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PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 Yoga

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 5 Yoga Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 5 Yoga

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Yoga Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Yoga?
Answer:
The objective of Yoga is unity, union and love. In simple words we can say that yoga means the union of man and God. Science that unites man & God is called Science of Yoga.

Question 2.
What is Yoga according to Rishi Patanjali?
Answer:
To control the insticts of our mind’s called Yoga.

Question 3.
Write any one definition of Yoga.
Answer:
Yoga is that path which leads a human being from darkness to light.

Question 4.
What do you mean by the word Asanas?
Answer:
Asana is an old method of Yoga which makes the base of Pranayam, Dhyan & Smadhi. Asana word means art of sitting. According to scripture Yoga Sutra written by Patanjali Asana is that situation of a person in which he can sit maximum for time comfortably.

Question 5.
How many types are there of Asanas? Write in detail.
Answer:

Cultural Asana: Asana which performed to strengthen body are called cultural Asana.
Meditative Asana: These type of asana is used to the smadhi or meditation.
Relaxative Asana: These asanas are done in lying position. The objective of this asana is give relaxation to the body.

Question 6.
Yoga is only a method of treatment. Write your views regarding this statement.
Answer:
Many diseases are possible to treat with the help of Yoga. Some People assume that Yoga is a method of a treatment & meant for only these people who are suffering from any disease. Yoga can be done by any healthy person & he can save his body from any disease.

Question 7.
What is Objective of Yoga?
Answer:
Objective of Yoga is to unite love & affection with each other. With the help of Yoga we can control our mind.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Yoga Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
How many types are there of Asanas?
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) One
(D) None.
Answer:
(A) Three

Question 2.
What do you mean by Yoga?
(A) Adding
(B) Union
(C) Union of Man with God
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 3.
Principle of Yoga.
(A) While doing Asana we should take care of sex and age
(B) Do not exert much force while doing Asanae
(C) Aaanas should be done empty stomach
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
Misconceptions of Yoga
(A) Yoga is related to a particular sect
(B) The yoga is meant for men
(C) The Yoga is only for sick person
(D) All the above
Answer:
(D) All the above

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about Yoga in detail.
Answer:
Yoga word derived from Sanskrit word Yoga which means unite the soul with God.

Question 2.
Write any definition of Yoga.
Answer:
Yoga is that path which leads a human from darkness of light

Question 3.
Write any one misconception of Yoga.
Answer:
It is related with particular religion.

Question 4.
What is asana?
Answer:
Asana La that situation of a person in which he can sit maximum for time comfortably.

Short Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write any three principles of Asana.
Answer:

Do not exert much force while doing Asana. Body should, be in static & comfortable position.
Asanas should be done empty stomach or four hours after taking meals.
Heart Patients & pregnant ladies do not do difficult asanas.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the misconceptions of Yoga?
Answer:
1. The Yoga is related to a particular Sect:
Yoga was started in India by hermits. Many people consider that Yoga is related to Hindu religion & they consider that Yoga is meant for Hindus Only.

2. That Yoga is meant for men:
Many people consider that people doing Yoga, have to follow strict rules. Hence, it can be done by men only. It is meant for women.

3. That Yoga is’only for sick person:
Many diseases are possible to treat with the help of Yoga. Some people assume that Yoga is a method of treatment & meant for only those people who are suffering from diseases.

Question 2.
Write principles of Asanas.
Answer:

Asana should be done empty stomach or four hours after meals.
Heart Patients & pregnant women should not do difficult Asanas.
Body should be bent slowly while doing asana. Do not give Jerks while doing asanas.
Do not exert much force while doing asanas.
The place for doing the practice of asanas should be clean & peaceful.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 5 Microsoft Word (Part-III)

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Computer Science Book Solutions Chapter 5 Microsoft Word (Part-III) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Computer Science Chapter 5 Microsoft Word (Part-III)

Computer Guide for Class 7 PSEB Microsoft Word (Part-III) Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
After selecting the picture tab appears.
(a) Format
(b) Page Layout
(c) insert
(d) View.
Answer:
(a) Format

Question 2.
For text wrapping, we can use option.
(a) Square
(b) Tight
(c) Behind Text
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
To remove any unwanted parts of picture, option s used.
(a) Crop
(b) Rotate
(c) Group
(d) Compress.
Answer:
(a) Crop

Question 4.
Which of the following option is not available in the Adjust group of Format tab?
(a) Corrections
(6) Artistic Effects
(c) Remove Background
(d) Picture Styles.
Answer:
(d) Picture Styles.

Question 5.
We can find the number of words in the bar at the bottom of the window.
(a) Task Bar
(b) Status Bar
(c) Title Bar
(d) Scroll Bar.
Answer:
(b) Status Bar

2. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which option splits the text into two or more Columns?
Answer:
The Columns option from the Page Setup group in the format tab divides the text into two or more sections.

Question 2.
Which page orientation sets the page in horizontal direction?
Answer:
Landscape Orientation.

Question 3.
Which option is used to group two or more images together so that they can be treated as a single object?
Answer:
Two or more images can be grouped together as one object using the Group command from the Arrange group in the Layout tab.

Question 4.
Which option can be used to change the colors of the picture in MS Word?
Answer:
From the Picture Format tab, the color of the picture can be changed with the Color option from the Adjust group.

Question 5.
Which option is used to count words in MS Word?
Answer:
Words can be counted using the Word Count option from the Proofing group in the Review tab or the Word Count Dialog box from the Status bar.

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are Margins?
Answer:
A margin is the space between the text and the edge of the page. By default, a new document’s margins are set to Normal, which means it has a one-inch space between the text and each edge. Depending on your needs, Word allows you to change your document’s margin size.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Compress Picture?
Answer:
With this button the image can be compressed. To reduce the size of documents, pictures can be reduced in storage size. You can change the resolution of an image or delete a cropped part of an image.

Question 3.
Write about Reset Picture.
Answer:
If you want to remove all formatting changes to a picture in the document, “Reset Picture’ command will be used. This button is used to undo all formatting changes made to the picture and restore it to its original format.

Select the picture.
in the Format tab, click on the Reset picture option from the Adjust group.

Question 4.
What is Crop option?
Answer:
Crop button is used to delete the unwanted part of an image. When you crop an image, an unselected part of the picture is removed. Steps to crop the image are as follows:

Select the image you want to crop. The Format tab appears.
On the Format tab, click the Crop command.
Black handles will appear around the image. Click, hold and drag a handle to crop the image.
Click the Crop command again. The image will be cropped.

Question 5.
Give the name of two page orientation in MS Word.
Answer:
To change the position of a document from a portrait to a landscape, click this button. To change the position of the page, steps are as follows:

Select the Page Layout tab.
in the Page Setup group, click on the “Orientation” command.
Click “Portrait” or “Landscape” to change the position of the page. Landscape format means the page is horizontal, while portrait format means it is vertical.

Question 6.
Write the name of various options available in the adjust group of Picture Tools Format tab.
Answer:
Correction, Picture Color, Artistic Effect, Compress Picture, Change Picture, Reset Picture, Remove Background.

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Watermark? Write steps to add watermark in a word document.
Answer:
Watermark: it is just like a stamp. it is used for confidential documents. A watermark is an image that appears blurred behind the text on a page. The steps to add a watermark to the document are given ahead:

Open the document to which you want to include the water-mark.
Click the Page Layout tab and then click the “Watermark” button to display a list of standard watermark options.
You can select any available standard watermark by clicking on it. This will apply to all pages of the document.

Question 2.
Write the steps to run a Spelling and Grammar Check.
Answer:
To do Spelling and Grammar check, steps are as follows:

From the Review tab, click the Spelling & Grammar command.
The Spelling and Grammar dialog box will appear.
This dialog box offer one or more suggestions for spellings and grammatical errors.
You can select a suggestion and click “Change” to correct the error.

Question 3.
Explain the steps to Print a Document.
Answer:
Once you’ve created your document, you may want to print it to view and share your work offline. it’s easy to preview and print a document in Word using the Print option.

On the File tab or Office button, click Print command.
A print dialog box will appear.
In the “Name” drop-down list select the name of you printer.
In the “Copies” box, enter the number of copies you want.
In “Page Range” option select “All” option if you want to print all pages of your document.
If you want particular page to print then click “Pages” radio button and type page number in the box.
Now click “Print” option. Your document will be print.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Guide Microsoft Word (Part-III) Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The text of the paragraph is selected by pressing the arrow keys and the ………….. key together.
(a) Special
(b) Shift
(c) Number
(d) Function.
Answer:
(b) Shift

Question 2.
The default line spacing is …………… point.
(a) Single
(b) Double
(c) Triple
(d) Four.
Answer:
(a) Single

Question 3.
The fill color option is used to color in ………………… .
(a) Text
(b) Line
(c) Shape
(d) Word.
Answer:
(c) Shape

Question 4.
For border and shading …………… menu is used.
(a) File
(b) Edit
(c) Format
(d) Home.
Answer:
(c) Format

Question 5.
Auto Shapes are submitted from the …………….. tool bar.
(a) Shapes
(b) Home
(c) Word
(d) Drawing.
Answer:
(d) Drawing.

2. True/False

1. The left mouse button is clicked three times to select the entire paragraph.
Answer:
True.

2. By default paragraph text is right aligned.
Answer:
False

3. indentation command is used for shading.
Answer:
False

4. To fill ClipArt, Click insert Picture then click ClipArt command.
Answer:
True.

5. Arial and Times New Roman are the names of the fonts.
Answer:
True.

3. Match the Columns

Column A	Column B
1. Ctrl + B	(a) For double line spacing
2. Ctrl + E	(b) For bold the text
3. Ctrl+ 2	(c) For Left, Right, Center, Justify
4. Font style	(d) For Center Alignment
5. Alignment	(e) Bold, Italic, Underline

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Ctrl + B	(b) For bold the text
2. Ctrl + E	(d) For Center Alignment
3. Ctrl+ 2	(a) For double line spacing
4. Font style	(e) Bold, Italic, Underline
5. Alignment	(c) For Left, Right, Center, Justify

4. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Picture Border?
Answer:
Picture border means the line around a picture.

Question 2.
What is picture position?
Answer:
Picture position means where the picture is located into the document.

Question 3.
What are the various options available in page layout tab?
Answer:
The Page Layout tab has more than one Page layout and Formatting options. This affects the look of a page’s content. Depending on how we want to present our document, we can choose Page Orientation, Paper Segment and Page Margin commands.

Question 4.
Write steps for formatting page margins.
Answer:

Click on the Page layout tab.
Click on the Margins command from page setup group. A drop-down menu will appear. By default “Normal” margin will be selected.
Click on the Predefined margin as you want.

Question 5.
Describe the steps for using custom margin.
Answer:

Click on Margin command from the Page Layout tab.
A drop-down menu will appear. From this menu click “custom margin” option.
A Page Setup dialog box will appear.
Adjust the margin size for each side of the page, and click Ok.

Question 6.
What is Orientation?
Answer:
To change the position of a document from a portrait to a landscape, click this button. To change the position of the page, steps are as follows:

Select the Page Layout tab.
in the Page Setup group, click on the “Orientation” command.
Click “Portrait” or “Landscape” to change the position of the page. Landscape format means the page is horizontal, while portrait format means it is vertical.

Question 7.
What are the steps to change the paper size?
Answer:

Select Page Layout.
Click on the Page-Size command and a drop-down menu will appear. The current page size will be highlighted.
Click on the Size option as per your requirement. The page size of the document will change.

Question 8.
What does the column option do?
Answer:
This option splits the written text into two or more columns.

5. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are corrections? How are they used?
Answer:
Adjust Group:
You do not need to use additional picture editing software to create high quality images for your document. Instead, you can use Adjust tools to correct and improve your photos.
1. Select photo.
2. In the Format tab, click on the Correction option from the Adjust group. A drop-down menu will now open. From this menu, select 3. Sharpen/Soften and Brightness/ Contrast settings according to your needs.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 5 Microsoft Word (Part-III) 1
To make these settings more detailed, go to Picture Format>> Corrections>> “Picture Corrections Options” option. The Format Picture sidebar appears. This allows you to provide special settings for Sharpness, Brightness and Contrast.

Question 2.
Write the steps for using the color option.
Answer:
Picture Color:
Microsoft Word allows you to control the color and tone of your picture and you can repaint the whole picture for special effects.
Steps to change the picture color are as follows:
(a) Select picture.

(b) In the Format tab, click on the Color option from the Adjust group. A drop-down menu will open.

Color Saturation: This controls how bright the colors are in the image.
Color Tone: This controls the temperature of the color, from cool to warm.
Recolor ; This controls the overall color of the image. Use this option to make the image black and white or gray scale, or to colorize it with a different color.

(d) Choose any of the options as per your need.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 5 Microsoft Word (Part-III) 2

Question 3.
Write the steps for compressing a picture.
Answer:
Compress Picture: With this button the image can be compressed. To reduce the size of documents, pictures can be reduced in storage size. You can change the resolution of an image or delete a cropped part of an image. The steps to compress a picture are given below:

Select the picture.
In the Format tab, click on the Compress picture option from the Adjust group.
Now a Compression Settings dialog box will open.
If you want to print the picture, click on the Print (220 ppi) option.
If you want to reduce the size of the file to e-mail, click on the E-mail (96 ppi) option.
If you want to upload the file to a web page or projector, click on Project Options.

Question 4.
Write the steps to remove the background of the picture.
Answer:
Remove Background:
This option is used to automatically remove unwanted parts of an image. Areas to remove or keep can be marked in the picture. Following are the steps to remove the background of a photo:

(a) Select the image from which you want to remove the background.

(b) Click the “Remove Background” option from the Adjust group in the Format tab.

(c)Now the default background area will be marked with magenta color, while the foreground will remain its natural color.
(d)If the default area isn’t correct, go to Background Removal > Picture Tools and do one or both of the following:

If parts of the picture that you want to keep are magenta, select
“Mark Areas to Keep” option and use the drawing pencil to mark the areas on the picture that you want to keep.
To remove more parts of the picture, select Mark Areas to
Remove option and use the drawing pencil to mark those areas

When you’re done, select “Keep Changes” or “Discard All Changes”.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 5 Microsoft Word (Part-III) 4

Question 5.
Write down the steps to apply a picture style.
Answer:
Picture Style Group:
Picture Styles Gallery offers many preset styles that make it easy for you to add borders and special effects with one click.
1. Picture Style Gallery:
This field provides a list of different formats that can be applied to an image. To see what each style will do, just move the mouse pointer over each style. To apply the style on a picture steps are as follows:
(a) Select the photo whose style you want to change.
(b) On the Format tab, in the Picture Styles group, click any style you like.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 5 Microsoft Word (Part-III) 5

2. Picture Border:
Use this command to change the color, width, or line style of the border of the image. Steps to add border as follows:

Select the image to which you want to add a border.
On the Picture Format tab, in the Picture Styles gallery, select Picture Border command. A drop-down menu will appear.
From this menu select color for border line.
Select weight (thickness) of boarder line.
Select whether the line of the border is dashed.

