Class 10 – Page 9 – PSEB Solutions

Football Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Football Game Rules.

Football Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Write a note on the FootBall playground, Goal Area, Goal, Penalty Area, Corner Area, Lines, and Ball?
Answer:
Football playground:
The football ground will be rectangular. Its Length is a Minimum of 90 M (100 yards), Maximum of 120 M (130 yards). Width Minimum 45 M (50 yards), Maximum 90 M (100 yards).

International Match. Length: Minimum 100 M (110 yards), Maximum 110 M (120 yards) Width: Minimum 64 M (70 yards), Maximum 90 M (100 yards).

Football image 1

Marking:
The playfield should be marked with distinctive lines. These lines should not exceed five inches in width. Long lines are called touch lines and the short lines the goal lines. At each comer of the playfield a flag post is placed. Such a post should not be less than one yard outside the touch line. A circle shall be drawn in the centre of the field of play with a radius of ten yards.

Goal Area:
At each end of the playfield two lines shall be drawn which shall be at right angles to the goal lines. Each line shall extend upto 10 yards in the field, and shall be joined by a line drawn parallel to the goal line. The space encircled by these lines and the goal lines is called the goal area.

Penalty Area:
Two lines shall be drawn at each comer of the field at right angles to the goal lines. These lines shall be at a distance of 18 yards from each goal post, and shall be joined by a line drawn parallel to the goal line. The space enclosed by these lines and the goal lines is called a penalty area.

Goal Post:
Two posts shall be placed in the centre of goal lines at a distance of 8 yards or 24 feet. Their ends are joined by a crossbar. These are 8 high from the ground. The width and the thickness of goal posts and cross bars should not exceed 5″.

Football image 2

Corner Area:
From the post of each corner flag, a quarter circle, with a radius of one yard, will be drawn inside the playground. On all the four comers of the playfield 3 yard high flags are placed. Two flags are placed on either sides of the centre line outside the ground at a distance of 1 yard. The remaining flags are placed on the corner of the ground.

Ball:
The shape of football is spherical. Its upper part is made of leather or of some other approved material. Its circumference is not less than 68.5 cms and not more than 71 cms. Its weight shall be from 14 to 16 ounces. The ball cannot be changed during the play without the permission of the referee.

Question 2.
How many players take part in the game of Foot Ball? Describe the duration of the game, dress, numbers of officials, and goal?
Answer:
Number of players:
A football match is played between two teams. Each team consists of 11 players and 5 extra players. In a match no team is allowed to substitute more than two players. The substituted player is not allowed to take part in the match again.

Dress:
The player can normally wear a shirt or jersey, underpants (knickers), socks and shoes. The colour of the goalkeeper’s shirt or jersey shall be different from that of other players. The shoes are to be worn compulsorily.

Officials:
Among the officials are a referee and two line men. The referee makes the players obey the rules of the game and decides any matter of big dispute. His decision, about what happened in the game and what was the result, is final.

Duration of the Game:
The game is played in two equal durations of 45 minutfes each. An interval of 5 minutes follows the first duration, and of 10 minutes with the consent of the two teams. The start of play. In the beginning of the play the choice of the first kick and the side is made by a toss. The toss winning team is free to choose either side and to kick first.

Score or Goal:
When a ball, according to rules, crosses completely the goal line under the cross bar between the goal posts, a goal is allowed. The team scoring more goals shall be declared the winner. In case, no goal is scored or an equal number of goals are scored, the game shall be termed a draw. But if the tournament is taking place as per league rules, then in case of a draw both the teams shall be awarded 1 point each.

Golden Goal

If the football match ends in draw, the extra time for play will be given of which duration of play will be 15-15 minute each whenever during the period of a goal is scored by a team the match ends there and then. In case there is no result during the play, then 5-5 penalty strokes are made by each team till the winner is decided.

The Ball In and Out of play

The ball is out of play as a result of the following reasons:

If the ball crosses the goal line on the ground or in the air.
When the referee has stopped the game.
When the ball goes out after having touched the goal post, cross bar or comer flag post.
When the ball goes out of the goal line, in the goal posts under the crossbar, provided the ball is not thrown with hand or arm.
When a player played the ball when the ball was at a lesser distance than him from the goal line of his rival.

The ball in the play

The ball remains in the play from the beginning to the end, but when it was in these situations:

If the ball bounces back after having struck the goal post, the crossbar comer and flag.
From a wrong play to the whistling of the umpire.
When the ball strikes the umpire or line man when he is in the playfield.
Till the sound of the whistle from outside the playfield.
The game continues despite any infringement of a rule until the umpire stops the game.

Formation of Players:
The formation of players in football matches varies. Normally, it is 1-2-3-5. But in the European countries it is as follows:

Football image 3

The players continue to change the formation during the play according to the need.

Question 3.
What do you understand by off side, Free kick, Throw in, Penalty kick, Corner kick, Goal kick?
Answer:
(1) Off-side:
A player is off-side when he is in the half of his opponents or their goal line, and when there are no two opponents behind him. Even in such cases he is not off side if he is in the following situations:

When he is in his own half of the field of play.
When the ball last touches him or he plays with it.
When he receives the ball from goal kick, throw-in or comer kick or he is thrown down by the referee.
When the ball has been played by the opponent. For the violation of this rule, a free kick will be awarded to the players of the opposing team from the place of offence.

(2) Free Kick:
Free kick is of two types:
Direct kick and Indirect kick. When a player is taking a direct or indirect kick, opposing players should remain at a distance of 10 yards. The direct kick is that from which a goal can be scored direct. Indirect kick is that from which a goal cannot be scored unless the ball has been touched by any other player. In case of violation of this rule, the defensive team is awarded an indirect free kick from the spot of infringement.

(3) Throw-in:
When the ball passes over the touch line, either on the ground or in the air, it is thrown inside from the point where it has crossed the line. One player of the offending team throws the ball inside the playfield from the point where the ball has crossed the line.

The thrower at the time of delivering the ball must face the field. Either of his foot should be on or outside the touch line. The thrower will make use of both of his hands, and throw the ball from behind and over his head. He cannot play the ball until it has been touched or played by any other player.

If the throw-in is not proper, the opposing team takes the throw-in. If the thrower touches the ball before the ball has been touched or played by any other player, the opposing team is awarded a free indirect kick.

(4) Penalty Kick:
This kick is taken from the penalty mark. When it is being taken, only the player taking the kick and the opposing goalkeeper remain in the field of play. This mark will be at least 10 yards away. In order to complete the penalty kick the half time or the full time may be extended.

When a player is taking the penalty kick, the goalkeeper should remain standing at one place in the goal area. The goalkeeper can move after the kick has been taken. If such infringement takes place, the kick will be taken again. If, for some reason, the player taking the penalty kick misses it, then the defender is asked to take the kick from a distance of 16 yards.

If the defending team violates the rules and a goal has not been scored, the kick shall be taken again. In case of infringement of the rule by the opposing team, then the kick shall be taken again even though the goal has been Scored. If the infringement of the law is made by the player taking the kick, a player of the opposing team shall take a free hit on the place of infringement.

(5) Corner kick:
When the ball passes over the goal line and it has last been played by one of the players of the defending team, a member of the offending team is asked to take comer kick. The player of the opposing team takes the comer kick in a quarter area of the nearest flag post. Until the comer kick is taken, the players of the opposing team shall remain away at a distance of 10 yards. The kicker cannot touch the ball until it has been touched or played by another player.

Football image 4

(6) Goal Kick:
When the ball passes over the goal line (not over the goal posts), and it is being played by the opposing team, then the defending team takes the kick outward the penalty area. When the kick is being taken, the players of the opposing team shall remain outside the penalty area. If the ball does not go out of the penalty area and does not reach the playground direct, the kick shall be re-taken. The kicker cannot touch it until it has been touched or played by another player.

Fouls and Offences in the Game of Football

(a) If a player intentionally commits the following offences or infringement of rules, the opposing team shall be awarded an indirect free kick from the place of infringement:

Kicks or attempts to kick an opponent.
Jumps, pushes or strikes a blow at an opponent.
Charges an opponent in a violent or dangerous manner.
Charges an opponent from behind.
Holds an opponent or plays by holding on to his clothes.
Hurts or attempts to hurt an opponent.
Obstructs an opponent or throws him by the use of his legs or attempts to throw him.
Pushes an opponent with his hand or any part of his arm.
Holds the ball in his hand.

If a player of the defending team commits any of these offences in the penalty area, the attacking team is given penalty kick.

(b) If a player, commits the following offences, the opposing team shall be awarded an indirect free kick from the place of infringement:

When he plays the ball in dangerous way.
When the ball is away and he charges the other player with shoulder.
While playing, he deliberately obstructs the player of the opposing team.
To attack the goalkeeper, except:

- When he is obstructing an opponent.
- When he is holding the ball.
- When the ball goes out of his goal area.

5. (a) When as a goalkeeper, he takes more than four steps without throwing the ball on the ground.

Football image 5

(b) When as a goalkeeper he indulges in such tactics as hold up a game and waste the time, and tries to give undue advantage to his team.

he indulges in abuses and plays foul.
he misbehaves even on being warned.
he plays foul or misbehaves. In that case, the referee can send him off the field for the whole duration of the game.

Question 4.
Describe some important Technique of Football?
Answer:
The important Technique of Football

Kicking:
Kicking is a way of moving the ball towards the required direction with the help of feet, with the required speed keeping in view that the ball reaches its destination. In the art of kicking, accuracy, speed, direction and distance are maintained not by left or right foot but by both feet.

The most important point in the training of the players is about the need of playing the game with both feet. It is easy to teach the young new players how to play with both feet. Without it, it is difficult for a player to reach any level of success in the game.

To kick with the inside of feet.
To kick with the outside of feet.

When the ball is kicked within a short distance these two variations are put into use. The ball moves slowly but a great improvement is brought about, as result of which this method is often put into use at the time of aiming towards the goals.

Football image 6

Half Kick:
When the ball comes bouncing to the player or is in the air, there is then a sort of instability not only about its direction of bouncing because of the level of football ground but also about its height and speed. The most effective way of making it clear is the right time, co-ordination of the movements of kicking feet and the raising of the ball upto a proper height.

Football image 7

Over head kick:
This kick is taken with a three-fold purpose

(a) to deflect the ball from the opposing player
(b) to move the ball towards the direction of the kick, and
(c) to turn the ball back towards the direction from where it came. Over-head kick is an improved form of kick, and is generally taken in case the ball is bouncing.

To Make Pass:
The action of making ‘passes’ in football is the basis of team work. The pass increases the co-ordination among the team and adds to the growth of team work. Connected with the condition of the play a ‘pass’ is an evidence of the team play and hence is a basic element for which special time and attention should be given during the training and practice of the team. To achieve perfection at goals a team pass is a right type of kick by an individual player.

It is said that a successful pass is better than kicks. To give pass is an important part of inter-relatedness. It is to harmonize the complex structure of mutual movement between players with individual intelligence at the time of attack and defence during the play. In giving pass, one who makes ‘pass’ the ball and the one who receives the ‘pass’ are involved.

Making passes are normally categorised into long and short passes:

(a) Long passes:
These passes are made use of when there is rapid movement in the game. In such situations long passes prove to be very useful. In such passes, the ball can be moved both sideways and backward. In all long passes, the upper part of the foot or kick is used. The long passes strengthen the defence and facilitate short passes.

(b) Short passes:
Short passes are used for a distance of 15 yards or so, and they are more quick and accurate than long passes.

Push pass:
The use of push pass is made when the opponent is not very near. It is also made to throw the ball in the goal area at a close distance and to throw the ball towards the sides.

Low-pass:
It is shorter than push-pass. In it, the ball is raised high and bounced. It is used to cross the ball over the head of the opponent when he is quite near or is trying to take the throw-ball.

The Outer-parts of Feet-Flick or Jab Pass

In contrast to the other two passes, the flick pass is used to flick or push the ball, having turned the feet inward. This type of pass is used to give pass towards the back while keeping the ball in possession and dribbling it.

Trapping:
Trapping is the basis of controlling the ball. The trapping of the ball means preventing the ball from going away from the player. It is not merely an activity of stopping the ball or making it stationary but also an essential technique used to take the ball in firm hold. Stopping the ball is first step of ball control, and the second part which the player brings into practice for his own benefit is also essential.

Note:
The training of traps should be given for
(a) dribbling ball and
(b) bouncing ball.

Football image 8

Trap with the Under-foot:
Such a type of trapping is good if you have no hurry and enough freedom, and nobody is beside you.

Trap with Inner Parts of Feet

It is most effective and commonly used trap. Not only does this trap enable a player to trap the ball but also helps him in moving towards any direction. This trap is particularly good for the ball coming from a side or a comer. If the ball comes straight, the body is moved in the direction in which the ball is to go.

Football image 9

Trap with the Outer Part of Foot

It is like the earlier one but it is difficult for in it one has to keep the balance as the weight of the player’s body turns outside and off the centre.

Pet or Chest-trap

When the ball is above the waist and cannot be effectively trapped with feet, it is taken on the abdomen or chest or as it bounces from the ground.

Football image 10

Head-trap

It is meant for those experienced players who are well-versed in the foundation of ‘heading’.

Football image 11

Important Information About the Football Game

The length of the ground = 100 yards to 130 yards 100 metre to 120 metre
The Breadth of the ground = 50 yards to 100 yards 45 meter to 90 metre
The shape of football ground = square
Number of players in one team = 11 and 5 substitutes
Circumference of the ball = 27° to 28°
Weight of the ball = 14 Aunce to 18 aunce
Duration of the match = 45-45 minutes of two half
Interval time = 15 minutes
Substitution of players in one match = 3 players
Official of the match = One table official, one referee, two line man,
Height of the goal post = 2.44 m
Height of the corner flag = 5
The match is played between two teams. Each team has eleven players. The total number of players in a team are 16, out of which only 11 play. Among these players there is a goalkeeper. 5 players are kept in reserve as substitutes.
During the play a team cannot substitute more than two players. A substituted player is not allowed to play again.
The duration of the game will be 45-5-45 minutes. The interval will be of 5 minutes.
After the interval the teams change their ends/sides.
By giving pass to each other on the fixed spot on the centre, line, that players start the game. Ends are decided by toss.
One table official, a referee and two line men are officials for the match.
The dress of the goalkeeper is different from that of his team.
The player should not wear anything which may prove to be dangerous to other players.
The game stops when the ball crosses the goal or side line.
The referee can ask for the stoppage of the game for some reason.

Gymnastics Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Gymnastics Game Rules.

Gymnastics Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Gymnastics is an ancient sports in 2600 BC. Gymnastics exercises used to be performed in China but the actual development started in Greece and Rome. The word ‘Gymnastics’ is derived from the Greek word ‘Gymnos’ which means “Naked body”, actually exercises done by naked body is called Gymnastics. These exercises used to be performed to keep the body healthy.

The Greek laid down the great emphasis on Gymnastics. The spartans were very popular in providing Gymnastics training for their youth. Boys and girls were expected to be good Gymnastics in those days. With the fall of both civilizations i.e. Greek and Roman, Gymnastics disappeared from these civilizations.

The Great Grandfather of Gymnastics John Guts Muths introduced Gymnastics in the Persian schools. In this way Germany rediscovered Gymnastics and owing to that the International Gymnastics Federation was constituted in 1881. In 1884 the first Gymnastics competition was conducted in Modem Olympics which were held in Athens in 1896.

Gymnastics for men was included but later on Gymnastics for women was included in 1928 Olympic games in 1974. In Asian games which were held in Tehran, Gymnastics was made one of the sports. The first world cup of Gymnastics was held in 1975. In these days Gymnastics is an attractive, fascinating and very popular sport.

Latest General Rules of Gymnastics

1. Men compete in six events

floor exercises
vaulting horse.
Pommelled horse
Roman Rings
Horizontal bars and parallel bars. Women compete in four events i.e. vaulting horse, uneven bars, balancing beam and floor exercises.

2. Gymnasts present themselves to a Judge before and after their event. They start their exercise when the signal is given to them. If during the exercise they fall, they have 30 seconds to remount and continue.

3. Regarding team competition, size Gymnastics of each perform is compulsory and an optional exercise on each apparatus. The five highest scores are added to give the team total.

4. A gymnast must wear proper kit. He may wear bandages or socks. He/She must starts the exercise within 30 seconds. When the signal is given by a coach another gymnast may assist a gymnast into hanging position on horizontal bar and Roman Rings.

Question 1.
Write about the Sports Equipment of Gymnastics.
Answer:
Specification of Playfield and related Sports Equipment

(A) Equipment for men
1. Floor = 12 M × 12 M
2. Parallel Bars

Length of bars = 3500 m.m.
Width of bars = 420-520 m.m.
Height of bars = 1750 m.m.

Gymnastics image 1

3. Horizontal Bar

Diameter of Bar = 28 m.m.
Length of Bar = 2400 m.m.
Height of Bar = 2550 to 2700 m.m.
Diameter of uprights = 50-60 m.m.
Diameter of Tension work = 5.6 m.m.

Gymnastics image 2

4. Pommel Horse

Length of Pommel Horse = 1600 m.m.
Width of Pommel Horse = 350 m.m.
Height from the floor = 1100 m
Height of Pommel = 120 m.m.
Distance between Pommel = 400-450 m.m.

Gymnastics image 3

5. Roman Rings

Diameter (Grip) = 28 m.m.
Height of stand from floor = 5500 m.m.
Length of leather straps = 700 m.m.
Thickness = 4 m.m.
Inside diameter of Ring = 180 m.m.
Height of the rings from floor = 2500 m.m.
Width = 35 m.m.

Gymnastics image 4

6. Vaulting Horse

Height of vaulting horse = 1350 m.m.
Adjustable steps in the intervals = 50 m.m.
Length = 1600 m.m.

Gymnastics image 5

(B) Equipment of Women

1. Floor = 12 m × 12 m
2. Vaulting Horse
Height of Vaulting Horse = 1250 m.m.
Adjustable steps in the Intervals = 100-150 m.m.
Length = 1600 m.m.

3. Balancing Beam

Length of Beam = 5000 m.m.
Width of Beam = 100 m.m.
Height of Beam = 1200 m.m.
Adjustable = 700 – 1200 m.m.

Gymnastics image 6

4. Uneven bars

Length of uneven bars = 2400 m.m.
Height of the bars from floor = 2300 m.m. and 1500 m.m.
Distance between bars = 580-900 m.m.
Diameter of uprights = 50-60 m.m.
Thickness of uprights = 30 m.m.

