Class 7

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Why did Daulat Khan Lodhi and Rana Sanga invite Babar to attack on India?
Answer:
The nobles invited Babar to fight the Lodhis because of the following reasons :

  1. The Lodhi kings tried to suppress the power of their nobles who had tried to become independent rulers in different provinces.
  2. Ibrahim Lodhi, the last of the Lodhi kings, was proud, cruel and inefficient.
  3. He also ill-treated Daulat Khan Lodhi, the Goveror of Punjab.
  4. The nobles had thought that after plundering some parts of northern India, Babar, like other invaders, will leave for Kabul and then they would be able to assert their independence.

Question 2.
What do you know about Babar’s conquests?
Answer:
In the first battle of Panipat in 1526 A.D., Babar defeated Ibrahim Lodhi and occupied Delhi and Agra. Rana Sanga became angry with this. As a result, he led a huge army against Babar in the battle of Kanwah. Rana Sanga was defeated in the battle of Kanwah by Babar. With this victory, North India came under complete control of Babar.

Babar also defeated the Rajputs in the battle of Chandri in 1528 A.D. Babar also defeated the Afghans in 1529 A.D. at the battle of Ghaghara. He died in 1530 A.D.

Question 3.
Write about the conquests of Akbar,
Answer:
At the time of Humayun’s death, Akbar was only thirteen years old. He was not a ruler of any part of India. Akbar’s first conflict came with Hemu. He was an ambitious general of one of the Afghan princes. A battle of Panipat was fought between Bairam Khan, the Regent of Akbar and Hemu. Hemu was defeated in the battle of Panipat. Akbar captured Delhi and Agra which the Mughals had lost.

In 1560 A.D., Akbar himself took the reigns of the administration. After that his victories are as under :
1. Victories in North India :

  • Victories over Rajputs. In 1562 A.D., Akbar attacked the Rajputs. The King of Amber, Raja Bihari Mai accepted the subordination of Akbar and married his daughter to him. Besides, other Rajput rulers also accepted the subordination of Akbar e.g. Kalinjar, Marwar, Jaisalmer, Bikaner etc.
  • Struggle of Mewar. The ruler of Mewar Rana Pratap never wanted to . accept the subordination of Akbar. In 1569 A.D. Akbar occupied the capital of Mewar, Chittor. Still Maharana Pratap continued his struggle with the Mughals.
  • Victory over Gujarat. In 1572-73 A.D., Akbar got victory over Gujarat, (in) Victory over Bihar-Bengal. In 1574-76 A.D., Akbar defeated the rulers of Bihar and Bengal and occupied those states.
  • Other victories. Slowly Akbar got hold of Kashmir, Sindh, Orissa, Balochistan and Kandhar.

2. Victories in South India. After north India, Akbar shifted his attention to south India, then in south India he got the following victories :

  • Victory in Bijapur and Golkunda. This was achieved in 1591 A.D.
  • Victory over Khandesh. In 1601 A.D. Sultan Ali Khan of Khandesh accepted the subordination of Akbar. •
  • Control over Ahmednagar. In 1601 A.D., Akbar’s army defeated Chand Bibi of Ahmednagar and took control of the city.
  • Control over Berar. Akbar even took control over the Berar area of south India.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 4.
What do you mean by the Agrarian system of the Mughals?
Answer:
In Mughal state, the main source of revenue was Land Tax.

Improvement in the tradition of Land Tax.

  1. The crop produce in some parts of the state was more than the other. The kind of crop too was different, so Akbar managed to collect land tax differently.
  2. The total production of the empire and the total revenue collected on it.
  3. One-third of the production was decided to be the land tax. This helped the peasants a lot.
  4. In case of drought or excessive rains, the land revenue was often remitted.
  5. The land was measured in ‘bighas’.

Classification of Land: Akbar classified the land into four parts :

  • Polaj Land: It was very fertile land. Any crop could be sown on this land at anytime.
  • Parauti Land: On this land, sowing could be done after one or two years.
  • Chhachhar Land: The sowing could be done after three-four years.
  • Barren Land: Sowing could be done after five-six years.

Collection of Land Tax: The land tax collection systems were as follows :

  • Kankut System: According to this system the govt, would collect land tax by approximating the value of the standing crop.
  • Batai System: According to this system when the crop was harvested, then 1/3 part was taken by the govt.
  • Nasak System: According to this system the crop of the whole village was approximated and the land tax was fixed.

The Mughal govt, gave loans to the farmers to make more and more land agriculturable. At the time of drought and flood, the land tax was given exemption.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Tuzuk-i-Babari is the autobiography of ________
Answer:
Babar

Question 2.
The battle of Kanwaha was fought between Babar and ________
Answer:
Rana Sanga

Question 3.
Akbar defeated Hemu in ________
Answer:
1556 A.D, Panipat

Question 4.
Babar wrote ________
Answer:
Tuzuk-i-Babari

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 5.
Abul Fazl wrote ________
Answer:
Akbarnama.

III. Write True or False for each statement :

Question 1.
The Mughals came to India in 1525 A.D.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Daulat Khan Lodhi and Rana Sanga invited Babar to invade India.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Sher Shah Suri was a Mughal ruler.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Rajputs were very well treated during the reign of Aurangzeb.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The Deccan policy of Aurangzeb strengthened the Mughal Empire.
Answer:
False

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, show the extent of Mughal Empire.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of Indian Map.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 2.
Collect the pictures of Mughal Emperors and paste in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When Akbar came into Power?
(a) 1560
(b) 1558
(c) 1564
(d) 1556
Answer:
(d) 1556.

Question 2.
Who wrote Ain-i-Akbari?
(a) Abul Fazl
(b) Tansen
(c) Raja Man Singh
(d) Todar Mai
Answer:
(a) Abul Fazl.

Question 3.
Mughal tradition of succession was to divide state into ________ of the father.
(a) Sons
(b) Daughters
(c) A & B Both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Sons.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 4.
Mother of Jahangir was the princess of
(a) Raikot
(b) Amber
(c) Ajmer
(d) Jaisalmer.
Answer:
(b) Amber.

Question 5.
Term Mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a
(a) Jagir
(b) Land
(c) Mansab
(d) Suba.
Answer:
(c) Mansab.

Question 6.
The Mansabdars were required to maintain specified number of
(a) Horses
(b) Cavalry men
(c) Soldiers
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Cavalry men.

Question 7.
Revenue Minister of Akbar was
(a) Todar Mai
(b) Tansen
(c) Abul Fazl
(d) Birbal.
Answer:
(a) Todar Mai.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 8.
Revenue circle with its own schedule revenue rates for individual crops is known as
(a) Mansab
(b) Zat
(c) Zabt
(d) Jagir.
Answer:
(b) Zat.

Question 9.
Whole of the Mughal Empire was divided into “different
(a) Cities
(b) Towns
(c) Faujdars
(d) Subas.
Answer:
(d) Subas.

Question 10.
Subedar of every Suba was supported by officer like
(a) Bakshi
(c) Sadr
(b) Faujdar
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When and between whom was the first battle of Panipat fought? Who was defeated?
Answer:
It was fought in 1526 A.D., between Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi. Ibrahim Lodhi was defeated in this battle.

Question 2.
Who was Babar? Write in brief about his victories.
Answer:

  • Babar was a good general and he knew how to use his soldiers to the best advantage.
  • Babar had brought artillery from central Asia and this was one of the main reasons for his success.
  • Babar’s cavalry was better trained.
  • The soldiers of Lodhi King were not faithful to him.
  • Babar arranged his soldiers in such a way that they could easily move from one part of the battle to another.

Babar’s Victories. Babar was the founder of the Mughal empire in India. He was a great conqueror who within a period of four years (1526-1529) won four battles:

  1. Battle of Panipat
  2. Battle of Kanwaha
  3. Battle of Chaderi and
  4. Battle of Ghagra.

In these battles, he proved himself to be a great military genius. He was also a great writer who patronised great scholars. His autobiography known as ‘Tuzuk-i-Babari’, in Turkish language, is a great piece of literature. He died in 1530 A.D. and was buried at Kabul in a beautiful grave.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 3.
Who exiled Humayun from India and when? When did he regain his state?
Answer:
Sheh Shah Suri exiled Humayun in 1540 A.D., but Humayun regained his state after defeating his successor Sikandar Suri in 1555 A.D. In 1556 A.D. Humayun died.

Question 4.
Who was Sher Shah? Why was he successful? Why is it said that he might have become a great Sultan?
Answer:
Sheh Shah Suri was an Afghan king. He defeated Humayun and founded the Suri Dynasty.

Reasons of his success:

  1. Sher Shah was a determined man.
  2. Before becoming the ruler, he administered the jagir of his father, so he had the experience of administration.
  3. He was liberal and well-wisher of his people. Sher Shah Suri died in A.D. 1545.

Sher Shah ruled Delhi only for five years. He administered his state well. His land revenue system was of highest order. He did many works for the welfare of the people. His army was well disciplined. Thus we see that Sher Shah did many important works in a brief tenure of his rule. Had he lived for longer period, he would have been the greatest ruler.

Question 5.
What were the features of the administration of Sher Shah Suri?
Answer:
Sher Shah ruled only for a short span of five years (1540-45 A.D.) but even during such a short period, he had achieved so much that it is said that he might have become a great Sultan.

There are many reasons for his success or greatness :
1. Man of Great Qualities: He was a great military genius and clever statesman. He duped Humayun several times and ultimately defeated him.

2. Administrative Reforms: Sher Shah was successful because he was a great administrator. He appointed efficient and honest officers to administer his state well. He treated all his subjects alike and even appointed Hindus on high posts.

3. Gearing up the Revenue Administration: Sher Shah got the whole land measured. A new assessment was made in order to fix a just tax. Land revenue was fixed at nearly one-third of the produce. Land revenue could be paid both in cash or in kind.

4. Reforming the Military Administration: Sher Shah fully knew that if he wanted to be successful he must organize his army on a strong footing. As such, he organized his army into a strong military force. .

5. Construction of Roads and Highways: Sher Shah built several good roads for promoting trade and commerce for the safe travel of the public.

Question 6.
Who made Altbar sit on the throne and when?
Answer:
It was Bairam Khan in 1556 A.D.

Question 7.
Who was Bairam Khan? When did Akbar depose him from his post?
Answer:
Bairam Khan was patron of Akbar. He was deposed in 1560 A.D. by Akbar.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 8.
Name the main features of Akbar’s Rajput policy.
Answer:
Akbar captured the Rajput kingdoms of Gwalior, Ajmer and Malwa. These conquests brought him into the neighbourhood of the Rajput kingdoms. Akbar was very far-sighted. He realised that there could be no permanent Mughal rule in India without the help and loyalty of Rajput princes. So he made friends with them. He entered into marital alliances between his family and various Rajput royal families. He himself married a number of Rajput princesses. They became his sincere friends, trusted advisers and his loyal and gallant comrades on the battlefield. Rhagwan Dass and Man Singh were his famous Rajput generals. But the Rana of Mewar, Rana Partap did not relent to Akbar.

Question 9.
Write about the central administrative system of Akbar/Mughals.
Answer:
The description is as follows :
1. King. King was the chief of administration. He had many assistants to help him, e.g. Wakil, Diwan-i-Ala, Mir-Bakshi, Sadar-i-Sadur, Qazi-ul-Qazat and Khan-i- Saman.

2. Wakil. He was the prime minister of the state. He would give information to the emperor about chief happenings. He would always carry out the orders of the emperor.

3. Diwan-i-Ala was the finance minister. He would take care of income-expenditure account of the state. He would also make laws about the taxes.

4. Mir Bakshi. He would keep records of Mansabdars. He would distribute salary to them. He would also take care of military institutions.

5. Sadar-i-Sadur. He was the chief of department of religious affairs. He would keep an account of religious affairs and educational institutions.

6. Qazi-ul-Qazat. He would give his opinions to emperor on Islamic laws for delivering the justice.

7. Khan-i-Saman. He would take care of the royal family and factories.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on the state administrative system of Akbar/Mughals.
Answer:
Akbar had divided his empire into 15 states for running his administration properly. The main state officials were as follows.

  • Subedar: He was the highest official of the state. His main function was to keep law and order in the state.
  • Diwan: He was the chief of finance of the state. The accounts of income-expenditure of state were under his department.
  • Bakshi: He would take care of military arrangements as well as horses.
  • Sadar: He would prepare details about saints, seers, peers and fakirs.
  • Waqiyanavis: He was the chief of detective department.
  • Kotwal: He was the police official. His main function was to maintain peace and order in the city.

Question 11.
Write a comment on the local administration of the Mughals/Akbar.
Answer:
Akbar had divided his empire into states and states were further sub-divided into districts, parganas and villages :
1. Administration of District :

  • Faujdar: He was the chief administrator of the district. He would carry out the orders of the Badshah and maintain law and order.
  • Amil-Guzar: His main function was to collect taxes.
  • Bitikchi and Khazandar: Both these official were the assistants of Amil Guzar.

2. Administration of Parganas:

  • Shiqdar: To maintain law and order in the pargana.
  • Amil: To collect land tax.
  • Potdar and Qanungo: Both these were assistants of Amil.

3. Administration of Villages: Most villages were administered by Panchayats. These developed the villages and take care of the village conflicts. ‘Chowdhary’, ‘Muqqadam’ and ‘Patwari’ were the assistants of Panchayat.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 12.
Write a short note of Mansabdari System.
Answer:
The Mansabdari system was the most important feature of the Mughal administration. The Mansab means rank. Each noble was given a mansab or rank and was called the mansabdar. The mansab or rank was based on the numbers of mounted soldiers at the command of the officers. Each mansabdar was required to perform any civil and military duty as was assigned to him by the emperor. Mansab was not hereditary. Hence it could not be passed on to his descendants. Thus every mansabdar owed his allegiance to the emperor.

Classes of Mansabdars. In the period of Akbar, Mansabdars had 33 classes. The lowest mansabdar had 10 soldiers and the highest mansabdar had 10,000 soldiers in his subordination.

Duties of Mansabdars. Mansabdars were appointed by the emperor at the recommendation of Mir Bakhshi. He could be put to any work. The salary was also given according to his class. He could be promoted as well as denoted in status as well as salary.

Question 13.
What do you know about Nur Jahan? What was her importance in Jahangir’s Court?
Answer:
Nur Jahan was a talented woman. Her original name was Mehr-un-Nisa. Jahangir married her in 1611 A.D. She set the fashion in dress and manners at the court. She had a great consideration in the Mughal court. She had a great influence in the administration. There was hardly any affair of importance in which she was not consulted. Jahangir fell ill for a long period. During this period she became a real ruler of the empire. Her name was associated with Jahangir on coins and privy seals.

Question 14.
“The reign of Aurangzeb (1658-1707) is described as the most disturbed among Mughal emperors.” ‘Why?
Answer:
The reign of Aurangzeb is described as the most disturbed due to the following reasons or facts :
1. Aurangzeb was a Sunni Muslim bigot. He ill-treated the followers of other religions. He ill-treated even the Sufi Saints.

2. Aurangzeb imposed Zazia on all the non-Muslim subjects particularly on the Hindus. He also destroyed their temples.

3. Aurangzeb martyred the ninth Guru of Sikhs, Guru Teg Bahadur Ji at Delhi. As a result, the Sikhs became sworn enemies of the Mughals.

4. The Rajput rulers of Mewar and Marwar also rose against the Mughals because they were discontented by the policies of Aurangzeb.

5. To conquer the Deccan states of Bijapur and Golkunda, Aurangzeb remained away from his capital for full 25 years (1682-1707 A.D.) His absence from his capital encouraged disruptive forces and gave rise to discontentment among the people.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 15.
How were the Marathas able to build up a strong and independent state? Was Aurangzeb able to control their rebellion?
Answer:
Following were the reasons for the establishment of an independent state of the Marathas.
1. Geographical reasons: Marathas lived in the hilly region of Maharashtra. They got natural forts on the hills. These forts helped them to establish an independent state.

2. Impact of Bhakti Movement: The Marathas were greatly benefited by the conversings of Bhakti movement in Deccan. The mutual differences of Marathas were reduced and a sense of brotherhood originated among them.

3. Political experience: After the decline of Delhi Sultanate, a number of small states were established in Deccan. They had a close look of the political life, which brought an awakening among them.

4. Hard workers: Marathas were the inhabitants of the hilly region. They struggled to earn their living. This habit of hard work made them brave.

5. Leadership of Shivaji: They were fortunate enough to have the leader like Shivaji. He united the scattered Marathas community and established a strong and independent state.

Rebellion of Marathas: The Marathas had become a great power. Aurangzeb wanted to crush them but could not succeed. In 1674 Shivaji declared himself an independent ruler. After Shivaji’s death, his son Shambhaji sat on throne. In 1689, Aurangzeb killed Shambhaji and occupied Maratha areas but Marathas continued their struggle under Raja Ram and afterwards his queen Tarabai. In 1707 A.D. after the death of Aurangzeb, Marathas reoccupied a large area of Mughals.

Question 16.
Describe the Sikh struggle against the Mughals during and after the administration of Aurangzeb. _
Answer:
The struggle of Sri Guru Teg Bahadur Ji: After Sri Guru Har Krishanji, Sri Guru Teg Bahadurji became the 9th Guru. He was against the anti-Hindu policies of Aurangzeb. So Aurangzeb was annoyed with Guruji. Guruji raised his voice against Aurangzeb when he tried to demolish the gurdwaras and he also spoke against Aurangzeb when he tried to expel the citizens who were having soft corners for the Guruji. Guruji was brought to Delhi and was asked to convert to Islam. Guruji declined and then he was severely tortured and he was martyred in Delhi’s Chandni Chowk in 1675 A.D.

Struggle of Guru Gobind Sahib Ji. Sri Guru Gobind Sahibji became the 10th Guru and continued his struggle against Mughal cruelty. In 1699 A.D., he founded the ‘Khalsa Panth’ and after that there was a struggle between the Sikhs and the Mughals. Guruji’s two elder sons Sahibzada Ajit Singh and Sahibzada Jujhar Singh became martyrs. Guruji’s younger two sons Sahibzada Zorawar Singh and Sahibzada Fateh Singh were buried alive in the wall at Sirhind.

