PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
As per Rigveda name of Punjab was:
(a) Harappa
(b) Sapt Sindhu
(c) Panchnand
(d) Pentapotamia.
Answer:
(b) Sapt Sindhu.

Question 2.
Chinese traveller:
(a) Chanakya
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Hieun Tsang
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Hieun Tsang.

Question 3.
When was the Punjab annexed to the British Empire?
(a) 1849 AD.
(b) 1887 A.D.
(c) 1889 A.D.
(d) 1901 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1849 A.D.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 4.
Which doab is the least fertile among these?
(a) Chaj
(b) Sind Sagar
(c) Rachna
(d) Bari Doab.
Answer:
(b) Sind Sagar.

Question 5.
The name of region between Ghaggar and Yamuna is :
(a) Malwa
(b) Bangar
(c) Majha
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Bangar.

Question 6.
The Malwa region lies between which two rivers?
(a) Sutlej and Yamuna
(b) Sutlej and Ghaggar
(c) Ghaggar and Yamuna
(d) Sutlej and Beas.
Answer:
(b) Sutlej and Ghaggar.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
________ civilization flourished in Punjab.
Answer:
Harappa.

Question 2.
Penta means ________ and Potamia means
Answer:
five, rivers.

Question 3.
Punjab can be divided into ________ parts.
Answer:
three.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 4.
________ region is located between the rivers of Chenab and Jehlum.
Answer:
Chaj Doab.

Question 5.
The founder of Sikh Religion was ________
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Question 6.
Punjab was reorganised in ________ on the basis of language.
Answer:
1 November, 1966.

Question 7.
The height of Mount Everest is metre.
Answer:
8848.

III. Match the following :

Question 1.

A

B

1. Rigveda (a) Sub mountainous Area
2. Sulaiman (b) North-Western Mountains
3. Bangar (c) Tsekai
4. Shivalik (d) Sapt Sindhu
5. Hieun Tsang (e) Ghaggar and Yamuna.

Answer:

A

B

1. Rigveda (d) Sapt Sindhu
2. Sulaiman (b) North-Western Mountains
3. Bangar (e) Ghaggar and Yamuna.
4. Shivalik (a) Sub mountainous Area
5. Hieun Tsang (c) Tsekai

IV. Differentiate between the following :

Question 1.
Malwa and Bangar
Answer:
Malwa: The area spread between Sutlej and Ghaggar rivers is called Malwa. Major cities of this region are Ludhiana, Patiala, Nabha, Sangrur, Faridkot, Bhatinda, Fazilka etc.

Bangar: This region is situated between Ghaggar and Yamuna rivers. Its major cities are Ambala, Panipat, Kurukshetra, Jind, Rohtak, Karnal, Gurugram etc. In this region, there is one historical area where many decisive wars were fought.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 2.
West Punjab and East Punjab
Answer:
West Punjab and East Punjab : In 1947, at the time of Independence, Punjab was divided into two parts- West Punjab and East Punjab. Western side of Punjab was Muslim dominated area and become a part of newly made country Pakistan. East Punjab became a part of India. In 1947, 13 districts went over to Pakistan and rest 16 districts remained in Indian Punjab.

Question 3.
Pass and Doab
Answer:
(a) Pass. A pass is a gap or break in high, rugged terrain such as a mountain ridge. Through these, mountain can be crossed.
(b) Doab. The territory between two rivers is known as the Doab. Plains of Punjab are made up of Five Doabs.

Question 4.
Himalayas and Sub-mountainous region
Answer:
(a) Himalayas. The Himalaya means Him + Alaya i,e. Land of Ices The mountains of Himalaya are in series in Punjab. According to height, these mountains are divided into three parts, The Greater Himalayas, the Middle Himalayas and the Outer Himalayas.

(b) Sub-Mountainous Region (Terai Region). In the south of Pir Panjal range of Himalayas, there situated the foothills of Shivalik and Kasauli mountains. This region is known as Terai area of Punjab or sub-mountainous region. The average height of such mountains is 1000-3000 feet.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 5.
Chaj Doab and Bist Jalandhar Doab.
Answer:
(a) Chaj Doab. The region between rivers Chenab and Jehlum is called Chaj Doab. Major cities of this region are Gujarat, Bhera and Shahpur.

(6) Bist Jalandhar Doab. The area situated between rivers Beas and Sutlej is Bist Jalandhar Doab. Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur are the famous cities of this Doab.

V. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by the word ‘Punjab’?
Answer:
The word Punjab is a combination of two Persian words-Punj and Aab. The meaning of Punj is five and Aab is rivers. So, its literal meaning is the land of five rivers.

Question 2.
What name Greeks had given to Punjab?
Answer:
The Greeks called Punjab as Pentapotamia in which penta means five and potamia means rivers. So, it is the land of five rivers.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Sapt Sindhu?
Answer:
During the Vedic age, Punjab was called Sapt Sindhu because it was the land of seven rivers.

Question 4.
Punjab was divided into which two parts in 1947?
Answer:
In 1947, Punjab was divided into Western and Eastern parts. Western side went over to Pakistan and Eastern side remained in India.

Question 5.
Name any two passes located in North-West boundary of Punjab.
Answer:
Khyber pass, Kurram, Tochi etc. are the passes located in North-West boundary of Punjab.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 6.
When and in how many parts was Punjab divided on the linguistic basis?
Answer:
On 1st November, 1966, Punjab was divided into two states on linguistic basis and these were Punjab and Haryana.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Throw light on the different historical names of Punjab at the different times.
Answer:
The names of Punjab were changed from time to time :

  1. During Rig vedic age, Punjab was called Sapt Sindhu (the land of seven rivers).
  2. In the epics, The Ramayana, Mahabharata and Puranas, the name of Panchnand was mentioned for Punjab.
  3. Greeks gave the name Pentapotamia (Penta-five, potamia-five rivers) to Punjab.
  4. Taki tribe gave Punjab the name Taki province or Taki.
  5. Chinese traveller Hieun Tsang called Punjab as Tseh-Kia.
  6. During the times of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, Punjab was called as Lahore Province.
  7. The Mughal Emperor Akbar gave Punjab this name. Word Punjab is made up of two persian words Punj and Aab. Punj means five and Aab means water.
  8. In 1849 A.D., the British captured it and gave it the name of Punjab Province.
  9. In 1947 A.D., with the division of country, Punjab was divided into western and Eastern Punjab. But in both the countries, it is known with the name of Punjab.

Question 2.
Why is it necessary to study geographical characteristics of Punjab in order to study the history of Punjab?
Answer:
To study the history of any region, it is necessary to study its geographical characteristics. Punjab’s ways of living, eating, habits, wearing habits, nature of people and ideas, to an extent, are affected by its geographical characteristics. Its fertile plains became the Cradle of Civilisation. During hard times, it became the battle field where lakhs of people sacrificed their lives. Many times, its rivers guided the invaders. Its forests are also important. Many a times the victims of Mughal atrocities took shelter in its forests. Its fertile plains motivated many invaders to attack India. In this way, the geographical features of Punjab are very important.

Question 3.
Why is Punjab called the Gateway of India?
Answer:
Due to western branches of Himalaya, Punjab has acted as a gateway of India. It is not so difficult to cross the passes of these mountain ranges. Except Bolan pass, all other passes connect Afghanistan with Punjab. That’s why all the invaders from Aryans till Iranians, attacked India from this side. First of all, they had to struggle with the people of Punjab. They moved forward only after defeating Punjabis. In this way, Punjab played a role of gateway of India.

Question 4.
What were the causes of the spread of Islam in Punjab?
Answer:
The major reason of the spread of Islam in Punjab is that all the invaders first settled in Punjab. They asked the local people to adopt Islam. Muslim rulers commited atrocities on Hindus who stop following Islam. People of other far off regions, who initially adopted Islam, left it and came back to the fold of Hinduism but this was not the case with Punjabi’s because foreigners resided over here. Consequently Islam received great success in Punjab. One of another reason of the spread of Islam in Punjab was that the people were fed up with the complexity of vedic religion, caste system etc.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 5.
In what way the physical features of Punjab affected the economic life of people?
Answer:
The physical features of Punjab gave strength ‘to the economic life of the people. From the ages, each year, Himalayan rivers bring new soil and nutrients and spread them all along the plains. Consequently plains of Punjab were considered the most fertile land in the country. Due to fertile land, people had a bumper crop and they became prosperous. These rivers also irrigated its land. The Himalayas rivers are perennial and this become a boon for agriculture. With the help of wood from the forests of the Himalayas, many furniture and sports industries were developed over here. People get many other things from the mountains which helped in the development of industries.

VII. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the geographical characteristics of Punjab.
Answer:
The study of Punjab from geographical point of view is quite interesting. From this point of view, Punjab can be divided into three parts :

  1. The Himalayas and North-West Mountains.
  2. The Sub-Mountains region-Terai region.
  3. The Plains.

1. The Himalayas and North-West Mountains. This physical part of Punjab is given ahead :
(a) The Himalayas. There are a number of Himalayan ranges in Punjab. These ranges can be divided into three parts on the basis of their average height, which are-the Great Himalayas, the Middle Himalayas and the Outer Himalayas.
1. The Great Himalayas. In the east, the mountain ranges of the Great Himalayas reach upto Nepal and Tibet. In its western part, it is again called the Great Himalayas. The Great Himalayas separate the Punjab regions of Lahul-Spiti and district of Kangra from Kashmir. The scenic Kulu Valley and Rohtang Pass are situated in these ranges. These ranges rise from 5851 metres to 6781 metres. These mountain ranges are always covered with snow.

2. The Middle Himalayas. They are popularly known as the Pangi mountain ranges. These ranges start from Rohtang Pass. They separate the Valleys made by the rivers Chenab and Ravi. Their average height is 2155 metres.

3. The Outer Himalayas. The ranges of outer Himalayas run between Chamba and Dharmshala. They reach from Kashmir to Rawalpindi, Jhelum and Gujarat districts. Their average height is 923 metres. These ranges are also know’n as Dhauladhar ranges.

(b) North-West Mountains. The North-West Mountains form the western part of the Himalayas in Punjab. These mountains include the Kirthar and Sulaiman ranges. They have nothigh rising ranges. The most important feature of these ranges is the presence of a number of passes in them. Among these passes, the Khyber Pass is the most important. This pass became a gateway for most of the invaders.

2. The Sub Mountainous region-Terai region. There situated Terai region between the higher ranges of the Himalayas and plains of Punjab. They are also known as Sub-Mountainous regions. Their width is 160 km-320 km and their height is 300-900 metres. Due to the existence of many Valleys, this region seems different from the ranges of Himalaya. Form areas of Sialkot, Kangra, Hoshiarpur, Gurdaspur and Ambala are included in it. Normally it is a mountainous region. That’s why there is quite less production over here. At many places, land has been made ready to cultivate potato, paddy and maize. To live, people have to do quite a lot of hard work. This hard work has made them healthy.

3. The Plains. The plains of Punjab are divided into two regions. The Eastern Plain and the Western Plain. The plains surrounded by Yamuna and Ravi rivers are called the Eastern plains. They are very fertile and densely populated. The plains between Ravi and Indus rivers are called Western plains.

They are less fertile as compared to the Eastern plains.
(a) Five Doabs. The territory between two rivers is called Doab. The plains of Punjab consist of five doabs.

  1. The Sindh Sagar Doab: The region situated between the rivers Indus and Jhelum is called the Sindh Sagar Doab. It is not a very fertile region. Jhelum and Rawalpindi are the important cities of this Doab.
  2. Rachna Doab: This area is situated between the rivers Ravi and Chenab, is quite fertile. The important towns of this Doab are Gujranwala and Shekhupura.
  3. Bist-Jalandhar Doab: This Doab consists of the plains situated between the rivers Beas and Sutlej. Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur are the leading cities of this Doab.
  4. Bari Doab: The territory between the rivers Beas and Ravi is called the Bari Doab. It is also a fertile region. It is popular as Majha as it refers in central location of the area in Punjab. The two most famous cities of Punjab, namely, Amritsar and Lahore, are situated in this Doab.
  5. Chaj Doab: The territory between the Chenab and Jhelum is called Chaj Doab. The important cities of this Doab are Gujarat, Bhera and Shahpur.

(b) Malwa and Bangar. The wide plain situated between the rivers Sutlej and Yamuna is a part of Punjab. The plain can be divided into two parts namely, Malwa and Bangar.
1. Malwa: The area extending from the banks of river Sutlej to the banks of river Yamuna is called Malwa. Ludhiana, Patiala, Nabha, Sangrur, Faridkot, Bhatinda etc. are the prominent cities of Malwa. The area is known in Punjab as Malwa and the people belonging to this area are called Malwais. The area got its name from the name of a republican tribe called Malava, which’ lived here during ancient period of Indian history.

2. Bangar or Haryana: This region extends from river ghaggar to river Yamuna. Ambala, Kurukshetra, Panipat, Rohtak, Karnal, Gurgaon, Faridabad and Hissar are the prominent cities of this area. This area has great historical importance because numerous battles which influenced the course of Indian history were fought here.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 2.
Discuss the impact of physical features of Punjab on its political and religious sphere.
Answer:
Punjab is one of the most fertile land. Its ideal location has given its history a distinctive face. Moreover, history of any place takes birth from its geography. Punjab’s history is not an exception.

Its people have achieved great success in political and religious fields.
1. Impact on Political Sphere. The background of the Indian political history was prepared on the lands of Punjab. Almost all the initial invaders entered India from the North-West direction. The brave people of Punjab faced them. Most of the important and decisive wars were fought here. Chandragupta Maurya established first large kingdom in India but its base was prepared at Punjab. First of all, he provoked Punjabi’s against the Greek rule, recruited soldiers and prepared the programme to conquer India. The first Kingdom of Harshvardhana was Thaneshwar (near kurukshetra) and was in Punjab.

2. Impact on Religious Sphere. Many religious movements started in India which are of great importance in the Indian history. Chishti, Suharvardi, Sufi sects etc. originated here which spread in different parts of the country. On this sacred land, Sikhism was originated. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was the founder of Sikhism. After him there came 9 Gurus who gave Sikhism a distinctive indentity. Punjabis gave many sacrifices in the interest of humanity. The Sikh religion flourished rapidly in Punjab.

Question 3.
Discuss the impact of foreign invasion on the people of Punjab.
Answer:
The people of Punjab faced lot many foreign invaders. They also tolerated the people who came with the foreign invaders and settled over here. Due to continuous wars, a feeling of bravery and fearlessness came in them. They never lived at place for a very long time. With the advent of many people from foreign countries, their culture, ways of living, religion, language etc. became the part of Punjab. Many of the traits of the Muslim culture got assimilated in the Punjabi culture.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Punjab was annexed into the British Empire in ______________
(a) 1947 A.E),
(b) 1857 A.D.
(c) 1849 A.D.
(d) 1889 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1849 A.D.

Question 2.
Punjab was divided in two parts on the basis of language in ___________
(a) 1947 A.D.
(b) 1966 A.D.
(c) 1950 A.D.
(d) 1971 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1966 A.D.

Question 3.
________ river acted as a boundary between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and the British.
(a) Sutlej
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Beas.
Answer:
(a) Sutlej.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 4.
Presently which river acts a boundary between India and Pakistan?
(a) Ravi
(b) Chenab
(c) Beas
(d) Sutlej.
Answer:
(a) Ravi.

Question 5.
Shah Jaman attacked India (Punjab) in ________
(a) 1811 A.D.
(b) 1798 A.D.
(c) 1757 A.D.
(d) 1794 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1798 A.D.

Question 6.
Who made Delhi as the capital of India?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Curzon.
Answer:
(c) Lord Hardinge.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Punjab was called Sapt Sindhu during period.
Answer:
Vedic

Question 2.
The territory between two rivers is known as the ________
Answer:
Doab

Question 3.
The Mughal Emperor Akbar divided Punjab in ________ provinces.
Answer:
two

Question 4.
Under Maharaja Ranjit Singh, Punjab was called ________ as a province.
Answer:
Lahore

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 5.
During the Ramayana and Mahabharata age, Punjab was called ________
Answer:
Tsehkia

Question 6.
Alexander attacked India in ________ B. C.
Answer:
326.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is it not correct to use the word Punjab after the partition of India?
Answer:
Before partition, Punjab was a land of five rivers but after independence, three rivers went over to Pakistan and only two (Beas and Sutlej) remained in present Punjab.

Question 2.
What was the impact of Indian partition on Punjab?
Answer:
With the Indian partition, Punjab was divided in two parts.

Question 3.
In how mahy parts, can Punjab be divided from geographical point of view? Name them.
Answer:
From geographical point of view, Punjab can be divided into three parts :

  1. The Himalaya and its North-Eastern mountains,
  2. Sub-Mountainous region,
  3. The plains.

Question 4.
What type of area would Punjab be had the Himalayas not been there?
Answer:
If the Himalayas had not been there in the north of Punjab,it could have been dry and cold.

Question 5.
What is the meaning of the term ‘Doab’?
Answer:
Territory between two rivers.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 6.
What is the area between the rivers Sutlej and the Ghaggar called? What are the inhabitants of this area called?
Answer:
The region between the rivers Sutlej and Ghaggar is known as Malwa and people living in this region are called Malwais.

Question 7.
How was the Doab Bist Jalandhar named? Write the names of any two famous cities of this area.
Answer:

  1. Doab Bist Jalandhar is the region between the rivers Beas and Sutlej. By joining the first letters of the names of the rivers Beas and Sutlej, the word Bist is formed
  2. Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur are the two famous cities of this region.

Question 8.
Why is the Doab Bari called Majha? What are the residents of this area called?
Answer:
The Bari Doab is situated in the central Punjab. The word Majha means inner or the centre and that is why it is called the Majha. The people living in this region are called Majhels or Majahis.

Question 9.
Which Mughal ruler had divided the Punjab into two provinces?
Answer:
The Mughal ruler Akbar divided the Punjab into two provinces.

Question 10.
By what name was the Punjab called during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Punjab was called ‘Lahore Kingdom’ during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

Question 11.
When did the British annex Punjab?
Answer:
The British annexed Punjab in 1849.

Question 12.
When did the division of Punjab take place on linguistic basis?
Answer:
Punjab was divided in two states namely, Punjab and Haryana in 1966 on Linguistic basis.

Question 13.
Name any four major tribes which invaded Punjab after crossing the passes of the north-west ranges of Himalayas.
Answer:
The four main tribes were the Aryans, Sakas, Greeks and Kushans.

Question 14.
In which two parts are the plains of Punjab divided?
Answer:
The plains of Punjab are divided in two parts namely Eastern plains and Western plains.

Question 15.
Which two rivers have remained in the Indian Punjab?
Answer:
Sutlej and Beas.

Question 16.
What was Punjab called during Ramayana and Mahabharata ages?
Answer:
Panchnand

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 17.
Which Governor-General made Delhi the Capital of India?
Answer:
Lord Hardinge.

Question 18.
Name any two passes situated in the western ranges of the Himalayas. ,
Answer:
Khyber and Tochi.

Question 19.
When did Delhi become the Capital of India?
Answer:
In 1911 A.D.

Question 20.
When did Alexander attack India?
Answer:
In 326 B.C.

Question 21.
When did Shah Zaman attack India (Punjab)?
Answer:
In 1798 A.D.

Question 22.
Which river acted as the boundary between the British and Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
River Sutlej.

Question 23.
Presently, few parts of which river act as a boundary between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
Ravi.

Question 24.
Which was the Capital of Punjab during the times of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Lahore.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 25.
Why are the plains of Punjab called Real Punjab? Give any one reason in support of the claim.
Answer:
The plains are fertile and are the main cause of prosperity of Punjab.

Question 26.
Name any four Doabs of the plains of Punjab.
Answer:
Bist Jalandhar Doab, Bari Doab, Rachna Doab and Chaj Doab.

Question 27.
Name the rivers which surround the Malwa region in Punjab?
Answer:
The rivers Sutlej and Ghaggar surround the Malwa region.

Question 28.
Name any four cities of Punjab where decisive historical wars were fought?
Answer:
Terain, Panipat, Peshawar and Thanesar.

Question 29.
What name do we give to Pakistani Punjab?
Answer:
Western Punjab.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any four advantages of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The following are the main four benefits of the Himalayan mountains.

  1. The rivers of Himalayan flow during the whole year. They make the land of the Punjab fertile.
  2. There are dense forests in the Himalayan mountains. These forests provide many herbs and large quantities of wood.
  3. The high snow-covered peaks of the Himalayas protect India from the attacks of foreign invaders from the North.
  4. The Himalayan mountains check the monsoon winds and help in bringing rains.

Question 2.
Write briefly about any three Doabs.
Answer:

  1. The Sindh Sagar Doab. This Doab is the region between the rivers Indus and Jhelum. It is not a fertile region for farming.
  2. The Chaj Doab. This Doab is the region between the rivers Chenab and Jhelum. The important cities of this Doab are Gujarat, Bhera and Shahpur.
  3. The Rachna Doab. It is the region between the rivers Ravi and Chenab, which is a very fertile region. Gujranwala and Shekhupura are the important towns of this Doab.

Question 3.
How did the rivers of Punjab affect the course of its history?
Answer:
The rivers of Punjab always stopped the march of the invaders of India. When the rivers were in flood in the rainy season, they expanded in the vast area and it became impossible to cross them. Undoubtedly, it was the reason that Alexander was held back for many days on the banks of river Jhelum before crossing it, because it was in flood. These rivers proved insurmountable hurdles for many invaders. The rivers of Punjab had also been used as the natural boundaries for administrative purposes. The Mughal rulers divided the areas of the administrative units like Sarkars, Parganas, and Subas by adopting the rivers as the boundaries. The rivers of Punjab had made its land fertile and brought its people wealth and prosperity. Had the rivers not brought the alluvial soil from the high mountains to the plains, Punjab would not have any fertile land.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 4.
Give information about the boundaries of Punjab in different periods of Indian history.
Answer:
The boundaries of the Punjab territory varied from time to time throughout its history.

  1. According to the Rig Veda, the boundaries of Punjab included the regions covered by the rivers Indus. Jhelum Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej and Saraswati.
  2. During the Mauryan and Kushan periods, the boundaries of Punjab extended upto the Hindukush mountain ranges and Taxila.
  3. During the Sultanate period (1206-1526), the boundaries of Punjab extended from Lahore to Peshawar. During the Mughal period (1526-1707), the Punjab was diyided into two provinces, namely, Lahore Suba and Multan Suba.
  4. During the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the boundaries of Punjab extended from the river Sutlej to Peshawar.
  5. The British named the territory of Lahore kingdom of Maharaja Dalip Singh (Son of Maharaja Ranjit Singh) as the Punjab after annexing it to the British Indian Empire.
  6. After the partition of India, a major part^f the Punjab was transferred to Pakistan.
  7. On the basis of language, Punjab was divided into three states, namely Punjab, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 5.
How did the Himalayan mountains influence the history of Punjab?
Answer:
The Himalayas influenced the history of Punjab in the following manner :

  1. Punjab-The Gateway of India: Punjab remained the Gateway of India for centuries since ancient times due to the North-Western mountain ranges of the Himalayas. The foreign invaders crossed the passes of these ranges to invade India.
  2. The Problem of the North-West Frontier: The security of North-West Frontier of India had always remained a major problem for the rulers of India. Those rulers, who failed to ensure the security of North-West Frontiers, suffered heavy losses.
  3. Protection against Foreign Invasions: It was impossible to cross the high ranges of the Himalayas from north. Consequently, Punjab remained secure in the north for a long time since nobody could invade from the northern side.
  4. Economic Prosperity: The rivers, originating in the Himalayas, replenished her plains with fertile soil from year to year. Consequently, the plains of Punjab were counted among the most fertile lands of the world.

Question 6.
What role did the Punjab play in the history of India?
Answer:
The Punjab played an important role in the history of India due to its special geographical location. It became the cradle of Indian civilization. The oldest ancient culture (Indus Valley Civilization) flourished in the Punjab. The Aryans made it the centre of their political sway. They composed their sacred books like the Vedas, Puranas, Mahabharata, Ramayana etc, in the Punjab. Punjab was the the Gateway of India. All the invaders during medieval period came to India by passing through Punjab. Hence, people of Punjab had to fight numerous battles to hold back the advancing invaders. Apart from this, Punjab was the birthplace of Hinduism and Sikhism. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave his divine message on this very land. It was here that Guru Gobind Singh Ji created the Khalsa Panth and successfully resisted the Mughal oppression. Banda Singh Bahadur and Maharaja Ranjit Singh hold prominent places in the history of India.

Question 7.
Give a brief description of the geographical division of Punjab keeping in view the history of Punjab.
Answer:
The geographical features of Punjab can be divided into three parts, keeping in view the history of Punjab.

  1. Himalayas and the North-West Mountain ranges.
  2. The Terai region (foothills).
  3. The Plains.

The mighty Himalayas form the boundary of Punjab in the north. The high rising peaks of the Himalayas are always covered With snow. The Himalayas have three ranges which run parallel to one another. There are numerous passes in the North West ranges through which the invaders, traders and religious preachers had been coming to India since ancient times. The second geographical division of Punjab is Terai region. It is sandwiched between the mountains and the plains of Punjab. The population in this region is small. The most important geographical division of Punjab is its plains, which are very fertile. They extend from river Indus in the northwest to river Yamuna in the south-east. It is formed by the soil deposited by the rivers from the Himalayas. It is the cause of the prosperity of Punjab since the ancient times.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 8.
How did the geographical features of Punjab influence the history of Punjab?
Answer:
Each geographical feature of Punjab has influenced differently the history of Punjab.

  1. The passes of the North-West Mountain Ranges of Himalayas allowed passage to many invaders. Hence the security of the North-west region remained a major problem for every ruler. On the other hand, the snow capped high rising peaks of the Himalayas in the parts of Punjab provided perfect security from all the possible invaders from the northern side.
  2. The distinctive culture of Punjab is a gift of the Himalayas standing in the North and West of Punjab.
  3. The prosperity and wealth of Punjab had always attracted the greedy invaders. Consequently. Punjab had to face their invasions frequently.
  4. The Terai region provided shelter to the Sikhs during their hard times. The Sikhs saved themselves and courageously faced the oppressive rulers.

Question 9.
Who annexed Punjab to the British Empire and when? Describe the role of the Punjab in the freedom struggle of India.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856), the Governor-General of India, annexed the Punjab to the British Indian Empire in 1849. Punjab made a commendable contribution to the freedom struggle of India. Baba Ram Singh started the Kuka Movement in Punjab. He was the first to oppose the British rule. The people of Punjab began the freedom struggle during the 20th century by starting, Gaddhar Movement, Gurudwara Movement, Babbar Akali Movement, Naujwan Sabha (Martyr Bhagat Singh’s Movement), Akali Movement, Praja Mandal Movement etc. Martyr Bhagat Singh sacrificed his life on the gallows for the sake of his motherland. The heroes of freedom struggle like Madan Lai Dhingra, Kartar Singh Sarabha and Udham Singh laid down their lives for the freedom of India. Ultimately, in 1947, India became free.

Question 10.
Describe the main features of Mountain Valleys (Tilhat) or Terai region (foothills) in Punjab.
Answer:
The Terai region of Punjab is situated below the hills of Himachal Pradesh and of Punjab. This region is 308 to 923 metres high above sea level. It presents a different look from the rest of the Himalayan regions in Punjab because of its meadows and valleys. The areas of Sialkot, Kangra, Hoshiarpur, Gurdaspur and some areas of Ambala district are parts of this region. It is mostly a hilly area. Consequently, the region is not much fertile. The waterborne diseases rapidly spread here during the rainy season. It has a small population. The people of the region are forced to work hard for their livelihood. This hqrd life has made them strong and sturdy.