Gymnastics image 7
Gymnastics image 8

Important Tournaments

Olympic Games
Asian Games
World Cup
All India Inter-University Gymnastics Championship
National Championship
Federation Cup
School National
China Cup

Sports Personalities

Indian Sports Personalities

Sham Lai
Km Kripali Patel
Dr. Kalpana Debnalt
Montar Debnalt
Anju Dua
Sunita Sharma

International Sports Personalities

Olga Korbut
Nadia Comaneci
Nelli Kim
Ludmilla Tourscheva
Dov. Lupi
Karin Janz
Elvra Saadi

Question 2.
Describe the fundamental skills of Gymnastics?
Answer:
Fundamental Skills of Gymnastics For Men

(A) Parallel Bars

Up start
Front start
Shoulder stand
Hand stand
Hand stand with 180° Turn
Hand stand to Front turn on the shoulder
Backward Roll 8. Hand stand to cast wheel

(B) Horizontal Bar

Up start with over grip
Up start with under grip
Short circle
One leg circle with heel foot
Heel foot
Swing through vault

Front Support Position
Single Leg Half Circle
Double Leg Half Circle
Front Scissors

(D) Roman Rings

Up start
Back circle to back hang
Muscle up
Back level
Back uprise
Dislocation
Back uprise with L-position.

(E) Vaulting Horse

Straddle vault
Squat vault
Cast wheel
Hand stand with cast wheel
Hand spring.

(F) Floor Exercises

Forward Roll to Hand stand
Backward Roll to Hand stand
Forward Roll to Head spring
Hand spring to Dive Roll
Round off to Flick Flak
One Leg Hand Spring
Hand stand to Forward Roll with straight legs

Fundamental Skills of Gymnastics For Women

(A) Balancing Beam

Gallop step with Balance
Scissors Jump
Forward Roll
Backward Roll
Cast wheel
Bridge
Balance
Dismount

(B) Vaulting Horse

Spit vault
Hand spring
Squat vault

Swing on Upper Bar
Back uprise
One Leg Forward Circle
One Leg Backward Circle
Cross Balancing
Hand Spring.

(D) Floor Exercises

Forward Roll to Hand stand
Backward Roll to Hand stand
Round off
Slow back Hand spring
Split Sitting
Slow Hand spring
Hand spring
Head spring

Points In Gymnastics

For each gymnastic exercise, there are points from 0 to 10, and each point is sub-divided into 10 parts. If the panel of the judges is of five members, the minimum and maximum points are not considered, and an average of mid three points is taken. If the panel is composed of three judges, the marks of three are taken for average.

Decisions:
The following points are important so far as decisions are concerned:

Five or at least three judges are kept till the end of each event of the competition. One of these judges is considered to be Chief Judge.
The judges make an assessment of the feats of other players on the basis of the feats of the first players on eveiy apparatus. They also consult one another for exercises so that there may be a common base of assessment.
Thereafter, they decide independently and do not consult one another except in very special circumstances.
The result shall be decided from the average of points awarded by three judges.
If there is difference in the points awarded by two judges, the points of Chief Judge are also considered.
It is the duty of the Chief Judge to make a compromise between the other two judges in case of dispute. If the other Judges do not reach a compromise, the Chief Judge shall declare his verdict.

Question 3.
Write brief Rules of Gymnastics?
Answer:
General Rules of Gymnastics

Each team consists of 6 players. Each player participates in all events. For team championship, the performance of the best five players is taken into account.
The substitution of players during the competition is not allowed.
The judges of events and teams should reach the ground in time.
If a player meets with an accident or falls ill, the captain should immediately call the doctor and get his advice.
The game may be stopped for half an hour so that the same player recovers and joins the team. If his condition does not improve, he is removed from the game and the game restarts.
Team competitions shall be held in two parts-first for compulsory exercises and second for optional exercises.
The duration of these competitions shall be determined beforehand, and the competitions shall be held according to the fixed schedule.
Only those players, who have taken part in all events of the team competition, are allowed to participate in the final.
Only members of the jury, contestants and their technical managers, secretaries, members of the watch and ward staff looking after the equipment and playground are allowed to be present at the place of competitions.
Each player is entitled for two attempts on Long-Horse vault. The best performance shall be credited.
Optional or voluntary exercises cannot be repeated on any apparatus.
No team can use its own apparatus. It is the duty of the organisers to arrange for the apparatus.
The organisers are to arrange for the apparatus,
If there is difference in the points awarded by judges, the verdict of the Chief Judge shall be considered.
Each player is given two tries (chances) during the competition. If he does not touch vaulting horse or Beam Balance, he is given another chance. But if he touches any of these, a foul is awarded.
There can be no substitution of players during the play.

Points to Remember

For each gymnastic exercise, there are points for 0 to 10, and each point is further divided into ten parts.
The decision of the jury is final. No appeal can be made against it.
A team participating in a gymnastic contest is composed of 6 players. The team participating in School Mini National Games is, however, composed of 6 players.
Players cannot be substituted after the competition has started.
Only those players, who have taken part in all events of team competition, can participate in the final.
If a player gets hurt or feels sick during competition, his team can wait for thirty minutes for his condition to improve.
If a player leaves the team without the permission of the jury, he will not be allowed to rejoin it.
For team championship, the performance of the best five players is considered.

Important Information About the Gymnastics Game

Number of players in Gymnastics = 8
Substitution is allowed or not = no substitution
Decision of the jury = Final
Time for waiting of player = 30 minutes
A player can whether = no leave the court or not
To decide the woman the number of players are wanted = 6 players
Points are given = 0 to ten
Officials for competition = Three to five
Competition for boys =
- Parallel bar
- Vaulting horse
- Ground Gymnastic
- Horizontal Bar
- Roman Ring
- Pommel horse
Competition for girls =
- Beam Balance
- Ground Gym
- Uneven Bar
- Vaulting horse

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Winter Vegetables

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 4 Winter Vegetables Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 4 Winter Vegetables

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Winter Vegetables Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How many vegetables should be consumed per person per day for the maintenance of good health?
Answer:
284 gram.

Question 2.
Which type of soil is best for potato cultivation?
Answer:
Sandy loam soil.

Question 3.
Name the types of fertilizers.
Answer:
Fertilizers are of two types-Chemical and organic.

Question 4.
Write the name of black carrot variety.
Answer:
Punjab Black beauty.

Question 5.
When is Pusa Chetki variety of radish sown?
Answer:
April to August.

Question 6.
Write the name of two early maturing varieties of pea.
Answer:
Matar ageta-6, Arkel.

Question 7.
Give the ideal time of broccoli nursery sowing.
Answer:
Mid August to mid September.

Question 8.
Name two late maturing varieties of potato.
Answer:
Kufri sindhuri and Kufri badshah.

Question 9.
How much seed is required for raising one acre nursery of cabbage?
Answer:
200 to 250 gram.

Question 10.
Write the name of improved varieties of cauliflower.
Answer:
Pusa snowball-1, Pusa snowball K-l, Giant snowball.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Define vegetables.
Answer:
That soft, juicy, fleshy, part of a plant, e.g. flower, fruit, stem, root, leaves etc. which can be consumed uncooked, in the form of salad or by cooking is called vegetable.

Question 2.
Which vegetables are grown through transplantation?
Answer:
Those vegetables are grown through transplantation, which can tolerate the shock of transplanting. Some of the vegetables which can be grown through transplantation are cabbage, Chinese cabbage, onion, lettuce, cauliflower etc.

Question 3.
How vegetable cultivation is useful for livelihood security?
Answer:
Vegetable crops mature in short duration and we can get two to four crops in a year. The yield of vegetable crops is 5-10 times than the yield of paddy-wheat, thus income is also high which we get on daily basis. Cultivation of vegetable is a good source of employment.

Question 4.
How to control weeds in pea?
Answer:
Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre or Tafalon 50 WP 500 gram per acre before the emergence of weeds within two days of sowing. Dissolve these herbicides in about 200 litre of water and spray in the field.

Question 5.
How to control weeds in potato?
Answer:
To control weeds in potato use stomp 30 EC one litre for one acre or arelon 75 EC 500 gram for an acre or sencor 70 EC 200 gram for one acre. Dissolve herbicide in 150 litre water and spray before the emergence of weeds and after first irrigation.

Question 6.
Give seed rate/acre and spacing in carrot.
Answer:
Seed rate: 4-5 kg per acre.
Spacing: Row spacing should be 45 cm.

Question 7.
Write improved varieties and seed rate/acre of potato.
Answer:
Improved varieties: Kufri Surya, Kufri Pukhraj, Kufri Jyoti, Kufri Pushkar, Kufri Sindhuri, Kufri Badshah.
Seed rate: 12-18 quintal seed per acre.
Sowing time: For Autumn season last of September to mid October and for spring season first fortnight of January.

Question 8.
Write ideal time of planting and seed rate/acre in Chinese cabbage.
Answer:
Sow nursery in mid September and transplanting the seedling in field in mid October. Seed rate for one acre of nursery is 200 grams and 1 kg per acre for direct sowing.

Question 9.
Which type of soil is best suited for vegetables cultivation?
Answer:
Vegetables can be grown in different type of soils. But sandy loam or clayey loam soils are best suited for cultivation of vegetables. For root crops like carrot, radish, turnip, potato etc., sandy loam soil is best suited.

Question 10.
Write improved varieties of Chinese cabbage.
Answer:
Chini sarson-1, Saag sarson.

Question 1.
How radish can be raised around the year?
Answer:

Variety of Radish	Time of Sowing	Maturity
Pusa himani	January to February	February to April
Punjab Pasand	Second fortnight of March	End of April-May
Pusa Chetki	April to August	May to September
Punjab safed mulli-2	Mid September to October	October to December
Japanese White	November to December	December to January

Question 2.
What is the importance of vegetables in human diet?
Answer:
Vegetables play very important role in the human diet. Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals and vitamins etc. which are essential for human health. According to dieticians, an adult needs 284 grams of vegetables daily. Out of this quantity 114 gram vegetables should be leafy vegetables, 85 grams should be root vegetables and 85 grams other vegetables. Vegetables can be taken uncooked and cooked. In India maximum population is vegetarian. Therefore vegetables are very important in our diet.

Question 3.
How to save winter vegetables from the attack of insect-pests and diseases?
Answer:

By ploughing in summer many of the insects, fungi and other nemotodes of soil are killed.
If suitable crop rotation is adopted theft potato and peas can be saved from many diseases.
By sowing early varieties and insects can be removed by mechanical method
Destroy the diseased plants to save other plants from diseases.
By treating the seeds with captan or thiram and other suitable chemicals plants can be prevented from diseases and attack of insects-pests.
Savin, Fame insecticides can be used to get rid of some insects like caterpillars and beetles. Sapsucking insects and aphid can be controlled by using Rogor, Metasystox and malathian.

Question 4.
Describe briefly the early cultivation of peas.
Answer:

Improved varieties: Early sowing varieties are Matara ageta – 6 and 7 and Arkel. Main season varieties are Mithi Phali
Yield: 20-24 quintal per acre for early varieties. For main season varieties 47-55 quintal per acre.
Climate: Cool climate
Time of Sowing: Mid-October to mid November.
Seed rate: 45 kg per acre for early maturing and 30 kg per acre for main season. If sowing for the first time, inoculate with Rhizobium.
Spacing: 30×7.5 cm. for early and 30×10 cm for main season varieties.
Irrigation: First irrigation after 15-20 days of sowing second at flowering stage, third at pod forming stage.
Weed control: Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre or Tafalon 50 WP 500 gram per acre before the emergence of
weeds that i§ after two days of sowing: Dissolve these herbicides in about 200 litre of water and spray in the field.
Harvesting: Harvesting should be done at proper edible maturity stage.

Question 5.
Write ideal time of nursery sowing, seed rate/acre and spacing for early, mid and late season cauliflower.
Answer:
1. Sowing nursery:

Early Cauliflower. June to July
Main season. August to mid September
Late maturity. October to first week of November

2. Seed rate:

For early sowing 500 gram per acre
For others 250 gram per acre.

3. Spacing: 45 x 30 cm

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Winter Vegetables Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
According to dieticians, an adult should take gram of vegetable.
(a) 500
(b) 285
(c) 387
(d) 197.
Answer:
(b) 285

Question 2.
Root vegetables are:
(a) carrot
(b) radish
(c) turnip
(d) peas.
Answer:
(d) peas.

Question 3.
Vegetables which are grown by transplanting are:
(a) Cauliflower
(b) Broccoli
(c) Onion
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

Question 4.
Rabi vegetables are:
(a) carrot
(b) peas
(c) cauliflower
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

Question 5.
…………… is not a variety of radish.
(a) Pussa Chetki
(b) Japanese white
(c) Pusa snowball
(d) Pusa Pas and.
Answer:
(c) Pusa snowball

Question 6.
Varieties of potato are:
(a) Kufri surya
(b) Kufri Pushkar
(c) Kufri Jyoti
(d) All.
Answer:
(c) Kufri Jyoti

Question 7.
Which insecticide is used to protect crop against sap sucking insect
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Captan
(c) Stomp
(d) Malathion.
Answer:
(d) Malathion.

True or False

1. Palam Smridhi is a variety of Broccoli.
Answer:
True

2. Japan white is a variety of radish.
Answer:
True

3. There are two types of fertilizers.
Answer:
True

4. Punjab black beauty is a variety of carrot.
Answer:
True

5. Pusa snowball-1 is a variety of cauliflower.
Answer:
True

Fill in the blanks:

1. Pusa Himani is a variety of …………….. .
Answer:
radish

2. Kufri Sindhoori is a variety of …………… .
Answer:
potato

3. Average yield for main season varieties of pea …………….. is quintal per acre (q/acre)
Answer:

4. Pea seed is treated ………… with culture to get more yield.
Answer:
Rhizobium

5. Arkel is a variety of …………… .
Answer:
pea.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
According to scientists, what is the required quantity of vegetables for an adult in grams for good health?
Answer:
284 gram.

Question 2.
What is the future of vegetables in our country?
Answer:
Bright future.

Question 3.
How much time is required for maturity of vegetables?
Answer:
Very less, we can get 2-4 crops in a year.

Question 4.
What is the yield of vegetables as compared to paddy-wheat crop cycle?
Answer:
5-10 time more than paddy-wheat cycle.

Question 5.
Which type of soil is best suited for cultivation of vegetables?
Answer:
Sandy loam to clayey loam soil.

Question 6.
What type of soil is best suited for root vegetables?
Answer:
Sandy loam soil.

Question 7.
How many type of fertilizers are there? .
Answer:
Two types.

Question 8.
Which are the two types of fertilizers?
Answer:
Chemical and organic.

Question 9.
What should be the quality of seed?
Answer:
It should be of improved variety and disease free.

Question 10.
Which nutrients are found in fertilizers?
Answer:
Nitrogen, phosphorus and potash etc.

Question 11.
What are the methods of sowing seeds?
Answer:
Direct sowing and transplanting.

Question 12.
Write name of crops which can be directly sown.
Answer:
Potato, carrot, fenugreek, corriander etc.

Question 13.
Which vegetables are grown by transplanting?
Answer:
Chinese cabbage, cauliflower, broccoli, onion, lettuce etc.

Question 14.
What happens if we plough the Held in summer for cultivation of vegetables?
Answer:
Insects, fungi and nemotodes are removed from the soil.

Question 15.
Which chemical can be used to treat the seed of vegetables?
Answer:
Captan or thiram.

Question 16.
Which pesticide is used to control the caterpillars and beetles in vegetables?
Answer: Savin, fame.

Question 17.
Which pesticides are used to control sap sucker insects and aphid?
Answer:
Rogor, Metasystox, Malathion.

Question 18.
Name Rabi Vegetables.
Answer:
Carrot, radish, cabbage, cauliflower, potato, peas etc.

Question 19.
Which variety of carrot can tolerate more heat?
Answer:
Desi variety.

Question 20.
Name varieties of carrot.
Answer:
Punjab black beauty, Punjab carrot red.

Question 21.
What is the colour of PC 34 of carrot and also give its yield?
Answer:
red colour, 200 quintal per acre.

Question 22.
Where is carrot sown?
Answer:
On the ridges.

Question 23.
What should be the spacing between ridges for carrot?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 24.
What is seed rate for carrot?
Answer:
4-5 kg per acre.

Question 25.
What is the harm of over irrigation of carrots?
Answer:
Carrots do not acquire proper colour.

Question 26.
What is the time of maturity of carrots?
Answer:
90-100 days depending on variety.

Question 27.
(a) Name varieties of radish.
(b) Write the name of one improved variety of Raddish.
Answer:
(a) Punjab pasand, Pusa chetki, Pusa himani, Japanese white, Punjab safed muli-2 etc.
(b) Punjab Pasand.

Question 28.
What is the yield of radish?
Answer:
105-215 quintal per acre.

Question 29.
What is seed rate for radish?
Answer:
4-5 kg seed per acre.

Question 30.
Where is radish sown? What is the spacing?
Answer:
On the ridges, spacing is 45 x 7.5 cm.

Question 31.
What is the time for maturity of radish?
Answer:
45-60 days.

Question 32.
Name early varieties of peas.
Answer:
Ageta matar-6 and 7, Arkel.

Question 33.
What is the yield of early varieties of peas?
Answer:
20-24 quintal per acre.

Question 34.
Name main season varieties of peas.
Answer:
Mithi phali, Punjab-89.

Question 35.
‘Mithi Phali’ is the improved variety of which vegetable?
Answer:
Peas.

Question 36.
What is the yield of main season varieties of peas?
Answer:
47-55 quintal per acre.

Question 37.
Which variety of pea can be taken with its peel?
Answer:
Mithi Phali.

Question 38.
What is suitable time of sowing for peas?
Answer:
Mid October to mid November.

Question 39.
What is seed rate for peas?
Answer:
For early varieties 45 kg and for main season crop it is 30 kg per acre.

Question 40.
Write about spacing for peas.
Answer:
For early maturity varieties, spacing should be 30×7.5 cm and for main season variety it is 30×10 cm.

Question 41.
Pea seed is inoculated with what?
Answer:
Pea seed is inoculated with Rhizobium.

Question 42.
What is the suitable temperature for cultivation of cauliflowers?
Answer:
15-20 degree centigrade.

Question 43.
Name main season variety of cauliflower.
Answer:
Giant snowball.

Question 44.
Name late maturity varieties of cauliflower.
Answer:
Pusa snowball-1, pusa snowball K-1

Question 45.
What is the time of maturity for cauliflower?
Answer:
It takes 90-100 days after transplanting.

Question 46.
What is the time for transplanting of cabbage in the fields?
Answer:
September to October.

Question 47.
What is the seed rate for cabbage?
Answer:
200-250 gram per acre.

Question 48.
What is the spacing for cabbage?
Answer:
For early maturing varieties it is 45×45 cm and for late varieties it is 60×45 cm.

