PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
What do we call the type of teeth attachment in which each tooth, is embedded in a socket of jaws bones? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Thecodont dentition.

Question 2.
Out of the three types of salivary glands, which is situated in the upper palate on either side of cheek.
Answer:
Parotid gland (type of salivary gland) is situated in the upper palate on the either side of the cheek.

Question 3.
If a person is suffering from reflux oesophagitis, which part of his alimentary canal is not functioning properly?
Answer:
In reflux oesophagitis, the oesophagus does not function properly.

Question 4.
HCl is secreted in stomach. Give the name of the cells that secrete it.
Answer:
Oxyntic cells (parietal cells) are the stomach epithelial cells, that secretes gastric acid, i.e., HCl.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Question 5.
Crypts of Lieberkuhn are found in which part of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
These are found in small intestine portion of alimentary canal.

Question 6.
Give the name of the enzymes involved in the breakdown of nucleotides into sugars and bases? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Nucleosidases.

Question 7.
Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme of pancreatic juice. An enzyme, enterokinase activates it. Which tissue/cells secrete this enzyme? How is it activated? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The cells of duodenum secrete enzyme enterokinase. It is activated by food in the duodenum.

Question 8.
Mention the function of saliva other than digestion.
Answer:
Apart from taking part in digestion, saliva also helps to lubricate the food for swallowing.

Question 9.
State the source of trypsin and the food constituent which this enzyme hydrolyses.
Answer:
Pancreatic juice is the source of trypsin which hydrolyses proteins into peptides.

Question 10.
If the bile duct is completely blocked. How would it affect the digestion of food?
Answer:
If the bile duct is blocked completely, the bile will fail to reach the small intestine and the digestion of fats gets affected.

Question 11.
By which type of mechanism, amino acids are absorbed in our body?
Answer:
Small amounts of amino acids are absorbed by active transport and some are absorbed by the facilitated transport.

Question 12.
As fatty acids and glycerol are not absorbed directly. Name the form in which fatty acids are converted to get absorbed?
Answer:
Fatty acids and glycerols are not absorbed directly into the bloodstream. Thus, they are absorbed in the form of small droplets called micelles.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Question 13.
Which type of absorption takes place in large intestine?
Answer:
Absorption of water, some minerals and drugs takes place in the large intestine.

Question 14.
What happens in the condition when bile from the liver crystalises?.
Answer:
When bile from the liver get crystallised, person form stones in the body.

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
What is the role of tongue indigestion?
Answer:
Tongue helps in mixing the food properly with salivary enzymes. Moreover, tongue has tastebuds which give the sense of different tastes. Eating is a complex process which needs involvement of olfactory and visual senses as well. Alongwith tongue all these senses help in picking the right food.

Question 2.
What is the function of large intestine?
Answer:
Functions of large intestine are as follows:

  • Absorption of some water, minerals and certain drugs.
  • Secretion of mucus. Mucus helps in adhering the waste particles together and lubricates it for easy passage.

Question 3.
What is digestive waste and how is it removed from the body?
Answer:
After digestion and absorption of food is over the residue left makes the digestive waste. The digestive wastes, solidified into coherent faeces in the rectum initiate a neural reflex causing an urge or desire for its removal. The egestion of faeces to the outside through the anal opening (defaecation) is a voluntary process and is carried out by a mass peristaltic movement.

Question 4.
How does the nervous system control the activities of gastrointestinal tract?
Answer:
The sight, smell and/or presence of food in the oral cavity can stimulate the secretion of saliva. Gastric and intestinal secretions are also stimulated by similar neural signals. Muscular activities of alimentary canal is coordinated by both local and CNS neural mechanisms. Hormonal control of secretion of digestive enzymes is carried out by local hormones.

Question 5.
Write a short note on-Disorders of digestive system.
Answer:
Disorders of Digestive System
(i) Inflammation of intestinal tract
This is the most common disorder of the digestive system.
It is caused by infections by bacteria or viruses and also by parasites like roundworm, hookworm, pinworm, etc.

(ii) Jaundice
It is the infection and inflammation of the liver.
Bile pigments are present in the blood and cause yellowing Of eyes, skin, etc.

(iii) Vomiting
It is the egestion of contents of the stomach through the mouth.

(iv) Diarrhoea
The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is known as diarrhoea.
It reduces the absorption of food.

(v) Constipation
In constipation, the faeces are retained within the rectum as the bowel movements occur irregularly.

(vi) Indigestion
In indigestion, the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness.
The causes of indigestion are inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, overeating, spicy food, etc.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
As a result of intestinal disease, parts of the alimentary canal are sometimes surgically removed. Discuss the effect of this removal on lifestyle and digestive function:
(i) the stomach
(ii) the colon.
Answer:
(i) Removal of the stomach, which is the main organ for digestion of protein, leads to a change in the patient’s diet. It is the stomach where proteins are first broken down into polypeptides by pepsin in gastric juice before they can be acted on by pancreatic enzymes and intestinal enzymes. The patient must lower down the amount of protein in his diet. Animal meat especially red meat, which is rich in proteins must be avoided.

(ii) Removal of the colon, which is responsible for absorption of water from undigested food, result in loss of water (dehydration) inpatient. The patient needs to drink plenty of fluids to replace water loss. In most cases, where the whole colon is removed, a surgical procedure.is done to attach the small intestine to the rectum to allow for recta elimination of liquid stools. A small pouch is created in the lower abdomen to collect the stool. The patient has to learn to regulate his bowel movements.

Question 2.
A person had roti and dal for his lunch. Trace the changes that will take place during its complete passage through the alimentary canal. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Changes that will take place in food (roti and dal) through the passage of alimentary canal are given below:

  • The food substances are first masticated by the teeth in the mouth, where carbohydrate part of the food is digested by the action of salivary amylase enzyme secreted by the salivary glands.
  • This partially digested food reaches the stomach, where it receives acidic HCl and mainly the protein part of the food is digested by the action of proteolytic enzymes.
  • The lipid part of the food is digested by the bile secreted by the gall bladder.
  • In the small intestine, particularly in the duodenum, this semi-digested food is finally digested by the digestive enzymes present in the intestinal and pancreatic juices.
  • After digestion, the broken down products of food, i.e., amino acids, glycerol, starch, etc., are observed mainly in the small intestine.
  • The undigested remains of food will finally pass through the anus.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Digestion and Absorption Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer among the following:
(i) Gastric juice contains
(a) pepsin, lipase and rennin
(b) trypsin, lipase and rennin
(c) trypsin, pepsin and lipase
(d) trypsin, pepsin and rennin

(ii) Succus entericus is the name given to
(a) a junction between ileum and large intestine
(b) intestinal juice
(c) swelling in the gut
(d) appendix
Answer:
(i) (a) Pepsin, lipase, and rennin
(ii) (b) Intestinal juice.

Question 2.
Match column I with column II.

Column I Column II
A. Bilirubin and biliverdin 1. Parotid
B. Hydrolysis of starch 2. Bile
C. Digestion of fat 3. Lipases
D. Salivary gland 4. Amylases

Answer:

Column I Column II
A. Bilirubin and biliverdin 2. Bile
B. Hydrolysis of starch 4. Amylases
C. Digestion of fat 3. Lipases
D. Salivary gland 1. Parotid

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Question 3.
Answer briefly:
(a) Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?
(b) How does pepsinogen change into its active form?
(c) What are the basic layers of the wall of alimentary canal?
(d) How does bile help in the digestion of fats?
Answer:
(a) The mucosa layer of alimentary canal forms small finger-like foldings called villi in the small intestine. The cells lining the villi produce numerous microscopic projections called microvilli giving a brush border appearance. These modifications increase the surface area enormously.
Villi are supplied with the network of capillaries and large lymph vessel called the lacteal mucosal.

(b) The inactive form of enzyme pepsinogen is activated by Rd.

(c) The wall of alimentary canal from esophagus to rectum possesses four layers namely serosa, muscularis, sub-mucosa and mucosa. Serosa is the outermost layer, followed by muscularis, sub-mucosa and mucosa.

(d) Bile salts help in emulsification of lipids and activate the lipases.

Question 4.
State the role of pancreatic juice in digestion of proteins.
Answer:
The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases, amylases, lipases, and nucleases. Trypsinogen is aëtivated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice. Proteins, proteases and peptones (partially hydrolyzed proteins) in the chyme reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice as given below:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 1

Question 5.
Describe the process of digestion of protein in stomach.
Answer:
The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric juice of the stomach by the churning movements of its muscular wall and is called the chyme. The pepsinogen, on exposure to hydrochloric acid gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin, the proteolytic enzyme of the stomach. Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 2
HCl provides the acidic pH (pH 1.8) optimal for pepsins. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins.

Question 6.
Give the dental formula of human beings.
Answer:
The dental formula of human beings is
\(\frac{2123}{2123} \times 2\).

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Question 7.
Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes, yet it is important for digestion. Why?
Answer:
Bile is yellowish-green alkaline solution with 89-98% water, having no digestive enzymes. The bile released into the duodenum contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin), bile salts, cholesterol, and phospholipids but no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats, i.e., breaking down of the fats into very small micelles. Bile also activates lipases.