3. Picture Effects:
Click this button to add visual effects to the picture such as shadows, 3-D effects, and glows. Steps to add an effect to a picture are as follows:

Select the picture for which you want to add or change an effect.
Under the Format tab, in the Picture Styles group, click Picture Effects command.
A drop-down list will appear. From this menu select appropriate effect for image.

Question 6.
Write the steps of wrapping text.
Answer:
Text Wrapping:
This feature is used to apply wrapping to an image. When wrapping is applied, text can be typed around the image. Make it easy to move images from one place to another in a document. To apply the text wrapping on the image follow these steps:
(a) Select the image which you want to apply wrapping.
(b) From the Picture Tools tab, in the Arrange group, click on the “Text Wrapping” option.
Do one of the following:

Click “Square” command to type the text around the border of your picture.
Click ‘Tight” command to type text around a clip art image or an irregularly shaped image.
Click “Behind Text” command to display the text on the image.
Click “In Front of Text” command to display the image on the text.
Click “Top and Bottom” command to place the image on your line.
Click “More Layout Options” command for more layout Options.

From this dialog box, specify the distance between the text and the image.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 5 Microsoft Word (Part-III) 6

Question 7.
Write the steps for adding background color or texture.
Answer:
Page Color:
With the help of this option we can apply different colors, textures and pictures to the background of the page in our document. Steps to add background color or texture are as follows:

Click on “Page color” command in the Page Background group from the Page Layout tab.
A drop-down menu will appear.
Choose one of the following options from this drop-down menu:
To apply the background color click any color from “Theme Colors or Standard Colors”.
To apply the texture, Gradient, pattern and pictures into the background, click “Fill Effects” option.
A Fill Effect dialog Box will appear. Select appropriate design for you background.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Wastewater Story Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 224)

Question 1.
What is the difference in colour of contaminated and clean water ?
Answer:
Clear water is colourless, but it may contain soluble impurities and microorganisms. This water is not pure and not drinkable.
Contaminated water in which microorganisms are present can also be colourless. Also, if there is any pigment or impurities in the water, it may be dark brown in colour.

Question 2.
Name any two organic contaminants present in drain water.
Answer:
Organic pollutants present in the drain waste water are:

1. Insecticides,
2. Diuretics,
3. Fruits and vegetables waste,
4. Human and animal excreta.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 225)

Question 1.
Why are manholes builts in sewage route ?
Answer:
Manholes are made at every 50-60 m distance of the sewerage system or at the junction of two sewage discharges, so that the person can enter the sewage drain to identify and diagnose the problem.

Question 2.
Name any two organisms living in and around an open drain.
Answer:

Cockroach and
scorpion.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 228)

Question 1.
What change do in you notice in the appearance of liquid after aeration ?
Answer:
The color of the liquid is slightly clear and light.

Question 2.
What was removed by the sand filter ?
Answer:
Insoluble solid particles were separated by sand filter.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Wastewater Story Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) ……………….. are dissolved and suspended solid impurities present in sewage.
Answer:
Pollutants

(ii) The activated sludge is about ……………….. water.
Answer:
97%

(iii) …………………. is the solid material settled at the bottom of water clarifier.
Answer:
Sludge

(iv) ……………… is the place where contaminants are removed from wastewater.
Answer:
Water purification tank

(v) Adopt ……………….. sanitation practices.
Answer:
Good

2. State True or False:

(i) The sight and smell of open drain is attractive.
Answer:
False

(ii) Throw plastic bags in the drain.
Answer:
False

(iii) Open drain is the breeding place for flies and mosquitoes.
Answer:
True

(iv) Do not defecate in the open.
Answer:
True

(v) Solid food remains can block the drains.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Organic impurities	(a) Sewage treatment
(ii) Inorganic impurities	(b) Typhoid
(iii) Wastewater treatment	(c) Manure
(iv) Water borne diseases	(d) Nitrate and phosphates
(v) Dried sludge	(e) Human wastes

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Organic impurities	(e) Human wastes
(ii) Inorganic impurities	(d) Nitrate and phosphates
(iii) Wastewater treatment	(a) Sewage treatment
(iv) Water borne diseases	(b) Typhoid
(v) Dried sludge	(c) Manure

4. Choose the Correct Answer

Question (i)
Wastewater treatment plant involve:
(a) Bar screen
(b) Water clarifier
(c) Grit and sand removal tank
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (ii)
Name the by-product of wastewater treatment plant:
(a) Biogas.
(b) Sludge
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

Question (iii)
Which of the following chemicals is used to disinfect water ?
(a) Chlorine
(b) Ozone
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

Question (iv)
World Toilet Day is celebrated every year on:
(a) 29 November
(b) 19 October
(c) 19 November
(d) 29 October.
Answer:
(c) 19 November.

Question (v)
Which of the following is not a low cost onsite sewage disposal system
(a) Septic tank
(b) Compost pit
(c) Chemical toilets
(d) Bar screen.
Answer:
(d) Bar screen.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is sewage ?
Answer:
Sewage.
This is the dirty water which contains soluble impurities dissolved and insoluble suspended impurities. It is produced by homes, offices, industries, farms and hospitals.

Question (ii)
What is Sludge ?
Answer:
Sludge.
The solid that settles at the bottom of a water purification tank is called Sludge.

Question (iii)
What is clarified water ?
Answer:
Clarified Water (Pure water).
It is colourless, odourless and tasteless water with pH value 7. Rainwater is pure water. The boiling point of pure water is 100°C. Pure water does not contain soluble or hanging impurities in it.

Question (iv)
What is septic tank ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story 1
Septic Tank.
This is a low cost onsite sewage treatment system that contains anaerobic bacterial enivironment to decompose the waste products. It has connection to main sewage discharge pipes. This is used in which excreta from the toilet passes through the covered pipes from the toilets directly to the biogas plant.

Question (v)
What is waste water treatment plant ?
Answer:
Waste Water Treatment Plant.
Polluted water of houses through covered underground Pipes is taken to sewage removing contaminants.

The water is taken to the treatment plant and after the treatment this water is discharged into the rivers or oceans. The remaining waste water is sent to the place where the impurities are separated from it. Separation of contaminants from waste, water is called water purification. Water treatment involves physical, chemical and biological processes which remove contaminants from the waste water. Waste water treatment plant is also called sewage treatment plant.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why oil and fats should not be thrown in the drain ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story 2
Oil, ghee etc. should not be thrown in the drain, instead leftover should be put in the dustbin.
Because they harden and block the drainage pipes. If thrown in the open then they can close pores iin the soil which may reduce the ability of the soil to filter water.

Question (ii)
What is the function of bar screens in a wastewater treatment plants ?
Answer:
Function of Bar screen in waste water treatment Plants:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story 3
In waste water treatment plant at first this water which contains solid insoluble impurities such as cans, pieces of nepkins and plastic etc is first passed through a mesh having bar screens where these impurities are stopped and separated.

Question (iii)
“Throw litter in the dustbin only
Answer:
Always throw the garbage in the dustbin because scattering the garbage will not only pollute our surroundings but will also pollute the environment and give off a foul smell which will help in producing germs, insects and cockroaches. It will also cause many diseases. So throw litter only in the dustbin.

Question (iv)
What are the alternative arrangements for sewage disposal ?
Answer:
Alternative arrangements for sewage disposal.
Where there is no sewerage system, low cost sewage disposal systems such as septic tanks, chemical tanks, composting pits etc. can be constructed. A septic tank is a small sewage treatment system that contains anaerobic bacterial environment that separate waste pollutants. It has no connection with main sewage disposal pipes.

Question (v)
Why is it harmful to discharge untreated sewage in water bodies ?
Answer:
Untreated sewage contains inorganic and suspended contaminants. If this untreated sewage is discharged directly into water bodies then contaminants like germs present in it will get activated which will cause diseases like cholera, typhoid, diarrhoea, polio and hepatitis.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Write a brief note on open defecation.
Answer:
Open defecation.
Open defecation on railway tracks, banks of rivers or in the fields can cause health problems. It spreads many deadly diseases like cholera, typhoid, diarrhoea, polio and hepatitis.

About one lakh people die every year due to open defecation. In areas where open defecation is common, human feces and animal feces are swallowed by children accumulating large amounts of bacteria, parasites, and viruses in their bodies which causes diseases, even it leads to death.

Question (ii)
What steps will you take at home for efficient working of sewerage system ?
Answer:
Steps for efficient sewrage system at home. We should develop the following good habits for efficient sewerage system at the home.

Don’t waste water. Every time you go to toilet and you flush the toilet, water runs unnecessarily. So manage the amount of water to be used in toilets by putting a bottle filled with water or a brick in your flush tank which will maintain the water pressure and reduce the wastage of water.
Avoid using the toilet as a waste basket.
Install water-efficient toilets. Fix standard for reducing water consumption each time you flush.
Use only phosphate-free soaps and detergents.
Use washing machine only when you have full load of clothes.
Do not throw solid materials like tea leaves, wool, plastic envelopes (polythene), sanitary towels, soft toys etc. in the drainage water as they may block the drain. As a result, oxygen does not flow freely and the decomposition process slows down.
Do not throw substances like ghee, machine oil, grease, pesticides and other chemicals etc. in the drain as it can kill the water purifying microorganisms.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Wastewater Story Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Cleaning of water is a process of removing ………………….. .
Answer:
contaminants

(ii) Waste water released by houses is called ………………… .
Answer:
sewage

(iii) Dried ……………… is used as manure.
Answer:
sludge

(iv) Drains get blocked by ………………. and ……………. .
Answer:
cooking oil, fats

(v) An open space covered by a lid is a passage through which a person can enter and check the sewage system is called …………….. .
Answer:
Manhole

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Waste water treatment by-products	(a) November 19
(ii) World Water Day	(b) Breeding area for mosquitoes and flies.
(iii) Open defecation	(c) Humus and bio gas
(iv) World Toilet Day	(d) March 22

Answer:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Waste water treatment by-products	(c) Humus and bio gas
(ii) World Water Day	(d) March 22
(iii) Open defecation	(b) Breeding area for mosquitoes and flies.
(iv) World Toilet Day	(a) November 19

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
A network of small and large underground pipes:
(a) Sewage
(b) Humus
(c) Stool excretion
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Sewage.

Question (ii)
World Water Day is celebrated:
(a) March 22
(b) 22 February
(c) April 22
(d) 22 June
Answer:
(a) March 22.

Question (iii)
Which gas absorbs ultraviolet radiation ?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Ozone
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Ozone.

Question (iv)
Contaminated water causes diseases:
(a) Jaundice
(b) Diarrhoea
(c) Cholera
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (v)
Malaria can spread through:
(a) Open drains
(b) Taps
(c) Closed drains
(d) Water pipes
Answer:
(a) Open drains

State True or False:

(i) Untreated sewage should be disposed of in reservoirs.
Answer:
False

(ii) Residual oil and ghee should be drained.
Answer:
False

(iii) Throwing polythene bags or pieces in the drains can choke the drain.
Answer:
True

(iv) Litter should be thrown in the dustbin only.
Answer:
True

(v) The solid settling at the bottom of a water purification tank is called sludge.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which is World Water Day ?
Answer:
World Water Day : 22 March.

Question 2.
What is cleaning of water ?
Answer:
Cleaning of Water. Removing pollutants from waste water.

Question 3.
What is common name of waste water treatment ?
Answer:
Sewage Treatment.

Question 4.
How is Sewage formed ?
Answer:
Sewage. It is waste water discharged by homes, industries, hospitals, offices and other users.

Question 5.
Which organisms cause dysentery ?
Answer:
Microbes.

Question 6.
What is sewerage ?
Answer:
Sewerage. Network of small and big pipes called sewers form sewerage.

Question 7.
Which chemicals destroy water micro-organisms?
Answer:
Paints, painkillers, oils, medicines, etc destroy micro-organisms.

Question 8.
Why should solid waste not be dumped in drains?
Answer:
Because they pollute the drains and block the free flow of oxygen.

Question 9.
How does oxygen purify waste water?
Answer:
Oxygen helps in biodegradation.

Question 10.
Write the names of two causes for spread of diseases.
Answer:
Unhygienic surroundings and Polluted water.

Question 11.
Name the plant used at places where sewerage system is not available.
Answer:
Septic tank.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give a short account of alternative arrangements for sewage disposal.
Answer:
The alternative arrangements for sewage disposal are septic tanks, chemical toilets, compositing pits, etc.

All these are low cost onsite sewage disposal systems and are suitable for places where there is no sewerage systems. For example, in hospitals, isolated building or a cluster of 4-5 houses in a remote area.

Question 2.
Name some practices used at home which can minimise the waste production.
Answer:
Practices used at home to minimise waste.

Greasy, oily things should not be dumped into drains, as they block (choke) the drains.
Chemicals, paints, insecticides etc. should not be thrown into drains as they kill microbes that help to purify water.
Solid wastes, used tea leaves, sanitary towels etc. should be thrown in dustbins and not in drains as they choke the drains.

Question 3.
What is Sewage ? Explain why it is harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.
Answer:
Sewage. Sewage is a liquid waste which has lot of dissolved and suspended pollutants in water. It is complex in nature.

It is produced in homes, industries, agricultural fields and in other human activities. It is main cause of water and soil pollution.

Harmful aspects of disposal of untreated water waste:

It causes health hazards.
Ground water and surface water gets polluted.
It is carrier of water borne diseases.

Question 4.
Why should oil and fats be not released in the drain ? Explain.
Answer:
Oil and fats on hardening block the drain pipes. In open drains, the oils clog the soil particles reducing their power of filtering.

Question 5.
Describe the steps involving in getting clarified water from waste-water.
Answer:
Steps to get clarified water from waste water:

Passing waste water through bar screening to remove large objects like rags, plastics, cans etc.
Passing through grit and sand. Removal tank with slow speed to settle down sand and dust particles.
Settling down of water is done in a big tank which has a slope in middle to remove faecal matter and floatable solids such as oils and grease. Water so obtained is called clarified water.

Question 6.
What is sludge ? Explain how it is treated.
Answer:
Sludge.
It is solid faecal matter collected from the waste water after passing through screen bars and grit and sand removal tank.

Treatment of Sludge.
It is collected in a tank to be treated by anaeroboic bacteria. The biogas produced is used for generating electricity. Dried sludge is used as a manure.

Question 7.
Untreated human excreta is a health hazard. Explain.
Answer:
Untreated human excreta.

It is a breeding place for mosquitoes, flies and other insects.
It is full of foul smell.
It contaminates water and soil,
It is carrier of many diseases.

Question 8.
Name two chemicals used to disinfect water.
Answer:

Chlorine and
Ozone.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Give a detailed account of waste water treatment plant.
Answer:
Waste water is contaminated with physical, chemical and biological pollutants. To remove all these physical, chemical and biological processes are to be involved.

(i) Bar-Screen treatment. Wastewater is allowed to pass through big bar screens to remove solid large objects such as napkins, tins, cans, sticks, plastics, etc.