Question 11.
How far have the plains influenced the history of Punjab?
Answer:

  1. Punjab had always remained a prosperous .state because its plains are fertile. The wealth and prosperity of Punjab always attracted greedy invaders from outside Punjab.
  2. Many historic battles were fought in the plains of Punjab. Peshawar, Kurukshetra, Thanesar, Sirhind, Bhatinda, Bhera, Kari, Terain, Panipat etc. witnessed major decisive battles. The three major decisive battles, the Battles of Panipat took place in Punjab.
  3. The people of Punjab were made to fight numerous battles because of the geographical location of the plains of Punjab. They suffered numerous atrocities at the hands of invaders. For example, Timur was notorious for his inhuman atrocities, which he inflicted on the people of Punjab.
  4. The people of Punjab developed the qualities of bravery and courage due to their involvement in frequent wars which they were made to fight.
  5. The Aryans developed Hinduism in Punjab. During the medieval period, this very land had the honour of being the birthplace of Guru Nanak Dev Ji who gave his spiritual message in a very simple language.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“The Himalayas have deeply influenced the history of Punjab.” Justify this statement with your arguments.
Answer:
The Himalayas stand high like a huge wall on the northern side of Punjab. The Himalayas have deeply influenced the history of Punjab :
1. Punjab: The Gateway of India. The Punjab had remained the Gateway of India for centuries because of the North-West ranges of Himalayas. First of all, the Aryans from Iran crossed the North Western mountain passes and invaded India. They faced strong opposition of the people of Punjab. But they ultimately settled in this region.

2. The Problem of North-West Frontier: The protection of North-West Frontiers had always remained a major problem for the Indian rulers. The Indian rulers were forced to spend a large amount of money for the protection of these frontiers.

3. Protection against the attacks of foreigners: The Northern ranges of the Himalayas are very high and always remain covered with snow. Therefore, Punjab remained safe from the attacks of the foreigners from the northern side.

4. Economic Prosperity: The Punjab has remained a prosperous region due to the Himalayas. The rivers of Himalayas replenished the upper soil of its land. Consequently, Punjab plains were counted among the most fertile regions of the world.

5. The Trade Relations with Foreign Countries: The passes in the North-West ranges served as trade routes to the foreign countries. The merchants from West Asian and Central Asian countries visited India by these trade routes. The Punjabi traders also visited their countries.

6. Distinctive Culture of Punjab. The Persians, Arabs, Turks, Mughals, and Afghans came to India crossing the passes of the North-West Himalayas. Their different languages like Arabic, Persian, Turkish, etc. mixed with Sanskrit-based local languages and dialects. This fusion of different cultures gave birth to the distinctive culture of Punjab which is now full of Indian and foreign features.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Name the Act to control the quality of seeds.
Answer:
Seed Control Order 1983.

Question 2.
Name the Act of controlling the quality of fertilizers.
Answer:
Fertilizers Control Order, 1985

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Question 3.
Name the places where laboratories for checking the quality of fertilizers are located?
Answer:
Ludhiana and Faridkot.

Question 4.
Name the Act to control the quality of insecticides.
Answer:
Insecticides Act-1968.

Question 5.
Who gives advice to Government of India regarding implementation of insecticide act 9
Answer:
Central Insecticide Board.

Question 6.
Name the places where laboratories to check quality of insecticides are located?
Answer:
Ludhiana, Bathinda, Amritsar.

Question 7.
Who gives permission to import pesticides from foreign countries?
Answer:
Central Registration Committee.

Question 8.
Under Insecticide Act who is declared as Insecticide Inspector?
Answer:
ADO (Agricultural Development Officer) is declared as Insecticide Inspector.

Question 9.
To whom shall you file a complaint against a dealer who sells low quality fertilizer?
Answer:
Chief Agricultural Officer.

Question 10.
Name the item for which TL label is used?
Answer:
For seeds it is labelled as truthfully labelled (TL).

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Why the quality control of fertilizers is important?
Answer:
Fertilizers play an important role in the agriculture. It is given to the crop so that the plants can develop properly. If fertilizers are not of good quality, it will badly affect the growth of the plants. All the hard work will go in vain. Therefore, Quality Control of Fertilizers is very important.

Question 2.
Why the quality .control of seeds is important?
Answer:
If seeds are not of good quality the produce will also be of lower quality and yield is also less. All the hard work will go in vain and farmer will not get expected price and profit. Therefore, seeds should be of good quality.

Question 3.
Name the commodities related to agriculture which are included under Essential Commodities Act?
Answer:
Government of India has included three main commodities : seeds, fertilizers and insecticides under Essential Commodities Act.

Question 4.
Name the laws which are implemented to control the quality of seeds, fertilizers and insecticides?
Answer:
For seeds it is Seed Control Order-1983, for fertilizers it is Fertilizer Control Order-1985, for insecticides it is Insecticides Act-1968.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Question 5.
What are the rights of seed inspector for controlling the quality of seeds?
Answer:
Seed Inspector can check stock, sale, purchase and ask for the information about the, seeds in the store from the dealer. He can search the seed store or shop. He can take samples of seeds and send them to the testing laboratories. If some fault is found he can ban the sale of the seeds. He can take possession of the documents related to seeds and can check them. In case shop keeper is found guilty, inspector can cancel the licence of the shop-keeper.

Question 6.
What are the rights of a farmer under Seed Control Order?
Answer:
Under this act, rights of the farmers who purchase the seeds are protected and secured. In case of low quality, fake or damaged seeds, farmer can get compensation for his expenditure occurred on seeds. If buyer feels that crop failure has occurred due to the low quality of seeds sold to him’by the seed dealer; he can file written complaint against the dealer to the Seed Inspector.

Question 7.
What evidence is required to file a complaint against dealer who sold low quality seeds ?
Answer:
Following evidences are required to file a complaint against dealer who sold low quality seeds :

  • Receipt or bill given by dealer at the time of purchase of seeds.
  • Label, tagged on the bags of seed.
  • Empty seed bag or container or packet.
  • Sample taken from purchased seeds.

Question 8.
Name the law for assurance of quality of fertilizers. Name the officer of agriculture department deputed for the proper implementation of this act.
Answer:
The law for assurance of quality of fertilizers is Fertilizer Control Order-1985. The implementation of this order in Punjab is done by Director, Department of Agriculture through Agriculture Officer and Agriculture Development Officer (ADO).

Question 9.
To check the quality of insecticides, what are the important actions taken by an Insecticide Inspector ?
Answer:
Insecticide inspector can do inspection of insecticide shops, godowns, sale centres and other related places which fall under his jurisdiction. He can collect samples of insecticides and send them to laboratories located at Ludhiana, Bathinda and Amritsar for investigation. He can check the stock to know about the expiry date of the chemicals sold by the dealer. He can also verify the weight and other such related facts. He can cancel the licence in case the dealer is found guilty of breaking the laws.

Question 10.
Write about Article-7 of Seed Act.
Answer:
This act is related to the selling of seeds. This act protects the rights of the farmers and prevents the dealer to sell low quality or damaged seed. Under Article-7 of the Seed Act, dealer can sell only notified seeds.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences:

Question 1.
Why is it important to control the quality of seeds, fertilizers and insecticides?
Answer:
For profitable farming three important things are required which are seeds, fertilizers and insecticides. All these three commodities are equally very important in profitable farming. These all should be of good quality. Fertilizers play an important role in the agriculture. It is applied so that the plants can develop properly. If fertilizers are not of good quality, it will badly affect the growth of the plants. All the hard work will go in vain. Therefore, Quality Control of Fertilizers is very important. If seeds are not of good quality the produce will also be of lower quality and yield is also less. All the hard work will go in vain and farmer will not get expected price and profit. Therefore, seeds should be of good quality. If these three are not of good quality then expenditure occured by profit is not upto the expectation, these will not be able to control the weeds, insects etc. Insects will damage the crop. It is very important to control the quality of seeds, fertilizers and insecticides.

Question 2.
How the quality of insecticides is controlled with the help of Insecticide Act?
Answer:
This act was passed in 1968 and was implemented in whole of the country. This act was implemented to check adulteration and discrepancies in the insecticides. According to this act, outdated expired and packs or bottles weighing less of insecticides cannot be sold. Government of Punjab has given authority to provide licence to dealers to the Chief Agriculture Officer at district level. ADO is declared as insecticide inspector who can check shops, godowns and sale centres of insecticides and can collect sample for sending to laboratories for investigation. Laboratories are located at Ludhiana, Amritsar, Bathinda. Those who are found flouting the act, legal action can be taken against them and their licence can be cancelled.

Question 3.
Describe the five main articles of seed control order?
Answer:
1. Right to give licence: According to this order, the state Government can appoint any officer who is suitable according to government as licence officer and also decide his jurisdiction area. In Punjab this right is given to department of Agriculture.

2. Seed Inspector: Under this act, State Government has appointed Agriculture Development Officer as seed inspector and also notified their jurisdiction and powers. Seed inspector can ask for any type of information from the dealer e.g., he can check stock of seeds, purchase of seeds, sale of seeds etc. Seed inspector can take samples of seeds and can check the seed shops. He can send the samples to the seed testing laboratories. If the dealer is found to flout the laws, seed inspector can restrict the sale of the seeds and can also take documents related with seeds in his possession. He can write to licence officer for cancelling of the licence of the dealer.

3. Rights of Farmers: Under this act, rights of the farmers who’ purchase the seeds are protected and secured. In case of low quality, fake or damaged seeds, farmer can get compensation for his expenditure on seeds. If buyer feels that crop failure has occured due to the low quality of seeds sold to him by the seed dealer; he can file written complaint against the dealer to the Seed Inspector.

Following evidences are required to file a complaint against dealer who sold low quality seeds :

  • Receipt or bill given by dealer at the time of purchase of seeds.
  • Label, tagged on the bags of seed.
  • Empty seed bag or container or packet.
  • Sample taken from purchased seeds.

4. Law regarding sale of seeds: Article-7 of the Seed Act, allows sale of only notified seeds. Seeds should be properly packed and labelled. Pack of seeds should have attached with it a label of certified seeds or truthfully (TL) seeds.

5. Certification of Seeds. Producer of the seeds if wants can get certification for the seeds produced by him.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Question 4.
What are the rights that are enjoyed by the farmers under Seed Control Order ?
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 5.
Name three products required for the development of agriculture and also give a brief description about their quality control.
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
When was Seed Control Act passed?
Answer:
1983.

Question 2.
When was Fertilizer Control Act passed?
Answer:
1985.

Question 3.
Who implements Seed, fertilizer, pesticide related acts in Punjab?
Answer:
Department of Agriculure, Punjab.

Question 4.
Which quality label is attached with the sealed packets, containers or bags of seeds?
Answer:
T.L. (Truthfully Labelled) or Certified seeds.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
When was Insecticide Act passed?
Answer:
This act was passed in 1968 and was implemented in whole of the country.

Question 2.
To whom Punjab Government has given the authority to give license to the dealer for selling insecticides?
Answer:
Punjab Government has given the authority to Chief Agriculture Officer of respective districts to give license to the dealer for selling insecticides.

Question 3.
Which points should be kept in mind while purchasing insecticides?
Answer:
Farmer should get receipt of the purchased insecticide. Containers and bottels containing insecticides should be porperly sealed. Farmer should check the expiry date on the container. In case of any doubt or problem contact Agriculture Development Officer or Chief Agriculture Officer.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Long Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Fertilizer Control Order 1985? How is it helpful in the Quality Control of Fertilizers?
Answer:
Fertilizer Control Order-1985 was made for assuring quality and correct weight of the fertilizers and also to prevent sale of adulterated fertilizers. It also prevents the sale of low-quality and non-certified fertilizers. Dealer has to get license for sale of fertilizers from the Chief Agriculture Officer of the district.

For checking the quality of fertilizers, monitoring is done at various levels. Dealers are not allowed to sell the fertilizers which are below specific standards. Competent authorities have been given proper rights to check the quality of fertilizers. They can check and inspect the fertilizer factories and dealers or shopkeepers which fall under their jurisdiction. If needed inspectors can take samples of fertilizers and send them to testing laboratories. Those dealers or shopkeepers who defy the law, their license can be cancelled and legal action can be taken against them.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Fertilizer testing laboratories are located at:
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Jalandhar
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Ludhiana

2. Insecticide testing laboratories are located at:
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Bathinda
(c) Amritsar
(d) All correct
Answer:
(d) All correct

3. Seed control order was made in:
(a) 1980
(b) 1983
(c) 1950
(d) 1995
Answer:
(b) 1983

4. Insecticide Act was made in :
(a) 1950
(b) 1968
(c) 1990
(d) 2000
Answer:
(b) 1968

5. Fertilizer control order was made in :
(a) 1985
(b) 1968
(c) 1995
(d) 1989
Answer:
(a) 1985

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

True/False:

1. For profitable farming main commodities required are seeds, fertilizers, and insecticides.
Answer:
True

2. Insecticides Act was not made in 1968.
Answer:
False

3. Government of India has made certain laws under the Essential Commodities Act.
Answer:
True

4. These acts are Seed Control Order, Fertilizer Control Order, Insecticides Act.
Answer:
True

5. Under article 7 of the Seed Act, notified seeds can not be sold.
Answer:
False

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Fertilizer testing laboratories are located at …………….. and ……………..
Answer:
Ludhiana, Faridkot

2. Fertilizer Control Order was made in …………….. which is used to prevent adultration, low quality and non-certified fertilizers, and to ensure quality and corrupt weight of fertilizers.
Answer:
1985

3. Insecticides samples are sent to the laboratories located at Ludhiana, Bathinda, …………….. for testing.
Answer:
Amritsar

4. Central Insecticide Board gives advice to …………….. to implement the laws.
Answer:
government

5. Central Registration Committee provides registration for the …………….. of agrochemicals and also provides permission for their import and export.
Answer:
manufacturing

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Social History of Clothing Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The Cotton cloth is made up of
(a) Cotton
(6) Animal Skin
(c) SilkWorms
(d) Wool.
Answer:
(a) Cotton.

Question 2.
Who thought of the artificial fibre first?
(a) Marie Curie
(b) Robert Hook
(c) Loius Subab
(d) Lord Curzon.
Answer:
(b) Robert Hook.

Question 3.
In which century did the people of Europe wear clothes according to their social status, class and gender?
(a) 15th Century
(b) 16th Century
(c) 17th Century
(d) 18th Century.
Answer:
(d) 18th Century.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 4.
The traders of which country began to import the Indian ‘Chintz’ (Chheent) cloth?
(a) China
(b) England
(c) Italy
(d) France.
Answer:
(b) England.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Archaeologists found the needles of ivory near ___________
Answer:
kostyonki

Question 2.
Silkworms are nurtured on ___________ trees.
Answer:
mulberry

Question 3.
The remains of ___________ clothes have been found in Egyptian, Babylonian and Indus Valley Civilizations.
Answer:
woollen

Question 4.
Industrial Revolution began in ___________ continent.
Answer:
Europe

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 5.
Swadeshi Movement began in ___________ A. D.
Answer:
1905.

III. Match the Columns:

Question 1.

A

B

1. Partition of Bengal (i) Rabindranath Tagore
2. Silk Clothes (ii) China
3. National Anthem (iii) 1789
4. French Revolution (iv) Mahatma Gandhi
5. Swadeshi Movement (v) Lord Curzon.

Answer:

A B
1. Partition of Bengal (v) Lord Curzon.
2. Silk Clothes (ii) China
3. National Anthem (i) Rabindranath Tagore
4. French Revolution (iii) 1789
5. Swadeshi Movement (iv) Mahatma Gandhi

IV. Difference between:

Question 1.
Woollen Cloth and Silk Cloth.
Answer:
Woollen Cloth and Silk Cloth.

  • Woollen Cloth: Wool is made of fibre which is made up of particular cells of the skin. Wool is taken from sheep, yaks, goats, rabbits, etc. Meriho wool is considered the best wool. The remains of woollen clothes were found from the Egyption, Babylonian and Indus Valley Civilizations. It refers that people also wore woollen Clothes.
  • Silk Cloth: Silk Cloth is made from the fibres prepared by silkworms. Actually, a silkworm prepares a cocoon for its security which is made of its Saliva, Silkthread is prepared from this cocoon. Mostly silkworms are nurtured on mulberry trees. China was the first country to develop the technique of making Silk Cloth.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 2.
Cotton Cloth and Artificial Fibre.
Answer:
Cotton Cloth and Artificial Fibre.

  • Cotton Cloth. Cotton cloth is made up of Cotton. Indians are wearing cotton clothes since ages. There are some historical evidences that reveal us that people in olden times were cotton clothes. Many cotton clothes have been found while excavating the sites of Individually civilisation. Rigvedic Hymns also refer to cotton.
  • Artificial Fibre. An Englishman, Robert Hook, thought of making artificial fibre. Later on, a french scientist also wrote about it, but did not give it a material shape. In 1842, another Englishman Louis Subab invented a machine to make cloth from artificial fibre. Artificial fibre, mulberry, rubber, alcohol, fat, raisins and some other vegetations are used to prepare artificial fibre. Cotton is widely used in India and Terrycot is made from polyster.

V. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was used by human beings to cover their bodies in the primitive age?
Answer:
Early humans used leaves, bark of trees and animal skin to cover their bodies.

Question 2.
How many types of fibres are used to make the clothes?
Answer:
Four types of fibres are used to make the clothes-Cotton, Woollen, silky and artificial.

Question 3.
Which type of sheep is to be the wool considered to be the best for woo!?
Answer:
Merino Sheep.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 4.
In which country did women first raise their voice to wear clothes of their choice?
Answer:
France.

Question 5.
From which country England used to import cotton before industrial Revolution?
Answer:
India.

Question 6.
Name the Indian leader who initiated the Khadi movement.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 7.
The people of Namdhari Sect wear clothes of which colour.
Answer:
White colour.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why did human beings feel the need of clothing?
Answer:
Clothing of a person shows his mental, intellectual and economic state. Clothing is not only used to cover the body but it also indicates about one’s cultural and social status in society. That’s why humans felt the need of clothing.

Question 2.
How is silk cloth prepared?
Answer:
Silk cloth is made from the fibres prepared by Silkworms. Actually, a silkworm prepares a cocoon for its security which is made of its Saliva. Silk thread is prepared from this cocoon. Mostly silkworms are nurtured on Mulberry trees. China was the first country to develop the technique of making ‘Silk Cloth.’

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 3.
What was the impact of Industrial Revolution on Clothing?
Answer:
During eighteenth-nineteenth centuries, Industrial Revolution exerted a great impact on the social, political and economic structure of the whole world. It led to the change in ideas and life style of the people and consequently change came in the clothing of the people.

Due to the cloth production on machines, cloth became cheap and much more cloth came in the market. As a results plenty of cloth with various designs was available at affordable price. That’s why people started wearing more clothes. Before this, cloth was expensive and people wore less number of clothes.

Question 4.
How did world wars influence the clothing of women?
Answer:
In twentieth century, many European women stopped wearing luxurious clothes because upper-class women mixed with other classes. Consequently, social barriers were eroded and women began to look similar. Clothes got shorter during the First World War (1914-1918) our of practical necessity. By 1917, lots of women in Britain were employed in ammunition factories. They wore a working uniform of blouse and trousers. Bright colours faded from sight and only sober colours were worn as the war dragged on.

Therefore, clothes became plainer and simpler. Skirts became shorter. Gradually, trousers became a vital part of Western women’s clothing, giving them greater freedom of movement. By the twentieth century, new schools for children emphasised the importance of plain dressing and discouraged ornamentation. Gymnastics and games entered the school curriculum for women. As women took to sports, they had to wear clothes that did not hamper movement. Whey they went out to work they needed clothes that were comfortable and convenient.

Question 5.
What do you know about Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The core philosophy was to use indigenous coarse cloth, shoes and other articles as part of self-respect and also to hit British economic interests. This gave a fillip to the indigenous industries and there was a significant revival in handlooms, silk-weaving and other traditional artisan crafts.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 6.
Write a note on the efforts made for the preparation of the national dress.
Answer:
By the end of 19th century, national consciousness started spreading among Indians. The Indians started thinking about those cultural symbols which could express national unity. Artists started finding the national art style. Poets wrote national songs. For the symbolic identity of the Nation, many scholars emphasized on developing the national dress. During the decade of 1870, Tagore family of Bengal started preparing the designs of national dress for males and females. Rabindranath Tagore suggested that instead of mixing the Indian and European dresses, the designs of Hindu and Muslim clothes should be mixed. In this way, Achkan (a long buttoned coat) was considered the most suitable dress for the Indian men.

Efforts were made to prepare a design while keeping in mind the traditions of different regions. At the end of the decade of 1870, Jnanadanandini Devi, wife of Satyendranath Tagore, the first Indian ICS officer, returned from Bombay to Calcutta. She adopted the Parsi style of wearing the Sari pinned to the left shoulder with a brooch and worn with a blouse and shoes. This was very quickly adopted by Brahmo. Samaji women. It was given the name of Brahmika Sari. This style gained acceptance before long among Marathis and Uttar Pradesh Brahmas, as well as non-Brahmas.

But these efforts were not completely successful. Even today, the females of Gujarat, Kerala and Assam wear different types of sarees.

Question 7.
Write a note on the clothing of Punjabi women.
Answer:
In Punjab, men wore Kurta-Pyjama and women wore suit i.e. Salwar Kameez. Most of the males wore turbans on their heads. There was a time when they wore Turre Wali Pagri and even starched Pagris. Earlier they wore single layered Pagris but now it has changed into double on centre stiched Pagri.

People wear red, pink and orange turbans at the time of marriage. White or light coloured turbans are used at the time of mourning. ‘Chadras’ and ‘Kurtas’ have been replaced wih Pant-Shirt with different types of shoes.

Earlier Punjabi women wore long Kurtas which is now changed to Salwar Kameez. They cover their head with dupatta. They also use dupatta for ‘Ghunghat’. To beautify the dupatta, embroidery, mirror work, gotta and Mukaish are also used. Even suits are embroided and painted in different beautiful designs. Urban women wear suits and sarees with blouse. They also wear ornaments such as Mohran, Tikka, Jhunks, Nose Pin, Rings, Earrings, Bangles, Hair clips etc. Now, under the influence of western cutlure, they have started wearing jeans and tops.

VII. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the fibres used for making clothes.
Answer:
With the invention of new fibres, people started different types of clothes. Due to change in weather and under the influence of cultural, social, political, economic and religious trends, there came continuous changes in the clothing of people which is continued even till today.

To know about the history of clothing, it is necessary to know abo different fibres whose description is given below :

  1. Woollen Cloth: Wool is made of fibre which is made up of particular cells of the skin. Wool is taken from sheep, yaks, goats, rabbits, etc. Merino wool is considered the best wool. The remains of woollen clothes, were found from the Egyption, Babylonian and Indus Valley civilizations. It refers that people also wore woollen clothes.
  2. Silk Cloth: Silk cloth is made from the fibres prepared by silkworms. Actually, a silkworm prepares a cocoon for its security which is made of its saliva, silkthread is prepared from this cocoon. Mostly silkworms are nurtured on mulberry trees. China was the first country to develop the technique of’making silk cloth.
  3. Cotton Cloth: Cotton cloth is made up of cotton. India are wearing cotton clothes since ages. There are some historical evidences which reveal us that people in olden times were cotton clothes. Many cotton clothes have been found while excavating the sites of Indus. Valley civilisation. Rigvedic Hymns also refer to cotton.
  4. Artificial Fibre: An Englishman, Robert Hook, thought making artificial fibre. Later on, a French scientist also wrote about it, but did not give it a material shape. In 1842, another Englishman Louis Subab invented a machine to make cloth from artificial fibre. Artificial fibre, mulberry, rubber, alcohol, fat, raisins and some other vegetations are used to prepare artificial fibre. Cotton is widely used in India and Terrycot is made from polyster.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 2.
What were the impacts of Industrial Revolution on the clothing of common people? Discuss in detail.
Answer:
Dining eighteenth-nineteenth centuries, industrial revolution exerted a great impact on the social political and economic structure of the whole world. It led to the change in ideas and life style of the people and consequently change came in the clothing of people.

Due to the cloth production on machines, cloth became cheap and much more cloth came in the market. As a result, plenty of cloth with various designs was available at affordable price. That’s why people started wearing more clothes.

Industrial Revolution had following impacts on the clothing of common people.
1. Impact on the Clothing of Common People. In the 18th century, people wore clothes according to their social status, class or gender. There was a great difference between the wearing style of males and females. Women wore skirts with high heel sandals. Men wore nakties. The clothing pattern of upper classes was different from that of the common people. But the French Revolution of 1789 A.D. ended all the priviledges of the Nobles or aristocrats. Consequently, every one started wearing colourful clothes. French people began to wear red cap as a symbol of liberty. Thus colourful clothes became fashionable everywhere in the world.

2. Impact on the Clothing of Women. In the European countries, from childhood, girls were tightly laced up and dressed in stays. The effort was to restrict the growth of their bodies, contain them with small moulds. Tightly laced, small-waisted women were admired as attractive, elegant and graceful.
(а) Clothing thus played a part in creating the image of frail, submissive Victorian women.
(b) But the changes related to clothing of women were not accepted.
(c) Around 1830, many women organizations, started demanding democratic rights for women. With the spread of the suffrage movement, clothing reforms started in the 13 British colonial of America.
(d) Press and literature highlighted the wrong effects of tight clothing and diseases caused by them.
(e) Many women organisations in America criticised the traditional
clothing because they believed that if clothes were comfortable and convenient, then women could work, earn their living and become independent.
(f) In the 1870s, the National Woman Suffrage Association headed by Mrs. Stanton, and the American woman suffrage association dominated by Lucy Stone both campaigned for dress reform.

Question 3.
Write down the impacts of the Swadeshi Movement on the clothing of Indian People.
Answer:
The Swadeshi movement had its genesis in the anti-partition movement which was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal. The government’s decision to partition. Bengal had been made public in December 1903. An immediate and spontaneous protest followed. During the first two months following the announcement, 500 protest meetings were held in East Bengal alone. This was the phase, 1903 to mid 1905, when moderate techniques of petitions, memoranda, speeches, public meetings and press campaigns held full away. The government remained unmoved and the decision to partition Bengal was announced on 19 July, 1905. The Swadeshi movement now galvanized into a powerful national movement under the leadership of Lala Lajpat Rai (Punjab), Bipin Chandra Pal (Bengal) and B. G. Tilak (Maharashtra). On 7th August meeting, the famous boycott resolution was passed. Boycott of Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt was urged. Among the chants of Bande Mataram, huge bonfires of foreign cloth was lit; people voluntarily gave away foreign clothes, shoes, liquor etc. to Congress workers. The Calcutta’s Collector of Customs in September 1906 noted a 22% fall in the quantity of imported cotton piece goods, 44% in cotton twists and yarns.

When Mahatma Gandhi gave stress on using Khadi, many Indians started boycotting the British cloth and it lead to the popularisation of Khadi. Khadi became the symbol of national unity.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 4.
Write a detailed note on the clothing of the Punjabi people.
Answer:
In Punjab, men wore Kurta-Pyjama and women wore suit i.e. Salwar Kameez. Most of the males wore turbans on their heads. There was a time when they wore Turre Wali Pagri and even starched Pagris. Earlier they wore single layered Pagris but now it has changed into double on centre stiched Pagri.