Question 8.
Describe the digestive role of chymotrypsin. Which two other digestive enzymes of the same category are secreted by its source gland?
Answer:
Chymotrypsin is the active form of chymotrypsinogen. It is activated by trypsin. It curdles milk. Nucleases like DNA ase and RNAase and pancreatic lipase are other enzymes secreted by the pancreas.

Question 9.
How are polysaccharides and disaccharides digested?
Answer:
The chemical process of digestion of carbohydrates is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase. About 30 percent of starch is hydrolyzed here by this enzyme (optimum pH 6.8) into a disaccharide-maltose. Further, carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolyzed by pancreatic amylase into disaccharides.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 3

Question 10.
What would happen if HCl were not secreted in the stomach?
Answer:
The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice play an important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by the highly concentrated hydrochloric acid.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 4
HCl provides the acidic pH (pH 1.8) optimal for pepsins. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins. Small amount of lipases are also secreted by gastric glands.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Question 11.
How does butter in your food get digested and absorbed in the body?
Answer:
Bile helps in emulsification of fats, i. e., breaking down of the fats into very small micelles. Bile also activates lipases.

Question 12.
Discuss the main steps in the digestion of proteins as the food passes through different parts of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
Digestion of Protein in Stomach: The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to HCl, gets converted into active enzyme pepsin.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 5
Pepsin always outs in acidic medium (pH 1.8). In infants, main proteins are digested by rennin.

Digestion of Protein in Small Intestine: Pancreatic juice contains proenzyme trypsinogen. It is activated by enterokinase, secreted by intestinal mucosa, into active trypsin. Trypsin acts in alkaline medium.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 6
The dipeptides are changed into amino acids by the enzyme succus enterics (intestinal juice).
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 7

Question 13.
Explain the term ‘the codont’ and ‘diphyodont’.
Answer:
Each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone. This type of attachment is called thecodont. The majority of mammals including human beings forms two sets of teeth during their life, a set of temporary milk or deciduous teeth replaced by a set of permanent or adult teeth. This type of dentition is called diphyodont.

Question 14.
Name different types of teeth and their number in an adult human.
Answer:
An adult human has 32 permanent teeth, which are of four different types (heterodont dentition), i.e., incisors (I), canine (C), premolars (Pm), and molars (M), and their number are 4, 2, 4, 6 respectively.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Question 15.
What are the functions of liver?
Answer:
Liver is the largest gland in human body which is mainly responsible for the digestion of food.
Role of liver in digestion of food :

  • Its hepatic cells secrete bile juice which passes through the hepatic duct into the gall bladder.
  • It has its major role in digestion and processing of proteins.
  • Bile secreted by it is mainly responsible for digestion of fats for easy absorption in the body.
  • It also responsible for the removal of toxins from blood.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
The product of photosynthesis is transported from the leaves to various parts of the plant and stored in some cells before being utilised. What are the cells/tissues that store them?
Answer:
Parenchyma.

Question 2.
What is the function of phloem parenchyma? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
It takes part in lateral conduction of food and supply of water from xylem.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 3.
What is the epidermal cell modification in plants which prevent [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Cuticularised trichoblasts or epidermal hair which produce a stationary layer of air over the surface that reduces isolation and rate of transpiration.

Question 4.
The cells of this tissue are living and show angular wall thickenings. They also provide mechanical support. The tissue is: [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) xylem
(b) sclerenchyma
(c) collenchyma
(d) epidermis
Answer:
(c) The collenchyma is a simple permanent tissue, which provide mechanical support.

Question 5.
In which vascular bundles, phloem lies on the outer side and xylem towards the inner side or central axis?
Answer:
Collateral vascular bundles.

Question 6.
What is present on the surface of the leaves which helps the plant prevent loss of water but is absent in roots? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Cuticle layer and wax.

Question 7.
What constitutes the cambial ring? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Fusion of interfascicular and intrafascicular cambium strips.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 8.
The cross-section of a plant material showed the following features when viewed under the microscope (a) Vascular bundles were radially arranged (b) Four xylem strands with exarch condition of protoxylem. To which organ should it be assigned? [ NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Dicot root.

Question 9.
What do hardwood and softwood stand for? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Hardwood contains xylem vessels, i.e., dicot wood. Softwood contains tracheids only, i. e., gymnospermous wood.

Question 10.
Give one basic functional difference between phellogen and phelloderm.
Answer:
Phellogen is meristematic and divides to produce new cells. Phelloderm stores food materials.

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
Differentiate among parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.

Parenchyma Collenchyma Sclerenchyma
1. Living cells. 1. Living cells. 1. Dead cells.
2. Forms 2. Found below epidermis. 2. Usually found in epidermis.
3. Chloroplast present. 3. Chloroplast present sometimes. 3. Chloroplast absent.
4. Performs many vital functions. 4. Provides mechanical support to growing parts. 4. Provides mechanical support to organs.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 2.
Mention key differences between xylem and phloem.
Answer:
Differences between xylem and phloem

Xylem Phloem
1. Composed of tracheids, vessels and xylem parenchyma. 1. Composed of sieve tubes, companion cells and phloem parenchyma.
2. Facilitate conduction of water and minerals from roots. 2. Facilitate conduction of food from leaves.

Question 3.
What is the difference between simple tissue and complex tissue in plants?
Answer:
Simple tissues are composed of similar cells. Complex tissues are composed of dissimilar cells. Simple tissues provide bulk and mechanical support to plants. Complex tissues are meant for transportation of substances and they also provide mechanical support.

Question 4.
What is the difference between monocot and dicot leaves?
Answer:
Stomata are found on both surfaces in monocot leaves, while they are found on ventral surface only, in dicot leaves. In monocot leaves venation is parallel, which is evident by similar size of vascular bundles. In dicot leaves venation is reticulate, so vascular bundles are of various sizes.

Question 5.
What are the differences between meristematic tissues and permanent tissues?
Answer:
Differences between meristematic tissues and permanent tissues

Meristematic Tissues Permanent Tissues
1. Cells keep on dividing. 1. Cells stop dividing.
2. Growth is the basic function. 2. Protection is the basic function.
3. Found in tips of roots and stem. 3. Found in girth and periphery.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between following:
(i) Exarch and endarch condition of protoxylem
(ii) Stele and vascular bundles
(iii) Protoxylem and metaxylem
(iv) Interfascicular cambium and intrafascicular cambium
(v) Open and closed vascular bundles
(vi) Stem hair and root hair [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(i) In exarch condition protoxylem towards the periphery. In endarch
condition protoxylem towards the centre.
(ii) Stele is the arrangement of vascular tissues and vascular bundle is a group of xylem and phloem.
(iii) Protoxylem is an early formed xylem and metaxylem is late formed xylem.
(iv) Interfascicular cambium is formed by permanent tissues. Intrafascicular cambium is present in between the primary xylem and primary phloem of a vascular bundle.
(v) Open vascular bundles have intrafascicular cambium and show secondary growth. Closed vascular bundles do not have intrafascicular cambium.
(vi) Stem hair are multicellular, whereas root hair are unicellular.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Anatomy of Flowering Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State the location and function of different types of meristems.
Answer:
A meristematic tissue represents a group of cells that have retained the power of division throughout the life of an individual. The meristematic tissues are of three types, i.e., apical, intercalary and lateral meristem.

  • Apical Meristem: These meristems are present at the apices of shoot and roots of the plants. Apical meristems are responsible for the increase in length of all the primary tissues.
  • Intercalary Meristem: It is the meristem that occurs between the mature tissues. They occur in grasses and regenerate parts removed by the grazing herbivores. It contributes to the formation of the primary plant body.
  • Lateral Meristem: It occurs in the mature regions of roots arid shoots of many plants, particularly that produce woody axis. These meristems are responsible for producing the secondary tissues.

Question 2.
Cork cambium forms tissues that form the cork. Do you agree with this statement? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, cork cambium forms tissues that form cork. As the stem continues to increase in girth another meristematic tissue called cork cambium or phellogen develops in cortex region of stem. The phellogen cuts off cells on both sides. The outer cells differentiate into cork or phellem. The inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm. Cork is impervious to water due to suberin and provides protection to underlying tissues.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 3.
Explain the process of secondary growth in the stems of woody angiosperms with the help of schematic diagrams. What is its significance?
Answer:
Secondary growth in stems of woody angiosperms occur by two types of cambia, i.e., vascular cambium and cork cambium.
(i) Vascular Cambium: Certain cells of medullary rays become meristematic to form interfascicular cambium. The fascicular cambium and the interfascicular cambium join to form a complete ring called cambial ring. The cells of the cambial ring undergo mitotic divisions and produce secondary phloem on its outer side and secondary xylem on its inner side.

At places, vascular cambium possesses ray initials. They form vascular rays, phloem rays in secondary phloem and wood rays in secondary xylem.

As new secondary phloem becomes functional, the previous older phloem gets crushed. Secondary xylem or wood persists. As a result wood grows

with age in the form of annual rings. In each annual ring, there is wide or broader spring or early wood or spring wood and narrow autumn or late wood.