(ii) Grit and sand removal tank. The wastewater is allowed to pass through these tanks at a very low speed so that sand, dust, and insoluble heavy particles settle down in these tanks.

(iii) Separating the sludge. In this process, water is put into a large tank whose middle portion is sloped. All solids get settled down and are removed with a scraper. This solid waste is known as sludge. Some floating solids are removed by a skimmer. Water, thus, obtained is called clarified water.

Now two separate processes are to be followed.

(a) Sludge is transferred to a tank to be decomposed by anaerobic bacteria when biogas is produced as a by-product.

(b) In the clarified water, aerobic bacterias are present to enhance their functioning. Air is pumped into the water. Bacteria consume the impurities left in water and settle down at the bottom. The water is then removed from the top. While the sludge settled at the bottom is dried and used as manure.

(iv) The above water is either discharged into sea or river to be naturally cleaned or treated with chlorine or ozone and supplied for further use.

Punjab Style Kabaddi Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Punjab Style Kabaddi Game Rules.

Punjab Style Kabaddi Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Discuss about the circle style Kabaddi, Ground, Duration of the game, Dress of the Players, The official of the Kabaddi game.
Answer:
Playground:
The Punjab Style Kabaddi is also known as Circle Kabaddi. Its playground is circular, and the radius of the circle is 75 feet. The radius can be from 65′ (50 m) to 15′(10 m.) The centre line divides it into two equal parts. There is a gate of 20 feet in the middle of the centre-line. On both the ends of the gate two soil mounds are built. They are called palas.

The diameter of each pala is 6 inches. The palas are 1 foot high from the ground where they are placed. On both the ends of the centre line, the D-area is marked by a 20 feet long line. It is 15 feet from palas towards the sides. Through a quarter circle it touches the centre-line, and the palas are in the middle of it.

KABADDI:
PUNJAB STYLE OR CIRCLE KABADDI-
Punjab Style Kabaddi Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Duration of Play:
The game is played in two durations of 20 minutes each, and there is an interval of 5 minutes for rest in between the two durations.

Teams:
The game is played between two teams. Each team has ten players and two substitutes. When a player becomes incapable of play he is replaced by a substitute. Each team should have 8 players till the end of the game. If the number of players is less than ten, the opposing team is also allowed to have the same number of players (which is less than ten).

Dress of the Players:
Players shall wear loin-clothes. They can play on bare foot or by wearing tennis shoes with thin soles. The player cannot play by wearing a ring or other such things.

Officials:
There are following officials to conduct this game-

One Referee
One Umpire
Two Scorers
One Time Keeper.

Question 2.
Discuss the rules of Punjab Style Kabaddi.
Answer:
General Rules:

The raiders on their turns shall go to the court of the opponents sounding the cant of ‘Kabaddi’. They shall continue sounding the cant within one and the same breath till they return.
The raider shall touch at least the boundary line of the opponent’s court. If he even does not do so, the umpire can ask him for the second raid. If he fails to touch the boundary line even then, the opposing team is awarded one point.
No player can have two successive raids. Each player has to raid at least once in each half of the circle.
When a player is returning after having touched his anti, he cannot be pursued until he has crossed the essential line of his side
If a raider touches any of his opponents and returns to his court, his side gets 1 point.
If a player of the defending team causes an obstruction, the raiding team is at once awarded one point.
During the time of touching and holding between a raider and the player of the opposing team, all the rest of the players are considered temporarily out until a point is scored.
If a raider goes out of the boundary line, the anti-team shall get 1 point. If both the players cross the boundary line, neither side is awarded a point. The point is considered to be common in such a case.
A hold or an attack which may put a player’s life in danger is forbidden.
Applying oil on the body or increasing nails of hands and feet are forbidden.
Coaching of any type from the outside is forbidden.
If a raider touches his opponent or the opponent touches the raider, then both pursue each other till the sounding of the cant. No other player can hold the raider.
No one can hold a player by hair.
The opponent cannot prevent a raider from sounding the cant by shutting his mouth.
Improper or indecent words cannot be used during the play.
No player can go out for drinking water until the game ends.
The players can use soil on their hands.
The umpire can ask each of those players who have not taken their turns to sound the cant and raid.
The leg-scissors cannot be used on a raider without first being held.
No player can slap any other person.

Important Information about the Punjab Style Kabaddi Game

Shape of Kabaddi Playground = Circular
Radius of Circle = 65’to 75′(50 to 70 m)
Distance of Gate in Centre Line = 20′(6.10 m)
Marking of Gate = Two soil mounds are built
The diameter of each pole = 6″ ( 15 cm)
Duration of play = 20-20 Minutes
Time of Interval = 5 Minutes
Playing Members of a team = 14 Players,6 Substitutes
Officials of the match = Two Umpires, One-Referee, one scorer, one time keeper.
The game is played between two teams. Each team consists of 14 players and 6 substitutes.
In case a player is injured during the play, he is replaced by a substitute.
A player can participate in this game on bare foot.
No player can wear an iron bangle (‘Karra’), ring etc. during the play.
No player can have two successive raids.
A hold or attack which may endanger the life of a player is forbidden. Coaching to the players from outside the playfield is forbidden.
The opposing player cannot prevent a player from sounding the cant of ‘Kabaddi-Kabaddi’ by shutting his mouth.
No player can take part in the game after having applied oil on his body.
If a raider loses the cant on the way, the referee asks for the cant again.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Crop Diversification Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one to two words:

Question 1.
Which cropping system is adopted in the sub-mountainous regions?
Answer:
Rice-Wheat.

Question 2.
Which is the main cropping system in southwestern region?
Answer:
Cotton-Wheat.

Question 3.
Give examples of multiple cropping systems.
Answer:
Maize-potato-moong, groundnut-potato-bajra.

Question 4.
How much water table is depleting every year in central Punjab due to cultivation of rice crop?
Answer:
Approximately 74 cm per year.

Question 5.
Which bacterium helps in nitrogen fixation?
Answer:
Rhizobium.

Question 6.
Which fertilizer can be saved in Dhaincha-Basmati-wheat cropping system?
Answer:
Nitrogen fertilizer.

Question 7.
Which crops are imported by India from foreign countries?
Answer:
Pulses, oil seed crops.

Question 8.
How many days before basmati transplanting, green manure should be incorporated in the field?
Answer:
Just before a day.

Question 9.
What percentage of area is under irrigation in Punjab state?
Answer:
98%.

Question 10.
How many tubewells (no.) are there in Punjab?
Answer:
Approximately 14 lakhs.

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
What do you mean by crop diversification?
Answer:
Crop diversification refers to cultivation of alternate crops by reducing area under conventional crops like wheat and rice and by increasing area under the crops like-maize, pulses, basmati, sugarcane, potato, oilseed crops, etc.

Question 2.
Which crops can be grown in dry land areas?
Answer:
Oil seed crops can be grown in such land areas.

Question 3.
Enlist maize based cropping systems.
Answer:
Maize-potato-summer moong or sunflower, maize-potato or toria- sunflower, maize-potato-onion or mentha and maize-gobhi sarson moong.

Question 4.
Enlist fodder based cropping systems.
Answer:
Maize-Berseem-Bajra, Maize-Berseem-Maize or Cowpea.

Question 5.
Write significance of intensive cropping system.
Answer:

High yield can be taken from small land holding.
Climate changes can be tackled.
Use of chemical fertilizers is reduced.
Balanced nutrition in maintained and employment opportunities are increased.
Agro-ecosystem is maintained and it helps in conserving natural resources.

Question 6.
Which enterprises can be adopted in integrated farming system?
Answer:
Following enterprises can be adoped in integrated farming system-

Fish farming
Cultivation of fruits
Cultivation of vegetable
Dairy farming
Rabbit farming
Pig farming
Goat farming
Bee keeping
Poultry farming
Agroforestry like poplar.

Question 7.
Write about source of irrigation in Punjab.
Answer:
Approximately 98% of area in Punjab is under irrigation. There are nearly 14 lakhs tubewells in Punjab. Canal irrigation is also adopted.

Question 8.
Name the alternate crops which can be cultivated in central Punjab over rice-wheat
Answer:
Maize, Potato, Pea, Sugarcane, Basmati, Sunflower, Muskmelon, Chilli and other vegetables.

Question 9.
Write the names of main crops cultivated in sub-mountainous region.
Answer:
Main crops cultivated in sub-mountainous region are-wheat, maize, paddy, basmati, potato, oil seed crops and peas.

Question 10.
Which cropping systems should be adopted in areas having light soils?
Answer:
Groundnut based cropping system can be adoped in light soils, e.g. gsoundnut-potato or toria or wheat, groundnut- potato-bajra (fodder), groundnut- toria or gobhi sarson.

Question 1.
What do you mean by crop diversification? Write about its aim and significance?
Answer:
Crop diversification:
Crop diversification refers to cultivation of alternate crops by reducing area under conventional crops; like, wheat and rice and by increasing area under the crops like-maize, pulses, basmati, sugarcane, potato, oilseed crops etc.

Aim: Aims of crop diversification are:

Judicious use of natural resources and conserving them for future and for long time.
To get more income by investing less on growing crops.
To get out of the same crop rotation cycle so that soil and water remain conserved.

Significance:
Rice-wheat cropping cycle requires 215 cm water in a year and out of this water 80% is consumed by rice crop. Cultivation of rice is damaging the physical and chemical properties of the soil. For the last 50 years area under cultivation of rice has increased at the cost of area under groundnut, oil seed crops, cotton, pulses etc. Crop diversification is the reverse of this process and lot of water is saved and soil health is also improved.

Question 2.
Why there is need for crop intensification? Describe in detail with examples?
Answer:
Intensive cropping system means sowing more than two crops in a year. Crops are sown in the time between the harvesting of first crop and sowing of next crop.
Need for crop intensification:

High yield can be taken from small land holding.
Climate changes can be tackled.
Use of chemical fertilizers is reduced.
Balanced nutrition is maintained and employment opportunities are increased.
Agro-ecosystem is maintained and it helps in conserving natural resources.

Cultivation of leguminous crops help in increasing the soil fertility by fixation of nitrogen with rhizobium. This saves nitrogen fertilizers. Important multiple cropping patterns are –

Green manuring based; e.g. Jantar-Maize etc.
Maize based; e.g. maize-potato-moong or sunflower.
Soyabean based ; e.g. soyabean-wheat-cowpea
Groundnut based; e.g. – Groundnut – potato-toriya,.
Green fodder based; e.g. – Maize – berseem- bajra.

Question 3.
Write about the problems related to agriculture in Punjab.
Answer:
Problems related to agriculture in Punjab are as follows:

After green revolution Punjab remained stuck in the crop cycle of paddy and wheat. Due to cultivation of these two crops water table is going down and excess use of chemicals like weedicides, pesticides and fertilizers etc. has damaged the health of the soil and also badly affected the chemical and physical properties of the soil.
Area under oil seed crops and pulses is reducing.
Due to heavy rainfall in south-western zone there exists problem of soil erosion.
Water level is going down by 74 cm every year and farmers have to use submersible motor for lifting water,
which adds to the cost of cultivation.
New species of insectes and weeds are being generated.
Biodiversity is decreasing.
Climate changes are taking place.

Question 4.
What is integrated farming system? Describe in detail with examples.
Answer:
In Integrated farming system a farmer can adopt one or two additional enterprises other than agriculture. This way farmer can increase his income and his family members can also help in the “’enterprise. (Integrated forming system IFS) helps in meeting the nutritional food requirements of the family. Some of the enterprises which a farmer can adopt from:

Fish farming.
Cultivation of fruits
Cultivation of vegetables
Dairy farming
Rabbit farming
Pig farming
Goat farming
Bee keeping
Poultry farming
Agroforestry like, poplar.

Question 5.
What do you mean by inter cropping system? Describe with examples.
Answer:
Intercropping system. Inter cropping is also called mixed cropping system. Inter cropping is done to get high yield from small land holding, get higher income and to fulfil requirements of the population.

Due to increase in factories, expansion of residential areas, land under cultivation is decreasing day by day. Therefore, it is the need of the hour to obtain maximum yield from the available land. For this inter cropping is done e.g. Maize or moong, Arhar or moong, Soyabean or moong, Maize or soyabean, Maize or maize for green fodder or groundnut, Cotton or maize etc. Due to intercropping there is no bad effect on the yield of the main crop. This system helps in maintaining the soil fertility. Problem of weeds is also reduced to large extent.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Crop Diversification Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How much land is under the cultivation of rice?
Answer:
Approximately 28.3 lakhs hectare.

Question 2.
How much land is under the cultivation of wheat?
Answer:
Approximately 35.1 lakhs hectare.

Question 3.
For the last 50 years, at the cost of which crops area under the cultivation of rice has increased?
Answer:
Groundnut, oil seed crops, sugarcane, pulses.

Question 4.
How much water is consumed by rice-wheat crop cycle in a year?
Answer:
215 cm.

Question 5.
How much water is consumed by rice crop out of total water consumed in a year by rice-wheat crop cycle?
Answer:
80%

Question 6.
How much total area in Punjab is under the cultivation of various crops?
Answer:
41.58 lakhs hectare.

Question 7.
In how many zones has Punjab been divided on agroclimatic basis?
Answer:
Three zones-sub mountainous zone, central zone, south-western zone.

Question 8.
Submountainous zone lies at foothills of which hill?
Answer:
Himalayan foothills.

Question 9.
How much area under sub-mountainous region is covered by Kandi belt?
Answer:
Approximately 9%

Question 10.
Which is the main crop cycle in Punjab?
Answer:
Wheat-rice.

Question 11.
Which crop rotation cycle is adopted in South-Western Zone?
Answer:
Cotton-Wheat.

Question 12.
What is the quality of ground water in south-western zone?
Answer:
Its is saline or saline sodic.

Question 13.
Name the crops used as green manure.
Answer:
Jantar, Rawanh (Cowpea).

Question 14.
If maize is to be sown then for how many days before green manure should be ploughed in the fields?
Answer:
8-10 days before sowing maize.

Question 15.
Dried bits of which crop can be used as green manure?
Answer:
Summer moong.

Question 16.
How much protein content is contained in soyabean?
Answer:
35-40%.

Question 17.
Which crop contributed a lot in bringing white revolution?
Answer:
Fodder crops.

Question 18.
How much fodder is given to cows and buffaloes on daily basis for higher milk yield?
Answer:
40 kg green fodder.

Question 19.
Write vegetable based crop system for villages which are near to city.
Answer:
Cauliflower-tomato-ladyfinger.

Question 20.
Write vegetable based crop system for villages which are far away from city.
Answer:
Potato-ladyfinger-early sown cauliflower.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about Kandi area?
Answer:
It is the nearly 9% area under the sub-mountainous zone.

Question 2.
What is the problem found in central zone of Punjab?
Answer:
The cropping cycle adoped in this zone is of wheat-rice and due to this cycle underground water is going down at the rate of 74 cm per year.