People wear red, pink and orange turbans at the time of marriage. White or light coloured turbans are used at the time of mourning. ‘Chadras’ and ‘Kurtas’ have been replaced wih Pant-Shirt with different types of shoes.
Earlier Punjabi women wore long Kurtas which is now changed to Salwar Kameez. They cover their head with dupatta. They also use dupatta for ‘Ghunghat’. To beautify the dupatta, embroidery, mirror work, gotta and Mukaish are also used. Even suits are embroided and painted in different beautiful designs. Urban women wear suits and sarees with blouse. They also wear ornaments such as Mohran, Tikka, Jhunks, Nose Pin, Rings, Earrings, Bangles, Hair clips etc. Now, under the influence of western cutlure, they have started wearing jeans and tops.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Social History of Clothing Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Those laws are known as ___________ which tried to control the behaviour of those considered socially inferior, preventing them from wearing certain clothes.
(a) Sumptuary laws
(b) Corn laws
(c) Cloth laws
(d) Red Cap laws.
Answer:
(a) Sumptuary laws.

Question 2.
___________ was a type of fur which was wore by Royal people.
(a) Sumptuary
(b) Ermine
(c) Corn
(d) Corset.
Answer:
(b) Ermine.

Question 3.
___________ was the political symbol of Red Cap in France.
(a) Symbol of brotherhood
(b) Symbol of Equality
(c) Symbol of liberty
(d) Symbol of economic equality.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 4.
___________ was a lady wear, meant to confine and shap her waist.
(a) Sumptuary
(b) Ermine
(c) Corn
(d) Corset.
Answer:
(d) Corset.

Question 5.
Suffrage movement was launched in ___________
(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) U.S.A.
Answer:
(a) England.

Question 6.
Anything essential to maintain life and growth is called
(a) Pableum
(b) Corset
(c) Necessity
(d) Chapkan.
Answer:
(a) Pableum.

Question 7.
___________ was the leader of National Woman Suffrage Association in 1870.
(a) Mrs. Cripps
(b) Mrs. Stanton
(c) Mrs. Stanford
(d) Mrs. Henry.
Answer:
(b) Mrs. Stanton.

Question 8.
___________ was the leader of American woman Suffrage Association during 1860’s.
(a) Mrs. Stanton
(d) Amelia Bloomer
(c) Lucy Stone
(d) Mrs. Stanford.
Answer:
(c) Lucy Stone.

Question 9.
Rational Dress Society started in England in
(a) 1870
(b) 1881
(c) 1876
(d) 1879
Answer:
(b) 1881.

Question 10.
___________ was an Indian cotton cloth printed with design and flowers.
(a) Chintz
(b) Floral
(c) Phenta
(d) Chapkan.
Answer:
(a) Chintz.

Question 11.
___________ was a type of hat.
(a) Chintz
(b) Phenta
(c) Floral
(d) Chapkan.
Answer:
(b) Phenta.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 12.
In the year ___________ Europeans were forbidden from wearing Indian clothes at official functions.
(a) 1830
(b) 1834
(c) 1832
(d) 1836.
Answer:
(a) 1830.

Question 13.
___________ was a long button cout considered the most suitable dress for men during the colonial period.
(a) Chintz
(b) Phenta
(c) Chapkan
(d) Corset.
Answer:
(c) Chapkan.

Question 14.
___________ divided Bengal in 1905.
(a) Lord Earnest
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Lord Curzon.

Question 15.
Gandhiji adopted loins cloth in
(a) Oct. 1920
(6) Sept. 1919
(c) Oct. 1918
(d) Oct. 1921.
Answer:
(d) Oct. 1921.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 16.
Who said these words, “the King had enough on for both of us”?
(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(6) Mahatma Gandhi.

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
___________ movement is the movement for the rights to vote for women.
Answer:
Suffrage

Question 2.
Chintz was a type of ___________
Answer:
cloth

Question 3.
Lord ___________ partitioned Bengal in 1905.
Answer:
Curzon

Question 4.
___________ was a great supporter of Swadeshi Movement.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 5.
___________ propagated the principles of the Swadeshi Movement through his speeches and newspapers.
Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

True/False:

Question 1.
Some men wear Fifty under the Pagri.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In the rural areas, men used to wear a Parna.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Achkan is a long buttoned skirt.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 4.
Sumptuary laws were passed in France.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Industrial revolution first started in England.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were known as sumptuary laws?
Answer:
The laws tried to control the behaviour of those considered socially inferior, preventing them from wearing certain clothes.

Question 2.
What was ermine?
Answer:
A type of fur which was wore by Royal people.

Question 3.
What was the political symbol of Red Cap in France?
Answer:
It was a symbol of liberty.

Question 4.
What was Corset?
Answer:
It was a lady wear, meant to confine and shape her waist.

Question 5.
What were stays?
Answer:
In England, from childhood girls were tightly laced up and dressed in stays. The purpose was to restrict the growth of their bodies.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 6.
Where was the Suffrage movement launched?
Answer:
In England.

Question 7.
Who was the leader of National Woman Suffrage Association in 1870?
Answer:
Mrs Stanton.

Question 8.
Who was the leader of American Woman Suffrage Association during 1860?
Answer:
Lucy Stone.

Question 9.
Who was Ameila Bloomer?
Answer:
She was a dress reformer.

Question 10.
When was Rational Dress society started in England?
Answer:
In 1881.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 11.
In which country traditional feminine clothing were criticised on a variety of grounds?
Answer:
In America.

Question 12.
What was Chintz?
Answer:
This was Indian Cotton Cloth printed with design and flowers.

Question 13.
Who were first Indians to adopt western-style clothing?
Answer:
Parsis.

Question 14.
What stands for phenta?
Answer:
It was a hat.

Question 15.
When were Europeans forbidden from wearing Indian clothes at official functions?
Answer:
In the year 1830.

Question 16.
Which Governor-General insisted that Indians take their shoes off when they appear before him?
Answer:
Lord Amherst.

Question 17.
What was Chapkan?
Answer:
It was a long button coat considered the most suitable dress for men during the colonial period.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 18.
When did Curzon proclaim partition of Bengal?
Answer:
In the year 1905.

Question 19.
How did Gandhi changes his dress in London?
Answer:
He cut of the tuft on his head and dressed in a western suit.

Question 20.
Which type of dress Gandhi followed as a lawyer in South Africa?
Answer:
He wore Western style clothes.

Question 21.
When did Gandhi adopt loins cloth?
Answer:
In October 1921.

Question 22.
Who said “the king had enough on for both of us”?
Answer:
Gandhiji said while entering in Birmingham palace.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the Sumptuary laws in France?
Answer:
There were different dresses for different sections of society. From 1294 to the time of the French Revolution in 1789, the people of France were expected to strictly follow what were known as ‘sumptuary laws’. The laws tried to control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors, preventing them from wearing certain clothes, consuming certain foods and beverages and hunting in certain areas. In medieval France, the items of clothing a person could purchase per year was regulated, on the basis of income and social rank. The material to be used for clothing was also legally prescribed. Only royalty could wear expensive materials like ermine and fur or silk, velvet and brocade. Other classes were prevented from clothing themselves with materials that were associated with the aristocracy.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 2.
Give any two examples of the ways in which European dress codes were different from Indian dress codes.
Answer:
As we know that dress is the part of a culture. For this reason clothings convey certain meaning through its style and wearing. When European traders first began visiting India, they were distinguished from the Indian ‘turban wearers’ as the ‘hat wearers’. These two headgears not only looked different, they also signified different things. The* turban in India was not just for protection from the heat but was a sign of respectability, and could not be removed at will. In the Western tradition, the hat had to be removed before social superiors as a sign of respect. This cultural difference created misunderstanding. The British were often offended if Indians did not take off their turban as a mark of respect when they met colonial officials. Many Indians wore the turban to assert their regional or national identity.

Another paradox related to the wearing of shoes. At the beginning of the nineteenth century, it was customary for British officials to follow Indian etiquette and-remove their footwear in the courts of ruling kings or chiefs. Some British officials also wore Indian clothes. But in 1830, Europeans were forbidden from wearing Indian clothes at official functions, so that their cultural identity was not undermined.

Question 3.
Suggest reasons why women in nineteenth century India were obliged to continue wearing traditional Indian dress even when men switched over to the more convenient Western clothing. What does this show about the position of women in society?
Answer:
It was the fact that women in the 19th century continued wearing Indian dress whereas man switched over to convenient western clothing. This happened only in the upper echelons of society.

Some of the reasons for this are the following :

  • In the 19th century, Indian women were confined to the four walls as the purdah system was prevalent. They were required to put on traditional dresses.
  • The position of women in the society was very low. Most of them were uneducated and did not attend schools or colleges. Therefore, no need was felt to change their style of clothing.
  • On the other hand upper class Indians were western educated and picked up western habits like western style of clothing. Those who were businessmen or officials imitated the British style of clothing for the sake of comfort, modernity and progress.
  • The Parsis were the first Indian to adopt western style of clothing as it was a mark of modernity, liberalism and progress. Some people had two sets of cloths. They put on western clothes for offices and business work and Indian clothes for social functions.

Question 4.
Winston Churchill described Mahatma Gandhi as a ‘Seditious Middle Temple Lawyer now posing as a half naked fakir’. What provoked such a comment and what does it tell you about the symbolic strength of Mahatma Gandhi’s dress?
Answer:
Winston Churchill was an imperialist by nature and believed in the superiority of whitemen. He called Mahatma Gandhi because under Gandhi’s leadership the Congress launched Non-cooperation and Civil Disobedience movement which were aimed at the’British rule. Gandhiji put on western clothes by practising as a lawyer in India and South Africa. Later on, he changed to loin clothes. He did so to identify himself with the peasants of India who were scantily dressed. But Mr Churchill saw it as a sign of inferiority and in order to denegrade called him a half- naked fakir. Churchill could not understand Gandhiji’s depth of love for his countrymen who could not afford full clothes. Gandhiji dress was a sign of simplicity, purity and of poverty of millions of Indian. Even whgn Gandhiji went to England for the Second Round Table Conference in 1931, he refused, to compromise and wore it even before King George V at the Buckingham palace.

Question 5.
What was the impact of the French Revolution on the distinctions created by Sumptuary laws?
Answer:
The French Revolution ended the distinctions created by Sumptuary laws. Both men and women began wearing clothing that was loose and comfortable. The colour of France-blue, white and red-became popular as they were a sign of the patriotic citizen. Other political symbols also became a part of dress. These included red cap of liberty, long trousers and revolutionary cockade pinned on a hat. The simplicity of clothing was meant to express the idea of equality.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 6.
Styles of clothing emphasised differences between men and women. Clarify the statement.
Answer:
Its true that the styles of clothing emphasised differences between men and women. Right from the childhood, women in Victorian England were groomed to be docile and dutiful, submissive and obedient. The ideal woman was one who could bear pain and suffering. While men were expected to be serious, independent, strong and aggressive, women were seen as delicate, frivolous, passive and decile.

Norms of clothing reflected these ideals. From childhood, girls were tightly laced up and dressed in stays. The effort was to restrict the growth of their bodies, contain them within small moulds. When slightly older, girls had to wear tight fitting corsets. Tightly laced, small-waisted women were admired as elegant, attractive and graceful. Clothing thus played a part in creating the image of frail, submissive Victorian women.

Question 7.
Many women of Europe believed in the ideals of womanhood. Explain it with the help of an example.
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that many of the European women believed in the ideas of womanhood. The ideals were in the air they breathed, the education they received at school or at home and the literature they read. Right from childhood, they grew up to believe that having a small waist was a duty of woman. For a woman, suffering pain was essential. To be seen as attractive, they had to wear the corset. The torture and pain this inflicted on the body was to be accepted as normal.

Question 8.
According to women’s magazine, low tight dress and corsets caused deformities. What were the views of doctors regarding this?
Answer:
Many women’s magazines wrote about the deformities caused by tight dress and corsets. These deformities are given below :

  • Such tight dresses and corsets caused deformities and illness among young girls.
  • Such clothing restricted body growth and hampered blood circulation.
  • With such clothes, muscles remained under developed and the spine got bent.

Doctors reported that many women were regularly complaining of acute weakness, felt languid and fainted frequently.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 9.
The white settlers on the east coast of America, criticised the traditional dresses of women. Why?
Answer:
The white settlers on the east coast of America, criticised the traditional dresses of women on many grounds. They believed that :

  • Long skirts swept the ground and collected filth and dirt.
  • The skirts were voluminous. They were difficult to handle.
  • Skirts hampered the movement of women. They prevented women from working and earning.

They believed that the reform of dress would change the position of women. If clothes were comfortable and convenient, women could wear, earn their living and become independent.

Question 10.
How did the Industrial Revolution in Britain proved disastrous for the Indian clothing industry?
Answer:
Before the industrial revolution in England, India had made cotton cloth was in great demand everywhere. During the seventeenth century, one fourth of the world’s cotton cloth was made in India. In 18th century, only Bengal had 10 lakh weavers. But industrial revolution mechanised the weaving process. Consequently Indian cotton started exporting to England and the products made there started coming to India. Indian cloth was unable to compete the mechanised product and its demand reduced to a great deal. As a result, large number of weavers become unemployed and the cotton textile centres such as Murshidabad, Surat etc. declined.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi’s dream of clothing the nation in Khadi appeal only to some sections of Indians?
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing 1
It was Gandhiji’s dream to cloth the whole nation in Khadi but it was not possible for those following his foot steps.

Some others did find it necessary. Here are some examples:

  • Nationalists such as Motilal Nehru gave up his expensive. Western-style suits and adopted the Indian dhoti and kurta. But these were not made of coarse cloth.
  • Those who had been deprived by caste norms for centuries were attracted to Western dress styles. Therefore, unlike”, Mahatma Gandhi, other nationalists such as Babasaheb Ambedkar never gave up the Western style suit. Many Dalits began to wear three piece suits and shoes and sdcks on all public occasions, as a political statement of self-respect.
  • A woman who wrote to Mahatma Gandhi from Maharasthra in 1928 said, “My husband says khadi is costly. Belonging as I do to Maharashtra, wear a sari nine yards long (and) the elders will not hear of a reduction (to six yards.)”
  • Other women, like Sarojini Naidu and Kamala Nehru, wore coloured saris with designs, instead of coarse, white homespun.

Question 2.
There came many changes in the designing and material of clothing during the eighteenth century why?
Answer:
During the eighteenth century, there came many changes in the designing and material of clothing due to following reasons.

  • The French Revolution ended the Sumptuary Laws.
  • The priviledges of Monarchy and the ruling class also ended.
  • The colours of France-Red, Blue and white-became the symbols of patriotism and that’s why clothes made up of these colours became popular.
  • To give importance to equality, people started wearing normal clothes.
  • People had different interests for clothes.
  • The sense of beauty among women brought changes in clothing.
  • Economic condition of the people also brought changes in clothing.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 3.
Give a brief description of the movement started during 1870’s in the U.S.A. for bringing reform in the clothing of women.
Answer:
During the decade of 1870’s ‘National Women Suffrage’ Association and ‘American Suffrage Association’ started a movement for bringing reform in women’s clothing. ‘Stanton’ was the leader of the former organisation and ‘Lucy Stone’ was the leader of the later organisation. The argument was simplify dress, shorten skirts and stop using corsets. On the both sides of Atlantic, there started a movement for rational dress reform. The reformers were unable to get any quick success in changing social values. They had to face ridicule and hostility. Conservatives opposed them every where. They argued that the women who gave up traditional dressing, no longer looked beautiful. They have lost their grace and feminity. Due to the continuous attacks by the conservatives, many women reformers again adopted the traditional clothes.

However, by the end of the nineteenth century, change was clearly visible. Under a variety of pressures, ideals of beauty and styles of clothing were both transformed. People started accepting the ideas of reformers which they had earlier opposed. New values come up with the changing times.

Question 4.
Give a description of the changes came in the clothing of Britain from Seventeenth century till the early years of the 20th Century.
Answer:
Before the seventeenth century, most ordinary women in Britain possessed very few clothes made of flax, linen or wool. They were quite to clean.

Indian Chintzes. After 1600, trade with India brought beautiful, cheap and easy to maintain indian Chintzes. Many European women could buy it easily end now increase the size of their wardrobes.

Industrial Revolution and Cotton Textile. In the nineteenth century, during the industrial revolution, there began mass production of cotton textile in Britain. It was exported to different parts of the world, including India. Now cotton clothes were easily accessible to almost all the groups on Europe. In the beginning of twentieth century, artificial fibres made clothes cheaper still and easier to wash and maintain. Change in the weight and length of clothes. In the late 1870’s heavy, restrictive underclothes, were gradually discarded. Now clothes got lighter, shorter and simpler. Yet untill 1914, clothes were ankle length. By 1915, the length of the skirt was dramatically reduced to mid-calf.

Question 5.
What was the British’s reaction towards Indian turban and Indian’s reaction towards British hat and why?
Answer:
In different cultures, particular items of clothing most often convey contrary meanings. These contrary meanings often leads to misunderstanding and conflict.

Styles of clothing in British India changed through such conflicts. We can take example of the turban and the hat. When European traders starting coming to India, they were easily distinguished with their hat. On the other side Indians were known for their turban or headgear. They both were not only looked different, but they also signified different things. The turban in India was not just for protection from the heat but was a sign of respectability. On contrary to this, in the western, tradition, the hat had to be removed before social superiors as a sign of respect. Their cultural difference creating misunderstanding. The British were often offended if Indians did not take off their turban when they met colonial officials.

Question 6.
Explain the famous case of the ‘Shoe Respect’ rule in 1862 A.D
Answer:
Indians were not allowed to wear the shoes while entering the court. In 1802, a famous case of the ‘Shoe Respect’ rule came forward is Surat Courtroom. Manockjee Cowasjee Entee, an assessor in the Surat Fouzdaree Adawlut, refused to take off his shoes in the court of the sessions judge. The judge insisted that he take off his shoes as that was the Indian way of showing respect to superiors. But Manockjee remained adamant. He was barred entry into the courtroom. He, then, sent a letter of protest to the governor of Bombay.

The British insisted that Indians took off their shoes when they entered a sacred place or home. That’s why they should do so when they enter the courtroom. Then, Indians argued that taking off shoes in sacred places and at home was linked to two different questions. One there was the problem of dirt and filth. Shoes collected dirt and filth. This dirt could not be allowed into clean spaces. Secondly leather shoes and the filth that stuck under it were seen as polluting. But public buildings like the courtroom were different from home. But there was no solution to the problem. However it took many years before shoes were permitted into the courtroom.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 7.
Write a note on Swadeshi movement initiated in India.
Answer:
Swadeshi movement was initiated in opposition to the partition of Bengal. Although the sense of nationalism was working behind this but the actual reason was the politics of clothing.

Initially people were appealed that they must boycot every foreign product and the start their own industries for the manufacture of goods such as matchboxes and cigrettes. People of the movement vowed to cleanse themselves of the colonial rule. The use of Khadi was made a patriotic duty. Women were urged to throw away their silk and glass bangles and wear simple shell bangles. Rough homespun was glorified in songs and poems to popularise it. The change of dress appealed largely to the upper castes as poor people could not afford the new products. After 15 years, many among the upper classes also returned to wearing European dress. Its major reason was that it was almost impossible for the Indian goods to compete with the cheap British goods.

Despite its limitations, the experiment with Swadeshi gave Mahatma Gandhi important ideas about using cloth as a symbolic weapon against the British rule.

Question 8.
Explain Mahatma Gandhi’s experiment with clothing.
Answer:
From time to time, Mahatma Gandhi changed his clothing. He was born in a Gujarati Bania family and he usually wore a shirt with dhoti or pyjama and sometimes a coat. In London, he adopted the western suit. On his return, he continued to wear western suits, topped with a turban.

Soon he decided that dressing unsuitably was a more powerful political statement. In Durban in 1913, Gandhiji shaved his head and appeared in a lungi kurta. He stood to protest against the shooting of Indian coal miners. On his return to India in 1915, he adopted a dress like a Kathiawadi peasant. In 1921, he adopted the short dhoti, the form of dress he wore until his death.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing 2
He did not want to adopt this clothing for the rest of his life. He wanted to experiment with a dress for a month or two. But soon he saw this as his duty to the poor and he never wore any other dress. He rejected the well-known clothes of the Indian ascetic and adopted the dress of the poorest Indian. Through this, he became a symbol of nationalism.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Food Security in India Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
To make available food at affordable prices to the poorer section, the government has started __________ system.
Answer:
Public Distribution

Question 2.
A big famine occurred in 1943 in __________ State of India.
Answer:
West Bengal

Question 3.
The malnutrition prevails more among __________ and __________
Answer:
Women, Children

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 4.
__________ card is issued to the very poor people.
Answer:
Rations

Question 5.
__________ is the price announed by the government for agricultural products.
Answer:
Minimum Support Price.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which card is issued to the people living below poverty line?
(a) Antyodoya Card
(b) BPL Card
(c) APL Card
(d) CPL Card.
Answer:
(b) BPL Card.

Question 2.
__________ is an indicator of food security.
(a) Milk
(b) Water
(c) Hunger
(d) Air.
Answer:
(c) Hunger.

Question 3.
What is the price announced by the government for agricultural products known as?
(a) Minimum Support Price
(b) Issue Price
(c) Minimum Price
(d) Fair Price.
Answer:
(a) Minimum Support Price

Question 4.
Besides Bengal Famine in which other state did famine occur?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Punjab
(c) Odisha
(d) Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
(c) Odisha.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 5.
Which Cooperative provides milk and milk products in Gujarat?
(a) Amul
(b) Verka
(c) Mother Dairy
(d) Sudha.
Answer:
(a) Amul.

III. True/False :

Question 1.
Availability of food means there is no food production within the country.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Hunger is an indicator of food security.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Ration shops are also known as Fair Price shops.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 4.
Milk-fed, Punjab is India’s largest marketing cooperative.
Answer:
False.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions :

Question 1.
What do you mean by food security?
Answer:
Food security means that food is available to every individual. All people should have access to basic food and they can afford to buy the food.

Question 2.
Explain the need for food security.
Answer:
The need for food security is due to continuous and rapid growth in population.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Famine?
Answer:
Famine means extreme scarcity of food.

Question 4.
Give two examples of epidemics.
Answer:

  1. Smallpox epidemic in India in 1974.
  2. Plague in India in 1994.

Question 5.
In which year Famine of Bengal occurred?
Answer:
In 1948.

Question 6.
How many people were killed during the Famine of Bengal?
Answer:
The famine killed thirty lakh people in the Famine of Bengal.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 7.
Who were the main sufferers during famine?
Answer:
Women and children were the main sufferers during famine.

Question 8.
Who gave the term ‘entitlement’?
Answer:
Dr. Amartya Sen.

Question 9.
Who are food insecure people?
Answer:
Landless people, traditional artisians, petty self-employed workers.

Question 10.
Name the states where food insecure people exist in large number.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha, Jharkhand, Bengal, Chhattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh etc.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Green Revolution?
Answer:
The green revolution refers to a set of research and the development of technology transfer initiatives occurring between the 1930s and the late 1960s, that increased agricultural production worldwide, particularly in the developing world, beginning most markedly in the late 1960s. The initiatives resulted in the adoption of new technologies.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Buffer stock?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by the government through FCI. It is created in order to distribute foodgrains, in deficit areas and among weaker sections of society at an affordable price. In other words, a buffer stock is a system that buys and stores stocks at times of good harvests to prevent prices falling below a target range and release stocks during bad harvests .to prevent prices rising above a target range.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 3.
What do you mean by Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Public distribution system means the regulated and controlled distribution of essential goods among people. Under this system, essential consumer goods are provided to people at fair prices through government agencies. PDS ensures supply of essential commodities through a network of fair price shops. At present, there are about 4.50 lakh fair price shops in India, out of which about 3.60 lakh shops are operating in rural areas and 0.90 lakh shops are operating in urban areas.

Question 4.
What is Minimum Support Price?
Answer:
Minimum support price is the price at which government purchases crops from the farmers and not at the market price. The MSP helps to support the farmers and thus ensures that they produce the required foodgrains in the country.

Question 5.
What do you mean by seasonal hunger and chronic hunger?
Answer:
Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food production. This happens in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of the casual labourers, who get less work during rainy season. On the other hand chronic hunger is a consequence of having persistently inadequate diet in terms of quantity and quality. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of very low income, and in turn, inability to buy food even for survival.

Question 6.
Why buffer stock is created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stocks are created by the government to distribute foodgrains in the deficit areas and among the poorer sections of society at a price lower than the market price. This also helps in solving the problem of shortage of food during bad harvest season or during period of calamity.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Issue price?
Answer:
The price at which the procured and buffer stock foodgrains are sold through the PDS is called as issue price. The issue price is higher than MSP but lower than the market price of the grains.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 8.
Explain the role of cooperatives in providing food.
Answer:
The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low priced goods to poor people. Mother Dairy is providing milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled rate while Amul is another cooperative in milk and milk products. Academy of Development Science has facilitated a network of NGOs for setting up grains banks in different regions.

VI. Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India 1
What do you observe in picture?
Bengal Famine
Answer:
People are poor, unhealthy, and undernourished, without shelter and facing natural calamities like drought and famine.

Question 2.
Can you say that the family shown in the picture is a poor family? If yes then why?
Answer:
Yes, the family shown in the picture is a poor family because they have nothing to eat. They are facing acute hunger and ill health.

Question 3.
Discuss with your teacher about the source of livelihood of the people.
Answer:
In this situation only some government help or outside help can provide relief to these people for the livelihood.

Question 4.
What type of help can be given to victims of calamity at relief camps?
Answer:
Victims of calamity at relief camps can be given food, water, clothes, medicines and shelter first of all. After that rehabilitation programmes can be started.

Question 5.
Graph Production of foodgrains in India (Million Ton)
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India 2
Source: Economic Survey 2011-12, 2013-14 and Agriculture Estimates, a look 2004.

Study the graph and answer the following questions :

In which year did India achieve the target of producing nearly 200 million tonnes of foodgrains?
Answer:
In the year 2000-01, India achieved the target of producing nearly 200 million tonnes of foodgrains.

Question 6.
In which year did India have the highest production of foodgrains?
Answer:
India had the highest production of foodgrains in the year 2016-17.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 3.
Has the production of foodgrains continuously increased during 2000-01 to 2016-17?
Answer:
No, the production of foodgrains has not continuously increased during 2000-01 to 2016-17.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Food Security in India Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which is the dimension of food security?
(a) Accessibility
(b) Availability
(c) Affordability
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
Who are prone to food insecurity?
(a) SCs
(b) ST
(c) OBCs
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
When was RPDS launched?
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1994
(d) 1999.
Answer:
(b) 1992.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 4.
When was a famine of Bengal occur?
(a) 1948
(b) 1947
(c) 1951
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) 1948.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
__________ means accessibility, availability and affordability of food to all people at all times.
Answer:
Food Security

Question 2.
__________ has made India self-sufficient in wheat and rice.
Answer:
Green Revolution

Question 3.
__________ is the price announced by the government before the sowing season.
Answer:
MSP

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 4.
__________ hunger is related to cycles of food production.
Answer:
Seasonal

Question 5.
__________ emphasised the term ‘Entitlement’.
Answer:
Dr. Amartya Sen.

True/False:

Question 1.
Accessibility means food within the reach of every person.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Right to Food Act, 2013 provides food security.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
National food for work programme was started in 2009.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 4.
MSP is the price announced by the government.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is hunger?
Answer:
Hunger is another aspect of food insecurity. It is not just an expression of poverty. It brings about poverty.