In old stems, the central part of wood becomes non-functional and dark coloured due to tyloses and deposit of resins, gums, tannins. It is called r duramen or heartwood. The outer, functional wood is called sapwood.

(ii) Cork Cambium: As the stem continues to increase in girth due to the activity of vascular cambium the outer cortical and epidermal layers get broken and need to be replaced to provide new protective cell layers. In this way, cork cambium or phellogen develops in the cortex region. Phellogen cuts of cells on both sides.

The outer cells differentiate into cork or phellem while, the inner cells ; differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm. Due to the activity of cork cambium, pressure builds up on remaining layers peripheral to
phellogen and ultimately these layers die and slough off. At places, aerating pores called lenticels develop, which have loosely arranged , complementary cells.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 1
Significance of Secondary Growth

  • It replaces old non-functional tissues.
  • It provides fire proof, insect proof and insulating cover around the older plant parts.
  • Commercial cork is a product of secondary growth.
  • Wood is the product of secondary growth.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 4.
Draw illustrations to bring out the anatomical difference between:
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root
(b) Monocot stem and Dicot stem
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 2
(a) Anatomical Differences between Monocot Root and Dicot Root
(i) Anatomy of Monocot Root
(a) The structure of epidermis, cortex, endodermis and pericycle of a monocot root resembles exactly those of a dicot root.
(b) Vascular bundles are radial, and polyarch.
(c) Pith is large and well-developed; it is composed of parenchyma cells

(ii) Anatomy of dicot root
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 3
T.S of Dicot root
(a) Epidermis is single layered and many cells bear root hairs; cuticle is absent.
(b) Cortex is made of several layers of parenchyma cells.
(c) Endodermis consists of a single-layer of cells. The cells have a deposition of suberin, in the form of casparian strips, on their radial and tangential walls.
(d) Pericycle comprises a few layers of specialised parenchyma cells inner to the endodermis.
(e) Vascular bundles are radial and may range between two and six, though commonly there are four groups; i.e., tetrarch; xylem is exarch.
(f) Pith is very small and made of parenchyma cells.

(b) Anatomical Differences between Monocot Stem and Dicot stem
(i) Anatomy of monocot stem
(a) Epidermis is single layered and trichomes are absent; cuticle is present on its outer surface.
(b) Hypodermis consists of two or three layers of sclerenchyma cells.
(c) Ground tissue is parenchymatous and is not differentiated into cortex or pith.
(d) Vascular bundles are many and scattered in the ground tissue; they vary in size.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 4
T.S. of Monocot Stem

  • Each vascular bundle is surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
  • The vascular bundles are conjoint and closed; xylem is endarch and characteristically a protoxylem lacuna is present.

(ii) Anatomy of dicot stem
(a) Epidermis is the outermost layer of cells; externally it is covered with a cuticle and may bear trichomes and a few stomata.
(b) Hypodermis consists of a few layers of collenchyma cells, just below the epidermis.
(c) Cortex consists of parenchyma cells.
(d) Endodermis is single layered and the cells are rich in starch grains and hence it is also referred to as starch sheath.
(e) Pericyde occurs inner to the endodermis, above the phloem of vascular bundles in the form of semi-lunar patches (hence also referred to as bundle caps); it is composed of sclerenchyma.
T.S. of Dicot Stem
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 5
(f) Vascular bundles are characteristically arranged in the form of a ring.

  • Each vascular bundle is conjoint and open with intra-fascicular cambium; xylem is endarch.
    (g) Medullary rays are the few layers of radially placed parenchyma cells, in between the vascular bundles.
    (h) Pith is composed of parenchyma cells.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 5.
Cut a transverse section of young stem of a plant from your school garden and observe it under the microscope. How would you ascertain whether it is a monocot stem or a dicot stem? Give reasons.
Answer:
Transverse section of a monocot stem possess following characters:

  • Dumbbell-shaped guard cells in stomata in epidermis.
  • Sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
  • No concentric arrangement of internal tissues.
  • Unifrom ground tissue showing no tissue differentiation.
  • More than 8 scattered vascular bundles.
  • Bundle sheath is present.
  • No secondary growth normally.
  • Xylem vessels arranged in Y-shaped manner.
  • Protoxylem cavity usually present in vascular tissues.

Transverse section of a dicot stem possess following characters:

  • Kidney-shaped guard cells in stomata present in epidermis.
  • Collenchymatous hypodermis.
  • Concentric arrangement of internal tissues.
  • Differentiation of ground tissue into cortex, endodermis, pericycle and pith.
  • The vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.
  • Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundles.
  • Without bundle sheath.
  • Secondary growth takes place.
  • Xylem vessels arranged in rows.

[Note: For figures refer to Q.No. 4]

Question 6.
The transverse section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features:
(a) The vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheaths.
(b) Phloem parenchyma is absent. What will you identify it as?
Answer:
It is a transverse section of monocotyledonous stem.

Question 7.
Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues?
Answer:
Xylem and phloem are made up of more than one type of cells that is why they are called as complex tissues :
(i) Xylem is composed of four different kinds of elements, namely-tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma. Tracheids are dead tube-like cells which are thick walled, vessels are made up of large number of tube cells placed end to end. Xylem fibres are thick walled cells that maybe septate and aseptate. Xylem parenchyma is living and thin walled cells.

(ii) Phloem is composed of sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres. Sieve tube elements are tube-like cells, whereas phloem parenchyma are living cells and phloem fibres are thick walled lignified cells.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 8.
What is stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
The minute pores present in the epidermis are known as stomata. The stomata may be surrounded by either bean-shaped (in dicots) or by dumb-bell-shaped (in monocots) guard cells. The guard cells in turn are surrounded by other epidermal cells, which are known as subsidiary or
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 6
accessory cells. The stomatal aperture, guard cells, accessory cells constitute the stomatal apparatus.

Question 9.
Name the three basic tissue systems in the flowering plants. Give the tissue names under each system.
Answer:
The three basic; tissue systems in flowering plants are as follows:

  • Epidermal Tissue System: The tissue related to this system are epidermis, cuticle and wax, stomata and trichomes.
  • Ground Tissue System: It consists of cortex, endodermis, pericycle, medullary rays, pith and ground tissue of leaves.
  • Vascular Tissue System: It contains conducting tissues like xylem and phloem.

Question 10.
How is the study of plant anatomy useful to us?
Answer:
Plant anatomy is the study of internal structure of living organisms.

  • It describes the tissues involved in assimilation of food and its storage, transportation of water, i.e., xylem tissue, transportation of minerals. i.e., phloem and those involved in providing mechanical support to the plant,
  • Study of internal structure of plants helps to understand their adaptations of diverse environments.
  • The study of plant anatomy also help in understanding the functional organisation of higher plants.

Question 11.
What is periderm? How does periderm formation take place in
the dicot stems?
Answer:
Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm are collectively called as periderm. Phellogen develops usually in the cortex region. Phellogen is a couple of layers thick. Phellogen cuts off cells on both sides. The outer cells 1 differentiate into cork or phellem, while the inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm. All these together form periderm.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 12.
Describe the internal structure of a dorsiventral leaf with the help of labelled diagrams.
Answer:
The vertical section of a dorsiventral leaf through the lamina shows three ; main parts namely, epidermis, mesophyll and vascular system. The epidermis which covers both the upper surface (adaxial epidermis) and lower surface (abaxial epidermis) of the leaf has a conspicuous cuticle. The abaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the adaxial epidermis. The latter may even lack stomata. The tissue between the upper and the lower epidermis is called the mesophyll. Mesophyll, which possesses chloroplasts and carry out photosynthesis, is made up of parenchyma. It has two types of cells – the palisade parenchyma and the spongy parenchyma.

The adaxially placed palisade parenchyma is made up of elongated cells, which are arranged vertically and parallel to each other. The oval or round and loosely arranged spongy parenchyma is situated below the palisade cells and extends to the lower epidermis. There are numerous large spaces and air cavities between these cells. Vascular system includes vascular bundles, which can be seen in the veins and the midrib. The size of the vascular bundles are dependent on the size of the veins. The veins vary in thickness in the reticulate venation of the dicot leaves. The vascular bundles are surrounded by a layer of thick walled bundle sheath cells.
T.S. of Dorsiventral Leaf
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 7

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
Why do cells need a constant supply of oxygen?
Answer:
Cells continuously need oxygen for the metabolic reactions that releases energy from molecules. This energy is used by cells for various functions of body.

Question 2.
Give the name of the organ that produces sound.
Answer:
Larynx.

Question 3.
A fluid filled double membranous layer surrounds the lungs. Name it. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
This layer is called pleural membrane and pleural fluid is found in between the two.

Question 4.
Which component of the respiratory system help in generation of pressure gradient for breathing? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The diaphragm and a specialised set of muscles external and internal intercostals between the ribs.

