able to maintain their speed to cover the distance. These races are 800, 1500 metre.

Question 5.
What are the Relay Races?
Answer:
Relay Races are Team Races in which each team member runs an equal distance. In short relay races sprinters run at full speed as in sprint races. A team consists of four members and a baton is exchanged during races.

Question 6.
What are the main rules of Races?
Answer:
The main rules of the races are as under:
1. Sprints run in 4′ lanes so that there is no hindrance for each athlete.

2. Lanes are decided by lots.

3. On hearing ‘On your Mark’ from the starter the sprinter take their place behind the starting line at ‘On Set’ sprinters get ready and after the pistol is fired, the sprinters start running. If any sprinter take his start before the gun is fired, the starter cancels that start and the concerned sprinter is warned. If he repeats the samemistake, he is debarred from taking part in the race.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 7.
What are the different rules of throws?
Answer:
Rules of the throws:

  1. Shot put, Discus and Hammer are thrown from the circle.
  2. Before or after the throw no part of the body of the thrower should not touch the ground outside the circle.
  3. After the throw, thrower should come out from the half back of the circle ; coming out from the front part of the circle is considered a foul.
  4. All the throws will be valid if they fall within the restricted area.
  5. If the participants are more than eight, they will get tnree chances each. Those athletes who are ahead in throws are selected and again given three chances. An athlete who covers the maximum distance is declared a winner.
  6. In throw events once we take the implements inside the circle, we cannot throw it again at the back.
  7. In Shot put, Hammer and Discus throws, it is necessary that these should fall within 40 degree lines of the circle.
  8. Every throw is measured from the nearest point of landing considering a straight line from the outside of the circle.
  9. Fingers are not valid for measuring the distance.
  10. Thrower cannot leave his circle while his throw has touched the floor.

Question 8.
How are the points awarded selecting the champion in the races?
Answer:
In races points are awarded as under :

  1. First Position = 5
  2. Second Position = 3
  3. Third Position = 1

If there are Relay Races then the points are awarded as follows:

  1. First Position = 10
  2. Second Position = 6
  3. Third Position = 2

Question 9.
What are the degrees of angles in Shotput, Discus and Hammer throw?
Answer:
In Shotput, Discus and Hammer throw the degree of circle is 40°.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 10.
What is the breadth of lane of 100, 200, 400 metre races?
Answer:
The breadth of lane in these races is 1.25 metre or 4′.1″.

Question 11.
What is a standard track?
Answer:
That Track is known as standard track which consists of Eight lanes, but in general six lane tracks are also used.

Question 12.
How is the start taken?
Answer:
The starts is taken as under

On Your Marks Set
Gun or Pistol Fire.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 13.
How many races are included in track events?
Answer:
100, 200, 400, 800, 1500, 5000, 10,000 metre races are included in track events.

Question 14.
Which are the tips that the athletes running 100,200 and 400 metre races should keep in mind?
Answer:
The following are some important tips that such athletes should keep in mind:

  1. They should breathe normally.
  2. When ordered to get set, they should hold their breath and should start running when they hear the gun shot.
  3. They must not stop on sit after they finish their race.
  4. They should be conscious about their position, so that they can run the first a few steps in a straight line.
  5. To be confident about the start, they must practise a couple of starts slowly before the event.
  6. Each time before they take the start, they must run for 30 or 40 metres.
  7. They must practise at least 10 starts everyday.

Question 15.
How many ‘foul starts’ lead to the disqualification of the athlete for the race?
Answer:
Two foul starts in races and 3 such starts in tholon and decatholon make an athlete ineligible to take part in that event.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 16.
Describe the rules for the athletes of track events?
Answer:
The following tare the rules for the athletes of track events:

  1. They should wear a clear outfit which does not hinder or obstract their movement.
  2. They can run either wearing spikes or base footed.
  3. An athlete is disqualified if he obstructs a fellow athlete or hinders his progress.
  4. Every athlete wears his number clearly at the back and the front.
  5. The athlete must stick to their allotted lanes throughout the race.
  6. If an athlete delibrately leaves his lane, he is disqualified.
  7. The jugdes can accommodate a player appropriately if both track and field events start simultaneously.
  8. The athletes must not use banned drugs and intoxicants. If any athlete is found using such a substance, he is disqualified.
  9. The start of 800 metres race is announced in native language “On Your Mark” and the whistle is blown to start the race.
  10. The athlete shouldn’t touch the ground or the starting-line when “On Your Mark” has been announced.
  11. An athlete, who makes two foul starts, is disqualified from the race.
  12. The winner of a race is decided at the ‘finishing line’. The athlete, who touches the line first by any part of his body, is declared the winner.
  13. If in a hurdles race the referee thinks that a particular athlete delibrately throws a hurdle down by his hand or foot he can duly disqualify that athlete.
  14. If there are a large number of athletes in a ‘throw’ event, the referee sets a qualifying mark and gives six chances to each athlete.

