PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Excretory Products and their Elimination Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR).
Answer:
Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is the amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys per minute. GFR in a healthy individual is approximately 125 mt/mm, i.e., 180 L day.

Question 2.
Explain the autoregulatory mechanism of GFR.
Answer:
Regulation of GFR: The kidneys have built-in mechanisms for the regulation o glomerular filtration rate. One such efficient mechanism is carried out by the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA). JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the distal convoluted tubule and the afferent arteriole at the location of their contact. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release renin which can stimulate the glomerular blood flow and thereby the GFR back to normal.

Question 3.
Indicate whether the following statements are true or false:
(a) Micturition is carried out by a reflex.
(b) Al)H helps In water elimination, making the urine hypotonia.
(c) Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman’s capsule.
(d) Henle’s loop plays an important role in concentrating the urine.
(e) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule.
Answer:
(a) True,
(b) False,
(C) True,
(d) True,
(e) True.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 4.
Give a brief account of the counter-current mechanism.
Answer:
Counter-current Mechanism

  • The counter-current mechanism takes place in Henle’s loop and vasa recta.
  • The flow of filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s loop is in opposite directions and thus, forms a counter-current.
  • The flow of blood through the two limbs of vasa recta is also in a counter-current pattern.
  • NaCl is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the descending limb of vasa recta.
  • NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta.
  • Similarly small amount of urea enters the thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle’ loop, which is transported back to the interstitium by the collecting tubule.
  • This transport of substances facilitated by the special arrangement of Henle’s loop and vasa recta is called the counter-current mechanism,
  • It helps to maintain a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium, which facilitates an easy passage of water from the collecting tubule thereby concentrating the filtrate (urine).

Question 5.
Describe the foie of liver, lungs and skin in excretion.
Answer:
Liver, lungs and skin also play an important role in the process of excretion. Role of the Liver: Liver is the largest gland in vertebrates. It helps in the excretion of cholesterol, steroid hormones, vitamins, drugs, and other waste materials through bile. Urea is formed in the liver by the ornithine cycle. Ammonia-a toxic substance is quickly changed into urea in the liver and thence eliminated from the body. Liver also changes the decomposed haemoglobin pigment into bile pigments called bilirubin and biliverdin.

Role of the Lungs: Lungs help in the removing waste materials such as carbon dioxide from the body.
Role of the Skin: Skin has many glands which help in excreting waste products through pores. It has two types of glands-sweat and sebaceous glands.

Sweat glands are highly vascular and tubular glands that separate the waste products from the blood and excrete them in the form of sweat. Sweat excretes excess salt and water from the body.
Sebaceous glands are branched glands that secrete an oily secretion called sebum.

Question 6.
Explain micturition.
Answer:
Micturition: The process of release of urine is called micturition and the neural mechanisms causing it is called the micturition reflex. An adult human excretes on an average 1 to 1.5 L of urine per day. The urine formed is a light yellow coloured watery fluid which is slightly acidic (pH 6.0) and has a characteristic odour.

Question 7.
Match the items of Column-I with those of Column-II:

Column-I Column-II
(a) Ammonotelism (i) Birds
(b) Bowman’s capsule (ii) Water reabsorption
(c) Micturition (iii) Bony fish
(d) Uricotelism (iv) Urinary bladder
(e) ADH (v) Renal tubule

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
(a) Ammonotelism (iii) Bony fish
(b) Bowman’s capsule (v) Renal tubule
(c) Micturition (iv) Urinary bladder
(d) Uricotelism (i) Birds
(e) ADH (ii) Water reabsorption

Question 8.
What is meant by the term osmoregulation?
Answer:
It is the phenomenon of regulation of change in the concentration of body fluids according to the concentration of external environment. Le., most marine invertebrates, some freshwater invertebrates, hagfish (a vertebrate).

Question 9.
Terrestrial animals are generally either republic or uricotelic, not ammonotelic, why?
Answer:
Terrestrial adaptation requires the production of less toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and uric acid for the conservation of water. Aquatic animals excret atnmonia which requires large amounts of water to dissolve. This huge quantity of water is easily available to such animals from surroundings.

However, for terrestrial animals, such a huge quantity of water is not available, hence, they modify their original water product NH3 to comparatively less toxic products like urea and uric acid which requires less amount of water for their excretion.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 10.
What is the significance of juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) in Sidney function?
Answer:
The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) plays an important role in monitoring and regulation of kidney functioning by hormonal feedback, mechanism, involving the hypothalamus and to a certain extent, the heart.

Question 11.
Name the following:
(a) A chordate animal having flame cells as excretory structures.
(b) Cortical portions projecting between the medullary pyramids in the human kidney.
(c) A loop of capillary running parallel to the Henle’s loop.
Answer:
(a) Flarworms,
(b) Columns of Bertini,
(c) Vasa recta

Question 12.
Fill in the gaps:
(a) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is ………………………… to water whereas the descending limb is …………………….. to it.
(b) Reabsorption of water from distal parts of the tubules is facilitated by hormone ……………………………. .
(c) Dialysis fluid contains all the constituents as in plasma except …………………………… .
(d) A healthy adult human excretes (on an average) ………………………… gm of urea/day.
Answer:
(a) impermeable, permeable;
(b) vasopressin or ADH.;
(c) the nitrogenous wastes;
(d) 25-30.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
What are coelomates? Give two examples.
Answer:
Animals possessing coelom are called coelomates, e.g., Annelids, molluscs, arthropods, etc.

Question 2.
Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called: [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Pseudocoelomates.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Question 3.
In some animal groups, the body is found to be divided into compartments with atleast some organs/organ repeated. Name this characteristic feature. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The segmentation that simultaneously divides body both externally and internally is called metamerism.

Question 4.
Name the group which lack digestive tract.
Answer:
Porifera.

Question 5.
Name an animal having canal system and spicules. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Scypha (sycon)/Leucosolenia.

Question 6.
Give an example of animal which exhibit alternation of generation. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Obelia, shows alternation of asexual and sexual phases.

Question 7.
Name the animal which exhibits the phenomenon of bioluminescence. Mention the phylum to which it belongs.
[NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Pleurobrachia, phylum – Ctenophora.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Question 8.
How is mesoglea different in ctenophores that in cnidarians?
Answer:
The mesoglea in ctenophores also contains amoebocytes, elastic fibres and muscle cells.

Question 9.
What is the role of radula in Mollusca? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
It is the rasping organ that help in feeding.

Question 10.
Identify the animal in which adults exhibit radial symmetry and larvae exhibit bilateral symmetry. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
In Echinodermata, the adults are radially symmetrical and larvae are bilaterally symmetrical.

Question 11.
Why are urochordates called tunicates?
Answer:
This is because the soft body of urochordates is surrounded by a thick test or tunic, often transparent or translucent.

Question 12.
In which fishes cartilaginous skeleton is present?
Answer:
Chondrichthyes.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Question 13.
Which amphibians show branchial (gills) respiration?
Answer:
Young ones of most of the amphibians which are aquatic show branchial respiration.

Question 14.
What is the importance of pneumatic bones and air sacs in Aves? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

  • Pneumatic bones are light but strong, the feature which helps in flight,
  • Air sacs increase the efficiency of respiration and provide buoyancy to the animal.

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
Define tissue level of organization in the Kingdom Animalia. Give some examples of organisms showing tissue level of organization.
Answer:
In tissue level of organization there are specified groups of cells to carry out specific functions. This is a start of division of labour in the Animal Kingdom. Examples: Aurelia and Hydra.

Question 2.
What are diploblastic and triploblastic organisation?
Answer:
Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, an external ectoderm and an internal endoderm, are called diploblastic animals, e.g., coelenterates. An undifferentiated layer, mesoglea, is present in between the ectoderm and the endoderm. Those animals in which the developing embryo has a third germinal layer, mesoderm, in between the ectoderm and endoderm, are called triploblasdc animals (platyhelminthes to chordates).