Question 3.
Why is soyabean best alternate for rice crop?
Answer:
Rice yield is decreased due to attack of insects and pests and diseases. Therefore, soyabean is best alternate for rice crop.

Question 4.
What is the advantage of inter cropping system?
Answer:
Inter cropping system is helpful in maintaining the fertility of the soil. Problem of weeds is also decreased to large extent.

Question 5.
Suggest vegetable cropping system for farms which are nearby city.
Answer:

Brinjal (long)- late cauliflower-bottle gourd
Potato – muskmelon
Spinach-knol khol- onion or green chilli or radish.
Cauliflower – tomato-ladyfinger.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Suggest maize based and soyabean based cropping systems.
Answer:
1. Maize based cropping system-
Some of the maize based cropping systems are:

Maize – Potato – Moong or sunflower.
Maize – Potato or toria – sunflower
Maize-potato – onion or mentha etc.

These cropping systems help in conserving the natural sources.

2. Soyabean based cropping system-
Soyabean based cropping system is-Soyabean – wheat- rawanh (Cowpea) (fodder)
Rice yield is decreased due to attack of insects and p@6ts and diseases. Therefore soyabean is best alternate for rice crop. Soyabean is a leguminous crop. It helps in fixing nitrogen in the soil and thus helps in maintaining the fertility of the soil. Soyabean is a good source of protein. It contains nearly 35-40% protein content. It is used to prepare soya milk, soya cheese, soyanutri etc.

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Physical Education Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When Indian Olympic Association came into existence?
Answer:
In 1927.

Question 2.
Who was the first president of Indian Olympic Association?
Answer:
Sh. Dorab Ji Jotsi.

Question 3.
Who was the first Assistant Secretory of Indian Olympic Association?
Answer:
Sh. J.D. Sondhi.

Question 4.
The Office Bearers of Indian Olympic Association are elected after five years. (Right or Wrong.)
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
Write any more work of I.O.A.
Answer:
To organise competition of different games and provide the information to International Olympic Committe.

Question 6.
What do you mean I.O.A.
Answer:
International Olympic Association.

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

Question 7.
What stands for I.O.C?
Answer:
International Olympic Committee.

Question 8.
Write the name of one Sports Federations of your choice.
Answer:
Basket Ball Federation of India.

Question 9.
Name any two Indian Sport Federations which are affiliated with Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:

Indian Hockey Federation.
All India Football Association.

Question 10.
Write any one objective of Indian Olympic Committee.
Answer:
To promote Olympic Movement and patronise Amateur sport.

Question 11.
Where were the first modern Olympic games held?
Answer:
They were held in Athens, Greece in 1981.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about C.K. Naidu Trophy.
Answer:
C.K. Naidu Trophy:
This tournament is organised by the Schools Games Federation of India every year. The trophy is named after a very outstanding and famous cricket player C.K. Naidu. This competition is for school boys and is conducted on knock-out basis. The losing team goes out of the tournament.

Question 2.
What do you know about Ranji Trophy?
Answer:
Ranji Trophy:
A meeting of sports lovers was held at Shimla in 1934 under the presidentship of Sir Sikandar Hyat. A proposal to conduct National Level Cricket Competition was discussed in this meeting. Maharaja Sir Bhupinder Singh of Patiala decided to donate a trophy in the name of Mr. Ranjit Singh, who was very outstanding cricketer, for the national level cricket tournament.

This competition is organised every year by the Cricket Control Board. It is organised on inter-state level on league basis. The winner teams of the states from their zone again play on knock out basis. The state of Maharashtra (Bombay) have won this trophy more than fifteen times. The Railways Sports Board also participate in the tournament.

Question 3.
Write few lines regarding Santosh Trophy.
Answer:
Santosh Trophy:
The king of Kooch Bihar Maharaja Santosh donated a trophy for National Football Competition which became very famous as Santosh Trophy. This tournament is organised by one of the members of Indian Football Association every year. All the different. states of India, Railways and Senior teams participate in this tournament. This tournament is organised on knock-out cum league basis. Bengal has won this trophy many times and Punjab won this championship in 1970 at Jalandhar.

Question 4.
What do you know about Rovers Cup?
Answer:
Rovers Cup:
This Football tournament is organised every year by Rovers Cup Tournament Committee. All good teams from different parts of the country participate in this competition which is organised as knock out cum league basis.

Question 5.
Write regarding Subroto Mukerjee Cup.
Answer:
Subroto Mukerjee Cup:
It is also known as Junior Durand Competition. This tournament is organised to commend the sweet memory of Air Marshall Subroto Mukerjee. This tournament is organised every year in Delhi by Durand Committee. In this tournament upto Sixteen year old players can take part. The very outstanding players of this tournament awarded scholarships by the Govt, of India.

Question 6.
Write a note on Ranga Swami Cup (National Hockey Championship)
Answer:
Ranga Swami Cup (National Hockey Championship):
Indian Hockey Association organised first National Hockey Championship in 1927. This competition is famous as National Hockey Competition. A citizen of Newzealand named Mooris presented a shield for the winners of National Competition in 1935. This competition was organised after every two years from 1928-1944.

In 1946 the Punjab state won this championship and the shield of this competition was lying with the then secretary of Mr. Bakshish Ali Sheikh. After the partition of India in 1947 this shield remained in Pakistan. After the partition the owners of “The Sports and Pastime” and “The Hindu” and Chennai (Madras) donated a new cup for this competition in the honour of Chief Editor Late Sh. Ranga Swami.

For this reason National Hockey Championship is known as Ranga Swami Cup Tournament. Since 1947, National Hockey Championship has been organised every year. Uttar Pradesh won this championship for first time and Punjab had an honour to win this championship in 1949. This competition was earlier organised on knock out basis but these days it is organised on League cum Knock out basis.

Question 7.
What do you know about Agha Khan Cup?
Answer:
Agha Khan Cup:
Maharaja Agha Khan had donated a cup in 1860 for the first time for the competition. This tournament became famous as Agha Khan Cup after his name. The Charlier Regiment won this cup permanently in 1912. Maharaj Agha Khan donated another cup for the competition. The winning team of this championship is awarded the same cup these days. The Bombay Gymkhana had an honour to win this cup for the first time. The Punjab Police won this Agha Khan cup in 1948. This tournament is organised by the Agha Khan tournament Committee. The most outstanding teams of India participate in this tournament. This tournament is organised as knock out basis.

Question 8.
Write about Bombay Gold Cup or All India Nehru Senior Hockey Competition.
Answer:
Bombay Gold Cup:
Bombay state got prepared a Gold Cup worth 10,000/- from its provincial funds and donated it for the competition which became famous as Bombay Gold Cup Tournament. This competition is organised by the Bombay (Now Maharashtra) Hockey Association every year. Lousit Anion Club Bombay won this prestigious cup the first time. Punjab Hawks had an honour to win this cup in 1928. This competition is organised on knock cum league basis.

All India Nehru Senior Hockey Competition:
This tournament originated in 1964 in the sacred memory of Late Prime Minister Sh. Jawahar Lal Nehru. In the sacred memory of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru this tournament was named Nehru Hockey Competition. This competition is organised on knock-out cum league basis. Very outstanding teams participate in this tournament. Uttar Pradesh had the honour to win the inaugural championship. The prize distribution is performed by the President of India every year in this competition.

Question 9.
Write a note on the following:
1. All India Nehru Junior Hockey Competition
2. Beigton Cup.
Answer:
1. All India Nehru Junior Hockey Competition:
Nehru Hockey Tournament Committee organises this Junior Hockey Competition every year in Delhi. In this competition only 14-16 year old players can take part. The outstanding teams of different states participate in this tournament. The Education Dept, of Govt, of India gives scholarship to all outstanding sports persons. The final match of this tournament is played on 14th November on the birthday of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru.

2. Beigton Cup:
This is the oldest competition of our country which was organised for the first time in 1895. This cup was donated by Legal Advisor Sh. T.D. Beigton of Bengal. For this reason this tournament is known as Beigton Cup Tournament. Naval V.A.C. won this cup on the first occasion, Unfortunately this original cup was stolen from Railway Institute Asansole but Railway Institute has donated another same type of cup for the competition which is awarded to the winners of this tournament even today. This competition is organised every year by the West Bengal Hockey Association on knock out basis. Very outstanding teams take part in this competition. Punjab Police got an opportunity to win this cup in 1966.

Question 10.
What do you know about Durand Cup Competition?
Answer:
Durand Cup:
This cup was donated by the Foreign Secretary of British India Mr. Mortimor Durand in 1895 for the competition of British soldiers. Firstly this competition was played at Shimla. The name of this tournament was Shimla Tournament. This competiton was organised in Delhi after 1950. The Regiment of Black Begh won this cup permanently in 1899.

Afterwards Mr. Mortimor donated another cup for this competition. In this tournament after 1931, civilians teams also started taking part along with military teams. Patiala Tigers got opportunity to participate in this tournament as civilian team. This tournament is organised every year on knock-out cum league basis. Very outstanding teams of the country and abroad participate in this tournament.

Question 11.
Write a note on sports competitions in India.
Answer:
Everybody possesses a spirit of competition. This spirit inspires him to take steps forward for his progress in his life. This spirit also helps him to get honours in his life. The competitions were held in Ancient India, some of which were in very bad taste. In combat a player used to kill his opponent. But with the passage of time the spirit of brotherhood emerged in sports competitions. The competition satisfied the emotions of person these days. In these competitions he can get skill and become experts.

He become successful in his best performance in the field of sports. These competitions not only provide recreation but also make him healthy. In Ancient times. Horse Riding, Archery, Javelin throwing and wrestling were most popular activities. The competition of these events were organised. With the passage of time and due to the Britishers contact with Indians the game of Hockey, Foot Ball and Cricket became popular and national level competition of these games are organised these days.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in detail about Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:
Modern Olympic Games came into existence in the Greek city of Athens in 1896. Mr. Baron de Coubertin made a great contribution in the revival of Olymplic games. India took part in Olympic in 1900. The Indian Olympic Association. The Indian Olympic Association was founded in 1927. It came into existence with the efforts of Sh. A.G. Neohren and Mr. H.C. Buck. Its first President was Mr. Dorabji Tata. Mr. G.D. Sondhi was its Assistant Secretary. This Association has been working since 1927, and is affiliated to International Olympic Association.

Selection of Office Bearers:
The office bearers of this Association are selected for four years.,Nobody can hold a post for more than eight years. In other words, nobody can participate in the election for more than two terms. National Sports Federations and State Sports Associations are affiliated to their respective International Sports Federations. The National Federations have state-level bodies in their respective games such as State Olympic Association, etc. They control the organization of tournaments in states.

Working:
Its office bearers are elected every fourth year.
The following are the members of its Executive Council:

President
Seven Vice-Presidents
One General Secretary
Two Assistant Secretaries
One Honorary Treasurer
Five members are elected from among the representatives of State Olympic Associations.
Nine members are elected from among the representatives of National Federation/Associations and Service Sports Control Board.

The members of this association are elected for four years. No office bearer can hold his post for more than two consecutive terms or eight years.

Functions of Indian Olympic Association:

To organise Amateur Sport competition in India and conform them to the international Olympic Committee.
To make plans. To make short term and long term plans with the help and co-operation of State Olympic Association for non professional players.
To use Olympic Flag and the motto on behalf of India and settle all issues regarding dispute of any state Olympic Association and follow the Olympic chart.
To establish different state Olympic Associations in all states and supervise their expenditure.
To allow All Associations of different games to participate in international competitions and give financial assistance for these competitions.
This committee insists that every year Olympic week must be celebrated in the month of August. The Olympic movement and its Philosophy must be popularised among Indians.

Question 2.
Describe the main Objectives of Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:
Objectives:
This Association has been constituted with the following objectives in view:
1. For the progress of the Olympic Movement and development of Amateur Games.

2. For the encouragement and promotion of physical, moral and cultural education of the youth in order to make them good and healthy citizens of high character.

3. For enforcing all rules formulated by International Olympic Association.

4. To protect and enforce the right of the use of Olympic flag and insignia only by the association. To ensure that both remain confined to Olympic games.

5. To function fully like a government organization, and take hold of all the matters pertaining to the Olympic games in the country.

6. To apprise the countrymen with the value and importance of Amateur games.

7. To control all Indian sports teams and their organization with the co-operation of Indian Sports Federations and Associations the teams which fall under International Olympic Committee and which participate in Olympic games and such other games.

8. To enforce rules with the co-operation of national sports federations, and associations.

9. To maintain the high ideals of sports and promote the interest of the people in Olympic games and those games which are under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

10.To control all matters relating to India’s Participation in the Olympic games and those games falling under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

11.To arrange with the co-operation of national sports federations and associations economic assistance, transportation, care and welfare of those Indian teams which take part in the Olympic games and other games falling under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

12. It certifies Indian players participating in international competitions as regards to their amateur level.

13. It promotes the people’s interest in Olympic games, and towards this objective it forms Olympic Association in each state and a National Amateur Sports Federation.

14. It acts as a mediator between National Sports Federation and Indian Govt, for financial assistance.

15. It affiliates the state-level Olympic Associations and National Amateur Sports Federation. The state level Olympic

16. Associations and National Amateur Sports Federation send their annual reports to the International Olympic Association.

17. It initiates disciplinary action against that Federation that brings dishonour through some improper deed.

18. It will do anything to promote Amateur Sports and games.

Question 3.
What do you know about Olympic Chart?
Answer:
Olympic Chart:
All sports competitions at the national and international levels are organized under the supervision of National Sports Federation and Indian Olympic Association. There is no discrimination of caste, colour, and creed, etc. in it. But the Olympic Chart is silent over the question of governmental intervention in case National Sports Federation and Indian Olympic Association function in a way as to hurt the interests of sports in the country.

But the members of the International Olympic Committee have time and again said that the government which provides funds to various sports organization should remain vigilant as to how these funds are being utilized. The government can supervise the functioning of all sports bodies. The International Federation seeks the views of the government when National Sports Federation (N.S.F.) and Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) fail to perform their duties, or when opposite Federations come into being.

The government of the country in which international games such as Asian Games are being held holds such responsibility. The government should provide adequate financial help to federations so that sports and games may be developed in the country. It should not remain a silent spectator if National Sports Federation (N.S.F.) and Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) fail to discharge their duties properly, such as in the fair selection of teams and their training. Keeping in view these points, the government has framed certain guidelines for these sports bodies, but it is pity that many a time these guidelines are totally ignored.

Question 4.
Describe the functions of All Indian Sports Federations or State Sports Associations.
Answer:
All Indian Sports Federation and State Sports Associations are affiliated to their respective international sports Federation. All sports Federations have established their State Associations in all states of India just like state Olympic Association.

Functions:
1. To Conduct Competitions: To conduct senior and juniors sports competitions every year at district, state and national levels.

2. Planning: To frame a One-year and Four-year plans to prepare a national team.

3. To arrange equipment:
To arrange equipment and other essential items to raise the standard of games. If some items are to be imported from abroad, these are to be got through Indian Olympic Association or Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala with the help of Union Education Ministry.