Question 17.
Which are the different hurdles races? Describe briefly?
Answer:
The following are the hurdles races:

  1. 110 Metres hurdles
  2. 200 Metres hurdles
  3. 400 Metres hurdles.

1. The 110 Metres Hurdles:
There are ten hurdles in this race. The first hurdle is placed at 10.72 metres and the rest are placed at a distance of 9.14 metres except the last one which is placed at a distance of 14.02 metres. The height of the hurdles for boys is 1.06 metres which it is 89 cms. in 100 metres hurdles for senior girls and 76 cms. for junior girls.

2. 200 Metres Hurdles:
There are 10 hurdles in this race also. But the first hurdle is placed at 18.29 metres from the starting line and the last one is at a distance of 17.10 metres.

3. 400 Metres Hurdles:
In this race also there are 10 hurdles. The first hurdle is placed at 45 metres from the starting line, the remaining hurdles are at a distance of 35 metres and the last one, at 40 metres.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 18.
Write the measurements of the circles for Shotput, Hammer Throw and the Discus Throw?
Answer:
1. Shot put
2. 135 metres

2. Hammer throw

3.135 metres
3. Discus throw2.50 metres.

Question 19.
Describe the events on pentatholon and the Decatholon:
Answer:
(a) The following 5 events are included in pentatholon:

  1. Long Jump
  2. Javelin Throw
  3. 200 Metre race
  4. Discuss Throw
  5. 100 Metres Hurdles Race

(b) The following 10 events make up the decatholon:

  1. 100 Metres Race
  2. Long Jump
  3. Shot put
  4. High Jump
  5. Four hundred Metres Race
  6. 110 Metres Hurdles Race
  7. Discus Throw
  8. Pole Vault
  9. Javelin Throw
  10. 1500 Metres Race

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 20.
Describe the weight and ‘Length of Javelin’ for boys and girls?
Answer:
The weight of the Javelin is 800 gms. for boys and between 600 and 625 gms. for girls. The length of the Javelin for boys is between 2.60 and 2.70 metres where the same for girls is between 2.20 and 2.30 metres.

Question 21.
What is the weight of the shot for hoys and girls?
Answer:
The weight of the shot for boys is 6 kg. and for girls it is 4 kg.

Table Tennis 

Question 1.
Describe the length and width of the table in Table Tennis?
Answer:
The length of table of Table Tennis is 27. 4 cm. and breadth 15.25 cm.

Question 2.
How many types of games of Table Tennis is?
Answer:
I. Singles
II. Doubles.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Mention the number of players who take part in Table Tennis game?
Answer:
In singles there are two players, out of one actually plays the game and other is a substitute. In doubles there are three players, out of whom one is a substitute.

Question 4.
How is the game of Table Tennis started?
Answer:
A player who wins the toss decides for the service and loser for the side of the table.

Question 5.
Mention the length and height of the net of Table Tennis, game?
Answer:
The net is 183 cms. in length. Its upper part is at the height of 15.25 cms. from the playing surface.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
Mention the weight and circumference of the Table Tennis ball?
Answer:
The weight of Table Tennis ball is not less than 2.40 gm. and not more than 2.53 gm. Its diameter is not more than 38.2 mm, and not less than 37.2 mm.

Question 7.
Describe about the Racket of TableTennis game?
Answer:
Racket can be of any type of any weight but its surface must be of dark colour.

Question 8.
How shall we judge the correctness of the Table Tennis ball?
Answer:
When the Table Tennis ball is thrown downward from the height of 3.05 metres; it should bounce not less than 22 cms. and not more the 25 cms.

Question 9.
How many points are there in a game of Table Tennis?
Answer:
A player or pair who scores first 21 points shall win the game. If both the players or pairs score 20 points, then that player or pair shall be winner who scores 2 point before the other player or pair.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 10.
How are points scored in the game of Table Tennis and how is the game won?
Answer:
A player shall lose a point in case:

  1. He fails to deliver good service.
  2. He fails to deliver good return when his opponent has mad good service or return.
  3. He or his racket touches the net when the ball is in play.
  4. His free hand touches the playing surface when the ball is in play.
  5. He returns the ball with volley.
  6. In doubles, he strikes the ball out of turn.