Question 3.
Write two characters on the basis of which you can say that Coelenterata is more evolved than Porifera.
Answer:
(a) Porifera shows cellular level of organization, while Coelenterata shows tissue level of organisation.
(b) All members of Porifera are sessile, i.e., they are attached to the substratum, while some members of Coelenterata are motile, showing further improvement.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Question 4.
On the basis of which characters you can say that Aschelminthes are more advanced compared to Platyhelminthes?
Answer:
(a) Platyhelminthes are acoelomate,while Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates. This indicates development of mesoderm.
(b)In Platyhelminthes both sexes are on the same animal, while in Aschelminthes there is segregation of sexes. This shows another point of evolution.

Question 5.
Give a description of the water vascular system in Echinodermata..
Answer:
Water Vascular System in Echinodermata: The water vascular system is a hydraulic system used by echinoderms, such as starfish and sea urchins, for locomotion, food and waste transportation, and respiration. The system is composed of canals connecting numerous tube feet. Echinoderms move by alternately contracting muscles that force water into the tube feet, causing them to extend and push against the ground, then relaxing to allow the feet to retract.

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between polyp and medusa. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Differences between polyp and medusa are as follows :

Polyp Medusa
1. It is a fixed zooid. It is free swimming.
2. It is asexual. It is sexual.
3. It is cylindrical in outline. Medusa is umbrella-shaped.
4. Tentacles found at upper end of manubrium. Tentacles occur along the margin of umbrella.
5. Mouth is circular and terminal over upright manubrium. Mouth is four sided, lies at the lower end of hanging manubrium.
6. Velum and sense organs are absent. Medusa have a-circular velum and eight sense organs or statocysts.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Chordates and Non-Chordates.
Answer:
Differences between chordates and non-chordates are given below:

Chordates Non-Chordates
•» Notocord is present at stages in some stages of development. Notochord is absent.
•» Central nervous system is dorsal, hollow, single and non-ganglionated. Central nervous system is ventral, solid, double and ganglionated.
•» Gill slits present on lateral side of pharynx in sum stages of throughout life. Gill slits are absent.
•» Tail is present in some stages and throughout life. Tail generally absent.
•» Heart is ventral. Heart is dorsal.
•» Haemoglobin is present in RBCs. It is present in plasma.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Question 3.
Which features make mammals as most successful and dominant animals?
Answer:
Features which make mammals as dominant and successful animals are as follows:

  • The presence of an insulating and protective hairy exoskeleton
  • They are warm blooded so have high rate of metabolism.
  • They are viviparous animals and show placentation and intrauterine development which increases the chances for survival of young ones.
  • They show high degree of parental care.
  • They have more developed hearing efficiency due to the presence of pinna, three ear-ossicles and coiled cochlea in the ear.
  • They are able to speak through language.
  • They have good power of learning due to the presence of more developed brain.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Animal Kingdom Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the difficulties that you would face in classification of animals, if common fundamental features are not taken into account?
Answer:
The major difficulties in the classification of animals are on the following lines :

  • Some show cellular level of organisation, some have tissue level and even some have organ system level of organisation.
  • Regarding symmetry, some are radially symmetrical, while some have bilateral symmetry.
  • Some have open circulatory system, while others have closed type.
  • Regarding digestion, some animals have extracellular digestion, while others have intracellular digestion.
  • In case of body cavity, some have true coelom while others are pseudocoelomates.
  • Regarding reproduction, some have only asexual reproduction, while others reproduce both by sexual and asexual means.
    So, these are difficulties that zoologists face in the classification of animals.

Question 2.
If you are given a specimen, what are the steps that you would follow to classify it?
Answer:
If I am given an animal specimen, then I will classify it on the basis of fundamental features which are common to all animal types inspite of the presence of some major differences in the structure and form of animals. The features taken into consideration during classification of animal are as follows:

  • The type of arrangement of cells.
  • Body symmetry.
  • Nature of coelom.
  • Pattern of digestive system.
  • Type of circulatory system.
  • Type of methods of reproduction.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Question 3.
How useful is the study of the nature of body cavity and coelom in the classification of animals?
Answer:
Presence or absence of a cavity between the body wall and the gut wall is very important in classification. The body cavity which is lined by, mesoderm, is called coelom.

  • Animals possessing coelom are called coelomates, e.g., annelids, molluscs, arthropods, echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.
  • In some animals, the body cavity is not mesoderm, instead the mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called pseudocoelom and the animals possessing them are called pseudocoelomates, e.g., Aschelminthes.
  • The animals in which the body cavity is absent are known as acoelomates, e.g. , Platyhelminthes.

Question 4.
Distinguish between intracellular and extracellular digestion?
Answer:
Differences between intracellular and extracellular digestion are as follows:
(i) Intracellular Digestion: It occurs inside the living cells with the help of lysosomal enzymes. Food particle is taken in through endocytosis. It forms a phagosome which fuses with a lysosome. The digested material pass into the cytoplasm. The undigested matter is throw out by exocytosis. It occurs in Amoeba, Paramecium, etc.,

(ii) Extracellular Digestion: In case of coelentrates digestion occurs in gastrovascular cavity. This cavity has gland cells which secret digestive enzymes over the food. The partially digested fragmented food particles are ingested by nutritive cells. It occurs in Hydra, Aurelia, etc.

Question 5.
What is the difference between direct and indirect development?
Answer:
In direct development the embryo directly develops into an adult, while in indirect development there is an intermediate larval stage. Certain members of arthropods show larval stage of development.

Question 6.
What are the peculiar features that you find in parasitic platyhelminthes?
Answer:
Hooks and suckers are present in the parasitic forms. They are parasitic flatworms commonly called flukes. The body is unsegmented leaf like, which is covered by a thick living tegument. There is no epidermis. The mouth is anterior and is armed with suckers for attachment in the host. Life history includes larval stage and involves more than one hosts.
Examples : Fasciola (the liver fluke), Schistosoma (the blood fluke.)

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Question 7.
What are the reasons that you can think of for the arthropods to constitute the largest group of the animal kingdom?
Answer:
Arthropods constitute the largest group of the animal kingdom. It is estimated that the Arthropoda population of the world is approximately a billion (1018) individuals, in terms of species diversity, number of individuals and geographical distribution. It is the most successful phylum on the Earth that have ever existed. Arthropods are equipped with jointed appendages, which are variously adapted for walking, swimming, feeding, sensory reception and defence. The appendages of abdomen are associated with locomotion, reproduction and in some cases with defence as well.

The appendages of head are related to defence, whereas those of thorax are mainly associated with locomotion. These features are responsible for its large diversity.

Question 8.
Water vascular system is the characteristic of which group of the following?
(a) Porifera
(b) Ctenophora
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Chordata
Answer:
Echinodermata have the water vascular system.

Question 9.
‘All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates’.’Justify the statement.
Answer:
Notochord is a characteristic feature of all chordates. The members of sub-phylum – Vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic stage. But in adults the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column. Whereas in member of other Sub-phyla of Chordata the notochord remain as such. The urochordate and cephalochordates retain the notochord during their entire life cycle. Thus, the absence of notochord in adult vertebrates suggest that all vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Question 10.
How important is the presence of air bladder in Pisces?
Answer:
In fishes, air bladder regulates buoyancy and helps in floating in water. If it is absent, animals need to swim constantly to avoid sinking.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Question 11.
What are the modifications that are observed in birds that help them fly?
Answer:
Flight adaptations in birds are as follows :

  • Boat-shaped body helps to propel through the air easily.
  • Feathery covering of body to reduce the friction of air.
  • Holding the twigs automatically by hindlimbs.
  • Extremely powerful muscles that enables the wings to work during flight.
  • Bones are light, hollow and provide more space for muscle attachment. Presence of pneumatic bones which reduce the weight of body and help in flight.
  • The first four thoracic vertebrae are fused to form a furculum for walking of the wings.
  • Lungs are solid and elastic and have associated air sacs.
  • The power of accomodation of eyes is well developed due to the presence of comb-like structure pecten.
  • A single left ovary and oviduct to reduce the body weight.