Question 2.
On what factors does food security depend?
Answer:
Food security depends on the PDS.

Question 3.
When was Rationing System introduced in India?
Answer:
The rationing system was introduced in India in 1940s, after the disastrous Bengal famine occurred.

Question 4.
What is ‘Entitlement’?
Answer:
Entitlement would give a certain right to the citizens and place the state under obligation to meet the food needs of the hungry masses.

Question 5.
What is ADS?
Answer:
ADS means Academy of Development Science.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 6.
What are the dimensions of ‘food security’?
Answer:

  1. Availability of food,
  2. Accessibility of food,
  3. Affordability of food.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on :
(i) Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS).
Answer:
Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS). It was launched in 1992 in 1700 blocks in the country to provide the benefits of PDS to remote and backward areas.

(ii) Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
Answer:
Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS). It was launched in June, 1997 to adopt the principle of targeting the poor in all areas. It was for the first time that a differential price policy was adopted for poor and non-poor.

Question 2.
Explain, what do you mean by :
(i) A Famine
Answer:
A Famine. A Famine is characterised by widespread deaths due to starvation and epidemics caused by forced use of contaminated water or decaying food and loss of body resistance due to weakening from starvation.

(ii) Buffer Stock?
Answer:
Stock. Buffer Stock is the stock of foodgrains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India. The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops. The minimum support price is declared by the government every year before the sowing season to provide incentives, to the farmers for raising the production of their crops.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 3.
How is food security affected during a natural calamity?
Answer:
Due to a natural calamity, total production of foodgrains decreases. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas. As a result, the prices go up and some people cannot afford to buy food. If such calamity happens in a very widespread area or is stretched over a longer time period, it may cause a situation of starvation. A massive starvation might make a turn of famine.

Question 4.
Who are food-insecure?
Answer:
A large section of people suffer from food and nutrition insecurity in India. The worst affected groups are landless people with little or no land to depend upon, traditional artisans, providers of traditional services, petty self-employed workers and destitutes including beggars. In the urban areas, the food insecure families are those whose working members are generally employed in ill paid occupations and casual labour market.

Question 5.
What is minimum support price? What is the impact of procurement of food at enhanced minimum support price?
Answer:
The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre announced price for their crops. This price is called minimum support price.

The increased foodgrains procurement at enhanced minimum support price is the result of the pressure exerted by leading foodgrain “producing states. Increase in MSP has induced farmers, particularly in surplus states to divert land from production of coarse grains, which is the staple food of the poor.

Question 6.
In which ways is ‘buffer stock’ used to ensure food security?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India. It ensures food security by following ways :

  1. It distributes foodgrains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price.
  2. It also helps resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during periods of calamity.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 7.
Explain the different categories of people in India who suffer from food and nutrition insecurity.
Answer:
A large section of people suffer from food and nutrition insecurity in India. The worst affected categories of the people include landless people with little or no land to depend upon, traditional artisans, petty self-employed workers and destitutes including beggars. In the urban areas, the food insecure families are those whose working members are generally employed in ill paid occupations and casual labour market.

Question 8.
What is the function of Co-operative Society? Give example of two Co-operative Societies and their contribution in ensuring food security.
Answer:
The Co-operative Societies set up shops to sell low priced goods to poor people. Mother Dairy and Amul Milk Products are examples of Co-operative societies. In Delhi, Mother Dairy is making strides in provision of milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled rate decided by Government of Delhi. In Gujarat, Amul Milk Products has brought about the white revolution in the country.

Question 9.
What is Buffer Stock? Why is the buffer stock created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer Stock is the stock of foodgrains and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India (FCI).

  • To distribute foodgrains in the deficit areas.
  • To sell among the poorer strata of society at a lower price.
  • To resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.
  • To maintain food security.

Question 10.
Why was the rationing system revived?
Answer:
The introduction of rationing in India dates back to the 1940s against the backdrop of the Bengal famine. The rationing system was revived in the wake of an acute food shortage during 1960’s prior to the Green Revolution. In the wake of the high incidence of poverty levels, as reported by the NSSO in the Mid-1970’s, three food intervention programmes were introduced :

  1. PDS (Public Distribution System)
  2. ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services)
  3. FFW (Food-for-Work).

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 11.
Describe how the Public Distribution System in India has become more targeted over the years?
Answer:
The Public Distribution System in India has become more targeted over the years because it has failed to achieve its goals. Instances of hunger are prevalent despite overflowing granaries. FCI godons are overflowing with grains, with some rotting away and some being eaten by rats. PDS dealers are sometimes found resorting to malpractices like diverting the grains to open market to get better margin, selling poor quality grains at ration shops, etc.

Question 12.
Why self-sufficiency in foodgrains is necessary for every country?
Answer:
Self-sufficiency in foodgrains is necessary for every country due to the following reasons :

  1. In self-sufficient country, food security is not affected even during natural calamities.
  2. It will reduce the depending on foreign countries for the imports of food- grains.
  3. It will maintain price stability in the country and control black marketing.

Question 13.
What is subsidy? Should subsidies be continued in the country?
Answer:
Subsidy is an economic advantage to the people. Under subsidy, government provide goods and services below the market price. For the development of the country these subsidies must be curtailed as these are imposing very heavy burden on the government exchequer. These subsidies are misused in the country and deserving people are not getting it. Basically they are making great hindrances in the path of development So they must be stopped as soon as possible in the country.

Question 14.
State the role of cooperatives in food security.
Answer:
The cooperatives are playing an important role in food security in India especially in the southern and western parts of the country. The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low-priced goods to poor people. For example, out of all fair price shops running in Tamil Nadu, around 94% are being run by cooperatives. In Delhi, Mother Dairy is making strides in provision of milk and vegetables to the consumers at affordable rate decided by the Government of Delhi. These are a few examples of many more cooperatives running in different parts of the country ensuring food security to different sections of the society.

Question 15.
What is meant by the ‘National Food-for-Work’ programme?
Answer:
Food-for-Work was launched on 14 Nov. 2004 in 150 most backward districts of the country with the objective of providing guaranteed wage employment to every household whose adult volunteers do unskilled manual work for minimum 100 days in a year. It is implemented as a 100 percent centrally sponsored scheme and the foodgrains are provided to the states free of cost. For the implementation of this program, the Parliament has passed a new bill known as ‘National Rural Employment Guarantee Bill 2005’ in August 2005.

The collector is the nodal officer at the district level and has the overall responsibility of planning. For 2004-05,₹ 2,020 crore had been allocated for the programme in addition to 20 lakh tonnes of foodgrains.

Question 16.
Differentiate between the two dimensions of hunger. Where is each type of hunger more prevalent?
Answer:
The two main dimensions of hunger are chronic and seasonal dimensions. Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and quality. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their very low income and in turn inability to buy food even for survival.

Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of the casual labour. Each type of hunger is prevalent in rural areas.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 17.
Explain briefly the measures adopted by India after Independence to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.
Answer:
After independence, Indian policymakers adopted all measures to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains. India adopted a new strategy in agriculture, which resulted in the ‘Green Revolution’ especially in the production of wheat and rice. The increase in foodgrains was, however, disproportionate. The highest rate of growth was achieved in Punjab and Haryana, where foodgrain production jumped from 7.23 million tonnes in 1964-65 to reach an all time high of 30.33 million tonnes in 1995-96. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, on the other hand, recorded significant increases in rice yield.

Question 18.
How has the Public Distribution System (PDS) proved to be most effective in furthering food security in India?
Answer:
Public Distribution System is the most important step taken by the Government of India towards ensuring food security. In the beginning the coverage of PDS was universal with no discrimination between the poor and non-poor. Over the years, the policy related to PDS has been revised to make it more efficient and targeted. In 1992, Revamped Public Distribution System was introduced in 1,700 blocks in the country. The target was to provide the benefits of PDS to remote and backward areas.

Question 19.
Explain the dimensions of food security.
Or
Describe the dimension of food security.
Answer:
Food security, has the following dimensions :

  1. Availability of Food,
  2. Accessibility of Food
  3. Affordability of Food.

1. Availability of Food. It means food production within the country, food imports and the previous years’ stock stored in government granaries.

2. Accessibility of Food. It means food is within reach of every person.

3. Affordability of Food. It implies that an individual has enough money to buy sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet one’s dietary needs.

Question 20.
What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?
Answer:

  • During the disaster or calamity food supply is adversely affected.
  • During disaster or natural calamity like earthquake, drought, flood, etc., there is widespread failure of crops.
  • During calamity/disaster the price goes up.
  • Black-marketing and hoarding is also one of major factors responsible for high price rise during calamity.
  • During calamity or disaster situation of starvation may appear.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 21.
What will happen if there is no food security?
Answer:
If there is absence of food security, following problems will arise :

  • Due to natural calamity there will be shortage of food and prices go up. At high prices, some people cannot afford to buy food. It may cause a situation of starvation.
  • It will increase black marketing and people will be exploited to a large extent.
  • The poorest section of the society might be food insecure most of times,
  • A massive starvation might take a turn of famine.

Question 22.
Why is food security essential? How is food security affected during disaster?
Answer:
The poorest section of the society might be food insecure most of the times while persons above the poverty line might also be food insecure when country faces a disaster like earthquake, drought, flood, tsunami, etc.

During the time of natural calamity, total production of foodgrains decreases, which creates shortage of food in the affected areas. Due to shortage of food, the prices go up. At a high price, some people cannot afford to buy food. If such disaster happens in a very wide area or is stretched over a longer time period, it may cause a situation of starvation.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the issue of Food Security in India.
Answer:
“Food security implies access by all people at all times to sufficient quantities of food to lead an active and healthy life.”
“Hunger is intolerable in the modern world in a way could have been in the past, because it is so unnecessary and unwanted.”-Amartya Sen and John Dreaze.

Good security is basically understood in terms of food availability, stability and accessibility. Ensuring availability of food implies efficient domestic production and internal trade to make enough food available for the entire population. It calls for taking appropriate preemptive measures to ensure stability during harmful seasonal and inter-annual instability of food supplies. However, despite food being abundantly available, it may not be within easy access to certain sections of society.

Hence enhacing people’s purchasing power to buy food where it is not produced or’making it available at subsidised rate through the public distribution system and employment programs provides a safety net and ensures accessibility to adequate and safe food given the critical situation in India, food security needs to be understood also in terms of vulnerability of certain sections of the society who are physically and mentally pre-occupied with getting the next meal. It entails intervening sensitivity to make opportunities available to such section so that they can overcome exploration, injustice and discrimination.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 2.
Explain Public Distribution System.
Answer:
The network of Public Distribution System (PDS) was introduced to supply essential commodities at the subsidised price and it was considered as an essential element of Government’s safety net to the poor. After Bengal famine in 1943, the system of rationing for equitable distribution of foodgrain was introduced in India. After independence, the Government of India decided to extend the system was gradually designed to meet to basic food requirements of all consumers. In order to distribute essential food items fair price shops were opened in all states.

The Public Distribution System (PDS) evolved as a system of management of scarcity and food distribution of foodgrains at affordable Prices. Over the years, PDS has become an important part of Government’s policy for management of good economy in the country. PDS is supplemental in nature and is not intended to make available the entire requirement of any of the commodities distributed under it to a household or a section of the society.

PDS is operated under the joint responsibility of the Central and the State Governments. The central Government, through FCI, has assumed the responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of foodgrains to the State Governments. The operational responsibility including allocation within State, identification of families below the poverty fine, issue of Ration Cards and supervision of the functioning of FPS, rest with the State Governments. Under the PDS, presently the commodities namely wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene are being allocated to the States/UTs for distribution. Some State/UTs also distribute additional items of mass consumption through the PDS outlets such as pulses, edible oils, iodized salt, spices, etc.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Flower Cultivation Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Which is the major cut flower crop?
Answer:
Gladiolus.

Question 2.
Which is the major loose flower crop?
Answer:
Marigold.

Question 3.
How much area is under flower crops in Punjab?
Answer:
The area under cultivation of flowers in Punjab is around 2160 hectares out of which 1300 hectares area is under fresh flowers.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Question 4.
What are different types of flowering crops being cultivated in Punjab?
Answer:
Divided into two categories :

  • Loose flowers
  • Cut flowers.

Question 5.
When Gladiolus corms are planted in the field?
Answer:
September to mid-November.

Question 6.
Which month is suitable for making Chrysanthemum cuttings?
Answer:
End June to mid-July.

Question 7.
How Gerbera is propagated?
Answer:
Through tissue culture.

Question 8.
Which color of the rose is widely grown for loose flower production?
Answer:
Red Rose.

Question 9.
Which flowers are used for the extraction of oil?
Answer:
Flowers of Tuberose, Motia (Jasmine).

Question 10.
Which flower is generally grown in protected conditions?
Answer:
Gerbera.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Define cut flowers and name the major cut flower crops under cultivation.
Answer:
These are flowers that are cut with long stems or branches. Some of the major cut flowers are Gladiolus, Gerbera, Chrysanthemum, Rose, and Lilium.

Question 2.
How Gladiolus spikes are harvested and stored?
Answer:
Gladiolus flower spikes are harvested when the basal floret is half or fully open. These cut spikes can be stored by keeping them in water for nine days in a cold store.

Question 3.
How the roses are propagated?
Answer:
Propagation of rose plants can be done

  • by T-budding for cut flower varieties
  • from stem cuttings for loose flowers.

Question 4.
Which months are suitable for raising the nursery of Marigold crop?
Answer:
For rainy season nursery is raised during last week of June to first week of July. For winter it is done in mid September and foT summer first week of January.

Question 5.
What is the planting time for winter season marigold?
Answer:
In winter season marigold is sown during the mid September.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Question 6.
Write harvesting stages of the following flowers :

  1. Gladiolus
  2. Rose as cut flower
  3. Motia.

Answer:

  1. Gladiolus. Harvesting is done when the basal floret is half or fully open.
  2. Rose as a cut flower. It is harvested at the tight bud (closed) stage.
  3. Motia. These are harvested at the unopened flower buds stage.

Question 7.
What is plant spacing in African and French marigolds?
Answer:
For African marigold spacing is 40 x 30 cm and for French marigold, spacing is 60 x 60 cm.

Question 8.
What is planting time of Gerbera ? For how many years Gerbera crop gives flowers?
Answer:
Planting time for Gerbera is September to October. This crop once planted can produce flowers for three years.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 6

Question 9.
Write names of loose flowers and write their uses.
Answer:
Loose flowers are Rose, Marigold, Motia, Chrysanthemum etc. These flowers are used for making garlands, used for worshipping God and for other decorative purposes.

Question 10.
Which is the appropriate soil for Jasmine production?
Answer:
Light to heavy soil with good drainage are appropriate soils for Jasmine.

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences:

Question 1.
What is the importance of flowers in human life?
Answer:
Flowers are very important in human life. These make the world around us beautiful and colourful. Flowers play an important role in cultural and customary events. During marriage ceremonies, birthdays, flowers are used to complete some customs and are also used for decorative purposes. Devotees present flowers to their gods in the temples and other religious places to show their respect, faith and devotion. Chief guests are welcomed by presenting flowers to them in the form of bouquets or garlands. Women use flower as part of their make up. Flower cultivation has become economically beneficial for the farmers. Thus flowers play an important role in our life.

Question 2.
What is the difference between cut flowers and loose flowers? Give examples.
Answer:

  • Loose flowers: These flowers are harvested without stem. Examples of such flowers are Marigold, Motia, Chrysanthemum etc. These are used for making garlands, for worshipping gods and for other decorative purposes.
  • Cut flowers: These flowers are harvested with a long stem or branch attached with them. These are marketed as such with stem. These are usually used for making bouquets e.g.Gladiolus, Chrysanthemum, Gerbera, Rose, Lilium etc.

Question 3.
Write a brief note on importance and cultivation of motia.
Answer:
It is one of the main flower among fragrant flowers. These flowers are used to extract fragrant oil. These are also used for worshipping gods.
Climate. Summer season and dry climate is suitable for their growth.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 5

Soil. Light to heavy soils with good drainage are suitable. Appearance of flower. Flowers appear during the months of July—August.
Harvesting. Unopened flower buds are harvested for marketing.

Question 4.
Write a short note on transplanting, harvesting and yield of marigold.
Answer:
Marigold is one of the major loose flowers crop of our state. It is cultivated throughout the year. Soils of Punjab are found very appropriate for the cultivation of Marigold.
Sowing Nursery: For rainy season nursery is sown during last week of June to first week of July, for winter in mid September and for summer in first week of January. The seedlings are ready in a month of transplanting.
Varieties:L These are of two types—African and French.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 4

  • Spacing: For African variety spacing should be 40 x 30 cm and for French variety spacing should be 60 x 60 cm.
  • Flowering: Flowering starts after 50-60 days of transplanting.
  • Harvesting: Fully opened flowers are harvested.
  • Yield: Average yield in rainy season is 200 quintal per hectare and in winter it is 150 to 170 quintal per hectare.

Question 5.
How the following flowers are propagated?
1. Gladiolus
Answer:
Gladiolus. It is propagated by planting corms in the field.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

2. Tuberose
Answer:
Tuberose. These are propagated from underground bulbs.

3. Chrysanthemum
Answer:
Chrysanthemum. These are propagated by stem cuttings of plants. These are cut from old plants.

4. Gerbera.
Answer:
Gerbera. These plants are propagated through tissue culture.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How much area comes under fresh flower cultivation?
Answer:
1300 hectare.

Question 2.
What type of flowers are Gladiolus, Chrysanthemum, Gerbera?
Answer:
Cut flowers.

Question 3.
What type of flowers are Rose and Motia?
Answer:
Loose flower.

Question 4.
How Gladiolus plants are propagated?
Answer:
From corms.

Question 5.
What is the sowing time of corms of Gladiolus in the fields?
Answer:
From September to mid-November.

Question 6.
When can the cultivation of marigold be done?
Answer:
Throughout the year.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Question 7.
Which soil is good for the cultivation of Marigold?
Answer:
All soils of Punjab are suitable for the cultivation of Marigold.

Question 8.
Name the varieties of Marigold.
Answer:
African and French.

Question 9.
How much seed is required for raising seedlings for one acre?
Answer:
600 gram.

Question 10.
When is the nursery of Marigold sown for the rainy season?
Answer:
Last week of June to first week of July.

Question 11.
After how many days of transplanting Marigold the crop starts flowering?
Answer:
After 50-60 days.

Question 12.
What is the yield of Marigold in rainy season?
Answer:
Around 200 quintals per hectare.

Question 13.
What is the yield of Marigold in winter?
Answer:
150-170 quintal per hectare.

Question 14.
From which plants Chrysanthemum cutting are obtained?
Answer:
These are cut from old plants.

Question 15.
When the stem cuttings of Chrysanthemum are done?
Answer:
Last week of June to mid July.

Question 16.
When are stem cuttings of chrysanthemum planted in fields?
Answer:
Mid July to mid September.

Question 17.
Give plant spacing for Chrysanthemum.
Answer:
30 x 30 cm.

Question 18.
When does the flowers appear on the chrysanthemum?
Answer:
November-December.

Question 19.
At what height the cut stems are harvested above ground level?
Answer:
5 cm above the ground level.

Question 20.
When do we get rose flowers in Punjab?
Answer:
November to February-March.

Question 21.
What is the colour of Gerbera flowers?
Answer:
Red, orange, white, pink, yellow.

Question 22.
When are.Gerbera flowers planted?
Answer:
September to October.

Question 23.
How many types of Tuberose are there?
Answer:
Two types—single and double.

Question 24.
Which type of Tuberose is more fragrant?
Answer:
Single type.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Question 25.
When are the bulbs of tuberose planted?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 26.
When do the flowers of Tuberose appear?
Answer:
July-August.

Question 27.
Give yield of Tuberose.
Answer:
Cut flowers 80,000 or 2-2.5 tons of loose flowers per acre.

Question 28.
Name a fragrant giving flower.
Answer:
Motia.

Question 29.
What is the color of Motia flowers?
Answer:
White.

Question 30.
When do we get Motia flowers?
Answer:
April to July-August.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How to prepare bulbs of Gladiolus for planting in the next season?
Answer:
Corms are dug out from the soil after 6-8 weeks of harvesting the spikes. These corms are cleaned. These are dried in shade and are stored in a cold store for planting in the next season.

Question 2.
When is the nursery of marigold raised?
Answer:
Sowing Nursery. For the rainy season nursery is sown during last week of June to first week of July, for winter in mid September and for summer in first week of January. The seedlings are ready in a month of transplanting.

Question 3.
When are the cuttings for Chrysanthemum prepared?
Answer:
Stem cuttings are cut from the old plants which are known as mother stock from end June to mid July.

 

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 1

Question 4.
When do the flowers of Chrysanthemum appear and write about their harvesting?
Answer:
Chrysanthemum flowers appear in November-December. For cut flower use, stems are harvested 5 cm above ground whereas for loose flowers fully opened flowers are harvested.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Question 5.
When do the flowers of Rose appear and write about their harvesting?
Answer:
Rose flowers appear in November to February—March in Punjab. Cut flowers are harvested in tight bud stage and for loose flowers harvest in fully open stage.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 2

Question 6.
Write about types of Tuberose.
Answer:
Tuberose flowers are of two types—single and double. Single types are more fragrant and oil can be extracted from these flowers

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 3

Question 7.
When are the bulbs of tuberose planted and when do the flowers appear?
Answer:
Bulbs are planted in February-March and flowers appear in July-August.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write details of cultivation of Galdiolus.
Answer:

  • Gladiolus is main flower crop used as cut flower.
  • Seed: Gladiolus corms are used as seed.
  • Sowing time: September to mid-November.
  • Spacing: 30 x 20 cm
  • Harvesting: Spikes are harvested when basal floret is half or fully open.
  • Storing: Spikes can be stored by keeping them in water for nine days in cold store.
  • Next season seed: Dug out the corms from the soil from which flower spikes have been cut. Dug out these after 6-8 weeks after taking spikes. Clean and dry the corms in shade and store them in cold store of next season planting.

Question 2.
Write about cultivation of Chrysanthemum.
Answer:
Chrysanthemumilowers are used as cut flowers as well as loose flower. These can be planted is pots.

  • Preparing cuttings: Stem cuttings are prepared from old plants during last June to mid-July.
  • Sowing time: Cuttings are planted during mid-July to mid-September.
  • Plants spacing: 30 x 30 cm.
  • Appearance of flowers: November to December.
  • Harvesting: Cut flowers are harvested from 5 cm above the ground. But loose flowers are harvested when fully open.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Flower Cultivation Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. ……………….. is the main cut flower crop :
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Gladiolus
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Gladiolus

2. Produce obtained for tuberose is ……………….. loose flowers per acre.
(a) 2-2.5 ton
(b) 5 ton
(c) 20 ton
(d) 1 ton.
Answer:
(a) 2-2.5 ton

3. Gladiolus is propagated from the ………………..
(a) Corms
(b) Grafting
(c) Leaves
(d) All
Answer:
(a) Corms

4. Loose flower is :
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Jasmine
(d) Gerbera
Answer:
(d) Gerbera

5. French flower is type of ………………..
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Motia
(d) Gerbera.
Answer:
(a) Marigold

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

True/False:

1. In Punjab, area under flower cultivation is 5000 hectares.
Answer:
False

2. In Punjab, area under fresh flower cultivation is 13000 hectares.
Answer:
False

3. Gladiolus is propagated from the corms.
Answer:
True

4. For raising nursery of one acre of marigold 600 gram seed is required.
Answer:
True

5. Tuberose flowers are used as loose and cut flowers for oil extraction.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. In Punjab, flower crops are mainly classified in ……………… categories, Loose flower, Cut flower.
Answer:
two

2. Cut flowers are harvested with their ………………
Answer:
long stems

3. Marigold is the main major ……………… crop of Punjab.
Answer:
loqse flower

4. Tuberose bulbs are planted during ………………
Answer:
February-March

5. Motia (Jasmine) flowers are of ……………… colored having good fragrance.
Answer:
white

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Poverty: Challenge Facing India Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
More than _________ of the world’s poor people live in India.
Answer:
one fifth

Question 2.
Poverty creates a feeling of _________ in the poor people.
Answer:
insecurity

Question 3.
_________ people require more calories than _________ people.
Answer:
Rural urban

Question 4.
Punjab state has succeeded in reducing poverty with the help of high _________ growth rates.
Answer:
Agricultural

Question 5.
_________ is the method to measure the minimum income required to satisfy the basic needs of life.
Answer:
Poverty line

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 6.
_________ is a measurement of poverty.
Answer:
Relative poverty.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What is the number of people living in poverty in India?
(a) 20 crores
(b) 26 crores
(c) 25 crores
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 2.
Poverty ratio in _________ countries is less.
(а) Developed countries
(b) Developing countries
(c) Less developed countries
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(а) Developed countries

Question 3.
In India which state is the poorest state?
(a) Punjab
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Odisha
(d) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(c) Odisha

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 4.
National income is the indicator of
(a) Poverty line
(b) Population
(c) Relative poverty
(d) Absolute poverty.
Answer:
(c) Relative poverty

III. True/False:

Question 1.
There is a rapid decrease in global poverty.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Disguised unemployment prevails in agriculture.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Educated unemployment prevails more in villages.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) estimates the increase in populations.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 5.
Bihar and Odisha states are the most poor states.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions :

Question 1.
What is the meaning of relative poverty?
Answer:
Relative poverty refers to the distribution of national income across different individuals and households in the country.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of absolute poverty?
Answer:
Absolute poverty refers to the measure of poverty, keeping in view the per capita intake of calories and minimum level of consumption.

Question 3.
Name two indicators of relative poverty.
Answer:
Per capita income and national income are the two indicators of relative poverty.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of poverty line?
Answer:
Poverty line is the method to measure the minimum income required to satisfy the basic needs of life.

Question 5.
Name the criteria adopted by the Planning Commission of India to determine the poverty line.
Answer:
In India the Planning Commission of India determines the poverty line by his or her income or consumption level.

Question 6.
Name two indicators of poverty.
Answer:
Income and consumption are two indicators of poverty.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 7.
In poor families who suffers the most?
Answer:
In poor families childern suffer the most.

Question 8.
Name two poorest states of India.
Answer:
Odisha and Bihar are two poorest states of India.

Question 9.
How Kerala has reduced poverty in the state?
Answer:
Kerala has focused more on human resources development.

Question 10.
What has helped West Bengal in reducing poverty?
Answer:
Land reform measures have helped in reducing poverty in West Bengal.

Question 11.
Name two- states which reduced poverty with the help of high agricultural growth rates.
Answer:
Punjab and Haryana are the states which reduced poverty with the help of high agricultural growth rate.

Question 12.
How China and South-East-Asian countries are able to reduce poverty?
Answer:
In China and South-East-Asian countries poverty ratio declines as a result of rapid economic growth and investment in human resource development.

Question 13.
Give two causes of poverty.
Answer:

  1. Low economic growth.
  2. Heavy population pressure.

Question 14.
Name two poverty alleviation programmes.
Answer:

  1. Mahatama Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
  2. Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yozana (SGRY).

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 15.
Name the programme that provides free food to the Govt, school children.
Answer:
Minimum Needs Programme.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by poverty? Explain it.
Answer:
Poverty is a situation in which a person is unable to get minimum basic necessities of life, like food, clothing, shelter, education and health facilities. Man struggles to fulfil these minimum basic needs. If the minimum basic needs are not fulfilled then there is less of health and efficiency among those living in poverty and the country. In other words, poverty is a state of being extremely poor.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Relative Poverty and Absolute Poverty.
Answer:
Relative poverty refers to the distribution of national income acr oss different individuals and households in the country. The economic conditions of different regions or countries is compared under relative poverty. On the other hand absolute poverty refers to the measure of poverty, keeping in view the per capita intake of calories and minimum level of consumption. It refers to income and consumption levels in a country.