Cricket 

Question 1.
How many players are there in a cricket Team?
Answer:
There are eleven players who actually play the game of cricket and five are substitutes.

Question 2.
Write the weight and diameter of a cricket ball?
Answer:
The weight of the cricket ball is from 155.9 Grams,(5 \(\frac{1}{2}\) ounces) to 163 grams (5 \(\frac{3}{4}\) ounce) and its diameter is from 22.4 cm (8 \(\frac{13}{16}\)“) to 22.9 cm. (9”).

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Write the number of officials who officiate in the cricket match?
Answer:
Umpires = 2. Scorers = 2.

Question 4.
Tell the length and breadth of a cricket bat?
Answer:
The length of a cricket bat is 96.5 cms. and breadth 10.8 ms.

Question 5.
Write the distance of cricket stumps from one another?
Answer:
20.21 metres or 22 yards.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
What do you understand by dead ball in cricket?
Answer:
A ball becomes dead:

  1. when the bowler or wicket keeper holds the ball properly.
  2. when the ball reaches the boundry line or bounces outside the boundry.
  3. when the ball, without being played, lodges in the dress of a batsman or a bowler.
  4. when a batsman is out.
  5. if the umpire decides to stop the game after the bowler gets back the ball.
  6. On the call of “over” or ‘time’ by the umpire.

Question 7.
What is an ‘over’ in a cricket?
Answer:
In each over the ball is bowled six times, no ball and wide ball are not reckoned in an over. The number of extra balls bowled in an over shall be equal to the number of “no balls” in that over.If the umpire fail to remember the number of balls in over, the over considered by the umpire shall not be counted.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 8.
What do you understand by the following?

  1. No ball
  2. Wide ball
  3. Bye and leg bye
  4. Out of his Ground
  5. Batsman’s Retirement
  6. Bowled
  7. Catch
  8. Handle the ball
  9. Hit the ball twice
  10. Wicket is down or Hit wicked
  11. LBW (Leg Before Wicket)
  12. Obstructing the field
  13. Stumped
  14. Run out
  15. Wicket-keeper
  16. Fielder

Answer:
No Ball. While playing the ball if the front foot of the bowler goes ahead of the batting crease or cuts the returning crease, the umpire declares No Ball. After hitting the ball the batsman can make as many runs as possible. The runs made in this way will be added to the score. If no run has been made, only one run will be added to the score. By spreading one of his arms the umpire gives the signal of no ball.

Wide Ball:
The umpire declares a wide ball if the bowler bowls the ball high over or wide the wicket which, in the opinion of the umpire, is out of the reach of the batsman. The runs made during the wide ball are reckoned in the wide ball. If no run is attemped, it is reckoned one run. The umpire gives the signal of wide ball by spreading his both arms straight.

Bye and Leg-bye:
The umpire shall declare ‘bye’ if the properly bowled ball passes the batsman (striker), without touching his bat or body and the run is obtained. But it should not be no ball or wide ball. But if the ball touches any part of the striker’s body except his hands which hold the bat and any run is got, the umpire shall declare “leg-bye”.

Out of his Grond:
A batsman shall be reckoned to be out of his ground until some part of his bat in hand or of his person is grounded behind the ground of popping crease.

Batsman’s Retirement:
A batsman owing to illness or injury may retire at any time. He may bat but he will have to seek the permission of the captain of the opposing team to know his number of batting.

Bowled:
If the wicket is bowled down, the striker (batsman) is said to be bowled out, even if the ball has touched first his body or foot.

Catch:
If the ball from the stroke of a bat or of the hand holding the bat (not the wrist) is caught by a fields man before it touches the ground, the batsman is “caught out”. At the time of a catch both the feet of the fields man should be on the ground of the playfield. If the fieldman catches the ball out of the boundary line, the batsman is not reckoned to be out, but is awarded 6 runs. If the ball lodges in the pads of the wicket-keeper, the batsman shall be reckoned to be “caught out”.

Handle the Ball:
During play, if the batsmen touches the ball with his hand he shall be reckoned to be out – “handle the ball out”.

Hit the Ball Twice:
If the ball is struck or stopped by any part of the batsman’s body after it has been hit, and if the batsman deliberately strikes it again, he shall be out” The ball can be hit twice only to defend the wicket but the condition is that it must have been done to defend the wicket. If any run is made in this process, it is not counted.