Question 5.
Define Residual Volume (RV). [NCERT Exemplar] Or State the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal breathing. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Residual Volume (RV): It is the volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration. It is about 1100-1200 ml.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 6.
What is the RQ for glucose and proteins?
Answer:
Glucose RQ= 1
Proteins RQ = 0.85

Question 7.
Why is it advisable to do nasal breathing rather than mouth breathing?
Answer:
Nasal breathing is advisable because it is healthier as the air inhaled gets filtered in the nose so cleaner air goes to the lungs.

Question 8.
A major percentage of O2 (97%) is transported by RBCs in the blood. How does the remaining 3% of O2 transported? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
In dissolved state through plasma.

Question 9.
What is the amount of O2 supplied to tissues through every 100 mL of oxygenated blood under normal physiological conditions? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Around. 5 mL.

Question 10.
Cigarette smoking causes emphysema. Give reason. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Cigarette smoking cause damages to the alveolar walls due to alveolar sacs remaining filled with air leading to decreased respiratory surface for exchange of gases.

Question 11.
What causes snoring?
Answer:
Partial blocking of upper respiratory tract by tongue leading to turbulence of airflow causes a rough rattling inspiratory noise called snoring.

Question 12.
Give the name of some common respiratory disorders.
Answer:
Asthma, emphysema, occupational lung disorders (e.g., Silicosis and asbestosis).

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
Explain the structure of thoracic chamber.
Answer:
Anatomically, thoracic chamber is an air-tight chamber. The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the vertebral column, ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the ribs, and on the lower side by the dome-shaped diaphragm. The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity. Such an arrangement is essential for breathing, as we cannot directly alter the pulmonary volume.

Question 2.
Explain various steps of respiration.
Answer:
Steps of Respiration

  • Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2-rich alveolar air is released out.
  • Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.
  • Transport of gases by the blood.
  • Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
  • Utilization of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of exchange of gases during respiration.
Answer:
Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of gases. Exchange of gases also occur between blood and tissues. O2 and CO2 are exchanged in these sites by simple diffusion mainly based on pressure/concentration gradient.
Solubility of the gases as well as the thickness of the membranes involved in diffusion are also some of the important factors that can affect the rate of diffusion. Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called partial pressure and is represented as pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon dioxide.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 4.
What do you understand by occupational respiratory disorders?
Answer:
In some industries, workers may inhale harmful dust. For example, workers in stone-crushing plant may inhale silica dust. When there is long-term exposure to such situations, lungs can develop inflammation, which leads to fibrosis and ultimately to serious damage to lungs.

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
Explain the mechanism of expiration under normal conditions.
Answer:
Expiration: It is a passive process by which CO2 is expelled out from the lungs. It takes place when the intra-pulmonary pressure is higher than the atmospheric pressure.
The movement of following muscles are involved :
(a) Diaphragm: The muscle fibres of the diaphragm relax making it convex, decreasing volume of the thoracic cavity.
(b) Internal intercostal muscles: These muscles contract thus, pulling the ribs downward and inward, decreasing the thoracic volume.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 1
The overall volume of the thoracic cavity thus decreases thereby reducing the pulmonary volume.
Ribs and sternum returned to original position (lowered)
As a result, the intrapulmonary pressure increases slightly above the atmospheric pressure. This inturn causes the expulsion of the air from the lungs. The process of expiration is simpler than inspiration.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Breathing and Exchange of Gases Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define vital capacity. What is its significance?
Answer:
Vital Capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is called vital capacity. Vital capacity is higher in athletes and singers. Vital capacity shows the strength of our inspiration and expiration.

Question 2.
State the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal breathing.
Answer:
The volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration averages 1100 ml to 1200 ml.

Question 3.
Diffusion of gases occurs in the alveolar region only and not in the other parts of respiratory system. Why?
Answer:
Alveoli are the primaty sites of gas exchange in the respiratory system. Exchange of gases occur between blood and these tissues. O2 and CO2 are exchanged in these sites by simple diffusion mainly based on pressure/concentration gradient. The diffusion membrane for gas exchange is made up of three major layers.
These layers are :

  1. Squamous epithelium of alveoli.
  2. Endothelium of alveolar capillaries.
  3. Basement substance in between them. Its total thickness is much less than a millimetre. Therefore, all the factors in our body are favourable for diffusion of O2 from alveoli to tissues and that of CO2 from tissues to alveoli.

Question 4.
What are the major transport mechanisms for CO2? Explain.
Answer:
Transport of Carbon Dioxide: CO2 in gaseous form diffuses out of the cells into capillaries, where it is transported in following ways :
(i) Transport in dissolved form: About 7% CO2 is carried in dissolved form through the plasma because of its high solubility.
(ii) Transport as bicarbonate: The largest fraction (about 70%) is carried in plasma as bicarbonate ions (HCO3). At the tissues site, where pCO2 is high due to catabolism, CO2 diffuses into the blood (RBCs and plasma) and forms HCO3 and H.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 1
This reaction is faster in RBCs because they contain an enzyme carbonic anhydrase. Hydrogen ion released during the reaction bind to Hb, triggering the Bohr effect.
At the alveolar site, where pCO2 is low, the reaction proceeds in opposite direction forming CO2 and H2O. Thus, CO2 trapped as bicarbonate at tissue level and transported to alveoli is released as CO2.

(iii) Transport as carbaminohaemoglobin: Nearly 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin, CO2 entering the blood combines with the NH2 group of the reduced Hb.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 2
The reaction releases oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin.
Factors affecting the binding of CO2 and Hb are as follows:

  • Partial pressure of CO2.
  • Partial pressure of O2 (major factor).

In tissues, pCO2 is high and pO2 is low, more binding of CO2 occurs while, in the alveoli, pCO2 is low and pO2 is high, dissociation of CO2 from HbCO2 takes place, i.e., CO2, which is bound to Hb from the tissues is delivered at the alveoli.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 5.
What will be the pO2 and pCO2, in the atmospheric air compared to those in the alveolar air?
(i) pO2 lesser and pCO2 higher
(ii) pO2 higher and pCO2 lesser
(iii) pO2 higher and pCO2 higher
(iv) pO2 lesser and pCO2 lesser
Answer:
(i) In the alveolar tissues, where low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration, these conditions are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin.

(ii) When there is high pO2, low pCO2, less H+ concentration and lesser temperature, the factors are all favourable for formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

(iii) When pO2 is high in the alveoli and pCO2 is high in the tissues then the oxygen diffuses into the blood and combines with oxygen forming oxyhaemoglobin and CO2 diffuses out.

(iv) When pO2 is low in the alveoli and pCO2 is low in the tissues then these conditions are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 6.
Explain the process of inspiration under normal conditions.
Answer:
Inspiration is the process during which atmospheric air is drawn in. Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of diaphragm, which increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the anteroposterior axis. The contraction of external intercostal muscles lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.

The overall increase in the thoracic volume causes a similar increase in pulmonary volume. An increase in pulmonary volume decreases the intrapulmonary pressure to less than the atmospheric pressure, which forces the air from outside to move into the lungs, i. e., inspiration. On an average, a healthy human breathes 12-16 times/minute.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 3

Question 7.
How is respiration regulated?
Answer:
Respiratory rhythm centre is primarily responsible for regulation of respiration. This centre is present in the medulla.
Pneumotaxic centre, present in the pons region, also coordinates respiration. Apart from them, receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery, can also recognize changes in CO2 and H+ concentration and send signal to the rhythm centre for proper action.

Question 8.
What is the effect of pCO2 on oxygen transport?
Answer:
Partial pressure of CO2 (pCO2) can interfere the binding of oxygen with haemoglobin, i.e., to form oxyhaemoglobin.
(i) In the alveoli, where there is high pO2 and low pCO2, less H+ concentration and low temperature, more formation of oxyhaemoglobin occur.

(ii) In the tissues, where low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration and high temperature exist, the conditions are responsible for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 9.
What happens to the respiratory process in a man going up a hill?
Answer:
At hills, the pressure of air falls and the person cannot get enough oxygen in the lungs for diffusion in blood. Due to deficiency of oxygen, the person feels breathlessness, headache, dizziness, nausea, mental fatigue and a bluish colour on the skin, nails and lips.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 10.
What is the site of gaseous exchange in an insect?
Answer:
The actual site of gaseous exchange in an insect is tracheoles and tracheolar end cells.

Question 11.
Define oxygen dissociation curve. Can you suggest any reason for its sigmoidal pattern?
Answer:
A sigmoid curve is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted against the pO2.
This curve is called the oxygen dissociation curve and is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like pCO2, H+ concentration, etc., on binding of O2 with haemoglobin.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 4
In the alveoli, where there is high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+ concentration and lower temperature, the factors are all favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin, whereas in the tissues, where low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration and higher temperature exist, the conditions are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin. This dearly indicates that O2 gets bound to haemoglobin in the lung surface and gets dissociated at the tissues. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological conditions.

Question 12.
Have you heard about hypoxia? Try to gather information about it, and discuss with your friends.
Answer:
Hypoxia is the shortage of oxygen supply to the blood due to :
(a) normal shortage in air
(b) oxygen deficiency on high mountains (mountain sickness), anaemia and phytotoxicity or poisoning of electron transport system.