Struggle of the Sikhs after Aurangzeb’s death. In 1707 A.D., Aurangzeb died. His successor Bahadur Shah tried to establish friendly relations with Sikhs but the Faujdar of Sirhind Wajir Khan sent a Pathan who by deception put knife into Guruji’s stomach. Guruji’s soul became one with God in 1708 A.D. After that the struggle continued under the leadership of Banda Singh Bahadur

Question 17.
Comment on the Deccan policy of Aurangzeb.
Answer:
Aurangzeb spent almost 25 years of his life in south India. He was a Sunni Muslim. So, he wanted to crush the independent Shia states of Bijapur and Golkonda in south India. These states helped Marathas against Mughals, so he wanted to crush the power of Marathas also.

In 1686 A.D., Aurangzeb occupied Bijapur and in 1687 A.D., he occupied Golkunda also. Shivaji died in 1680 A.D. but still Marathas continued their struggle. Aurangzeb failed to crush Marathas. In 1707 A.D., he died.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 18.
What were the causes that brought about the break-up of the Mughal empire?
Answer:
Following were the causes that brought about the break-up of the Mughal empire :

  • The successors of Aurangzeb were weak rulers.
  • The Mughal empire met with financial troubles.
  • Mughal administration was no longer as efficient as it used to be under Akbar.
  • The military administration of the Mughals had also become weaker.
  • Mughal India showed little awareness to the discoveries which the new science of Europe was revealing to Europeans.

Question 19.
Write about the visits of Europeans during Mughal period in India.
Answer:
During the period of Jahangir many European traders came to India. William Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe were the main visitors.

William Hawkins stayed in India for three years (1608-1611 A.D.). Based on his reports the British government established a factory in Surat in 1612 A.D.

Sir Thomas Roe was an English man who visited the court of Jahangir as an Ambassador from King James I. He remained at Agra for three years hoping to obtain some sort of permanant agreement with regard to trade which would place the English commerce in East Indian waters upon a sound basis. But he failed in his object. Sir Thomas Roe had left a very interesting account of his travels and experiences in India. He also left a wonderful account of king’s life and about the splendour and magnificence of the imperial court.

Question 20.
Describe the political condition of India during the Babar’s invasion.?
Answer:
The political condition was very pitiable. There was no centralized authority. The states were always fighting with each other.

  • The magnificence of Delhi Sultanate had declined. It was limited to Delhi and its nearby areas.
  • In Mewar, Rana Sanga had become quite powerful.
  • The Governor of Punjab, Daulat Khan Lodhi was thinking of taking revenge from Delhi Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi.
  • The rulers of Bengal and Bihar had also became powerful.
  • In South India, there were many states. Vijaynagar was the main kingdom. Bahmani Kingdom was also divided into many parts.

Question 21.
Write notes on each of the following :
1. Humayun
Answer:
Humayun: Humayun was the eldest son of Babar. He sat on the throne in 1530 A.D. He was defeated by Sher Shah Suri, in 1540 A.D. in the battles of Chausa and Kanauj. He spent almost 15 years in Persia. He succeeded in getting back his throne in 1555 A.D. but next year he died.

The following were the difficulties that he had to face at the time of accession :

  • Although Babar had conquered a vast territory in India and founded a Mughal dynasty but he did not live long enough to make it secure against his enemies. So Humayun faced with trouble from the beginning.
  • Being new to India the Mughals had difficulty in consolidating their position.
  • The Afghan nobles attacked the newly founded kingdom because they wanted them to leave India.
  • Bahadur Shah was the ruler of Gujarat and Sher Shah an ambitious Afghan king also threatened Delhi.

2. Jahangir
Answer:
Jahangir: Jahangir was the son of Akbar the Great. After the death of Akbar in 1605 A.D., he sat on the throne. He sent a military expedition against the son of Maharana Pratap-Rana Amar Singh. But afterwards, made peace with him on liberal terms and thus ended the long struggle between the Mughals and Mewar state.

The main events of his ruling period are as follows :

  1. He faced a rebellion from his son Khusro but he crushed this rebellion.
  2. Jahangir subjected Guru Arjan Devji to death penalty in a false case and after torture for five days, Guruji became martyr in 1606 A.D.
  3. Another important event was the marriage to Noor Jahan. He gave Nur Jahan the name of ‘Noor Mahal’ (Light of the Palace).
  4. In the court of Jahangir two diplomats from England, Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe came. They had come to India in order to obtain trading facilities.
  5. Jahangir’s reign was most peaceful because :
    (a) There were not too many campaigns in the reign of Jahangir.
    (b) The struggle between Akbar and Rana of Mewar too was brought to an end by Jahangir.
    (c) In order to create peace in the country Jahangir adopted the policy of matrimonial relations with Rajputs. .
    (d) The struggle of the Mughals with Ahmednagar state, which had become a cause of anxiety, also came to an end.

This brought peace in the whole kingdom. Contrary to it, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb had to face many revolts and wars. This was the main cause of disturbance during their reigns.

3. Shah Jahan.
Answer:
Shah Jahan: Shah Jahan was the son of Mughal emperor Jahangir. His real name was Khurram, He sat on the throne in 1628 A.D., after the death of Jahangir. He ruled for almost 29 years.

Some main events of his ruling period are as follows :

  • The Bundels from hilly areas declared a rebellion. Shah Jahan sent a big army to crush this rebellion and compelled Jhujhar Singh to sign a treaty with Mughals.
  • In 1628 A.D, Shah Jahan celebrated the occasion of Noroz and organised a big lunch on this occasion.
  • He was in deep love with his wife Mumtaz Mahal. When she died on 7th June, 1631, Shah Jahan went into deep depression.
  • Shah Jahan was very fond of building magnificent buildings. He is known as an Engineer King. His reign is called the golden age of Mughal architecture. He is reminded even today for his two things the Taj Mahal and the Peacock Throne. He had built the Taj Mahal in memory of his queen Mumtaz Mahal.

The Peacock Throne was a golden jewel-studded throne which he used. It was later looted by Shah of Iran and taken to his country. Other beautiful buildings built by Shah Jahan were Jama Masjid, Moti Masjid, Red Fort at Delhi and Red Fort at Agra. Shah Jahan built a new city Shah Jahanabad as his capital.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 22.
Give an account of the main features of Shah Jahan and Jahangir’s rule.
Answer:
1. Shah Jahan (1628-1657 A.D.): Shah Jahan was the son of Mughal emperor Jahangir. His real name was Khurram. He sat on the throne in 1628, after the death of Jahangir. He ruled for almost 29 years.

Some main events of his ruling period are as given ahead :

  • The Bundels from hilly areas declared a rebellion. Shah Jahan sent a big army to crush this rebellion and compelled Jhujhar Singh to sign a treaty with Mughals.
  • In 1628 A.D., Shah Jahan celebrated the occasion of Noroz and organised a big lunch on this occasion.
  • He was in deep love with his wife Mumtaz Mahal. When she died on 7th June, 1631, Shah Jahan went into deep depression.
  • Shah Jahan was very fond of building magnificent buildings. He is known as an Engineer King. His reign is called the golden age of Mughal architectures. He is reminded even today for his two things the Taj Mahal and the Peacock Throne. He had built the Taj Mahal in the memory of his queen Mumtaz Mahal.

The Peacock Throne was a golden jewel-studded throne which he used. It was later looted by Shah of Iran and taken to his country. Other beautiful buildings built by Shah Jahan were Jama Masjid, Moti Masjid, Red Fort at Delhi and Red Fort at Agra. Shah Jahan built a new city Shah Jahanabad as his capital.

2. Jahangir (1605-1627 A.D.). Jahangir was the son of Akbar the Great. After the death of Akbar in 1605 A.D., he sat on the throne. He sent a military expedition against the son of Maharana Pratap-Rana Amar Singh. But afterwards; made peace with him on liberal terms and thu3 ended the long struggle between the Mughals and Mewar state.

The main events of his rutirig period are as follows:

  • He faced a rebellion from his son Khusro but he crushed this rebellion.
  • Jahangir subjected Guru Arjan Devji to death penalty in a false case and after a torture for five days. Guruji became martyr in 1606 A.D.
  • Another important event was marriage to Noor Jahan. He gave Nur Jahan the name of ‘Noor Mahal’ (Light of the Palace.).
  • In the court of Jahangir two diplomats from England, Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe came. They had come to India in order to obtain trading facilities.
  • Jahangir’s reign was most peaceful because ;
    (a) There were not too many campaigns in the reign of Jahangir.
    (b) The struggle between Akbar and Rana of Mewar too was brought to an end by Jahangir.
    (c) In order to create peace in the country Jahangir adopted the policy of matrimonial relations with Rajputs.
    (d) The struggle of the Mughals with Ahmednagar state, which had become a cause of anxiety, also came to an end.

This brought peace in the whole kingdom. Contrary to it, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb had to face many revolts and wars. This was the main cause of disturbance during their reigns.

Question 23.
Illustrate how Akbarnama and Ain-i-Akbari are used to reconstruct history.
Answer:
These are two famous creations of ‘Abul Fazl’. These books tell us about the court of Akbar, his victories, his administration, his social, economic and religious policy, art and architecture.

Question 24.
What do you mean by Mansabdari System?
Answer:
The Mughal rulers appointed the members of different classes in the administration. These appointees were known as Mansabdars under the Mansabdari system, court used to fix the post, income and the position of a Mansabdar. Mansabdar belonged to the civil and military departments of the country.

There were many categories of Zat and Sawar Mansabdar.

  1. The first category: Mansabdars held equal Zat and Sawar i.e. 5000/5000.
  2. The second category: Their sawar mansab was more than the half of their zat mansab i. e. 5000/3000.
  3. The third category: They held their sawar mansab less than the half of their zat mansab i.e. 5000/2000.

Mansabdars were appointed by the Mughal emperors on their own or on the recommendation of the Mir Bakshi. There were 33 categories of the Mansabdars during the reign of Akbar. Its rank was from 10 to 10,000. These could be appointed in any department. They were given their salaries according to their ranks.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Posture and Its Deformities Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by body posture? How does our body stand on both legs?
Answer:
Posture may imply the proper care of the structure of the body. A good posture is one that has less pressure on different organs of the body and by which these organs may remain at ease and do the maximum work. In case the posture is not kept right, many deformities arise in the body. If we try to arrive at the precise definition of posture, the uppermost thought in our mind is that we have to keep our body in such a way that keeps balance among all the different organs of our body.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 1
Posture is indeed, deeply related to human body. The person who.does not pay attention to his posture suffers from many weakness and deformities small children should be asked to give proper attention to posture in childhood itself so that they may not become prey to the posture related deformities and weakness and may lead a healthy and comfortable life. A good & balanced posture is the relative correct position of various parts of our body.

A person with good and balanced posture looks natural & graceful in his positions of standing, sitting, walking, sleeping & reading. When weight of upper parts of body is uniformly distributed on lower parts of body, a line may be drawn from the head to foot, indicating-the weight line. This weight line starts from uppermost part of the head & goes down at the level of knees. It starts from the end of the skull & passing through vertebrae of back it passes through the hip, knee and ankle & goes downward. In this way, the weight of the parts of the body is uniformly disturbed from the top of the bottom.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 2.
What are the qualities of a good posture?
Answer:

  • We have to spend less energy by possessing balance posture.
  • Movements become very easy.
  • Balance posture influence others.
  • A person possessing good posture develop self-confidence.
  • Very active and clever in all daily work.
  • Good posture does not put pressure on bones or muscles.

Question 3.
What are the benefits of having a good posture?
Answer:
Good health is the first precondition of good body posture. A straight & balanced body is beautiful to look at. It gives a good impression to others and one feels good about oneself whereas people make fun of a man with asymmetrical body. So having a good symmetrical body.

A straight & balanced body puts less pressure on the muscles because the weight is balanced and equally divided between front & back muscles. If the posture is good internal organs work properly without any problem. It is easier for a man to achieve good posture without much effort, when he is young, say, till the age of twenty.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 4.
How are deformities formed in the body posture? Write down the main deformities of the body.
Answer:
1. Vocation:
A person sits, get up, walk according to the nature of work such as sitting work or standing work or some type of work, so his body parts change their nature of working eg. a person who has to work sitting in chair with the head down his body take the shape according to his sitting posture.

2. Nutritious food:
For the better physical structure and nourishment, a nutritious food is not taken, the body structure & development are badly affected. In the lack of calcium, bones become bending towards one side.

3. Bad habits:
Bad postures are also affected by mimic activities of bad posture persons are not balancing at the time of walking, getting up & running.

4. Proper Dress: Our body is stressed due to tight clothes, boots, pants, shirts so our dress should be proper.

5. Over weight: Body also feels abnormal due to over weight & wears bad posture.

6. Due to Injury: Walking is also effected by some injury & body bears bad posture.

Physical deformities:

  • Kyphosis
  • Lordosis
  • Scoliosis
  • Having both kyphosis & Lordosis
  • Knock knees
  • Flat foot
  • Depressed chest
  • Pigeon shaped chest
  • Flat chest
  • Bent neck.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 5.
Give the reasons of kyphosis. What are the exercises recommended to correct the deformity?
Answer:
It is a type of curvature, he neck leans forward & backward. In kyphosis the spinal cord bends in the shape of bow. The chest cannot remain erect. This condition in a boy develops due to continuous sitting for hours in one incorrect posture. If the fault is correct indue time the backbone comes to its right position. In case the back gets completely bent, it becomes difficult to bring it back to its right position. The improper posture creates kyphosis, as a result of which heart & legs donot function properly.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 2
Causes:

  • Reading in dim light, while bending forward.
  • Short eye sight.
  • Head of hearing.
  • Use of worthless furniture for sitting.
  • Wearing tight & shapless clothes.
  • Weakening of muscles by less or no exercise.
  • Quick development of body.
  • Sickness or accident.

Prevention:

  • Keeping the straight body while doing daily activities walking, sitting & standing.
  • The chin should be up. The chest forward & heat straight.
  • While resting on the back of the chair the head should be bent back with the eyes looking straight forward.
  • Deep breathing exercises should be alone.
  • Push ups, swimming & other chest exercises should be done.
  • Back shoulders should be supported by pillow.
  • Hanging from walls bars. The back should be towards the wall bars.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 6.
Give the reasons of lordosis. What exercises are recommended to correct the deformity?
Answer:
Causes:

  • The habit of walking with belly protruding in younger age.
  • Not taking balanced diet in chilhood.
  • Taking excessive food.
  • Women’s giving birth to many children.
  • Not doing exercise.
    PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 3

Preventions:

  • Standing fully erect, bending the trunk forward & then straightening.
  • Lying on the back and then raising. Head & legs turn by turn.
  • Lying on the back, rising & again lying.
  • Practising ‘hal-asana’.
  • Standing attentively & touching the feet with hands again & again.

Question 7.
Why flat foot are formed? Give the recomended exercises for flat foot. Write down the method of finding out whether the foot is flat or not.
Answer:
If we look carefully at the sole of the feet, we find that there is an arch which goes upward toward toe. When the muscles of the feet become weak & lose, there arches lose their curvaciousness & the feet become flat. A flat foot cannot bear the bodv weight well. It causes pain. Runing & walking becomes difficult.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 4
Reasons:
Lack of exercise, Obesity, standing for long hours wearing ill-fitting shoes, wrong and faulty body posture.
Test of flat foot-spread some soft & wet soil levelled on the ground. Then placing your foot on it & move forward. If the foot is normal, it will look like the foot in figure. The figure makes it clear that the inner portion of the sole of the normal foot does not touch the ground while the whole sole of the flat foot touches the ground because its aches have become straight.

Exercises:

  • Walking & running on the toes.
  • Walking & running slowly on heels.
  • Cycling forcefully with toes.
  • Climbing the stair bars.
  • Dancing.
  • Walking on heels & toes of foot.
  • Walking on the slope of the triagular wooden board.
    PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 5

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 8.
What deformities are formed in the chest bones? How can it be corrected?
Answer:
Depressed Chest: In this type of deformity the bones get pressed inward.

Flat Chest: In it the ribs instead of protruding carer gets flattened to the level of the chest bones.

Pigeon-Type Chest: In this type of deformity the chest bones get raised upward.

Causes:

  • Not doing exercises regularly.
  • Some dangerous diseases.
  • Bending excessively forward while sitting, standing or walking.
  • Deficiency of phosphorus, calcium & vitamin D.

Corrective Exercise:

  • Cutting the fodder with hand driven toka.
  • Practising breathing exercises.
  • Doing arm & trunk exercises.
  • Performing ‘dandas’ while hanging from a pole.
  • Performing ‘dandas’.

Question 9.
Give the reasons for the following deformities. Also write down the exercises recommended for them:
1. Bent neck
2. Knock knees
3. Flat chest.
Answer:
1. Bent neck:
When the muscles on one side of the neck become weak & loose & those of the other side shrink, the neck turns on one side.

Reasons:

  • Carrying the child only on one side.
  • Making the infant lie on one side for long hours.
  • Having weak eye-sight on one side.
  • Bad posture while-studying.

2. Knock knees:
Deficiency of calcium, phosphorus & vitamin D can cause bent bones in small children. The lack of above nutrients make the bones weak & they cannot bear the body weight because of which the bones turn inwards. A person with knock knees cannot stand at attention. His knees knock with each other when he tries to put his feet together in the attention.

3. Flat Chest:
In it the ribs instead of protruding nearer gets flattened to the level of the chest bones. Depressed chest-In this type of deformity, the bones get pressed inward.

4. Pigeon-type Chest:
In this type of deformity the chest bones get raised upward. These deformities occur in early childhood, destructing the respiratory process.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 10.
Give a list of Good habits which help in having a good Posture.
Answer:

  • Sufficient amounts of Calcium, Phosphorus & Vitamin D should be included in diet of children.
  • The children should be given sun bath and massage at least twice a week.
  • Eyesight should be got tested at regular intervals.
  • It is not good to stand for a long time putting weight only on feet.
  • Good quality furniture with proper shape and sufficient light should be provided for school-going children.
  • Breathing exercises should be done daily.
  • Narrow-fitting clothes and shoes should not be worn.
  • Exercises should be done regularly.
  • Specific exercise for the particular problem of the posture should be done as per requirement.

Question 11.
Explain about Lordosis.
Answer:
Lordosis is a different type of curvature from kyphosis. In this type of defc nity the spine is bent not from the upper side, but it leans forward from the stomach. Lordosis can be checked at an early stage. It is not possible to rectify it at a later stage.