Question 49.
(a) Name the varieties of Broccoli and give its yield.
(b) Punjab Brocoli is the improved variety of which vegetable?
Answer:
(a) Punjab Broccoli-1 and Palam Smridhi average yield is 70 quintal per acre.
(b) It is similar to cauliflower-It is improved variety of Brocoli.

Question 50.
Give seed rate for Broccoli.
Answer:
250 gram per acre.

Question 51.
What is the suitable time for nursery raising for Broccoli?
Answer:
Mid August to mid September.

Question 52.
What is the time for nursery raising for Chinese cabbage?
Answer:
Mid September for nursery raising and mid October for transplanting.

Question 53.
What is seed rate for Chinese cabbage?
Answer:
For nursery it is 200 gram per acre and for direct sowing it is one kg per acre.

Question 54.
How many cuttings can be taken for Chinese cabbage?
Answer:
Total six cuttings.

Question 55.
Name early varieties of potato.
Answer:
Kufri surya, Kufri pukhraj.

Question 56.
In how many days early varieties of potato mature?
Answer:
90-100 days.

Question 57.
What is the yield of early varieties of potato?
Answer:
100-125 quintal per acre. .

Question 58.
Name middle season varieties of potato.
Answer:
Kufri Jyoti, Kufri Pushkar.

Question 59.
In how many days middle season varieties of potato mature? Give yield also.
Answer:
Mature in 100-110 days. Yield is 120-170 quintal per acre.

Question 60.
Name late maturing varieties of potato. .
Answer:
Kufri Sindhuri, Kufri Badshah.

Question 61.
In how many days late varieties of potato mature and what is the yield?
Answer:
110-120 days for maturity. Yield is 120-130 quintal per acre.

Question 62.
What is ridge spacing and tuber spacing?
Answer:
60 cm, 20 cm.

Question 63.
How should potato be sown?
Answer:
By cutting the seed.

Question 64.
‘Kufri Pukhraj’ is the variety of which vegetable?
Answer:
Potato.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is vegetable?
Answer:
That soft, juicy, fleshy part of plant e.g. flower, fruit, stem, root, leaves etc. which can be consumed uncooked or cooked is called vegetable.

Question 2.
Which nutrients are found in vegetables?
Answer:
Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins etc. which are essential for body.

Question 3.
Every adult should take 284 grams of vegetables, what is the proportion of different categories of vegetables in it?
Answer:
284 gram of vegetable is divided as below-114 gram leafy vegetables, 85 gram ropt vegetables, 85 gram other vegetables.

Question 4.
What are the benefits of organic manure or fertilizer?
Answer:
Organic manure keep the soil healthy, physical and chemical state of the soil remains balanced. Soil remains soft and well aerated.

Question 5.
Which vegetable can be grown by transplanting?
Answer:
Those vegetables which can tolerate the shock of transplanting e.g. cabbage, broccoli, onion etc.

Question 6.
What is the role of chemicals in preventing insects and diseases of winter crops?
Answer:
Seed is treated with captan or thiram which help in prevention of insects and diseases. Some pesticides are fame, savin etc. can control the caterpillars and beetles. Juice sucking insects and aphid can be controlled by using Rogor, Metasystox and malathian.

Question 7.
Write about irrigation of carrot.
Answer:
Carrot needs 3-4 irrigations. First irrigation is applied immediately after sowing and second irrigation is applied after 10-12 days.

Question 8.
How do we use radish in our diet?
Answer:
Radish is used in our diet as salad, it can be cooked and also used to prepare stuffed pranthas.

Question 9.
Name main varieties of radish, grown in Punjab, also write yield.
Answer:
Punjab Pasand, Punjab safed muli-2, pusa chetki are main varieties of radish which are sown in Punjab and yield is 105-215 quintal per acre.

Question 10.
Write about irrigation for radish.
Answer:
First irrigation is applied immediately after sowing and then in summer after 6-7 days and in winter after 10-12 days depending on the soil type.

Question 11.
If peas are sown for the first time, with what pea seeds are inoculated?
Answer:
Pea seeds are inoculated with Rhizobium culture. It helps in nodule formation and also help in increasing the yield. It helps in fixing the nitrogen in the soil.

Question 12.
Write about weed control in peas.
Answer:
Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre or Tafalon 50 WP 500 gram per acre before the emergence of weeds within two days of sowing. Dissolve these herbicides in about 200 litre of water and spray in the field.

Question 13.
Write about irrigation application for cauliflower.
Answer:
Cauliflower requires total 8-12 irrigations. First irrigation should be applied immediately after transplanting the seedlings.

Question 14.
Write about weed control in cabbage, cauliflower and Broccoli.
Answer:
Use stomp 30 EC one litre per acre by dissolving it in 200 litre of water. Apply this solution in the moist soil conditions one day before transplanting of the seedlings.

Question 15.
What is the use of leaves of Chinese cabbage? In how many days it is ready for first cutting?
Answer:
Leaves of Chinese cabbage are used to make saag. First cutting can be taken after 30 days of transplanting. .

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about cultivation of carrot as under:

varieties, colour
yield
seed rate
harvesting
spacing.

Answer:

Varieties: Two varieties-Desi and European. There are two varieties of carrot in Punjab -PC 34 and Punjab black beauty. PC 34 is of red colour and Punjab black beauty is of Blackish violet colour.
Yield: For black variety 196 quintal per acre and for red variety 200 quintals per acre.
Seed rate: 4-5 kg per acre.
Harvesting: Depending upon variety, harvesting can be done in 90-100 days.
Spacing: Sow carrot on ridges and spacing between ridges is 45 cm.

Question 2.
Write the cultivation of broccoli as per given below:

Improved varieties
Sowing time
Seed rate per acre
Distance between plants.

Answer:

Improved varieties: Punjab broccoli-1, Palam smridhi.
Yield: 70 quintal per acre.
Time of sowing: Time of sowing for nursery is from mid August to mid September and when seedlings are one month old, transplant in the field.
Seed rate: 250 gram per acre.
Distance between plants: Row spacing and plant spacing should be 45 cm.

Question 3.
Write about cultivation of potato.
Answer:
1. Varieties:

Early sown: Kufri surya, Kufri pukhraj.
Mid season: Kufri jyoti, Kufri pushkar.
Late varieties: Kufri Badshah, Kufri sindhuri.

2. Yield:

Early varieties: 100-125 quintal per acre.
Mid season varieties: 120-170 quintal per acre.
Late varieties: 120-130 quintal per acre.

3. Harvesting:

Early varieties: 90-100 days
Mid season varieties: 100-110 days
Late varieties: 110-120 days.

4. Time of sowing: For autumn season from last week of September to mid October and for spring season first fortnight of January.

5. Seed rate: 12-18 quintal per acre. In spring season seed rate of early varieties is 8 quintal and for late varieties 4-5 quintal seed per acre. Use cut tubers for sowing.

6. Spacing: Ridges should be spaced 60 cm and between tuber it should be 20 cm.

7. Weed control: Use stomp 30 EC one litre or arelon 75 EC 500 gram or sencor 70 EC 200 gram, by dissolving in 150 litre of water, before the emergence of weeds and after the first irrigation.

8. Irrigation: Apply first irrigation immediately after sowing. This helps in better germination.

Question 4.
Write five advantages of cultivating vegetables?
Answer:

Vegetables are short duration crops and we can get 2 to 4 crops of vegetables in a year.
Vegetables production in our country is less as compared to the requirement.
Vegetables are cheap source of nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins etc.
The yield of vegetables in 5-10 times more than wheat-rice rotatoin and income is also higher.
It provides employment to all the family members in their fields and agricultural resources can be utilized efficiently for whole of the year.

Question 5.
Write the cultivation of radish as per given below :

Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Spacing between ridges
Harvesting
Yield per acre.

Answer:

Two improved varieties- Pusa himani, Pusa chetki
Seed rate per acre- 4-5 kg. per acre.
Spacing between ridges- 45 cm
Harvesting- 45-60 days after sowing.
Yield per acre- 105-215 quintal per acre.

Question 6.
Write the cultivation of early maturing varities of potato as per given below:

Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Spacing between ridges
Irrigation
Yield per acre.

Answer:

Two improved varieties-kufri Surya, Kufri Pukhraj
Seed rate per acre-8 quintal
Spacing between ridges-60 cm
Irrigation-Apply first irrigation just after sowing
Yield per acre-100-125 quintal per acre.

Question 7.
Write the cultivation of early maturing varieties of pea as given below:

Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Spacing
Irrigation
Yield per acre.

Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Rabi Crops

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 3 Rabi Crops Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 3 Rabi Crops

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Rabi Crops Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Name any two oilseed crops.
Answer:
Raya, Linseed.

Question 2.
Name any two improved varieties of wheat.
Answer:
H.D. 2967, DBW 17.

Question 3.
How much seed is required to sow one acre of Raya?
Answer:
1.5 kg seed per acre.

Question 4.
Name two insect-pests of gram.
Answer:
Termite and gram caterpillar.

Question 5.
Name any two diseases of wheat.
Answer:
Kamal Bunt, yellow rust.

Question 6.
Name any two weeds of wheat
Answer:
Canary grass (gullidanda), Senji (sweet clover), Maina (toothed bur clover), Maini.

Question 7.
Which crop is known as king of fodders?
Answer:
Berseem.

Question 8.
What is the sowing time of lentil?
Answer:
Second fortnight of October.

Question 9.
Name any two improved varieties of barley.
Answer:
PL 807, PL 426.

Question 10.
How much is the oil content in sunflower seeds? Or What percent of oil found in sunflower seeds?
Answer:
40-43%.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Write the per acre nutrient requirement of wheat.
Answer:
50 kg nitrogen, 25 kg phosphorus and 12 kg potash per acre.

Question 2.
Name two wheat based crop rotations.
Answer:
Rice-wheat, cotton-wheat.

Question 3.
In which crop and against which weeds herbicide Total is used?
Answer:
Total is used in wheat for gullidanda.

Question 4.
When should oats be harvested for fodder?
Answer:
Harvesting of oats should be done from boot to milk stage.

Question 5.
How to control itsit in berseem?
Answer:
Those fields where itsit is a problem, sow Berseem mixed with Raya and in the fields where itsit is a problem sowing should be delayed and done in second week of October.

Question 6.
When should sunflower be harvested?
Answer:
When heads turn yellowish brown at lower side and discs start drying up then the crop is ready for harvesting.

Question 7.
What is canola sarson?
Answer:
Gobhisarson is Canola Sarson.

Question 8.
Write the time and method of sowing of barley.
Answer:
Time of sowing for barley is 15 October to 15 November. Spacing for normal sowing should be 22.5 cm and for rainfed and late-sown crop spacing should be 18-20 cm. It can be sown like wheat without ploughing i. e. without any preparatory tillage.

Question 9.
Write the sowing time and per acre seed rate of desi gram.
Answer:
For rain fed crop time of sowing is 10 to 25 October and for irrigated conditions crop, time of sowing is 25 October to 10 November. Seed rate is 15-18 kg per acre.

Question 10.
Which soils are not suitable for lentil?
Answer:
Saline, alkaline or waterlogged soils are not suitable for lentil.

Question 1.
Write the sowing time and sowing methods of wheat.
Answer:
Optimum time for sowing wheat is from fourth week of October to fourth week of November. If sowing is delayed then the yield is reduced by 150 kg per acre per week.

Method of sowing:
Wheat is sown using seed-cum-fertilizer drill. Row spacing should be 20 to 22 cm and sowing should be done at a depth of 4-6 cm. Sowing should be done by using bi-directional method. This means use half seed and half fertilizer should be used in one direction and other halves on the other side at right angle to the 1st one. This will help in increasing the yield by 2 quintals per acre. Bed planter can be used to sow wheat on beds. In this method seed rate is 30 kg per acre and water requirement is also reduced.

Question 2.
Give methods of sowing of berseem.
Answer:
Suitable time of sowing for Berseem is last week of September to first week of October. Berseem is sown in standing water using broadcast method. If there is high wind, seed should be broadcasted in dry field and then use raking and irrigation.

Question 3.
Give importance of sulphur in oil seeds and name its sources.
Answer:
Usually, there is less need of sulphur for plants. But oil seed crops require more sulphur. In case of deficiency of sulphur yield is reduced. Use of sulphur is necessary for the use of nitrogen. For proper activity of enzymes and for synthesis of oil sulphur is necessary. Therefore superphosphate should be given in preference for phosphorus because it also contains sulphur. If this fertilizer is not available then use 50 kg gypsum per acre.

Question 4.
Name varieties of raya and give its nutrition requirement.
Answer:
Varieties: RLC-1, PBR-210, PBR-91.

Fertilizers:
40 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre is required. Use potash after testing the soil. This is a oil seed crop and also require sulphur. Therefore use single super phosphate for phosphorus since it also contains sulphur. If this fertilizer is not available use 50 kg gypsum per acre.

Question 5.
Name broadleaf weeds of wheat and give their control measure.
Answer:
Broadleaf weeds which can infest in wheat are-Bathu, Button booti, Kandiali Palak, Maina, Maini, senji.

These weeds can be controlled by using 2, 4-D, Nomor, Algrip, Aim etc. Overdosing 2,4-D should be avoided if PBW 343 variety of wheat is sown. In case of broadleaf crops are sown in wheat then also avoid 2, 4-D.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Rabi Crops Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Rabi crops are:
(a) food grains
(b) pulses
(c) oil seed and fodder
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 2.
Improved variety of wheat:
(a) H.D. 2967
(b) PBW 343
(c) Durum
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 3.
Diseases of wheat are:
(a) powdery mildew
(b) loose smut
(c) kamal bunt
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 4.
Time of sowing for barley:
(а) 15 October to 15 November
(b) July
(c) 15 January to 15 February
(d) None.
Answers:
(а) 15 October to 15 November

Question 5.
Variety of Kabuli grams:
(a) PBG 1
(b) L-552
(c) GPF 2
(d) PDG-4
Answers:
(b) L-552

Question 6.
Seed rate for sunflower per acre:
(a) 5 kg
(b) 10 kg
(c) 2 kg
(d) 25 kg.
Answers:
(c) 2 kg

Question 7.
Which crop is called “King of the fooder”?
(a) Maize
(b) Clover (Berseem)
(c) Oat
(d) Lucerne.
Answers:
(b) Clover (Berseem)

True or False

1. China is the leading country in the production of wheat.
Answers:
True

2. Cool climate is suitable for wheat.
Answers:
True

3. Topic can not be used for gullidanda.
Answers:
False

4. Average yield of Barley is 15-16 quintal per acre.
Answers:
True

5. Shaftal is fodder crop of Rabi.
Answers:
True

Fill in the blanks:

1. Seed rate for wheat crop is …………… kg seed per acre.
Answers:
40

2. Zinc Sulphate is used to cure deficiency of …………………. .
Answers:
Zinc
3. ………….. country is highest producer of barley.
Answers:
Rusian federation

4. Bathu is …………… leaf weed.
Answers:
Broad

5. O.L.-9 is variety of …………….. .
Answers:
Oats.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many categories are there for Rabi crops?
Answer:
Three categories-cereals, pulses and oilseed, fodder crop.

Question 2.
Which country is the highest producer of wheat?
Answer:
China.

Question 3.
Which state in India is highest producer of wheat? Or Which state has highest wheat production in India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
How much land is under the cultivation of wheat?
Answer:
35 lakh hectare.

Question 5.
What is the yield of wheat in Punjab?
Answer:
18-20 quintal per acre on average basis.

Question 6.
Name crop rotations for wheat.
Answer:
Maize-wheat, Mash-wheat, groundnut-wheat.

Question 7.
Which variety of wheat is used for making Pasta?
Answer:
Durum wheat.

Question 8.
Which herbicide is used before sowing wheat, if there is problem of weeds? ’
Answer:
Use gramoxone before sowing. .

Question 9.
Which machine is used for direct sowing of wheat in combine harvested paddy fields?
Answer:
Happy seeder.

Question 10.
What is seed rate for wheat?
Answer:
40 kg per acre.

Question 11.
If sowing of wheat is delayed for a week, what is the effect on yield?
Answer:
Yield is reduced by 150 kg per acre per week.

Question 12.
How much yield is increased by bi-directional sowing of wheat?
Answer:
2 quintal per acre.

Question 13.
How is wheat sowed on beds?
Answer:
By using bed planter.

Question 14.
How will you control gullidanda in wheat? Name two herbicides for this.
Answer:
Topic, Leader, Treflan.

Question 15.
Name broad leaf weeds.
Answer:
Bathu, Kandiyali, Palak (golden dock), Maina, Maini, Senji, button booti.

Question 16.
In which type of soils, deficiency of zinc occurs?
Answer:
In light textured soils.

Question 17.
Which fertilizer is used if deficiency of zinc is found?
Answer:
Zinc sulphate.

Question 18.
Which fertilizer is used as a remedy for deficiency of manganese?
Answer:
Manganese sulphate.

Question 19.
How many irrigations are required for wheat?
Answer:
4-5 irrigations.

Question 20.
Which country is highest producer of barley?
Answer:
Rusian federation.

Question 21.
In which state is the production of barley highest in India?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 22.
What is the area under the cultivation of barley?
Answer:
12 thousand hectare.

Question 23.
What is average yield of Barley?
Answer:
15-16 quintal per acre.

Question 24.
Give crop rotations for barley.
Answer:
Paddy-barley, Cetton-Barley, Bajra-Barley.

Question 25.
Name improved varieties of Barley.
Answer:
PL 807, VJM 201, PL 426.

Question 26.
What is seed rate of barley for irrigated crop?
Answer:
35 kg per acre.

Question 27.
Which weedicide is used to control jaundhar (wild oats) weed in Barley?
Answer:
Isoproturon or Avadex B.W.

Question 28.
How many irrigations are required for Barley?
Answer:
1-2 irrigations.

Question 29.
Name major pulse crops of RabL
Answer:
Grams and lentils.

Question 30.
Name major oil seed crops of RabL
Answer:
Gobi sarson, Toria, Taramira, Linseed (alsi) and Sunflower.

Question 31.
Which country is the highest producer of pulses?
Answer:
India.

Question 32.
Which state has the highest production of pulses in India?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 33.
How much area is occupied by gram crop?
Answer:
Two thousand hectare.

Question 34.
What is average yield of gram in Punjab?
Answer:
Five quintal per acre.

Question 35.
Name crop rotations for gram crop.
Answer:
Bajra-grams, Paddy/Maize-gram.

Question 36.
Name varieties of grams (irrigated).
Answer:
GPF – 2, PBG – 1.

Question 37.
Name varieties of desigrams (non irrigated).
Answer:
PDG – 4 and PDG – 3.