Question 13.
Distinguish between:
(a) IRV and ERV
(b) Inspiratory Capacity and Expiratory Capacity
(c) Vital Capacity and Total Lung Capacity
Answer:
(a) IRV and ERV Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV): Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration. This is about 2500-3000 mL. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV): Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a forcible expiration. This is about 1000-1100 mL.

(b) Inspiratory Capacity and Expiratory Capacity Inspiratory Capacity (IC): Total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration. This includes tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume (TV+IRV).
Expiratory Capacity (EC): Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration. This includes tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume (TV+ERV)

(c) Vital Capacity and Total Lung Capacity
Vital Capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air, a person can breathe in after a forced expiration. This includes ERV, TV and IRV or the maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.
Total Lung Capacity (TLC): Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration. This includes RV, ERV, TV and IRV or vital capacity + residual volume.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 14.
What is tidal volume? Find out the tidal volume (approximate value) for a healthy human in an hour.
Answer:
Tidal Volume (TV): Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration is called tidal volume. It is about 500 mL., i.e., a healthy man can inspire or expire approximately 6000 to 8000 mL of air per minute.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
Mention the total amount of normal leucocyte count in human.
Answer:
6000-8000 per cubic mm is the normal leucocyte count in human.

Question 2.
A person has a blood group AB positive. What does it mean?
Answer:
AB positive means that a person has both A and B antigens and also has Rh factor in his blood.

Question 3.
Comment. Blood is called river of life.
Answer:
It is called so, because blood plasma helps in transportation of materials like nutrients, gases, wastes, hormones, etc., within the body, which is very essential for the survival of life.

Question 4.
Why is blood group identification not needed for serum identification?
Answer:
Because serum does not have the coagulation/clotting factor.

Question 5.
Due to developmental abnormality, the wall of the left ventricle of an infant’s heart is as thin as that of right ventricle. What would be its specific effect in circulation of blood It may not be able to develop sufficient pressure to pump blood in all distant parts.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 6.
Why are veins provided with valves along their length?
Answer:
Valves are presept to prevent the backward flow of blood.

Question 7.
Where does the cardiac impulse originates?
Answer:
The cardiac impulse originates in cardiac muscle fibres and is not brought to the heart by any nerve fibres. The origin of cardiac impulse is said to be myogenic.

Question 8.
Given below are the abnormal conditions related to blood circulation. Name the disorders.
Acute chest pain due to failure of O2 supply to heart muscles. Increased systolic pressure. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Angina,
(b) High blood pressure.

Question 9.
Heart failure is called congestive heart failure. Why?
Answer:
The congestion of lungs is a symptom of heart failure. Thus, it is also called congestive heart failure.

Question 10.
Indicate the blood vessel that transports hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.
Answer:
Hypophyseal portal vein.

Question 11.
From where does the hepatic portal system brings the blood?
Answer:
Hepatic portal system brings blood from the alimentary canal, pancreas and spleen to the liver.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 12.
Write a short note on-coagulation of blood.
Answer:
Coagulation of Blood:
When an injury occurs, there is bleeding from the wound for some time, but soon the blood stops flowing out.
This is because blood exhibits a mechanism called blood coagulation or clotting, to prevent excess loss of blood from the body.

A clot or coagulum is formed which consists of a network of fibres called fibrin in which the dead and damaged corpuscles are trapped. The blood clot seals the injured blood vessel and thereby bleeding stops.

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
What is Rh incompatibility of mother and foetus? What are the complications and necessary precautions involved in this case?
Answer:
Rh Incompatibility of Foetus and Mother: A special case of Rh incompatibility (mismatching) has been observed between the Rh -ve blood of a pregnant mother with Rh +ve blood of the foetus. Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the Rh -ve blood of the mother in the first pregnancy as the two bloods are well separated by the placenta. However/during the delivery of the first child, there is a possibility of exposure of the maternal blood to small amounts of the Rh +ve blood from the foetus.

In such cases, the mother starts preparing antibodies against Rh in her blood. In case of her subsequent pregnancies, the Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh -ve) can leak into the blood of the foetus (Rh +ve) and destroy the foetal RBCs. This could be fatal to the foetus or could cause severe anaemia and jaundice to the baby. This condition is called erythroblastosis foetalis. This can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first child.

Question 2.
How is cardiac activity regulated by the nervous system?
Answer:
Normal activities of the heart are regulated intrinsically, i.e., auto regulated by specialised muscles (nodal tissue), hence the heart is called myogenic. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function through autonomic nervous system (ANS).

Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves (part of ANS) can increase the rate of heartbeat, the strength of ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac output. On the other hand, parasympathetic neural signals (another component of ANS) decrease the rate of heartbeat, Speed of conduction of action potential and thereby the cardiac output. Adrenal medullary hormones can also increase the cardiac output.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 3.
Describe systemic circulation.
Answer:
The oxygenated blood entering the aorta is carried by a network of arteries, arterioles and capillaries to the tissues from where the deoxygenated blood is collected by a system of venules, veins and vena cava and emptied into the right atrium. This is the systemic circulation. The systemic circulation provides nutrients, O2 and other essential substances to the tissues and takes CO2 and other harmful substances away for elimination.

Question 4.
What is stroke volume? What is its relation with cardiac output?
Answer:
During one cardiac cycle or one heartbeat, the volume of blood pumped by the heart is called stroke volume. This is normally 70 mL. In one minute the heart beats about 72 times and the amount of blood pumped per minute is called cardiac output. This is usually 4900 mL ~ 5 litres.

Question 5.
Write a short note on-disorders of circulatory system.
Answer:
Disorders of Circulatory System
(i) Hypertension
It is commonly known as high blood pressure, to indicate a blood pressure that is higher than the normal, i.e., 120/80 mm Hg.
A sustained high blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher, is called hypertension.
It leads to heart diseases and affects the functioning of vital organs like kidneys and brain.

(ii) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
It is a disorder which affects the blood vessels (coronary arteries) that supply blood to the heart muscles.
Atherosclerosis is a form of CAD, which is caused by the deposition of cholesterol on the wall lining of the lumen of blood vessels.

It makes the lumen narrow and reduces the blood flow to the heart.
When the cholesterol deposits on the wall of blood vessels become calcified and hardened, the condition is called arteriosclerosis; such blood vessels lose their elasticity and become stiff, apart from having narrow lumen.

(iii) Angina pectoris
It is commonly called angina and occurs due to any condition that affects the blood flow to the heart muscle.
Due to this, enough of oxygen is not supplied to the heart muscle and a symptom of acute chest pain appears.
It can occur in men and women of any age.

(iv) Heart failure
It is the condition or state of the heart when it cannot pump sufficient blood to meet the needs of the body.
More often the cause for this condition is congestion of lungs; hence it is called congestive heart failure.
Heart failure is different from cardiac arrest, where the heart stops beating and heart attack, where the heart muscle is damaged suddenly due to insufficient blood supply.

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
Explain different types of blood groups and donor compatibility making a table. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Two groupings, i.e., the ABO and Rh are widely used all over the world. ABO grouping is based on the presence or absence of two surface antigens (chemicals that can induce immune response) on the RBCs, i.e., A and B. Similarly, the plasma of different individuals contain two natural antibodies (proteins produced in response to antigens).
Blood Groups and Donor Compatibility:

Blood Group Antigen on RBCs Antibody in Plasma Donor’s Group
A A Anti-B A, 0
B B Anti-A B, 0
AB A, B Nil AB, A, B, 0
0 Nil Anti-A, B 0

From the above-mentioned table it is evident that group ‘O’ blood can be donated to persons with any other blood group and hence ‘O’ group individuals are called ‘universal donors’. Persons with ‘AB’ group can accept blood from persons with AB as well as the other groups of blood. Therefore, such persons are called ‘universal recipients’.

Question 2.
Describe briefly the internal structure of human heart with neat and labelled diagram.
Answer:
Draw a diagram to show the internal structure of human heart. Internal Structure: Internally, the chambers of heart, i.e., two auricles (atria) and ventricles are separated by different septa and valves.
(a) Auricles (Atria): These are the upper two thin-walled and smaller chambers. These serve to receive the blood, therefore are called receiving chambers (right atrium and left atrium). Both the right and the left atria are separated by a thin, muscular wall known as interatrial septum. Right Atrium: This right chamber deals with only impure (deoxygenated) blood. It receives impure blood from various parts of the body, through two major veins, i.e., superior and inferior vena cava. It also receives blood from the walls of the heart itself (through a coronary sinus).

(b) Left Atrium: This chamber is meant to deal with only pure (oxygenated) blood. It receives blood (pure) from lungs through two pulmonary veins (i.e., one from the each lung).
Ventricles: These are lower two chambers of the heart, that pumps the blood away from the heart. Thus, function as pumping chambers. Both the right and the left ventricles are separated by the interventricular septum. The atrium and the ventricle of the same side are also separated by another septum, a thick fibrous tissue called atri oventricular septum (i.e., AV septum).

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

(a) Right Ventricle: It receives impure blood from right atrium and pumps to pulmonary artery, which further takes this blood to lungs for purification.