4. Attendance of Selectors: It ensures the attendance of its selectors at the Senior or Junior level competitions at the state or national level.

5. Prepare and Publish List of Probabilities: To prepare and publish national and international probabilities.

6. To appoint National Coach: Each National Federation/ Association will appoint a National Coach.

7. Help in Selection of National Teams:
It will help Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) and All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.) to select national teams for international competitions.

8. To Frame Rules of Games: In co-operation with Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala, it frames rules of games.

9. Training of Umpires and Coaches:
It helps Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala and Indian Olympic Association in the training of umpires and coaches.

10. To Prepare a Panel of Selectors: It prepares a panel of selectors purely on merit basis.

11. Selection of Office Bearers:
The selection of its office bearers should be done according to the constitution of the Federation. At the time of selection it should invite one observer each from Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) and All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.)

12. Settling Disputes:
If there is some dispute in some Sports Federation, it is referred to I.O.A. or I.I.C.S. Its decision has to be obeyed. If there is some dispute between Indian Olympic Association and National Sports Federation, it is referred to and decided by All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.).

13. Audit of Accounts: It is the responsibility of the Federation to present the audited report of its accounts in time.

Question 5.
Write the names of different Associations of India which are affiliated with Indian Olympic Associations.
Answer:
Federations or Associations Regarding Different Games or Sports. The various Federations or Associations of different games or sports are as follow:

The Indian Hockey Federation, 1925
The All India Football Federation, 1937
The Swimming Federation of India, 1940
The Amateur Athletic Federation of India, 1544
The Wrestling Federation of India, 1948
The Volleyball Federation of India, 1951
The Basketball Federation of India, 1950
The National Rifle Association of India, 1953
The Gymnastic Federation of India, 1951
The Indian Amateur Boxing Federation, 1958
The National Cycle Federation, 1938
The Board of Control for Cricket in India, 1926
The All India Tennis Association, 1920
The Table Tennis Federation of India, 1938
The All India Badminton Association, 1934
The Indian Hand Ball Association, 1969-70
The Archery Association, 1968
The Kabaddi Federation of India, 1951-52
The Indian Polo Association, 1892
The Indian Weight Lifting Federation, 1935
The Indian Billiards Association, 1940
The Indian Squash Racket Association, 1953

In addition to the above Federations and Associations, there are some national level sports bodies which have their own identity-

The Service Sports Control Boards, 1919 (restructured in 1945)
School Games Federation of India, 1954
Inter Varsity Sports Control Board.
The Railway Sports Control Board.
All India Police Sports Council Board.

Similarly, there are associations of different games in different states. They are affiliated to National Sports Federation/Association. Their chief functions are to organise Inter-District sports competitions in their respective states, organize coaching camps, and ensure the participation of state teams in national level competitions.

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances

Science Guide for Class 6 PSEB Motion and Measurement of Distances Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 103)

Question 1.
The length of a curved line can be measured by a metre scale directly. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
The metre is standard unit of length. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Motion and Measurement of Distances Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercise – 1

1. Fill in the Blanks :

(a) One metre is ………………… cm.
Answer:
100

(b) Five kilometre is ………………. m.
Answer:
5000

(d) Motion of the needle of a sewing machine is ……………….
Answer:
Periodic motion

(e) Motion of wheel of a bicycle is ……………..
Answer:
Circular motion

2. Write True or False:

(a) Handspan or foot step are standard units of measurement.
Answer:
False

(b) Standard unit of length is metre.
Answer:
True

(d) Length of a curved line can be measured by a scale.
Answer:
False

(e) Motion of hands of a clock is a circular motion.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column A with Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Metre	(a) Periodic Motion
2. Circular Motion	(b) Length
3. 1 Km	(c) Linear Motion
4. Train on track	(d) Hands of Clock
5. Swing	(e) 1000 m

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Metre	(b) Length
2. Circular Motion	(d) Hands of Clock
3. 1 Km	(e) 1000 m
4. Train on track	(c) Linear Motion
5. Swing	(a) Periodic Motion

Exercise – 2

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
In motor vehicles which of the following is used for measuring the distance covered by the vehicle ?
(a) Speedometer
(b) Odometer
(c) Thermometer
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Odometer

Question (ii)
A student want to take the measurements of a brick, for this purpose which unit he should use ?
(a) Kilometre
(b) Meter
(c) Centimetre
(d) Hand span.
Answer:
(c) Centimetre

Question (iii)
Which one among the following is false ?
(a) 1000 m = 1 km
(b) 100 mm = 1 cm
(c) 100 cm = 1 m
(d) 10 mm = 1 cm.
Answer:
(b) 100 mm = 1 cm

Question (iv)
The motion of wings of a moving fan is …………….
(a) Circular Motion
(b) Linear Motion
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Circular Motion.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name some means of transport used in ancient time.
Answer:
Ancient means of transport :

Bullock Cart,
Hand drawn and hand pushed carts,
Palanquin carried by men,
Boats made of wood,
walked on foot,
rode on animals back (horse and donkey),
Tonga, (8) Coracles.

Question (ii)
Give two examples of periodic motion.
Answer:
Examples of Periodic motion :
(1) Motion of simple pendulum
(2) Up and down motion of needle of sewing machine.
(3) Motion of swing.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Give two examples of transport used on land, water and air.
Answer:
Examples of transport :
(1) On land : (a) Bus, (b) Car, (c) Train.
(2) On Water : (a) Ship, (b) Boat.
(3) In Air : (a) Aeroplane, (b) Helicopter.

Question (ii)
What is distance ?
Answer:
Distance. It is measurement of length between two points. It is also a length and S.l. unit of distance is metre.

Question (iii)
Arrange the following lengths in their incresing magnitude :
1 metre, 1 centimetre, 1 kilometre, 1 millimetre.
Answer:
Arrangement of lengths in increasing magnitude :
1 millimeter < 1 centimeter < 1 metre < 1 kilometer.

Question (iv)
Write the similarities and differences between the motion of a bicycle and a ceiling fan that has been switched on.
Answer:
Both bicycle and ceiling fan have circular motion. But wheel of a bi-cycle also performs linear motion on the road which is not undertaken by ceiling fan.

Question (v)
The distance between Radha’s home and her school is 3250 m. Express this distance into km.
Solution.
Distance between Radha’s home and school = 3250 m
= \(\frac{3250}{1000}\) km [∵ 1 km – 1000 m]
= 3.250 km
Answer:

7. Long Answer Type Questions :

Question (i)
Describe what precautions should be taken while measuring length or breadth of an object.
Answer:
The following precautions must be taken while using a metre scale for measuring length :
(1) The scale should be placed close and along the length of the object to be measured.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances 1

(2) If the ends of the scale are broken then in such a case one should coincide any other full mark of the scale with one edge of the object. The correct length is obtained by subtracting the reading of the mark from the reading coinciding with the other end of the object.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances 2

(3) The eye must be kept on the end point of the object where the measurement is to be taken.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances 3

Question (ii)
How many types of motion are there ? Give examples for each type.
Answer:
Different types of motion that we generally observe in our daily life are given below :
1. Linear Motion,
2. Circular Motion,
3. Periodic Motion.

1. Linear Motion. The motion of an object in a straight line is called Linear Motion.
Examples :
(a) A car or bus moving on a straight road.
(b) An athlete running on a straight track.
(c) Train running on straight track.

2. Circular Motion. Motion of an object on a circular path is called circular motion.
Examples :
(a) Motion of blades of a ceiling fan.
(b) Motion of hands of a wall clock.
(c) Motion of stone tied to the string when whirled around.

3. Periodic Motion. When an object repeats its motion after a fixed interval of time is said to have Periodic Motion.
Examples :
(a) The motion of a swing.
(b) Motion of needle of a sewing machine.
(c) Heart beat.
(d) The revolution of earth around the sun.

Question (iii)
Write an activity for measuring the length of a curved line.
Answer:
Measuring length of curved line using a thread :
The following steps should be taken while measuring the length of a curved line :
(1) Take a long, thick piece of thread.
(2) Tie a knot at one end of the thread.
(3) Place this knot on one point of curve, let it be A.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances 4
(4) Place small portion of thread along the line using fingers and thumb.
(5) Hold the thread at this end point with one hand.
(6) Using other hand, stretch a little more portion of thread along the curved line.
(7) Repeat this process till you reach the other end of line, let it be point B,
(8) Mark the point on the thread with ink.
(9) Stretch this thread on a metre scale and measure the length between the knot and the end mark on the thread. This is the length of the curved line.

Question (iv)
Why handspan or foot steps cannot be used as standard units of measurement ?
Answer:
A standard unit must be same at all places so that it is understood similarly by different persons. If a length is measured by handspans or foot steps of different person it will not be the same.
As their measure is not fixed and varies from person to person. So handspan and foot step cannot be considered as a standard unit of measurement.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Motion and Measurement of Distances Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of the following is a standard unit of length ?
(a) Decimeter
(b) Centimeter
(c) Millimeter
(d) Metre.
Answer:
(d) Metre.

Question 2.
1 kilometre = ……………..
(a) 100 m
(b) 1000 m
(c) 100 cm
(d) 10 mm.
Answer:
(b) 1000 m

Question 3.
Length of curved line can be measured by:
(a) Tailors measuring Tape
(b) Metre scale
(c) Thread
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Thread

Question 4.
The means of transportation used in water surface is:
(a) Aeroplane
(b) Boat
(c) Train
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Boat

Question 5.
The motion of a child on a swing is:
(a) Circular motion
(b) Periodic motion
(c) Linear motion
(d) Both Circular motion and Linear motion.
Answer:
(b) Periodic motion

Question 6.
1 millimetre is what part of one metre ?
(a) \(\frac{1}{10}\)th
(b) \(\frac{1}{100}\)th
(c) \(\frac{1}{1000}\)th
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{1000}\)th

Question 7.
To express the distance between Delhi and Mumbai, the standard unit of length used would be :
(a) Metre
(b) Quintal
(c) Kilometer
(d) Kilogram.
Answer:
(c) Kilometer

Question 8.
The precaution while measuring length with metre scale is:
(a) Correct position of eye
(b) Correct position of eye and proper end of metre scale
(c) Only correct end of meter scale
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Correct position of eye and proper end of metre scale

Question 9.
The SI unit of length is :
(a) Kilometre
(b) Centimetre
(c) Metre
(d) Inch.
Answer:
(c) Metre

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Curved lengths are measured by using a ……………… .
Answer:
thread

(b) Linear motion is the movement of the object in a …………….. .
Answer:
straight line

(d) The revolution of earth around the sun is an example of ……………… .
Answer:
Periodic motion

(e) Motion is the change in …………………. of an object in comparison to surrounding with time.
Answer:
position.

Write (T) against true and (F) against false statements :

(a) Swinging of our arms forward and backward is an example of a periodic motion.
Answer:
False

(b) Periodic motion helps us to measure time.
Answer:
True

(d) S.I. unit of length is centimeter.
Answer:
False

(e) Vehicle moving on a straight road is an example of linear motion.
Answer:
True

Match the following :

Column A	Column B
(1) Metre	An ancient unit of measuring length
(2) Motion	Motion of tip of ceiling fan blade
(3) Circular Motion	S.I. Unit of length
(4) Linear Motion	State of moving objects
(5) Hand span	Apple falling from a tree.

Answer:
(1) Metre – S.I. Unit of length
(2) Motion – State of moving objects
(3) Circular Motion – Motionof tip of ceiling fan blade
(4) Linear Motion – Apple falling from a tree
(5) Hand span – An ancient unit of measuring length.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the S.I. unit of length.
Answer:
S.I. unit of length is metre.

Question 2.
State the unit of distance used in each of the following cases :
(i) The height of a person
(ii) The height of mountain peak
(iii) The distance between Mumbai and Delhi.
Answer:
(i) Centimetre,
(ii) Metre,
(iii) Kilometre.

Question 3.
What type of motion does the wheel of a bicycle perform ?
Answer:
The wheel of moving bicycle performs simultaneously circular motion and linear motion.

Question 4.
Can we measure the length of a curved line directly with a metre scale ?
Answer:
No, we cannot measure the length of a curved line directly with a metre scale.

Question 5.
What type of measuring device would you use to measure the girth of a tree ?
Answer:
We can make use of either a measuring tape or a thread and metre scale to measure girth of a tree.

Question 6.
What type of motion does striker of a carrom game execute when it moves ?
Answer:
Striker in the game of carroms moves in a straight line and therefore, its motion is linear motion.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to have standard units of measurement ?
Answer:
Measurement means comparing a given quantity with another known quantity of the same kind. For the same measurement, a variety of objects can be used. But when you tell others about the measurement made by you, they will not be able to understand how much the actual measurement is. Thus to make others understand for the sake of uniformity, there is a necessity of having standard units of measurement.

Question 2.
Name two types of motions of the Earth.
Answer:
The earth has two types of motion :

Motion of the earth around the Sun. It repeats after a fixed interval of time. So, it is called periodic motion.
Motion of the earth around its axis. This motion is both periodic and circular motion as it is repeated after a same interval of time and it is along an orbit.

Question 3.
Write precautions needed while using a metre scale.
Answer:
Precautions to be taken while using a metre scale are :

The eye position should be correct.
The scale should be placed properly parallel to the length.
The scale must not have broken end. In case of broken end, any other complete mark must be taken as the initial reading coinciding with the first end.

Question 4.
The height of a person is 1.65 m. Express it into cm and mm.
Answer:
1.65 m = 1.65 × 100 = 165 cm [∵ 1 m = 100 cm]
1.65 m = 1.65 × 1000 — 1650 mm. [∵ 1 m = 1000 mm]

Question 5.
While measuring the length of a knitting needle, the reading of the scale at one end is 3.0 cm and at the other end is 33.1 cm. What is the length of the needle ?
Answer:
The length of the needle is = (33.1 – 3) cm = 30.1 cm.

Question 6.
What were different units used for measurement of length in ancient times ?
Answer:
Units for measurement in ancient times were:

length of a foot.
the width of fingers.
distance of a step.
cubit.
yard etc.

Question 7.
Give two examples each, of modes of transport used on land, water and air.
Answer:
Modes of transport.

On land are Bus, Car.
On Water. Motorized boats and ships are used as means of transport on water.
In Air. Aeroplanes and helicopters are used as means of transport in air.

Question 8.
Classify the motion of the following objects into linear motion, circular motion and Periodic motion:
Motion of child on swing, motion of a plough, motion of the needle of a sewing machine, motion of a deer, motion of earth, motion of an electric fan.
Answer:
Linear motion. Motion of a deer, motion of a plough.
Circular motion. Motion of the earth, motion of an electric fan.
Periodic motion. Motion of child on the swing, motion of the needle of a sewing machine.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Which things were being used for measurement in ancient times ?
Answer:
In ancient times length of the foot, the width of finger and distance of a step, were used for measurement.

During the Harappa civilization, some exact unit of length must have been chosen as proved by geometrical structures procured during excavation.