Question 38.
Name varieties of kabuli grams.
Answer:
552, BG 1053.

Question 39.
Give seed rate for desi grams.
Answer:
15 to 18 kg per acre.

Question 40.
Give seed rate for kabuli grams.
Answer:
37 kg per acre.

Question 41.
What is the optimum time of sowing for desi gram (rain fed)?
Answer:
10 to 25 October.

Question 42.
What is suitable time for sowing kabuli grams?
Answer:
25 October to IQ November.

Question 43.
What is line spacing for gram?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 44.
How many irrigations are required for grams?
Answer:
One irrigation.

Question 45.
How much area is under the cultivation of lentils?
Answer:
1100 hectare.

Question 46.
What is the average yield of lentils?
Answer:
2-3 quintals per acre.

Question 47.
Give crop rotation for lentils.
Answer:
Rice-lentils, Cotton-lentil, groundnut-lentil.

Question 48.
What is seed rate for lentil?
Answer:
12 to 15 kg per acre.

Question 49.
What is sow spacing for lentil?
Answer:
22.5 cm.

Question 50.
How many irrigations are required for lentil?
Answer:
1 to 2 irrigations.

Question 51.
Which insect attack the lentil crop?
Answer:
Pod borer.

Question 52.
Raya is placed in which category commercially?
Answer:
Mustard category.

Question 53.
Name crop rotations for Raya.
Answer:
Maize/Bajra – Raya – Summer Moong, Cotton – Raya.

Question 54.
Name improved varieties of Raya.
Answer:
RLC – 1, PBR – 210, PBR – 91.

Question 55.
What is seed rate for Raya?
Answer:
1.5 kg per acre.

Question 56.
What is row spacing for Raya?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 57.
If superphosphate is not available, which other fertilizer can be used for Raya?
Answer:
Gypsum.

Question 58.
In which category gobhisarson is placed at commercial level?
Answer:
Rape seed category.

Question 59.
Write crop rotations for gobhisarson.
Answer:
Rice/maize-gobhi sarson – summer moong, cotton – gobhi sarson.

Question 60.
Name varieties of gobhisarson.
Answer:
PGSH 51, GSL 2, GSL-1

Question 61.
Which are canola varieties?
Answer:
GSC 6, GSC 5.

Question 62.
What is seed rate for gobhisarson?
Answer:
1.5 kg per acre.

Question 63.
What is the row spacing for gobhisarson?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 64.
Where is the production of sunflower highesf in the world?
Answer:
Ukrain.

Question 65.
How much land area is occupied by sunflower in Punjab?
Answer:
20-21 thousand hectare.

Question 66.
What is the average seed yield for sunflower?
Answer:
6.5 quintal per acre.

Question 67.
Which soil is not suitable for cultivation of sunflower?
Answer:
Salt affected soils.

Question 68.
Give sunflower crop rotation.
Answer:
Rice/maize – Potato – sunflower, Rice – Toria – sunflower, Cotton – sunflower, Basmati – sunflower.

Question 69.
Name varieties of sunflower.
Answer:
PSH 996, PSH 569, Jawalamukhi.

Question 70.
Give row spacing for sunflower.
Answer:
60 cm.

Question 71.
Where should the seed of sunflower be placed below the ridge top?
Answer:
6 to 8 cm below the ridge top.

Question 72.
What is used to control weeds in sunflower?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 73.
How many irrigations are required for sunflower?
Answer:
6 to 9 irrigations.

Question 74.
How much fodder is required for an adult animal?
Answer:
40 kg per day.

Question 75.
Write the name of four fodder crops of Rabi.
Answer:
Berseem, safflower, shaftal, lucerne, oats, ryegrass, senji.

Question 76.
Write the name of two improved varieties of Berseem.
Answer:
BL 42, BL 10, BL1.

Question 77.
What is seed rate for Berseem?
Answer:
8 – 10 kg per acre.

Question 78.
What is optimum time for sowing of Berseem?
Answer:
Last week of September to first week of October.

Question 79.
What should be used for controlling of Bueen?
Answer:
Basalin.

Question 80.
If there is problem of itsit what should be mixed with Berseem?
Answer:
Raya.

Question 81.
When is Berseem ready for first cutting?
Answer:
About 50 days after sowing.

Question 82.
Name varieties of oats.
Answer:
OL 9, Kent.

Question 83. What is seed rate for oats?
Answer:
25 kg per acre.

Question 84.
What is time of sowing for oats?
Answer:
Second week of October to last week of October.

Question 85.
How many irrigations are required for oats?
Answer:
3-4 irrigations including Rauni (pre-sowing irrigation)

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is cool climate required at the time of sowing for wheat?
Answer:
Warm climate is unfavourable to tillering and it becomes helpful in promoting several diseases.

Question 2.
What type of soil is required for wheat?
Answer:
Wheat can be grown on all types of soils except water logged and highly deteriorated alkaline soils. Well drained medium textured loamy soil is the best. For durum wheat medium to fine textured soils are best suited.

Question 3.
How will you control the problem of gullidanda in wheat?
Answer:
If problem of gullidanda is found, it can be reduced by rotation of wheat with Berseem, Potato, Raya etc. Stomp, Leader, Topik, Total herbicides can be used to control gullidanda.

Question 4.
When should we not use leader or stomp in the Helds of wheat?
Answer:
If wheat is grown mixed with gobhi sarson or Raya, then we should not use leader or stomp.

Question 5.
What are the symptoms for deficiency of zinc in wheat?
Answer:
Generally, deficiency of zinc appears in light soils. Due to deficiency of zinc, plants do not develop properly. Crop becomes stunted and bushy. Leaves become chloiatic, which break and keep hanging.

Question 6.
What are the symptoms of deficiency of manganese in wheat?
Answer:
Generally, deficiency of Manganese appears in light soils. The symptoms appear on middle leaves and specks are seen at lower part as intervenial chlorosis. These specks then coalesce and form bands but the veins remain green.

Question 7.
What do you know about soil type for Barley?
Answer:
Barley can grow well in sandy and salt affected soils. In the initial phases of reclamation of these soils, Barley can be-grown.

Question 8.
What do you know about seed rate and seed treatment for Barley?
Answer:
For timely and irrigated crop seed rate is 35 kg seed per acre, is required. For delayed and rain fed crop seed rate is 45 kg per acre. Treat the seed with Vitavax or Raxil to control smut.

Question 9.
Write about fertilizer application in Barley.
Answer:
Requirement of fertilizers for barley is 25 kg nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus and 6 kg Potash per acre. Apply Potash after getting tested the soil Drill all the fertilizers at the time of sowing.

Question 10.
Write about weed control in Barley.
Answer:
Broad leaf weeds like Bathu can be controlled by applying 2, 4-D or algrip, Jaundhar (wild oats) by isoproturan or avadex BW and gullidanda by Puma Power or topic.

Question 11.
Write about major insect-pest and major diseases of Barley.
Answer:
Insect which can attack barley is aphid. Diseases of barley are – stripe disease, covered smut, yellow rust etc.

Question 12.
Why is there a need of importing Pulses?
Answer:
India is a leading country in the production of pulses but consumption of pulses in India is also very high therefore there is a need of importing pulses.

Question 13.
Write climate requirement for grams.
Answer:
Severe cold and frost are injurious to this crop but due to early onset of summer, crop matures before time and yield is reduced. This is a crop of low-rainfall areas.

Question 14.
What type of soil is suitable for grams?
Answer:
Well drained, light to medium textured soil is best suited for grams. This crop can grow, even in those soils, in which other crops can not grow. Saline, alkaline or water logged soils are not suitable for grams.

Question 15.
What do you know about field preparation for grams?
Answer:
There is no requirement of field preparation for grams. If soil is ploughed deeply (deep tillage!, it helps in increasing the yield and it also help in preventing some of the diseases.

Question 16.
What do you know about irrigation for grams?
Answer:
Generally, one irrigation is required for grams. This irrigation should be applied between mid December to last January but never irrigate before sowing.

Question 17.
What do you know about harvesting of gram?
Answer:
When pods mature and plants dry up, crop is ready for harvesting.

Question 18.
What type of climate and soil is suitable for lentil?
Answer:
Cool climate is best suited for lentil. It can tolerate frost and severe cold. It can be grown in all types of soils except alkaline, water logged and salt affected soils.

Question 19.
What do you know about land preparation for Lentil?
Answer:
Plough the field two-three times followed by planking each time.

Question 20.
What do you know about fertilizer application in lentil?
Answer:
Lentil require 5 kg nitrogen per acre. When the seeds are inoculated with Rhizobium then 8 kg phosphorus and if not inoculated than 16 kg phosphorus per acre is required. Apply the fertilizers at the time of sowing.

Question 21.
What do you know about irrigation of lentil?
Answer:
Depending on rain, 1 to 2 irrigations are required for lentil. If one irrigation is to be applied, apply it after six weeks of sowing. But if two irrigations are to be applied then first water is given after 4 weeks and second at flowering stage or pod formation is given.

Question 22.
What do you know about harvesting of lentil?
Answer:
Crop is ready for harvesting when plants dry up and pods mature.

Question 23.
Write about climate and soil type for Raya.
Answer:
Raya is best suited for medium to high rain fall areas. It can grow in nearly all types of soils.

Question 24.
What do you know about method of sowing for Raya?
Answer:
Row spacing for Raya is 30 cm and thinning of the crop is done after three weeks of sowing by keeping the spacing 10 to 15 cm.

Question 25.
Write about field preparation for Raya.
Answer:
Field is prepared by ploughing 2 to 4 times followed by planking everytime. Raya can be sown by using zero till drill without ploughing.

Question 26.
Write about harvesting and threshing for Raya.
Answer:
Crop is ready for harvesting when pods mature and become yellow. Harvested crop should be stacked. Threshing is done after a week of cutting the crop.

Question 27.
Write about climate and soil requirement for gobhisarson.
Answer:
Gobhisarson is best suited for medium to heavy rainfall areas. All types of soils are suitable for growing the crop.

Question 28.
Write about seed rate and preparation of land for gobhi sarson.
Answer:
Seed rate for gobhisarson is 1.5 kg per acre. Field is prepared by ploughing 2-4 times followed by planking each time.

Question 29.
Write about oil extracted from sunflower seeds.
Answer:
Oil obtained from sunflower seeds is low in cholestrol. Edible refined oil is prepared from this. This oil is also used for manufacturing of soaps.

Question 30.
What type of soil is required for growing sunflower?
Answer:
Well drained medium textured soil is best suited for sunflower. Salt affected soil is not suitable. .

Question 31.
Write about land preparation, seed rate and seed treatment for sunflower.
Answer:
Seed rate for sunflower is 2 kg per acre and it is treated with A . recommended fungicides. For land preparation 2-3 ploughings followed by planking are required.

Question 32.
Write about hoeing and weed control in sunflower.
Answer:
First hoeing should be done after 2-3 weeks of the emergence of weeds. After that hoeing should be done after 3 weeks. Use stomp to control weeds.

Question 33.
Write about harvesting and threshing of sunflower.
Answer:
When heads turn yellowish brown at lower surface and disc starts drying up, crop is ready for harvesting. Harvested sunflower should be threshed immediately after harvesting.

Question 34.
How many cuttings can be taken for berseem?
Answer:
From November to mid of June many cuttings of berseem which are tasty and nutritious can be taken.

Question 35.
How do the seeds of Kashni (Chicory) separated from seeds of Berseem?
Answer:
Seeds of Berseem are put in water. Kashni seeds are light in weight and float on water. These can be separated by sieve.

Question 36.
Write about application of fertilizer in Berseem.
Answer:
At the time of sowing 6 tonne of farm yard manure (FYM) and 20 kg phosphorus per acre is required. If FYM is not available then 10 kg nitrogen and 30 kg phosphorus per acre should be applied.

Question 37.
Write about irrigation in Berseem.
Answer:
First irrigation is applied after 6-8 days after sowing. Next irrigations are applied, in summer after 8-10 days and in winter after 10-15 days.

Question 38.
What do you know about harvesting of Berseem?
Answer:
First cutting is ready after 50 days of sowing and subseqent cuttings are ready after 40 days interval in winter and then after every 30 days in spring.

Question 39.
Which type of soil is required for oats?
Answer:
Oats can be grown in all types of soils except waterlogged and alkaline soils.

Question 40.
What is the time and method of sowing for oats?
Answer:
Time of sowing for oats is from second week of October to last week of October. Row spacing is 20 cm. It can be sown by using zero till drill without ploughing.

Question 41.
What dq you know about hoeing and irrigation for oats?
Answer:
Generally, there is no need of hoeing. But if there is problem of weeds then hoeing should be done. 3-4 irrigations including Rauni are required.

Question 42.
Write about fertilizer application for oats.
Answer:
8 kg phosphorus, 15 kg nitrogen per acre to be applied at the time of sowing. 15 kg of nitrogen per acre is required after 30-40 days of sowing.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about following for cultivation of wheat:
(i) Improved varieties
(ii) Land preparation after paddy
(iii) Irrigation
(iv) Pest insects and diseases.
Answer:
(i) Improved varieties: PBW 621, DBW 17, PBW 343, PDW 291 etc.

(ii) Land preparation after harvesting paddy:
If wheat is to be grown after paddy, there is enough soil moisture otherwise apply rauni. Plough the field using disc hasrow in wattar (idealistic moisture in soil) state. If paddy is harvested using combine, then left over straw can be ploughed and mixed with soil, for this plough twice followed by planking. After this, use cultivator once and if soil is heavy plough it twice and apply planking each time. Use happy seeder machine to sow wheat in combine harvested paddy field without burning the left over of paddy.

(iii) Irrigation:
If wheat is sown in October then apply first irrigation after three weeks of sowing and then irrigate after four weeks. At this time, special roots are formed in wheat which are known as crown roots. 4-5 irrigations are needed for wheat.

(iv) Pest-insects and diseases:
Army worm, aphid, termite, gram pod borer etc. attack the crop. Diseases which can harm the crop are yellow rust, brown rust, loose smut, ear cockle (mamni) and yellow ear rot (tundu), and kamal bunt etc.

Question 2.
Describe following cultivation practices for Barley.

Improved varieties
Climate
Time of sowing
Row spacing
Irrigation.

Answer:

Improved varieties: VJM 201, PL 426, PL 807.
Climate: Barley require cool climate during initial stage (i.e. during early growth) and at maturity it required warm and dry weather: Barley can be grown in low rainfall areas.
Time of sowing: 15 October to 15 November.
Row spacing: For timely sowing 22.5 cm and for late-sown and rainfed condition 18 to 20 cm.
Irrigation: 1-2 irrigations are required.

Question 3.
Describe the following for cultivation of grams:

climate
soil type
rotation
improved varieties
seed rate
weed control
harvesting
insects pests and diseases.

Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 4.
Describe cultivation of lentil with respect to following points

climate and soil
improved varieties
crop rotation
seed rate and treatment
fertilizers
harvesting.
irrigation

Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 5.
Give cultivation details for Raya.
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 6.
Give fertilizer application for wheat, barley, grams and lentil.
Answer:
Fertilizer application per acre is as follows:

	Nitrogen	Phosphorus	Potash
1. Wheat	50 kg	25 kg	12 kg (after testing of soil)
2. Barley	25 kg	12 kg	6 kg (after testing of soil)
3. Grams (i) Desi grams (ii) Kabuli grams	6 kg 6 kg	8 kg 16 kg	– –
4. Lentil	5 kg	8 kg (if seed inoculation is done) otherwise 16 kg.

Question 7.
What do you know about irrigation of sunflower?
Answer:
First irrigation should be done after one month of sowing of sunflower. After that, irrigation should be done at intervals of 2-3 weeks. During summer in the months of April-May irrigations should be done at intervals of 8-10 days. At the flowering stage and at soft and hard dough stages of crop, irrigation application is must. Total 6-9 irrigations are required for sunflower.

Question 8.
How is field prepared for sowing of wheat?
Answer:
See above question.

Question 9.
Write a note pn sowing time and method of sunflower.
Answer:
See above question.

Question 10.
Write the description of cultivation of Kabuli Gram as per given below:

Soil
Two improved varieties
Seed rate per acre
Sowing time
Irrigation
Harvesting.

Answer:

Soil: Well-drained, light to medium textured soil is best suited for grams. This crop can grow, even in those soils, in which other crops can not grow. Saline, alkaline, or waterlogged soils are not suitable for grams.
Two improved varieties: L 552, BG 1053.
Seed rate per acre: 37 kg.
Sowing time: 25 October to 10 November.
Irrigation: Only one.
Harvesting: When pods mature and plants dry up, the crop is ready for harvesting.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 HTML II

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 3 HTML II Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 3 HTML II

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB HTML II Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is the use of Forms in HTML?
(a) To display contents of email
(b) To display animation effect
(c) To collect user’s input
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
(c) To collect user’s input

Question 2.
Which of the following is most commonly used HTTP methods?
(a) PRE and POST
(b) GET and SET
(c) ASK and REPLY
(d) GET and POST
Answer:
(d) GET and POST

Question 3.
Is it possible to link within the current page?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Only in frames
(d) Null
Answer:

Question 4.
An html form is part of a web page that includes areas where:
(a) Information is feeded by the user
(b) And sent to the website server
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
A container tag and is used to allow multiple lines of text in a single input item is known as:
(a) Text area
(b) Checkbox
(c) Radio Button
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Text area

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 3 HTML II

2. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
……………. tag is used to create a linkon a webpage.
Answer:
Anchor

Question 2.
………….is used to feed informationinto the Webserver.
Answer:
Form

Question 3.
If you want to allow multiple lines oftext ………………. is used in the form.
Answer:
Textarea

Question 4.
To select multiple options in a form we can use …………….
Answer:
Checkbox

Question 5.
To clear all options from a form we can use ……………… button.
Answer:
Reset

3. True or False

Question 1.
An unvisited Link is underlined and blue.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
<input type=”password”> will show asterisks in the text box.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Selection lists are used to define the dropdown lists.
Answer:
True

4. Full Forms

1. <A>
Answer:
Anchor tag

2. HREF
Answer:
Hyperlink REFerence

3. URL
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator

4. BGCOLOR
Answer:
Background Color

5. SRC
Answer:
Source

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which tag is used to link a webpage?
Answer:
<A> Anchor Tag.

Question 2.
Which attribute is defined to specify where to send the form-data when a form is submitted?
Answer:
Action attribute.

Question 3.
This method is used to encode the feeded data by the user by using URL path and is sent to the server.
Answer:
GET method.

Question 4.
What are used to perform some action on the given webpage?
Answer:
Button.

6. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is hyperlink?
Answer:
Hyper link is a method to connect two destinations on web pages. These destinations can be with in a webpage or it can be outside web page i.e. on another webpage.