Exercises Related to Lordosis:
1. Bend knees forward while allowing hips to bend back behind, keeping back straight and knees pointed in same direction as feet. Descend until thighs are just parallel to floor. Extend knees and hips until legs are straight. Come back in starting position and then repeat the same.

2. Lie down in prone position, with hands under abdomen. Then keep hips and shoulders down, press hands up on abdomen and raise lower back.

3. Sit on a chair with feet wide apart. Bend and position your shoulders between knees. Then reach to the floor under back of chair, and hold this position for some duration.

4. Lunge forward with knee on a mat. Take position of the foot beyond knee. Place both hands on knee. Straighten hips of rear leg by pushing hips forward and hold stretch. Repeat with opposite side.

5. Sit down with knees extended, feet together and hands at sides. After that bend forward, touching the fingers to toes. Hold this position for some time. Then come back and repeat.

6. Lie in prone position on the floor. Keep the palms of your hands on the floor according to shoulders’ width. Push torso up keeping pelvis on floor. Hold this position for some time.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Posture and Its Deformities Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What are the benefits of good posture?
(A) Good looking body
(B) Running, activeness
(C) Healthy body
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(A) Good looking body

Question 2.
Deformities of the body:
(A) Kyphosis
(B) Lordosis
(C) Scoliosis
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 3.
Causes of Kyphosis:
(A) Weak eye sight
(B) Hard hearing
(C) Sickness or accident
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
Method of corrective of Kyphosis.
(A) Keeping the straight body
(B) The Chin should be up
(C) Deep breathing exercises should be done
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 5.
Reasons of Lordosis:
(A) No taking balance diet in Childhood
(B) Taking excessive food
(C) No doing exercises
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 6.
Pretention of Lordosis Corrective.
(A) Standing fully or erect, bending the trunk forward
(B) Lying on the back and then moving head and legs turn by turn
(C) Lying on the back rising and again lying
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 7.
Exercises to removed the flatrfoot.
(A) Walking and running on the toes
(B) Walking and running on heels
(C) Climbing the stairs bar
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
After how long a person derived the posture of standing on both legs?
Answer:
After lakhs of years.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 2.
What is attached to the after and before of bones?
Answer:
Muscles.

Question 3.
If the Muscles don’t have co-ordination and balance then what happens?
Answer:
Body bends forward.

Question 4.
How the straight body looks?
Answer:
Beautiful.

Question 5.
At what age body posture becomes good and bad?
Answer:
20 years.

Question 6.
What steps should be taken to keep the body fit?
Answer:
Exercise.

Question 7.
Which type of foot cannot bear the weight of the body?
Answer:
Flat foot.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define body posture.
Answer:
If the body frame is straight and in good shape and if the lower part of the body balances the upper part well, it can be called a good body posture.

Question 2.
what deformities are formed in chest?
Answer:

  • Depressed chest
  • Pigeon chest
  • Flat chest

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Nutrition in Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The process of obtaining and utilization of food by an organism is called ……………..
Answer:
nutrition

(ii) ………………. from the air is taken in through the tiny pores called stomata present on the surface of leaves.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

(iii) ……………… is the initial product of photosynthesis.
Answer:
glucose (Carbohydrate)

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

(iv) The plants which depend on the food produced by other plants are called ………………..
Answer:
heterotrophs

2. State True or False:

(i) Carbohydrates is not an essential component of food.
Answer:
False

(ii) All green plants are autotrophs.
Answer:
True

(iii) Euglena is an organism that has both plant and animal like characters.
Answer:
True

(iv) Sunlight is not necessary for photosynthesis.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Agaricus (a) Parasite
2. Rhizobium (b) Feaves
3. Chlorophyll (c) Feguminous plants
4. Cuscuta (d) Saprophyte

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Agaricus (d) Saprophyte
2. Rhizobium (c) Leguminous plants
3. Chlorophyll (b) Leaves
4. Cuscuta (a) Parasite

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
An Organism that fixes atmospheric nitrogen in the soil is :
(a) Amarbel
(b) Mushroom
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Chlorophyll
Answer:
(c) Rhizobium.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question (ii)
The Organisms that cannot prepare their own food and depends on others for food are known as :
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Fleterotrophs
(c) Nutrients
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(b) Heterotrophs.

Question (iii)
Food factory of the plants is :
(a) Leaf
(b) Stem
(c) Root
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Leaf.

Question (iv)
Which of the following is a saprophyte ?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Agaricus
(c) Cuscuta
(d) Protein
Answer:
(c) Cuscuta.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define Nutrition.
Answer:
Nutrition. The act of obtaining and using food by the organism is called nutrition. Not all living things have the same food.

Question (ii)
What is photosynthesis ?
Answer:
Photosynthesis. It is a process in which food (carbohydrates) is produced by the plants. During this process, carbon dioxide and water are synthesized into glucose (simple carbohydrates) in the presence of sunlight by plant’s green matter (chlorophyll pigment).
Through this action green plants convert light energy into chemical energy.
Chemical Equation :
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 1

Question (iii)
Name the raw materials required for photosynthesis.
Answer:
Ingredients for photosynthesis :

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Water
  3. Solar Energy

Question (iv)
What are insectivorous plants ?
Answer:
Insectivorous plants. Plants that have a system for catching and digesting organisms are called insectivorous plants, such as pitcher plant. The leaves of these plants are transformed into pot compositions to catch insects.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What do you mean by parasitic mode of nutrition ?
Answer:
Parasitic Nutrition. Nutrition in which the parasitic organism harms another organism and derives its food from it is called parasitic nutrition.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question (ii)
Explain symbiotic relationship.
Answer:
Symbiotic relationship. Two different organisms co-exist with each other and depend on each other for their nourishment, then it is called symbiotic relationship. In this kind of relationship both the beings get benefit from each other. Like the fungus found on the roots of many plants. The fungus gets nourishment from the roots of the plant and in turn absorbs water and minerals from the soil. Fungus and moss are a good example of symbiotic relationship. Here the fungi absorb water from the earth and in turn the algae provide food through photosynthesis.

Question (iii)
How does the pitcher plant catch insects ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 2
The pitcher plant transforms its leaves into pot-like structures to catch insects. This pot-like creation has curly hair on the face. When an insect sits on it, it slips down and cannpt climb up again and falls to the bottom of the pot. The enzymes present at the bottom digest the insect.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How are nutrients replenished in the soil ?
Answer:
Regain of nutrients by soil. Plants continue to absorb water, minerals and other nutrients from the soil which leads to lack of nutrients in the soil. Time to time nutrition should be provided to the soil so that the fertility of the soil is maintained. Farmers usually recreate these nutrient deficiencies by mixing manure in the soil and Fertilizers (which contain one or more preservatives) to fulfil nutrients.
In forest the forest waste, leaves and animal waste is decomposed by decomposers into nutrients to improve fertility of the soil.

Question (ii)
What do you mean by nutrients ? Explain various modes of nutrition in plants.
Answer:
Nutrients. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins and minerals are the main components of food. They help in the formation and function of the body and are called nutrients.

The main methods of nutrition in plants are :
(a) Autotrophic Nutrition. Those who prepare their own food from simple foods are called Autotrophs. This process of preparing food by such plants is called Autotrophic nutrition. All green plants are Autotrophic. In this method, chlorophyll, a green pigment present in plants, takes carbon dioxide and water from the air and makes food in the form of carbohydrates in the presence of solar energy. This action is called photosynthesis. Example-all green plants.

(b) Heterotrophic Nutrition. Some plants do not have green pigment (chlorophyll) and cannot make their own food, so they rely on food prepared by other plants for food. Such plants are called Heterotrophic plants and this method of obtaining food is called Heterotrophic nutrition. Example. Amar Bel.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Nutrition in Plants Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Green plants are called …………….. since they synthesise their own food.
Answer:
Autotrophs

(ii) The food synthesised by the plants is stored as ………………..
Answer:
Starch

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

(iii) In photosynthesis solar energy is captured by the pigment called …………….. .
Answer:
Chlorophyll

(iv) During photosynthesis plants take ……………… and produce …………….. .
Answer:
Carbondioxide, Oxygen

2. State True or False:

(i) Carbondioxide is released during photosynthesis.
Answer:
False

(ii) Plants which synthesise their food themselves are called saprotrophs.
Answer:
False

(iii) The product of photosynthesis is not a protein.
Answer:
False

(iv) During photosynthesis solar energy is converted into chemical energy.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column I with Column II :

Column I Column II
(i) Chlorophyll (a) Bacteria
(ii) Nitrogen (b) Pitcher plant
(iii) Amarbel (c) Leaf
(iv) Animals (d) Parasite
(v) Insects (e) Heterotrophs

Answer:

Column I Column II
(i) Chlorophyll (c) Leaf
(ii) Nitrogen (a) Bacteria
(iii) Amarbel (d) Parasite
(iv) Animals (e) Heterotrophs
(v) Insects (b) Pitcher plant

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
The organisms which depend upon other organisms for food are called ……………..
(a) Symbionts
(b) Parasites
(c) Autotrophs
(d) Saprophytes.
Answer:
(b) Parasites.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question 2.
Which part of the plant usually contains stomata ?
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) Flower.
Answer:
(c) Leaves.

Question 3.
Which gas is released during photosynthesis ?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen.
Answer:
(a) Oxygen.

Question 4.
What is the unit of living beings
(a) Organ
(b) Organ system
(c) Cell
(d) Tissue.
Answer:
(c) Cell.

Question 5.
What is the ultimate source of energy in the living beings ?
(a) Moon
(b) Sun
(c) Stars
(d) Planet.
Answer:
(b) Sun.

Question 6.
Name one eatable fungus.
(a) Alga
(b) Bacteria
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Mushroom.
Answer:
(d) Mushroom.

Question 7.
Plants breathe through:
(a) Epidermis
(b) Buds
(c) Stomata
(d) Root hairs.
Answer:
(c) Stomata.

Question 8.
What are green coloured thread like structures over the pond water called ?
(a) Fungi
(b) Algae
(c) Amoeba
(d) Paramecium.
Answer:
(b) Algae.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the nutrients.
Answer:
Nutrients. Carbohydrates, vitamins, fats, proteins, minerals, roughage.

Question 2.
How do plants synthesise food ?
Answer:
Green plants synthesise their food material using carbondioxide, water and solar energy.

Question 3.
Name the various type of nutrition.
Answer:
Types of Nutrients. Autotrophic, Heterotrophic, Saprotrophic and Parasitic.

Question 4.
What are openings / pores in a leaf known as ?
Answer:
Stomata.

Question 5.
What is function of chlorophyll in a leaf ?
Answer:
Chlorophyll capture the energy of sunlight.

Question 6.
Which is ultimate source of energy for all living organisms ?
Answer:
Sun.

Question 7.
What are products of photosynthesis ?
Answer:
Carbohydrates and oxygen.

Question 8.
Name the various parts of plants which take part in photosynthesis.
Answer:
Green stems and green leaves.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question 9.
Besides green leaves, which other coloured leaves are found in plants ?
Answer:
Deep red, violet or brown.

Question 10.
What is algae ?
Answer:
Algae It is a slimy, green patch found in pond or in stagnant water.

Question 11.
Do algae photosynthesis ? Why ?
Answer:
Yes, algae do photosynthesis as they contain chlorophyll.

Question 12.
From which elements are carbohydrates made up of ?
Answer:
Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

Question 13.
Name some four human parasites.
Answer:

  1. Mosquitoes
  2. lice
  3. bed bug
  4. leech.

Question 14.
Write one eatable fungus.
Answer:
Mushrooms.

Question 15.
Where does mould grow ?
Answer:
Moist and rainy areas.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the definite word for the following:
(i) Weak stem parasitic plant.
(ii) A plant in which both Autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition are found,
(iii) The holes through which gases are exchanged in the leaves.
Answer:
(i) Amar bel (Cuscuta)
(ii) Pitcher plant
(iii) Stomata

Question 2.
Differentiate autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition.
Answer:
Differences between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition.

Autotrophic nutrition Heterotrophic nutrition
(1) Organisms prepare their own food by obtaining energy from sun. (1) Organisms obtain ready-made food from other plants or animals.
(2) It occurs in green plants and blue green algae. (2) It occurs in parasitic plants, fungi, most of bacteria and animals.

Question 3.
Why do coloured leaves photosynthesise when they are not green in colour ?
Answer:
Coloured leaves (red, brown etc.) do contain chlorophyll but large amount of red, brown pigment mask the green colour. So, they can photosynthesise.

Question 4.
How do fungus grow on the things ?
Answer:
Spores of fungi are present in air. When they land on wet and warm things, they germinate.

Question 5.
How do lichens show symbiotic relationship ?
Answer:
Lichens, a chlorophyll partner algae and non-green fungus live together. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to algae while algae provides food which is synthesised by it. So they both show symbiotic relationship.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question 6.
Explain the parasitic relationship between Rhizobium and plants.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 3
Rhizobium is a bacterium that lives in nodules on the roots of legumes. It converts the nitrogen in the air into a usable form which is used by the plant and in return provides shelter and food to bacteria.

Question 7.
What do you understand by a parasites, saprophytes and symbiosis ? Give one example for each.
Answer:

  • Parasites. Those plants or animals which obtain their food from a host and also get shelter from it, are known as parasites, e.g. Cuscuta and Viscum etc.
  • Symbiosis. It is a type of relationship which is mutually beneficial for both the parents (host and parasite), e.g. Lichens are combination of algae and fungi. The fungus holds the algal cells in its mat of web-like hyphae and in return supplies water and dissolved minerals.
  • Saprophytes. Those organisms which grow on dead and decaying organic matter and obtain their food from decomposed bodies are known as saprophytes, e.g. Bacteria, mushrooms etc.

Question 8.
Distinguish between a parasite and a saprotroph.
Answer:
Differences between a parasite and saprotroph.

Parasite Saprotroph
(1) These organisms depend upon other living organisms for its food.
Example : Cuscuta, tape- worms, roundworms.		 (1) These organisms obtain their food from dead organic matter.
Example : Fungi, bacteria.
(2) They produce special type of organs like suckers, hooks to obtain their food. (2) They secrete some enzymes to decompose complex molecules into simple form.

Question 9.
What are the conditions required for Autotrophic nutrition and its basic and by-products ?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is essential for Autotrophic nutrition which requires the following conditions : (1) sunlight (2) chlorophyll (green pigment), (3) carbon dioxide and (4) water.

The by-products of this process are: The basic products of photosynthesis are oxygen gas and glucose. Afterwards glucose is stored in the form of starch.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Symbiosis is beneficial for both the partners, justify.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 4
Symbiosis. The type of association in which both the partner’s benefit is called symbiosis.
In plants like lichens, there is an association between green algae and non-green fungus. The fungus forms a mat of web-like hyphae to hold the algal cells. The fungal hyphae supply water and minerals to the algae. The algae can synthesize food for themselves as well as for the fungus.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Winds, Storms and Cyclones Intext Questions and Answers

Think and answer (Textbook Page No. 85)

Question 1.
The can gets crushed because of the atmospheric pressure. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Air exerts pressure. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
Both balloons should be of equal size. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The fast moving wind creates …………………. pressure.
Answer:
More.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 87)

Question 1.
The air ……………. on heating.
Answer:
expands.

Question 2.
On cooling the boiling tube, the balloon expands. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 88)

Question 1.
Hot air is ……………………… than cold air.
Answer:
lighter.

Question 2.
The paper cup over the burning candle comes down as it becomes heavier. (True / False)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Winds, Storms and Cyclones Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Air exerts …………………..
Answer:
Pressure

(ii) Moving air is called …………………
Answer:
Wind

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(iii) Near earth the …………………. air rises up and ………………………. air comes down.
Answer:
hot, cold

(iv) Winds are generated due to ………………………….. heating of earth.
Answer:
uneven

(v) The centre of a cyclone is called its ………………. .
Answer:
Eye

2. State True or False:

(i) A bicycle tube expands when we fill air in it.
Answer:
True

(ii) Air moves from a region of low pressure to high pressure.
Answer:
False

(iii) The speed of wind can be measured by an instrument called Anemometer.
Answer:
True

(iv) Thunder is a loud sound produced by lightning.
Answer:
True

(v) We should ignore the cyclone warnings.
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following is not an example of air exerting pressure ?
(a) Flying a kite
(b) Filling air in bicycle tube
(c) Filling air in balloon
(d) Hot air balloon.
Answer:
(d) Hot air balloon.

Question (ii)
Moving air is called ………………… .
(a) Wind
(b) Cyclones
(c) Lightning
(d) Storm.
Answer:
(a) Wind.

Question (iii)
Which is the property of air ?
(a) Expands on cooling
(b) Contracts of heating
(c) Expands on heating
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Expands on heating

Question (iv)
Winds are produced due to ……………………. .
(a) Heating of air
(b) Cooling of land
(c) Heating of water
(d) Uneven heating of land and water.
Answer:
(d) Uneven heating of land and water.

Question (v)
High speed winds can cause …………………… .
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclones
(c) Tornado
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Cyclones

4. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 1
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 2

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Which property of air is described by the inflated balloon ?
Answer:
Moving air exerts pressure.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (ii)
Which is lighter, cold air or hot air ?
Answer:
Hot air is lighter than cold air.

Question (iii)
Which region of earth gets maximum heat from the sun ?
Answer:
Equator and its adjoining areas are exposed to direct sunlight for a long time, resulting in higher temperatures in the vicinity of the equator.

Question (iv)
Which winds bring rain in India ?
Answer:
Rainfall in India is caused by monsoon winds. These winds filled with water vapour come from the sea.

Question (v)
Name the instrument used for measuring the speed of wind.
Answer:
Wind / air speed can be measured with an Anemometer.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why are the holes made in hanging banners and hoardings ?
Answer:
Holes are made on hanging banners and advertisements so that they cannot be blown away due to blowing winds or wind pressure. The air will pass through the holes and there will be no pressure on the banner.

Question (ii)
In which situation does the uneven heating of the earth produces winds ?
Answer:
The sun does not heat different parts of the earth uniformly. So there is a difference in temperature and pressure. The wind that moves from a high pressure area to a low pressure area is called a wind. The higher the pressure, the higher is the wind speed.