Question 12.
Could the number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous and viviparous mother be equal? Why?
Answer:
The number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous or viviparous mother cannot be equal. An oviparous mother gives rise to more number of eggs as some of them die during hatching and as they have to pass through a large number of developmental stages before becoming an adult. On the other hand, a viviparous mother gives rise to fewer number of young ones because there are less chances of their death. Moreover, they did not have to pass through any larval stage.

Question 13.
Segmentation in the body is first observed in which of the following:
(a) Platyhelminthes
(b) Annelida
(c) Aschelminthes
(d) Arthropoda
Answer:
Segmentation in the body is first observed in Annelida. This phenomenon is known as metamerism.

Question 14.
Match the following:

A. Operculum 1. Ctenophora
B. Parapodia 2. Mollusca
C. Scales 3. Porifera
D. Comb plates 4. Reptilia
E. Radula 5. Annelida
F. Hairs 6. Cyclostomata and Chondrichthyes
G. Choanocytes 7. Mammalia
H. Gill slits 8. Osteichthyes

Answer:

A. Operculum 8. Osteichthyes
B. Parapodia 5. Annelida
C. Scales 4. Reptilia
D. Comb plates 1. Ctenophora
E. Radula 2. Mollusca
F. Hairs 7. Mammalia
G. Choanocytes 3. Porifera
H. Gill slits 6. Cyclostomata and Chondrichthyes

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Question 15.
Prepare a list of some animals that are found parasitic on human heings.
Answer:
A list of parasitic animals on human beings:

Parasite In Part of Human Body
Leishmania donovani Blood
Trichomonas vaginalis Vagina of human female
Plasmodium vivax Blood
Taenia solium Intestine
Ascaris lumbricoides Small intestine
Wuchereria bancrofti Lymphatic and muscular system
Loa loa Eyes
Fasciola hepatica Liver and bile ducts
Entamoeba histolytica Intestine
Trypanosoma gambiense Blood

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
Name the types of classification of plants.
Answer:
Artificial, natural and phylogenetic.

Question 2.
Which system indicates evolutionary as well as genetic relationships among organisms?
Answer:
Phylogenetic system of classification.

Question 3.
What is cytotaxonomy?
Answer:
Cytotaxonomy is a method of classification. It is based on cytological structure and their relatedness.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Question 4.
Food is stored as floridean starch in Rhodophyceae. Mannitol is the reserve food material of which group of algae?
[NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Phaeophyceae.

Question 5.
Holdfast, stipe and frond constitutes the plant body in case of
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Rhodophyceae
(b) Chlorophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae
(d) All of these
Answer:
The lamina of Phaeophyceae members large sized body with differentiation of holdfast, stipe and lamina.

Question 6.
The plant body in higher plants is well differentiated and well developed. Roots are the organs used for the purpose of absorptions. What is the equivalent of the roots in the less developed lower plants? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Rhizoids.

Question 7.
Most algal genera show haplontic life cycle. Name an alga which is (i) Haplodiplontic (ii) Diplontic [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Haplodiplontic: Ulva, Dictyota.
Diplontic: Fucus, Cladophora, Glomerata.

Question 8.
How are mosses considered ecologically important?
Answer:
Mosses, along with lichens are the first organism to colonise rocks, hence are ecologically important.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Question 9.
A prothallus is
(a) a structure in pteridophyte formed before the thallus develops
(b) a sporophytic free-living structure formed in pteridophyte
(c) a gametophytic free-living structure formed in pteridophytes
(d) a primitive structure formed after fertilisation in pteridophyte
[NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Gametophyte is a free-living small thalloid structure called prothallus. In most ferns, the prothallus is green and autotrophic.

Question 10.
Where are seeds located in gymnosperm?
Answer:
Seeds lie naked or exposed on the surface of megasporophyll.

Question 11.
The embryo sac of an angiosperm is made up of:
(i) 8 cells
(ii) 7 cells and 8 nuclei
(iii) 8 nuclei
(iv) 7 cells and 7 nuclei [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(ii) Embryo sac of angiosperm develops up to 8 nucleate state prior to fertilisation. There is a three celled egg apparatus, three antipodal cells and two polar nuclei.

Question 12.
What is alternation of generations?
Answer:
Alernation of generations is regular switch over from gamete bearing haploid gametophyte to haploid spore producing diploid sporophyte.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
What are the main differences among Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae?
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom 1
PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom 2

Question 2.
What is the general structure of bryophytes?
Answer:
Structure of Bryophytes: It is thallus-like and prostrate or erect, and attached to the substratum by unicellular or multicellular rhizoids. They lack true roots, stem or leaves. They may possess root-like, or stem-like structures.

Question 3.
What is the general structure of pteridophytes?
Answer:

  • The main plant body is a sporophyte which is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves. These organs possess well-differentiated vascular tissues.
  • The leaves in pteridophyta are small (microphylls) as in Selaginella or large (macrophylls) as in ferns.
  • The sporophytes bear sporangia that are subtended by leaf-like appendages called sporophylls. In some cases sporophylls may form distinct compact structures called strobili or cones (Selaginella, Equisetum).

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Question 4.
Write short notes on:
(a) Importance of carbon fixation by algae.
(b) Importance of Gymnosperms
(c) Importance of Angiosperms
(d) Medicinal use of algae
Answer:
(a) About 50% of carbon fixation is done by algae. This enables majority of sea organisms to get the required food.
(b) Gymnosperms are mainly used as decorative plants. Certain paints are
prepared from Gymnosperm plants.
(c) Angiosperms are the major providers of food-grains to the mankind.
(d) Spirullina is made by algae and is used as a nutritional supplement.

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
Algae are known to reproduce asexually by a variety of spores under different environmental condition. Name these spores and the conditions under which they are produced. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Zoospores: Flagellate spores, under favourable conditions.
Aplanospores: Non-flagellate, thin-walled spores under approaching unfavourable conditions.
Hypnospores: Thick-walled, resting spores in unfavourable conditions.
Akinetes: Thin-walled and thick-walled spores formed from whole cells in unfavourable conditions. .
Autospores: Spores which look exactly like parent cell formed under favourable conditions.

Question 2.
Write about habit and habitat of algae.
Answer:
Habit and Habitat of Algae: Algae are chlorophyll-bearing, simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic (both fresh water and marine) organisms. They occur in a variety of other habitats : moist stones, soils and wood. Some of them also occur in association with fungi (lichen) and animals (e.g., on sloth bear).

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Question 3.
What are the differences betweenpinus and cycas?
Answer:

Pinus Cycas
1. Roots are micorrhizal. 1. Roots are not micorrhizal.
2. Stems are branched. 2. Stems are unbranched.
3. Male and female strobili are on same tree. 3. They are on different trees.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
Give the name of the cells/tissues in human body which:
(i) exhibit amoeboid movement.
(ii) exhibit ciliary movement. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(i) Macrophages,
(ii) Ciliated, epithelium of trachea.

Question 2.
Which property of muscles is used effectively in muscular movement?
Answer:
Contractile property of muscles.

Question 3.
Give the name of the oxygen-carrying pigment present in skeletal muscle.
Answer:
Myoglobin or muscle hemoglobin.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

Question 4.
Label the different components of actin filament in the diagram given below: [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology important Questions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement 1

Question 5.
What causes muscle fatigue?
Answer:
Accumulation of lactic acid.