The length from one end of the finger to elbow, called cubit was also used as a unit of measure in ancient Egypt. It was also accepted in some other parts of the world.

In a different parts of the world, ‘foot’ was also taken as a unit of measurement of length. Different areas have a different measures of the foot.

People used to measure a yard of cloth with an open arm upto the chin. Romans measured length with their steps.

In ancient India, small measures of lengths were taken by the width of fingers or fists. These days also in some cities of India, flower sellers can be seen measuring the length of flower garlands with their arms. For convenience sake, different parts of the body have been used for measurement.

Because every person has a different measure of body parts so problems occurred during measurement. In 1970, French people invented a measurement scale known as ‘Metric System.

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits

Science Guide for Class 6 PSEB Electricity and Circuits Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 124)

Question 1.
The part of the bulb which produces light is called ……………….
Answer:
The part of the bulb which produces light is called a filament.

Question 2.
The electric bulb has ……………. terminals.
Answer:
The electric bulb has two terminals.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 128)

Question 1.
What is the function of electric switch ?
Answer:
The function of electric switch is to make (complete) or break the flow of current in the circuit.

Question 2.
In an electric circuit the circuit breaks when switch is in position.
Answer:
In an electric circuit the circuit breaks when switch is OFF in position.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Electricity and Circuits Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercise – 1

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(a) A device that is used to break or make an electric circuit is called …………….
Answer:
switch

(b) An electric bulb glows when …………… flows through it.
Answer:
current

(d) Current cannot pass through ……………..
Answer:
Insulators

2. Write True or False:

(a) Electric current can flow through metals.
Answer:
True

(b) Instead of metal wires, a jute string can be used to make a circuit.
Answer:
False

(d) When chemicals in dry cell are used up, it stops working.
Answer:
True

(e) Led based lamps are eco-friendly.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column A with Column B:

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits 1
Answer:

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Battery is a combination of:
(a) Conductors
(b) Insulators
(c) Electric cells
(d) Filaments.
Answer:
(c) Electric cells

Question (ii)
The basic electric circuit needs to have:
(a) Only a source of electric current
(b) Only a few conducting wires
(c) Only a device or appliance
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question (iii)
On passing current through an electric bulb, bulb starts emitting light because its:
(a) Filament starts emitting light and then gets heated up
(b) Thick connecting wires start emitting light and then get heated up
(c) Filament gets heated up and then starts emitting light
(d) Thick wires get heated up and then starts emitting light.
Answer:
(c) Filament gets heated up and then starts emitting light

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is electric cell ?
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits 3
Electric Cell.
It is a device used to produce electric current. In electric cell chemical energy is converted into electrical energy. An electric cell has two terminals positive ( + ) terminal and negative (-) terminal. The metal cap is the positive terminal of the cell while the metal disc is the negative terminal.

Question (ii)
What is Electric Current ?
Answer:
Electric Current. The flow of charge per unit time is called electric current. Electric current flows from positive terminal to negative terminal outside the cell.

Question (iii)
What is Electric Circuit ?
Answer:
Electric Circuit.
The arrangement between the two terminals of electric cell that provides complete path for flow of current is called electric circuit.
The diagram of an electric circuit is given in the above figure in which one electric cell is connected to bulb with the help of a switch. The bulb glows when the switch is in its “ON” position.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits 4

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Tools like screw drivers and pliers, used by electricians have handles made up of plastic, rubber, wood. Why ?
Answer:
Handles of electirical tools are made up of plastic, rubber or wood to provide insulation, so that the person/electrician can be safe from electrical shock.

Question (ii)
Why should we dry our hands before touching an electric appliance or a switch ?
Answer:
We should not touch electric gadgets live open wires or electric switches with wet hands because in such situation we can get electric shock due to easy flow of current. This may prove fatal in some cases. So we should dry our hands before touching electric appliance or a switch.

Question (iii)
A student while performing an experiment in the science lab, connected an electric bulb to an electric cell through an electric switch. He noticed that the bulb does not glow when the electric switch was set in its ON position. Mention any two reasons for this observation.
Answer:
An electric bulb connected in an electric circuit with switch in its “ON’ position if does not glow there. There can be two possible reasons which are given here below :

The filament of the bulb may be broken or the bulb may be fused. If it is so then the electric circuit will not become complete resulting in not glowing of the bulb.
The connecting wires may have been left loose at same point.

Question (iv)
Distinguish between the terms conductors and insulators of electricity. Give two examples of each type.
Answer:
Conductors. Those substances which allow electric current to pass through them are called conductors of electricity e.g. copper wire, key made of iron. Human body.
Insulators. Those substances (materials) which do not allow current to pass through them are called insulators e.g. Rubber, Plastic and Wood.

Question (v)
Explain why the bulb would not glow in the arrangement shown at below.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits 5
Answer:
We know that the bulb would light up when the electric cell starting from one terminal of the cell and ending at the other terminal of the cell is complete so that there is a continuous flow of current. In the present set up we find the elpctric circuit is incomplete (broken) and this is why the electric bulb does not glow.

Question (vi)
Match the labels with the correct parts of the circuit given below :
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits 6
Answer:

Switch (A device used for Making/Breaking a circuit).
Cell (Provides Electric Current).
Electric Bulb (Device which Lights up).

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Using the “conduction tester” on an object it was found that the bulb begins to glow. Is that object conductors or insulator. Explain.
Answer:
Because with this object the bulb begins to glow showing that the electric current is flowing in the circuit i.e. The electric circuit is complete. This can be possible only when the material of the object allows the current to flow through it and we know that only conductors allow current to flow through them. Therefore, the object is a conductor.

Question (ii)
The handles of the tools like screw drivers and pliers used by electrician for repair work usually have plastic or rubber covers on them. Can you explain why ?
Answer:
The handles of tools used by electrician for repair work usually have handles made of plastic, rubber or wood. These covers are of non-conducting material and therefore, do not allow current to pass through them. So such handles protect electricians from getting electric shock.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Electricity and Circuits Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
A device which is used to break the circuit is:
(a) Electric cells
(b) Switch
(c) Electric bulb
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Switch

Question 2.
An electric cell has terminals:
(tt) Three
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Two

Question 3.
To make electric wires is used :
(a) Rubber
(b) Aluminium
(c) Plastic
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Aluminium

Question 4.
In electric cell the source of current is:
(a) Positive terminal
(b) Negative terminal
(c) Chemical stored in it
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Chemical stored in it

Question 5.
In an electric circuit the direction of current in a cell is
(a) from positive to negative terminal
(b) from negative to positive terminal
(c) for half time from positive to negative terminal and for other half time from negative to positive terminal.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) from positive to negative terminal

Question 6.
A subsance through which electric current can flow is :
(a) Conductor
(b) Insulator
(c) Electric circuit
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Conductor

Question 7.
Cell is a device used to convert:
(a) electrical energy into light energy
(b) magnetic energy into electric energy
(c) chemical energy into electrical energy
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) chemical energy into electrical energy

Question 8.
The filament of electric bulb is made of ……………
(a) Tungsten
(b) Copper
(c) Platinum
(d) Aluminium.
Answer:
(a) Tungsten

Question 9.
What is the name of a device used for making or breaking an electric circuit ?
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits 7
(a) cell
(b) wire
(c) bulb
(d) switch.
Answer:
(d) switch

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) A device that is used to break an electric circuit is called …………… .
Answer:
switch

(b) An electric cell has ……………… terminals.
Answer:
two

(d) Our body is a ……………….. of electricity.
Answer:
conductor

(e) Electric cell is a source of ……………….. .
Answer:
current

Write (T) against true and (F) against false statements:

(a) Electric current can flow through matals.
Answer:
True

(b) Instead of metal wires, a jute string can be used to make a circuit.
Answer:
False

(d) Switch can only break a circuit.
Answer:
False

(e) Electric current can pass through human body.
Answer:
True

Match the Column:

Match the items in Column A with items in Column B.

Column A	Column B
(1) Electric cell	Electric Insulators
(2) Bakelite	To protect themselves from electric shock
(3) Electric wires	Source of electric current
(4) Electricians use rubber gloves	Copper

Answer:
(1) – Source of electric current,
(2) – Electric Insulators,
(3) – Copper,
(4) – To protect themselves from electric shock.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the source of electric current on a torch ?
Answer:
In a torch electric energy is obtained from chemicals stored in the cell.

Question 2.
Where is electric cell used ?
Answer:
Electric cell is used in alarm clocks, hand watch, Radio, Camera and other devices.

Question 3.
What is the positive terminal of electric cell ?
Answer:
Carbon rod is the positive terminal of electric cell.

Question 4.
What is the negative terminal of cell ?
Answer:
Zinc disc is the negative terminal of electric cell.

Question 5.
When does electric cell stop working ?
Answer:
When the chemicals stored in the cell are consumed up. the cell stops doing work.

Question 6.
What is filament of bulb made of ?
Answer:
The thin metallic wire which gives out light is called filament.

Question 7.
What do the two terminals of Electric cell or electric bulb represent ?
Answer:
Two terminals of Electric bulb or electric cell represent positive terminal and negative terminal.

Question 8.
If you connect wires connected to two terminals of the cell to a switch and device like bulb then what will happen ?
Answer:
By doing so the chemicals stored in the cell would be used up.

Question 9.
What is Electric circuit ?
Answer:
Electric Circuit. It is the complete path between the two terminals of the cell for continuous flow of current.

Question 10.
What is the direction of flow of current in an electric circuit ?
Answer:
In an electric circuit, the direction of flow of current is from positive terminal to negative terminal of electric cell.

Question 11.
When does electric bulb fuse ?
Answer:
When the filament of the bulb is broken, then electric circuit does not become complete and as a result the bulb does not glow than the bulb is said to have become fused.

Question 12.
What is Switch ?
Answer:
Switch. It is a simple device which is used to make or break electric circuit.

Question 13.
What type of material can be used to complete electric circuit ?
Answer:
For making electric circuit electric conducting materials can be used.

Question 14.
List three such materials which are conductors of electricity.
Answer:

Keys
Alpins
Aluminium strip metal.

Question 15.
Name four electric insulating materials.
Answer:

Cork
Rubber
Glass
Block of wood.

Question 16.
Which metal is used for making electric wires ?
Answer:
Ordinarily copper and Aluminium metals are used for making electric wires.

Question 17.
Is our body a conductor or Insulator ?
Answer:
Human body is conductor of electricity. Therefore, we should not touch uncovered open wires.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the various tasks for which we can use electricity ?
Answer:
Uses of electricity :

We light our homes with electricity.
Electricity helps us to run fan, refrigerator, television and other devices.
Electricity can also work telephones and computers.

Question 2.
Why should an electrician use gloves while repairing an electric switch at your home ? Explain.
Answer:
Electricians use rubber gloves while repairing an electric switch as rubber is an insulator and current cannot pass through it. So electrician uses rubber gloves while carrying out electrical repairs without getting electric shock.

Question 3.
What is the purpose of using an electric switch ? Name some electrical gadgets that have switches built into them.
Answer:
Switches are used to light up an electric bulb and to work other electric devices. Switches used at homes work on same principle but they have complex designs. T.V., computer, automatic electric iron have switches built into them.

Question 4.
Would the bulb glow after completing the circuit shown in the figure; if instead of safety pin we use eraser ?
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits 8
No the bulb will not glow because eraser is a non-conducting (insulating) material which does not allow the current to pass through it and complete electric circuit.

Question 5.
Would the bulb light up in the circuit shown in the figure ?
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits 9
Yes, as the current flows easily because wire is connected directly and properly and moreover the circuit is complete.

Question 6.
Pick out conductors and insulators from the following:
Coin, cork, Glass, Rubber, Keys, Pin, Plastic scale, Wooden block, Aluminium foil, Candle, Sewing needle, Thermocol, Paper and Lead of pencil.
Answer:
Conductors. Coin, Keys, Pin, Aluminium foil, Sewing needle, pencil lead.
Insulators. Cork, Rubber, Glass, Plastic scale, Wooden block, Thermocol, Candle, Paper.

Question 7.
Why are metals used for making wire ?
Answer:
Metals are good conductors of electricity therefore, metals are used for making wires. Usually copper and aluminium, metals are used to make wires.

Question 8.
Why should we not keep connected the wires attached to the terminal of an electric cell to the bulb ?
Answer:
The wires attached to the two terminals of cell should not be kept connected to the bulb and devices like switch. If we will do so then the chemicals stored in the cell will be consumed quickly and the cell will stop working as a result of this.

Question 9.
What is the direction of electric current in an electric circuit ?
Answer:
In an electric circuit the direction of electric current will be from positive terminal (+) of the cell to its negative terminal (-) as shown in the figure. When the terminals of electric bulb are joined to the terminals of the cell with the help of connecting wires, then electric current flows through the filament of the bulb and the bulb lights up.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits 10

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Explain the construction and working of an electric bulb.
Answer:
Electric bulb.
It is an electric device that provides light when an electric current is passed through it.
Construction.
A bulb has an outer case of glass that is fixed on a metallic base as shown in the figure. A thin wire is fixed in the middle of the glass case which gives off light. This thin wire is called the filament. This filament is fixed to two other thick wires to provide support to the filament. One of two thick wires is connected to the metal case at the base of the bulb. The other thick wire is connected to the metal base. The base and the metal tip at the base are the two terminals of the bulb. These two terminals are so placed that they do not touch each other.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits 11
Working.
On connecting the bulb in an electric circuit electric current begins to flow through the filament of the bulb as a result of which the filament first becomes hot and then on more heating the temperature increases and it becomes red hot and ultimately white-hot and starts emitting light.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Computer Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Computer Science Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Computer Guide for Class 7 PSEB Windows Explorer Textbook Questions and Answers

Choose the Suitable Option and fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
Windows Explorer has two panes. These are …………… and …………….
(a) First, Second
(b) Left, Right
(c) Top, Bottom
(d) File, Folder.
Answer:
(b) Left, Right

Question 2.
……………. type and date of modified of a file.
(a) Details
(b) Tiles
(c) List
(d) Content.
Answer:
(a) Details

Question 3.
………………… command is used to move an item from its place.
(a) Copy
(b) Paste
(c) Cut
(d) Delete.
Answer:
(c) Cut

Question 4.
A …………. combination of pictures, colors and sounds on our computer.
(a) Background
(b) Desktop
(c) Screen Saver
(d) Theme.
Answer:
(d) Theme.

Question 5.
A …………. software program that becomes activated after the computer is not in use for a specified duration of time.
(a) Background
(b) Desktop
(c) Screen Saver
(d) Theme.
Answer:
(c) Screen Saver.

2. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which Window application is used for management of flies?
Answer:
Windows Explorer is used to manage files properly.

Question 2.
What do we call a folder inside another folder?
Answer:
Sub-folder.

Question 3.
What is the method of opening Windows Explorer?
Answer:
There are ways to open Windows Explorer.

Press Windows key + E.
Type Explorer in the Run box.

Question 4.
Write the name of any default library of Window.
Answer:
By default Windows has four libraries-Documents, Music, Pictures, and Videos.