Question 2.
What is Anchor tag? Explain with example.
Answer:
Anchor tag is the tag which is used to create a link in html document. This tag creates link within a webpage and also with another webpage. The tag uses href as compulsory attribute.
Example : Following is an example of anchor tag <a href= “www.Google.com” > Google </a>

Question 3.
What is a form?
Answer:
An html form is part of a web page that includes areas where readers can enter information to be sent back to website or the publishers of the web page It is a container that consists of other form elements such as text box, radio buttons ,list box etc.

Question 4.
Name diffefent types of buttons used in html form.
Answer:
Following are the types of buttons in HTML.
1. Submit Button
2. Reset Botton

Question 5.
What is checkbox?
Answer:
Check box appears as a small square the user can select or deselect by clicking on it. It is generally used where a group is used for sharing a common name from where information can be selected It is used in <input> html element. We must give each check box a name attributes the value defined in the type at¬tribute is checkbox. These Eire explained below with an example.
<input type-‘checkbox” name=”Child”>Children Toys <input type-‘checkbox” name=”Fumiture”> stool
You can check any option or both by clicking on it. It also supports some additional attributes.

7. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss different types of buttons with example. .
Answer:
Buttons are used to perform some action on the given webpage. Some important buttons are discussed below :
Submit button:
Every form must include a button that submits the form data to the server. You can put any label you like on this button. It has two attributes these are type, which has submit value and value attribute defines the name of the • submit button which can be displayed on the button. These are explained below with an example:
Ex.:<input type=”submit” value=”OK”>
A button will appear on screen. When the user clicks it, all data items on the form are submitted

Reset Button:
You can also include a button that clears all entries on the form so users can start over if they change their minds or make mistakes. It has two attributes these are “type”, which has reset value and value attribute defines the name of the reset button, which can be displayed on the button. These are explained below with an example:
Ex.:<input type= “reset”value= “Reset”>

Question 2.
What is selection list in form?
Answer:
Selection list is an option in which user can select single or multiple options from a given list. In this option multiple inputs are available but some options can be displayed at a time. Scrolling Lists and Pull-Down pick lists are created with the<select>tag. You can use this tag together with the<option>tag: <select>
<option> wjndows</option><option> Linux </option><option> Mac</option>
</select>
No html tags other than <option> and </option> should appear between the <select> and </select> tags.
Attributes of select tag:
Select tag has following attributes-
1. Size Attribute:
Size determines how many items are shown at once on the selection list. If size=”3″ were used in the preceding code, only the first three options would be visible, and a scrollbar would appear next to the list so the user could scroll down to see the third option.
Ex.: <Select name – ‘Weekday” size=4>

2. Name:
It is used to define name to the drop down menu.
<Select name =”WeekDay” size=4 multiple>

3. Multiple:
This is used to select multiple options from the given list. This is the value which has to be given back to the website and defined in the option tag.
Ex.: <optionValue=”Sunday”>Sunday
When this option is used the given option will be preselected.

Question 3.
Explain Text Area with an example.
Answer:
This is a container tag and is used to allow multiple lines of text in a single input item. It has two attributes these are ROWS and COLS. Row defines the number of rows defined in the text area and cols defines the number of columns used in the text area. If user wants to define some default text then he can define in-between the open closing tags of text area element. All this is explained in the given example. <textarea name=”comments” rows=”5″ cols=”25″>
Please type in more information.
</textarea>

Question 4.
What is the purpose of action and method in forms?
Answer:
Get Method:
This method is used to encode the fed data by the user by using URL path and is sent to the server. Limited data can be sent to the server. Its parameters remain in the browser history.
<FORM method=get action-‘ action.php”>

Post Method:
This method is used to store the data to the server without interfering JRL and is more secure to send information than GET method from the website form to the server. There is no restriction on sending data. Its parameters don’t remain in the browser history.
<form method=post action=”action.php”>

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Office Tools Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is used to link two pages?
(a) Page
(b) Glue
(c) Button
(d) Hyperlink
Answer:
(d) Hyperlink

Question 2.
What is not used in Form:
(a) Button
(b) Text Box
(c) Radio Button
(d) Row
Answer:
(d) Row

Question 3.
How many types of links are?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 4.
How many types of Methods are in a form?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The text which is highlighted in Blue is called ……………..
Answer:
Hyperlink

Question 2.
…………….. attribute is used to change color in table.
Answer:
BGCOLOR

Question 3.
………… attribute is used to change sell spacing.
Answer:
Cell spacing

Question 4.
………….. is used to change cell width. (2019)
Answer:
Colspan

Question 5.
Brower shows a hyper link in ……….color.
Answer:
Blue

Question 6.
…………… is used to go to another place in a webpage.
Answer:
Bookmark.

Select True/False

Question 1.
Anchor tag is used to create Hyperlink.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
<img> tag is used to insert images.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
HREF is an attribute of <img> tag.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
We can insert image in background.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
SCR is an attribute of <img> tag.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the use of anchor tag?
Answer:
Anchor tag is used to create hyperlink

Question 2.
What is linking?
Answer:
Linking is the process of joining two webpages.

Question 3.
What is SCR attribute?
Answer:
SCR attribute is used to tell the source of image in<img> tag.

Question 4.
What are various alignment option for an image?
Answer:

Left
Right
Top
Bottom
Middle.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the purpose of submit button?
Answer:
Every form must include a button that submits the form data to the server. We can put any label on this button. It has two attributes these are type, which has submit value and value attribute defines the name of the submit button which can be displayed on the button.

Question 2.
What is Marquee?
Answer:
Marquee tag is used to move the text in html document. The text starts moving when is viewed in web browsers.

Question 3.
What is inline style?
Answer:
The style in which style is defined in the tag is called inline style. It is stored in same html document and is used when the style is not repeated anywhere in the document. It effects only to that style on which it is applied.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
How external Movie or image can be used in HTML document?
Answer:
Adding Audio/Video files in HTML:
User can link audio/video files in HTML document using anchor (<a>) tag. User has to give the path of audio/video file in href attribute of anchor tag. Whenever the user clicks on the link, the files will automatically gets downloaded and is played in the associated software.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB HTML Fundamentals Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What should be the first tag in any HTML document?
(a) <head>
(b) <title>
(c) <html>
(d) <document>
Answer:
(c) <html>

Question 2.
What is the correct HTML tag for inserting a line break?
(a) <br>
(b) <lb>
(c) <break>
(d) <newline>
Answer:
(a) <br>

Question 3.
A webpage displays a picture. What tag was used to display that picture?
(a) picture
(b) image
(c) img
(d) src
Answer:
(c) img

Question 4.
Page designed in HTML is called is:
(a) Yellow Page
(b) Web Page
(c) Server Page
(d) Front Page
Answer:
(b) Web Page

Question 5.
HTML document is saved using extension:
(a) .htl
(b) .html
(c) .hml
(d) .htnl
Answer:
(b) .html

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals

Question 6.
Table tag has various other tags, these are:
(a) <TR>
(b) <TD>
(c) <TH>
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

2. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
HTML stands for …………..
Answer:
Hyper-Text markup Language

Question 2.
…………… list to represent an unorganized list.
Answer:
Unordered List

Question 3.
…………….. tag is used to define the elements of a list.
Answer:
<LI>

Question 4.
ALT stands for …………….
Answer:
Alternate

Question 5.
………… is the main part of the HTML document in which whole information about the webpage resides.
Answer:
<body>

Question 6.
The ………………… contains title that identifies the heading of the html document.
Answer:
Heading

3. True or False

Question 1.
HTML is a structured Language.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Table heading starts with <TH> tag and ends with</TH>tags
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Align does not defines the alignment of the attached image in contrast to the other contents of the webpage
Answer:
False

Question 4.
CELLPADDING is the pixel space between-the cell contents and the cell border.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Definition list generally contains the definitions of different terms and their meaning.
Answer:
True

4. Full Forms

Question 1.
HTML
Answer:
Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 2.
<B>
Answer:
Bold

Question 3.
<I>
Answer:
Italic

Question 4.
<U>
Answer:
Underline

Question 5.
<OL>
Answer:
Ordered List

Question 6.
<UL>
Answer:
Unordered list

Question 7.
<P>
Answer:
Paragraph

Question 8.
<BR>
Answer:
Break

Question 9.
SRC
Answer:
Source

Question 10.
<IMG>
Answer:
Image

Question 11.
<TR>
Answer:
Table row

Question 12.
<TH>
Answer:
Table Heading

Question 13.
<TD>
Answer:
Table Data

Question 14.
LI
Answer:
List Item

Question 15.
URL
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the tag which is by the beginning and ending tags.
Answer:
Container Tag

Question 2.
Name the tag of the HTML document in which whole information about the webpage resides.
Answer:
Body tag

Question 3.
Name a tag which is an empty element that is used to break a line and display the proceeding text from the next line, without giving any space between two lines.
Answer:
<br>

Question 4.
Name the list which have information related to each other but their sequence is not important.
Answer:
Bulleted Lists

6. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is HTML ?
Answer:
HTML stands for Hyper Text markup Language. It is a language used for designing a web page in which text, graphics, and other information are organized, formatted, and linked together. HTML is extremely simple, Flexible, easy to learn, interactive, widely accepted Markup Language.

Question 2.
What is a Tag ?
Answer:
Tag is a HTML command which is understood by web browser. These are also called as elements. These are enclosed in angle brackets. HTML document can not be prepared without these tags.

Question 3.
What is <Img> tag. Explain.
Answer:
<img> tag is used to embed an image in HTML document. It means it displays an image in HTML web page. The general syntax of thi stag is <image SRC=””FILENAME”>

Question 4.
Name different tags used to create a table.
Answer:
Following tabgsa re used to create a table in HTML.
(i) <table> </table>
(ii) <th> </th>
(iii) <tr> <tr>
(iv) <td> </td>

Question 5.
Explain Font tag with its attributes.
Answer:
Font tag is used to change the style and shape of the text which is used in any HTML document. It allows to format data on a given web page. Font tag has four main properties:

Style: Font style can be changed in three ways – Bold, Italic and Underline.
Font Face: Face defines the type face to be used like writing.
Font Colour: Font colour gives different colours to the text.
Font Size: Font size changes size of text matter.

7. Differentiate Between

(i) Ordered and Unordered List.
The difference between ordered and unordered lists is as follows:

Ordered List	Unordered list
1. In an Ordered list, the order of the list item is important. If we charge the order, the meaning of the whole list changes.	1. In an unordered list the order of the items is not significant .We can swap two items or reverse the whole list and it still remains the same list
2. Ordered List starts with <OL> and ends with</OL> tag.	2. Unordered List starts with <UL> and aids with</UL> tag.
3. Ordered List has an <U> (list Item) tag which defines the list dements defined in the list	3. Unordered List has an <U> (List Item) tag which defines the list dements defined in the list
4. In an Ordered List, the attribute used is TYPE Which has values as 1, A, a, I, i.	4. In an Ordered List the attribute used is TYPE Which has values as, o, and SQUARE.
5. Default value of TYPE ATTRIBUTE is 1.	5. Default “value of TYPF. ATTRIBUTE is “Disc”.

(ii) Background and BGCOLOR.
The difference between background and BGCOLOR is as follows:

Background	BGCOLOR
1. Background attribute is used in body as well as in table tag ,to add background image in the given webpage or a table.	1. BGCOLOR attribute is used in body as well as in table tag, to change the background color of the webpage or a table.
2. Syntax <body background=”Red”>	2. Syntax is <table bgcolor=nGreen”>
3. Example <BODY background-“image.jpg”>	3. Example <body bgcolor=”green”>

(iii) Colspan and Rowspan.
The difference between colspan and rowspan is as follows

1. Sometimes it makes sense for a cell to span multiple columns . This might be used for a header cell that titles a group of columns of entries.	1. Sometimes it makes sense for a cell to span multiple rows. This might be used for a side-bar that groups rows of entries.
2. Allows a single table cell to span the width of more than one cell or column.	2. Allows a single table cell to span the height of more them one row.
3. COLSPAN is attribute that is used in i.e. <th> and <td> tag.	3. ROWSPAN is attribute that is used in i.e. <th> and <td> tag.
4. It provides the same functionality as “merge cell” in spreadsheet programs like Excel.	4. It provide the same functionality as “merge cell” in spreadsheet programs like Excel.
5. Example: <th colspan=”3″>	5.Example: <th rowspann=”3″>

(vi) Tag and Attribute.
Difference between tag and attribute is as follows

Tag	Attribute
1. Tags contain elements which provide instructions for how information will be processed or displayed. There are both starter tags <TAG> and end tags </ TAG> Tags are used to mark up the start and end of an HTML element.	1. An attribute defines a property for an element, consists of an attribute. Its value appears within the element’s start tag.
2. Tags contains elements as well as attribute	2. Attribute is a part of starting Tag of an element.
3. These are of two types:-Empty Tag and Container Tag	3. Types of Attribute depend upon the tag used .i.e. each tag has its own number of attributes.
4. Example:- <Table > Here table is a tag.	4. Example:- <Table Border=”2″ >

Here a table is the Tag and border is its attribute.

8. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the basic structure of HTML in Details.
Answer:
HTML document has two main parts :
1. Head: The head section contains title that identifies the heading of the HTML document.
2. Body: The body element contains the actual contents or information that you want to display on a web page to the end user.
HTML document contains the following syntax:
<html> <head>
<title>Title Of Webpage </title>
</head>
<body>
Body of HTML Document
</body>
</html>
The tags defined in the above structure basically define or instruct the web browser about the different operation to be performed on the text defined in the given TAGS.

<html> </html>:
HTML document is started <html>and ended </html>with this tag. This TAG informs the web browser from where a web page will start and where it ends. If the commands are not defined in tags then the commands are taken as text by the web browser.

<head> </head>:
Head tag provides Header information. The document title is written in Head Tag. It always occurs in pair. Head Tag is considered very important for a web page. This is a container tag. It defines the Heading of the html document. It starts with<head> tag and ends with </head>. This Tag is always defined below <html> and above <body>tag. It contains information regarding title of the webpage, keywords used by the search engines etc. It contains no text in itself.

<Title> </Title>:
TITLE tag defines the title of the webpage, which is to be displayed on the title bar of the web browser when the web page is loaded in the web browser. It is enclosed in between <Title> and</Title>tags. It should be short and meaningful of <Title> First Web Page </Title>

<body> </body>:
This tag contains the actual information to be displayed on the web browser. When the webpage is loaded in the web browser. It may contain any element or contents related to text, images, audio, video etc. These contents are defined with in <body> and </body> tags.

For Example:
<body>This is document in HTML document. </BODY>
Each Body tag has different characteristics. These characteristics (properties) are termed as attributes. We can select Background colour, text colour, font size etc. with these attributes.

Question 2.
What are the various tags used in table ? Explain with an example.
Answer:
HTML table is created using <table> </Table Tag. HTML tables are composed row by row. You indicate a new row with the <TR> (table row) tag, and you separate the data with either the <TH> (table header) or <TD> (table data) tags. Think of the <TR> tag as a line break, signaling that the following data starts a new table row. Table headers are generally shown in bold and centered by WWW browsers, and table data is shown in the standard body text format.
The basic HTML table tags
1. <TABLE></TABLE>: These HTML tags are the containers for the rest of the table data.

2. <TR></TR>:
Each row in the table is contained by these tags. You can optionally leave off the closing </TR> tag.

3. <TD></TD>:
Defines a cell. Table data is contained within these tags: You can also nest additional tables within a single cell. You can optionally leave off the closing </TD> tag.

4. <TH></TH>:
These table header tags are used to define headers, usually in the first row or column of the table. You can optionally leave off the closing </TH> tag. In addition to the basic tags shown here, some other characteristics of table tag.

5. BORDER attribute:
By using the BORDER attribute of the <TABLE> tag, borders are put around the table. You set the value of this attribute to the number of pixels wide you want the border, like this: BQRDER=1. If you set this attribute to 0, the browser will not display a border.

6. ALIGN attribute:
The ALIGN attribute can be specified in the <TABLE> tag with possible values of LEFT, RIGHT, and CENTER (the default is LEFT). HTML 4.0 specifies a new value for ALIGN of CHAR, which implements alignment on a specified character, such as a decimal point.

7. Table heads:
In most browsers, table heads enclosed by the <TH> </TH> tags are emphasized and centered.

Question 3.
Explain ordered list with an example ?
Answer:
Ordered list is created using <ol> </ol> Tag. The attribute type may be ‘a’, ‘A’, 1,1, ‘i’, etc. On the face of it, ordered lists look a lot like unordered lists, and a lot of the same rules apply to both constructs. The only difference in HTML is that instead of using <UL> and </UL>, an ordered list is contained within the tags <OL> and </OL>. Ordered lists are based on list items, just as unordered lists are.
However, when an ordered list is displayed in a Web browser, it uses an automatically generated sequence of item markers. In other words, the items are numbered. The markup for a simple ordered list, based on the first example in this chapter: <OL>
<LI>Monday
<LI>Tuesday
<LI> Wednesday
<LI>Thursday
<LI>Friday
</OL>
The above markup will look similar to the previously discussed simple unordered list, with the important difference that each day of the week is numbered instead of preceded by a “bullet.” In other words, it looks like this :
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday
Ordered lists are as nestable as unordered lists, and you can nest unordered lists in ordered lists, as well as the other way.

Question 4.
Explain Nested List with example.
Answer:
A list within a list is called nested list. It can be any type of list. i.e. an ordered list can contain unordered list or a definition list or vice-versa. A list can contain any number of lists in it.
This can be seen in following example
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 1

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Office Tools Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which is related with Internet ?
(a) HTML
(b) XML
(c) CSS
(d) All of Above
Answer:
(d) All of Above

Question 2.
HTML document cannot work without which tag ?
(a) <p>
(b) <hr>
(c) <html>
(d) <table>
Answer:
(c) <html>

Question 3.
What is essential to view a website ?
(a) Internet
(b) Web Brower
(c) None of these
(d) Both of these
Answer:
(d) Both of these

Question 4.
How many types of methods are in a form ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………. types of tags are used in HTML.
Answer:
Two

2. Opening and closing tags are used in …………………
Answer:
Container

3. There is no closing tag in ……………………… tag.
Answer:
Empty

4. The text editor named ………….. is set for creating HTML document.
Answer:
Text.

5. HTML document is opened in ………………
Answer:
Browser.

6. …………… extension is used to save HTML document.
Answer:
HTML or HTM.

7. In HTML document first and last tag should be ………… and ………..
Answer:
<HTML>, </HTML> .

8. Unordered list’is also called ……………. list.
Answer:
<UL>

9. …………. list represents numbers.
Answer:
Ordered Nested.