(b) Left Ventricle: It receives pure (oxygenated) blood from left atrium and pumps its pure blood to aorta (largest artery in the pathway), which in turn takes this blood to whole body and organs.

Cardiac Valves: Apart from septum, heart is also separated by the various valves. These valves act as a door-like structure in the heart that serves to maintain the unidirectional flow of blood.

Different valves present in the heart are given below :

  • Tricuspid Valve: It is formed by three muscular flaps or cusps to guard the opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
  • Bicuspid Valve: (Mitral valve) It is the type of valve that guards the opening between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
  • Semilunar Valve: The opening of the right and the left ventricles into the pulmonary artery and the aorta respectively are provided with the semilunar valves.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation 1

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Body Fluids and Circulation Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the components of the formed elements in the blood and mention one major function of each of them.
Answer:
(a) Erythrocytes: They are also known as Red Blood Cells (RBC). They are the most abundant of all the cells in blood. A healthy’adult man has, on an average, 5 millions to 5.5 millions of RBCs mm -3 of blood. RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in the adults.
RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the mammals and are biconcave in shape. They have a red coloured, iron containing complex protein called haemoglobin. A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood.
these molecules play a significant role in transport of respiratory gases. RBCs have an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen. Hence, spleen is also known as the graveyard of RBCs.

(b) Leucocytes: They are also known as White Blood Cells (WBC) as they are colourless due to the lack of haemoglobin. They are nucleated and are relatively lesser in number which averages 6000-8000 mm-3 of blood. Leucocytes are generally short-lived.

There are two main categories of WBCs :
1. Granulocytes, e.g., neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils
2. Agranulocytes. e.g., lymphocytes and monocytes.
Neutrophils are the most abundant cells (60-65 per cent) of the total WBCs and basophils are the least (0.5-1 per cent) among them. Neutrophils and monocytes (6-8 per cent) are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body.

Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory reactions. Eosinophils (2-3 per cent) resist infections and are also associated with allergic reactions. Lymphocytes (20-25 per cent) are of two major types- ‘B’ and T forms. Both B and T lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses of the body.

(c) Platelets: Platelets or thrombocytes, are involved in the coagulation or clotting of blood. A reduction in their number can lead to clotting disorders, which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 2.
What is the importance of plasma proteins?
Answer:
Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major plasma proteins. Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood. Globulins primarily are involved in defense mechanisms of the body and the albumins help in osmotic balance.

Question 3.
Match column I with column II.

Column I Column II
A. Eosinophils 1. Coagulation
B. RBC 2. Universal recipient
C. AB group 3. Resist infections
D. Platelets 4. Contraction of heart
E. Systole 5. Gas transport

Answer:

Column I Column II
A. Eosinophils 3. Resist infections
B. RBC 5. Gas transport
C. AB group 2. Universal recipient
D. Platelets 1. Coagulation
E. Systole 4. Contraction of heart

Question 4.
Why do we consider blood as a connective tissue?
Answer:
Blood is a mobile connective tissue derived from mesoderm which consists of fibre-free fluid matrix, plasma and other cells. It regularly circulates in the body, takes part in the transport of materials.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 5.
What is the difference between blood and lymph?
Answer:
Differences between Blood and Lymph

Blood Lymph
It is red in colour due to the presence of haemoglobin in red cells. It is colourless as red blood cells are absent.
It consists of plasma, RBC, WBC and platelets. It consists of plasma and less number of WBC.
Glucose concentration is low. Glucose concentration is higher than blood.
Clotting of blood is a fast process. Clotting of lymph is comparatively slow.
It transports materials from one organ to other. It transports materials from tissue cells into the blood.
Flow of blood is fast. Lymph flows very slowly.
Its plasma has more proteins, calcium and phosphorus. Its plasma has less protein, calcium and phosphorus.
It moves away from the heart and towards the heart. It moves in one direction, i. e., from tissues to sub-clavians.

Question 6.
What is meant by double circulation? What is its significance?
Answer:
Double Circulation: In double circulation, the blood passes twice through the heart during one complete cycle. Double circulation is carried out by two ways :
1. Pulmonary circulation,
2. Systemic circulation

Significance: In birds and mammals, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood received by the left and right atria respectively passes on to the ventricles of the same sides. The ventricles pump it out without mixing up, i.e., two separate circulatory pathways are present in these organisms. This is the importance of double circulation.

Question 7.
Write the differences between:
(a) Blood and lymph
(b) Open and closed system of circulation
(c) Systole and diastole
(d) P-wave and T-wave
Answer:
(a)

Blood Lymph
It is red in colour due to the presence of haemoglobin in red cells. It is colourless as red blood cells are absent.
It consists of plasma, RBC, WBC and platelets. It consists of plasma and less number of WBC.
Glucose concentration is low. Glucose concentration is higher than blood.
Clotting of blood is a fast process. Clotting of lymph is comparatively slow.
It transports materials from one organ to other. It transports materials from tissue cells into the blood.
Flow of blood is fast. Lymph flows very slowly.
Its plasma has more proteins, calcium and phosphorus. Its plasma has less protein, calcium and phosphorus.
It moves away from the heart and towards the heart. It moves in one direction, i. e., from tissues to sub-clavians.

(b) Differences between Open and Closed Circulatory Systems

Open Circulatory System Closed Circulatory System
1. It is present in arthropods and molluscs. It is present in annelids and chordates.
2. Blood pumped by heart passes through large vessels into open spaces or body cavities called sinuses. Blood pumped by the heart is circulated through a loosed network of blood vessels.
3. Flow of blood is not regulated precisely. It is more advantageous as the blood flow is more precisely regulated.

(c) Differences between Systole and Diastole

Systole Diastole
1. The contraction of the muscles of auricles and ventricles is called systole. It is the relaxation of atria and ventricle muscle.
2. It increases the ventricular pressure causing the closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves due to attempted backflow of blood into atria. The ventricular pressure falls causing the closure of semilunar valves which prevent backflow of blood into the ventricle.
3. Systolic pressure is higher and occurs during ventricular contraction. Diastolic pressure is lower and occurs during ventricular
expansion.

(d) Differences between P-wave and T-wave

P-wave T-wave
The P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the arrÍa, which leads to the contraction of both the arria. The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarisation). The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.

Question 8.
Describe the evolutionary change in the pattern of heart among the vertebrates.
Answer:
The heart among the vertebrates shows different patterns of evolution. Different groups of animals have evolved different methods for this transport. All vertebrates possess a muscular chambered heart.
Fishes have a 2-chambered heart with an atrium and a ventricle.
Amphibians and the reptiles (except crocodiles) have a 3-chambered heart with two atria and a single ventricle.
In crocodiles, birds and mammals possess a 4-chambered heart with two atria and two ventricles.

In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood which is oxygenated by the gills and supplied to the body parts from where deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart.

In amphibians and reptiles, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the gills/lungs/skin and the right atrium gets the deoxygenated blood from other body parts. However, they get mixed up in the single ventricle which pumps out mixed blood.

In birds and mammals, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood received by the left and right atria respectively passes on to the ventricles of the same sides. The ventricles pump it out without any mixing up, i. e., two separate circulatory pathways are present in these organisms, hence, these animals have double circulation.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 9.
Why do we call our heart myogenic?
Answer:
Heart is myogenic in origin because the cardiac impulse is initiated in our heart muscles.

Question 10.
The sino-atrial node is called the pacemaker of our heart. Why?
Answer:
The sino-atrial node of heart is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic activity, therefore it is known as pacemaker of the heart.

Question 11.
What is the significance of atrioventricular node and atrioventricular bundle in the functioning of heart?
Answer:
Atrioventricular Node (AVN): It is the mass of tissue present in the lower-left corner of the right atrium close to the atrioventricular septum. It is stimulated by the impulses that sweep over the atrial myocardium. It is too capable of initiating impulses that cause contraction but at slower rate than SA node.

Atrioventricular Bundle (AV Bundle): It is a bundle of nodal fibres, which continues from AVN and passes through the atria-ventricular septa to emerge on the top of interventricular septum. The AV bundle, bundle branches and Purkinje fibres convey impulses of contraction from the AV node to the apex of the myocardium. Here the wave of ventricular contraction begins, then sweeps upwards and outwards, pumping blood into the pulmonary artery and the aorta.
This nodal musculature has the ability to generate action potentials without any external stimuli.

Question 12.
Define a cardiac cycle and the cardiac output.
Answer:
Cardiac Cycle: The sequential event in the heart which is cyclically repeated is called the cardiac cycle. It consists of systole and diastole of both the atria and ventricles.

Cardiac Output: It is the volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute and averages 5000 mL or 5 L in a healthy individual. The body has the ability to alter the stroke volume as well as the heart rate and thereby the cardiac output. For example, the cardiac output of an athlete will be much higher than that of an ordinary man.

Question 13.
Explain heart sounds.
Answer:
During each cardiac cycle, two prominent sounds are produced which can be easily heard through a stethoscope. The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves, whereas the second heart sound (dup) is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves. These sounds are of clinical diagnostic significance.