Question 6.
The three tiny bones present in middle ear are called ear ossicles. Write them in correct sequence beginning from eardrum. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Malleus, incus and stapes.

Question 7.
What is the difference between the matrix of bone and cartilage? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The matrix of bone is hard due to calcium salts, whereas, the cartilage has slightly pliable matrix due to chondroitin salts.

Question 8.
How many total bones are there in human body? Name the largest and strongest bone.
Answer:
Human body contains 206 bones. Femur is the largest and strongest bone of human body.

Question 9.
Give the name of the cavity in the girdle to which head of femur articulates.
Answer:
Acetabulum.

Question 10.
Give the name of the funny bone.
Answer:
Olecranon process on top of the ulna is called the funny bone.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

Question 11.
Give the location of ball and socket joint in a human body. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Shoulder joint (between pectoral girdle and head of humerus).

Question 12.
What substance is responsible for lubricating the freely movable joint at the shoulder? ,
Answer:
Synovial fluid.

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
Explain anaerobic breakdown of glycogen in muscles and its effect.
Answer:
Anaerobic Breakdown of Glycogen: The reaction time of the fibres can vary in different muscles. Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to the accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic breakdown of glycogen in them, causing fatigue.

Question 2.
Describe the structure of the human skull.
Answer:

  • The skull is composed of two sets of bones-cranial and facial, that totals to 22 bones.
  • Cranial bones are 8 in number. They form the hard protective outer covering, cranium for the brain.
  • The facial region is made up of 14 skeletal elements which form thefront part of the skull.
  • A single U-shaped bone called hyoid is present at the base of the buccal cavity and it is also included in the skull.
  • Each middle ear contains three tiny bones-Malleus, Incus and Stapes, collectively called Ear Ossicles.
  • The skull region articulates with the superior region of the vertebral column with the help of two occipital condyles (dicondylic skull).

Question 3.
Explain the structure of the vertebral column of human.
Answer:
Vertebral Column: Our vertebral column is formed by 26 serially arranged units called vertebrae and is dorsally placed. It extends from the base of the skull and constitutes the main framework of the trunk. Each vertebra has a central hollow portion (neural canal) through which the spinal cord passes.
First vertebra is the atlas and it articulates with the occipital condyles.

The vertebral column is differentiated into following regions starting from the skull:

  1. cervical (7),
  2. thoracic (12),
  3. lumbar (5),
  4. sacral (1-fused) and
  5. coccygeal (1-fused) regions

The number of cervical vertebrae are seven in almost all mammals including human beings. The vertebral column protects the spinal cord, supports the head and serves as the point of attachment for the ribs and musculature of the back. Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

Question 4.
Describe the structure of the rib cage of human.
Answer:
Rib Cage: There are 12 pairs of ribs. Each rib is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum. It has two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end and is hence called bicephalic.
First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs. Dorsally, they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.

The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the seventh rib with the help of hyaline cartilage. These are called verte brochondral (false) ribs. Last 2 pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are not connected ventrally and are, therefore, called floating ribs. Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum together form the rib cage.

Question 5.
Give a description of the appendicular skeleton in human.
Answer:
Appendicular Skeleton: The bones of the limbs alongwith their girdles constitute the appendicular skeleton. Each limb is made of 30 bones.

Bones of Limbs
Fore’ Limb Hind Limb
Humerus, Femur,
Radius, Tibia,
Ulna Fibula,
Carpals (8) Tarsals (7)
Metacarpals (5) Metatarsals (5)
Phalanges (14) Phalanges (14)
Patella

Question 6.
Write a short note on disorders of muscular and skeletal systems.
Answer:
Disorders of Muscular System

  • Myasthenia gravis: It is an auto-immune disorder, affecting the neuromuscular junction leading to progressive weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles.
  • Muscular dystrophy: It is a genetic disorder resulting in progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles.
  • Tetany: It refers to the continued state of contraction or wild contractions of muscles due to low Ca++ in body fluids.

Disorders of Skeletal System:

  • Arthritis: Inflammation of joints.
  • Osteoporosis: Age-related disorder characterized by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures. Decreased levels of estrogen is a common cause.
  • Gout: Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
Give answer for the following:
(i) Female pelvis is larger and has a broader front than male pelvis. Why?
(ii) Name the different curves of vertebral column.
(iii) What is a sesamoid bone? Name it.
(iv) Which bones have become modified to form ear ossicles?
Answer:
(i) Female pelvis is larger and has a broader front. This is an adaptation for childbirth.
(ii) Vertebral column forms four curves, i.e., cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral located in the neck, thorax, abdomen, and pelvis respectively.
(iii) A bone embedded within a tendon is called a sesamoid bone, e.g., Patella which covers the knee ventrally.
(iv) Articular bone of lower jaw modifies to be malleus. Quadrate bone of upper jaw becomes incus and hyomandibular gets modified to become stapes.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Plant Kingdom Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the basis of classification of algae?
Answer:
Basis of classification of algae are as follows:

  • Kinds of pigments.
  • Nature of reserve food.
  • Kinds, number and points of insertion of flagella of motile cells.
  • Presence or absence of organised nucleus in the cell.

Question 2.
When and where does reduction division take place in the life cycle of a liverwort, a moss, a fern, a gymnosperm and an angiosperm?
Answer:
Reduction division in the life cycle of a liverwort, a moss, a fern and a gymnosperm take place during the production of spores from spore mother cells. In case of an angiosperm, the reduction division occurs during pollen grain formation from anthers and during production of embryo sac from ovule.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Question 3.
Name three groups of plants that bear archegonia. Briefly describe the life cycle of any one of them.
Answer:
Three groups of plants that bear archegonia are bryophytes, pteridophytes and gymnosperms.
Life Cycle of a Pteridophyte: The life cycle of a pteridophyte consists of two morphologically distinct phases:
1. The gametophytic phase
2. The sporophytic phase.
These two phases come one after another in the life cycle of a pteridophyte. This phenomenon is called alternation of generation. The gametophyte is haploid with single set of chromosomes. It produces male sex organs antheridia and female sex organs archegonia.

  • The antheridia may be embedded or projecting type. Each antheridium has single layered sterile jacket enclosing a mass of androcytes.
  • The androcytes are flask-shaped, sessile or shortly stalked and differentiated into globular venter and tubular neck.
  • The archegonium contains large egg, which is non-mo tile.
  • The antherozoids after liberation from antheridium, reaches up to the archegonium fuses with the egg and forms a diploid structure known as zygotes.
  • The diploid zygote is the first cell of sporophytic generation. It is retained inside the archegonium and forms the embryo.
  • The embryo grows and develop to form sporophyte which is differentiated into roots, stem and leaves.
  • At maturity the plant bears sporangia, which encloses spore mother cells.
  • Each spore mother cell gives rise to four haploid spores which are usually arranged in tetrads.
  • The sporophytic generation ends with the production of spores.
  • Each spore is the first cell of gametophytic generation. It germinates to produce gametophyte and completes its life cycle.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1

Question 4.
Mention the ploidy of the following:
Protonemal cell of a moss, primary endosperm nucleus in dicot, leaf cell of a moss, prothallus cell of a fern, gemma cell in Marchantia, meristem cell of monocot, ovum of a liverwort and zygote of a fern.
Answer:
Protonemal cell of a moss – haploid
Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot – triploid
Leaf cell of a moss – haploid
Prothallus cell of a fern – haploid
Gemma cell in Marchantia – haploid
Meristem cell of monocot – diploid
Ovum of a liverwort – haploid
Zygote of a fern – diploid

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Question 5.
Write a note on economic importance of algae and gymnosperms.
Answer:
Economic Importance of Algae

  • Red algae provides food, fodder and commercial products. Porphyra tenera is rich in protein, carbohydrates and vitamin-A, B, E and C.
  • Corallina has vermifuge properties.
  • Agar-agar a gelatin substance used as solidifying agent in culture media is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria algae. Funori is a glue used as adhesive and in sizing textiles, papers, etc. Chondrus is most widely used in sea weed in Europe.
  • Mucilage extracted from Chondrus is used in sampoos, shoe polish and creams.
  • Carrageenin is a sulphated polysaccharide obtained from cell wall of Chondrus crispus and Gigartina and is used in confectionary, bakery, jelly, creams, etc.