10. When a list U created in another list, it is named …………….. list.
Answer:
Ordered Nested.

True or Flase

1. The HTML tags can be written in Capital or small Letters of English Alphabets.
Answer:
True

2. Text is written in word pad to create a home page.
Answer:
True

3. Body tag is written after Head tag.
Answer:
True

4. Container tag is a solo tag.
Answer:
False

5. Title is written in Head Tag.
Answer:
True

6. There are six levels in Heading.
Answer:
True

7. The tag <P> is used for paragraph.
Answer:
True

8. The attributes of a list: Face, Size, Colour.
Answer:
False

9. The tag <BR> is used to make the text dynamic
Answer:
False

10. The bullets are marked in an Ordered List.
Answer:
False.

Match the Following

A	B
1. HTML Document	Body Tag
2. Container Tag	Number
3. <OL>	Bullet
4. <UL>	Face, Size and Color
5. Font attribute	Word Pad

Answer:

A	B
1. HTML Document	Word Pad
2. Container Tag	Body Tag
3. <OL>	Number
4. <UL>	Bullet
5. Font attribute	Face, Size and Color

Full Forms

Question 1.
HTML
Answer:
Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 2.
<B>
Answer:
Bold

Question 3.
<I>
Answer:
Italic

Question 4.
<U>
Answer:
Underline

Question 5.
<P>
Answer:
Paragraph

Question 6.
<BR>
Answer:
Break

Question 7.
<OL>
Answer:
Ordered List

Question 8.
<UL>
Answer:
Unordered list

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the attributes of Unordered Lists?
Answer:

Bullet
Disc
Square

Question 2.
What is a table row?
Answer:
<TR><VTR>-Each row in the table is contained by these tags. You can optionally leave off the closing </TR> tag.

Question 3.
Which tags are used to show table heading and table data?
Answer:
<th> tag is used to give table heading and <td> tag is used to show the data.

Question 4.
Write the procedure of changing the table size.
Answer:
We can change the size of the table by using the width and height attributes of table tag.
<table width = “300” height = “400”>

Question 5.
How will you make the border of a table?
Answer:
By giving the border attributes of table tag.

Question 6.
What is meant by cell spacing?
Answer:
The space between two cells is called cell spacing.

Question 7.
Write a short note on colspan.
Answer:
To span two adjacent cells in a column, use the COLSPAN attribute with <TH> or <TD>, as follows:
<TD COLSPAN=2>

Question 8.
What is the use of Anchor tag?
Answer:
Anchor tag is used to create link between two documents.
<a href= “c:\jsb\jap.htmT>

Question 9.
What do you mean by Linking?
Answer:
Linking is used to connect the two documents. It is also called hyperlink.

Question 10.
What is SRC attribute?
Answer:
SRC indicates the source of the file.

Question 11.
What are the methods of aligning an image?
Answer:

Left
Right
Center
Top
Bottom
Middle.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write names of any four tags used in HTML.
Answer:

Tags	Description
<HTML> …</HTML>	Encloses the entire HTML document.
<HE AD>… < / HE AD>	Encloses the head of the HTML document.
<TITLE>… </TITLE>	Indicates the title of the document. Used within <HEAD>.
<BODY>…</BODY>	Encloses the body of the HTML document.
<P>…</P>	A paragraph. The closing tag (</P>) is optional.
<BR>	A line break.

Tags	Description
<HR>	A horizontal rule line.
<H1>…</H1>	A first-level heading.
<H2>…</H2>	A second-level heading.
<H3>…</H3>	A third-level heading.
<H4>…</H4>	A fourth-level heading (seldom used).
<H5>…</H5>	A fifth-level heading (seldom used).
<H6>…</H6>	A sixth-level heading (seldom used).

Question 2.
Write types of tags used is HTML.
Answer:
There are two kinds of HTML tags:
1. Paired (Container) Tag:
A tag is said to be a paired tag if the text is placed between a tag and its companion tag. In paired tags, the first tag is referred to as Opening Tag and the second tag is referred to as Closing Tag.

2. Unpaired ( Empty) Tag:
Unpaired tags work alone, and are usually placed before the text you,want formatted. An impaired tag does not have a companion tag. Unpaired tags are also known as Singular or Stand-Alone Tags. An unpaired tag sometimes also called empty.

Question 3.
What are container tags?
Answer:
Paired (Container) Tag:
A tag is said to-be a paired tag if the text is placed between a tag and its companion tag. In paired tags, the first tag is referred to as Opening Tag and the second tag is referred to as Closing Tag.

Question 4.
What is a Nested List?
Answer:
Nested List. The list entities mentioned above can be combined to produce nested lists. For example, the following contains two numbered lists within one unordered list:
1. Departments in the B-Block:

Chemistry
Engineering
Geology

2. Departments in the C-Block:

Economics
Politics
Sociology

This document describes glossary lists. The following document ([Next] from the menu at the top of the page) explains the formatting of regular lists.

Question 5.
What is HTML?
Answer:
The Hypertext Mark-up Language (or HTML) is the language used to create documents for the World Wide Web. As the name implies it is a mark-up language – the original (ASCII) text is edited and new (text) codes i.e. tags are added to indicate how (and where) the text should appear.

Question 6.
How will you create home page of a Website? Write the steps.
Answer:
The first page of the website is called home page.
The followings are the steps to design home page:
1. Start___ Program_____ Accessories ______Notepad.
2. Write HTML coding and save with .html extension.
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<IT1LE> Titlf Text Goes Here </TlTLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
Hello Students
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 7.
Explain definition lists with an example.
Answer:
As you might expect, definition lists begin and end with the tags <DL> and </DL>. However, unlike the unordered and ordered lists, definition lists are not based on list items. They are instead based on term-definition pairs.

Question 8.
Write names of various attributes of font.
Answer:
The various attributes of Font tag are:

Face
Size
Color.

Question 9.
For what purpose Marquee tag is used?
Answer:
The marquee tag is used to navigate the text on web page.
<Marquee> Hello </Marquee>

Question 10.
Mention the names of different types of lists used in HTML.
Answer:
There are three types of Lists in HTML:

Ordered List
Unordered List
Definition List

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the features of HTML?
Answer:
HTML:
Originally, HTML was developed with the intent of defining the structure of documents like headings, paragraphs, lists, and so forth to facilitate the sharing of scientific information between researchers. Web page has many elements as page style, paragraph, list, table and picture etc. Each section is written in the form of tag. The tags indicate that the element viz. heading, list, paragraph etc to which the section of web page relates. Picture, sound and movie can be included in addition to the text in a web page.

Question 2.
Discuss the structure of HTML Document.
Answer:
Structure Of Document:
It is easier to understand the structure of a HTML document. The complete document is written between <HTML> and </HTML> tags. The tags <Head>, <Body>, <Title>etc are written between these. The structure of HTML document is explained in detail below:
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 2
Question 3.
What are the different Headings Tags in HTML?
Answer:
HTML Headings:
The heading tag is used to fix the heading. There are 6 levels of heading in all. The levels are numbered as heading 1 to heading 6. All the letters of the heading in a given level have same font. The font size go^S on decreasing as we move from heading 1 to heading 6. The heading in level 1 is expressed by tags <H1> and </Hl>. Similarly in the heading in level 2 we use the tags <H2> and </H2>. <H6> is the lowest level. The font size in it is the smallest.

Tags	Description
<HR>	A horizontal rule line.
<H1>…</H1>	A first-level heading.
<H2>…</H2>	A second-level heading.
<H3>…</H3>	A third-level heading.
<H4>…</H4>	A fourth-level heading (seldom used).
<H5>…</H5>	A fifth-level heading (seldom used).
<H6>…</H6>	A sixth-level heading (seldom used).

Question 4.
Explain type attribute in an Ordered list.
Answer:
HTML Ordered Lists:
If you are required to put your items in a numbered list instead of bulleted, then HTML ordered list will be used. This list is created by using <ol> tag. The numbering starts at one and is incremented by one for each successive ordered list element tagged with <li>.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 3
The type Attribute
You can use type attribute for <ol> tag to specify the type of numbering you like. By default, it is a number. Following are the possible options :
<ol type = “1”> – Default-Case Numerals.
<ol type = “I”> – Upper-Case Numerals.
<ol type = “i”> – Lower-Case Numerals.
<ol type = “A”> – Upper-Case Letters.
<ol type = “a”> – Lower-Case Letters.
The start Attribute
You can use start attribute for <ol> tag to specify the starting point of numbering you need. Following are the possible options:
<ol type = “1” start = “4”> – Numerals starts with 4.
<ol type = “I” start = “4”> – Numerals starts with IV.
ol type = “a” start = “4”> – Letters starts with d
<ol type = “A” start = “4”> – Letters starts with D.

Question 5.
What are the tags used to creating tables in HTML? Explain.
Answer:
The HTML tables allow web authors to arrange data like text, images, links, other tables, etc. into rows and columns of cells.
The HTML tables- are created using the <table> tag in which the <tr> tag is used to create table rows and <td> tag is used to create data cells. The elements under <td> are regular and left aligned by default.
Example
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 4
Table Heading:
Table heading can be defined using <th> tag. This tag will be put to replace <td> tag, which is used to represent actual data cell. Normally you will put your fop row as table heading as shown below, otherwise you can use <th> element in any row. Headings, which are defined in <th> tag are centered and bold by default.

Cellpadding and Cellspacing Attributes:
There are two attributes called cellpadding and cellspacing which you will use to adjust the white space in your table cells. The cellspacing attribute defines space between table cells, while cellpadding represents the distance between cell borders and the content within a cell.

Colspan and Rowspan Attributes:
You will use colspan attribute if you want to merge two or more columns into a single column. Similar way you will use rowspan if you want to merge two or more rows.

Question 6.
Can you use insert image in your website? If yes, how? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Html Images:
Images are very important to beautify as well as to depict many complex concepts in simple way on your web page. This tutorial will take you through simple steps to use images in your web pages.

Insert Image:
You can insert any image in your web page by using <img> tag. Following is the simple syntax to use this tag.
<imgsrc = “Image URL” … attributes-list/>
The <img> tag is an empty tag, which means that, it can contain only list of attributes and it has no closing tag.
Example
To try following example, let’s keep our HTML file test.htm and image file test.png in the same directory.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 5
Set Image Location:
Usually we keep all the images in a separate directory. So let’s keep HTML file test.htm in our home directory and create a subdirectory images inside the home directory where we will keep our image test.png.

Set Image Width/Height
You can set image width and height based on your requirement using width and height attributes. You can specify width and height of the image in terms of either pixels or percentage of its actual size.

Set Image Border :
By default, image will have a border around it, you can specify border thickness in terms of pixels using border attribute. A thickness of 0 means, no border around the picture.
Example
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 HTML Fundamentals 6
Set Image Alignment:
By default, image will align at the left side of the page, but you can use align attribute to set it in the center or right.
Example

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Infrastructure of the Indian Economy

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Infrastructure of the Indian Economy Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Infrastructure of the Indian Economy

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Infrastructure of the Indian Economy Textbook Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by infrastructure?
Answer:
Infrastructure of the economy signifies that part of the capital stock of the economy is necessary from the viewpoint of providing various types of services.

Question 2.
What are the main components of economic infrastructure in India?
Answer:
The main components of economic infrastructure in India are :

Transport and communication
Electric power
Irrigation
Banking and financial institutions.

Question 3.
Name the various modes of transport in India.
Answer:
The following are the important means of transport in India :

Rail transport
Road transport
Water transport
Air transport.

Question 4.
What do you main by irrigation?
Answer:
Irrigation means providing the necessary water to the cultivable land through man-made or artificial means. Due to uneven, irregular and uncertain rainfall, irrigation assumes added importance.

Question 5.
What are the major sources of irrigation in India?
Answer:
Tubewells, river, tank etc. are the major sources of irrigation in India.

Question 6.
Write a short note on Reserves Bank of India.
Answer:
The reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the Central Bank of India, which was established on April 1, 1935 monetary institution which supervise, regulates controls and develops the monetary and financial system of the country. The Reserve Bank of India is fully owned and operated by the Government of India.

Question 7.
Write a note on the Commercial Bank of India.
Answer:
A Commercial Bank is a financial institution which performs the functions of accepting deposits from the general public and giving loans for investment with the aim of earning profit. Commercial Banks plays a singificant role in fulfilling the short term and medium term finacial requirements of Industries. Commercial Back can be described as a financial institution, that offers basic investment products like a savings account, current account, etc to the individuals and corporates.

Question 8.
What are the specific banking institutions of India?
Answer:
The specific banking institutions of India are :

Industrial Development Bank of India
Industrial Finance Corporation of India
Land Development Banks
Co-operative Banks
Regional Rural Banks
National Bank For Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Export-Import Bank (Exim Bank),

Question 9.
What do you mean by consumer protection? What are its main methods?
Answer:
Consumers’ protection means to prevent the exploitation of the consumers from the unfair trade practices of the producers of consumer goods.

Consumer protection methods are:

MRTP Act was passed in 1969.
Consumer Protection Act 1986 was passed.
Consumers’ Disputes Redressal forums have been established.

Question 10.
Write a short note on Public Distribution System.
Answer:
Through Public Distribution System, Government distributes the necessities of life; like foodgrains, sugar, kerosene, coarse cloth etc. at concessional prices through Fair Price Shops at fixed quantities to the general public especially to the poor sections of the society.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by infrastructure? Why- is it required?
Answer:
Infrastructure is that part of the capital stock of the economy which is necessary from the viewpoint of providing various kinds of services. In other words infrastructure means those activities, facilities and services which are helpful in the operation and development of other sectors for example, Roads, Rails and Buses offering transport services. Canals and dams facilitating irrigation, etc.

It is required for the development of the country. Infrastructure like electricity, transport and communication are important for the development of every country.

Lack of infrastructure facilities will create hurdles in the development of industries and agriculture sectors. As a result of it their rate of growth will come down. Therefore, in every underdeveloped country there is a need of availability of infrastructure in a sufficient quantity which will be helpful in acceleration of their development.

Infrastructure is required to increase production and decrease cost.

Question 2.
What are the main kinds of infrastructure in India? Explain.
Answer:
That part of the capital stock of the economy which provides direct services to the system of production and distribution is called the economic infrastructure of the economy.

The main constituents of economic infrastructure in India are as follows :

Transport and Communication
Electric Power
Irrigation
Banking and other Financial Institutions.

Economic infrastructure like transport, communication, power, irrigation, banking etc. have played a very important role in the economic development of our country.

Question 3.
What are main monetary institutions of India?
Answer:
The main monetary institutions in India are:

Moneylenders
Reserve Bank of India
Commercial Banks
Specialised Banking Institutions :
(a) Industrial Development Bank of India
(b) Regional Rural Banks
(c) Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank)
(d) Land Development Banks
(e) Co-operative Banks
(f) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
(g) Industrial Finance Corporation of India etc.
Non-Banking Financial Institutions:
(a) Unit Trust of India
(b) Life Insurance Corporation of India
Stock Exchanges.

Question 4.
What do you mean by consumer exploitation? What are the main methods of consumer protection?
Answer:
Consumers exploitation means the exploitation of the consumers from unfair trade practices of the producers of consumer goods. Trading classes are putting their all out efforts to exploit the consumers as they are the most confused and unorganised persons in modern Indian Economy. Adulteration, substandard packed goods, use of non-standard weights or misleading and fabricated advertisements are such activities which exploit the consumers to a large extent.

Methods of Consumers’ Protection. In order to protect consumers’ interest, the govt, has enacted the following legislations:

Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
The Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976.
The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1976. ‘
The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969.
The Prevention of Black Marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980.
Consumers’ Protection Act, 1986.

In order to redress the grievances of the consumers at very low expenses and for their early disposal ‘Consumer Disputes Redressal Forums’ have been established at the district, state and national levels. Along with this, consumer protection councils have also been established to protect the interest of the consumers. They can lodge a complaint. Besides this consumer education and consumer organisations also play a vital role to protect the interests of the consumers.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Public Distribution System? Explain the present position of Public Distribution System in India.
Answer:
Public distribution system signifies a system through which the govt, of a country makes provision to supply essential items like foodgrains, sugar, kerosene, etc. to its people, especially the poor people, in fixed quantity at controlled prices through fair price shops.

There are three main constituents of public distribution system in India :
1. Public Procurement System. In 1988, over 14 million tonnes of foodgrains were procured by the govt, at procurement prices. In 2006, this figure rose to 26.4 million tonnes.

2. Buffer Stock. Black-marketing in the foodgrains can be checked if the govt, has buffer stock of foodgrains and adequate storage facilities. In India, we have many warehouses in the public sector. Important among them are the warehouses of Food Corporation of India. The Corporation has got its warehouses throughout India. It stores agricultural goods and releases stock under public distribution system.

3. Fair-Price Shops. The system of public distribution in India operates fairly successfully through a network of fair-price shops selling foodgrains, sugar, kerosene and soft coke. At present, we are having around 4.37 lakh fair price shops. In 1988, 23 million tonnes of foodgrains and in 2006,26.8 million tonnes of foodgrains were distributed through these fair-price shops.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Infrastructure of the Indian Economy Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line :

Question 1.
Define Consumer.
Answer:
When we buy and use any commodity we become consumer.

Question 2.
State any one component of economic infrastructure.
Answer:
Irrigation.

Question 3.
Name any one mode of Transport in India.
Answer:
Railway.

Question 4.
Which are the two main modes of Irrigation in India?
Answer:
Rain and Rivers.

Question 5.
When was R.B.I. established?
Answer:
1935.

Question 6.
When was Consumer Protection Act established?
Answer:
1986.

Question 7.
State any one function of R.B.I.
Answer:
It issues notes.

Question 8.
State the name of the apex bank of India.
Answer:
R.B.I.

Question 9.
State any one specific banking institution in India.
Answer:
NABARD.

Question 10.
State the full form of P.D.S.
Answer:
Public Distribution System.

Question 11.
Name one infrastrucuture of the economy.
Answer:
Transport.

Question 12.
What is stock exchange?
Answer:
Where securities are bought and sold.

Question 13.
Name the non-banking financial institution in India.
Answer:
L.I.C.

Question 14.
Name any one multipurpose project in India.
Answer:
The Bhakra-Nangal project.

Question 15.
Name one public sector shipping company in India.
Answer:
Mugal lines.

Question 16.
Name the important mean of communication.
Answer:
Telephone.

Question 17.
Name the source of electric power.
Answer:
Thermal Power.

Question 18.
What is a commercial bank?
Answer:
It generally gives short term loans.

Question 19.
What is the objective of multipurpose river valley projects?
Answer:
Production of hydro electricity.