Question (iii)
Which winds blow from ocean to land in summer ? What is their significance ?
Answer:
In summer season, the air near the surface of the earth becomes warmer and lighter and rises upwards. The air above the sea is colder and heavier than the air on the earth. So the wind moves from the ocean to the land. This cool breeze from the ocean is called Sea breeze. Due to this breeze, the weather is very pleasant for the people living near the coastal areas.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (iv)
What is the difference between a thunderstorm and a cyclone ?
Answer:
Thunder Storm.
Lightning strikes thunderstorms and heat up the air to a higher temperature, causing the air to expand faster and produce a louder sound. This loud sound is called thunder. The wind that blows with rain is called a storm. Sometimes a storm is accompanied by a thunder, which is then called a thunderstorm.

Cyclone.
When water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change it into vapours for the formation of cloud. These water vapours cool and condense to form raindrops and release the absorbed heat. This heat causes the surrounding air to heat up and form a low pressure area. A strong wind blows towards this low pressure center. This action is repeated several times to form a low pressure area and dense clouds from the center of a strong wind.

Many layers of high winds begin to revolve around the low pressure center. This condition is called a cyclone. Center of the storm is a quiet area called the Eye of cyclone. The area of the eye is free from clouds. Outside the Eye is a circle of clouds and thunderstorms. The wind blows here at a speed of 150 to 250 kilometre per hour.

Question (v)
State effective measures to be taken in areas vulnerable to cyclones ?
Answer:
Effective safety measures to be adopted in areas prone to post-cyclone :
1. Measures to be taken by the government :

  • Tall and dense trees of native species should be planted on the coastal areas to reduce wind/wind speed.
  • Ponds should be constructed in coastal areas to absorb excess water.
  • Cyclone shelters should be constructed in cyclone sensitive areas.
  • To issue early warning to the people of the affected area by adopting advance information technology.

2. Measures that can be adopted by the people :

  • Do not ignore cyclone warnings.
  • Areas that have frequent cyclones should be evacuated.
  • Make appropriate arrangements to move their livestock, valuables and household members to safer places.

Question (vi)
What is a Tornado ? Give two safety measures.
Answer:
Tornado. It is strong rotating winds in Funnel shaped cloud. Its diameter varies from 1 m to 1 km. On account of very low pressure at the centre of the funnel it pulls the dust, debris and even people and vehicles towards the centre.
Safety measures from Tornado:

  • Take shelter inside a room, having no window. If a room without window is unavailable then closed all doors and windows.
  • If a person is in the vehicle or driving, he should get out of it and sit in low laying area.
  • Whenever you face tornado you can protect yourself by sitting on your knees and
    putting down your head by wrapping arms around your neck.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain why does a tin can get crushed when water is boiled in it and after closing it cold water is poured on it ?
Answer:
When water is boiled in an iron container, all the air in the container heats up and becomes lighter and rises upwards. In this way all the air in the box goes out. On further heating, the boiling water turns into steam and the can is filled with water. Covering the vessel with a lid ensures that the vapours are trapped inside the container. This reduces the air pressure inside the box compared to the outside air. In this way on pouring cold water the outside air pressure causes the box to shrink inwards.

Question (ii)
Explain with an activity that air expands on heating.
Answer:
Air expands by heating. This fact can be proved by the following activity:
Activity.
Take a thick glass test tube. Tightly tie a balloon over its mouth with tape. Take hot water in a beaker. Place the test tube in the water such that balloon stays out of the water. Watch the balloon for 3-4 minutes to look for any change in the size of balloon. Now take out the test tube from water and let it cool down to normal temperature. In another beaker take a small amount of ice cold water and place the test tube carrying balloon in the beaker. Wait for 3-4 minutes. Observe the change in size.

You will notice that the balloon placed in hot water swells (increases in size) after some time and the balloon when on the other placed in cold water shrinks (decreases in size).

Conclusion.
When the test tube is placed in hot water, the air in the balloon heats up and expands causing the balloon to inflate. This indicates that the air expands on healing. When the test tube is placed in ice, the air present in balloon contracts. It shows cooling causes air to contraction.

Question (iii)
How is a cyclone formed ? Describe how a cyclone caused widespread destruction in Odisha in 1999.
Answer:
Formation of Cyclone.
When water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change it into vapours for the formation of cloud. These water vapours cool and condense to form raindrops and release the absorbed heat. This heat causes the surrounding air to heat up and form a low pressure area. A strong wind blows towards this low pressure center. This action is repeated several times to form a low pressure area and dense clouds from the center of a strong wind.

Many layers of high winds begin to revolve around the low pressure center. This condition is called a cyclone. Center of the storm is a quiet area called the Eye of cyclone. The area of the eye is free from clouds. Outside the Eye is a circle of clouds and thunderstorms. The wind blows here at a speed of 150 to 250 kilometre per hour.

Destruction caused by cyclone in Odisha. A very strong cyclone strike to Indian state Odisha on 18 October, 1999. The speed of this cyclone was 200 km/h and it destroyed 45000 houses leaving 70,000 people homeless. Again on 29th October 1999 a cyclone hits Odhisa with a speed of 260 km/h accompanied by 9 meter high wave. Many people lost their lives and property worth of crores was destroyed.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Winds, Storms and Cyclones Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Wind is air.
Answer:
moving

(ii) Winds are generated due to heating on the earth.
Answer:
uneven

(iii) Near the earth’s surface air rises up whereas air comes down.
Answer:
warm, cooler

(iv) Air moves from a region of pressure to a region of pressure.
Answer:
high, low

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) Hot air (a) Low pressure area of the cyclone
(ii) Changes in atmospheric pressure cause (b) Sunlight
(iii) The eye of the cyclone (c) Blows away the roof
(iv) High speed air over the roof (d) Winds, storms and cyclones.

Answer:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) Hot air (b) Sunlight
(ii) Changes in atmospheric pressure cause (d) Winds, storms and cyclones
(iii) The eye of the cyclone (a) Low pressure area of the cyclone
(iv) High speed air over the roof (c) Blows away the roof

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following place is likely to be affected by a cyclone?
(a) Amritsar
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Jaipur
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question (ii)
An instrument used to measure wind speed is called ………………. .
(a) Anemometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Thermometer
(d) Lactometer.
Answer:
(a) Anemometer.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (iii)
How many hours in advance cyclone chart is issued of expected storm by satellites and radars ?
(a) 72
(b) 48
(c) 96
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 48

Question (iv)
Which winds carry water and bring rain ?
(a) Unequal
(b) Equal
(c) Monsoon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Monsoon.

Question (v)
A dark funnel shaped cloud that reaches from sky to the ground is called ……………….
(a) Wind
(b) Tornado
(c) Cyclone
(d Monsoon.
Answer:
(b) Tornado.

Question (vi)
Hurricane in America, Typhoon in Japan are nothing but ………………. only.
(a) Cyclones
(b) Tornado
(c) Monsoon wind
(d) Thunder storms.
Answer:
(a) Cyclones.

Question (vii)
In which year did Orissa was hit by a cyclone ?
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2004.
Answer:
(a) 1999.

State True or False:

(i) Wind always blows from low pressure area to high pressure area.
Answer:
False

(ii) Wind speed is measured with an anemometer.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(iii) Heavy rains accompanied by strong winds are called cyclones.
Answer:
False

(iv) A hurricane is a storm with strong winds blowing through a funnel-shaped cloud.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What disaster fell on 18 October, 1999 in India ?
Answer:
A cyclone hits Orissa.

Question 2.
When did second cyclone hit Orissa ?
Answer:
29 October, 1999.

Question 3.
What was the number of homeless people hit by cyclone ?
Answer:
About 700000 people.

Question 4.
What is wind ?
Answer:
Air in motion.

Question 5.
Give the characteristic of air.
Answer:
Air exerts pressure.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question 6.
Why do we fill air into bicycle tubes ?
Answer:
To keep the tube tight so that it can run smoothly on a surface.

Question 7.
What happens to air pressure when speed of wind is increased ?
Answer:
Air pressure reduces.

Question 8.
Why does hot air move upwards ?
Answer:
Because it is lighter than cold air.

Question 9.
What are monsoon winds ?
Answer:
Monsoon winds are those winds which come from the oceans and seas and carry water with them and bring rain.

Question 10.
Name few natural disasters caused by wind.
Answer:
Cyclones, thunder storms, tornadoes etc.

Question 11.
In winter what is direction of winds ?
Answer:
From land to oceans.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a cyclone ? On which factors it depends ?
Answer:
Cyclone. A low pressure system with very- high speed winds revolving around it is called cyclone.
Wind speed, wind direction, humidity and temperature are some factors which contribute to the development of a cyclone.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question 2.
Give a brief account of formation of thunderstorms.
Answer:
In hot, humid climate, the rising temperature produces strong winds. These rise upwards and carry lot of water droplets. These water droplets freeze at height and fall downwards. The swift falling water droplets along with rising air produce lightning and sound. This phenomenon is called thunderstorm.

Question 3.
How are clouds important to farmers ?
Answer:
Importance of clouds to farmers.

  1. Clouds are important for harvest. If harvest is good, farmers are happy.
  2. Clouds bring rains.
  3. They make the weather pleasant.

Question 4.
How will you help your neighbours in case cyclone approaches your village/town ?
Answer:
Helping neighbours during cyclones:

  1. Moving them to cyclone shelters.
  2. Shifting their household property to safer places.
  3. Providing them medical aid.

Question 5.
What planning is required to deal with situation created by a cyclone ?
Answer:
Plans to deal with situation created by cyclone.

  • Shift essential household good, domestic animals to safer places.
  • Keep handy phone numbers of all emergency services like Police, fire brigade and medicle centres.
  • Avoid driving on roads with standing water.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How will you show air expands on heating ?
Answer:
Experiment to show air expands on heating. Take a boiling tube and fix a balloon tightly over the neck of the tube. Insert the boiling tube carrying balloon into a beaker containing hot water.
Watch the balloon for 2-3 minutes you will notice that the balloon has start inflating. This experiment shows that air expands on heating.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 3

Question 2.
What precautions should be taken when a thunderstorm is accompanied by lightning?
Answer:
Precautions to be taken during lightning in thunderstorms accompanied by lightning:

  1. Never take shelter under an isolated tree.
  2. Do not lie on the ground.
  3. Do not use an umbrella having a metallic rod.
  4. Window, open garages, storage sheds, metal sheds are not safe places.
  5. Never stay in the water.
  6. Inside a car or bus is a safe place to take shelter.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Delhi Sultanate Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer these questions :

Question 1.
What role was played by the historical buildings in constructing the history of the Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:
Historical Monuments. The historical structures during the period of the Delhi Sultanate e.g. Quwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Alahi Darwaja, Tughlakabad, Hauz Khas, Lodhi Tomb, Firozshah Kotla, etc. These buildings and monuments give us knowledge and information about the artistic hobbies of Delhi Sultans.

Question 2.
How did Balban consolidate the Sultanate?
Answer:Balban became the Sultan of Delhi in 1266 A.D. He was the greatest of the slave kings of Delhi. He was a strong and iron willed ruler who believed that the power of the Sultan was absolute. He commanded absolute obedience from his amirs who had to bow in sajdah in his presence.

Problems faced by Balban. Balban had to face the following problems in order to consolidate the Sultanate :

  • He had to defend his Sultanate from the Mongol invasions on his northern frontiers.
  • He had to fight against the local rulers like the Rajputs who troubled him both within the Sultanate and on its borders.
  • His major problem was to deal with the powerful Turkish nobles who threatened his position as Sultan.
  • He crushed the rebellion of Mawatis near Delhi and the pirates of Doaba region.
  • He crushed the rebellion of Tugril Khan of Bengal.
  • His strong policy towards Mongols is known as “Blood and Iron policy”. In 1286 A.D. Balban died.

Question 3.
Why did Muhainmad-bin-Tughlaq shift the capital from Delhi to Devagiri?
Answer:
Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq had a large empire to rule. He wanted to build his captial at a place which was in the centre of his ruled area. So, in 1327, A.D., he decided to change his capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad).

There were two reasons for it :

  1. He believed that by doing so he could defend himself against the invasions of the Mongols.
  2. He thought that the administrative system will be better administer from Devagiri as compared to Delhi.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 4.
Describe the results of schemes of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
Answer:
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (1325-1351 A.D.) had high political ambitions. He made many political plans but all these plans were unsuccessful. The description about these plans and their results are as follows :
1. Taxation in Doab. He wanted to extend his empire. For this purpose, he needed money. So he increased the revenue of the land in Doab. But unluckily, the rains failed and the peasants found it hard to pay the increased revenue.

2. Transfer of the Capital. The Sultan transferred his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad because he wanted to have a better control over his Deccan territories. But it was not possible to control north Indian territories from Daulatabad.

3. Token Currency. He issued token coins of brass and copper which had made the same legal value as the coins of gold and silver. The people started minting copper and brass coins at their home which they would exchange with gold and silver from the royal treasury.

4. Plan to win Khurasan. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq wanted to be a great administrator. So, he decided to win Khurasan (Iran). So, he collected a big army. The soldiers were given the salary for one full year. Lot of money was spent on their training and weapons but after one year, he shed the idea of invading Khurasan and the army was disbanded. The unemployed soldiers; became rebels. The Sultan lost his confidence among the public. Many states declared freedom and Sultan lost control over his empire. In 1351 A.D. he died.

Causes of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq’s failure.

  • As given above, all his projects were visionary and beyond the people’s comprehension.
  • He lacked patience and people suffered because of his hasty actions.
  • He emptied his treasury as a result of his extravagant schemes and boundless generosity.
  • His empire was too vast to be controlled by one man.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The Qutub-ud-din Aibak was the founder of the _______ Dynasty.
Answer:
Slave

Question 2.
Razia Sultana was a daughter of _______
Answer:
Iltutmish

Question 3.
Iltutmish became the ruler in _______
Answer:
1211 A.D

Question 4.
Iltutmish nominated _______ as his successor.
Answer:
Razia Sultana

Question 5.
Malik Kafur was the General of _______ Khalji.
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 6.
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq decided to shift his capital from _______ to Devagiri.
Answer:
Delhi

Question 7.
Timur invaded India during the reign of the rulers of the _______ Dynasty.
Answer:
Tughlaq.

III. Write True or False for each statement :

Question 1.
Iltutmish was a slave of Qutab-ud-din Aibak.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Balban was the first ruler of the slave dynasty.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Ala-ud-din Khalji introduced the market control policy.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The Lodhis were overthrown by the Sayyids.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 5.
Sikandar Lodhi and Babar clashed at the first battle of Panipat.
Answer:
False

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
On an outline map of India, mark the important extent of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of Indian Map.

Question 2.
Collect pictures of monuments of the Sultanate period and paste them in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Delhi Sultanate Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When slave dynasty ruled Delhi?
(a) 1206-1290
(b) 1210-1320
(c) 1220-1315
(d) 1224-1296.
Answer:
(a) 1206-1290.

Question 2.
When Raziyya Sultan became queen of Delhi?
(a) 1246
(b) 1256
(c) 1236
(d) 1226.
Answer:
(c) 1236.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 3.
Which of these was not the Sultan of Delhi?
(a) Balban
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Akbar
(d) Muhammad Tughlaq.
Answer:
(c) Akbar.

Question 4.
Which of these Sultans implemented to keep control on prices?
(a) Muhammad Tughlaq
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Balban
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Allauddin Khalji.

Question 5.
Which of these dynasties was the last dynasty of Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Lodi dynasty
(b) Tughlaq dynasty
(c) Khalji dynasty
(d) Mughal dynasty.
Answer:
(a) Lodi dynasty.

Question 6.
Who defeated Mughal emperor Humayun?
(a) Balban
(b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Akbar
(d) Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:
(d) Sher Shah Suri.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 7.
In which century Delhi became an important city?
(a) 12th century
(b) 15th century
(c) 16th century
(d) 17th century.
Answer:
(a) 12th century.

Question 8.
Which of the Delhi ruler is also known for its economic and military reforms?
(a) Balban
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Babar
(d) Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
(b) Allauddin Khalji.

Question 9.
Chief Minister and adviser to Sultan was known as
(a) Patwari
(b) Ulama
(c) Wazir
(d) Iqtadar.
Answer:
(c) Wazir.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the time span of Sultanate period in India.
Answer:
It was from 1206 A.D. to 1526 A.D.

Question 2.
Which Kingdoms ruled over Delhi during the Sultanate period?
Answer:
They were Slave dynasty, the Khalji dynasty, Tughlaq dynasty, Sayyids and Lodhis.

Question 3.
Name some great Sultans of Sultanate period.
Answer:
Iltutmish, Balban, Alauddin Khalji, Mohammad Tughlaq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 4.
How and when did Qutubudin Aibak die?
Answer:
In 1210 A.D., he died by falling from a horse.

Question 5.
Who was Aram Shah?
Answer:
He was a son of Qutub-ud-din Aibak who became the Sultan afterward. He was an incapable ruler, so he was made a prisoner by Iltutmish and later on killed.

Question 6.
What was Chalisa?
Answer:
Iltutmish appointed 40 Amirs to run administrative system. They were called Chalisa.

Question 7.
Wlho was Razia Sultana?
Answer:
She was the daughter of Iltutmish and who succeeded him after his death. She ruled from 1236 A.D. to 1240 A.D. She crushed the rebellion of state governors, but Amirs and army generals did not obey her. She was killed in 1240 A.D.

Question 8.
Describe in brief the ruling period of Qutubdin Aibak.
Answer:
He was the real founder of Turk state. He was the first ruler of Delhi Sultanate. At the time of ascending the throne, he had to face many difficulties. He occupied Punjab to stop the invasion of Yaldoz, who was the ruler of Ghazni. He made Lahore his capital. He was a great art lover. Many mosques in Delhi and Ajmer have been built by him. He started the construction of Qutub Minar, but in 1210 A.D. he fell from a horse and died.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 9.
Describe in brief the successes of Iltutmish.
Answer:
Iltutmish was one of the greatest rulers of the Slave dynasty. He ruled from 1211 to 1236 A.D.