Question 3.
What are the problems faced by the poor people?
Answer:
Some of the most important problems faced by the poor people are as follows :

  1. Social discrimination
  2. Housing
  3. Subculture of poverty.

After 67 years of planning India is still one of the poorest countries in the world. Some of the variables on which the poor differ for others are degree of participation in the labour force, kind of employment, characteristics of family, degree of knowledge of the larger society, awareness of political, social and economic rights.

Question 4.
Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India.
Answer:
The poverty line is estimated based on consumption levels in India. If a person has basic needs fulfilled which include minimum level of food, clothing, educational and medical needs, etc. These minimum consumptions are then calculated in rupees and total becomes the minimum income required to fulfil basic needs. A person is considered poor if his income level falls below the minimum level necessary to fulfil basic needs.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 5.
Describe the major indicators of poverty.
Answer:
Keeping in view the different aspects of poverty, social scientists are trying to use a variety of indicators to measure poverty. Usually the indicator used to measure poverty are related to the level of income and consumption. But social scientists have also included social indicators like illiteracy level, malnutrition, lack of access to health care, lack of job opportunities and lack of safe drinking water. Social exclusion is another common indicator on which the analysis of poverty is based.

Question 6.
Describe the poverty trends in India since 1993-94.
Answer:
Percentage of people living below the poverty line has decreased in the last two decades. Though there is a decline in both rural and urban poverty but decline in rural poverty is less compared to decline in urban poverty.

In 1993-94, 403.7 million of people or 44.3% of population was living below the poverty line. The proportion of people below poverty line came down to 37.2% in 2004-05 and further to 21.7% in 2011-12.

Question 7.
Briefly describe the inter-state disparities in poverty in India.
Answer:
There is difference among the proportion of poor people in states. Estimates show that average Indian HCR was 21.7% in 2011-12 but states like Odisha and Bihar are the two poorest states with poverty ratio 32.6 and 33.7 respectively. In comparsion there has been a significant decline in poverty in Kerala, J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana. These states have used agricultural growth and human capital growth to reduce poverty.

Question 8.
What are the three main causes of poverty in India?
Answer:
There are a number of causes for widespread poverty in India :
1. Low economic growth. India was under British rule for more than 100 years. British politics discouraged the traditional textile industries and small and cottage industries which were flourishing in India. This resulted in less job opportunities and low growth rate of incomes. Due to this overall poverty rate could not be reduced.

2. High Prices. Continuously rising prices have badly affected the poor. Rising prices take away a major portion of their income and thus make them more poor.

3. Low Productivity in Agriculture. Agricultural production is very low due to sub-divided and fragmented holdings, lack of capital, use of traditional methods of cultivation, illiteracy etc. It is the main cause of poverty in India.

Question 9.
Promotion of economic growth helps in reducing poverty. Explain.
Answer:
Stepping up the pace of growth is an ultimate solution to the problem of poverty in India. When the pace of growth increases, employment both in farms and industries increases. Greater employment lesser the poverty. Since the eighties India’s economic growth has been one of the fastest in the world. Economic growth provides opportunities and the resources needed to reduce poverty and help in economic development.

Question 10.
What are the main features of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005?
Answer:
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005 aims to provide 100 days of wage employment to every household. This ensures a regular, wage in rural areas and promotes sustainable development. l/3rd of proposed jobs have been reserved for women. The control of the state govt, will establish employment guarantee funds for the implementation of the scheme.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 11.
Explain any three poverty alleviation programmes undertaken by the Government of India.
Answer:

  1. Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY). It was launched with an objective to provide employment opportunity to the surplus workers and to develop regional, social and economic conditions.
  2. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY). It was started in 2000 aimed at improving the health, primary education, drinking water, housing and roads of the rural areas with additional central assistance.
  3. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY). It was launched in the year 2000. Under this scheme poor families were identified and twenty five kilograms of foodgrains were made available to each family at a very subsidised rate of ₹ 2 per kg for wheat and ₹ 3 per kg for rice.

VI. Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss under what conditions the poor families of your village or city are living?
Answer:
In my village the poor families are living with irregular jobs, lack of good health, unhygienic living conditions and unable to send children to schools.

Question 2.
After reading the cases of rural and urban poverty, discuss the below-mentioned reasons of poverty and find out whether these are the reasons of poverty in both mentioned cases or not.
1. Landless family
Answer:
Landless family. In both the cases of rural and urban areas families have no land to cultivate.

2. Unemployment
Answer:
Unemployment. Unemployment forced them to do household chores at a very meagerable rates.

3. Big family
Answer:
Big family. Big size of the family is also the cause of poverty in both the cases.

4. Illiteracy.
Answer:
Illiteracy. Families are illiterate and even they are not sending their wards to school.

5. Poor health and undernourished
Answer:
Poor health and undernourished. They are sick people and cannot afford treatment. Their children are undernourished and items like shoes, soap and oil are luxury items for their families.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 3.
Graph Poverty ratio in selected states
im-1
(i) Looking at the graph name the five states with the highest percentage of poor people.
Answer:
Five states with the highest percentage of poor people are Bihar, Odisha, Assam, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.

(ii) Name the states where estimates of poverty are less than 22% but more than 15%.
Answer:
They are West Bengal, Maharastra and Gujarat.

(iii) Name the states with the highest poverty percentage and with lowest poverty percentage.
Answer:
The state with the highest percentage of poverty is Bihar and with the lowest poverty percentage is Kerala.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Poverty: Challenge Facing India Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
In 1993-94 the percentage of poor in India was :
(a) 44.3%
(b) 32%
(c) 19.3%
(d) 38.3%.
Answer:
(a) 44.3%.

Question 2.
Which is the poverty determination measure?
(a) Headcount ratio
(b) Sen’s Index
(c) Poverty Gap Index
(d) All of these.
Answer;
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
Which country of the world has the highest per capita income in dollars term?
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Switzerland
(c) Norway
(d) Japan.
Answer:
(c) Norway.

Question 4.
What type of poverty can make the comparison of two countries possible?
(a) Absolute Poverty
(b) Relative Poverty
(c) Both of them
(d) None of them.
Answer:
(b) Relative Poverty.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 5.
In which State there is the highest poverty in India?
(a) Odisha
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) West Bengal.
Answer:
(a) Odisha.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_________ is the inability to get the minimum consumption requirements for life, health and efficiency.
Answer:
Poverty

Question 2.
_________ poverty is that poverty in which minimum physical quantities of national requirement are determined for a subsistence level.
Answer:
Absolute

Question 3.
In _________ poverty we compare the relative level of income of the population. It refers to poverty in relation to different classes, regions and other countries.
Answer:
Relative

Question 4.
There are _________ types of poverty.
Answer:
two

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 5.
_________ refers to that amount of purchasing power by which people can satisfy their minimum basic needs.
Answer:
Poverty.

True/False:

Question 1.
There are two types of poverty, absolute and relative poverty.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Poverty is the main problem of India.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Head count ratio refers to the percentage of population below poverty line.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Rising population implies rising incidence of poverty in India.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Head count ratio and poverty incidence ratio are identical terms.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the proportion of world’s poor which live in India?
Answer:
One fifth of the world’s poor live in India.

Question 2.
How many children under the age of five die annually in India according to UNICEF?
Answer:
About 2.3 million children.

Question 3.
What was the percentage of population below poverty line in 2011-12 in India?
Answer:
21.7 per cent.s

Question 4.
Write the types of poverty.
Answer:
Types are:

  1. Absolute poverty
  2. Relative Poverty.

Question 5.
What is Calorie?
Answer:
Calorie is the energy given to a person by a full day’s food.

Question 6.
State the full form of NSSO.
Answer:
National Sample Survey Organisation.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do different countries use a different poverty line?
Answer:
Each country uses an imaginary line that is considered appropriate for its existing level of development and its accepted minimum social norms. For example, a person not having a car in the United States may be considered poor. In India, owning of a car is still considered a luxury.

Question 2.
What is ‘National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005’?
Answer:
The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household in 200 districts. Later, the scheme will be extended to 600 districts. Now this scheme is implemente. in all the districts of the country.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 3.
Give an account of Inter-state disparities of poverty in India.
Answer:
This proportion of poverty is not the same in every state. Although state level poverty has witnessed a secular decline from the level of early seventies, the success rate of reducing poverty varies from state to state.

In India, Odisha and Bihar continue to be the two poorest states with poverty ratios of 47% and 43% respectively, while poverty ratios of Jammu and Kashmir and Punjab is 3.5% and 6.2% respectively.

Question 4.
What is ‘National Food-for-Work Programme’ (NFWP)?
Answer:
National Food-for-Work Programme was launched in 2004 in 150 most backward districts of the country. The programme is open to all rural poor who are in need of wage employment and desire to do manual unskilled work. It is implemented as a 100 per cent centrally sponsored scheme and foodgrains are provided free of cost to those districts.

Question 5.
What is ‘Rural Employment Generation Programme’?
Answer:
Rural Employment Generation Programme was launched in 1995. The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and in small towns. A target for creating 25 lakh new jobs has been set for the programme under the Tenth Five Year Plan.

Question 6.
Write a short note on ‘Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana-(SGSY) and ‘Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY).
Answer:
1. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY). It was launched in 1999. The programme aims at bringing the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organising them into self-help groups through a mix of bank credit and government subsidy.

2. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY). It was implemented in 2000. Additional central assistance is given to states for basic service such as primary health, primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water and rural-electrification.

Question 7.
Write any two main features of the NREGA which help in alleviating poverty.
Answer:
Following are the main features of NREGA :

  1. This Act Provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household in all districts. One third of the proposed jobs would be reserved for women.
  2. Under the programme, if an applicant is not provided employment within fifteen days he will be entitled to a daily unemployment allowance.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 8.
Name two social and two economic groups that are most vulnerable to poverty. When does the situation for such a group become more acute?
Answer:
Two social groups which are most vulnerable to poverty are Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe households. Similarly, among the economic groups, the most vulnerable groups are the rural agricultural labour households and the urban casual labour households.

The situation of such a group becomes more acute when women, elderly people and female infants are systematically denied equal access to resources available to the family.

Question 9.
Describe global poverty trends.
Answer:
The proportion of people in developing countries living in extreme economic poverty defined by the World Bank as living on less than $1 per day has fallen from 28 per cent in 1990 to 21 per cent in 2001. Although there has been a substantial reduction substantially in China and South-East Asian countries as a result of rapid economic growth and massive investments in human resources development.

Question 10.
What poverty really means to people?
Answer:
The official definition of poverty however captures only a limited part of what poverty really means to people. It is about a “minimum” subsistence level of living rather than a “reasonable” level of living. Many scholars advocate that we must broaden the concept into human poverty. Worldwide experience shows that with the increase in development, the definition of poverty also changes.

Question 11.
Explain any three features of Public Distribution System.
Answer:
Following are the features of PDS.

  1. It is used as an important activity of the state to ensure food security to the people, particularly the poor ones.
  2. The prices of the goods sold through PDS in fair prices shops will be less than that of the market price. The cost of this price difference will be borne by the government. This amount is known as subsidy.
  3. This system controls unscrupulous rise in prices for essential goods in the markets.

Question 12.
How is poverty line fixed in India?
Answer:
While fixing the poverty line in India, a minimum level of food requirement, clothing, foot-wear, educational and medical requirements are determined for subsistence. These physical quantities are multiplied by their prices in rupees. The present formula for food requirement while estimating the poverty line is based on the desired calories requirement. The calories vary depending on age, sex and the type of work that a person does. The accepted average calories requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas. On the basis of these calculations, for the year 2000, the poverty line for a person was fixed at ₹ 328 per month for the rural areas and ₹ 454 for the urban areas.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 13.
Explain the following issues on the basis of textbook :
(a) Landless
Answer:
Landless: Landless is that person who does not own any land. Lakha Singh is treated as landless.

(b) Unemployment
Answer:
Unemployment: Unemployment is a situation in which those people who are able and willing to work at existing wage rate cannot get work. Ram Saran and Lakha Singh’s families are unemployed or under-employed.

(c) Size of families
Answer:
Size of Families: By the size of families we mean the number of persons in a family. Generally the size of poor families like Ram Saran and Lakha Singh are very large.

(d) Illiteracy
Answer:
Illiteracy: Person who cannot read and write is treated as illiterate poor person.

(e) Poor health/Malnutrition.
Answer:
Poor health/Malnutrition: Poor health means who have no access to health care and remain ill. Malnutrition means undernourishment.

Question 14.
Examine the concept of social exclusion of poverty.
Answer:
According to this concept, poverty must be seen in terms of the poor having to live only in poor surroundings with other people, excluded from enjoying social equality of better-off people in better surroundings. Social exclusion can be both a cause as well as a consequence of poverty in the usual sense. Broadly, it is a process through which individuals or groups are excluded from facilities, benefits and opportunities that other (their ‘betters’) enjoy. A typical example is the working of the caste system in India in which people belonging to certain castes are excluded from equal opportunities. Social exclusion thus may lead to, but can cause more damage than, having a very low income.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 15.
Examine the ‘Vulnerability’ to poverty.
Answer:
Vulnerability to poverty is a measure, which describes the greater probability of certain communities (say, members of a backward caste) or individuals (such as a widow or a physically handicapped person) of becoming or remaining poor in the coming years. Vulnerability is determined by the option available to different communities for finding alternative living in terms of asset’s, education, health and job opportunities. Further, it is analysed on the basis of the greater risks these groups face at the time of natural disasters, terrorism, etc. Additional analysis is made of their social and economic ability to handle these risks. In fact, vulnerability describes the greater probability of being more adversely affected than other people when bad time comes for everybody, whether a flood or an earthquake or simply a fall in the availability of jobs.

Question 16.
What are the main causes of poverty in India?
Or
Explain any three causes for the widespread of poverty in India.
Answer:
The main causes of poverty in India are the following :

  1. Underdeveloped Nature of the Economy. India’a economy is an underdeveloped economy. Its per capita income is low. Thus, its underdeveloped nature is closely associated with poverty.
  2. Rapid Growth of Population. Rapid growth of population in overpopulated countries like India is the main cause of poverty. In these countries, the national income increases but the per capita income remains more or less the same due to the increase in population.
  3. Casual Nature of Employment. Most of the Indian population lives in rural area. The nature of employment in rural, as well as urban areas, is casual and intermittent which is closely related to poverty.
  4. Predominance of Agriculture. Agriculture is the principal means of livelihood. It is the primary asset to rural people. Productivity of land is an important determinant of material well being, but the productivity of land in India is very low. Thus, people remain struck in poverty.

Question 17.
Explain any five measures to reduce poverty in India.
Or
How poverty can be removed in India?
Answer:
Following are the measures by which poverty can be reduced in India :
1. Population Control. Growing population is a major cause of poverty in India. So, it ig necessary to control it. Family planning programme should be implemented effectively to control population explosion.

2. Creation of More Employment Opportunities. Though it has been stated in our constitution that the government would provide employment opportunities to all, but unemployment is still a big problem in India. It is also responsible for poverty. Hence, it is essential to promote employment through intensive development technology.

3. Check on Price Rise. Price rise is also, responsible for poverty in India. It decidedly goes against the interests of the poor. So, price rise must be checked through proper, fiscal and monetary policies and other measures.

4. More Emphasis on Small, Rural and Cottage Industries. Small scale and cottage industries have not developed fully in India, It is essential to develop such industries as their development will help the poor. So, government should adopt effective methods to expand small scale and cottage industries which will increase the self-employment opportunities.

5. Stepping up Capital Formation. Low rate of capital formation is a major hindrance in the way of fast economic development. The rate of capital formation, therefore, must be increased. As it basically depends on the saving rate, ever possible effort should be made to increase savings and their mobilisation.

Question 18.
Explain five important anti-poverty measures undertaken by the Government of India.
Answer:

  1. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005. The act provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household in 200 districts.
  2. National Food for Work Programme (NFWP) 2004. It was launched in 150 most backward districts of the country. It was open to all rural poor who were in need of wage employment.
  3. Prime Minister Rozgar Yogana (PMRY) 1993. The aim is to create self-employment opportunities for educated youth in rural areas and small towns.
  4. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) 1995. The aim is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns.
  5. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) 1999. It aims at bringing assisted poor families above the poverty line, by organising them into self-help groups through bank credit and government subsidy.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is poverty line Fixed in India?
Answer:
Following are the important method to fix the poverty line in India :

  1. In order to estimate the consumption cut-off, the private consumption expenditure is taken into consideration.
  2. In case of private consumption expenditure, both food and non-food items of rural and urban areas are taken into consideration.
  3. The per capita consumption of calories is considered for the food items. In case of non-food items, only socio-economic factors such as literacy level health, life expectancy, birth rate, death rate, etc., are shown. For this purpose, a Frequency distribution is constructed and class interval range denotes the level of calorie consumption. The lower class indicates lower level of calorie consumption whereas the higher class show higher range of calorie consumption.
  4. Every frequency counts the number of calories belonging to the respective consumption class.
  5. The Head Count Ratio is calculated to find out the percentage of poor and non-poor population for the rural and urban areas, particularly the Below Poverty Line population.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 2.
Suggest measures to remove poverty in India.
Answer:
Measures to Remove Poverty. Removal of poverty is a big problem before India. This problem should be solved as soon as possible. Unless we are able to provide the public all the necessities of life, our political freedom is useless and any development is also meaningless. The problem of poverty is a big danger to the unity of India. As we have seen, not only one reason but many like economic, social, and political reasons are responsible for it. So, we have to adopt many programmes, covering different aspects together, in order to remove poverty.

The following suggestions can be made to remove poverty :
1. Population Control. A growing population is a major cause of poverty in India. So, it is necessary to control it. A family planning programme should be implemented effectively.

2. Creation of More Employment Opportunities. Though it has been stated in our Constitution that, the government would provide employment opportunities to all, but unemployment is still a big problem in India. It is also responsible for poverty. Hence, it is essential to promote employment through intensive development technology.

3. Increase in Production. Industrial and agricultural production should be increased to remove poverty. Present capacity should be utilized fully and new techniques should be adopted. Proper coordination should be there between large-scale and small-scale industries. Superior seeds, manures, fertilizers, and modern methods of production should be adopted for agricultural development. Necessary irrigation facilities should be made available and social structures in rural areas should also be modified. Land reforms should be implemented sincerely. All these suggestions can be helpful in increasing agricultural and industrial production.

4. Check on Price Rise. Price rise is also responsible for poverty in India. It decidedly goes against the interests of the poor. So, price rises must be checked through proper fiscal and monetary policies and other measures.

5. More Emphasis on Small, Rural, and Cottage Industries. Small scale and cottage industries have not developed fully in India. It is essential to develop such industries as their development will help the poor. So, Govt. should adopt effective methods to expand small and cottage industries which will increase the self-employment opportunities for the poor.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Summer Vegetables Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Write the name of two varieties of chili.
Answer:
Punjab Surkh, CH-1.

Question 2.
How much is a requirement of vegetables per person per day for maintenance of good health?
Answer:
284 gm.

Question 3.
Write the name of two improved varieties of tomato.
Answer:
Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.

Question 4.
How much seed per acre of okra is required for sowing in February?
Answer:
15 kg per acre.

Question 5.
How much spacing is required between rows in the brinjal crop?
Answer:
60 cm.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 6.
Write the name of two varieties of bitter gourd.
Answer:
Punjab-14, Punjab Kareli-1.

Question 7.
When sowing of bottle gourd should be done?
Answer:
Feb-March, June-July, and November-December.

Question 8.
How much seed of cucumber is required per acre?
Answer:
1 kg per acre.

Question 9.
How much seed of muskmelon is required per acre?
Answer:
400 gram.

Question 10.
What is the sowing time of the sponge gourd?
Answer:
Mid May to July.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
What do you mean by vegetable?
Answer:
Any succulent part like fruit, leaf, stems, etc. of a plant which can be eaten fresh as salad or after cooking is called vegetable.

Question 2.
How much seed and area is required for raising nursery for transplanting one acre tomato ?
Answer:
100 gram seed is required for nursery raising in 2 maria area for transplanting in one acre.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 3.
How much fertilizers are used per acre for chilli crop ?
Answer:
10-15 ton well rotten farm yard manure, 25 kg. nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus and 12 kg potash can be used. This dose is for one acre.

Question 4.
How four crops of brinjal are raised in a year?
Answer:
Four crops of brinjal are raised in a year by sowing in October, November, February-March and July.

Question 5.
What are the sowing time and seed rate of okrg?
Answer:
Spring season crop is sown in February-March and rainy season crop is sown in June-July. Seed rate is 15 kg (February), 8-10 kg (March), 5-6 kg (June-July).

Question 6.
Give the reasons for the low availability of per capita’ per day vegetables in our country.
Answer:
The low availability of per capita per day vegetables in our country is due to

  • population explosion and
  • due to post-harvest losses which are nearly one-third of the total production of vegetables.

Question 7.
What is the ideal time for sowing and transplanting of the nursery of tomato?
Answer:
The ideal time for sowing the nursery of tomatoes is the second fortnight of July. Transplanting of seedlings is done in second fortnight of August.

Question 8.
How many days are required from sowing to harvesting in bitter gourd ?
Answer:
55-60 days are required from sowing to harvesting in bitter gourd.

Question 9.
Write two improved varieties and sowing time of muskmelon.
Answer:
Improved varieties of muskmelon are Punjab hybrid, Hara madhu and sowing time is February-March.

Question 10.
How can we get early and higher yield in cucumber ?
Answer:
We get early and higher yield in cucumber by growing under low tunnel polythene sheets.

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences:

Question 1.
Write name of summer vegetables and describe any one of them.
Answer:
Summer vegetables are – tomato, brinjal, bottle gourd, sponge gourd, bitter gourd, chilli, okra, summer squash, cucumber, long melon, squash melon etc.

Tomato

Improved varieties—Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.
Seed rate—100 gram seed is required for sowing nursery in 2 maria for transplanting in one acre.
Time of sowing—Sow nursery in the second fortnight of July.
Transplanting—Second fortnight of August.
Row spacing—120-150 cm.
Weed control—Spray stomp or sencor.
Plant spacing—30 cm.
Irrigation—First irrigation should be done immediately after transplanting and later irrigations should be done after 6-7 dhys interval.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 2.
Write a short note on improved varieties, sowing time, seed rate, and control of weeds in okra.
Answer:
Improved varieties. Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmani.
Sowing time. Spring season sowing is done in February-March and rainy season crop is sown in June-July.
Seed rate. Seed rate per acre is 15 kg (for February), 8-10 kg (March), 5-6 kg (June-July).
Weed control. 3-4 hoeings are needed or spray stomp.

Question 3.
What is the importance of vegetables in human diet?
Answer:
Vegetables have a very important role in the human diet. Vegetables contain a sufficient amount of nutrients like carbohydrates, minerals, proteins, vitamins etc. These nutrients are essential for the maintenance of good health. A large population of our country is vegetarian, therefore, importance of vegetables becomes more in our country. According to scientific research, a person should consume 284 gram of vegetable in a day. Vegetables include leafy vegetables (spinach, fenugreek, lettuce, saag etc.), root vegetables (carrot, radish, turnip), flower buds (cauliflower), fruit (tomato, brinjal) etc.

Question 4.
Describe cultivation of Bottlegourd.
Answer:

  • Improved varieties. Punjab Berkat, Punjab Komal.
  • Sowing time. February-March, June-July, November- December.
  • Harvesting. After 60-70 days of sowing, the crop is ready for harvesting.

Question 5.
How to raise a successful crop of ashgourd?
Answer:
Ash gourd belongs to
Improved Varieties—PAG-3
Sowing time—Feb-March and June-July.
Seed rate—2kg seed/acre
Method of sowing–Sow at least two seeds per hill on one side.
Spacing—Beds should be 3m wide and spacing should be 75-90 cm.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the seed rate for chilli?
Answer:
200 grams per acre.

Question 2.
What is the time of sowing of Nursery for chilli?
Answer:
End October to mid-November.

Question 3.
What is the time of transplanting the seedlings of chilli?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 4.
What is row spacing for chilli?
Answer:
75 cm.

Question 5.
What is plant spacing for chilli?
Answer:
45 cm.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 6.
Write names of varieties of tomato.
Answer:
Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.

Question 7.
Write seed rate for tomato.
Answer:
100 gram per acre.

Question 8.
What is a time of sowing of the nursery for tomato?
Answer:
Second fortnight of July.

Question 9.
What is time of transplanting seedlings of tomato?
Answer:
Second fortnight of August.

Question 10.
What is row spacing for tomato?
Answer:
120-150 cm.

Question 11.
What is plant spacing for tomato?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 12.
Weed control is done in tomatoes by using
Answer:
Stomp, Sencore.

Question 13.
Write varieties of Brinjal.
Answer:
Punjab Neelam (round), B.H.-2 (Oblong), PBH-3 (small).

Question 14.
Write seed rate for brinjal.
Answer:
300-400 grams per acre.

Question 15.
Write row spacing for brinjal.
Answer:
60 cm.

Question 16.
What is plant spacing for brinjal?
Answer:
30-40 cm.

Question 17.
How is Okra sown?
Answer:
Sowing is done on ridges.

Question 18.
Write varieties of Okra.
Answer:
Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmani.

Question 19.
How is the Okra crop sown in February-March?
Answer:
On ridges.

Question 20.
How is the okra crop sown in June-July?
Answer:
On planes.

Question 21.
What is row spacing for okra?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 22.
What is plant spacing for okra?
Answer:
15 cm.

Question 23.
When is okra harvested?
Answer:
45-50 days after sowing.

Question 24.
Write improved varieties of summer squash.
Answer:
Punjab Chappan Kadoo.

Question 25.
Write time of sowing for summer squash.
Answer:
Mid-January to March and October-November.

Question 26.
What is the seed rate for summer squash?
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 27.
How many seeds are sown at a place for summer squash?
Answer:
Two seeds at a place.

Question 28.
When is summer squash ready for harvesting?
Answer:
In 60 days.

Question 29.
Write varieties of Bottle gourd.
Answer:
Punjab Berkat, Punjab Komal.

Question 30.
Write time of sowing for bottle gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July, November-December.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 31.
When is the bottle gourd ready for harvesting?
Answer:
60-70 days after sowing.

Question 32.
Write varieties of bitter gourd.
Answer:
Punjab-14, Punjab Kareli-1.

Question 33.
Write time of sowing for bitter gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 34.
Write seed rate for bitter gourd.
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 35.
What is plant spacing for the bitter gourd?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 36.
How is bitter gourd sown in Kyaris (beds)?
Answer:
On both sides.

Question 37.
Write varieties of sponge gourd.
Answer:
Pusa chikni, Punjab sponge gourd-9.

Question 38.
What is a time of sowing for sponge gourd?
Answer:
Mid-February to March.

Question 39.
What is seed rate for sponge gourd?
Answer:
2 kg seed per acre.

Question 40.
When is sponge gourd ready for harvesting?
Answer:
After 70-80 days of sowing.

Question 41.
Write varieties of ash gourd.
Answer:
PAG—3.

Question 42.
Write time of sowing for ash gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 43.
What is seed rate for ash gourd?
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 44.
Write varieties of cucumber.
Answer:
Punjab Naveen.

Question 45.
What is seed rate for cucumber?
Answer:
One kg per acre.