Question 20.
State any one feature of Consumers’ Protection Act, 1986.
Answer:
To seek redressal against unfair trade practices.

Question 21.
State any One cause for the need of PDS.
Answer:
Inadequate shortage and marketing facilities.

Question 22.
What is Irrigation?
Answer:
It means providing the necessary water to the cultivable land.

Question 23.
Name some infrastructures of the economy.
Answer:
Transport and communication, power, irrigation, banking and financial institutiolis, Education, Health and family welfare, housing and other civic amenities.

Question 24.
What is meant by economic infrastructure?
Answer:
That part of the capital stock of the economy which is necessary for providing-the different types of direct services to the system of production and distribution is called the economic infrastructure of the economy.

Question 25.
What is meant by transport system of a given country?
Answer:
All those means which help in the transportation of goods and people from one place to another constitute the transport system of a country.

Question 26.
Name the important means of communication.
Answer:
Postal services, telegram, telephone, radio, television, newspapers, etc.

Question 27.
Name two public sector shipping companies in India.
Answer:

Shipping Corporation of India and
Mugal Line.

Question 28.
Name any two multipurpose projects in India.
Answer:

The Bhakra-Nangal Project and
The Damodar Valley Project.

Question 29.
Name any one specialised banking institution in India.
Answer:
Industrial Development Bank of India.

Question 30.
Name the important non-banking financial institutions in India.
Answer:

Unit Trust of India and
Life Insurance Corporation of India.

Question 31.
What is meant by Stock Exchange?
Answer:
A market in which securities are bought and sold is known as stock exchange or share market.

Question 32.
Write any one main function of R.B.I.
Answer:
To issue notes.

Question 33.
What is meant by Consumer Education?
Answer:
By consumer education we mean the education to be imparted to the consumers which may enable them to safeguard their interest and help them to become rational consumers.

Question 34.
Name the important means of transport.
Answer:
Railways, Road, Water and Air transport are the main means of transport.

Question 35.
Name the sources of electric power.
Answer:
Thermal power-, Hydel power and Nuclear power are the sources of power in India.

Question 36.
What are the sources of irrigation?
Answer:
Rainfall, Wells, Tubewells, Ponds are the main sources of irrigation.

Question 37.
What is the name of Central Bank of India?
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India.

Question 38.
When was R.B.I established?
Answer:
1935.

Question 39.
What are Commercial Banks?
Answer:
Commercial Banks are those banks which generally give short term loan.

Question 40.
Name two Non-Banking institutions.
Answer:
L.I.C., U.T.I.

Question 41.
When was Consumer Protection Act launched?
Answer:
1986.

Question 42.
What do you mean by Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Supply of essential commodities to the people through government agencies is known as Public Distribution System.

Question 43.
Which is one mode of Electric power in India?
Answer:
Thermal Power.

Question 44.
What are the major sources of Power in India?
Answer:
The major sources of Power in India are:

Thermal Power
Nuclear Power
Hydel Power.

Question 45.
How many commercial banks are nationalised?
Answer:
In 1969, fourteen banks were nationalised, 6 more banks were nationalized inl980 which accounted for 20. But now its number is 19.

Question 46.
Write the name of India’s Central Bank.
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
RBI was established in ___________ (1945 / 1935)
Answer:
1935

Question 2.
When we use any commodity we become__________(Producer / Consumer)
Answer:
Consumer

Question 3.
Consumer Protection Act was estabhshed in_________year. (1985 / 1986)
Answer:
1986

Question 4.
_______ is the Apex Bank of India. (SBI / RBI)
Answer:
RBI

Question 5.
________ gives short terms loans. (Central bank / Commercial bank)
Answer:
Commercial bank

Question 6.
NABARD was estabhshed in_______year. (1982 / 1999)
Answer:
1982

Question 7.
Irrigation is a component of __________ infrastructure. (Social / Economic)
Answer:
economic

Question 8.
_______ issues notes in a country. (RBI / SBI)
Answer:
RBI.

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
State any one function of RBI.
(a) Note issue
(b) Bank of the Govt.
(c) Banker’s Bank
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 2.
When was RBI established?
(a) 1925
(b) 1935
(c) 1945
(d), 1955.
Answer:
(b) 1935

Question 3.
When was Consumer Protection Act established?
(a) 1980
(b) 1982
(c) 1986
(d) 1988.
Answer:
(c) 1986

Question 4.
When was NABARD established?
(a) 1982
(b) 1986
(c) 1988
(d) 1989.
Answer:
(a) 1982

Question 5.
Which is the Central Bank of India?
(a) SBI
(b) PNB
(c) RBI
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) RBI

Question 6.
What are the main components of economic infrastructure in India?
(a) Banking
(b) Electric power
(c) Irrigation
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 7.
What are the specific Banking Institutions in India?
(a) Regional Rural Bank
(b) NABARD
(c) Exim Bank
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 8.
PDS stands for :
(a) Public Demand Supply
(b) Public Distribution System
(c) Private Demand and supply
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Public Distribution System

True / False :

Question 1.
RBI was estabhshed in 1935.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
SBI is the apex bank of India.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
There are three sources of electricity in India.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
NABARD was estabhshed in 1992.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
COPRA was implemented in 1986.
Answer:
True

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the need for infrastructure?
Answer:
The prosperity of a country depends directly upon the development of agriculture and industry. Agricultural production, however requires power, credit transport facilities etc. Industrial production requires not only machinery and equipment but also skilled man-power, management, energy .banking facilities, marketing faclities, transport services, communication facilities etc.All these facilities and services constitute collectively the infrastructure of the economy and the development and expansion of these facilities are an essential pre-condition for increasing agricultural and industrial production in a country.

Question 2.
What is the importance of means of transport in a given economy?
Answer:
Transportation is the most important constituent of economic infrastructure. It helps trade,commerce and industry. Transportation connects one place with the other. It reduces regional imbalances. It carries passengers and goods. It adds directly to our economic structure i.e. the process of production and distribution. It has been rightly said that “If agriculture and industry are regarded as the body and bones of the economy, transport constitutes its nerves.”

Question 3.
Write a short note on Railways as a means of transport in India.
Answer:
In India railway services were started on April 16,1853 when the first train was run between Bombay (Muihbai) and Thane. Now Indian railways are first in Asia and fourth in the world. Indian railways have a route length of nearly 62,759 kilometres. Indian railways rim 13,000 trains everyday connecting 7056 railway stations.

Question 4.
Write a short note on air transport in India.
Answer:
Air transport is the fastest and costliest means of transportation. There are two public sector companies for air transportation in India-Indian Air Lines Corporation and Air India International. Some private sector companies have also been established sincel992. There are four international aerodromes in India at Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. In recent years, important policy decisions have been taken to speed up the development of civil aviation in the country.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Communication system in India.
Answer:
The Communication system comprises posts and telegraphs, telecommunication system, broadcasting, television and information services. Since 1950-51, the postal network has been expanded throughout the country, and in recent years, with special emphasis on the rural, hilly and tribal areas. As far as the telecommunications are concerned, India has a network comprising over 18,000 exchanges with a capacity of 84 lakh lines and 72 lakh working telephones. The network has been expanding at an annual rate of 15 to 17 per cent. The outlay for the telecommunication in the Ninth Plan was over? 30,000 crore.

Question 6.
Highlight the main sources of power in India.
Answer:
There are three main sources of power in India:

Thermal power stations-using coal or oil.
Hydro-electric power stations-using potential power of fast-flowing rivers or high dams.
Nuclear power or atomic power-India is one of the few countries which have developed their nuclear capacities. At present, we are having five atomic power stations.

In our economy, we traditionally had thermal power which still accounts for the largest part of our electricity generation. With the emergence of the great multi-purpose river- valley projects, we have also developed hydroelectric power on a big scale. Finally, we also went in for nuclear power.

The priority for power distribution in our economy is shifting to the rural areas.

Question 7.
What are the objectives of multi-purpose river-valley projects?
Answer:
Multi-purpose projects are so named as they aim at serving several purposes at one and the same time. The important objectives of these multi-purpose river-valley projects are :

Production of hydroelectricity.
To help in storing water, which can be used for irrigation at the time of need.
To prevent erosion of soil and conserve land.
To promote fish rearing and navigation.
To help in checking floods.
To promote tourism in the country, etc.

Question 8.
Highlight the various features of the Consumers’ Protection Act, 1986.
Answer:
Consumers’ Protection Act, 1986 is the latest act which safeguards the interests of the consumers in the following ways :

Protects against the marketing of commodities hazardous to life and property.
Informs about the quality, purity, potency, weight and price of the commodity.
Ensures the availability of goods at a competitive price.
Seeks redressal against unfair trade practices.
Provides setting up of:
(a) Consumers’ forum at district level.
(b) State forum and commission at state level.
(c) National Consumers’ Grievances Redressal Cell at national level.

Question 9.
Write a short note on need for public distribution system in India.
Answer:
The forces of demand and supply do not always achieve the socially desirable objectives, so it becomes necessary that the Govt, should interfere in the production and distribution of commodities.

The necessity of public distribution system in India is because of the following reasons:

Limited resources and means of production.
Inadequate production.
Inadequate storage and marketing facilities.
Corrupt practices of producers and traders i.e. hoarding and black-marketing.
Inequality of income and poverty leading to starvation.

Question 10.
Briefly describe the economic infrastructure of transport in India.
Answer:
Transport. After the railways, the principal mode of transport in our economy is the roadways. In fact, over the last two decades, the heavy trucks on our highways linking the main industrial centres have become quite a match for the railways in many spheres. Passenger bus services also compete successfully with the railways in many regions. All this has come about mainly because of the improved network of well-made roads that make up a new and important part of our economic infrastructure today.

Besides railways and roads, our economy is served by coastal shipping, inland waterways and, of course, domestic airlines as the other modes of inland transportation. International shipping is handled by the major ports of the country like Mumbai, Kolkata, Haldia, Chennai, Mangalore, Marmugao and Vishakhapatnam and many minor ports. The Air India and other international airlines operate through the airports maintained by the International Airports Authority of India.

Question 11.
Describe the economic infrastructure of Power in India.
Answer:
The rate at which electric power is consumed by an economy is often an index of its state of industrialisation. The power produced and consumed per head of population in our country is very low indeed, but it is rising fast. This is an indication that modern industries are growing in the economy and the country is developing.

In our economy, we traditionally had thermal power which still accounts for the largest part of our electricity generation. With the emergence of the great multi-purpose river- valley projects we also developed hydro-electric power on a big scale. Finally, we also went in for nuclear power.

The priority for power distribution in our economy is shifting to the rural areas.

Question 12.
Describe the economic infrastructure of Irrigation in India.
Answer:
Irrigation provides an important input in the production of most crops, particularly in areas where rains are scarce or highly irregular. For centuries our economy has depended on fairly extensive systems of man-made irrigation besides natural irrigation for agriculture. We have dug wells, tanks and canals not only for the supply of our drinking water but also for watering our cultivated land from time immemorial. But whether natural or man-made, irrigation in most parts of our country has always been partially rain-fed. Rains, however, in India are mostly seasonal and dependent on the monsoons and the monsoons, till this day, are one of the world’s most difficult to understand weather phenomena. Thus, inspite of the introduction of modem technology and management techniques, Indian agriculture still is a gamble, though the magnitude of the uncertainty has diminished.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the role of transport in economic development.
Answer:
Role of Transport in Economic Development:
Transport, as said, is called as the lifeline of the country. It has a vast impact on the economic development of the country. The importance of transport with reference to economy is as follows :

Means of transport enable the maximum use of the resources because the movement of the sources is possible to the various parts of the country.
With the help of transport we can grow new markets and specialization as resources can be moved from different areas of the world.
Labour and capital become mobile. As a result the regional imbalances are removed.
Due to transport means the agricultural sector has been transferred.
Due to means of transport industries have been developed as they require cheap, best and faster means of transport for their growth.
Due to easy means of transport there has been a manifold increase in the encouragement to the tourism department.
Due to means of transport the gaps between the places have been narrowed and it has improved the social relationships.
Means of transport are of strategic importance as they provide internal security as well as external security.
Means of transport help in checking the fluctuation in prices thereby maintaining the economic stability.
Hence, we can conclude that thinking of economic activities in the absence of means of transport will be such as flowers without fragrance.

Question 2.
Explain the main functions of central bank.
Answer:
The main functions of central bank are as follows :

Bank of note issue. In the modern time, issuing of notes is the main function of central bank of every country in the world. Central bank has the monopoly in this regard. In India, RBI issues notes as a central bank of the country except one rupee note which is issued by the ministry of finance, government of India.
Banker, Agent and Advisor to the Government. The central bank acts as a banker, agent and advisor to the government.
Bankers’ Bank. Central bank acts as a banker of all other banks in the country. Central bank keeps relation with the banks in the same way as commercial banks keep relation with their customers.
Lender to the Last Resort. In a time of crisis, the central bank acts as a lender to the last resort. It provides loans to commercial banks when they are in deep trouble.
Custodian of the Foreign Exchange Reserves. The central bank acts as a custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country.
Custodian of Cash Reserves of the commercial banks. The central bank also keeps the cash reserves of the commercial banks.
Bank of central clearance, settlement, and transfer. A central bank is an institution where all the transactions of commercial banks are cleared, settled, and transferred very easily.
Control of credit. The central bank has got so many instruments to control credit like bank rate, open market operation, change in cash reserve ratio, credit rationing, moral persuasion, and direct actions, etc.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Office Tools

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 1 Office Tools Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 1 Office Tools

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Office Tools Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which tool is used to maintain a budget, financial statements, and sales records?
(a) Multimedia
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Presentation
(d) Database
Answer:
(b) Spreadsheet

Question 2.
Word automatically inserts a page break when we reach the ………… of a page.
(a) Starting
(b) End
(c) Mid of page
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) End

Question 3.
As we type our document, …………. wavy lines will appear under any word that is spelled incorrectly.
(a) Blue
(b) White
(c) Red
(d) Black
Answer:
(c) Red

Question 4.
The most common types of effects include entrances and exits.
(a) Animation
(b) Sound Effect
(c) Design
(d) Transition
Answer:
(a) Animation

Question 5
…………. is the blank space around the edges of the page.
(a) Graphics
(b) Design
(c) Margin
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Margin

2. Fill in the Blanks

1. Computer software is classified into two categories ………. and ………….
Answer:
System software and Application software

2. Database software is a collection of related data. The purpose of this tool is to ………… and ………. data.
Answer:
Organize and Manage

3. We can choose either ……….. (vertical) or ………….. (horizontal) orientation for all or part of our document.
Answer:
Portrait or Landscape

4. The image file extensions supported by PowerPoint include ………… TIFF (.tiff) and Bitmap (.bmp)
Answer:
JPEG (.jpg),GIF

5. Multimedia software is tool that allows the user to create ……….. and …………. with the help of media players and real players.
Answer:
Audio and Videos.

3. True or False

Question 1.
The main purpose of Spread sheet tool is to produce documents.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Application software is software that can perform a specific task for the user
Answer:
True

Question 3.
We can drag existing tab stops left or right along the ruler to a different position.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Print Preview automatically displays when we click on the Print tab.
Answer:
True

4. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write extension of Word document in Ms Office 2010.
Answer:
.docx

Question 2.
Write extension of Spread Sheet in Ms Office 2010.
Answer:
.xlsx

Question 3.
Write extension of Power Point Presentation Ms Office 2010.
Answer:
.pptx

Question 4.
Write the full form of bmp (Image file).
Answer:
BitMaP

Question 5.
Write the full form of PDF.
Answer:
Portable Document Format

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 1 Office Tools

5. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define System Software?
Answer:
System software are the set of software which are used for the working of computer system and its hardware. It includes operating system, language translators etc.

Question 2.
Explain database software?
Answer:
Database is a collection of related data. The purpose of database tools is to organize and manage data. The advantage of these tools is that we can change the way data is stored and displayed. SQL Server, MS access, data Base, FoxPro, Paradox, and Oracle are some of the examples of database software tools.

Question 3.
Explain multimedia software.
Answer:
Media players and real players are the examples of multimedia tools. These tools allow the user to create audio and video files. The different forms of multimedia tools are audio converters, audio and video players, video encoders and decoders.

Question 4.
What is Page Break? How to insert a page break?
Answer:
Page break is a way to tell MS word that the page has ended. These can be automatic and manual.
Inserting a Page Break:
1. Click where we want to start a new page.
2. On the Insert tab, in toe pages group, click Page Break.
We can also insert breaks into our document by going to the Insert tab, Pages group and clicking on the Page Breaks command to view a variety of page.

6. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is office tool ? Explain any five types of office tools?
Answer:
Office tools are software programs designed to make computer users more productive and efficient at our workplace. Office productivity tool is a category of application programs that help users produce things such as documents, databases, graphs, worksheets and presentations.

Types of office tools are-
1. Word Processing Tools:
The main purpose of word processing tools is to produce good looking documents. MS-Word, WordPad, Notepad and Adobe Pagemaker are some of the examples of word processing tools.

2. Database Software Tools:
Database is a collection of related data. The purpose of database tools is to organize and manage data. The advantage of these tools is that we can change the way data is stored and displayed. SQL Server, MS access, dataBase, FoxPro, Paradox, and Oracle are some of the examples of database software tools.

3. Spreadsheet Tools:
The spreadsheet tools are used to make calculations, maintain budget, financial statements, and sales records. The purpose of these tools is to work with numbers. It allows the users to perform simple as well as complex calculations on the numbers. MS-Excel, Open Office are examples of spreadsheet tools.

4. Presentation Tool:
Presentation tools are used to display the information in the form of slide shows. The main functions of presentation tools is editing that allows insertion and formatting of text, including graphics in the text and executing the slide shows. The examples for these tools are Microsoft PowerPoint, Open Office Present.

5. Multimedia Software:
Media players and real players are the examples of multimedia tools. These tools allow the user to create audio and video files. The different forms of multimedia tools are audio converters, audio and video players, video encoders and decoders.

Question 2.
Write steps to create Student Annual Report using mail merge with spreadsheet?
Answer:
Student Annual Report can be created using MS Word and MS Excel using following steps:
1. Prepare the annual report format in MS word. Mention student’s detail like admission no, roll no, name, father’s name, marks of each subject, overall result and percentage of marks of student.

2. On the other side, prepare a excel worksheet, in which student’s admission no, roll no, name, father’s name, subject-wise marks obtained in subjects Punjabi, English, Maths, Science, Social Studies and grades etc. are-entered.

3. Next calculate the percentage of marks of each student using a formula.

4. Now, click on Mailing Tab, and start mail merge. Then, choose Letter option which we already prepared.

5. Next Click on Select Recipients and select Use Existing List option. Choose excel sheet from Select Table dialog box and click OK.