Some of his achievements are the following :

  • He shifted his capital from Lahore to Delhi which remained the capital of all the Sultan-rulers.
  • For the first ten years, he remained busy in crushing his different rivals who were also claimants to the throne.
  • He organized the ruling elite or the nobles into a strong group of faithful nobles of forty known as ‘Chalisa’.
  • For the promotion of trade and commerce, many new coins like those of ‘Tanka’ and ‘JitaV were introduced.
  • He divided his empire into many big or small pieces of land, known as ‘Iqtas’ and handed them over to his nobles and officers in lieu of salary.
  • In 1221, he defended India against the Mongol invasion under Changez Khan.
  • He occupied the Rajputana castles of Ranthambhor, Gwalior and Ujjain.

Question 10.
Write a brief comment on Jallaludin Khalji.
Answer:
Jallaludin Khalji was the founder of Khalji Dynasty. He ruled from 1290 to 1296 A.D. During his ruling period the Delhi Darbar became a centre of scandals. In 1296, his nephew and son-in-law Alauddin Khalji killed him and ascended the throne.

Question 11.
Write about the victories and reforms of Alauddin Khalji.
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji was the most famous ruler of Khalji Dynasty. He ruled from 1296 A.D. to.1316 A.D. He was an optimist ruler. He wanted to established an empire in India.

Victories:

  • In 1299, he won Gujarat.
  • In 1301 A.D. he accupied Ranthambhor.
  • In 1303 A.D. Chittor was under his control.
  • He sent his General Malik Kafur to South India, where his army won the areas of Devagiri, Warangal, Dwar Samudra and Madurai, but Alauddin Khalji did not annex these areas into Delhi Sultanate.

Reforms of Alauddin Khalji:

  1. Economic reforms: He reduced the price of essential commodities. To control the
    prices, he appointed market officers. Anybody who went against his orders and rules was severely punished. .
  2. Military reforms: He started the custom of writing the physical measurements of the soldiers. He started paying cash salary to soldiers. He also appointed spies to control his empire.

Question 12.
Write about the administrative period of Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
Answer:

  1. Feroz Shah considered the support of the nobles and the Ulema necessary for success.
  2. He made peace with them and kept them content by giving them grants of revenue.
  3. He was lenient in his dealings with the nobles.
  4. He allowed the orthodox ulema to influence state policy in certain matters.
  5. He improved his relations with the powerful groups at the court but at the same time, the power of the Sultan decreased.
  6. The governors of certain provinces like Bihar and Bengal had rebelled against the Sultanate.
  7. He tried to bring them under his control but he was not very successful.
  8. He established a department called ‘Diwan-i-Khairat’ to help the poor.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 13.
Write about the period of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodhi was the last ruler of Lodhi dynasty. He ruled from 1517 A.D. to 1526 A.D. He wanted to make his central administration very powerful. But he was not liked by Afghan Chiefs and they created many difficulties for him. Infact, Ibrahim Lodhi was not a farsighted Sultan. He could make friendly relations with his Amirs, but he made them his enemies because of his egoistic behavior. As a result, they started revolts against Delhi Sultanate. In 1526 A.D., Ibrahim Lodhi was killed while fighting against Babar in the first battle of Panipat.

Question 14.
Describe in brief the Timur’s raid on India.
Answer:
Timur was a Turkish chief. He was brave, powerful and ambitious ruler of Central Asia.

Effects of Timur’s raid on India.

  • Timur’s raid on India gave a death blow to the Tughlaq dynasty and it ended in 1413 A.D.
  • Delhi Sultanate met with financial crisis.
  • A local governor occupied Delhi and founded the Sayyid dynasty.
  • Timur’s raid encouraged the Mughals to establish their empire in India.

Question 15.
Briefly comment on Sayyid Dynasty (1414 A.D. to 1451 A.D.).
Answer:
When Timur left Delhi he appointed Khizar Khan as the governor of Multan, Lahore and Depalpur. In 1414 A.D. Khizar Khan won Delhi and established Sayyid dynasty. This dynasty ruled from 1414 A.D. to 1451 A.D. The last ruler Ala-ud-din Alam Shah was defeated by the Governor of Lahore, Bahlol Lodhi.

Question 16.
Briefly introduce Behlol Lodhi and Sikandar Lodhi.
Answer:
Bahlol Lodhi. He was the founder of Lodhi dynasty and was its first ruler. He tried to restore the pride of Delhi Sultanate. He established law and order in the country. In 1488 A.D. he died. His son Sikandar Lodhi became his successor.

Sikandar Lodhi. He was (1488 A.D. – 1517 A.D.) the most powerful ruler of Lodhi dynasty. He was a good administrator. He performed many functions for the welfare of public. He brought reforms in agriculture and reduced the prices of essential commodities. In 1503 A.D., he established Agra city and made it his capital. He died in 1517 A.D.

Question 17.
Give a brief account of the Deccan campaigns of Ala-ud-din Khalji.
Answer:
Ala-ud-din Khalji sent a very big army under his army General Malik Kafur. Malik Kafur won the areas of Devagiri, Warangal, Dwar Samudra and Madurai but Ala- ud-din didn’t annex these areas to his ruling state.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 18.
Describe the development of political institutions during the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
The description in brief is as follows :
1. Central Government. Sultan was an autocratic ruler who had unlimited powers. He ran his government with the help of ministers. All the departments were run by the concerned ministers according to the orders of the Sultan. The administrative system of Delhi Sultanate was mainly based on Islamic laws.

The following were the main ministers in-charge of different departments :

  • Wajir: He was the most important minister of the state. He was the chief of finance and land revenue. Many officials were employed for his assistance. Mushrif Mamalik (Accountant General) and ‘Mustafi-i-Mamalik’ (Auditor-General) were the main assistants.
  • Ariz-i-Mamalik: Minister of army.
  • Diwan-i-Insha: Minister of Spy Department.
  • Diwan-i-Risalat: Minister of External Affairs.
  • Sadar-i-Sadur: Minister of Religion & Education Affairs.

2. Provincial Administration. The empire was divided into many states and governors were appointed for these states. They were called Subedars, Muqtis or Walis. The states were further divided into parganas. A combination of. many villages created one Pargana. The chief official of Pargana was named ‘Amil’. The chief of a village was called ‘Muqadam’.

3. Military Arrangement. The army consisted of horses, elephants and soldiers. The military officers were usually granted jagirs but sometimes they were paid their salaries cash. The military power was must for crushing rebels. They could never think of their existence without a powerful army. So the Delhi Sultans used all the means of military arrangements.

Question 19.
Write short notes on the following :
1. The Court
Answer:
The Court: Delhi Sultans established their own Courts. The front seats were given to Princes. Ministers, Department’s Chiefs, other officials and foreign diplomats were given the permanent places. The Departmental Chiefs were always present in the Court to answer the questions posed by the Sultan.

2. The Nobility
Answer:
The Nobility: The Delhi Sultans were complete Autocrates. They ruled with the help of noble class. Most of them were related to Turk or Afghan families. But after the period of Allaudin Khalji, Muslims and Hindus were also employed as high officials. Thus a noble class was also developed among these religions. The central ministers, state governors and army chiefs, all belonged to noble class.

3. Land Control
Answer:
Land Control: Revenue -was the chief source of the income of the state. There were three systems prevalent at that time. These were Batai, Kankut and measurement of land. Revenue was collected either in cash or in some other form. Alauddin Khalji paid special attention towards land reforms. He got the measurement done and to look after the agriculture, he created a department called ‘Diwan-i-Must-Kharaz’. At that time the rate of land revenue was very high. Firoz Shah Tughlaq also developed agriculture. He got canals built for irrigation. The rate of land revenue was lowered and loans were remitted.

4. Resource Mobilization.
Answer:
Resource Mobilization: There were many temporary sources of revenue also namely—Kharaz, Khamas, Jakat and Zazia. Kharaz was taken from non-Muslims. It was 10% to 50% of the total produce. Khamas was the 1/5 part of plundered stock from battles. The Sultan had the right over this portion. The rest 4/5 part was distributed among the army. Jakat was a religious tax, which was charged from Muslims. It was 2.5% of their property. Zazia tax was again charged from non-Muslims. It is said that women, children and poor people were exempted from this tax. This tax was charged from 10 to 40 Takas on the basis of income.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 20.
Write the names of the main historical sources of the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
The main sources are as follows:
1. Accounts of Foreign Travellers: Iban-batuta and Marco Polo travelled to India during the Sultanate period and wrote accounts about the personality of Sultans and knowledge about different sectors.

2. Royal Description: Tughlaq Nama, Tarikh-i-Alahi, Tarikh-i-Firozshahi, Futuhat-i-Firozshahi, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, and Makhzari-i-Afghan, etc. were the royal descriptions, where we get knowledge about Delhi Sultans and main events.

3. Historical Monuments: The historical structures during the period of the Delhi Sultanate include Quwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Alahi Darwaja, Tughlakabad, Hauz Khas, Lodhi Tomb, Firozshah Kotla, etc. These buildings and monuments give us knowledge and information about the artistic hobbies of Delhi Sultans.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200) Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which rulers of Cholas dynasty again emerged as Cholas Kingdom?
Answer:
Vijayalaya was the first ruler of the Chola kingdom who won Tanjore from the Pallavas and made it as his capital. Prantaka-I was also a powerful Chola ruler who defeated a Pandya ruler. Rajraja–I was the greatest and the most powerful ruler of the Chola kingdom. Rajendra Chola expanded the Chola kingdom by defeating the rulers of Pandya, Chera and Srilanka and conquered their territories.

Question 2.
Which rulers were defeated by Rajraja-I and he captured their territories?
Answer:
Rajraja-I defeated the rulers of Chera, Pandya and Srilanka and captured their territories.

Question 3.
Write about the important conquests of Rajendra Chola.
Answer:
Rajendra Chola (1014 to 1044 A.D.): Rajendra was an ambitious king. He continued his father’s policy and fought many campaigns in the peninsula. But out of all his campaigns two were very bold and daring. One was when his armies marched up the east coast of India, through Orissa, and up to the Ganga. The second was Rajendra’s daring naval campaign. It took place in South-East Asia. This compaign proved a great help to the traders of his kingdom. It also increased the revenue of the Cholas. In south east Asia he achieved important victory over Andeman Nikobar, Malaya, Sumatra and Jawa.

Question 4.
Which languages were developed during the Chola reign?
Answer:
Under Chola kings, education and literature field were developed greatly. They patronized Grammar, Philosophy, Art, Science and Astronomy. The medium of education was Sanskrit and Tamil.

In this period, the religious literature was written in south India. Kamban wrote Ramayana in Tamil. Many inscriptions were written both in Sanskrit and Tamil language. Many of the poets wrote epic in Tamil language. The poet named Nanniah wrote many basic scriptures. The poets Pampa, Ponna and Ranna are the most famous trinity of poets of this time.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 5.
Which religion was very famous during the Chola reign?
Answer:
In the medieval India, Hinduism was the most famous religion during the Chola reign. Lord Vishnu and Lord Shiva worshipped by the people. Buddhism and Jainism also existed during this era. Many other religious movements started during this period. Lingayata sect was founded by Basava. Shankracharya preached the advaita philosophy. Madhava and Ramanuja were the other religious teachers of Bhakti movement.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Pallava rulers made _______ their capital.
Answer:
Kanchi

Question 2.
Marco Polo visited the _______ kingdom.
Answer:
Pandya

Question 3.
Rajendra Chola took the title of _______
Answer:
Gangai Koudachola

Question 4.
Women were held great ______ during the Cholas reign.
Answer:
honour

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 5.
Nanniah and Tikkana Telugu scholars translated the ______ into Telugu.
Answer:
Mahabharata.

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A B
1. Basava (i) Advaita Philosophy
2. Shankracharya (ii) Lingayata Sect
3. Ramanuja (iii) Bhakti Movement
4. Madhava (iv) Bhakti Movement

Answer:

A B
1. Basava (ii) Lingayata Sect
2. Shankracharya (i) Advaita Philosophy
3. Ramanuja (iv) Bhakti Movement
4. Madhava (iii) Bhakti Movement

IV. Write True or False for each statement.

Question 1.
Kamban translated the Ramayana into Tamil Language.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The Cholas rulers had a powerful Army.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Mahenderavarman built a new town called Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Chola kingdom was divided into provinces.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 5.
Madurai was the capital of Chola Rulers.
Answer:
True.

V. Activities:

Question 1.
Locate the extent of Pallavs, Pandyas and Cholas kingdoms on the outline map of India.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Paste the pictures of Abu, Khujraho, Mahabalipuram, Kanchi and Tanjore in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200) Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of these was the powerful state of South India?
(a) Pallavas
(b) Pandyas
(c) Cheras
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
______ was the main ruler of Pallava dynasty?
(a) Mahendra Varman I
(b) Prantaka
(c) Raj Raja
(d) Rajendra.
Answer:
(a) Mahendra Varman I.

Question 3.
Chola dynasty was established by ______
(a) Dantidurga
(b) Vijayalaya
(c) Rajendra Chola
(d) Raj Raja I.
Answer:
(b) Vijayalaya.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 4.
(a) Sabha
(b) Mahasabha
(c) Ur
(d) Village Assembly.
Answer:
(c) Ur.

Question 5.
(a) Ur
(b) Sabha
(c) Mahasabha
(d) Mandalam.
Answer:
(b) Sabha.

Question 6.
The chola provinces were known as
(a) Mandalams
(b) Sabha
(c) Valanadus
(d) Ur.
Answer:
(a) Mandalams.

Question 7.
Mandalams were divided into
(a) Sabha
(b) Valanadus
(c) Ur
(d) Mahasabha.
Answer:
(b) Valanadus.

Question 8.
Which of these was the function of village assemblies?
(a) To take care of roads
(b) To provide justice
(c) Temple Maintenance
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 9.
______ defeated the rulers of Chera, Pandya and Sri Lanka and captured their territories.
(a) Rajendra I
(b) Raj Raja I
(c) Prantaka
(d) Mahendra Varman I.
Answer:
(b) Raj Raja I.

Question 10.
Who wrote Ramayana in Tamil?
(a) Kamban
(b) Tulsidas
(c) Kanchi
(d) Rajendra I.
Answer:
(a) Kamban.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name three powerful states of South India during the medieval period.
Answer:
Pallavas, Pandyas, Cholas.

Question 2.
Give brief description of Pandyas Kingdom.
Answer:
Pandya Kingdom was established in southern parts of Tamil Nadu. The capital of Pandyas was known as Madurai or Madura. It was an important centre of education. Marco Polo visited this state and gave a detailed description of this state. During 14th century, Pandyas kingdom declined.

Question 3.
When did Pallavas become powerful? Give a brief description of their successes.
Answer:
The Pallavas became powerful rulers during 5th and 6th century after the decline of Satavahanas. Mahendra Varman I and Narasimhavarman I were two main rulers of Pallava dynasty. They greatly expanded their state and made Kanchi their capital.

They patronized art and architecture. They built shore temple and chariot temple of Mahabalipuram. They built Kailashnath Temple in Kanchi. In the 9th century Pallavas were defeated by Cholas.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 4.
Describe in brief the establishment and decline of the state of Cholas.
Answer:
The Cholas were very powerful state in South India. There rulers were as ahead :

  1. Vijayalaya: He established the Chola dynasty. He won Tanjore from Pallavas, and made it its capital. He ruled from 846 A.D. to 871 A.D.
  2. Prantak I: He was a powerful ruler of Chola state. He sat on the throne in 907 A.D. and ruled upto 955 A.D. He defeated Pandya ruler, controlled the capital Madurai and got the designation Madurai Konda. After this, in the battle of Takolam he was defeated by Krishna III, the Rashtrakuta ruler.

Question 5.
After Prantak I which two rulers made the Chola Kingdom powerful again?
Answer:
Raj Raja I and Rajendra Chola again brought Chola Kingdom into existence and made it a great power of South India.

Question 6.
Give two administrative successes of Raj Raja I.
Answer:

  1. He created a modern Navy.
  2. He was a follower of Shaiv religion but was tolerent towards other religions.

Question 7.
How did the Chola Kingdom decline?
Answer:
The inheritors of Rajendra Chola were always fighting with their neighbouring states. So as a result they became powerless and ultimately declined

Question 8.
Comment on south Indian society from 700 A.D. to 1200 A.D.
Answer:
In south Indian society, the aristocratic class, Brahmins and traders had a pride of place. The different classes of society cooperated with each other for the fulfilment of common objectives. Women had a respectable position in society. They were given high education. The farmers and labourers were related to the working class. They were very poor and led a difficult life.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 9.
Give the main features of religion in south India during 700 A.D. to 1200 A.D.?
Answer:

  1. Hinduism: It was very popular: The Hindu gods such as Lord Vishnu and Lord Shiva were generally worshipped.
  2. Buddhism and Jainism: These two religions were also in existence.
  3. Religious movements: Many religious movements came in existence :
    (i) Basava established Lingayata Movement.
    (ii) Shankaracharaya propagated advaita Movement.
    (iii) Ramanuja and Madhava were other great preachers of Bhakti movement. They emphasised on the worship of one God. They gave the sermon that the single, most important means of salvation is loving God with a pure heart. They were against the discrimination based on caste and creed. People were greatly impressed by their teachings.

Question 10.
Write the story of rise and fall of Chola Kingdom.
Answer:
The Chola Kingdom was the most famous state of south India. They ruled for about 400 years. Their states included modern Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.

The following were the important kings of Chola dynasty :
1. Vijayalya: He established the Chola dynasty. He won Tanjore from Pallavas, and made it its capital. He ruled from 846 A.D. to 871 A.D.

2. Prantak I: He was a powerful ruler of Chola state. He sat on the throne in 907 A.D. and ruled upto 955 A.D. He defeated Pandya ruler, controlled the capital Madurai and got the title of Madurai Konda. After this, in the battle of Takolam he was defeated by Krishna III, who was the Rashtrakuta ruler.

3. Raj Raja I: He was a brilliant general. He campaigned in many directions. He attacked the kingdom of the Pandyas and of the Cheras as well as parts of Mysore. He also campaigned northwards in the Deccan and the region of Vengi. But he was not able to control them for any length of time.

4. Rajendra Chola: Rajendra was an ambitious king. He continued his father’s policy and fought many campaigns in the peninsula. But out of ah his campaigns two were very bold and daring. One was when his armies marched up the east coast of India, through Orissa, and up to the Ganga. The second was Rajendra’s daring naval campaign. It took place in South-East Asia. This compaign proved a great help to the traders of his kingdom. It also increased the revenue of the Cholas. In south-east Asia he achieved important victory over Andeman Nikobar, Malaya, Sumatra and Jawa.