Economic Importance of Gymnosperms

  • Gymnosperms hold soil particles and thus check soil erosion.
  • Many gymnosperms are grown in gardens as ornamental plants, i.e., Cycas, Thiya, Araucaria, Taxus, Agathis, Maiden hair tree, etc.
  • Sago is a kind of starch obtained from cortex and pith of stem and seeds of Cycas. Roasted seeds of Pinus geradiana (chilgoza) are used as dry fruit.
  • Paper pulp is obtained from wood of Picea (spruce), Gnetum, Pinus (pine) and Larix (larck).
  • The wood of Juniperus virginiana (red cedar) is used to make pencils, holders and cigar boxes. Wood of Taxus is heaviest amongst soft woods and is used for making bows for archery.
  • Dry leaves of Cycas are used to make baskets and brooms. Needles of Pinus in making fibre board. Electric and telephone poles are made of stem of conifers.
  • Essential oils are obtained from Juniperus, Tsugo, Picea, Abies, Cedrus, etc. Resins are obtained from many species of Pinus.

Question 6.
Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seeds, then why are they classified separately?
Answer:
Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seeds, but they are yet classified separately. Because, in case of gymnosperms the seeds are naked, i.e., the seeds are not produced inside the fruit but in case of angiosperms the seeds are enclosed inside the fruit.

Question 7.
What is heterospory? Briefly comment on its significance. Give two examples.
Answer:
Heterospory is the phenomenon in which a plant produces two types of spores, namely microspores and megaspores.
Heterospory is significant in the following ways:

  • Microspores give rise to male gametophyte and megaspores give rise to female gametophyte.
  • Female gametophyte is retained on the parent plant. The development of zygote takes place within the female gametophyte.
  • This leads to formation of seeds.
    Examples: All gymnosperms and all angiosperms, Pinus, Gnetum, neem, peepal, etc.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Question 8.
Explain briefly the following terms with suitable examples:
(i) Protonema
(ii) Antheridium
(iii) Archegonium
(iv) Diplontic
(v) Sporophyll
(vi) Isogamy.
Answer:
(i) Protonema: It is the juvenile stage of a moss. It results from the germinating meiospore. When fully grown, it consists of a slender green, branching system of filaments called the protonema.

(ii) Antheridium: The male sex organ of bryophyte and pteridophyte is known as antheridium. It has a single-layered sterile jacket enclosing in a large number of androcytes. The androcytes’ metamorphose into flagellated motile antherozoids.

(iii) Archegonium: The female sex organ of bryophytes, which is multicellular and differentiated into neck and venter. The neck consists of neck canal cells and venter contains the venter canal cells and egg.

(iv) Diplontic: A kind of life cycle in which the sporophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic, independent phase of the plant and alternate with haploid gametophytic phase is known as diplontic life cycle.

(v) Sporophyll: The sporangium bearing structure in case of Selaginella is known as sporophyll.

(vi) Isogamy: It is the process of fusion between two similar gametes, i.e., Chlamydomonas.

Question 9.
Differentiate between the following:
(i) red algae and brown algae,
(ii) liverworts and moss,
(iii) homosporous and heterosporous pteridophytes.
(iv) syngamy and triple fusion.
Answer:
(i) Differences between Red Algae and Brown Algae

Red Algae Brown Algae
1. It belongs to the It belongs to the class-Rhodophyceae It belongs to the It belongs to the class Phaeophyceae.
2. It is red in colour due to the presence of pigments chlorophyll-a, c and phycoerythrin.

Example: Stylolema, Rhodela.

It is brown in colour due to the presence

Example: Sargassum, Microcystis.

(ii) Differences between Liverworts and Moss

Liverwort Moss
1. These are the member of class-Hepaticopsida of bryophyta. These belongs to class-Bryop’sida of bryophyta.
2. Thallus is dorsoventrally flattened and lobed liver like Thallus is leafy and radially symmetrical.
3. Rhizoids are unicellular. Rhizoids are multicellular
4. Elaters are present in capsule to assist dispersal of spores. Elaters are absent, but peristome teeth are present in the capsule to assist dispersal of spores.

(iii) Differences between Homosporous and Heterosporous Pteridophytes

Homosporous Pteridophyte Heterosporous Pteridophyte
Pteridophytes, which produce only one kind of spores.

Example: Lycopodium

These produce two kinds of spores, i.e., large megaspore and smaller microspore.

Example: Selaginella

(iv) Differences between Syngamy and Triple Fusion

Syngamy Triple Fusion
It is the act of fusion of one male gamete with the egg cell to form zygote. The act of fusion of second male gamete with secondary nucleus to form triploid enddsperm is called triple endosperm is called triple fusion.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Question 10.
How would you distinguish monocots from dicots?
Answer:

Dicotyledons (Dicots) Monocotyledons (Monocots)
•» Tap root system Fibrous root system
•» Two cotyledons One cotyledon
•» Reticulate Venation Parallel venation
•» Tetramerous or Pentamerous flowers Trimerous flowers

Question 11.
Match the followings (column I with column II)

Column I Column II
(a) Chlamydomonas (i) Moss
(b) Cycas (ii) Pteridophyte
(c) Selaginella (iii) Algae
(d) Sphagnum (iv) Gymnosperm

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Chlamydomonas (iii) Algae
(b) Cycas (iv) Gymnosperm
(c) Selaginella (ii) Pteridophyte
(d) Sphagnum (i) Moss

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Question 12.
Describe the important characteristics of gymnosperms.
Answer:
Characteristics of gymnosperms are as follows :

  • Naked-seeded plants, i.e., their ovules are exposed and not enclosed in ovaries. Hence, the seeds are naked without fruits.
  • Tap root system is present. They show symbiotic as speciation with fungi
    to form mycorrhizae or with N2-fixing cyanobacteria to form colloidal roots as in Cycas.
  • Leaves are large and needle-shaped.
  • Vascular tissues are well developed.
  • Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
  • Pollination by wind and deposited in ovules.
  • Fertilisation occurs in archegonia.
  • Retention of female gametophyte inside the ovule and the ovules on the sporophytic plant for complete development is responsible for the development of seed habit.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Locomotion and Movement Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the diagram of a sarcomere of skeletal muscle showing different regions.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement 1

Question 2.
Define sliding-filament theory of muscle contraction.
Answer:
The sliding-filament, theory states that the contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments.