Question 5.
Which option is used to make a duplicate of an item?
Answer:
The copy/paste option is used to make a duplicate of an item.

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many panes are available in Window Explorer? Write their names.
Answer:
Windows Explorer has two panes.

Left pane
Right pane.

Question 2.
Write the name of different parts of Window Explorer.
Answer:
Windows Explorer has the following components:

Title bar
Back and forward buttons
Address bar
Search box
Menu bar
Tool bar
Status bar.

Question 3.
Define File and Folder.
Answer:
A file is a common storage unit in a computer in which data, programs, software, etc. are stored. Computers have different files that have different functions. The data stored in the file can be “updated, deleted, edited” at any time.
The folder is where the files are stored. We can save more than one file and folder in one folder. For example I have a box containing 10 apples. In this example the box is a folder and the apples are the files saved in it. Another folder inside any folder is called a sub-folder.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Windows Explorer? Give different ways to open Windows Explorer.
Answer:
Windows Explorer is also called File Explorer. It is used to view files and folders on our computer. We can open the data, folder and library of the disk in the computer and also search for an item. We can use it to open, delete, rename, copy, move and create new folders.
We can open window explorer in many ways. Some of these are as follow:

Just press Win key +E and File Explorer starts immediately.
Or
Click Windows-Keys > All Programs > Accessories > Windows Explorer.
Or
Press Windows key – the search box will open. Now type file explorer in it.
Or
Press Windows key +R key together. The Run box will open. Now type explorer in it.
Or
By default, Windows 10 includes a File Explorer shortcut on the taskbar. Its icon looks like a folder. Click or tap on it and File Explorer is opened.

Question 2.
Explain different views of Windows Explorer.
Answer:
View means how files and folders appear in a computer system. Explorer has five types of views. These are:
1. Small, Medium, Large and Extra Large Icons View:
Items in this view are in more than one row and each item appears in the shape of an icon. Each item has a name.

2. Tiles Icon View:
Items in this view are in more than one row and each item appears in the shape of an icon. Each item has a name. It contains other information, such as the type of file and its size.

3. List Icon View:
Items in this view are in more than one column. Each item has a name and the icon, is to the left of the name.

4. Content Icon View:
Items in this view appear in the column. Each item is in the shape of an icon. It has a name and type of the file is written below it. Some other properties such as modification date and size below it are also visible. By default this view is used for search.

5. Detail Icon View:
Each item appears as a table row. The first column contains the name of the item in the form of a small icon and the rest of the column lists its properties such as its size and the date and type of modification.

Question 3.
What are the options to customize the Desktop in Windows Environment?
Answer:
Customizing is the process of changing the settings of a desktop.
1. Themes:
Themes are a combination of pictures, colors, and sounds. It has background, screen saver, border color and sound scheme.
Windows has the following themes:

My Themes
Arrow Themes
Basic and High Contrast The-mes Following are the steps to apply the theme:

Open Settings.

Click on Personalization.
Click on Themes.
Click the Get more themes in the Microsoft Store option.
Select the theme you want.
Click the Get button.
Click the Apply button.
Click the newly added theme to apply it from the “Themes” page.

2. Desktop Background:
It is a wallpaper image that appears behind the icons on your computer’s desktop. It can be in JPEG or Gif format. The following are steps to change the desktop background:

Right-click the desktop and choose Personalize from the shortcut menu. The Personalization window appears.
Click the Desktop Background link. The Desktop Background dialog box appears.
Select a category of desktop background options from the Picture Location list box and then click the image from the background preview list that you want to use.
The background is previewed on your desktop. Click Save Changes.

3. Screen Saver:
Screen saver is the graphics that appear on the screen after not working on the computer for some time. It is used for security and protection of the screen. We can set our own screen saver.
Steps to set the screen saver: Here are the steps to set up a screen saver:

Right-click the desktop and choose Personalize from the shortcut menu. The Personalization window appears.
Click the Lock Screen option. The lock screen dialog box appears.
In the Screen Saver Settings window, choose a screen saver from the drop-down list.
Click on the Preview button to preview the screen saver.
The screensaver has to be set to run automatically from the desktop. So type the time setting in the Wait option that appears in the picture.
Click on Apply button and press Ok button.

Question 4.
How can we Copy items using the ‘send to’ option?
Answer:
The Send to Option is an easy way to copy one or more items or programs to a new location. Following are the steps to use Send to option:

Select the item to be copied.
Press the right mouse button; select the option “Send To” from the menu.
Now select the specified location. By default, the Send To sub menu contains the following locations:
- Compressed (zipped) folder
- Desktop (Create Short-cut)
- Documents Library
- Fax and mail recipients
- Removable devices, such as: USB. Memory Sticks
Select the option as needed.

Question 5.
Write about Screen Saver.
Answer:
Screen saver is the graphics that appear on the screen after not working on the computer for some time. It is used for security and protection of the screen. We can set our own screen saver.
Steps to set the Screen Saver:
Here are the steps to set up a screen saver:

Right-click the desktop and choose Personalize from the shortcut menu; The Personalization window appears.
Click the Lock Screen option. The lock screen dialog box appears.
In the Screen Saver Settings window, choose a screen saver from the drop-down list.
Click on the Preview button to-preview the screen saver.
The screensaver has to be set to run automatically from the desktop. So type the time setting in the Wait option that appears in the picture.
Click on Apply button and press Ok button

PSEB 7th Class Computer Guide Windows Explorer Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Windows Explorer has ………. views.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five.
Answer:
(d) Five.

Question 2.
The ………………. command is used to run the program.
(a) Calculator
(b) Window
(c) View
(d) Bun.
Answer:
(d) Bun.

Question 3.
The …………. view displays the files as a list.
(a) Tile
(b) Content
(c) Large
(d) I&t.
Answer:
(d) I&t.

Question 4.
The ………… option is used to copy files and folders.
(a) Cut
(b) Copy
(c) Paste
(d) Run.
Answer:
(b) Copy

Question 5.
Explorer can be run by typing …………….. in the run box.
(a) Exp
(b) Explorer
(c) Command
(d) GMD.
Answer:
(b) Explorer

Question 6.
The …………… option is used to find files and folders.
(a) Select
(b) File
(c) Search
(d) Delete.
Answer:
(c) Search

Question 7.
The calculator is opened by typing …………….. in the run box.
(a) Calculator
(b) Cal
(c) Calc
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Calc

Question 8.
The ………… command is used to remove an item from its place.
(a) Copy
(b) Paste
(c) Cut
(d) Delete.
Answer:
(c) Cut

2. True/False

Question 1.
Explorer is used to manage folders.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A folder can contain many files and folders.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
How to open Explorer
Start> All Programs> Accessories> Windows Explorer
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Explorer is a system software.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
“Invert Selection” option is used to reverse the selection.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
To select all files in a folder press Ctrl+A keys.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
A single file can contain many files and folders.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Windows Explorer is an operating system.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
The Copy option is used to duplicate an item.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Columns

Column A	Column B
1. Views of Explorer	(a) List
2. Calculator	(b) Deleted files
3. Desktop	(c) Picture, Music
4. My Documents	(d) Background
5. Recycle Bin	(e) Calculations.

Answer:

Column A	Column B.
1. Views of Explorer	(a) List
2. Calculator	(e) Calculations.
3. Desktop	(d) Background
4. My Documents	(c) Picture, Music
5. Recycle Bin	(b) Deleted files

4. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Windows Explorer?
Answer:
Windows Explorer is a very important application of operating system. This manages files and folders. It helps to keep files and folders in the correct order i.e cut, copy, paste and delete them.

Question 2.
How to delete files and folders?
Answer:
Delete command is used to delete a file or folder. Following are the steps to delete file/folder:

Select the file or folder you want to delete.
Press the Delete key from the keyboard. A message will appear asking for deletion.
Click on “Yes”. Item will be deleted.

If you want to delete file permanently then you will need to empty the Recycle Bin.

Question 3.
Write down steps to create a new folder.
Answer:
Here are some ways to Create a File in Explorer:

Select the drive or folder in the left pane where you want to create the place of the cursor where you want to add your folder.
In File Explorer, click on the Home menu item.
From the Home ribbon, click on the New folder button.
Enter the name of your new folder and press enter key.

Question 4.
How is a file or folder restored?
Answer:
Sometimes when we delete a file or folder we feel the need for it later. The Recycle Bin feature can be used to store files and folders again. The steps to restore a file or folder are as follows:

Double click on the Recycle Bin. (The Recycle Bin window will open.)
Click on the file or folder to be restored.
Click on File. Restore menu.

Question 5.
What do you know about calculators?
Answer:
Calculator:
Calculator is like a program with the help of which calculations are done. With its help +, c, z etc. calculations are done. For example, to multiply 2 by 5, first click on 2. Then click on the multiplication sign. Then click on 5. Then click the = sign. 10 will appear as a result.

5. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a series of locations? Explain in detail.
Answer:
Series of Locations:
The folders and drives in the computer, the computer connected to the network and its shared folders, drives and printers are arranged in a tree shape. This sequence is called a series of locations. It contains the following items:

1. Favorites:
The top most folder in this series is the Desktop folder. It contains desktop, downloads and recent place items.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 1

2. Library Folder:
By default this folder contains four libraries, such as; Documents, music, photos and videos. These folders contain related items; Such as pictures in pictures folder, related videos in video folder, etc.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 2

3. Personal Folder:
Your personal folder is named after the user name to which you have logged in to the computer and by default it contains the following folders; such as Contacts, Downloads, Favorites, Links, My Documents, My Music, My Pictures, My Videos, Saved Games and Search.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 3

4. MY Computer:
Disks in a computer; such as C: drive, D: Drive, E: Drive etc. and other connected devices such as Printer, USB, memory- stick and camera are attached to the computer, they are visible here.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 4

5. Network: If you are connected to a local network, you see other computers and devices in it.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 5

6. Control Panel:
Control Panel is used to configure hardware and software of computer system and to change settings of computer system.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 6

7. Recycle Bin: It contains deleted files/folders or programs.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 7

Question 2.
How are items selected? Write different ways to do this.
Answer:
Selecting the Items:
Usually before doing any work on a file or folder such as opening a file, closing a file, deleting file, copy a file etc. we have to select it. There are different ways to select a single file/folder or multiple files/folders.

1. Selecting a Single Item:
If more than one item is available and you want to select one of the items in it, it can be selected by clicking with the mouse on that file.

2. Selecting More Than One File:
There are a few ways to select more than one file at a time:

(a) If your viewing your files as icons, you can click and drag the mouse to draw a box around the files you want to select. When you’re done, release the mouse; the files will be selected. You can now move, copy, or delete all of these files at the same time.

(b) Selecting All Items:
If you want to select all files in a folder at the same time, open the folder in File Explorer and press Ctrl+A or click “Select all” option from the “Select” group on the Home tab. All of the files in the folder will be selected.

(c) Select items using the Shift key:
To select a group of files from a folder, click the first file, press and hold the Shift key on your keyboard, then click the last file. All of the files between the first and last ones will be selected.

(d) Selecting an item using (Ctrl key):
To select specific files from a folder, press and hold the Control key on your keyboard, then click the files you want to select.

3. Reverse selection: To reverse the selection, select the “Invert Selection” option in the Edit menu.

Question 3.
Write different ways to create a folder.
Answer:
Creating a Folder
If you want to create a new folder, it is created in the current location. Here are some ways to create a folder:
1. Open the File explorer, click on the “New Folder” button option.
2. The new folder will appear.
Type the desired name for the folder and press Enter.
Or
Press the Ctrl + Shift + N keys together from the keyboard. The new folder will appear. Type the name of the folder and press Enter key.
Or
Right-click on a blank space, click “New” => “Folder” in the context menu. The new folder will appear. Type the name of the folder and press Enter key.
Or

Place the cursor where you want to add your folder.
In File Explorer, click on the Home menu item.
From the Home button, click on the New folder button.
Enter the name of your new folder and press

Question 4.
Write the steps to rename the item.
Answer:
Re-naming the Item:
You can change the name of any file or folder. Here are the steps to rename an item:
1. Click the file or folder, wait about one second, and click again. An editable text field will Explore appear. open
2. Type the desired name on your keyboard and press Enter. The name will be changed.

Or
1. You can also right-click the Cut folder and select “Rename” copy option from the menu that create shortcut appears. An editable text field will appear.
2. Type the desired name from Properties keyboard and press Enter. The name will be changed.

Question 5.
Write the steps to delete an item.
Answer:
Delete a File or Folder:
If you no longer need to use a file, you can delete it. When you delete a file, it is moved to the Recycle Bin, If you change your mind, you can move the file from the Recycle Bin back to its original location. If you’re sure you want to permanently delete the file, you will need to empty the Recycle Bin. Following are the steps to delete file/folder:

Select the file or folder you want to delete.
Press the Delete key from the keyboard. A message will appear asking for deletion.
Click on “Yes”. Item will be deleted.

Question 6.
Write the steps for copying or pasting items.
Answer:
Copying or Pasting Items:
To copy a file/folder the steps are as follow:
1. Select the item to be copied.

2. Select the “Copy” option from the “Clipboard” group on the “Home” tab.
Or
Press Ctrl + c keys from the keyboard.
Right-click on the file/folder you want to copy. A menu will open. From this menu select the “copy” option. Now your file/folder will be copied. Steps to paste the file/Folder are as follow:
1. Place the cursor where you want to paste the file/folder.
2. Select the “Paste” option from the “Clipboard” group on the “Home” tab.
3. Your copied item will now be pasted.
Or
Press the Ctrl + V key from the keyboard.
Or
Locate and right-click the desired location, then select “Paste” option from the menu appeared.

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets

Science Guide for Class 6 PSEB Fun with Magnets Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 135)

Question 1.
Materials attracted by a magnet are called ……………….
(Magnetic/Non-magnetic)
Answer:
Materials attracted by a magnet are called magnetic.

Question 2.
Materials not attracted by a magnet are called ……………..
(Magnetic/Non-magnetic)
Answer:
Materials not attracted by a magnet are called Non-magnetic.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 136)

Question 1.
A freely suspended bar magnet always points towards direction:
(a) North-South (b) East-West
Answer:
A freely suspended bar magnet always points towards direction : North-South

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 138)

Question 1.
The poles of a bar magnet are ……………… to its ends. (near/far)
Answer:
The poles of a bar magnet are near to its ends.

Question 2.
Bar magnet has ……………… poles.
Answer:
Bar magnet has two poles.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 139)

Question 1.
Magnetic compass is a device to find the ……………. of earth, (directions/time)
Answer:
Magnetic compass is a device to find the directions of earth.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 140)

Question 1.
Like poles of two magnets ……………. each other. (Repel, Attract)
Answer:
Like poles of two magnets repel each other.