Wicket is Down or Hit Wicket. If during the play, the batsman hits down his wicket with any parts of the bat or body, it is called “hit wicket out”. If the wicket falls down as a result of the fall of his cap or hat or any broken part of his bat, even then he shall be reckoned to be “hit wicket out”.

L.B.W. (Leg Before Wicket). The batsman is considered to be “L.B.W. out” when he tries to obstruct the ball with any part of his body before touching the ball with his bat, and in the opinion of the umpire, the ball and wicket are in a straight line. If the batsman had not obstructed the ball with any part of his body, the ball would have straight hit the wicket.

Obstructing the field:
If a batsman deliberately obstructs a fieldsman from catching the ball, he can be out “obstructing the field”.

Stumped:
A batsman is out of his ground if his bat in hand or his foot is not on the ground behind the supposed popping crease. The batsman is considered to be out stumped when the ball is not “no ball” and is bowled and the batsman goes out of his ground otherwise than attempting a run, and the wicket-keeper outstumps the wicket (removes the stumps placed over the wickets).

Run Out:
The batsman is run out when the ball is in play, the batsman goes out of his ground to score a run, and his wicket is put down by the opposite side. If batsman cross each other, that batsman will be considered to be “run out” who is running to the fallen wicket.

Wicket-keeper:
The wicket-keeper shall always remain behind the wickets untill a ball delivered by a bowler touches the bat or the body of the striker or passes the wicket or the batsman is “out”. He cannot catch the ball.

Fielders:
The fieldsman can stop the ball with any part of his body. He is not allowed to stop the ball with his cap. ff he does so, its penalty shall be four runs. In case no run has been made, four runs shall be added.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
What do you understand by the following:

  1. Mendatory over
  2. One-day match.

Answer:
Mandatory over:
On the last day of the match, one hour before the close of the match, the umpire signals about the mandatory over. After this, a game of 20 over is played. 6 Balls are bowled in an over. If it seems the match would be a draw, the game can be ended before the completion of these overs.

One-day Match:
There is a one-day national and international match, in which both the teams play in 40-40 or 50-50 overs. The team which scores more runs becomes the winner.

Dumbbell Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Dumbbell Game Rules.

Dumbbell Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
What are Dumbbells? Write about its types.
Answer:
Dumbbell:
Dumbbell is an ancient Indian method of exercise, which can be performed indoor or outdoor.
Dumbbell is of two types-
(1) Iron Dumbbell
(2) Wooden Dumbbell: The dumbbell is very thick and heavy and in the middle, it is very thin. Hold the handle and struck them with each other, so the voice 1 may be produced. In this exercise position one, position two, position three and positions are performed.
Dumbbell Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
2. Body position while doing dumbbell:
The ankle should close and the finger should be open, knee and leg should be straight. The shoulder keeping backward and chest should be straight’ while doing, dumbbell from rest position to attention position and attention to rest position catch the dumbbell in both hands. The leader command the attention position, on the direction of the leader, student acquire the attention position, while folding the dumbbell v both hands and raising the hand upward.

Dumbbell Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Bend the dumbbell towards the elbow and bring the dumbbell from left hand to right hand. When the dumbbell meet each other, the noise is created, after this the leader in other vishram position. Student raise his right hand and keeping the dumbbell near the earth and make the noise. They will bring both dumbbell at the back and make the noise together. After this, on order of attention, the student should bend the elbow and strike the dumbbell with each other.

In this position, acquire the attention position. The ankle should be meet each other and finger should be spread out. In this way, noise created by striking each other. Second position is changed from first position, keeping both the hand straight in front of the body.

The palm should be pointed towards the earth, in the position dumbbell strick again. After coming third position is changed. From third position we gained first position. In this position, the palm of the hand should be upward, bring the hand near the chin and strike dumbbell each other and remain the attention position.

The exercise should be performed by counting sixteen. In exercise, there are four positions-

  1. First Position
  2. Second Position
  3. Third Position
  4. Fourth Position.

1. First Position:
In first position, student will remain in attention position. By folding raise the hand upward and bring the hand near the chin. In this position, palm and the dumbbell strike with each other.

2. Second Position:
In second position, this position is very mentioning. The arm should bring downward from upward and bring the arm backward. In this position, again dumbbell is strike with each other.

Dumbbell Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

3. Third Position:
In third position, hand should be moved, after straight the both hands, the elbow should be near the body, again in this position dumbbell strike.

4. Fourth Position:
In fourth position, student came in attention position and bring the both hands with dumbbell near the body.