Question 3.
Describe the important steps in muscle contraction.
Answer:
Mechanism of Muscle Contraction:

  • The mechanism of muscle contraction is explained by the sliding filament theory.
  • This theory states that contraction of a muscle fibre is due to the sliding of the thin (actin) filaments over the thick (myosin) filaments.
  • Muscle contraction is initiated by a neural signal from the central nervous system through a motor neuron.
  • When the neural signal reaches the neuromuscular junction, it releases a neurotransmitter, i.e., acetylcholine, which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma.
  • This spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of Ca++ ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm.
  • The Ca++ ions bind to the subunit of troponin and brings about conformational changes; this removes the masking of the active site for myosin.
  • The myosin head binds to the active site on actin to form a cross-bridge; this utilises energy from the hydrolysis of ATP.
  • This pulls the actin filaments towards the centre of A-band.
  • As a result, the Z-lines limiting the sarcomere are pulled closer together, causing a shortening of the sarcomere or contraction of muscle.
  • Thus, during muscle contraction, the length of A band remains unchanged, while that of I-band decreases.
  • The myosin goes back to its relaxed state.
  • A new ATP binds and the cross-bridge is broken and the actin filaments slide out of A-band.
  • The cycle of cross bridge-formation and cross bridge breakage continues till the Ca++ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum which leads to the masking of the active site on F-actin.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

Question 4.
Write true or false. If false change the statement so that it is true.
(a) Actin is present in thin filament.
(b) H-zone of striated muscle fibre represents both thick and thin filaments.
(c) Human skeleton has 206 bones.
(d) There are 11 pairs of ribs in man.
(e) Sternum is present on the ventral side of the body.
Answer:
(a) True
(b) False, H-zone represents thick filaments
(c) True
(d) False, there are 12 pairs of ribs in man.
(e) True

Question 5.
Write the difference between:
(a) Actin and Myosin
(b) Red and White Muscles
(c) Pectoral and Pelvic Girdle
Answer:
(a) Differences between Actin and Myosin Filament

Actin Filaments Myosin Filaments
1. These are found in I-band. These are found in A-band.
2. These are thin. These are thick.
3. Cross bridges (heads) are absent. Cross bridges (heads) are present.
4. It is a globular protein with low molecular weight. It is a heavy molecular weight polymerised protein.

(b) Differences between Red and White Muscles

Red Muscles White Muscles
1. In some muscles, myoglobin content is high, which gives a reddish colour to them, such muscles are called red muscles. Some muscles possess very less quantity of myoglobin, so they appear whitish called as white muscles.
2. These contain plenty of mitochondria. These have less number of mitochondria but amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high.
3. These are called aerobic muscles. They depend on anaerobic process of energy.

(c) Differences between Pectoral and Pelvic Girdle

Pectoral Girdle Pelvic Girdle
1. It helps in the articulation of upper limbs. It helps in the articulation of lower limbs.
2. It is situated in the pectoral region of the body. It is situated in the pelvic region of the body.
3. Each half of pectoral girdle is formed of a clavicle and a scapula. Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones.
4. Scapula is a large triangular flat bone and clavicle is a long slender bone. Each coxal bone is formed of three bones, ilium, ischium and pubis.
5. An expanded process, acromion from scapula forms a depression called glenoid cavity, which articulates with the head of humerus to form shoulder joint. Ilium, ischium and pubis fuse at a point to form a cavity called acetabulum to which the thigh bone articulates.

Question 6.
Match Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II
(a) Smooth muscle (i) Myoglobin
(b) Tropomyosin (ii) Thin filament
(c) Red muscle (iii) Sutures
(d) Skull (iv) Involuntary

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
(a) Smooth muscle (iv) Involuntary
(b) Tropomyosin (ii) Thin filament
(c) Red muscle (i) Myoglobin
(d) Skull (iii) Sutures

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

Question 7.
What are the different types of movements exhibited by the cells of human body?
Answer:
Cells of the human body exhibit three main types of movements-amoeboid, ciliary and muscular.
(i) Amoeboid Movement: Some specialised cells in our body like macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit amoeboid movement. It is effected by pseudopodia formed by the streaming of protoplasm (as in Amoeba). Cytoskeletal elements like microfilaments are also involved in amoeboid movement.

(ii) Ciliary Movement: Ciliary movement occurs in most of our internal tubular organs which are lined by ciliated epithelium. The coordinated movements of cilia in the trachea help us in removing dust particles and some of the foreign substances inhaled along with the atmospheric air. Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract is also facilitated by the ciliary movement.

(iii) Muscular Movement: Movement of our limbs, jaws, tongue, etc., require muscular movement. Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity of muscular, skeletal and neural systems.

Question 8.
How do you distinguish between a skeletal muscle and a cardiac muscle?
Answer:

Skeletal Muscle Cardiac Muscle
1. The, cells of skeletal muscles are unbranched. 1. The cells of cardiac muscles are branched.
2. Intercalated disks are absent. 2. The cells are joined with one another by intercalated disks that help in coordination or
synchronization of the heartbeat.
3. Alternate light and dark bands are present. 3. Faint bands are present.
4. They are voluntary muscles. 4. They are involuntary muscles.
5. They contract rapidly and get fatigued in a short span of time. 5. They contract rapidly but do not get fatigued easily.
6. They are present in body parts such as the legs, tongue, hands, etc. 6. These muscles are present in the heart and control the contraction and relaxation of the heart.

Question 9.
Name the type of joint between the following:
(i) Atlas/Axis
(ii) Carpal/Metacarpal of thumb
(iii) Between phalanges
(iv) Femur/Acetabulum
(v) Between cranial bones
(vi) Between pubic bones in the pelvic girdle.
Answer:
(i) Pivot joint
(ii) Saddle joint
(iii) Hinge joint
(iv) Ball and socket joint
(v) Fibrous joint
(vi) Cartilagenous joint

Question 10.
Fill in the blank spaces.
(a) All mammals (except a few) have ………………………………. cervical vertebra.
(b) The number of phalanges in each limb of human is ……………………………………
(c) Thin filament of myofibril contains 2 ‘F’ actins and two other proteins namely ………………………. and ………………..
(d) In a muscle fibre Ca2+ is stored in ………………………..
(e) ………………….. and ……………………………….. pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.
(f) The human cranium is made of …………………………. bones.
Answer:
(a) seven
(b) fourteen.
(c) troponin and tropomyosin
(d) sarcoplasm
(e) 11 th; 12th
(f) eight

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
Name the organisms living in salty areas. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Halophiles live in habitats having high salinity and high light intensity.

Question 2.
Name the kingdom under which cyanobacteria have been classified.
Answer:
Cyanobacteria are prokaryotic organisms belong to kingdom – Monera.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 3.
What is the principle underlying the use of cyanobacteria in agricultural fields for crop improvement? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Some cyanobacteria live in mutually beneficial relationship with plants, obtaining food and shelter and fixing nitrogen for the plant. They also reduce soil alkalinity and improve soil texture.

Question 4.
Are chemosynthetic bacteria autotrophic or heterotrophic? [IMCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Chemosynthetic bacteria are- autotrophs because they are able to synthesize their food from inorganic raw material with the help of energy obtained from chemical reaction.

Question 5.
Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed as. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Anisogamy, it occurs in Ceratium a dinoflagellate.

Question 6.
Why are cysts formed in protistans?
Answer:
Cysts formation helps to over come unfavourable condition.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 7.
What kind of nutrition occurs in a parasite?
Answer:
Parasites have phagotrophic and absorptive type of nutrition.

Question 8.
An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called.
Answer:
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between a fungus and the root of a plant. Mycorrhiza does not penetrate deep but remains in the superficial layers of the soil.

Question 9.
How the saprotrophic Basidiomycetes are able to decompose plant matter?
Answer:
The saprotrophic Basidiomycetes can decompose plant matter because they have enzymes for metabolising both cellulose and lignin.

Question 10.
Which are the most advanced group of fungi?
Answer:
Basidiomycetes.

Question 11.
What is capsid and how it is useful for viruses?
Answer:
Capsid is a proteinaceous covering around the virus. It protects the nucleoid from damage from physical and chemical agents.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 12.
Which enzyme is present in bacteriophages?
Answer:
Lysozyme is present in the region that comes in contact with host cell.

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
Write five beneficial usage or effects of bacteria.
Answer:
(a) Curdling of milk
(b) Lactobacillus is an important commensal in the gut flora of humans.
(c) Penicillin antibiotics are prepared by bacteria.
(d) Bacteria is a good decomposer, so it assists in completing the energy cycle.
(e) Rhizobium bacteria helps in nitrogen fixation.

Question 2.
What is the role of methanogens?
Answer:
Methanogens are a type of bacteria which live in the gut of ruminating animals. They assist those animals in digestion and the byproduct of that digestive process is methane. More number of livestock population results in increased methane level in the environment leading to global warming. So, indirectly methanogens can be responsible for global warming.