Question 46.
Write varieties for long melon.
Answer:
Punjab long melon.

Question 47.
What is time of sowing for long melon?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 48.
What is seed rate for long melon?
Answer:
One kg per acre.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 49.
Write about harvesting of long melon.
Answer:
After 60-70 days of sowing.

Question 50.
Write varieties of squash melon.
Answer:
Tinda-48.

Question 51.
What is time of sowing for squash melon?
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 52.
What is seed rate for squash melon ?
Answer:
1.5 kg per acre.

Question 53.
When is squash melon ready for harvesting?
Answer:
After 60 days of sowing.

Question 54.
Is muskmelon a vegetable or fruit ?
Answer:
It is a vegetable.

Question 55.
What is time of sowing for muskmelon?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 56.
What is sedd rate for muskmelon ?
Answer:
400 gram per acre.

Question 57.
What is plant spacing for muskmelon?
Answer:
60 cm.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Which nutrients are found in vegetables?
Answer:
Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins, etc.

Question 2.
Write about fertilizers for chillis.
Answer:
Apply 10—15 ton well rotten farmyard manure, 25 kg nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 12 kg potash per acre.

Question 3.
Write about irrigation for chillis.
Answer:
Give first irrigation immediately after transplanting. Give irrigation after intervals of 7-10 days in summer.

Question 4.
Write irrigation requirements for tomatoes.
Answer:
Give first irrigation immediately after transplanting. Give irrigation after intervals of 7-10 days in summer.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 5.
Write about the method of sowing for brinjal.
Answer:
Brinjal is sown in 10-15 raised beds in one maria.

Question 6.
Give the method of sowing of summer squash.
Answer:
Summer squash is sown in 1.25 m wide beds and two seeds are sown per hill at a distance of 45 cm on both sides of beds.

Question 7.
Write about the cultivation of cucumbers. Improved varieties, time of sowing, seed rate.
Answer:

  • Improved varieties—Punjab Naveen.
  • Time of sowing—February-March.
  • Seed rate—One kg per acre.

Question 8.
Write about the cultivation of long melon.
Answer:

  • Improved varieties—Punjab long melon-1.
  • Time of sowing—February-March.
  • Seed rate—One kg per acre.
  • Harvesting—After sowing 60-70 days.

Question 9.
Write about the cultivation of squash melon.
Answer:

  • Improved varieties—Tinda-48.
  • Time of sowing—February-March, June-July.
  • Seed rate—1.5 kg seed per acre.
  • Method of sowing—Sow seeds on both sides of 1.5 m wide beds at a spacing of 45 cm.
  • Harvesting—Fruits are ready for picking after 60 days of sowing.

Question 10.
Write about the cultivation of sponge gourd.
Answer:

  • Varieties—Pusa Chikni, Punjab sponge gourd-9.
  • Time of sowing—Mid February to March, Mid May to July. Method of sowing—Sow in 3 m wide beds with a spacing of 75-90 cm.
  • Seed rate—2 kg seed per acre.
  • Harvesting—70-80 days after sowing.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about the cultivation of muskmelon.
Answer:
Muskmelon is a vegetable scientifically but we consider it as a fruit.

  • Varieties: Punjab hybrid, Hara Madhu, Punjab Sunehri.
  • Time of Sowing: February-March.
  • Seed Rate: 400-gram seed per acre.
  • Method of Sowing: Sow in 3-4 m wide beds.
  • Plant Spacing: Plant to plant spacing is 60 cm.
  • Irrigation: Water the crop every week in summer at the time of fruit maturity. Avoid direct contact of water with fruit.

Question 2.
Write about the cultivation of Chilli.
Answer:

  • Varieties: Punjab Surkh, Punjab Guchhedar, and Chilli hybrid-1.
  • Seed Rate: 200-gram seed per acre.
  • Sowing Nursery: Sow nursery in one maria and the seed is sown in the nursery during the end of October to mid-November.
  • Transplanting: It is done in February-March.
  • Plant Spacing: Spacing between rows is 75 cm and plant to plant spacing is 45 cm.
  • Fertilizer: 10 to 15 tonnes of well rotten farmyard manure is required, 25 kg Nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 20 kg potash per acre are also required.
  • Irrigation: Apply first irrigation after transplanting. Give water after every 7-10 days in summer.

Question 3.
Write about the cultivation of Brinjal.
Answer:

  • Varieties: Punjab Neelam (Round fruited), BH-2 (oblong fruited), and PBH-3 (small fruited)
  • Seed Rate: 300-400 grams for one acre.
  • Method of Sowing: Nursery is sown in 10-15 cm raised beds of one maria.
  • Crops of Brinjal: We can get four crops of brinjal in one-year i. e., by sowing nursery in October, November, February, March, and July.
  • Plant Spacing: Spacing between rows 60 cm and in plants 30-45 cm.
  • Irrigation: Apply first irrigation after transplanting. Give water after every 6-7 days.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Summer Vegetables Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Seed rate for tomatoes is
(a) 100 gram per acre
(b) 500 gram per acre
(c) 100 gram per acre
(d) None
Answer:
(c) 100 gram per acre

2. Punjab Barkat is a variety of :
(a) Ghia
(b) Bitter gourd
(c) Tomato
(d) Chilli.
Answer:
(a) Ghia

3. Variety of Bitter Gourd :
(a) Punjab Kareli-1
(b) Punjab Chappan Kaddu
(c) Punjab Neelam
(d) P.A.G.-3.
Answer:
(a) Punjab Kareli-1

4. Seed rate for Muskmelon (per acre) :
(a) 200 gram
(b) 700 gram
(c) 100 gram
(d) 400 gram.
Answer:
(d) 400 gram.

5. Punjab Naveen is a variety of :
(a) Petha
(b) Ghia
(c) Tomato
(d) Cucumber
Answer:
(d) Cucumber

True/False:

1. Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, and vitamins.
Answer:
True

2. For maintaining good health, the consumption of 504 grams of vegetables per person per day is essential.
Answer:
False

3. Leaf vegetables are – spinach, fenugreek, lettuce (salad), saag.
Answer:
True

4. Root vegetables are – carrot, radish, turnip.
Answer:
True

5. Any succulent part like fruit, leaf, stems, etc. of a plant which can be eaten fresh as a salad or after cooking is called a vegetable.
Answer:
True

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Fill in the Blanks :

1. Major ……………….. vegetables are chilli, brinjal, okra, bitter gourd, squash melon, tomato, bottle gourd, sponge gourd, long melon etc.
Answer:
Kharif (summer)

2. Seed rate for chiili for sowing nursery in one maria is ………………..
Answer:
200 gram

3. Seed rate for sowing nursery of brinjal is ……………….. per acre.
Answer:
300-400 gram

4. Punjab Gucchedar is a variety of ………………..
Answer:
Chilli

5. Varieties of ……………….. are – Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmini.
Answer:
Okra

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 9th Class Computer Science Chapter 3 Networking

Computer Guide for Class 9 PSEB Networking Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………………………. is a group of two or more computers.
(a) Network
(b) Internet
(c) Wireless
(d) Topology
Answer:
(a) Network

2. ………………………………. is the normal computer system that is connected to the network for sharing of resources.
(a) Server
(b) Client/Node
(c) LAN
(d) WAN.
Answer:
(b) Client/Node

3. …………………………. is a device that allows you to connect multiple computers to a single network device
(a) HUB
(b) BUS
(c) Ring
(d) Star.
Answer:
(a) HUB

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking

4. In ………………………… network, a single cable is shared by all the devices and data travel only in one direction.
(a) Single Ring
(b) Dual ring
(c) MAN
(d) LAN.
Answer:
(a) Single Ring

5. ………………………… prepares information and sends it.
(a) Protocol
(b) Receiver
(c) Sender
(d) Hub.
Answer:
(c) Sender

2. True/False

1. LAN covers a large geographic area.
Answer:
False

2. In full-duplex, information can move in both directions.
Answer:
True

3. Protocols are rules under which data transmission takes place.
Answer:
True

4. The network does not provide security to us.
Answer:
False

5. The efficiency of the network is increased with the increase of computers.
Answer:
False.

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name any four Network topologies.
Answer:
The main types of Network Topologies are as under:

  1. Bus topology
  2. Ring topology
  3. Star topology
  4. Tree topology
  5. Mesh
  6. Hybrid topology

Question 2.
Define the computer that is used for networking.
Answer:
A computer network is an interconnected collection of a group of two or more autonomous computers that are linked together to share information and resources. Here autonomous means, there is no master and slave relationship and all computers are equal and free to act independently. The computer network enables to share the resources. Basically, the computer network is a collection of computers, printers, and other equipment, which are connected together so that they can communicate with each other. The components in a network system are normally connected together through a cable, however, the connection may be wireless.

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking

Question 3.
Write a short note on Routers.
Answer:
A Router is a* network device that typically operates at the network layer of the OSI model. A Router performs its job by examining the network layer data packet (Ethernet Frame) and forwarding the packet to other devices based on IP Addresses. Both switches and bridges function using the addressing system, also known as MAC addresses. Each port of a network switch is in a separate collision domain and therefore Switches are used to divide a big collision domain into multiple smaller collision domains

Question 4.
Write a note on Hub.
Answer:
Hub is a device that splits a network connection into multiple computers. Hubs were the common network infrastructure devices used for Local Area Network (LAN) connectivity. Hubs function as the central connection point for Local Area Network (LAN). Hubs are designed to work with Twisted pair cabling and normally use an RJ45 jack to connect the devices. Network devices (Servers, Workstations, Printers, Scanners, etc) are attached to the hub by individual network cables. Hubs usually come in different shapes and different numbers of ports.

Question 5.
What are the two types of ring topologies?
Answer:
In a ring topology, all computers are connected via a cable that loops in a ring or circle. A ring topology is a circle that has no start and no end and terminators are not necessary for a ring topology. Signals travel in one direction on a ring while they pass from one computer to the next, with each computer regenerating the signal so that it may travel the distance required.

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Network? Explain the advantages and disadvantages of the network.
Answer:
Computer networking is the practice of interfacing two or more computing devices with each other for the purpose of sharing data. Computer networks are built with a combination of hardware and software components.

Advantages of Network :

  1. File Sharing. The major advantage of a computer network is that it allows file sharing and remote file access.
  2. Resource Sharing. Resource sharing is another important benefit of a computer network.
  3. Inexpensive Set-Up. Shared resources mean a reduction in hardware costs. Shared files mean a reduction in memory requirement, which indirectly means a reduction in file storage expenses.

Disadvantages of Network :

  1. Security Difficulties. Since there is already a huge number of people who are using computer networking in sharing some of their files and resources, your security would be always at risk.
  2. Presence of Computer Viruses and Other Malware. There are instances that the stored file you have in your gadget is already destroyed because there are already viruses that corrupt your file.

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking

Question 2.
Write information about the parts of computer networks.
Answer:
A Data Communication system has the following components :

  1. Message: It is the information or data to be communicated. It can consist of text, numbers, pictures, sound or video, or any combination of these.
  2. Sender: It is the device/computer that generates and sends that message.
  3. Receiver: It is the device or computer that receives the message. The location of the receiver computer is generally different from the sender’s computer. The distance between sender and receiver depends upon the types of networks used in between.
  4. Medium: It is the channel or physical path through which the message is carried from the sender to the receiver. The medium can be wired like twisted-pair wire, coaxial cable, fiber-optic cable, or wireless like a laser, radio waves, and microwaves.
  5. Protocol: It is a set of rules that govern the communication between the devices. Both sender and receiver follow the same protocols to communicate with each other.

Question 3.
Write about the types of networks.
Answer:
Ahead are the types of computer networks :

Local Area Network (LAN)
This is one of the original categories of network, and one of the simplest. LAN networks connect computers together over relatively small distances, such as within a single building or within a small group of buildings.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 1

Wide Area Network (WAN)
This is another of the original categories of network, and slightly more complex in nature. WAN networks connect computers together over large physical distances, remotely connecting them over one huge network and allowing them to communicate even when far apart. The Internet is a WAN and connects computers all around the world together.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 2

Metropolitan Area Network
This is a network that is larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN and incorporates elements of both. It typically spans a town or city and is owned by a single person or company, such as a local council or a large company.

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking

Question 4.
What are the methods of data transmission?
Answer:
The way in which data is transmitted from one place to another is called data transmission mode. It is also called the data communication mode. It indicates the direction of the flow of information. Sometimes, data transmission modes are also called directional modes.

Types of Data Transmission Modes
Different types of data transmission modes are as follows :

  1. Simplex mode
  2. Half-duplex mode
  3. Full-duplex mode

1. Simplex Mode. In simplex mode, data can flow in only one direction. In this mode, a sender can only send data and cannot receive it. Similarly, a receiver can only receive data but cannot send it. Data sent from computer to printer is an example of simplex mode.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 3

2. Half-Duplex Mode. In half-duplex mode, data can flow in both directions but only in one direction at a time. In this mode, data is sent and received alternatively. It is like a one-lane bridge where two-way traffic must give way in order to cross the other.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 4

3. Full-Duplex Mode. In full-duplex mode, data can flow in both directions at the same time. It is the fastest directional mode of data communication. The telephone communication system is an example of a full-duplex communication mode. Two persons can talk at the same time. Another example of the fully-duplex mode in daily life is automobile traffic on a two-lane road. The traffic can move in both directions at the same time.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 5

PSEB 9th Class Computer Guide Networking Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks

1. Process of error for data communication is called …………………………………..
(a) Delivery
(b) Accuracy
(c) Protection
(d) Protocol.
Answer:
(b) Accuracy

2. …………………………. receive information.
(a) Sender
(b) Receiver
(c) Protocol
(d) Medium.
Answer:
(b) Receiver

3. Graphical representation of Network devices is called.
(a) Topology
(b) Network
(c) Ring
(d) Cable.
Answer:
(a) Topology

4. …………………. Topology uses common wire.
(a) Ring
(b) Star
(c) Bus
(d) Tree.
Answer:
(c) Bus

True or False

1. A node is a workstation that is connected to a computer.
Answer:
True

2. MAN is a network that spreads in a city.
Answer:
True

3. Data transfer rate is in Giga Bytes per second.
Answer:
False

4. NIC connects servers and workstations.
Answer:
True

5. URL means Uniform resource locator in the network.
Answer:
True

6. 1 GBPS = 1,000,000,00
Answer:
False

7. Air has an unguided transmission medium.
Answer:
True

8. A hub helps you to connect to a network.
Answer:
True

9. Bandwidth is the capacity to transfer signals.
Answer:
True

10. Available copy of a file can be used in a computer network, in case of availability of multiple copies.
Answer:
True

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Network.
Answer:
A network is a set of devices connected by physical media links. A network is recursively is a connection of two or more nodes by a physical link or two or more networks connected by one or more nodes.

Question 2.
What is a LAN?
Answer:
LAN is short for Local Area Network. It refers to the connection between computers and other network devices that are located within a small physical location.

Question 3.
What is a node?
Answer:
A node refers to a point or joint where a connection takes place. It can be a computer or device that is part of a network. Two or more nodes are needed in order to form a network connection.

Question 4.
Describe Network Topology.
Answer:
Network Topology refers to the layout of a computer network. It shows how devices and cables are physically laid out, as well as how they connect to one another.

Question 5.
How does a network topology affect your decision in setting up a network?
Answer:
Network topology dictates what media you must use to interconnect defaces. It also serves as the basis on what materials, connector, and terminations that is applicable for the setup.

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking

Question 6.
What is WAN?
Answer:
WAN stands for Wide Area Network. It is an interconnection of computers and devices that are geographically dispersed. It connects networks that are located in different regions and countries.

Question 7.
Define star topology.
Answer:
Star topology consists of a central hub that connects to nodes. This is one of the easiest to set up and maintain.

Question 8.
What advantages does fiber optics have over other media?
Answer:
One major advantage of fiber optics is that is it less susceptible to electrical interference. It also supports higher bandwidth, meaning more data can be transmitted and received. Signal degrading is also very minimal over long distances.

Question 9.
What is the difference between a hub and a switch?
Answer:
A hub acts as a multiport repeater. However, as more and more devices connect to it, it would not be able to efficiently manage the volume of traffic that passes through it. A switch provides a better alternative that can improve the performance especially when high traffic volume is expected across all ports.

Question 10.
Define networking.
Answer:
Networking refers to the interconnection between computers and peripherals for data communication. Networking can be done using wired cabling or through wireless links.

Question 11.
What is mesh topology?
Answer:
Mesh topology is a setup wherein each device is connected directly to every other device on the network. Consequently, it requires that each device have at least two network connections.

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking

Question 12.
What is the difference between logical and physical topology?
Answer:
Logical topology: The logical topology defines how the media is accessed by the hosts. It is used to describe the arrangement of devices on a network and how they communicate with one another. It is also referred to as Signal Topology.

Physical topology: The physical topology defines the actual layout of the wire i.e. media. It is concerned with the physical layout of the network; how the cables are arranged; and how the computers are connected. The physical topology of a network refers to the configuration of cables, computers, and other peripherals.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is physical, and wireless media used in networking?
Answer:
Physical media:

  • Twisted pair cable – consists of two independently insulated wires twisted around each other
  • Coaxial cable – consists of an insulated center wire grounded by a shield of braided wire Fiber optic cable – contains hundreds of clear fiberglass or plastic fibers
  • ISDN line – a special digital telephone line that transmits and receives information at very high speeds

Wireless media:

  • Microwave system – transmits data via high-frequency radio signals through the atmosphere
  • Satellite system – receive signals from the earth, amplify them, and then transmit back these signals to the appropriate locations on the earth.
  • Cellular technology – uses antennae resembling telephone towers to pick up radio signals within a specific area.

Question 2.
What are the various disadvantages of networking?
Answer:
Disadvantages of computer networks :
Computer networks are very helpful when it comes to sharing resources and saving time and money but this technology has some disadvantages too. The most common disadvantages of computer networks are as follows :

1. Expensive: The first and foremost disadvantage of computer networks is that they are expensive to purchase and maintain. The cabling and installation of a large-sized computer network are very costly.

2. Data Security: Special security measures are needed to stop users from using programs and data that they shouldn’t have access to. The proper permissions must be issued to various users according to their nature of work. The proper password validation check must be applied for the authorization and authentication of the user.

3. Manager dependence: The complex networks require a network manager to keep it running. The major problem with networks is that their efficiency is very dependent on the skill of the network manager. A badly managed network may operate less efficiently than non-networked computers. Also, a badly run network may allow external users into it with little protection against them causing damage.

4. Vulnerable to hackers and viruses: Computer networks are very vulnerable to hackers and viruses. For example, if the network is poorly implemented, improper communication may take place. This may lead to the situation in which the private or important mails can be seen by other users or hackers and this may result in loss of privacy or corrupt information system. Secondly, the virus on one system in a network can affect the whole computer network and could prove fatal for the organization.

5. Social problems: Computer networks pose social problems when people post offensive views about sensitive issues like religion, sex, and politics. The newsgroup or bulletin boards allow people«to exchange messages freely on the network. This could lead to a problem because” they are not restricted to post materials on any subject including deeply offensive views regarding religion, caste or creed, etc.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Kharif Crops Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Name two Kharif bowls of cereal.
Answer:
Paddy, Maize, Jowar.

Question 2.
Name two important varieties of rice.
Answer:
P.R.-123, P.R.-122.

Question 3.
Give seed requirement of desi cotton hybrid for one acre.
Answer:
1.5 kg seed per acre.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 4.
Name one major insect pest of maize.
Answer:
Maize borer

Question 5.
Name two diseases of sugarcane?
Answer:
Red rot, Red stripe, wilt, etc.

Question 6.
Name two Pulse crops.
Answer:
Moong, Mash, Arhar.

Question 7.
Give seed rate of maize for one acre.
Answer:
It is 7 kg for pearl popcorn and 8 kg per acre for other varieties. For fodder crop, it is 30 kg per acre.

Question 8.
Give sowing time of cotton.
Answer:
1 April to 15 May.

Question 9.
Name one intercrop in sugarcane.
Answer:
Summer Moong or Summer Mash.

Question 10.
Name two fodder crops.
Answer:
Maize, Bajra, Guara.

(B) Answer In one-two sentence:

Question 1.
What is crop rotation?
Answer:
Different types of crops which are sown in a sequence in the field in one year is called crop rotation, e.g. Paddy-wheat, Paddy- Potato-Sunflower, etc.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 2.
Name two rice-based crop rotations.
Answer:
Rice-wheat/Berseem, Rice-wheat-sathi maize/sathi moong. Rice-Potato-Sathi Moong/Sunflower.

Question 3.
What are the deficiency symptoms of zinc in rice?
Answer:
Due to the deficiency of zinc, seedlings remain stunted and tillerless. Lower leaves become rusty, near the base. The central vein of leaves changes color and leaves ultimately dry up. To avoid and control this malady, apply 25 kg zinc sulfate per acre at the time of puddling.

Question 4.
Write sowing method of maize.
Answer:
Maize is sown from the last week of May to the end of June, can be sown in the second fortnight of August. Row spacing should be 60 cm and plant spacing should be 20 cm. Use 7 kg seed per acre for pearl popcorn and 8 kg for other varieties.

Question 5.
Give control of Its in Maize.
Answer:
It’s can be controlled by using Atrataf within 10 days of sowing.

Question 6.
Why puddling is done in Paddy?
Answer:
Paddy needs a lot of water. Due to puddling, the water holding capacity of the field increases to a large extent. The rate of evaporation of water is decreased. It also helps to prevent the growth of weeds. Transplanting, of paddy, becomes easy.

Question 7.
Give seed requirement of sugarcane.
Answer:
The seed rate for cane crops is twenty thousand, three budded sets or four budded sets 15 thousand, or five budded sets-12 thousand for one acre.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 8.
Write time and method of sowing for Autumn sugarcane.
Answer:
Autumn sugarcane is sown from 20 September to 20 October and sowing is done in rows with a spacing of 90 cm.

Question 9.
Give the method of defoliation in moong for combined harvesting.
Answer:
If combine is to be used to harvest the Moong crop, then at the time when 80% of pods are mature, Gramoxone is sprayed to make the leaves and stem dry i.e. for defoliation.

Question 10.
Write method of weed control in rice.
Answer:
Swank and Motha weeds grow in rice. Hoeing should be done twice manually by hands, use paddy weeder for inter-culture. After 15 and 30 days of transplanting pull out the weeds from the fields. Suitable herbicides should be used at the proper time in the required amounts. Herbicides that can be used are Machete, Refit, Top- star, Arozin, etc. use Algrip for a gorilla, Sanni, etc.

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Discuss the use of fertilizers in rice.
Answer:
The fertilizer requirement for rice for an acre is 50 kg nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 12. kg potassium. Potassium dose should be applied on a soil test basis. Divide nitrogen dose into three parts. Apply one part of nitrogen and a whole of phosphorus and potassium (if needed) before the last puddling. The remaining two parts of nitrogen are broadcasted in two equal splits at three and six weeks after transplanting. If rice is sown after wheat which had received a recommended supply of phosphorus, then there is no need to apply phosphorus for rice crops.

Question 2.
Explain direct seeding of rice.
Answer:
Rice should be sown directly in only medium to heavy soils. In light (sandy) soils there occurs deficiency of iron in the crop and the yield is reduced.
Time of sowing: Suitable time for direct sowing is the first fortnight of June.
Seed rate: Seed requirement is 8-10 kg per acre.
The depth and row spacing: Seed should be sown at a depth of 2-3 cm using a paddy drill and row spacing should be 20 cm. Early maturing variety of Paddy should be used for direct sowing.
Weed control: Use stomp within 2 days of sowing. If after 30 days of sowing, swank, and motha are seen in the crop then use nominee gold. Segment herbicide is used to control broadleaf weeds.
Fertilizers: Apply 60 kg nitrogen per acre in three equal splits. Broadcast nitrogen after two, five, and nine weeks of sowing.
Irrigation: Keep watering the crop at 5-10 days intervals.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 3.
Give details of seed treatment in cotton.
Answer:
Seed rate for B.T. varieties is 750 grams, for non-B.T. hybrid varieties 1 kg, for normal varieties 3 kg, for desi cotton varieties it is 1.5 kg and for simple varieties, it is 3 kg per acre. Use the adviced chemicals for seed treatment. For prevention from Jassid use Gaucho or Cruiser.

Question 4.
Discuss preventive measures for lodging in sugarcane.
Answer:
We should make efforts to prevent the lodging of sugarcane crops because frost has a bad effect on fallen crops. To prevent lodging, we should earth up heavily the crop before the outset of monsoon, nearly the end of June. Prop the crop at the end of August or at the beginning of September.

Question 5.
For which crops and why sulfur is essential?
Answer:
Sulfur is essential for oilseed crops. Single superphosphate is used as a source of phosphorus because it contains sulfur also. If this fertilizer is not available, use gypsum as a source of sulfur.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the time of sowing for the Kharif (Sawani) crop?
Answer:
June-July or in Monsoon.

Question 2.
When is Sawant or Kharif crop harvested?
Answer:
In October-November.

Question 3.
How can you categorize the Kharif crop?
Answer:
Three categories of Kharif crops :

  1. Cereals
  2. Pulses and Oilseed crops
  3. Cotton, Sugarcane, and fodder.

Question 4.
Name Kharif cereal crops.
Answer:
Paddy, Basmati, Maize, Bajra (Sorghum).

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 5.
Which country is the highest producer of Paddy?
Answer:
China

Question 6.
Which state of India is the highest producer of Paddy?
Answer:
West Bengal.

Question 7.
What is another name for Paddy?
Answer:
Rice and Jeeri, Dhaan, Jhonna.

Question 8.
How much area is occupied by Paddy crop in Punjab?
Answer:
28 lakh hectare.

Question 9.
How much is the average yield of Paddy in Punjab?
Answer:
60 quintal per hectare.

Question 10.
Which Karqha is used to level the field before Puddling it for the Paddy crop?
Answer:
Laser Karahd.

Question 11.
What is the seed rate for Paddy?
Answer:
It is 8 kg per acre.

Question 12.
Which chemical is used to control broadleaf weed like Gorilla in Paddy?
Answer:
Algeria or Segment.

Question 13.
Which device is used to save water for irrigation of Paddy crop?
Answer:
Tensiometer.

Question 14.
What type of soil is suitable for direct sowing of paddy?
Answer:
Medium to heavy soil.

Question 15.
What is used if there is a deficiency of zinc in Paddy and what is its quantity used?
Answer:
Zinc sulfate, 25 kg per acre.

Question 16.
What should be the moisture content for storing rice in godowns?
Answer:
12%,

Question 17.
Name varieties of Basmati.
Answer:
Punjab Basmati-3, Pusa Punjab Basmati-1509, Pusa Punjab Basmati-1121.

Question 18.
What is the time of sowing, for raising the nursery of Paddy?
Answer:
Nursery sowing for Pusa Punjab Basmati-1509 is done in the second fortnight of June and for other varieties, it is done in the first fortnight of June.

Question 19.
What happens to Paddy if excess nitrogen is applied to it? (high doses of nitrogen)
Answer:
It causes excessive vegetative growth and plants attain more height. This causes lodging of the crop and yield is reduced.

Question 20.
Which country is the highest producer of maize?
Answer:
The United States of America.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 21.
Which state of India is the highest producer of maize?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh.

Question 22.
How much area of land is occupied by maize crop in Punjab?
Answer:
1 lakh 25 thousand hectares.

Question 23.
What is the average yield of maize in Punjab?
Answer:
15 quintals per acre.