5. Decline of Cholas: The successors of Rajendra I spent much time and effort and money on fighting wars with the other kingdoms of the peninsula. Some of these wars were not successful. By the end of the thirteenth century, the Chola kingdom was declined.

Question 11.
What were the main features of Chola Rulers?
Answer:
The Chola government was headed by a powerful king who acted on the advice of his council of ministers or Purohita. The kingdom was divided into Mandalams and Valanadus, the villages were ruled by elected assemblies called Urs. The revenue of the Chola kingdom came from two sources—taxes on land and taxes on trade.

The main features of the Chola Government and administration were as follows :

  1. The Central Administration: The king was at the head of the central administration. He was the most powerful person.
  2. Provincial Administration: The whole kingdom was divided into six provinces called mandalam. Each mandalam was under the charge of a governor.
  3. The Village Administration: The administration in villages was carried out by villagers themselves. They elected a village council called ‘Ur’ or Sabha.
  4. Taxes: The government revenue came from three sources—taxes on land and the produce of the land and taxes on trade.
  5. Public Works: Chola rulers spent most of their income from taxes on public works such as building of roads and construction of tanks for storing water and for building temples.

Question 12.
What do you know about the Chola art and architecture?
Answer:
The Cholas were great builders. They were great patrons of art and architecture. The Brihadeswara Temple at Tanjore is a fine specimen of the Chola architecture. The Chola temples were known for their unique features. The gateway to the temples is called ‘Gopuram’. It is beautifully carved and the walls are decorated with scenes depicting gods and goddess. The ‘Shikhara’ was built over the central shrine. It is a spiral-like structure. Raj Raja I build the Raj Rajeshwar temple of Tanjore. It is made in Dravidian style.

Rajendra Chola built a city named Gangai Kond Cholapuram and made it his capital. Many life-size sculptures of bronze have been made in Chola art. The Natraja sculpture of Tanjore are the best examples.

Question 13.
Describe the military achievements of Raj Raja I.
Answer:
Raj Raja I (985-1016 A.D.). He was a brilliant general. He campaigned in many directions. He attacked the kingdom of the Pandyas and of the Cheras as well as parts of Mysore. He also campaigned northwards in the Deccan and the region of Vengi. But he was not able to control them for any length of time.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 14.
Briefly describe the architectural and literary achievements of the Cholas.
Answer:
The Chola kings were great lovers of sculpture. There was great development of sculpture art under their administration.

Chola kings took keen interest in building temples; They donated money and land whole-heartedly for the building and maintenance of temples. The royal temples built by Chola kings were very magnificent. Thus we can say that Chola government has a great contribution in the building of the temples. These temples were centres of education. Raj Raja I built the Raj Rajeshwar temple of Tanjor. It is made in Dravadian style. Rajendra Chola built a city named Gangaikonda Cholapuram and made it his capital. Many lifesize sculptures of bronze have been made in Chola art. The Natraja sculpture of Tanjore are the best examples.

Question 15.
What do you know about the Chola administration?
Answer:
The Chola government was headed by a powerful king who acted on the advice of his council of ministers or Purohita. The kingdom was divided into Mandalams and Valanadus, the villages were ruled by elected assemblies called Urs. The revenue of the Chola kingdom came from two sources—taxes on land and taxes on trade.

The main features of the Chola Government and administration were as follows :

  1. The Central Administration: The king was at the head of the central administration. He was the most powerful person.
  2. Provincial Administration: The whole kingdom was divided into six provinces called rriandalam. Each mandalam was under the charge of a governor.
  3. The Village Administration: The administration in villages was carried out by villagers themselves. They elected a village council called ‘Ur’ or Sabha.
  4. Taxes: The government revenue came from three sources-taxes on land and the produce of the land and taxes on trade.
  5. Public Works: Chola rulers spent most of their income from taxes on public works such as building of roads and construction of tanks for storing water and for building temples.

Question 16.
Which type of agrarian was developed in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
1. The Chola kings gave special attention to the development of agriculture. They cleaned the forests with the help of nomadic tribes and created cultivable lands. As a result, there was a great expansion of the Zamindari system.

2. They paid special attention to the irrigation systems. The water from the Kaveri river was especially used. Where it was not possible to transfer river water, there they constructed ponds. They even established a pond committee to distribute water to agriculture farms.

3. They would never charge land revenue if there were floods or droughts in their state. They even gave loans to farmers during emergencies.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 4 Heat Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Heat

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Heat Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 37)

Question 1.
The normal temperature of our body is ……………… .
Answer:
The normal temperature of our body is 37°C.

Question 2.
The clinical thermometer can measure temperature above 45°C. (T/F)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 39)

Question 1.
Thermometer should be held from its bulb.(T/F)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
The thermometer should not touch the ………………. of the beaker.
Answer:
The thermometer should not touch the bottom or sides of the beaker.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 40)

Question 1.
The handle of cooking vessels are good conductor of heat. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
The handle of electric iron is good conductor of heat. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 42)

Question 1.
The ventilators in the rooms are used to expell cold air. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
The liquids are always heated from the bottom. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 44)

Question 1.
We wear light coloured clothes in winter. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
Dark coloured clothes absorbs less heat. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Heat Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The hotness of an object is a measured by its …………………….
Answer:
Temperature

(ii) The mode of heat transfer without any medium is called ………………….. .
Answer:
Radiation

(iii) Air is ………………….. conductor of heat.
Answer:
bad

(iv) The normal temperature of the human body is ……………………. °C.
Answer:
37°C

2. Write True or False:

(i) Metals are insulators of heat.
Answer:
False

(ii) Sea breeze arises due to conduction.
Answer:
False

(iii) We get heat from the sun by radiation.
Answer:
True

(iv) Wool is good conductor of heat.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

(v) Range of clinical thermometer is 35° C to 42°C.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Land breeze blows during

2. Sea breeze blows during

3. We prefer light coloured clothes in

4. We prefer dark coloured clothes in

 (a) winter

(b) night

(c) daytime

(d) summer

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Land breeze blows during

2. Sea breeze blows during

3. We prefer light coloured clothes in

4. We prefer dark coloured clothes in

 (c) daytime

(b) night

(d) summer

(a) winter

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Temperature of human body is:
(a) 100°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 37° C
(d) 98°C.
Answer:
(c) 37° C.

Question (ii)
Which is bad conductor of heat ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Iron
(c) Copper
(d) Wood.
Answer:
(d) Wood.

Question (iii)
One litre of water at 30°C is mixed with one litre of water at 50°C. Then temperature of mixture will be :
(a) 80°C
(b) More than 50°C but less than 80°C’
(c) 20°C
(d) Between 30°C and 50°C
Answer:
(d) Between 30°C and 50°C.

Question (iv)
A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end:
(a) becomes cold by the process of conduction.
(b) becomes cold by the process of convection.
(c) becomes cold by the process of radiation.
(d) does not become cold.
Answer:
(d) does not become cold.

Question (v)
Land breeze is:
(a) cool air from land to sea
(b) cool air from sea to land
(c) hot air from land to sea
(d) hot air from sea to land.
Answer:
(a) cool air from land to sea.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question (i)
State the condition which determine the direction of flow of heat.
Answer:
When two objects are in contact with each other, the heat is transmitted from the object at higher temperature to the object at a lower temperature.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question (ii)
What is clinical thermometer ? Write its range.
Answer:
Clinical thermometer. Clinical thermometer is a device by which a human body temperature is measured. It is also called Medical thermometer’s range in from 35°C to 42°C.

Question (iii)
What is the use of kink in a clinical thermometer ?
Answer:
Medical thermometer has a kink (bend) just above the bulb, the function of which is to prevent the mercury level from falling because of its weight. If kink is not present there then the mercury level will drop so that the human temperature will not be measured accurately.

Question (iv)
What is Lab thermometer ? Write its range.
Answer:
Lab Thermometer. An instrument used to measure the temperature of objects other than human beings (or living things) is called Lab thermometer. The range of lab thermometer is usually 10°C to 110°C.

Question (v)
Why do we prefer dark clothes in winters and light one in summers ?
Answer:
Darker fabrics absorb more heat than light coloured fabrics. So in winter we wear dark coloured clothes to keep our body warm by absorbing more heat, whereas light coloured clothes absorb lesser amount of heat and are also good reflector so our body does not get much heat.

Question (vi)
Why do we wear woollen clothes in winters ?
Answer:
Air is trapped in the wool fibres. Since air is a bad conductor of heat, so it does not allow heat to be transmitted to the cold environment outside. That is why we feel warm in winter by wearing woollen clothes.

6. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What are the various modes of heat transfer ? Explain.
Answer:
There are three modes of heat transfer :
1. conduction.
2. convection,
3. radiation.

1. Conduction.
It is that method of heat transfer in which heat is transmitted from the hotter end to the colder end of the object without the actual movement of the heated partilces. Solids are heated by this method.

2. Convection.
It is the process of heat transfer due to the actual movement of the heated particles of liquid or gas. Liquids and gases are heated by this method.

3. Radiation.
It is the process in which heat is transmitted directly from the ource of heat or hot object to a cold object without medium in between them. In other words no medium is required for heat radiation

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question (ii)
Explain the formation of sea breeze and land breeze in coastal areas ?
Answer:
Sea breeze.
During day time the ground is heated by the heat of the sun, which causes the ground air to heat up, roll and rise. Cold air from the ocean begins to rush towards the ground to take it’s place. The warm air from the land moves towards the sea to complete the cycle. The wind that blows from the ocean to the land is called the sea breeze.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 1
Land breeze.
Due to higher heat absorption capacity the water cools down more slowly than the land, so cool air from the land starts rushing from the land towards the sea at night. This is called land breeze.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 2

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Heat Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The degree of hotness of an object is determined by its …………………
Answer:
temperature

(ii) Temperature of boiling water cannot be measured by a ………………. thermometer.
Answer:
clinical

(iii) Temperature is measured in degree ……………… .
Answer:
Celsius

(iv) A cold steel spoon is dipped in a cup of hot milk. It transfers heat to its other end by
the process of ………………..
Answer:
conduction

(v) Clothes of …………………. colours absorb more heat than light coloured clothes.
Answer:
dark

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Medical thermometer

(ii) Black coloured objects

(iii) Woollen clothes

(iv) Transfer of heat

(v) Light coloured clothes

 (a) From high temperature to low temperature

(b) In winter

(c) In summer

(d) Better absorbent and radiator

(e) To measure the temperature of human beings.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Medical thermometer

(ii) Black coloured objects

(iii) Woollen clothes

(iv) Transfer of heat

(v) Light coloured clothes

 (e) To measure the temperature of human beings

(d) Better absorbent and radiator

(b) In winter

(a) From high temperature to low temperature

(c) In summer

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
We can measure temperature with clinical thermometer
(a) From 30°C to 42°C
(b) From 35°C to 42°C
(c) From 35°C to 45°C
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) From 35°C to 42°C.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question (ii)
The reliable measure of heat of an object is :
(a) The heat of that object
(b) The degree of hotness or coldness of that object
(c) The physical touch
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) The degree of hotness or coldness of that object.

Question (iii)
The range of laboratory thermometer is :
(a) -10°C to 100°C
(b) 35°C to 42°C
(c) -10°C to 110°C
(d) 94°F to 108°F.
Answer:
(c) ~10°C to 110°C.

Question (iv)
Heat from sun reaches us by the process of :
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) radiation.

Question (v)
Heat is transferred in liquids and gases by :
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) convection.

Question (vi)
Clinical thermometer is filled with :
(a) Water
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Air.
Answer:
(c) Mercury.

Question (vii)
What kind of clothes do we wear in summer ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silky
(d) Wool.
(c) Jute
Answer:
(a) Cotton.

4. State True or False:

(i) We wear both light and dark clothes in summer.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

(ii) In coastal areas, the wind blowing from the sea towards the coast at night is called land breeze.
Answer:
False

(iii) Woollen garments provide warmth in winter as wool fibres traps in air.
Answer:
True

(iv) Heat transfer between liquids and gases is by convection method.
Answer:
True

(v) The thermometer should be washed with lukewarm water before use to measure temperature.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is temperature ?
Answer:
Temperature. The degree of hotness or coolness of an object is its temperature.

Question 2.
What is thermometer ?
Answer:
Thermometer. It is a device used to measure the temperature of an object.

Question 3.
Name two types of thermometers.
Answer:

  1. Clinical thermometer and
  2. Laboratory thermometer.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question 4.
Which metal is used in thermometers ?
Answer:
Mercury (Hg).

Question 5.
Which scales are used to measure temperatures ?
Answer:
Two scales are mainly used which are (i) Celsius scale and (ii) Fahemheit scale.

Question 6.
What is range of clinical thermometer ?
Answer:
35°C to 42°C.

Question 7.
Why is a thermometer jerked before taking temperature of a person ?
Answer:
To bring the mercury level below 35°C.

Question 8.
What is normal body temperature of healthy person ?
Answer:
37°C.

Question 9.
Name the thermometer used for noting weather temperature.
Answer:
Maximum-Minimum thermometer.

Question 10.
What is range of laboratory thermometer ?
Answer:
-10°C to 110°C.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question 11.
Which solution is used to wash thermometer before and after use ?
Answer:
Antiseptic solution.

Question 12.
How are laboratory thermometers read ?
Answer:
In vertically upright position.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When cold milk is added to hot tea, how does the heat transfer take place ?
Answer:
When cold milk is added to hot tea. the two come in contact with each other. The transfer of heat energy takes place from hot molecules of tea to cold molecules of milk by the process called convection.

Question 2.
What are the main conditions necessary for the flow of heat ?
Answer:
Conditions for the flow of heat. The following are three conditions responsible for the flow of heat from one place to another or from one body to another body :

  1. The two substances should be in contact with each other.
  2. The temperature of both the substances should be different.
  3. The heat flows from hot to cooler substance.

Question 3.
If a spoon is held over fire, it becomes hot after sometime. Describe the process of heating up.
Answer:
We know that in a solid the molecules are packed close together. When one end of the spoon is held over the fire, the molecules of material of spoon absorb the heat energy and begin to vibrate rapidly. These molecules handover heat energy to the neighbouring molecules, in turn, cause their neighbouring molecules to vibrate. This process continues along the length of the spoon and energy is transferred from the hotter part to the colder part. After sometime, the other end of the spoon also becomes hot.

Question 4.
Why is it preferred to wear bright clothes in summer and dark clothes in winter ?
Answer:
Dark coloured clothes are good absorbers of heat as compared to white clothes. The dark coloured clothes absorb the heat falling on them and become wanner. So we feel warm in winter by wearing these clothes. On the other hand, white clothes reflect heat coming from the sun. That is why, we prefer to wear bright clothes in summer and dark clothes in winter.

Question 5.
Define conduction. Why the handles of cooking utensils are made of insulators ?
Answer:
Conduction. The mode of transfer of heat in which heat is transferred from one particle to another without the actual motion of the particles, is called conduction.
The handles of cooking utensils are made up of insulating materials because they do not allow heat to flow through them. So heat cannot reach our body and thus our hand is prevented from burning.

Question 6.
Define radiation.
Answer:
Radiation. The process of transfer of heat from one body to another without heating the intervening medium, is called radiation. No medium is needed for the transference of heat by this process.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question 7.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:
Differences between heat and temperature.
TABLE

Question 8.
What is convection ? Give two practical applications of convection of heat.
Answer:
Convection.
The process of transference of heat in which heated gas or a liquid particles actually move from one place to another, is called convection. All the liquids and gases are heated by the method of convection.

Practical applications :

  • When a stove is lighted, the air in contact with the hot stove becomes warm. On being heated, it expands and becomes lighter. As a result, it rises upwards and the cool air from its surrounding comes to take its place.
  • The ventilation of ordinary buildings is due to convection.

Question 9.
As soon as the tube is removed from the source of heat, the level of liquid drops. How is this avoided in the thermometer that doctors use ?
Answer:
It is seen that the level of liquid fails in a narrow-tube (capillary tube) when it is removed from the source of heat. But when the doctor’s thermometer is removed from the source of heat, the level of mercury does not fall by itself. It is because a kink is provided in the tube of clinical thermometer which prevents mercury from falling down due to its own weight.

Question 10.
Discuss why wearing more layers of clothing during winter keeps us warm than wearing just one thick piece of clothing.
Answer:
Different layers of clothing trap air inside them. Air is a poor conductor of heat so it prevents the flow of heat from our body to the cold surrounding and keeps us warm.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an experiment to show that black bodies are good absorbers and good raidators.
Answer:
Experiment. Take two tin cans of the same size. Paint one of them black and other white from outside. Pour equal amount of water in each can. Now place them in the sun for about an hour. When we touch water in the tin cans we find that the water in the black tin has become warmer than that in the other tin. Since the size of the tins is the same, this shows that black body has absorbed more heat radiations than the other one.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 3
You can also do the reverse experiment by taking equal amount of hot water in each can. Leave the cans in a shady place for 10 minutes and record the temperature of each can. You would find the water in the dark had cooled down more. Thus, we conclude that black bodies are good absorbers and also good radiators of heat.

Question 2.
Give an experiment to show the transfer of heat by conduction.
Answer:
Experiment. Take a flat aluminium rod. Fix some iron nails on this rod with the help of molten wax. Clamp this rod in a stand as shown in the figure.
Heat one end of the rod with the help of spirit lamp. The iron nails drop one by one, starting from the hot end. It shows that heat is transferred slowly from one end of the rod to the other end by conduction.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 4
Conduction of heat takes place from the hot part of the object to its colder parts; or from one hot object to a colder object, happens only if:

  1. the two parts are in contact, and
  2. their temperatures are different.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200) Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which type of caste system was prevalent in society during the medieval period?
Answer:
In the early medieval period, caste system was very strong. The whole society was divided into four castes. These were – Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas and Shudras. Brahahmins performed religious ceremonies, so they had a place of respect in the society. Kashtriyas became warriors and administrators and participated in wars. Vaishyas traded and did agricultural tasks but the condition of Shudras in society was not good. Rajputs were proud of their high caste.

Question 2.
Which period is called as ‘Rajput Period’?
Answer:
The period between the eighth century and the thirteenth century is known as the ‘Rajput Period’ because many Rajput states were established in North India during this era.