Question 14.
Draw a standard ECG and explain the different segments in it.
Answer:
Electrocardiograph (ECG): ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle. A patient is connected to the machine with three electrical leads (one to each wrist and to the left ankle) that continuously monitor the heart activity. For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to the chest region.

Each peak in, the ECG is identified with a letter from P to T that corresponds to a specific electrical activity of the heart. The P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarization) of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the atria. The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles, which initiates the ventricular contraction. The contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation 1

  • The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarisation).
  • The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.
  • Obviously, by counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can determine the heartbeat rate of an individual.
  • Since the ECGs obtained from different individuals have roughly the same shape for a given lead configuration, any deviation from this shape indicates a possible abnormality or disease.
  • Hence, it is of a great clinical significance.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
In Swampy areas like Sunderbans in West Bengal, plants bear special kind of roots called [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Pneumatophores. These are respiratory roots present in mangrove plants which grow in saline areas.

Question 2.
In aquatic plants like Pistia and Eichhomia, leaves and roots are found near [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Water surface. This helps in balancing the plants over water surface.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 3.
Why some tap roots become swollen and fleshy?
Answer:
These roots store food in them.

Question 4.
Why insects attract towards pitcher plants?
Answer:
In pitcher plants, the leaf apex gives rise to a coloured lid for attracting the insects.

Question 5.
When the corolla is described as gamopetalous?
Answer:
The corolla is described as gamopetalous when it has fused petals.

Question 6.
Describe the fruit of Allium cepa (onion).
Answer:
A loculicidal capsule with endospermic seeds.

Question 7.
In epigynous flower, ovary is situated below the [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Thalamus of the flower.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 8.
A maize grain is not a seed. Explain.
Answer:
A maize grain is a single seeded fruit called caryopsis or grain, in which the pericarp (fruit wall) is inseparably fused with testa.

Question 9.
How superior and inferior ovaries are indicated by symbol?
Answer:
Superior ovary, e.g., G. Inferior ovary, e.g., \(\overline{\mathrm{G}}\)

Question 10.
What does these symbol indicate ⊕ and ⊕ ?
Answer:
⊕ – Actinomorphic, + -Zygomorphic.

Question 11.
Add the missing floral organs of the given formula of Fabaceae, PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 1 [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 2

Question 12.
Write the floral formula of Liliaceae.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 3

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
Describe the various regions of the root.
Answer:
Regions of the Root: The root is covered at the apex by a thimble-like structure called the root cap. It protects the tender apex of the root as it makes its way through the soil. A few millimeters above the root cap is the region of meristematic activity. The cells of this region are very small, thin-walled and with dense protoplasm. They divide repeatedly.

The cells proximal to this region undergo rapid elongation and enlargement and are responsible for the growth of the root in length. This region is called the region of elongation. The cells of the elongation zone gradually differentiate and mature. Hence, this zone, proximal to region of elongation, is called the region of maturation. From this region some of the epidermal cells form very fine and delicate, thread-like structures called root hairs. These root hairs absorb water and minerals from the soil.

Question 2.
Write the structure and functions of the stem.
Answer:
The Stem: The stem is the ascending part of the axis bearing branches, leaves, flowers and fruits. It develops from the plumule of the embryo of a germinating seed. The stem bears nodes and internodes. The region of the stem where leaves are born are called nodes while internodes are the portions between two nodes. The stem bears buds, which may be terminal or axillary. Stem is generally green when young and later often become woody and dark brown.

The main function of the stem is spreading out branches bearing leaves, flowers and fruits. It conducts water, minerals and photosynthates. Some stems perform the function of storage of food, support, protection and of vegetative propagation.

Question 3.
Explain the structure of leaf.
Answer:
A typical leaf consists of three main parts leaf base, petiole and lamina. The leaf is attached to the stem by the leaf base and may bear two lateral small leaf like structures called stipules. In monocotyledons, the leaf base
expands into a sheath covering the stem partially or wholly. In some leguminous plants the leafbase may become swollen, which is called the pulvinus. The petiole help hold the blade to light. Long thin flexible petioles allow leaf blades to flutter in wind, thereby cooling the leaf and bringing fresh air to leaf surface. The lamina or the leaf blade is the green expanded part of the leaf with veins and veinlets.

There is, usually, a middle prominent vein, which is known as the midrib. Veins provide rigidity to the leaf blade and act as channels of transport for water, minerals and food materials. The shape, margin, apex, surface and extent of incision of lamina varies in different leaves.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 4.
Describe the venation of leaf in brief.
Answer:
The arrangement of veins and the veinlets in the lamina of leaf is termed as venation. When the veinlets form a network, the venation is termed as reticulate. When the veins run parallel to each other within a lamina, the venation is termed as parallel. Leaves of dicotyledonous plants generally possess reticulate venation, while parallel venation is the characteristic of most monocotyledons.

Question 5.
What is the difference between simple leaf and compound leaf?
Answer:
In simple leaf lamina is usually entire and when the lamina is showing incision, the incision do not touch the midrib.
In compound leaf, the incision on lamina reach up to the midrib, which results in number of leaflets. Presence or absence of axillary bud also shows the difference between leaf and leaflets.

Question 6.
What is the difference between valvate and twisted aestivation?
Answer:
In valvate aestivation sepals or petals don’t overlap, while in twisted aestivation sepals or petals slightly overlap.

Question 7.
What is the difference between a mango fruit and a coconut fruit in terms of edible part?
Answer:
Edible part in mango: Mesocarp
Edible part in coconut: Seed.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
What is the difference and similarity between prop root and stilt root?
Answer:
Difference: Prop roots come out of branches of the main stem and they come from greater heights. Stilt roots come out from the main stem and they come out from just above the ground.
Similarity: Both prop roots and stilt roots give additional mechanical support to the plant.

Question 2.
Write the description of gynoecium in various plants.
Answer:
The description of gynoecium varies in following ways :

  • Carpels: Monocarpellary/bicarpellary/tricar pellary/tetracarpellary/ multi carpellary.
  • Cohestion: Apocarpous/syncarpous.
  • Ovary: Superior/semi-inferior/inferior.
  • Placentation: Marginal/axile/parietal/basal/ffee- central/superficial
  • Style: Terminal/lateral/gynobasic/stylopodium.
  • Stigma: Number, shape-simple, lobed, capitate, branched

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Morphology of Flowering Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Morphology of Flowering Plants

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Morphology of Flowering Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by modification of root? What type of modification of root is found in the:
(a) Banyan tree
(b) Turnip
(c) Mangrove trees
Answer:
Modification of Root: Roots in some plants change their shape and
structure and become modified to perform functions, other than absorption and conduction of water and minerals. The roots are modified for water, absorption, support, storage of food and respiration.
(a) A banyan tree have hanging roots known as prop roots.
(b) The roots of turnip get modified to become swollen and store food.
(c) The roots of mangrove trees get modified to grow vertically upwards and help to get oxygen for respiration. These are known as pneumatophores.

Question 2.
Justify the following statements on the basis of external features:
(a) Underground parts of a plant are not always roots.
(b) Flower is a modified shoot.
Answer:
(a) Underground parts of a plant are not always roots, they are subterranean stems which do not have root hairs and root cap. Have terminal bud, nodes and internodes. Have leaves on the nodes.
Most of the underground stems such as sucker, rhizome, corm, tubers, bulb, etc., store food, form aerial shoots.
(b) Flower is a modified shoot because:

  • It possess nodes and internodes.
  • It may develop in the axil of small leaf-like structure called bract.
  • Flowers get modified into bulbils or fleshy buds in some plants.
  • Anatomically the pedicel and thalamus of a flower resemble that of stem.
  • The vascular supply of different organs of flower resemble that of normal leaves.
  • In the flower of Degeneria, the stamens are expanded like leaves and the carpels appear like folded leaves.

Question 3.
How is a pinnately compound leaf different from a palmately compound leaf?
Answer:
In pinnately compound leaf, the number of leaflets are present on a common axis, the rachis, which represents the midrib of the leaf as in neem. In case of a palmately compound leaf, the leaflets are attached at a common point, i e., at the tip of petiole as in silk cotton.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 4.
Explain with suitable examples the different types of phyllotaxy.
Answer:
Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch. This is usually of three types—alternate, opposite and whorled.

  • In alternate phyllotaxy, a single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner, as in China rose, mustard and sunflower plants.
  • In opposite type of phyllotaxy, a pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other as in Calotropis and guava plants.
  • If more than two leaves arise at each node and form, a whorl, it is called as whorled, as in Alstonia.

Question 5.
Define the following terms:
(i) Aestivation
(ii) Placentation
(iii) Actinomorphic
(iv) Zygomorphic
(v) Superior ovary
(vi) Perigynous flower
(vii) Epipetalous stamen
Answer:
(i) Aestivation: The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in relation to one another in a flower bud is called aestivation.
(ii) Placentation: The pattern by which the ovules are attached in an ovary is called placentation.

(iii) Actinomorphic: A flower having radial symmetry. The parts of each whorl are similar in size and shape. The flower can be divided in two equal halves along more than one median longitudinal plane.