Question 25.
How much rain is suitable for maize?
Answer:
50 to 75 cm.

Question 25.
What type of soil is suitable for maize?
Answer:
Well-drained medium to heavy (loam and silty loam).

Question 26.
Give seed rate for Pearl popcorn (maize variety).
Answer:
7 kg per acre.

Question 27.
Give varieties of maize for normal use.
Answer:
PMH-1, PMH-2.

Question 28.
Name special purpose varieties of maize.
Answer:
Punjab sweet corn-1, Pearl popcorn.

Question 29.
What is the time of sowing for maize?
Answer:
Maize can be sowed from the last week of May to the end of June and in the second fortnight of August.

Question 30.
What are row spacing and plant spacing for maize crops?
Answer:
60 cm, 22 cm.

Question 31.
Which weedicide is more effective for Its in maize?
Answer:
Strata.

Question 32.
What is sown in the Helds of maize crop to prevent weeds?
Answer:
Rawang (grams).

Question 33.
Which herbicide is used to control dila/motha (common sedge)?
Answer:
2, 4-D.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 34.
How much irrigation is required for normal maize?
Answer:
4-6 irrigations are needed.

Question 35.
Which state in India is the highest producer of pulses?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 36.
How much area is occupied by Moong crop in Punjab?
Answer:
5 thousand hectares.

Question 37.
What is the yield of Moong in Punjab?
Answer:
350 kg per acre.

Question 38.
Which type of soil is not suitable for Moong?
Answer:
Saline-alkaline or waterlogged soils are not suitable.

Question 39.
What is the seed rate for Moong?
Answer:
8 kg per acre.

Question 40.
Give the time of sowing for Moong,
Answer:
The first fortnight of July.

Question 41.
What are row spacing and plant spacing for moong crop?
Answer:
Row spacing is 30 cm and plant spacing is 10 cm.

Question 42.
Which herbicides are used to control weeds in Moong?
Answer:
Treflan or Basalin.

Question 43.
How much land is occupied by the Mash crop in Punjab?
Answer:
2 thousand hectares.

Question 44.
What is the average yield of Mash in Punjab?
Answer:
180 kg acre.

Question 45.
Which soil is not suitable for the Mash crop?
Answer:
Saline-alkaline or water-logged soils.

Question 46.
What is the seed rate for Mash?
Answer:
6-8 kg per acre.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 47.
What is the time of sowing of Mash in the Sub-mountainous region?
Answer:
15 to 25 July.

Question 48.
What is a time of sowing of Mash in regions other than the Sub-mountainous region?
Answer:
Last week of June to the first week of July.

Question 49.
What is row spacing for Mash?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 50.
Which pesticide is used in Mash?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 51.
Which country is the highest producer of Soyabean?
Answer:
The United States of America.

Question 52.
Which state of India is the highest producer of Soyabean?
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh.

Question 53.
Give Soyabean based crop rotation cycle.
Answer:
Soybean—Wheat/Barley.

Question 54.
Name varieties of Soyabean.
Answer:
SL-958, S.L.-744.

Question 55.
Give the time of sowing for Soyabean.
Answer:
First fortnight of June.

Question 56.
What is row spacing for Soyabean?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 57.
Which herbicide is used to control weeds in Soyabean?
Answer:
Stomp, primate.

Question 58.
Name insects/pests which attack Soyabean?
Answer:
Hairy caterpillar and whitefly.

Question 59.
Which crop is a pulse as well as oilseed?
Answer:
Soybean.

Question 60.
Which country in the world is the highest producer of oilseed?
Answer:
The United States of America.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 61.
Which state in India is the highest producer of oilseeds?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 62.
Which country in the world is the highest producer of groundnut?
Answer:
China.

Question 63.
Which the State Of India is the highest producer of groundnut?
Answer:
Gujarat.

Question 64.
How much area is occupied by groundnut in Punjab?
Answer:
15 thousand hectares.

Question 65.
Give average yield of groundnut in Punjab.
Answer:
7 kg per acre.

Question 66.
Name a crop rotation cycle involving groundnut.
Answer:
Groundnut-wheat.

Question 67.
Name varieties of groundnut.
Answer:
S.G.-91, S.G.-84.

Question 68.
Give seed rate for groundnut.
Answer:
38-40 kg seed (Kernel) per acre.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 69.
What is the time of sowing for rainfed groundnut?
Answer:
With the advent of the monsoon.

Question 70.
What is the time of sowing for irrigated groundnut crops?
Answer:
From end April to end May.

Question 71.
Which herbicides are used to control weeds in groundnut?
Answer:
Treflan, Stomp.

Question 72.
Name Kharif fodder crops.
Answer:
Maize, Jowar, Bajra.

Question 73.
Which country in the world is the highest producer of cotton?
Answer:
China.

Question 74.
Which state of India is the highest producer of cotton?
Answer:
Gujarat.

Question 75.
How much area is under the cotton crop?
Answer:
5 lakh hectare.

Question 76.
What is the average yield of cotton in Punjab?
Answer:
230 kg lint per acre.

Question 77.
Which type of soil is not suitable for cotton?
Answer:
Sandy, saline, or water-logged.

Question 78.
Give normal varieties of cotton.
Answer:
L.H.-2108.

Question 79.
Give seed rate for BT cotton.
Answer:
750 gram per acre.

Question 80.
Name a hybrid variety of desi cotton.
Answer:
PAU 626 H.

Question 81.
Give the time of sowing for cotton.
Answer:
1 April to 15 May.

Question 82.
Give row spacing for cotton.
Answer:
67 cm.

Question 83.
Name herbicides used to control weeds in cotton.
Answer:
Treflan, stomp, gramoxon, Roundup.

Question 84.
Which country is the highest producer of Sugarcane?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 85.
Which state in India is the highest producer of Sugarcane?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 86.
How much area is occupied by sugarcane crop in Punjab?
Answer:
80 thousand hectares.

Question 87.
What is the average yield of sugarcane in Punjab?
Answer:
280 quintals per acre.

Question 88.
How much sugar is obtained from sugarcane?
Answer:
9%.

Question 89.
What type of soil is suitable for sugarcane?
Answer:
Medium to heavy soil.

Question 90.
Name early maturing varieties of spring cane.
Answer:
CoJ-85, CoJ-83.

Question 91.
What is the seed rate if four budded sets are used for a cane?
Answer:
15 thousand per acre.

Question 92.
What is the seed rate for the cane on the basis of weight?
Answer:
30 to 35 quintals per acre.

Question 93.
What is the time of sowing for a cane?
Answer:
Mid-February to end March.

Question 94.
Name herbicides to control weeds in cane crops.
Answer:
Strata, Senior.

Question 95.
Name varieties of Autumn cane.
Answer:
CoJ-85, CoJ-83.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 96.
What is a time of sowing for an autumn cane?
Answer:
20 September to 20 October.

Question 97.
Which weedicide should be used if Raya or wheat is intercropped in the autumn cane?
Answer:
Isoproturon.

Question 98.
Which herbicide is used in cane crop if summer moong and summer mash is intercropped?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 99.
How much green fodder is required for an adult animal per day?
Answer:
40 kg green fodder.

Question 100.
Name Kharif fodder crop.
Answer:
Bajra, Maize, Jowar, Napier Bajra, Guniea Grass, Guara, etc.

Question 101.
How many days, Maize, Kharif fodder take to become available for harvesting?
Answer:
50-60 days.

Question 102.
Name the variety of maize, a Kharif fodder.
Answer:
J-1006.

Question 103.
What is the time of sowing for fodder maize?
Answer:
The first week of March to mid-September.

Question 104.
Which pest attacks the fodder maize?
Answer:
Maize borer.

Question 105.
Which fodder is liked by animals?
Answer:
Jowar.

Question 106.
Name varieties of Jowar?
Answer:
S.L. 104.

Question 107.
What is the sed rate of Jowar?
Answer:
20-25 kg per acre.

Question 108.
What is the time of sowing for early maturing Jowar?
Answer:
Mid-March.

Question 109.
What is a suitable time for sowing for Jowar?
Answer:
Mid-June to middle July.

Question 110.
What is row spacing for Jowar?
Answer:
22 cm.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 111.
If a mixture of Guara and Jowar are sown together which herbicide is used ?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 112.
Write time of harvesting of Jowar?
Answer:
65-80 days, from boot to milk stage.

Question 113.
Give crop rotation cycle consisting of Bajra.
Answer:
Bajra-Maize-Bersem.

Question 114.
Give varieties of Bajra.
Answer:
PHBF-1, FBC-16.

Question 115.
Give seed rate for Bajra.
Answer:
6-8 kg seed per acre.

Question 116.
Give the time of sowing for Bajra.
Answer:
March to August.

Question 117.
What is the method of sowing for Bajra?
Answer:
Bajra is sown by the broadcasting method.

Question 118.
Which herbicide is used to control weeds in Bajra?
Answer:
Atrataf.

Question 119.
What do you know about the irrigation of Bajra?
Answer:
Normally 2-3 irrigations are required.

Question 120.
After how many days Bajra is harvested?
Answer:
After 45-55 days.

Question 121.
Give diseases of Bajra.
Answer:
Green ear, grain smut.

Question 122.
Write insects pest which attacks Bajra.
Answer:
Root bug, grasshopper.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Give details of climate and soil for cultivating Paddy.
Answer:
Paddy needs high temperature, excess moisture and excess of water. Medium to heavy soil is suitable. It can also grow in alkaline and acidic soil.

Question 2.
Give details of seed rate and seed treatment for paddy.
Answer:
8 kg seed per acre is needed for raising the nursery. To save crops from disease, seeds should be treated with recommended fungicides, soak the seed for 8 to 10 hours in recommended chemicals.

Question 3.
How will you control broadleaf weeds in Paddy?
Answer:
Broadleaf weeds like Gorilla, sunny etc. grow in paddy. Use Algrip or segment after 15-20 days of transplanting.

Question 4.
Why is green manure used?
Answer:
Leguminous plants are used for green manure e.g. Pulse crops, Sunhump, dhaincha, etc. These crops help in the fixation of nitrogen in the soil. Green manure crop is cultivated and it is mixed into the soil of the field. This helps in the increasing of humus and- makes the soil more fertile.

Question 5.
Discuss the harvesting and storing of Paddy.
Answer:
The crop can be harvested when ears are nearly ripe and the straws change color to yellow. Produce can be stored in godown when the moisture content is not more than 12%.

Question 6.
Give the time of nursery sowing for Basmati.
Answer:
For Pusa Punjab Basmati 1509, the time of nursery sowing is the second fortnight of June and for Punjab Basmati-3 and Pusa Basmati-1121, it is the first fortnight of June.

Question 7.
What is the time of transplanting seedlings of Basmati?
Answer:
For Pusa Punjab Basmati-1509, the time of transplanting is the second fortnight of July and for Punjab Basmati-3 and Pusa Basmati-1121, it is the first fortnight of July. Transplanting is done in a puddled field. Transplant 33 plants per square meter.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 8.
Give details about climate and soil for maize.
Answer:
Maize requires a moist and hot climate from germination to flowering. If there is less moisture and a very high temperature at the time of flowering, it may damage the foliage. This causes dryness (desiccate) of the pollen and proper pollination does not take place, it results in a poor grain setting. 50 cm to 75 cm rain is suitable for maize. Well-drained, medium to heavy soil is suitable.

Question 9.
What do you know about the irrigation of maize?
Answer:
Maize requires 4-6 irrigations, but it depends on the rainfall. Proper care should be taken to irrigate during the pre-tasselling and silking stages.

Question 10.
What do you know about harvesting Maize?
Answer:
When husk covers become dry and brown even when the stalks and leaves are somewhat green, the crop is ready to harvest. Moisture content should not be more than 15% in the grains.

Question 11.
What do you know about climate and soil for Moong?
Answer:
The hot climate is suitable for Moong. This crop can bear more heat and extra dryness as compared to other pulses. Saline and waterlogged soils are not suitable for this crop.

Question 12.
Give details of land preparation and- application fertilizers for Moong.
Answer:
Prepare the land by giving 2-3 ploughings and level the soil using plank. At the time of sowing apply 5 kg nitrogen a^id 16 kg of phosphorus by drilling.

Question 13.
Explain how to control weeds in Moong?
Answer:
To control weeds one or two hoeings should be done. Use Treflan or Basalin to control weeds before sowing. Use stomp within two days of sowing.

Question 14.
Discuss the harvesting of moong.
Answer:
When nearly 80% of pods are mature, moong can be harvested by using a sickle. Thresher can be used to thresh moong. If combined is to be used to harvest moong, spray gramophone to make leaves and stem dry when about 80% of pods are mature.

Question 15.
What do you know about climate and soil requirements for Mash?
Answer:
For this crop hot and moist climate is found to be suitable. Nearly all types of soils can be used to grow mash, but saline-alkaline or water-logged soil are not suitable for this crop.

Question 16.
What do you know about improved varieties, land preparation and control of weeds for Mash ?
Answer:

  • Improved Varieties: Mash-114, Mash-338.
  • Land preparation: Plough two or three times and then use Suhaga to leveler.
  • Weed Control: Hoeing should be done after one month of sowing or use stomp within 2 days of sowing.

Question 17.
What is the time of sowing for Mash?
Answer:
The time of sowing for Mash in sub-mountainous regions is from 15 to 25 July and in other regions, it is the last week of June to the first week of July. The rainfed crop should be sown with the onset of the monsoon. Sowing should be in rows with spacing 30 cm.

Question 18.
What do you know about the irrigation and harvesting of Mash?
Answer:

  • Irrigation: Normally Mash crop does not need irrigation. But in summer it needs irrigation.
  • Harvesting: When leaves fall off and pods change color to greyish black, then crop fs ready to harvest.

Question 19.
What do you know about climate and soil for soybean?
Answer:
It needs a hot climate. It can be grown in all types of soils but well-drained, non-saline/alkaline, fertile soil is more suitable for its cultivation.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 20.
Write about improved varieties, crop rotation, and land preparation for soybean.
Answer:

  • Crop rotation: Soyabean-Wheat/Barley.
  • Improved varieties: S.L.-958, S.L.-744.
  • Land preparation: Plough twice and use sugar for leveling.

Question 21.
Write about the seed rate, seed treatment, and method of sowing for Soyabean.
Answer:
The seed rate is 25-30 kg per acre. Treat the seed with recommended chemicals. If Soyabean is being sown for the first time, apply bacterial culture to the seeds. Row spacing should be 45 cm.

Question 22.
What do you know about weed control in Soyabean?
Answer:
Hoeing should be done twice to control weeds. Hoeings should be done after 20 and 40 days after sowing. Use stomp after 1-2 days of sowing or use primate after 15-20 days of sowing to control weeds.

Question 23.
Write about the fertilizer application for Soyabean.
Answer:
Apply 4 tonnes per acre of farmyard manure (FYM) before sowing Soyabean. Apply 13 kg nitrogen and 32 kg phosphorus per acre at the time of sowing.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 24.
Write about the irrigation of Soyabean.
Answer:
Soybean normally needs 3-4 irrigations. At the time of pod-filling, one irrigation is necessary. In case there is rain, then there is no need for irrigation.

Question 25.
What do you know about the harvesting of Soyabean?
Answer:
When all leaves fall off and pods change their color, crop is ready for harvesting. For storing, moisture content should not be more than 7%.

Question 26.
What do you know about insects/pests and diseases of Soyabean?
Answer:
Hairy caterpillar and whitefly attack Soyabean crop. The disease which affects the crop is the yellow mosaic virus.

Question 27.
What do you know about climate and soil for groundnut?
Answer:
For rainfed crops, nearly 50 cm of rain is a must in July, August, and September. Light to Medium type soils is suitable for groundnut.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 28.
Write about improved varieties, land preparation, and crop cycle for groundnut.
Answer:

  • Improved varieties: S.G.-99, S.G.-84.
  • Land preparation: Prepare the land by plowing it twice.
  • Crop cycle: Groundnut-Rabi crops.

Question 29.
Write about seed rate, seed treatment method of sowing for groundnut.
Answer:
Use recommended chemicals for seed treatment. The seed rate is 38-40 kg seed (Kernels) per acre. Sow after Rauni in 30 x 15 cm spacing.

Question 30.
Write about the application of fertilizers in groundnut.
Answer:
Groundnut needs 6 kg nitrogen, 8 kg phosphorus, and 10 kg potash per acre. Potash should be applied after testing the soil. Use superphosphate for phosphorus. It has sulfur also which is necessary for oil seed crops. If phosphorus is not required then 50 kg Gypsum per acre should be applied.

Question 31.
Write about weed control in groundnut.
Answer:
Hoeing is done after 3 and 6 weeks. To control weeds spray stomp after two days of sowing or spray Treflan and sow the crop the same day.

Question 32.
Write about irrigation of groundnut.
Answer:
Depending on rain, groundnut requires 2 or 3 irrigations. If there is less rain then irrigate at the time of flowering. Apply one or two irrigations depending upon rain at the time of pod formation.

Question 33.
Write about harvesting (digging), insects/pests, and diseases of groundnut.
Answer:

  • Digging of groundnut: Crop is ready to harvest when uniform yellowing of the leaves takes place and old leaves fell off.
  • Insects/Pests and diseases: Hairy caterpillar, white grub, Aphid, etc. can attack the crop. Collar rot, Root-knot, and Tikka, etc. are its diseases.

Question 34.
Write about climate and soil for cotton.
Answer:
Cotton can grow well in hot and dry climates. Cotton can grow on all types of soil but saline, water-logged soil is not suitable.

Question 35.
Write about varieties of cotton and crop cycle.
Answer:
Crop Cycle (rotation) : Ahpos-wheat/Barley, Kapas- sunflower, Kapas-Raiya, cotton-senji/Barseem/oats.
Improved varieties

  • B.T. Varieties—NSC-855, Ankur- 3028, MRC-7017, RCH-650.
  • Non-B.T. hybrid—LH-144.
  • Normal varieties—LH-2108.
  • Desi hybrid varieties—PAU-626H.
  • Desi Normal varieties—FDK-124, L.D.-694.

Question 36.
Write about seed rate and seed treatment.
Answer:
Seed rate: For one-acre seed rate is :

  • B.T. cotton: 700 gram
  • Non-B.T. hybrid cotton: 1 kg.
  • Normal variety : 3 kg.
  • Hybrid desi cotton: 1.5 kg.
  • Desi Normal variety : 3 kg.

Seed should be treated with recommended chemicals. To save it from Jassid use Gaucho or cruiser.

Question 37.
Write about the time and method of sowing for cotton.
Answer:
Time: 1 April to 15 May.
Row spacing: 67 cm.
Plant spacing: For normal varieties, it is 60 cm. For BT and non-BT hybrid varieties, plant spacing is 75 cm. For desi cotton it is 45 cm, for desi cotton hybrid varieties, it is 60 cm.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 38.
Write about weed control in cotton.
Answer:
Hoeing is done to control weeds. 2 to 3 hoeings are enough. First time hoeing is done before first irrigation. We can use a cultivator attached to the tractor or can use a trial driven by a bullock. Its/chapatti, Madhana/Makra can be controlled by using Stefan before sowing or spray stomp within 24 hours of sowing and hoeing should be done after 45 days or use one of gramophone and round up and spray directly on weeds by using safety hood.

Question 39.
Write about fertilizer application for cotton.
Answer:
Normal varieties: 30 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre.
B.T. and non-B.T. Ijybrid Varieties: Apply 60 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre. Apply potash after testing the soil. Apply all amounts of phosphorus at the time of sowing and half nitrogen at the time of thinning and remaining nitrogen at the time of flowering.

Question 40.
Write about irrigation and picking of cotton.
Answer:
Cotton needs 4 to 6 irrigations depending upon rain. First irrigation is applied after 4 to 6 weeks of sowing and after that irrigation is applied at a gap of two or three weeks. Picking Pick clean and dry bolls within 15-20 days so as to get a proper price from the mandi.

Question 41.
Write about insects/pests of cotton.
Answer:
Insects/pests which can damage the crop are Aphid, Jassid, Millibug, Pink bollworm, Tobacco caterpillar, American bollworm, Whitefly, etc.

Question 42.
Which insects do not attack and which attack B.T. cotton?
Answer:
American Bollworm does not attack B.T. cotton because B.T. cotton is genetically modified by the insertion of genes from a bacteria, which produces a protein, which acts as a poison for the bollworm. Sucking Pests and Tobacco caterpillars can attack.

Question 43.
Write about climate and soil requirements for sugarcane.
Answer:
The hot climate is suitable for sugarcane, medium to heavy soil is suitable. This crop can bear saline and alkaline soil to some extent.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 44.
Write about improved varieties and crop rotation for spring sugarcane.
Answer:
Crop rotation—Paddy/Maize/Cotton-Raya-Sugarcane- Ratoon-Ratoon II-Wheat.
Improved varieties

  • Early maturing—CoJ-85, CoJ-83,
  • Mid season varieites—CoPB-91 and CoJ-88
  • Late maturing—CoJ-89

Question 45.
Write about land preparation for soil.
Answer:
Four to six hoeings are required. Use sugar after every hoeing. Hoeing should be done up to a depth of 45-50 cm, this is beneficial for the crop since it breaks the hard layer under the soil. Water retention ability is increased. Roots can go deep.

Question 46.
Write about seed selection and seed rate on the basis of weight.
Answer:
Use the top two-thirds portion for sowing. Use 30 to 35 quintal per acre seeds on the basis of weight.

Question 47.
Write about time and method of sowing.
Answer:
Time of sowing—Mid February to end March.
Method of sowing—Plant in rows with spacing of 75 cm and give planking and then water it. One more irrigation should be applied after 4-5 days.

Question 48.
What do you know about inter-crops in SHgarcane?
Answer:
Between two rows of sugarcane, inter-crop a row of summer moong or mash. This way we can get an additional yield of 1 to 2 quintals per acre for these crops. These crops help in increasing the. fertility of the soil and also do not affect the cane yield.

Question 49.
What do you know about fertilizer application for cane crops?
Answer:
FYM (Farm Yard Manure)—Apply 8 tonnes of FYM per acre before 15 days of sowing.
Nitrogen Fertilizer—For plant crops apply 60 kg nitrogen and for Ratoon crops use 90 kg of nitrogen per acre.
Phosphorus fertilizer—Based on soil testing, if a deficiency of phosphorus is found, apply 12 kg phosphorus per acre.
The deficiency of Potash usually does not occur in Punjab.

Question 50.
Give the method to apply fertilizers for sugarcane?
Answer:

Fertilizer Method to apply
Nitrogen
  1. Apply the first half nitrogen dose with the first irrigation after germination to the planted crop.
  2. The remaining half dose is to be applied in May or June.
  3. Apply three doses in equal quantity to the ratoon crop in February, April, and May.
Phosphorus
  1. Apply full dose at the time of planting.
  2. Phosphorus is drilled rows at the time of cultivation in February.

Question 51.
Write about weed control in sugarcane.
Answer:
To control weeds, two three hoeings are required. We can spread trash between the cane rows to suppress weeds and conserve soil moisture. We can use Atrataf or sensor within two-three days of planting. For Climbing vel and Broadlife weeds use 2, 4-D. In case of summer Moong or summer Mash is sown in sugarcane then stomp herbicide should be used instead of above said herbicides.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 52.
Write about irrigation requirements for sugarcane.
Answer:
Climate is hot and dry from April to June. Therefore, irrigate the crop at intervals of 7-12 days. During winter, irrigation should be applied at monthly intervals.

Question 53.
Write improved varieties, time of sowing, and method of sowing for the autumn cane.
Answer:

  • Improved varieties—CoJ-85, CoJ-83.
  • Time of sowing—20th September to 20th October.
  • Row spacing-—90 cm spacing.

Question 54.
Write about intercropping and weed control for the autumn cane.
Answer:
Intercropping. Potato, wheat, toria, cabbage, Raya, gobhi Sarson, gram, pea, radish, garlic etc. Weed control. If wheat or Raya is sown in cane use isoproturon and in case garlic is sown then apply stomp.

Question 55.
Write about the time of sowing and sowing method for fodder crop Maize.
Answer:
Time of sowing. From the first week of March to mid-September.
Row spacing—30 cm.

Question 56.
Write about fertilizer requirements for fodder crop maize.
Answer:
At the time of field, preparation applies 10 tonnes of farmyard manure per acre. Apply 23 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre.

Question 57.
Write about weed control in fodder maize.
Answer:
Use Atrataf for controlling weeds. Apply within two days of sowing the crop. It can also be used when the crop is at the 2-3 leaves stage. In case of maize and cowpea are sewn together then stomp can be used within two days of sowing.

Question 58.
Write an improved variety of sorghum, field preparation, seed rate, and treatment of seed.
Answer:
Field preparation. One plowing using harrow and two ploughings with a cultivator followed by planting.
Improved variety. SL 44 Seed rate and treatment. 20-25 kg seeds per acre. Use recommended fungicides for the treatment of seeds.

Question 59.
How to control weeds in sorghum?
Answer:
Use Atrataf within two days of sowing. It is helpful in controlling seasonal weeds like its sit/chupati. I guara and sorghum are sown together stomp can be sprayed within two days of sowing.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Question 60.
Write about crop rotation, improved variety, field preparation for Bajra.
Answer:

  • Crop rotation—Bajra—Maize-Berseem.
  • Improved Varieties—PHBF 1, FBC 16
  • Field preparation. 2-3 ploughings are needed.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Give details of agricultural practices for Bajra.
Answer:
Do it yourself.
Question 2. Write about nursery sowing of paddy.
Answer:
The optimum sowing time for the nursery is 15th to 30th May. At the time of field preparation mix 12-15 ton well rotten farmyard manure per acre. Fertilizers that are applied at the time of sowing are 12 kg nitrogen, 10 kg phosphorus, 13 kg zinc per acre. Treated seeds with recommended fungicides are spread on a thick layer of 7-8 cm wet gunny bags and are also covered by wet gunny bags. This helps in pre-germination. Keep the gunny bags wet by sprinkling water on them. Seeds germinate in 24 to 36 hours. Sow these germinated seeds by the broadcast method of sowing. The seed rate is 8 kg per acre for nursery raising. To prevent weeds use Butachlor or soft herbicide. After 15 days of sowing apply 12 kg nitrogen per acre. Seedlings are ready when they are 20-25 cm tall or have 6-7 leaves.

Question 3.
How to use a mechanical transplanter for transplanting rice?
Answer:
This is a new technique to transplant rice. For this purpose, the nursery is grown on perforated polythene sheets which are of the size of the transplanter frames. Iron frames are placed over it and soil is filled in the frames up to the top surface. Pre-germinated seeds are spread on this soil in the frames and are covered with a thin layer of soil. Sprinkle water on the soil. The frame is lifted carefully and the required number of -such mats are prepared by the same procedure. Mats are kept wet by sprinkling water on a daily basis. For 200 mats nearly 10-12 kg seed is required, which are needed for transplanting for one acre.