Question 3.
Cyanobacteria plays a major role in our ecology. Discuss.
Answer:
Cyanobacteria, also known as ‘blue-green algae’ help in carbon fixation in a major way on the ocean surface. They are helpful in nitrogen fixation in paddy fields leading to a better harvest. About 80% of photosynthesis on ocean surface is done by cyanobacteria. So, it can be said that they play a major role in our ecology.

Question 4.
Give a diagrammatic representation of classification of Protista.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
Answer the following:
(i) A poisonous mushroom having white spores
(ii) Edible Basidiomycetes
(iii) Used in brewing industry
(iv) It is searched by trained pets
(v) Root like, cards like hyphal masses having a distinct growing point.
(vi) Non-motile meiospores develop in Basidiomycetes
(vii) Compact groups of hyphal produced to overcome unfavourable conditions.
Answer:
(i) toadstools
(ii) mushrooms and young pufballs
(iii) brewer’s yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(iv) Truffles (tuber like underground fungus)
(v) Rhizomorphs perennate during periods of scarcity of food and water.
(vi) Basidiospores (develop exogenously)
(vii) Sclerotia under favourable conditions each one forms a new mycelium.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 2 Biological Classification Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Biological Classification Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss how classification systems have undergone several changes over a period of time?
Answer:
(i) Linnaeus proposed a two kingdom system of classification with Plantae and Animalia kingdoms was developed that included all plants and animals respectively. But as this system did not distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes, unicellular and multicellular organisms and photosynthetic (green algae) and non-photosynthetic (fungi) organisms, so scientists found it an inadequate system of classification. Classification systems for the living organisms have hence, undergone several changes over time.

(ii) The two kingdom system of classification was replaced by three kingdom system, then by four and finally by five kingdom system of classification of RH Whittaker (1969).

(iii) The five kingdoms included Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. This is the most accepted system of classification of living organisms.

(iv) But, Whittaker has not described viruses and lichens. Then Stanley described viruses, viroids, etc.
Thus, over a period of time, classification systems have undergone several changes.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 2.
State two economically important uses of:
(a) Heterotrophic bacteria
(b) Archaebacteria
Answer:
(a) Heterotrophic Bacteria

  • Maintain soil fertility by nitrogen fixation, ammonification and nitrification, e.g., Rhizobium bacteria (in the root nodules of legumes).
  • The milk products such as butter, cheese, curd, etc., are obtained by the action of bacteria. The milk contains bacterial forms like Streptococcus lacti, Escherichia coli, Lactobacillus lactis and Clostridium sp., etc.

(b) Archaebacteria

  • Methanogens are responsible for the production of methane (biogas) from the dung of animals.
  • Archaebacteria help in the degradation of waste materials.

Question 3.
What is the nature of cell walls in diatoms?
Answer:
In case of diatoms, the cell wall forms two thin overlapping cells, which fit together as in a soap box. The cell wall is made up of silica. Due to siliceous nature of cell wall, it is known as diatomite or diatomaceous Earth. Diatomaceous Earth is a whitish, highly porous, chemically inert, highly absorbant and fire proof substance.

Question 4.
Find out what do the terms ‘algal bloom’ and ‘red tides’ signify?
Answer:
Sometimes, greqn algae such as Chlorella, Scenedesmus and Spirogyra, etc,, grow in excess in water bodies and impart green colour to the water. These are called algal blooms. Red dianoflagellates (Gonyaulax) grow in abundance in sea and impart red colour to the ocean. This looks like red tides. Both due to algal blooms and ‘red tide’ the animal life declines due to toxins and deficiency of oxygen inside water.

Question 5.
How are viroids different from viruses?
Answer:
Viroids different from viruses as follows:

Virus Viroids
1. These are smaller than bacteria. Smaller than viruses.
2. Both RNA and DNA present. Only RNA is present.
3. Protein coat present. Protein coat absent.
4. Causes diseases like mumps and AIDS. Causes plant diseases like spindle tuber diseases – potato.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 6.
Describe briefly the four major groups of Protozoa.
Answer:
Protozoans are divided into four phyla on the basis of locomotory organelles – Zooflagellata, Sarcodina, Sporozoa and Ciliates.
(i) Zooflagellates: These protozoans possess one to several flagella for locomotion. Zooflagellates are generally uninucleate, occasionally multinucleate.
The body is covered by a firm pellicle. There is also present cyst formation.
Examples: Giardia, Trypanosoma, Leishmania and Trichonympha, etc.

(ii) Sarcodines: These protozoans possess pseudopodia for locomotion. Pseudopodia are of four types, i.e., lobopodia, filopodia, axopodia and reticulopodia. Pseudopodia are also used for engulfing food particles. Sarcodines are mostly free living, found in freshwater, sea water and on damp soil only a few are parasitic. Nutrition is commonly holozoic. Sarcodines are generally uninucleates. Sarcodines are of four types – Amoeboids (i.e.,Amoeba, etc.), radiolarians (i.e., Acanthometra, etc.), foraminiferans (i.e., Elphidium, etc.) and heliozoans (i.e., Actinophrys, etc.).

(iii) Sporozoans: All of them are endoparasites. Locomotoryorganelles (cilia, flagella, pseudopodia, etc.) are absent. Nutrition is parasitic (absorptive), Phogotrophy is rare. The body is covered with an elastic pellicle or cuticle. Nucleus is single. Contractile vacuoles are absent. Life cyle consists of two distinct asexual and sexual phases. They may be passed in one (monogenetic) or two different hosts (digenetic),e.g., Plasmodium, Monocystis, etc.

(iv) Ciliates: These are aquatic, actively moving organisms because of the presence of thousands of cilia. They have a cavity (gullet) that opens to the outside of the cell surface. The coordinated movements of rows of cilia causes the water laden with food to enter into the gullet, e.g., Paramecium.

Question 7.
Plants are autotrophic. Can you think of some plants that are partially heterotrophic?
Answer:
Plants are autotrophs, i.e., they prepare their own food through the process of photosynthesis. But, in nature there are also some other plants which are partjally heterotrophic, i.e., they partially depend upon another organisms for food requirements, e.g.,
(i) Loranthus and Viscum are partial stem parasites which have leathery leaves. They attack several fruit and forest trees and with the help of their haustoria draw sap from the xylem tissue of the host.

(ii) Insectivorous plants have special leaves to trap insects. The trapped insects are killed and digested by proteolytic enzymes secreted by the epidermis of the leaves, e.g., pitcher plant.

(iii) Parasitic plant, e.g., Cuscutta develops haustoria, which penetrate, the vascular bundles of the host plant to absorb water and solutes.

Question 8.
What do the terms phycobiont and mycobiont signify?
Answer:
In case of lichens (t. e., an association of algae and fungi), the algal partner which is capable of carrying out photosynthesis is known as phycobiont, whereas the fungal partner which is heterotrophic in nature is known as mycobiont.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 9.
Give a comparative account of the classes of Kingdom Fungi under the following:
(i) Mode of nutrition
(ii) Mode of reproduction

Fungal Class Mode of Nutrition Mode of Reproduction
Myxomycetes Heterotrophic and mostly saprophytic Asexual and sexual reproduction
Phycomycetes Mostly parasites Asexual and sexual methods
Zygomycetes Mostly saprophytic Asexual and sexual reproduction
Ascomycetes Saprophytes or parasites Asexual and sexual reproduction
Basidiomycetes Saprophytes or parasites Asexual and sexual method
Deuteromycetes Saprophytes or parasites Only asexual reproduction

Question 10.
What are the characteristic features of Euglenoids?
Answer:
The characteristic features of euglenoids are as follows :

  • They occur in freshwater habitats and damp soils.
  • A single long flagella present at the anterior end.
  • Creeping movements occur by expansion and expansion of their body known as euglenoid movements.
  • Mode of nutrition is holophytic, saprobic or holozoic.
  • Reserve food material is paramylum.
  • Euglenoids are known as plant and animal.
    Plant characters of them are as follows:
    (a) Presence of chloroplasts with chlorophyll.
    (b) Holophytic nutrition
    Animal characters of them are as follows:
    (a) Presence of pellicle, which is made up of proteins and not a cellulose.
    (b) Presence of stigma.
    (c) Presence of contractile vacuole.
    (d) Presence of longitudinal binary fission.
  • Under favourable conditions euglenoids multiply by longitudinal binary fission, e.g., Euglena, Phacus, Paranema, etc.