Question 3.
Why Mahmud Ghaznavi invaded India?
Answer:
Mahmud Ghaznavi wanted to make Ghazni the most powerful kingdom in the region. That is why he wanted a lot of money to organise large army. Therefore, he invaded India to raise money seventeen times from 1001-1025 A.D.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 4.
Why Muhammad Ghori invaded India?
Answer:
Muhammad Ghori was the ruler of Gaur Kingdom in Afghanistan. He wanted to build up an empire in India. So in 1175 A.D. he invaded Multan and captured it.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Mihir Bhoj was a powerful ruler of the ______ dynasty.
Answer:
Pratihara

Question 2.
Devpal built a temple of ______ at Bodh Gaya.
Answer:
Mahabodhi

Question 3.
Rashtrakuta rulers were the patrons of ______
Answer:
art, education.

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A B
1. Gurjara Pratiharas rulers (i) Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand
2. Palas rulers (ii) Rajasthan and Gujarat
3. Rashtrakuta rulers (iii) Deccan

Answer:

A B
1. Gurjara Pratiharas rulers (ii) Rajasthan and Gujarat
2. Palas rulers (i) Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand
3. Rashtrakuta rulers (iii) Deccan

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200) Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which Kingdom ruled over Rajasthan and Gujarat?
(a) Gurjara Pratiharas
(b) Palas
(c) Cheras
(d) Rashtrakutas.
Answer:
(a) Gurjara Pratiharas.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 2.
Who was the most famous ruler of Chauhan dynasty?
(a) Prithviraj Chauhan
(b) Jai Chauhan
(c) Malik Raj Chauhan
(d) Harshavardhana
Answer:
(a) Prithviraj Chauhan.

Question 3.
Who founded the Rashtrakuta dynasty?
(a) Harshavardhana
(b) Dantidurga
(c) Jaipal
(d) Gopala.
Answer:
(b) Dantidurga.

Question 4.
Who defeated Prithviraj Chauhan in the second battle of Terain?
(a) Mahmud Ghaznavi
(b)Qutb-ud-din Aibak
(c) Mohammad Ghori
(d) Iltutmish
Answer:
(c) Mohammad Ghori.

Question 5.
Who attacked India 17 times?
(a) Mohammad Ghori
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Qutb-ud-din-Aibak
Answer:
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi

Question 6.
Which of these dynasties fought to gain control of Kanauj?
(a) Gurjara Pratiharas
(b) Palas
(c) Rashtrakutas
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 7.
The period between 8th century and 13th century is known as
(a) Rajput period
(b) Sultnate period
(c) Mughal period
(d) Medieval period.
Answer:
(a) Rajput period.

Question 8.
______ was the most powerful ruler of Gurjana pratihara dynasty.
(a) Mihirbhoj
(b) Gopala
(c) Dantidurga
(d) Dhruva.
Answer:
(a) Mihirbhoj.

Question 9.
Dharampala was a famous ruler of dynasty.
(a) Gurjara Pratihara
(b) Pala
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Chera.
Answer:
(b) Pala.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 10.
Rashtrakutas ruled in ______ region.
(a) North
(b) South
(c) Deccan
(d) Eastern.
Answer:
(c) Deccan.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the names of three north and south Indian states in the early medieval period.
Answer:

  • North Indian states-Gurjara-Pratiharas, Palas and Rajputs.
  • South Indian states- Pallav, Pandaya and Cholas.

Question 2.
Where did Gurjar a Pratiharas rule?
Answer:
In some parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Question 2A.
Which three dynasties were involved in the triple struggle?
Answer:
Three dynasties involved in the triple struggle for Kanauj were the Rashtrakutas, the Gurjara-Pratiharas and the Palas.

Question 3.
Who was the most powerful ruler of Gurjara/ Pratihara dynasty? Write his ruling period.
Answer:
It was Mihirbhqj who ruled from 836 A.D. to 885 A.D

Question 4.
How did Gurjara/Pratihara dynasty come to an end?
Answer:
The last ruler Rajpal accepted the subordination of Mahmud Ghaznavi in 1018-19 A.D. So he was killed at the hands of Rajputs. In this way, the dynasty came to an end.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 5.
Describe briefly Mahendrapal – the Gurjara/Pratihara ruler.
Answer:
Mahendrapal was the son of Mihirbhoj. He ruled from 885 to 910 A.D. He was a lover of art and literature.

Question 6.
Where did Pala rulers rule? Who established this dynasty?
Answer:
The Pala rulers ruled over modern Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand. This dynasty was established by Gopal in 750 A.D.

Question 7.
Write two successes of Palas rulers.
Answer:

  1. Architecture, painting, education and literature were greatly developed.
  2. They followed Buddhism but were tolerant towards other religions.

Question 8.
Write one education related success of Pala ruler Dharampala.
Answer:
Dharampala established Vikkramshila Vihar, which later on became a great university.

Question 9.
Where did Rashtrakutas rule?
Answer:
Rashtrakutas ruled in Deccan region. It included the northern region between Krishna river and Tungbhadra river.

Question 10.
Name the famous rulers of Rashtrakuta dynasty.
Answer:
Dantidurg, Krishna I, Govind II, Dhruva, Govind III, Amoghvarsha and Krishna III were famous rulers of Rashtrakuta dynasty.

Question 11.
Name some main successes of Rashtrakuta rulers.
Answer:

  • They fought with Chalukayas and Pallavas in south India.
  • King Dhruva of Rashtrakuta dynasty defeated Pratihara ruler Vatsaraj of Kanauj.
  • Rashtrakuta rulers were patrons of art and education.
  • King Amoghvarsha was a good poet.
  • Krishna I built a Kailash Temple in Ellora.
  • Rashtrakutas established trade relationships with other countries.
  • They gave patronage to other religions also along with Hindu religion.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 12.
What do you mean by Rajput period?
Answer:
After the death of Harshvardhana, India was divided into many small states. Most of these states were under the occupation of Rajputs. The Rajputs fought with each other. So these Rajput kingdoms formed, dissolved and formed again. Thus from 8th century till 13th century it was mainly Rajputs who ruled over India. So this “period is called the Rajput period.

Question 13.
Comment briefly on the following :
1. Mihirbhoj
Answer:
Mihirbhoj: Mihirbhoj I (836 – 885 A.D.) was the famous ruler from Gurjara/ Pratihara dynasty. The Arab traveller Suleman has referred him as a brave warrior and efficient administrator. He got back lost areas from Pala dynasty. He was the worshipper of Lord Vishnu. He inherited the designation of ‘Adi Varah’.

2. Dharampala
Answer:
Dharampala: Dharampala (770-810 A.D.) was a famous ruler of Pala dynasty. The Arab trevellor Suleman writes that his military power was far more than his detractors. He fought against Pratiharas and Rashtrakutas. He was also an education lover. He established the famous boddh temple of Vikramshila which later on became a higher learning centre.

3. Devpal
Answer:
Devpal: Devpal was son of Dharampala who ruled from 81V to 850 A.D. He is known as the most powerful of Pala rulers. He won Assam and Orissa. He fought against Pratiharas also and earned a place of pride for Pala state.

4. Amoghvarsha
Answer:
Amoghvarsha: Amoghvarsha (814-878 A.D.) was a ruler of Rashtrakut dynasty. He ruled for 64 years. He is famous for his scholorship. He wrote a scripture called ‘Kavi Raj Marg’. This is the very first epic of Kannad literature.

5. Prithviraj Chauhan.
Answer:
Prithviraj Chauhan: He was the most famous and greatest ruler of Chauhan dynasty. He ruled from 1179 to 1192 A.D. He had Delhi and Ajmer under his control. He defeated the Chandel king Mahoba and also took under his control some other castles. He even fought against Chalukaya king Bhim II. In 1192 he was defeated by Mohammad Ghori.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Tripartite struggle?
Answer:
It refers to the struggle which took place among Rashtrakutas, Pratiharas and Palas to control Kanauj. Kanauj was a famous city of north India. It was strategically very important in north India. It means that the king who controlled Kanauj could control the fertile plain of the Ganges. So many battles were fought for its control. The Rashtrakutas, Pratihars and Palas—all these dynasties controlled Kanauj one by one. Modern historians call this struggle as tripartite struggle.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 15.
Write about two famous Rajput dynasties.
Answer:

  1. Pratihara Dynasty: The kings of this dynasty ruled over Kanauj and its surrounding areas. The first great ruler of this dynasty was ‘Nagabhatta I’.Mihirbhoj I was another famous ruler of this dynasty.
  2. Chauhan Dynasty: This dynasty ruled over Ajmer in Rajasthan. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was a famous king of this dynasty. He fought twice with Mohammad Ghori.

Question 16.
Who was Mahmud Ghaznavi? Why did he invade India?
Answer:
Mahmud Ghaznavi (999 – 1030 A.D.) was the son of Ghazni state ruler Subakatgin. He invaded India 17 times. The main objective of his invasions was to plunder money from India.

Question 17.
Who was Mohammad Ghori? What was his objective of coming to India?
Answer:
Shahabud-din, popularly known in history as Muhammad Ghori, was the younger brother of Ghias-ud-din, the ruler of Gaur, a small principality in Afghanistan.

Mohammad Ghori’s Aims in India

  1. Mohammad Ghori’s aim was not just to plunder the wealth of India but also to establish a Muslim rule over this country.
  2. He was more political and a better statesman than his predecessor. It was he who clearly perceived the rotton condition of India and thought of founding a permanent empire in this land.
  3. His main aim was the conquest of India and he was quite successful in achieving it. He never lost courage and continued his efforts ceaselessly and ultimately all his efforts in founding the Muslim Empire in India were fully rewarded.
  4. Muhammad Ghori’s conquest of India was real and permanent. The territories that he conquered were seldom lost to Islam as was the case with his predecessor, Mahmud Ghaznavi

Question 18.
What was the difference between the invasions of Mahmud Ghaznavi and Mohammad Ghori?
Answer:
The following were the points of difference :

Mahmud Ghaznavi Mohammad Ghori
1. He wanted to plunder the Indian wealth. 1. He wanted to establish Muslim state in north India.
2. He remain victorious in all his invasions. 2. He was once defeated in his invasions.
3. India lost much wealth by his invasions. 3. Muslim state was established by his invasions.

Question 19.
What was the importance of Kanauj? Name the kingdoms which wanted to occupy Kanauj.
Answer:
Many of the campaigns in northern India were fought over the city of Kanauj. This had been the capital of Harasha and remained an important city. It was thought that whoever will capture Kanauj could control the Ganga valley. Three major kingdoms were involved in this struggle. They occupied Kanauj in turn. The three kingdoms were those of the Rashtrakutas, the Gurjara-Pratiharas and the Palas.

Question 20.
Write a note about the origin of Rajputs.
Answer:
The Rajputs have a long and interesting history. Where they came from and who they were, remains something of a mystery. Historians think that some of them belonged to certain Central Asian tribes. The Rajputs always insisted that they were of the Kshatriya caste. Their kings ordered family histories to be written which connected them with either the sun-family (surya-vamsha) or the moon-family (chandra-vamsha) of ancient Indian kings.

According to Colonel Todd, the famous historian, Rajputs are the offspring of middle Asian tribes and came to live in India after the ‘Huna invasion’. Similarly Vedvyas and Gauri Shankar Ojha think that Rajputs are the offspring of ancient Kshatriyas. Another idea is of Chand Bardai, who wrrites in his book ‘Prithivi Raj Raso’, that Rajputs originated from ‘AgnikuF.

Question 21.
Who were the Chauhans? Write a brief note about them.
Answer:
Chauhans are also known as ‘Chahamans’. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was the most powerful king. He ruled from 1179 A.D. to 1192 A.D. He was a brave warrior. He defeated the Chandel king and snatched many areas. He defeated Mohammad Ghori in the first battle of Tarain in 1191 A.D. But in the very next year (1192 A.D. ), he was defeated by Mohammad Ghori in the second battle of Tarain and was killed. Thus the Chauhan dynasty came to an end in Delhi. Chand Bardai has described the successes of Prithvi Raj Chauhan in ‘Prithivi Raj Raso’.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 22.
Write in brief about the main invasions of Mahmud Ghaznavi.
Answer:
Mahmud was the ruler of Ghazni. He wanted to make Ghazni a big and powerful kingdom. India was extremely rich. So he planned to attack India in order to bring back wealth and thus build a larger army to conquer Central Asia.

The description of his main invasions is as follow :
1. Invasion on Jaipal (1001 A.D.). He invaded Jaipal the Hindu royal ruler of Punjab. Jaipal was defeated and imprisoned. It is said that Mahmud got 2.5 lac gold coins from Jaipal and set him free. Jaipal could not tolerate this insult and put himself to fire.

2. Battle with Anandpal (1008 A.D.). Anandpal was the son of Jaipal. He fought Mahmud Ghaznavi by combining the armies of Ujjain, Gwalior, Kalinjar, Delhi and Ajmer. The battle near Peshwar was terrible but Mahmud emerged victoriously and after that he plundered Punjab.

3. Invasion of Nagarkot (1009 A.D.). He invaded Nagarkot (Kangra) and looted gold and silver from Kangra temples.

4. Invasion on Thanesar (1014 A.D.). Again Ghaznavi plundered the big temples of Thanesar by invading this place.

5. Invasion on Mathura and Kanauj (1018-1019 A.D.). In 1018 A.D., Mahmud reached Mathura but before that he plundered the temples on the way to Mathura and set these on fire. When he reached Mathura, he demolished the temples there also. From Mathura he reached Kanauj. The ruler of Kanauj surrendered and Mahmud plundered and demolished the temples there.

6. Invasion on Kalinjar (1021 A.D.). The ruler of Kalinjar Vidyadhar had a big army but still he could not face Mahmud and ran away from the battlefield.

7. Invasion on the temple of Somnath (1025 A.D.)—Mahmud Ghaznavi attacked the temple of Somnath in Kathiawar in Gujarat. This temple was famous for its unlimited resources. Besides it was considered the holiest temple of the Hindus. Mahmud plundered and demolished this temple and took hundreds of tons of gold and silver and diamonds to his country. It was the biggest victory of Mahmud for which he was honoured by the Caliph. In 1030 A.D. Mahmud died.

Question 23.
Give an account of the important invasions of Muhammad Ghori.
Answer:
Mohammad Ghori was ruler of Gaur Kingdom in Afghanistan. He sat oh – the throne in 1173 A.D. He decided to invade India after becoming the king. He attacked’ and occupied Multan in 1175 A.D.

His other main invasions are as follows :
1. Invasion of Gujarat. In 1178 A.D. Ghori attacked Gujarat. The ruler of Gujarat faced Mohammad Ghori and badly defeated him.

2. First war of Tarain. Mohammad Ghori wanted to established a Muslim state iri India, so he attacked Delhi in 1191 A.D. Delhi had Prithvi Raj Chauhan as the king who was brave heart king. The two armies faced each other in terrible battle and Mohammad Ghori was defeated badly.

3. Second battle of Tarain. To take revenge of his defeat Mohammad Ghori again attacked India in 1192 A.D. This time Raja Jaichand, the king of Kanauj also sided with him. Under Prithvi Raj Chauhan’s leadership, Rajputs fought very bravely. But in the end it was victory for Mohammad Ghori and Delhi and Ajmer came under Mohammad Ghori’s possession.

4. Battle with Jai Chand. In 1194 A.D., Ghori defeated Raja Jai Chand and won the state of Kanauj.

5. Other Victories. During this time, Mohammad Ghori’s General Mohammad-bin- Bhakhtiar-Khalji controlled Bengal and Bihar. Another General Qutub-ud-Din Aibak won the state of Gujarat.
Thus in a short time Mohammad Ghori controlled the whole of the north India. He is considered to be the real establisher of Turk Empire in India. He died in 1206 A.D.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 24.
Write brief notes on :
1. Economy,
Answer:
Economy: The main profession was agriculture. India indulged in international trade also. From India valuable stones, spices, silk and cotton textiles, Chandan (sandalwood) and coconut, etc. were exported to foreign countries. From central and western Asia, dates, wine, and horses were imported to India.

2. Religion.
Answer:
Religion: Mainly Jainism, Buddhism, and Hinduism were prevalent. But Rajputs were the followers of Hinduism. So during their ruling period, Hinduism developed considerably. In north India, there were two sects of Hindu religion—Shaivs and Vaishnavs. People would worship Lord Vishnu and Shri Shiv and Shri Shakti. They would also worship the ten Avatars of Lord Vishnu. In this period, in North and South India, Bhakti Movement became very popular. Sri Guru Nanak Devji, Ramanuj Ji, and Madhavji emphasized one God’s worship. They gave the sermon that if you want to attain salvation pray to God with a pure heart. They were against the caste system.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 75)

Question 1.
Name the instrument used to measure relative humidity.
Answer:
Wet Bulb and Dry-bulb thermometers.

Question2.
Which instrument is used to measure rainfall?
Answer:
Rain gauge.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question3.
Name the source you used to collect weather reports ?
Answer:
Weather data was obtained from the North Meteorological Department’s laboratory.

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) …………………. of a place may change during a day.
Answer:
Temperature

(ii) The areas of Earth near North Pole and the South Pole are called ……………….. .
Answer:
Polar Region

(iii) The amount of water vapours present in air is called ……………… .
Answer:
Humidity

(iv) ……………….. is the coldest desert on earth.
Answer:
Antarctic

(v) Indian hot desert or Thar Desert spread over states of ………………… and ……………….. .
Answer:
Rajasthan and Gujarat.

2. State True or False:

(i) Reindeer is the main animal of tropical forest.
Answer:
False

(ii) Weather and climate both terms have same meaning.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(iii) Camel stores fat in its hump which is consumed during the days it does not get food.
Answer:
True

(iv) Whale is the largest animal.
Answer:
True.

3. Match the Columns ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) It insulates its body and keeps the polar beer warm (a) Land breeze
(ii) This instrument is used to measure humidity in air (b) Hot and dry.
(iii) Imaginary lines on the earth parallel to the equator (c) Fat layer under the skin
(iv) Cood air that blows during day towards coastal area (d) Dry and wet bulb thermometer.
(v) The climate of Rajasthan is (e) Latitude.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) It insulates its body and keeps the polar beer warm (c) Fat layer under the skin
(ii) This instrument is used to measure humidity in air (d) Dry and wet bulb thermometer.
(iii) Imaginary lines on the earth parallel to the equator (e) Latitude.
(iv) Cood air that blows during day towards coastal area (a) Land breeze
(v) The climate of Rajasthan is (b) Hot and dry.