Question 4.
Write about the cultivation of rice (Basmati).
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 5.
Write about the cultivation of Maize.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 6.
Write about the cultivation of Moong.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 7.
Write about the cultivation of Mash.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Kharif Crops Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Kharif cereal crops are :
(a) Maize
(b) Rice
(c) Sorghum
(d) All correct
Answer:
(d) All correct

2. Time of sowing for cotton is :
(a) 1 April to 15 May
(b) 1 January to 15 January
(c) December
(d) June
Answer:
(a) 1 April to 15 May

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

3. Seed rate for pearl popcorn is :
(a) 7 kg per acre
(b) 20 kg per acre
(c) 25 kg per acre
(d) None
Answer:
(a) 7 kg per acre

4. Time of harvesting of Kharif crop is :
(a) January-February
(b) October-November
(c) April-May
(d) Whenever

5. State which is at the top position in India in the production of pulses is :
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Punjab
(d) Gujarat.
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

True/False:

1. Varieties of Basmati rice are Punjab basmati-3, Pusa Punjab basmati-1509, Pusa basmati-1121.
Answer:
True

2. In the production of Maize, the United States of America is at the top position in the world whereas Andhra Pradesh is at the top position in India.
Answer:
True

3. Moong requires a cold climate.
Answer:
False

4. Soyabean belongs to both pulses as well as oilseed categories.
Answer:
True

5. Disease which can affect Soyabean yellow mosaic virus.
Answer:
True

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Harvest the Moong crop when about ………………. are mature.
Answer:
80% of pods

2. Maize needs an environment which is considerable……………….. from the germination to flowering.
Answer:
moist and warm

3. Soyabean requires ………….. climate.
Answer:
warm

4. High doses of …………… application to basmati should be avoided.
Answer:
nitrogen

5. Seed rate for Soyabean is …………… seed per acre.
Answer:
25-30 kg

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Forest Society and Colonialism Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
In which continent did the Industrial Revolution begin?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Australia
(d) North America
Answer:
(b) Europe.

Question 2.
Imperial Forest Research Institute is situated in
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Dehradun
(d) Abohar.
Answer:
(c) Dehradun.

Question 3.
Who is considered as the founder of modern forestry in India?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Dietrich Brandis
(c) Captain Watson
(d) Lord Hardinge.
Answer:
(b) Dietrich Brandis.

Question 4.
The wood of which tree is considered to be the best for ship building?
(a) Babul
(b) Oak
(c) Neem
(d) Teak.
Answer:
(d) Teak.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 5.
Munda Movement occured in which area?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Chota Nagpur
(c) Madras
(d) Punjab.
Answer:
(b) Chota Nagpur.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
______, ______ and ______ are very important resources for Man.
Answer:
Forest, Water, Land

Question 2.
The term ‘Colonialism’ has been derived from the Latin word ______
Answer:
Colonia

Question 3.
In Europe ______ was used for ship building.
Answer:
Oak

Question 4.
Birsa Munda was arrested from ______ on 8th August, 1895.
Answer:
Chalkat

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 5.
______ is known as traditional method of cultivation.
Answer:
Jhoom (shifting)

III. Match the Columns :

Question 1.

A B
Birsa Munda 2006
Ship Building Babul
Jand Dharti Baba
Forest Right Act Khajri
Malabar Hills Teak

Answer:

A B
Birsa Munda Dharti Baba
Ship Building Teak
Jand Khajri
Forest Right Act 2006
Malabar Hills Babul

IV. Difference between :

Question 1.
Reserved Forests and Protected Forests
Answer:
Reserved Forests and Protected Forests

  • Reserved Forest. Reserved forests were used for the commercial production of wood. Farming and animal grazing was completely banned in such forests.
  • Protected Forests. There were certain restrictions on using these forests for farming and animal grazing. People had to pay some taxes for using these forests.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 2.
Scientific Forestry and Natural Forests
Answer:

  • Scientific Forestry. Scientific forestry was a method of forest department in which old trees were cut down and new trees were planted in straight rows.
  • Natural Forest. Many trees grow automatically due to climate and the fertility of soil. They do not grow with any human interference and grow randomly.

V. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term Forest Society?
Answer:
Forest society is the group of people whose livelihood depends upon the forests and they live within or around forests.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the term Colonialism?
Answer:
Colonialism is a process in which any powerful country occupies the natural and human resources of the country or an area in a direct or indirect manner and uses them for its own interest.

Question 3.
Mention any two reasons Of deforestation.
Answer:

  1. Expansion of agriculture.
  2. Cultivation of commercial crops.

Question 4.
Which kind of wood was used to build Indian ships?
Answer:
Teak.

Question 5.
Name the ancient Indian emperor who prohibited the killing of animals.
Answer:
King Ashoka.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 6.
Which trees were planted on the Nilgiri hills?
Answer:
Babul.

Question 7.
Write down the name of four commercial crops.
Answer:
Cotton, Jute, Tea, Coffee, Rubber etc.

Question 8.
Which slogan was given by Birsa Munda?
Answer:
Self-rule in’ his own country (Abua Desh Mai Abua Raj).

Question 9.
Which community of the people prevented the king of Jodhpur from felling the trees by their sacrifice?
Answer:
Bishnoi Community.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Colonialism? Give an example.
Answer:
Colonialism is a process in which any powerful country occupies the natural and human resources of the country or an area in a direct or indirect manner and uses them for its own interests. The British occupation of India is the perfect example of the colonialism.

Question 2.
What is the relationship between forest and livelihood of the people?
Answer:
Forest tribes have been dependent on the forests for their livelihood and survival for centuries. They do hunting of birds and animals, fishing in ditches, ponds, etc. in and around the forests. They do cultivation on hilly slopes and nearby plains. They work as causal labourers in the forest department and in mines available near their place of living.

They hunt deer, jackal, sambhar, fox, wild goat for the purpose of eating. They do fishing and also catch turties and crabs for eating. They also hunt various kinds of birds like titir, hater, bageri, etc.

They do the collection of edible, roots, shoots, leaves, flowers and fruits. Fruits collected are generally Jamun, Mahua, Bair, Katahal, Amla, Imli etc. The varieties of roots, shoots, flowers, etc. collected vary from region to region.
There are other minor forest products that are collected for selling in the market or for using as folk medicine. They are seeds of Imli. Babul, Jamun, Mahua, Harer, Bahera, Honey, Lac, etc.

These include rope making, mat making broom making, basket making etc. During the off season, basketry and rope making from bamboo, Khajur, tar, etc. provide gainful engagement.

They rear animals for the purpose of eating flesh and milk and performing agriculture. They also sell them in the market. They rear goats for flesh and earn money by selling them in the market. They also rear hen, cock, ducks, etc. to get their eggs and flesh. They even sell them in the market for cash. Cows and buffaloes are reared to get milk and calves. Calves were sold to get money. Calves and buffaloes are also used to till the land.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 3.
How forests were used for the expansion of railways?
Answer:
During 19thf century, India was industrially lagging behind. Therefore, in the development of transportation, wood played a vital role. The first railway track was laid in 1853 in India. Wood was used as fuel to run locomotive and sleepers were required for tracks to hold them together tightly. As per estimate around 2000 sleepers were required to lay down only a mile of railway jjrack. Thus, it can be said that, in the decline of forest resources, railway played a vital role in India.

Question 4.
Describe the different categories of forests according to the Forest Law of 1878.
Answer:

  • The 1878 Act divided forests into three categories
    (i) Reserved forests,
    (ii) Protected forests,
    (iii) Village forests.
  • The best forests were called reserved forests. Villagers could not take any thing from these forests, even for their own use.
  • For house building or fuel, they could take wood from protected or village forests.

Question 5.
What is the state of forests in Contemporary India?
Answer:
India is a land of saints. There had been a great relation between the saints and forests. That’s why there had been a tradition of protecting forests and its wildlife. King Ashoka on one of his inscription, engraved that no animal will be killed or sacrificed in his empire. Even those animals which are not consumable were protected as well such as parrot. Except this there had been a tradition of not firing the forests. Many people still worship a number of trees and forests. Many tribes consider trees as their totam, so they consider them sacred.

Question 6.
Write a note on ‘Jhoom System’.
Answer:
Before Colonialism, there had been a type of traditional agriculture called Jhoom Cultivation or Shifting Cultivation. According to this system of Cultivation, some part of forest was fired or cut down to clear the land. After Monsoon, the crop was sown which was cut down in October-November. A good crop was taken for next 2-3 years. When its productivity reduced then trees were planted again so that it can retain its fertility. Such forests were ready after few years. For agriculture, tribals moved to other places.

VII. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the causes of deforestation? Explain.
Answer:
With the advent of industrial revolution, the demand of raw material and food grains was increased. It also increased the demand of wood. Tnere was a continuous cutting of forests. That’s why the life of people living in forests was greatly affected. The European countries started looking towards those countries/ including, India, which were quite rich in natural resources. That’s why the Dutch, Portuguese, French and the British started cutting forests in their respective Colonies,

In short, the reasons of deforestation under Colonialism are given below.
1. Railways. During 19th century, India was industrially lagging behind. Therefore, in the development of communication wood played a vital role. The first railway truck was laid in 1853 in India. Wood was used as fuel to run locomotives and sleepers were required for tracks to hold them together tightly. As per estimate around 2000 sleepers were required to lay down only a mile of railway track. Thus, it can be said that, in the decline of forest resources, railway played a vital role in India.

2. Ship-building. As we know that wood is the raw material which is used in ship-building. In the 19th century, sea was the main route of trade and commerce. By 19th century, oak forests in England started disappearing. This created a severe problem of timber supply for the Royal Navy. For this reason in 1820. a timber search teaHa was sent to explore the forest resources in India. Within a decade, trees were being felled on a massive scale because vast quantities of timber were exported from India to England.

3. Agricultural Expansion. After the advent of the European especially the British, the exploitation of forest area increased. In order to supplement the need of food for the increasing population led t<J the rapid expansion of agricultural land. There were numerous reasons for this. They thought the forest as useless and so encouraged agriculture for revenue as well as to increase their income. Due to the increase in the demands of commercial crops required for industries, thus, the production increased as well as the cultivation area between 1880 and 1920 rose by 6.7 million hectares indicating progress in agriculture.

4. Commercial farming. The British Government accorded the Indian forestry the status of commerce for her own interests. Earlier forest was a means for the instenance of life and entertainment. But the colonial power used it for its own interest and exploited the forest commercially. They gave encouragement to the cash crops like jute, tea, rubber, sugar, cotton etc. These crops were in great demand in Europe to feed its growing urban population as well as increase its industrial production.

5. Tea/Coffee Plantation. The land revenue was the main source of income of the colonial power. Natural forests which had lots of different types of trees were cut down. In their place/ one type of tree was planted in straight rows. This is known as plantation. To increase the income from land, they allotted vast forest areas to European plantation owners. As a result, this led to the reduction of forest areas. Gradually, plantation became a major source of income. There were a number of workers employed in this sector. For the accommodation of these workers forests had also to be cleared.

6. Adivasis and other peasant users. The British Government imposed certain Forest laws in India but Adivasis and other peasant users were able to dodge laws by inbous means. They stole wood from the forest and grazed their cattle stealthy. If they were caught they bribed the forest guards. Even women continued to collect firewood. The police officials and forest guards demanded favours from the Adivasis and peasant users for illegal falling of trees etc.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 2.
What was the impact of the forest laws on the forest society during the Colonialism? Explain.
Answer:
1. Shifting cultivators. One of the major impacts of European colonialism was on the practice of shifting cultivation or swidden agriculture. This is a traditional agricultural practice in many parts of Asia, Africa and South America. In shifting cultivation, parts of the forest are cut and burnt in rotation. Seeds are sown in the ashes after the first monsoon rains and the crop is harvested by October-November.

European foresters regarded this practise as harmful for the forests. They felt that land which was used for cultivation every few years could not grow trees for railway timber. When a forest was burnt, there was the added danger of the flames spreading and burning valuable timber. Shifting cultivation also made it harder for the government to calculate taxes. Therefore, the government decided to ban shifting cultivation. As a result, many communities were forcibly displaced from their homes in the forests. Some had to change occupations; while some resisted through large and small rebellions.

2. Nomadic and pastoralist communities. The, worst sufferers were nomadic and pastroralist communities. The British Government declared some forests as reserved, some others as protected. This limited their access to the forest. They could not graze their herds in forest and they could not collect forest produce like, fruits, roots and fuel and timber. For medicines, they could not collect the herbs. They had to give up hunting and fishing in the forest areas.

3. Effects on firms trading in timber and forest produce. The colonial , rule affected the timber trading in many ways. Firstly, the British Government enacted rules for forest reservation. Under this rule, people were not allowed to cut trees and collect timber from forest. Secondly, by the early 19th century, oak forests in England were disappearing. This created a problem of timber supply for Royal Navy. Thirdly, now the people were not allowed to get other forest products like ivory, silk, coconuts, bamboo, spices, resins, gum etc. for trading. Fourthly, only a few European trading firms were given the right to trade in the forest products of particular areas. General firms had to suffer owing to this measure.

4. Effect on plantation owners. The concept of plantation agriculture emerged in India with the colonial rule. The owners of the plantation fields were mostly Europeans. Therefore, rules and regulations regarding the plantation were made by keeping in view the interest of the Europeans. Large areas of natural forests were also cleared to make way for tea, coffee and rubber plantations to meet Europe’s growing need for these commodities. The colonial government took over the forests, and gave vast areas to European planters at cheap rates. These areas were enclosed and cleared of forests and planted with tea or coffee. The planters were given a free hand to manage and regulate the farms. The labourers were exploited to the hilt and were paid low wages.

5. Effect on Kings/British officials engaged in Shikar. Under the colonial rule, the scale of hunting increased to such an extent that various species became almost extinct. The British saw large animals as signs of a wild, primitive and savage society. They believed that by killing dangerous animals the British would civilise India. They gave rewards for the killing of tigers, wolves and other large animals on the grounds that they posed a threat to cultivators. Over 80,000 tigers, 150,000 leopards and 200,000 wolves were killed for reward in period 1875-1925. Gradually, the tiger came to be seen as a sporting trophy. The Maharaja of Sarguja alone shot 1,157 tigers and 2,000 leopards up to 1957. A British administrator, George Yule, killed 400 tigers. Initially certain areas of forests were reserved for hunting. Only much later did the environmentalists and conservators begin to argue that all these species of animals needed to be protected and not killed.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 3.
Write a detailed note on Munda Tribe.
Answer:
Munda movement occupies an important place amongst the movements for tribal rights on land, water and forests. This movement was carried on under the leadership of Birsa Munda. The British were depriving the tribals from their water forests and land by making laws. Tribals worshipped forests as father and land as their mother. They were deprived of all these with the help of law. The Christian priest Doctor Notrate inspired the people to adopt Christianity and promised to give their lands back. But later on, the government did not fulfil the promise. With the help of his ideas, Birsa Munda organised the tribals,. First of all he included three aspects—social, economic and cultural, in his movement. He tried to educate the people to shun their superstitions. He connected the people by talking about the security of water-forest land or tribal rights on all these. Except these he also talked about protecting their culture by raising the slogan of saving the religion and culture.

In 1895, a movement was initiated to waive off forest related tax but the government completely refused it. Birsa Munda raised the slogan of ‘Self rule in his own country’ (Abua Desh Main Abua Raj) and started struggle against the British. On 8th August, 1895, Birsa was arrested from chalkat and imprisoned for two year. When Birsa got free from jail, there occured famine in the region. Birsa along with his people served the people and he started creating awareness amongst people. People started worshipping him as ‘Dharti Baba’. But there started confrontation between him and the government. That’s why in 1807 A.D. around 400 Munda rebels attacked the Khuti police station. In 1898 A.D., the rebels pushed back the British army in the region of Tanga river but the British army killed hundreds of tribals.

On 14th December, 1899, Birsa Munda declared a war agaiftst the British which by January 1900, spread in the whole region. The British announced the reward on Birsa. Few locals helped the British to arrest him and he was sent to a prison in Ranchi. He was poisoned over there and died on 9th June, 1900 A.D.. To prevent the anger of Munda tribe it was pretended that Birsa was died of cholera. His family members were tried in court and were given severe punishments.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Forest Society and Colonialism Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What do you mean by deforestation?
(a) Appearance of forests
(b) Reappearance of forests
(c) Burning of forests
(d) Disappearance of forests.
Answer:
(d) Disappearance of forests.

Question 2.
Construction of railway tracks in India created huge demand for
(a) Timber
(b) Iron
(c) Elephants
(d) Bamboos.
Answer:
(a) Timber.

Question 3.
Which plantation was the most important during the colonial period?
(a) Coffee
(b) Rubber
(c) Tea
(d) Tobacco.
Answer:
(c) Tea.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 4.
When was the Indian Forest Service set up?
(a) 1863
(b) 1864
(c) 1865
(d) 1866.
Answer
(6b) 1864.

Question 5.
Where was the Imperial Forest Research Institute set up?
(a) Dehradun
(b) Shimla
(c) Delhi
(d) Kathmandu.
Answer:
(a) Dehradun.

Question 6.
What were the best forests called?
(a) Protected forests
(b) Village forests
(c) Reserved forests
(d) Unreserved forests.
Answer:
(c) Reserved forests.

Question 7.
What is shifting cultivation called in Sri Lanka?
Answer:
(a) Chena
(b) Penda
(c) Jhum
(d) Podw.
Answer:
(a) Chena.

Question 8.
Which British officer was the most famous tiger hunter?
(a) Lord Reading
(b) George Yule
(c) John Kelvin
(d) Metcalfe.
Answer:
(b) George Yule.

Question 9.
Where is Bastar located?
(a) M.P.
(b) A.P.
(c) T.N.
(d) Chhattisgarh.
Answer:
(d) Chhattisgarh.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 10.
When did the first rebellion take place in Bastar?
(a) 1912
(b) 1910
(c) 1915
(d) 1940.
Answer:
(b) 1910.

Question 11.
When was the Indian Forest Act passed?
(a) 1865
(b) 1864
(c) 1871
(d) 1872.
Answer:
(a) 1865.

Question 12.
Which of these is the cash crop?
(a) Jute
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Cotton
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 13.
Who was the tribal leader of Chota Nagpur?
(a) Birsa Munda
(b) Sidhu
(c) Kanhu
(d) Alluri Sitaram Raju.
Answer:
(a) Birsa Munda.

Question 14.
Who was the leader of rebellion of Bastar in the British Rule?
(a) Gunda Dhur
(b) Kanhu
(c) Birsa Munda
(d) Sidhu.
Answer:
(a) Gunda Dhur.

Question 15.
Who did implement scientific forestry in Indonesia?
(a) English
(b) French
(c) Dutch
(d) Russian.
Answer:
(c) Dutch

Question 16.
Which river flows across Bastar from east to west?
(a) Godawari
(b) Krishna
(c) Kauveri
(d) Indramati.
Answer:
(d) Indramati.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 17.
Which of these is the forest product?
(a) Silk
(b) Gum
(c) Wood
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
The first railway was started in ______ A.D.
Answer:
1853

Question 2.
______ live in forests.
Answer:
Tribals

Question 3.
Length of railway track in 1890 was ______ km.
Answer:
25000

Question 4.
______, ______ and ______ were major commercial crops.
Answer:
Tea, Coffee, Rubber,

Question 5.
Lord Dalhousie promoted the plantation of ______ in Malabar.
Answer:
teak

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 6.
Indian Forest Act was amended in ______ A.D.
Answer:
1878.

True/False:

Question 1.
In 1878, four categories of forests were created.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
In 1906, The Imperial Forests Research Institute was formed at Dehradun.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Forest policy was formed in 1952 A.D.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Birsa Munda was born in 1857 A.D.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Birsa Munda died in 1900 A.D.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is deforestation?
Answer:
Disapperance of forest is called deforestation.

Question 2.
Define plantation.
Answer:
Mechanized farming of single species planted in straight lines on large fields.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 3.
When was Indian Forest Service set up?
Answer:
1864.

Question 4.
When and where was the Imperial Forest Research Institute set up?
Answer:
In 1906, at Dehradun.

Question 5.
When was the Indian Forest Act passed?
Answer:
1865.

Question 6.
How many wolves, tigers and leopards were killed between 1875 to 1925?
Answer:
2 lakh wolves, 1.5 lakh leopards, 80 thousand tigers.

Question 7.
Name any five forest products.
Answer:
Silk, gum, wood, bidi, ivory and hides.

Question 8.
Mention the length of railway tracks in India in 1946.
Answer:
765,000 km.

Question 9.
The disappearance of which tree caused problem of timber supply for Royal Navy?
Answer:
Oak.

Question 10.
Who was the First Inspector General of Forests in India?
Answer:
Dyetrich Brandis.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 11.
When was the Forest Act 1865 amended?
Answer:
It was amended twice-1878 and 1927.

Question 12.
What were the reserved forests?
Answer:
The best forests were called reserved forests. It was out of bound for villagers.

Question 13.
What were the three needs of villagers to be satisfied by forests?
Answer:
Fuel, fodder and leaves.

Question 14.
What is the use of Mahua tree?
Answer:
Oil for cooking and to light lamps can be pressed from the fruit of Mahua tree.

Question 15.
Name the tribal leader of Chottanagpur.
Answer:
Birsa Munda.

Question 16.
Where is Bastar located?
Answer:
Bastar is located in Chhattisgarh bordering Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and Maharashtra.

Question 17.
Name the tribal communities of Bastar.
Answer:
Masia, Musria, Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras and Halbas.

Question 18.
Which river flows across Bastar from east to west?
Answer:
Indrawati.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 19.
What is mann?
Answer:
If people from a village in Bastar want to take some wood from the forest of another village they pay small fee called mann.

Question 20.
Who was Gunda Dhur?
Answer:
He was the leader of Bastar tribal movement in 1910.

Question 21.
Name three forest products.
Answer:
Dyes, gum and honey are three forest products.

Question 22.
For which type of crops the Indian forests were cleared to meet the demands of Europeans?
Answer:
For tea, coffee and rubber crops, the Indian forests were cleared to meet the demands of Europeans.

Question 23.
Who was appointed the First Inspector General of Forests in India?
Answer:
A German expert, Dietrich Brandis was appointed as the First Inspector General of forests in India.

Question 24.
When was Indian Forest Act passed?
Answer:
In the year 1865, India Forests Act was passed.

Question 25.
Where and in which year was the Imperial Forest Research Institute established?
Answer:
At Dehradun, in the year 1906, the Imperial Forest Research Institute was established.

Question 26.
What is shifting cultivation?
Answer:
In shifting cultivation, parts of forests are cut and burnt in rotation. A mixture of crops are grown on these plots.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 27.
How much percentage of total forest area of world disappeard between 1700 and 1995?
Answer:
9.3% of total forest area of world disappeared between 1700 and 1995.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the reasons for the expansion of cultivation in the colonial period?
Answer:
There were various reasons for the expansion of cultivation in the colonial period as :

  1. The European powers encouraged the cultivation of commercial corps like cotton Indigo, Jute, tea, sugar, coffee, surgarcane, etc for feeding the’towns people and to supply raw materials for their home industries.
  2. The British encouraged plantation agriculture like tea, coffee, and rubber as they were in great demand in Europe. Plantation farms were large and extensive employing scientific means to increase the produce.
  3. It was the firm belief of the colonial masters that forests were unproductive and did not contribute in the income of the state. Therefore, cultivation had to be extended and encouragement at the cost of forest.

Question 2.
After 1820, Indian forests were cut down on a large scale. What were its reasons?
Answer:
During the decade of 1820, the British government needed of strong and durable timber. This increasing demand of timber and consequently deforestation had following reasons :

  1. The British Royal Navy’s Ships were made with Oak tree. But the oak forests in England were disappearing. This created a problem of timber supply for the Royal Navy. So, Indian forests were explored and vast quantities of timber were being exported from India.
  2. The spread of railway started during the decade of 1805’s. It increased the demand and need of timber. To run locomotives, wood was needed as fuel and to lay railway lines, sleepers, were necessary to hold the tracks together. As early as the 1850s, in the Madras Presidency alone, 35,000 trees were being cut annually for sleepers.
  3. To continue with the wood’s supply, the British government gave contract to private companies and they out trees indiscriminately.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 3.
Under scientific forestry, which steps were taken for the forest management?
Answer:
Under scientific forestry, the following steps were taken for the forest management.

  • Natural forests which had lots of different types of trees were cut down.
  • In their place, single type of trees was planted in straight rows which is , called plantation.
  • Forest officials surveyed the forests, estimated the area under different types of trees and made working, plans for forest management.
  • They planned how much of the plantation area to cut every year. The area cut was then to be replanted so that it was ready to be cut again in some years.

Question 4.
There were conflicting interests of the colonial forest officials and villagers about forests. Clarify.
Answer:
It is true that they both had conflicting news regarding the usage of forests. Villagers needed wood for fuel, grass and leaves. So, they wanted the forests with mixed variety of trees.

On contrary to this, forest officials were in favour of such forests which could cater their needs of ship building and the expansion of railways. That’s why they wanted to plant strong and durable trees which could reach its height. That’s why they cleared the mixed forests and planted teak and Sal trees.

Question 5.
Forest Laws brought many difficulties for the villagers and local communities. Explain it.
Answer:
Forest products were the means of livelihood for the tribals and villages. But forest laws restricted them from cutting wood, collecting fruit and roots, animal grazing, hunting and catching fish. So, they were forced to steal wood from forest. If they were caught, they had to pay bribe to forest officials. Women who collected fuel wood were especially worried. It was also common for police constables and forest guards to harass people by demanding free food from them.

Question 6.
Why was shifting agriculture stopped? What was its impact on local communities?
Answer:
Shifting agriculture was stopped due to three major reasons :

  • European foresters regarded this practice as harmful for the forests. They felt that land was used for cultivation every few years could not grow trees for railway timber.
  • When a forest was burnt, there was the added danger of the flames spreading and burning valuable timber.
  • Shifting cultivation also made it harder for the government to calculate taxes.
  • Impact. Many communities were forcibly displaced from their homes in the forests. Some had to change occupations, while some resisted through large and small rebellions.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 7.
Which new changes came in forestry after the decade of 1980?
Answer:
Forestry completely changed from the decade of 1980. Now forgot conservation was made the objective by local people instead of collecting wood from the forests. Government also came to know that public participation is necessary for forest conservation. That’s why dense forest from Mizoram till Kerala are safe in India. People consider their security as their duty, Some villagers care these forest themselves. Even every family gives duty for its security. So there is no role of forest guards in these forests. Now local communities and environments and thinking about giving new form to the forest management.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the first Inspector General of Forests in India? What were his views about forest management? What did he do for this?
Answer:
The first Inspector General of Forests in India was Dietrich Brandis. He was a German specialist. He had following views about forest management.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism 1

  • Brajidis realised that proper system had to be introduced to manage the forests and people had to be trained in the science of conservation.
  • Under this system, legal sanctions had to be implemented.
  • Rules about the use of forests had to be framed.
  • Forests could be preserved for timber production. Falling of trees and grazing had to be restricted.
  • Anybody who cut trees without following the system had to be punished.

To implement his ideas Brandis established Indian Forest Service in 1964 and helped in formulating the Indian Forest Act 1865. Imperial Forest Research Institutions was set up at Dehradun in 1905. The system they taught here was scientific forestry. Later on many people felt that this system is not scientific at all.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 2.
How did the tribal people use the products available in the forests?
Answer:
In forest areas, tribals use forest products, such as roots, leaves, fruits and tubers in many ways.

  • Fruits and tubers are nutritious to eat especially during the monsoon before the harvest has come in.
  • Herbs are used for medicine.
  • Wood is used for agricultural implements like yokes and ploughs.
  • Bamboo is used to make excellent fences. It is also used to make baskets and umbrellas.
  • A dried scooped out goured can be used as a portable water bottle.
  • Almost everything is available in forests such as
    • Leaves can be stiched together to make disposable plates and cups.
    • The Siadi (Bauhinia vahlii) can be used to make ropes.
    • The thorny bark of Semur (silk cotton) tree is used to grats vegetables.
    • Oil for cooking and to light lamps can be pressed from the fruits of mahua tree.