Question 11.
Give a brief account of viruses with respect to their structure ’ and nature of genetic material. Also name four common viral diseases.
Answer:
Viruses are non-cellular, ultramicroscopic, infectious particles. They are made up of envelope, capsid, nucleoid and occasionally one or two enzymes. Viruses possess an outer thin loose covering called envelope. The central portion of nucleoid is surrounded by capsid that is made up of ( smaller sub-units known as capsomeres.

The nucleic acid present in the viruses is known as nucleoid. It is the r infective part of the virus which utilises the host cell machinery. The
genetic material of viruses is of four types –

(i) Double stranded DNA (dsDNA) as found in pox virus, hepatitis-B virus and herpes virus, etc.
(ii) Single stranded DNA (ssDNA) occur in coliphage Φ, coliphage Φ x 174.
(iii) Double stranded RNA (dsRNA) occur in Reo virus,
(iv) Single stranded RNA (ssRNA) occur in TMV virus, polio virus, etc.
Four common viral diseases are – (i) Polio, (ii) AIDS, (iii) Hepatitis-B (iv) Rabies.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 12.
Organise a discussion in your class on the topic—Are viruses living or non-living?
Answer:
Viruses are intermediate between living and non-living objects. They resemble non-living objects in:

  • Lacking protoplast. ‘
  • Ability to get crystallised.
  • High specific gravity which is found only in non-living objects.
  • Absence of respiration and energy storing system.
  • Absence of growth and division.
  • Cannot live independent of a living cell.

They resemble living objects in:

  • Presence of genetic material (DNA or RNA).
  • Property of mutation.
  • Irritability.
  • Can grow and multiply inside the host cell.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
Define living things.
Answer:
The organisms exhibiting growth, development, metabolism, response to stimuli, reproduction and other characteristics such as movement, etc., are called living things.

Question 2.
In which organisms reproduction is synonymous with growth?
Answer:
In unicellular organisms like Amoeba, bacteria and unicellular algae, reproduction is synonymous with growth, i. e., increase in number of cells.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 3.
Amoeba multiplies by mitotic cell division. Is this phenomenon growth or reproduction? Explain. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The phenomenon is reproduction in which unicellular organisms like Amoeba, cell division is a means of multiplication, while in multicellular organisms, it is a means of growth.

Question 4.
Can we relate metabolism with growth of the body?
Answer:
Metabolism occurs due to two phenomena, i.e., anabolism and catabolism. While growth of living things occur when quantity of anabolic reactions exceeds quantity of catabolic reactions.

Question 5.
Linnaeus is considered as father of taxonomy. Name two other botanists known for their contribution to the field of taxonomy. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
John Ray and Bentham and Hooker.

Question 6.
What does ICZN stand for? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
ICZN: International Code of Zoological Nomenclature

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 7.
How is diversity in living world related to taxonomy?
Answer:
The spectrum of diversity in the living world can be known only through the study of taxonomy.

Question 8.
Which is the largest botanical garden in the world? Name a few well known botanical gardens in India. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Largest botanical garden in the world is Royal Botanical Garden, Kew
(London). Some well known botanical gardens in India are as follows:

  • National Botanical Garden, Lucknow
  • Lloyed Botanical Garden, Darjeeling
  • Indian Botanical Garden Sibpur, Kolkata

Question 9.
The concept of new systematics was developed by which scientist?
Answer:
Julian Huxley (1940)

Question 10.
How correlated characters help in defining genus?
Answer:
Correlated characters are those common features, which are used in delimitation of a taxon above the rank of species.

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
What do you know about herbarium?
Answer:
Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets. Further, these sheets are arranged according to k universally accepted system of classification. These specimens, along with their descriptions on herbarium sheets, become a store house or repository for future use. The herbarium sheets also carry a label providing information about date and place of collection, English, local and botanical names, family, collector’s name, etc. Herbaria also serve as quick referral systems in taxonomical studies.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 2.
How is botanical garden useful for scientists?
Answer:
In a botanical garden various plant species are reared. Special artificial climate is created for a plant’s specific needs. The purpose of botanical garden is to maintain a rich flora of diverse species. Since, they are live specimens so they help scientists in studying physiology and anatomy over a long duration. Imagine if Mendel were given a botanical garden full of variety of species. He could have done experiment on so many plants and may have come with more insights.

Question 3.
Write a short note on museum.
Answer:
Museums are those places which have collections of preserved animals and plants for taxonomic studies. The organisms are exhibited in the following manners:

  • The plant and animal specimens are kept in chemical solutions and are preserved for longer duration.
  • Plant and animal specimens may also be preserved as dry specimens.
  • Insects are preserved in insect boxes; the collected insects are dried and pinned in these boxes.
  • Larger animals like birds and mammals are usually preserved as stuffed specimens.
  • Skeletons of animals are also collected in the museums.

Question 4.
How is a zoological park helpful to scientists?
Answer:
It is difficult and dangerous to study ferocious animals in their natural habitats. Further, it is cruel to study them in captivity. So zoological park is a better option. Scientists can study different behavioural patterns, like feeding habits, mating rituals. This can help in a better understanding about them.

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
A student of taxonomy was puzzled when told by his professor to look for a key to identify a plant. He went to his friend to clarify what key the professor was referring to? What would the friend explain to him? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The key for identification of plants is a taxonomic key. It is a important taxonomic aid. Key can be defined as a set of alternate characters arranged in such a manner that by selection and elimination one can quickly find out the name of an organism. Depending upon the category, a key may be class key, order key, family key, genus key and species key.

Taxonomic keys can be of following two types:
(i) Indented or Yolked key
(ii) Bracketed key
Indented key, provides a sequence of two or more alternate characters from which selection and elimination are carried out. In bracketed key, the alternate characters are given numbers in brackets. For example, take four genera of family – Ranunculaceae to explain this,
(i) Ranunculus: Leaves alternate or radical, flowers not subtended by involucre, carpels ovuled, fruit achenes.
(ii) Clematis: Leaves opposite, compound petals absent, sepals 4, carpels uniovulated and fruit achenes.
(iii) Nigella: Flowers regular, carpels united at base, many ovulated, fruit follicles.
(iv) Anemone: Leaves alternate or radical, flowers subtended by involucre, carpels 1-ovulated, fruit achenes.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 2.
Some of the properties of tissues are not the properties of constituents of its cells. Give three examples to support the statement. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
A living thing has multiple level of organisation. Each level of organisaton i has its own properties, which are not found in its constituents.
Examples of three tissues supporting the statements are
(i) Cardiac muscle tissue: It is a contractile tissue present only in heart. Cell junctions fuse the plasma membrane of cardiac muscle cells and make them stick together. When one cell receives a signal to contract, its neighbours also starts to contract. It means a single cell cannot contract, while there are some fusion points, which allow the cells to contract as a unit.

(ii) Blood: It is a fluid connective tissue. The individual components of blood, i.e., RBCs, WBCs and platelets have different properties but as a unit they make the blood, a tissue serving many functions.

(iii) Bone: It is a hard connective tissue that forms the framework of the body. The individual cells inside the bone do not have this property.