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Weather of a place is affected by:
(a) Wind
(b) Temperature
(c) Humidity
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (ii)
Climate of coastal areas is:
(a) Hot to dry
(b) Moderate
(c) Cold and dry
(d) Extreme cold
Answer:
(c) Cold and dry.

Question (iii)
The coldest desert on earth is:
(a) Arabian desert
(b) Sahara desert
(c) Thar desert
(d) Ladakh
Answer:
(b) Sahara desert.

Question (iv)
Arctic region lies at:
(a) 23°
(b) 23°
(c) 0°
(d) 85° N to 90°S
Answer:
(d) 85° N to 90°S.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name any two factors that affect the weather of a place.
Answer:
Factors affecting the weather of a place are:

  1. Sun,
  2. Wind,
  3. Water / Rain/ Moisture,
  4. Temperature,
  5. Distance from sea or ocean.

Question (ii)
Define climate.
Answer:
Climate. An average of 25 to 30 years of weather conditions in a place is called climate.

Question (iii)
What is sand dune ?
Answer:
Sand dune. When the wind blows, the sand flies from one place to another. When the wind stops blowing, the sand falls in one place and collects to form low hill structures. These are called sand dunes. They are usually found in desert areas.

Question (iv)
What is a polar region ?
Answer:
Polar Region. The region near the North Pole and the South Pole of the Earth is called the Polar Region. The north snow is centred on these poles. The in the north it is located at Arctic Ocean and in the south it is located at the Antarctic Continent. It is very cold in these areas all the time.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How does sea breeze occur ?
Answer:
The earth heats up faster than water during the day. The air near the bottom of the earth gets warmer and lighter and rises upwards. The air above the sea compared to the air above the earth is cold and heavy. So the wind blows toward the earth. The cool breeze that blows from the ocean to the earth during the day is called sea breeze.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 1

Question (ii)
Write three adaptations found in aquatic animals.
Answer:
Adaptations found in aquatic organisms:

  1. Streamlined body which helps in swimming.
  2. Gills, they can take oxygen in the water.
  3. The presence of fins helps in swimming.

Question (iii)
What is green house effect ?
Answer:
Green house Effect. Infrared and ultraviolet radiation are present in sunlight. The ozone layer of the atmosphere absorbs the ultraviolet radiation but the infrared radiation reaches the earth. Some of these radiations are reflected and absorbed by carbon dioxide. Because the infrared rays have heat, the absorbed radiations heat up the atmosphere. This effect of carbon dioxide is called the green house effect.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question (iv)
Write two effects of climate change.
Answer:
Effects of climate change:
1. Global warming. Deforestation and combustion of fossil fuels increase the percentage of carbon dioxide in the air. Carbon dioxide gas acts like a glass house and absorbs infrared radiation from sunlight, which raises the temperature. Due to this the green house effect is increasing.

2. As a result, glaciers are melting. Glacier melting alarm for aquatic life. Melting ice raises sea levels, endangering many coastal cities.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How is camel adapted to survive in hot desert ? Explain.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 2
The adaptation of the camel to live in the desert:
The camel’s physique and habits have made it adaptable to the hot and dry climate of the desert.
The following adjustments are found in the camel:

  1. Its feet are flat to walk on the sand.
  2. Its nose is covered with nasal membranes so that sand does not enter the nose.
  3. It drinks a lot of water when available. This water spreads to the tissues of the body, which helps the camel to stay without water for many days.
  4. It accumulates fat in its mouth. When food is not available to it, it uses this fat.
  5. Very little water immerses through the urine.
  6. Its long legs keep it high above the hot sand.

Question (ii)
Name various factors that affect the climate of a place. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 3
Factors affecting the climate of a place:

  1. Distance from sea level
  2. Direction of mountains
  3. Distance from the equator
  4. Height from the sea.

1. Distance from the sea level.
The climate of the places near the sea is pleasant. During the day the temperature of the earth is higher while the water of the ocean warms up relatively late. The wind blows from the bottom of the ocean towards the earth, which is called sea breeze. The earth cools faster than water at night. So the air above the oceans is hot and light and the air above is moving towards the ocean. The cold breeze that blows toward the sea at night is called the land breeze.

2. The direction or latitude of the mountains.
The shape of the earth is not completely spherical. It is slightly raised near the equator. As a result, the sun’s rays are directed closer to the equator. The latitude of the equator is 0° and it is higher towards the pole. The longitude of the North Pole is 90° N and the longitude of the South Pole is 90°S. The climate near the equator is hot and humid all year round. As the longitude increases, the climate cools down.

Question (iii)
Write various adaptations found in Polar beer.
Answer:
Adaptations in Polar bear. The following adaptations are found in polar bears:

  1. Its fur is white to camouflage with snow capped areas.
  2. Its long hairs protect it from extreme cold of cold climate.
  3. A thick layer of fat deposit under the skin helps to keep it warm.
  4. Its feet are so shaped that it can run easily on snow.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The average weather taken over a long time in called ……………. .
Answer:
climate

(ii) A place receives very little rainfall and the temperature is high throughout the year;
the climate of that place will be …………… and …………….. .
Answer:
Hot, dry

(iii) The two regions with extreme climatic conditions are ……………… and ………….. .
Answer:
Polar, Tropical Rain forests

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(iv) The maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in ……………..
Answer:
Afternoon

(v) ………………. is used to measure rain.
Answer:
Rain gauge

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) The coldest desert on earth (a) Moisture
(ii) The amount of water vapours in the air (b) Deforestation and burning of fossil fuels
(iii) Thar desert (c) Antarctica
(iv) Global warming (d) Rajasthan.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) The coldest desert on earth (c) Antarctica
(ii) The amount of water vapours in the air (a) Moisture
(iii) Thar desert (d) Rajasthan
(iv) Global warming (b) Deforestation and burning of fossil fuels.

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
What is the cause of change in weather?
(a) Moon
(b) Planet
(c) Satellite
(d) Sun.
Answer:
(d) Sun.

Question (ii)
Indicate the type of climate in Jammu and Kashmir.
(a) Hot and wet
(b) Hot and dry
(c) Moderately hot and moderately wet
(d) Wet.
Answer:
(c) Moderately hot and moderately wet.

Question (iii)
Indicate the type of climate in Kerala:
(a) Hot and dry
(b) Hot and wet
(c) Wet
(d) Moderately hot and moderately wet.
Answer:
(a) Hot and dry.

Question (iv)
From where do we get daily weather report ?
(a) Television
(b) Radio
(c) Newspaper
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question (v)
When is the minimum temperature likely to occur in a day ?
(a) Evening
(b) Early morning
(c) Noon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Early morning

Question (vi)
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in:
(a) When the sun rises
(b) In mid noon
(e) Afternoon
(d) When the sun sets.
Answer:
(e) Afternoon.

4. State True or False:

(i) All changes in weather are due to the sun.
Answer:
True

(ii) The highest temperature of the day is in the evening.
Answer:
False

(iii) Different places have the same temperature.
Answer:
False

(iv) Polar areas are located near the Poles.
Answer:
True

(v) Penguins live in the plains.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(vi) Days in winter are shorter in length.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From where do we get daily weather reports ?
Answer:
We get weather report from Television, Radio and Newspapers.

Question 2.
Which factors are responsible for weather ?
Answer:
Temperature, Humidity and Rainfall.

Question 3.
What is humidity ?
Answer:
Humidity. It is the measure of quantity of moistures present in the atmospheric air.

Question 4.
Which department is responsible for preparing weather reports ?
Answer:
Meterological Department of the Government.

Question 5.
Which instrument is used to measure rain fall ?
Answer:
Rain gauge.

Question 6.
Do maximum and minimum temperature remain constant over a week ?
Answer:
No.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question 7.
Where from do we get heat and light on the earth ?
Answer:
We get heat and light from sun.

Question 8.
What happens to the energy emitted by sun ?
Answer:
It is absorbed and reflected by the earth’s surface.

Question 9.
Climate is average weather report of a place taken over a long period. How long this period is ?
Answer:
About 25 years.

Question 10.
Which type of climate is found in Kerala ?
Answer:
Hot and wet.

Question 11.
What is typical desert climate ?
Answer:
Hot and dry.

Question 12.
Which part of India is wet ?
Answer:
North-East.

Question 13.
Why is adaptation by animals necessary ?
Answer:
For survival of animals.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the elements that determine the weather of a place.
Answer:
Elements of Weather:
Temperature, Humidity, Wind-speed, Rainfall.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question 2.
When are the maximum and minimum temperature likely to occur during the day?
Answer:
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in the afternoon while the minimum temperature occurs in the early morning.

Question 3.
What is rain gauge ?
Answer:
Rain gauge. It is an instrument used to measure rainfall. It consists of a .measuring cylinder and a funnel on the top to collect rainwater.

Question 4.
Define weather ?
Answer:
Weather. The day-to day condition of atmosphere at a place with respect to temperature, humidity, wind speed etc. is called weather.

Question 5.
The tropical rainforest has a large population of animals. Explain, why it is so ?
Answer:
Tropical rainforests have hospitable climatic conditions; so it has a large population of animals. The climate in this region is hot and humid. It lies around the equator and has minimum temperature a little higher than 15°C, length of days and night are generally equal and these places recieve a lot of rainfall. So all these conditions are preferable for a large number of population.

Question 6.
What is cold desert region ? How does polar bear adapt the condition to survive in this region.
Answer:
Those region/area where temperature may fall below-20°C and rocks are stony and have little vegetation are called cold deserts. In India cold desert lies between Ladakh region in north to Lahaul and spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh. To survive in cold desert, Yak has following adapations:

  1. Body is covered by long hair or fur.
  2. The colour of fur is generally black to absorb more and more heat.
  3. Its feet have sharp toes which help it to climb in uneven paths.
  4. A layer of fat is deposited under its skin. It helps yak to survive in extreme cold during winters.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the condition of tropical rainforests ? What type of animals are living in such rain forest ? Write down the main characteristics of these animals.
Answer:
Tropical rainforest. The area near or around the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is called the tropical area. The climate in these areas is hot and humid. Here even in winter the temperature is 15°C and in summer the temperature reaches 40°C. The tropical region receives rainfall throughout the year. The most prominent places in the tropical region are the tropical rainforests that form canopies over the area. Elephants, tigers, leopards, snakes, birds, and insects are the animals found in the rain forest.

Main Characteristics of animals found in the rain forest:

  • Creeping, snakes, lizards, monitors can easily crawl in dense forests.
  • Strong body. A strong body is required to pass through dense forests. So Elephants, gorillas, tigers, leopards, etc. have powerful bodies.
  • Special Senses. Many tropical animals have sharp eyesight, sharp hearing and some animals have skin color similar to surroundings for camouflage.
  • Strong tail
  • Loud voice
  • Sharp eyes
  • Fruit diet
  • Long and big beaks.

Question 2.
Discuss the human activities responsible for climate change.
Answer:
Human activities responsible for climate change are as follows:

  • Population Growth. Consumption of fossil fuels is increasing due to population growth and changes in living standards.
  • Deforestation. Large-scale deforestation is done to meet the needs of the growing population such as houses, buildings, industries, roads, etc.
  • Excavation of mines. Excavation of blind mines has increased floods.
  • Global warming. Due to excessive cutting of trees and burning of fossil fuels the percentage of carbon dioxide increases.
  • This carbon dioxide gas absorbs infrared radiation from sunlight, resulting in a rise in temperature. As a result, the greenhouse effect continues to grow, and as a result, glaciers are melting.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by human capacity?
Answer:
Physical capacity is required not only in games but in every field of life to perform the work. Physical capacity is the quality of the body by which a person can do his daily work without any difficulty, in other words, a person’s capacity to do maximum physical work is called human capacity. Physical capacity is to be related to the person who does a lot of physical work. People who do not know the meaning of physical capacity.

They think that physical strength is required only by the farmers, labours, etc. who do heavy physical work and perform hard duties. Besides this physical capacity is considered with players. Who has to win the medal in games. The level of physical capacity is different in every person. The capacity is different from one another. It depends upon the profession and the work they are doing.

A person who perform hardwork is possessing more capacity then a person who do not perform any work. A person who works in a shop are the one who is clerk has less physical capacity as compare to a sports person. In the same way a football and a kabaddi player as in both the games player do hard work in different way. A person’s physical quantity depends upon different qualities. The physical capacity will increase as much as you work hard.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Question 2.
Write the name of parts of human capacity.
Answer:
Human capacity are as follows :

  • Speed
  • Strength
  • Endurance
  • Flexibility
  • Co-ordination.

Question 3.
What do you understand by speed?
Answer:
The first quality of physical capacity is speed. The ability to do a work in minimum time is called speed. Speed is a very important quality of a physical capacity that has an important role in every game. That player is considered a good player who possesses a great speed. Even in general work, the person who owns the quality of doing a work faster, completes his work earlier than others.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Question 4.
What do you mean by co-ordination? What is the importance of co-ordination for a player?
Answer:
Co-ordination is also a quality of physical capacity. Co-ordination means the relation between mind and the body. The body receives the message sent by the mind and complete the soon no work is possible without the co-ordination of mind and body.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Question 5.
Write in detail about the importance of human capacity.
Answer:

  • The body of a person having physical capacity remains beautiful and stout. His body has good growth and development.
  • Physical systems become able to work properly due to physical capacity, our muscles become able to do heavy work and we can do more work.
  • A person has good control on his body with his physical capacity. There is improvement in co-ordination of his brain and muscles.
  • There is less scope of heart and lung diseases e.g. blood pressure, heart attack, breathing problems, asthama etc. to the person with physical capacity.

Question 6.
What do you mean by exercise? What are the advantages of exercise?
Answer:
Walking, Running, Throwing and Climbing are the basic skills of human being. He uses all the skills in his routine life and perform exercise. Sometime forceful and brisk activities are done to improve these skills. These activities are known as exercise. The objectives of exercise to improve the circulation of blood. It has a great relationship between health and exercise. There are many advantages of exercise which are given below:

  • Muscle becomes strong and flexible.
  • Lungs contract and expand during exercise.
  • CO2 is exhaled in more quantity due to quick contraction and expansion of lungs and more of O2 is inhaled in the body. The blood is purified by this process.
  • Heart becomes healthy. There is increase in the capacity of heart and arteries become strong.
  • Digestive system of a person become more stronger with exercise.
  • Exercise remove the formitive of the body and one gets reduff joint problems.
  • New cell and new blood is produce in body. White blood cells increased and body become strong.
  • Ageing is delayed mental and physical health remain good.
  • By doing exercise health remain good and he away from evil thoughts.
  • Extra fat of the body is burned and his body become healthy, active and stout.
  • Heat is produced in the body while doing exercise and prespiration is caused impurities expell out from the body and skin becomes clear after that body become healthy.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Write the quality of Physical capacity.
(A)Speed
(B) Strength
(C) Courage and flexibility
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 2.
Advantage of Excercise:
(A) Muscle becomes strong
(B) Digestive system becomes strong
(C) Ageing is delayed
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 3.
Write more advantage of Exercise.
(A) Blood remain pure
(B) Heart becomes healthy
(C) White cells in the body increases
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What happens when we walk, jump, run?
Answer:
Exercise.

Question 2.
Which organ exhaled the CO2 from our body?
Answer:
Lungs.

Question 3.
How physical capacity is build?
Answer:
Regular exercise and taking balanced diet.

Question 4.
How our muscles become stronger & flexible?
Answer:
By doing exercise.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Question 5.
What happen by prespiration?
Answer:
Waste products are expelled out from our body.

Question 6.
What is physical capacity?
Answer:
It is the ability of a person which enable him to perform his work smoothly.

Question 7.
Write the name of quality of physical capacity.
Answer:
Speed, Coordination, Endurance, Strength and Flexibility.

Question 8.
Write the importance of physical energy?
Answer:

  • It makes our body healthy & attractive.
  • With the help of physical energy he overcome the control of energy.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the effect of exercise on all parts of the body?
Answer:

  • Body becomes strong & more work is performed.
  • Digestive system work properly.
  • We feel more hungry.

Question 2.
Write any three advantages of exercise
Answer:

  • It removes the illness.
  • While doing exercise precipiration is cause and impurities of the body are expelled.
  • Age of the person is increased.

Question 3.
Write the effect of exercise on lungs.
Answer:

  • Lungs contract & expand during exercise.
  • CO2 is exhaled in more quantity.
  • More of O2 is inhaled by the body.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the achievement of sports person in field of sports?
Answer:
The sports person are creating new record in the fields of sports. Bring loral to their own country. Sports are limited for recreation & intest earlier. But now there are earing lot of money in sports for this very reason they work very harding improve their physical capacity. To won the medal in Olympic are breaking record in other sports. They become star in sports and become very rich by earning money from this sports. Every person intend to create a world record in the field of sports. For this very reason they have to work hard and pay special method of training modem equipment of sports. Experience coach develops all the qualities of a person in a sports. In this way, the sports person prepare himself for the demand of sports market. If is lacking in the physical energy he cannot compete with his opponents.

Question 2.
Write the qualities of physical energy.
Answer:
1. Speed
2. Strength
3. Endurance
4. Flexibility
5. Coordination.

1. Speed:
The first quality of physical capacity is speed. The ability to do a work in minimum time is called speed. Speed is very important quality of physical capacity that has an important role in every game. The player is considered a good player who possesses a great speed.

2. Strength:
The energy produced by the muscles of the body is called strength. It is required to complete any work. Every light or heavy work requires physical capacity to complete it. A strong person can do any light or heavy work easily.

3. Endurance:
The capacity to do work for a long period is called endurance. It is an important part of physical strength that helps a person to continue his work even in the state of fatigue. The long term activities cannot be completed without this quality.

4. Flexibility:
Any player’s performance in the game depends upon the body’s flexibility. It directs relate to the joints of the body. The more the person bends his joints, the more flexibility he owns.

5. Coordination:
It is also an important physical capacity like others. It means the relation between wind and the body. There will be no mistakes if the body receives the messages sent by wind and completes it soon.