(iv) Zygomorphic: A flower having bilateral symmetry. The parts of one or more whorls are dissimilar. The flower can be divided into two equal halves in only one vertical plane.

(v) Superior ovary: The ovary is called superior when it is borne above the point attachment of perianth and stamens on the thalamus.

(vi) Perigynous flower: It is the condition in which gynoecium of a flower is situated in the centre and other parts of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level.

(vii) Epipetalous stamen: Stamens adhere to the petals by their filaments so, appear to arise from them.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 6.
Differentiate between:
(a) Racemose and cymose inflorescence
(b) Fibrous root and adventitious root
(c) Apocarpous and syncarpous ovary
Answer:
(a) Differences between Racemose and Cymose Inflorescence.

Racemose Cymose
1. This is further divided into (a) Raceme (b) Catkin (c) Spike (d) Spadix (e) Corymb (f) Umbel or capitutum It is further divided into (a) Monochasial cyme (b) Dichasial Cyme (c) Polychasial Cyme.
2. Branches develop indefinitely and further branches arise laterally in acropetal manner. The branches arise from terminal buds and stop growing after some time Lateral branches grow much vigorously and spread like a dome.

(b) Differences between Fibrous Root and Adventitious Root

Fibrous Root Adventitious Root
In monocotyledonous plants, the primary root is short lived and is replaced by a latge number of roots. These roots originate from the base of the fibrous root system say, for example in wheat plants. In some plants, say for example, in grass and banyan tree there are roots arising from parts of the plant other than the radicle. These are called adventitious roots.

(c) Differences between Apocarpous Ovaiy and Syncarpous Ovary

Apocarpous Ovary Syncarpous Ovary
When more than one carpel is present, they may be free (as in lotus and rose) and are called apocarpous ovary. They are termed syncarpous ovary when fused, as in mustard and tomato. After fertilisation, the ovules develop into seeds and like ovary matures into a fruit.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 7.
Draw the labelled diagram of the following:
(a) gram seed
(b) V.S. of maize seed
Answer:
(a) Gram Seed
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 1
(b) V.S. of maize seed
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 2

Question 8.
Describe modifications of stem with suitable examples. [NCERT]
Answer:
Modifications of stem are as follows:

  • Tendrils help plants to climb on the support, e. g., Cucumber.
  • Thorns are woody, pointed, straight structures to protect plants from browsing animals, e. g., Bougainvillea.
  • The plants in arid regions modify their stems into flattened (Opuntia) or fleshy cylindrical (Euphorbia) structures. They contain chlorophyll and carry out photosynthesis.
  • Underground stems of some plants such as grass and snawberry, etc., spread to new riches and when older parts die, new plants are formed.
  • In Pistia and Eichhornia, a lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found.
  • Stolons or runners help in vegetative propagation in jasmine and grass, respectively.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 9.
Take one flower each of the families Fabaceae and Solanaceae and write its semi-technical description. Also draw their floral diagram after studying them.
Answer:
(i) Fabaceae: This family was earlier called Papilionoideae, a subfamily of family Leguminosae.
(a) Habit: Trees, shrubs, herbs, climbers, etc.
(b) Root System: Tap root system with root nodules, that harbour nitrogen fixing bacterium.
(c) Leaves: Leaves are alternate, simple or pinnately compound, pulvinate, and stipulate; venation reticulate.
(d) Inflorescence: Racemose usually, a raceme.
(e) Flowers: Bracteate, bracteolate, bisexual, zygomorphic, hypogynous, and pentamerous.
(f) Calyx: Five sepals, gamosepalous, irregular, odd sepal anterior (characteristic feature of the family) and valvate aestivation.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 3
(g) Corolla: Corolla consists of five petals, polypetalous, characteristically papilionaceous, with an odd posterior large petal called standard or vexillum, a pair of lateral petals, called wing or alae and two anterior keel or carina, which enclose the essential organs; aestivation is vexillary.
(h) Androecium: Ten stamens, diadelphous, [(9) + 1] and anthers dithecous.
(i) Gynoecium: Ovary is superior, monocarpellary, unilocular with many ovules on marginal placenta; style single, curved or bent at right angles to the ovary.
(j) Fruits and Seeds: Characteristically a legume/pod and seeds are non-endospermic.
(k) Floral Formula: PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 4
(l) Economic Importance: Plants of this family yield pulses, edible oil, dye, fodder, fibres and wood; some yield products of medicinal value,

(ii) Solanaceae (Potato family)
(a) Habit: Plants are mostly herbs or shrubs or small trees; stem is erect, cylindrical, branched (cymose type); stem is underground in potato CSolarium tuberosum).
(b) Leaves: Simple, alternate, exstipulate with reticulate venation.
(c) Inflorescence: Axillary or extra-axillary cymose, or solitary.
(d) Flowers: Bisexual, actinomorphic, hypogynous and pentamerous.
(e) Calyx: Five sepals, gamosepalous, persistant and valvate aestivation.
(f) Corolla: Five petals, gamopetalous, valvate or imbricate, rotate/wheel-shaped.
(g) Androecium: Five stamens, epipetalous and alternating with the petals.
(h) Gynoecium: Bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior with many ovules on swollen axile placenta; carpels are obliquely placed.
(i) Fruits and Seeds: A berry (tomato and brinjal) or a capsule; seeds are endospermic.
(j) Floral Formula : PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 5
(k) Economic Importance: Many plants are used as source of food (vegetables), spice, medicines of fumigatory; some are ornamental plants.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 6

Question 10.
Describe the various types of placentations found in flowering plants.
Answer:
Types of Placentations: The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as placentation. The placentations are of different types – marginal, axile, parietal, free central and basal.

Marginal placentation: In this placentation, the placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and the ovules are borne on this ridge forming two rows as in pea.

Axile placentation: In this placentation, the placenta is axile and the ovules are attached to it in a multilocular ovary as in China rose, tomato, etc.

Parietal placentation: In this placentation, the ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or on peripheral part. Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of a false septum known as replam, e.g., mustard.

Free central placentation: In this type of placentation, the ovules are present on the central axis of ovary and septa are absent as in Dianthus and primrose.

Basal placentation: In this placentation the placenta develops at the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached to it, as in sunflower.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 11.
What is a flower? Describe the parts of a typical angiospermic flower.
Answer:
Flower: It is a condensed modified reproductive shoot found in angiosperms. It often develops in the axile of a small leaf-like structure called bract. The stalk of the flower is called pedicel. The tip of the pedicel or the base of flower has a broad highly condensed multinodal region called thalamus.
A flower has following four floral structures:

  • Calyx: It is made up of sepals. These are green in colour and help in photosynthesis.
  • Corolla: It is the brightly coloured part containing petals.
  • Androecium: It is the male reproductive part which consists of stamens. A stamen has a long filament and terminal anther. The anther produces the pollen grains.
  • Gynoecium: It is the female reproductive part which consists of
    carpels. A carpel has three parts, i.e., style, stigma and ovary. The ovary bears the ovules.

Question 12.
How do the various leaf modifications help plants?
Answer:
Leaf Modifications in Plants
(i) In some plants, the leaf and leaf parts get modified to form green, long, thin unbranched and sensitive thread-like structures called tendrils. The tendrils coil around the plant and provide support to the plant in climbing. Tendrils are present in pea, garden Nasturtium, Clematis, Smilax, etc.

(ii) In some plants, the leaves get modified to form curved stiff claw like hooks to help the plant in clinging to the support. Leaflet hooks are present in Bignonia.

(iii) In case of Acacia and Zizyphus, the leaves get modified to form vasculated, hard, stiff and pointed structures.

(iv) In case of Acacia longifolia, the expanded petiole gets modified and perform the function of photosynthesis in absence of lamina.

(v) In plants such as Nepenthes, the lamina is modified to form large pitcher. It is used for storing water and for digesting insect protein.

(vi) In case of Utricularia, the leaf segments are modified into small bladders, to trap small animals.

Question 13.
Define the term inflorescence. Explain the basis for the different types of inflorescence in flowering plants.
Answer:
The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is termed as inflorescence. Depending on whether the apex gets converted into a flower or continues to grow, two major types of inflorescences are defined – racemose and cymose. In racemose type of inflorescence the main axis continues to grow, the flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession.

In cymose type of inflorescence the main axis terminates in a flower, hence is limited in growth. The flowers are borne in a basipetal order, as depicted in figure.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 7

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 14.
Write the floral formula of a actinomorphic, bisexual, hypogynous flower with five united sepals, five free petals, five f free stamens and two united carpels with superior ovary and axile placentation.
Answer:
Floral formula PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 8

Question 15.
Describe the arrangement of floral members in relation to their ‘ insertion on thalamus.
Answer:
A flower is a condensed specialised reproductive shoot found in angiosperms. The stalk of the flower is known as pedicel. The tip of the pedicel or the base of the flower has a broad highly condensed multinodal region called thalamus. The floral parts of a flower are present on the thalamus. Starting from below they are green sepals or calyx, coloured petals or corolla, stamens or androecium and carpels or gynoecium.