Question 2.
Unlike poles of two magnets …………… each other. (Repel, Attract)
Answer:
Unlike poles of two magnets attract each other.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Fun with Magnets Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercise – 1

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Magnetite is ……………… magnet.
Answer:
natural

(b) Plastic is not a ……………… material.
Answer:
magnetic

(d) The poles of a bar magnet are at its ………………
Answer:
ends

(e) ………………. is used for finding directions on earth.
Answer:
Compass

2. Write True or False:

(a) Poles of a magnet can be separated.
Answer:
False

(b) A magnet does not attract glass material.
Answer:
True

(d) Magnetic compass always points towards East-West direction.
Answer:
False

(e) Magnets lose their property on hammering.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column A with Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Wood	(a) Repel
2. Iron	(b) Natural Magnet
3. North pole-North pole	(c) Non-magnetic material
4. Magnetite	(d) Attract
5. North pole-South pole	(e) Magnetic material

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Wood	(c) Non-magnetic material
2. Iron	(e) Magnetic material
3. North pole-North pole	(a) Repel
4. Magnetite	(b) Natural Magnet
5. North pole-South pole	(d) Attract

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Non-magnetic material is:
(a) Iron
(b) Needle
(c) Paper
(d) None of them.
Answer:
(c) Paper

Question (ii)
Which can be converted into magnet
(a) Eraser
(b) Iron Nail
(c) Wooden bar
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Iron Nail

Exercise – 2

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Write name of any two things used in our daily life that contains magnet.
Answer:
Things containing magnet in daily use : (1) Door Closer (2) Sticker (Chipko).

Question (ii)
When a bar magnet is placed on iron filings, where the filings will be attracted more ?
Answer:
When a bar magnet is placed on iron filings, the iron filings are attracted more at the poles of the magnet. This happens because a magnet has more attractive power at its poles.

Question (iii)
What is a Artificial Magnet ?
Answer:
Artificial Magnet. A magnet made by a man in the laboratory is called Artificial Magnet.

Question (iv)
Write any two properties of magnet ?
Answer:
Properties of Magnet :

A magnet when freely suspended always sets itself in North-South direction.
Every magnet has two poles : (a) North pole and the other (b) South pole which cannot be separated.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is a magnet ? Name the poles of magnet.
Answer:
Magnet. A substance which attracts iron and substances made of iron towards itself, is called Magnet. Every magnet has two poles : (1) North pole and (2) South pole. These two poles cannot be separated.

Question (ii)
Give three reasons by which a magnet loses its property.
Answer:
Reasons by which a magnet loses its property :

By heating a magnet
By striking a magnet with hammer
Dropping a magnet from height
By not properly storing a magnet.

Question (iii)
What is a compass ? For what purpose it is used ?
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets 1
Magnetic compass.
It is an instrument which is used to determine the geographical directions of earth. It has a small magnetic needle enclosed in a plastic or aluminium circular box and is supported on a vertical axis. The needle can freely rotate in a horizontal direction freely.

The north pole of the needle is painted red to distinguish it from the other pole.
Geographical direction are marked on the dial of the compass.

Question (iv)
What are magnetic and non-magnetic materials ? Give examples.
Answer:
Magnetic materials.
Those substances which are attracted towards magnet, are called magnetic materials. As for example Iron, Cobalt and Nickle.

Non-magnetic materials.
Those materials which are not attracted towards magnet are called Non-magnetic materials e.g. Wood, Plastic, Paper and Cloth.

7. Long Answer Type Question:

Question (i)
How will you make your own magnet from a given strip of iron ? Describe.
Answer:
Method of making Iron strip a magnet (By Rubbing)
Take an iron strip. Place it on a table. Now take a bar magnet and place one of its pole on one end of the strip. Now without lifting the magnet rub it gently along the length of the strip to its other end. Now lift the magnet and bring the same pole of the magnet to the previous end of the strip. Rub the magnet as before. Repeat this process 30-40 times. Now to test whether the iron strip has become magnet or not, bring some alpins or some iron filings near one of its ends. If alpins/iron filings are attracted then the given iron strip has become magnet otherwise not. If not, then continue the process of rubbing till it acquires magnetism. Note that the rubbing pole and the direction of rubbing the strip does not change.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets 2

Precautions : (1) The direction of rubbing with magnet has to be the same.
(2) While rubbing the pole of the magnet should remain the same everytime.

Question (ii)
Give some uses of magnets in our daily life.
Answer:
Uses of magnets in daily life :

Magnet is used in hard disc of computers which we use daily.
Magnets are used in TV, speakers and radios magnet and coil used in speakers convert electric signals into sound.
These are used in generators which change mechanical energy into electric energy. In some other type of motors magnets are used to convert electric energy into mechanical energy.
Electrically charged magnets in cranes help to lift heavy iron loads and carry them from one place to another place which cannot be done by human labour.
Magnets are used in filter machines where are is separated from crushed rock pieces.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Fun with Magnets Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question (i)
A magnet has poles :
(a) Three
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Two

Question (ii)
A magnet attracts :
(a) Iron
(b) Rubber
(c) Glass
(d) Wood.
Answer:
(a) Iron

Question (iii)
On suspending a magnet freely it always stays in:
(a) North-West direction
(b) North-East direction
(c) North-South direction
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) North-South direction

Question (iv)
A magnet made from iron is called:
(a) Artificial magnet
(b) Natural magnet
(c) Spherical ended magnet
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Artificial magnet

Question (v)
To preserve the properties of a magnet the pairs of magnet should be with:
(a) similar poles near each other
(b) dissimilar poles near each other
(c) poles struck with hammer
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) dissimilar poles near each other

Question (vi)
For ascertaining direction is used :
(a) Magnous rod
(b) Non-magnetic substances
(c) Compass
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Compass

Question (vii)
In which part of the magnet, the force of attraction is maximum ?
(a) At the ends
(b) In the middle
(c) Between the end and the centre of magnet
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) At the ends

Question (viii)
The similar poles of the magnet mutually :
(a) attract each other
(b) repel each other
(c) neither attract nor repel
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) repel each other

Question (ix)
Between dissimilar poles of a magnet there is :
(a) Attraction
(b) Repulsion
(c) Neither attraction nor repulsion
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Attraction

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Artificial magnets are made in different shapes such as …………….. , …………… and ……………..
Answer:
bar magnets, horse-shoe magnet, cylindrical,

(b) The materials which are attracted towards magnet are called ………………
Answer:
Magnetic materials

(d) In olden days, sailor used to find direction by suspending a piece of ………………
Answer:
Natural magnet (load stone)

(e) A magnet always has ……………… poles.
Answer:
two

Write (T) against true and (F) against false Statements:

(a) A cylindrical magnet has only one pole.
Answer:
False

(b) Artificial magnets were discovered in Greece.
Answer:
False

(d) Maximum iron filings stick in the middle of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.
Answer:
False

(e) Bar magnet always point towards North-South direction.
Answer:
True

(f) A compass can be used to find East-West direction at any place.
Answer:
True

(g) Rubber is a magnetic material.
Answer:
False

Matching Match the following:

Column A	Column B
(1) To find geographical direction at a place	Natural magnet
(2) Two dissimilar poles	Rubbing with a permanent magnet
(3) Freely suspended magnet stays	Magnetic compass
(4) An iron needle becomes megnet	Attract
(5) Magnetite	North-South direction

Answer:
(1) – Natural magnet,
(2) – Rubbing with a permanent magnet.
(3) – Magnetic compass,
(4) – Attract,
(5) – North-South direction

Very short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where are stickers (Chipko) generally used ?
Answer:
Stickers are generally used in steel almirahs or refrigerators so that these do not open when not required.

Question 2.
Name some four common things which have magnet in them.
Answer:

Pin holder,
Pencil box,
Tape recorder and
Radio.

Question 3.
Name the shepherd who first discovered natural magnet.
Answer:
Magnus.

Question 4.
What is natural magnet ?
Answer:
Natural magnet. Natural rock of magnetite found in the form of magnet is called natural magnet.

Question 5.
Name three magnetic substances.
Answer:

Iron
Nickle
Cobalt.

Question 6.
List four non-magnetic substances.
Answer:

Plastic
Cloth
Paper
Wood.

Question 7.
How iron particles separated from a mixture of iron, sand and dust ?
Answer:
Iron particles can be separated from the mixture with the help of a magnet.

Question 8.
Where do iron particles stick more at the middle of the poles of a magnet ?
Answer:
Iron particles stick more at the poles of a magnet than in the middle.

Question 9.
In which direction a freely suspended magnet stays ?
Answer:
A freely suspended magnet always stays in the North-South direction.

Question 10.
What is North pole of a magnet ?
Answer:
The end of a freely suspended magnet which points towards the geographical North is called North pole of magnet.

Question 11.
What is South pole of a magnet ?
Answer:
That end of a freely suspended magnet which points towards geographical South pole is called South pole of magnet.

Question 12.
Which property of magnet is used to determine the direction ?
Answer:
A freely suspended magnet always points in N-S direction. This property is used to determine the direction.

Question 13.
Which instrument is used to find direction ?
Answer:
Magnetic compass.

Question 14.
Do the like poles of two magnets attract or repel each other ?
Answer:
Like poles of two magnets repel each other.

Question 15.
Do unlike poles of two magnets attract or repel each other ?
Answer:
Unlike-poles of two magnets attract each other.

Question 16.
Where are poles of bar magnet situated ?
Answer:
Poles of bar magnet are situated near its ends.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How was natural magnet discovered ?
Answer:
It is believed that there was a shepherd named Magnes, who lived in ancient Greece. He used to take his herd of sheep and goats to the nearby mountains, for grazing. He would take a stick with him to control his herd. At one end of the stick there was a small piece of iron attached. One day while sitting on a rock, he was surprised to find that he had to pull hard to free his stick from that rock. He felt as if the stick was being attracted by the rock. Actually the rock was a natural magnet. This is how natural magnet was discovered. It was given the name magnetite after his own name.

Question 2.
What is magnet ? What are its different types ?
Answer:
Magnet. A magnet is a substance which attracts iron and iron made things towards it. When freely suspended it points in the North-South direction.

Types of Magnets. Mainly it is of two types.
(i) Natural magnet and
(ii) Artificial magnet

(i) Natural magnet. A magnet found in the nature is called natural magnet. Magnetite is a natural magnet.

(ii) Artificial magnet. A man made magnet is called Artificial magnet. Artificial magnets are made in different shapes. For example Bar magnet, Horse-shoe shaped magnet, Ring magnet, cylinderical magnet, Ball ended magnet.

Question 3.
It was observed that a pencil sharpener gets attracted by both the poles of a magnet although its body is made of plastic. Name a material that might have been used to make some part of it.
Answer:
The blade of sharpener is made of iron which is a magnetic material. Therefore, it is attracted by both poles of a magnet.

Question 4.
How will you separate iron particles from the sand or soil ?
Answer:
Spread mixture of sand and iron particles on a piece of paper. Move a magnet through the mixture. Iron particles will stick to the magnet. In this way, iron particles can be separated from sand or soil.

Question 5.
Show that the strength of a magnet is more at the poles that in the middle.
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets 3
Take a bar magnet and some iron fillings. Now spread iron filings on a sheet of a paper and then put the bar magnet on the filings. We will observe that iron filings are attracted by magnet most on the both ends of the magnet as shown in the figure.

This activity shows that the strength of the magnet is more at the poles than in the middle of it

Question 6.
Column I shows different positions in which one pole of magnet is placed near that of other. Column II indicates the resulting action between them for each situation. Fill in the blanks.

Column I	Column II
N – N	………………
N …………	Attraction
S – N	…………..
…….. S	Repulsion

Answer:

Column I	Column II
N – N	Repulsion
N – S	Attraction
S – N	Attraction
S – S	Repulsion

Question 7.
A bar magnet has no marking to indicate its poles. How would you find out near which end is its north pole located ?
Answer:
Identifying poles of a magnet. Take a bar magnet with poles marked on it. Suspend it freely with a thread from a wooden stand. Now take the unmarked bar magnet. Bring its one pole towards the north pole of the magnet suspended from the wooden stand. If it attracts then -it is south pole otherwise it is north pole and the other pole will be south pole.

Question 8.
Write any four properties of a magnet.
Answer:
Properties of a magnet.

Magnet has two poles, which cannot be isolated.
Magnet always rests in North-south direction when suspended freely.
Like poles of a magnet repel each other while unlike pole attract each other.
Magnet attracts magnetic substances like iron, cobalt, nickel etc.
When a magnetic substance is rubbed with magnet, it also becomes a magnet.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is artificial magnet ? Give one method of making an artificial magnet.
Answer:
Artificial magnet. A magnet made by man is called artificial magnet. It can be of different shapes e.g.
(i) Bar magnet (ii) Horse shoe shaped (U-shaped) magnet (iii) cylinderical magnet.
Method of making an artificial magnet.
Method of making Iron strip a magnet (By Rubbing)
Take an iron strip. Place it on a table. Now take a bar magnet and place one of its pole on one end of the strip. Now without lifting the magnet rub it gently along the length of the strip to its other end. Now lift the magnet and bring the same pole of the magnet to the previous end of the strip. Rub the magnet as before. Repeat this process 30-40 times. Now to test whether the iron strip has become magnet or not, bring some alpins or some iron filings near one of its ends. If alpins/iron filings are attracted then the given iron strip has become magnet otherwise not. If not, then continue the process of rubbing till it acquires magnetism. Note that the rubbing pole and the direction of rubbing the strip does not change.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets 2

Precautions : (1) The direction of rubbing with magnet has to be the same.
(2) While rubbing the pole of the magnet should remain the same everytime.

Question 2.
Show experimentally that like poles repel and unlike poles attract each other.
Answer:
Experiment to show like poles repel and unlike poles attract each other. Take two bar magnets. Suspend one of these bar magnets by a string at some distance away from the other magnet and mark its north and south poles. Now, hold the first magnet in your hand and brings its north pole close to each pole of the suspended magnet, one by one. Repeat the same experiment now with the south pole of the bar magnet held in your hand. You will observe that the north poles of the two magnets, repel one another. The same is true for their south poles. However, the north pole of one magnet attracts the south pole of the other and vice-versa.

The observations can be summarised in the following way:
Like poles repel each other and unlike poles attract each other.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets 4

Question 3.
What is a magnetic compass ? Explain it.
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets 5
Compass.
This is a device which is used to find the directions. It is based on principle that a magnet always rests in North-South direction when suspended freely.

Construction.
A magnetic compass consists of a small magnet pivoted at its centre so that it can rotate freely about that pointed in the horizontal plane. Its north pole is generally paintd red and is enclosed in a small box of aluminium having a glass cover. Its needle always comes to rest in north-south direction. It is used to find directions at any place. Fig. Magnetic Compass

Question 4.
How are magnets’ safety preserved?
Answer:
If the magnets are not kept properly, they get weaken with time. To store magnets safely the following arrangement should be made.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets 6
1. The opposite poles should be kept near each other with a strip of wood in between them and also place some soft iron pieces near their ends.
2. To store a horseshoe magnet place a soft iron piece in between its poles.
Keep your magnets away from Cassettes Mobiles, Televisions, Music systems, CDs, Computer, etc.