6. Place the cursor where you want to insert the value of field from excel sheet. Now go to Insert Merge Field option in Write & Insert Fields group. A dropdown menu will be displayed having field names.

7. Select the field names one by one after placing the cursor in proper place in the student annual report. All fields will be displayed.

8. After inserting all the clicking Preview Results next and previous button, you can preview the result of students by option.

9. Now click on Finish & Merge option and select Edit Individual Documents from the menu. A dialog box Merge to New Document will open. Choose option All and click OK to show the report card of all the students in excel worksheet.

10. Now a new Word document will open having report card of all the students. Save this document and we can also take printouts.

Question 3.
What are Tab Stops? Explain setting manual tab stops.
Answer:
Tabs are the facility which help to display the content in more structured and tabular form without using tables.
Setting up the Tab Stops:
1. Click the tab selector at the left end of the ruler it displays the type of tab that you want.
2. Click in the ruler at the top of our page, where we want to set the tab stop.
The different types of tab stops are:

Left Tab stop sets the start position of text that will then run to the right as we type.
Center Tab stop sets the position of the middle of the text. The text centers on this position as we type.
Right Tab stop Sets the right end of the text. As we type, the text moves to the left.
Decimal Tab stop aligns numbers around a decimal point. Independent of the number of digits, the decimal point will be in the same position. (We can align numbers around a decimal character only)

Bar Tab stop doesn’t position text. It inserts a vertical bar at the tab position. Desired Tab stop will be placed at the point in the present paragraph.

Question 4.
Explain Print Preview and Print Command?
Answer:
Print Preview. Print Preview displays the document as it will appear when printed. When we make a change to a print-related setting, the preview is automatically updated. To print preview of the document, following steps are used:
Click the File tab, and then click Print. To go back to our document, click the File tab.
A preview of our document automatically appears. To view each page, click the arrows below the preview.
Print Command. Print command is used to print a document using some printer. Following steps are followed to print a document in
MS-Word:

Click the File tab.
Click the Print command to print a document.
Click the Print button to print our document.
This dropdown shows the currently selected printer. Clicking the dropdown will display other available printers.
These dropdown menu show currently selected gettings.
Select the printer and other setting and click on Print.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Office Tools Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What are the types in which PowerPoint files can be saved?
(a) PDF
(b) Video file
(c) Presentation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
What are the extension of an image file?
(a) .jPg
(b) .gif
(c) .bmp
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
Which one is system software?
(a) Word
(b) Excel
(c) Windows
(d) PowerPoint
Answer:
(c) Windows

Question 4.
Mail merge is a feature of which software?
(a) Word
(b) Excel
(c) Windows
(d) PowerPoint
Answer:
(c) Windows

Question 5.
Which one is not a type of office tools?
(a) Word Processing
(b) DBMS
(c) Multimedia Software
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Fill In The Blanks

1. Word processing tool prepares ………….. .
Answer:
Documents

2. Theme helps to choose ……………… in PowerPoint.
Answer:
Background

3. …………. is pre defined document structure.
Answer:
Template

4. ……………is used for calculation.
Answer:
Excel.

True Or False

Question 1.
Application software is used for specific work
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Any document can have two orientations.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Presentation can be saved as PDF.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
We cannot do calculations in Excel.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Page margins are empty space in mid of page.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the different type of Softwares?
Answer:
System Software and Application Software.

Question 2.
Beneficial software for our work are called?
Answer:
Office tools.

Question 3.
Note pad is an example of?
Answer:
Word processing tool.

Question 4.
Give an example of spreadsheet software.
Answer:
MS Excel.

Question 5.
PowerPoint is an example of?
Answer:
Presentation tool.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question l.
What are Page Margins?
Answer:
Page margins pre the blank space around the edges of the page. In general, we insert text and graphics in the printable area inside the margins. When we change a document’s page margins, we change where text and graphics appear on each page.

Question 2.
Write steps of setting predefined page margins.
Answer:

On the Page Layout tab, in the Page Setup group, click Margins. The margins gallery dropdown menu Will appear.
Click the margin type that we want to apply

Question 3.
Write steps to change Page Orientation.
Answer:

On the Page Layout tab, in the Page Setup group, click Orientation.
Click Portrait or Landscape.

Question 4.
Write steps to apply different page orientations.
Answer:
1. Select the pages or paragraphs that we want to change to portrait or landscape orientation.
2. On the Page Layout tab, in the Page Setup group, click Margins.

Click Custom Margins at the bottom of the dropdown menu.
A Page Setup dialog box will appear.
On the Margins tab, click Portrait or Landscape.
In the Apply to list, click Selected text or This point forward.

Question 5.
Write steps to apply custom margins.
Answer:

On the Page Layout tab, in the Page Setup group, click Margins.
At the bottom of the margins gallery dropdown menu, click Custom Margins.
The Page Setup dialog box will appear.
Enter new values for the margins in all or some of the top, bottom, left or right text boxes.
Click OK.

Question 6.
Write steps to save presentation as PDF.
Answer:
Steps to save a presentation as a pdf file are:

Go to the backstage view under the File tab.
Click on Save As to open the Save As dialog.
Add a proper name to the file.
Select the file type as. .pdf from the list of supported file types and click save.
The .pdf file is created in the specified location.

Question 7.
Explain PPT broadcast slide show.
Answer:
PowerPoint 2010 offers users to broadcast their presentations on the internet to audience worldwide. Microsoft offers the free broadcast Slide Show service; all we need to do is share the link with our audience and they can watch the presentation from anywhere. There is no special setup or charges required to do this, all we need is a Windows Live account.

Question 8.
What is PPT Packaging Presentation?
Answer:
Certain presentations are better suited for distribution as a CD to audience. In such cases, we can create a CD packaging which can be burned into a CD and distributed. These CDs are called PPT packaging presentation.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write steps to save a presentation as a Video file.
Answer:
Saving Presentation as Video File:
PowerPoint allows presentations to be saved as files that can be posted on video sharing platform like YouTube or just played on any other-media.
Steps to save a presentation as a video file are:

Go to the backstage view under the File tab.
Click on Save As to open the Save As dialog.
Add a proper name to the file.
Select the file type as .wmv from the list of supported file types and click Save.
The video creation is not an instant process like other file types as PowerPoint needs to create the video file. We can track the progress of video creation at the bottom of our presentation window.
Once the creation is complete, the video file is created in the specified location.

Question 2.
What are the steps of clearing Tab stops.
Answer:
Clear Tab Stops:
We can clear tab stops in a variety of ways, the simplest is going to the ruler, click and hold on the tab stop and drag in down towards the document. The tab stop will disappear. To quickly clear multiple tab stops and start fresh:

Click the Home tab, click the Paragraph Dialog Box Launcher.
A Paragraph box will appear, click on the Tabs button at the bottom left of the dialog box.

A Tabs dialog box will appear.
In the list under Tab stop position, click the tab stop position that we want to clear, and then click Clear. To remove the spacing from all manual tab stops, click Clear All.
Click OK.

Question 3.
What are the ways to use Spell Check feature?
Answer:
Using the “Spell Check” Feature:
As we type our document, red wavy lines will appear under any word that is spelled incorrectly. The fastest way to fix spelling errors is to:

Put the cursor over the misspelled word and right click.
A drop down box will appear with correct spellings of the word.
Highlight and left click the word you want to replace the incorrect word with.

To complete a more comprehensive Spelling and Grammar check, we can use the Spelling and Grammar feature:

Click on the Review tab.
Click on the Spelling & Grammar command.
A Spelling and Grammar box will appear.
We can correct any Spelling or Grammar issue within the box.

Question 4.
Write steps to print a document.
Answer:
Print Command:
The Print tab is the place to go to make sure that we are printing what we want.

Click the File tab.
Click the Print command to print a document.
Click the Print button to print your document.
This dropdown shows the currently selected printer. Clicking the dropdown will display other available printers.
These dropdown menu show currently selected Settings. Rather than just showing us the name of a feature,, these dropdown menu show us what the status of a feature is and describes it.

Question 5.
Write a note on Transition in PowerPoint.
Answer:
Transitions in MS – Power Point:
PowerPoint supports slide transition feature which allows us to specify how the slides should transition during the slide show.
PowerPoint presentation that had special effects between each slide, are slide transitions. A transition can be as simple as fading to the next slide or as complex as a flashy effect. This means we can choose transitions to fit the style of any presentation. There are three categories of unique transitions to choose from, all of which can be found on the Transitions tab:

1. Subtle (slight transitions)
2. Exciting (Strong Transition)
3. Dynamic Content (strong transitions that affect only the content, such as text or images)
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 1 Office Tools 5
The steps to add and preview slide transitions are:
1. Select the slide to which we want to apply the transition.
2. Go to the Transition Scheme under the Transitions ribbon.

3. Select one of the transition schemes from the list available. PowerPoint will instantly show us a preview of the scheme. If we are not satisfied, we can pick an alternate scheme. The last selected scheme will apply to the slide.

4. We can change the effects on the selected transition scheme from the Effect Options menu. Every scheme has a unique set of effect options.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Science Solutions Chapter 1 Office Tools 7
We can also modify the transition timing settings from-the Timing section. To preview the slide transition, click on Preview.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 5 Guru Gobind Singh Ji’s Life, Creation of Khalsa and his Personality

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 5 Guru Gobind Singh Ji’s Life, Creation of Khalsa and his Personality Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 5 Guru Gobind Singh Ji’s Life, Creation of Khalsa and his Personality

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Guru Gobind Singh Ji’s Life, Creation of Khalsa and his Personality Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 20-25 words:

Question 1.
When and where Guru Gobind Singh Ji was born? Write the names of his parents.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji was born on December 22, 1666 at Patna. The name of his father was Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji. The name of his mother was Mata Gujri Ji.

Question 2.
Which games were played by Guru Ji in his childhood at Patna?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji played the game of mock battles. Guru Sahib also played the game of justice in a mock court along with his playmates. Guru Sahib also organised the wrestling bouts and-races during his childhood at Patna.

Question 3.
Name the teachers from whom Guru Gobind Singh Ji received his education.
Answer:
Qazi Pir Muhammad, Pandit Harjas, Rajput Bajar Singh, Bhai Sahib Chand and Bhai Mati Das were eminent teachers who taught Guru Gobind Singh Ji.

Question 4.
What was the problem of Kashmiri Pandits? How did Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji solve it?
Answer:
Aurangzeb was forcibly converting Kashmiri Brahmins to Islam. Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji saved the Kashmiri Brahmins from that grave injustice by sacrificing his life.

Question 5.
Name the forts constructed by Guru Gobind Singh Ji after his victory of Bhangani.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji constructed the forts at Anandgarh, Keshgarh, Lohgarh and Fatehgarh after the battle of Bhangani (1690) at Anandpur Sahib.

Question 6.
Write names of the Panj Piaras.
Answer:
The names of the Panj Piaras were Daya Singh, Dharam Singh, Mokham Singh, Sahib Singh and Himmat Singh.

Question 7.
How did Guru Gobind Singh Ji attain martyrdom?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji toured South India in 1708. Guru Sahib stayed at Nanded (in Maharashtra) for some time. There a Pathan attacked Guru Sahib and inflicted a severe injury on his stomach with a dagger. Guru Sahib made the final union with Divine Power some time after that incident on October 7, 1708.

Question 8.
Which Banis are recited while preparing Khande Ka Pahul?
Answer:
The hymns of Japji Sahib, Anand Sahib, Jap Sahib, Swayas, Chaupais etc. are recited while preparing Khande Ka Pahul.

Question 9.
When and where was the Khalsa created?
Answer:
The work of the creation of the Khalsa was undertaken in 1699 at Anandpur Sahib on the day of Baisakhi.

Question 10.
What was the impact of the Khalsa on Bhim Chand, the king of Bilaspur?
Answer:
The Raja of Bilaspur, Bhim Chand was horrified due to the creation of the Khalsa. He made alliances with other Hill Chiefs against the Khalsa.

Question 11.
What was the earlier name of Muktsar? Why was it named so?
Answer:
The earlier name of Muktsar was Khidrana. A group of 40 Sikhs had deserted Guru Gobind Singh Ji during the second battle of Anandpur Sahib (1704 A.D.). However, they again came back to Guru Sahib after realising their mistake. They fought in the battle of Khidrana against the Mughals and achieved martyrdom. Those 40 martyrs were called 40 Muktas, (The word Mukta is derived from the word Mukti which means salvation). The place Khidrana was named Muktsar in the memory of those forty Sikh soldiers who had earlier deserted Guru Sahib. Guru Sahib pardoned them after they had repented at Khidrana.

Question 12.
To whom did Guru Ji write a letter named ‘Zafarnama’?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji wrote Zafarnama to Mughal emperor Aurangzeb.

Question 13.
Write the names of Guru Gobind Singh Ji’s four famous compositions.
Answer:
The four most popular literary works of Guru Gobind Singh Ji are Jap Sahib, Zafarnama, Akal Ustat and Shastra Nam Mala.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
How did Guru Gobind Singh Ji spend his childhood at Patna?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji spent the first five years of his childhood at Patna Sahib. His maternal uncle Shri Kirpal Chand was his guardian. It is said that a Muslim saint named Bhikhan Shah from Ghuram (Patiala district^ visited Patna Sahib to have the divine glimpse of the child Gobind. The moment the Muslim saint looked at the child for the first time, he forecasted that the child would become a great man and lead the people on the right path. The forecast of the Muslim saint came out true. The signs of his greatness were visible even in his childhood. The child Gobind Das used to divide his friends into groups and organise mock battles. The child Gobind Das used to pay them even salaries in the form of sweets and cowries (small shells). The child Gobind Das used to play the role of a judge and settled disputes of his playmates. The child Gobind Das used to deliver judgements with great ability.

Question 2.
Write about the royal emblems of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji had also adopted the royal symbols like his grandfather Guru Hargobind Ji. Guru Sahib sat on a raised seat and also adorned his headgear with a crest. Guru Sahib also started calling meetings of the Sikhs under highly decorated and costly canopies. Guru Sahib also kept elephants and horses of the best breeds. Guru Sahib regularly went on hunting expeditions. Guru Sahib had also built Ranjit Nagara (the victory drum).

Question 3.
Describe the principles of the Khalsa.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji created the Khalsa in 1699. Guru Sahib made the following rules for the Khalsa:

Every Sikh would add Singh (lion) after his name. Every Sikh woman would add word Kaur after her name.
Every person would join the Khalsa Panth after getting sprinklings and five palmfuls of Amrit (Sacred Water of Immortality) of Khande Ka Pahaul (Baptism of the Sword). Then only the baptized Sikh may call himself a Khalsa.
Every Sikh, must wear five Ks. which are Kesh (unshorn hair), Kanga (comb), Karra (the iron bangle), Kirpan (sword) and Kachchera ( a pair of shorts).
Every Sikh shall recite the five prayers after taking bath every morning, which are recited when the Khande Ka Pahaul is prepared.

Question 4.
What were the causes of the battle of Bhangani?
Or
Write any three reasons of the battle of Bhangani.
Answer:
The battle of Bhangani was fought between the Hill Chiefs and Guru Gobind Singh Ji. The causes of the battle were the following:

The Hill Chiefs considered the military activities of Guru Gobind Singh Ji as dangerous to them.
Guru Sahib was strongly against idol worship whereas the Hill Chiefs were highly devoted to idol worship.
Guru Sahib had recruited 500 Pathans, in his army who had been disbanded from the Mughal army. The Hill Chiefs were the vassals of the Mughal government. They supported the enemies of Guru Sahib.
The Mughal Faujdar had provoked the Hill Chiefs to take action against Guru Sahib.
Guru Sahib had strained relations with Bhim Chand of Bilaspur. The Sikhs had not allowed the marriage party of the son of Raja Bhim Chand to pass through Poanta Sahib while proceeding to Kharwal. As a result, the Hill Chiefs decided to fight a battle against Guru Sahib.

Question 5.
Describe briefly the second battle of Anandpur Sahib.
Answer:
The second battle of Anandpur Sahib was fought in 1704. Earlier, in the first battle of Anandpur Sahib, Guru Gobind Singh Ji had given a crushing defeat t© the hill chiefs. In spite of signing a peace accord with Guru Sahib, the hill chiefs had again started military preparations. They were also joined by the Gujjars. The Mughal Emperor had also accepted their request for military help. As a result, the governor of Sirhind, Wazir Khan, had sent a big contingent against the Sikhs.

The army of all the allied forces besieged Anandpur Sahib. Guru Sahib effectively resisted the attack of the Mughals. However, the Sikhs had an acute shortage of provisions. The Mughal generals cut off all the means of communication and the Sikhs experienced great hardships. The Sikh army started facing starvation. A group of forty Sikhs signed a disclaimer (Badhawa) and thus deserted Guru Sahib. Finally on December 21, 1704, on the advice of Mata Gujari Ji, Guru Sahib, and the Sikhs vacated Anandpur Sahib.

Question 6.
Write a note on the battle of Chamkaur Sahib.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji reached Chamkaur Sahib from Anandpur Sahib after crossing the river Sirsa. Guru Sahib took position in a mud fort at Chamkaur where the armies of the Mughals and the Hill Chiefs besieged the fort. Guru Sahib gave them a tough fight. The two Sahibzadas of Guru Sahib, Sahibzada Ajit Singh and Sahibzada Jujhar Singh achieved martyrdom. Apart from that, thirty-five Sikhs also achieved martyrdom. The circumstances were not favourable for Guru Sahib. Hence the Sikhs pleaded with Guru Sahib to leave the place and Guru Sahib left for the jungles of Machchiwara along with his five Sikh devotees.

Question 7.
Describe the battle of Khidrana.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji reached Khidrana after the battle of Chamkaur Sahib. The last battle of Guru Sahib with the Mughals was fought at Khidrana. Those forty Sikhs who had deserted Guru Sahib in the second battle of Anandpur Sahib came back to Guru Sahib after repentance and fought for Guru Sahib in the battle of Khidrana. They gave a proof of their devotion and achieved martyrdom after defeating the Mughals. Their devotion and sacrifice impressed Guru Sahib so much that he forgave them for their, previous faults and granted them salvation or Mukti. Hence, the forty martyrs are remembered in the history as forty Muktas. Mai Bhago had also fought in the battle of Khidrana and was badly wounded. Guru Sahib won the battle and the Mughal army ran away for their life after suffering a crushing defeat.

Question 8.
Describe the personality of Guru Gobind Singh Ji as a general.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji was a great religious leader. Guru Sahib was also a successful military commander and a brave soldier. Guru Sahib fought battles forced upon him by the hill chiefs and the Mughals. But Guru Sahib fought every battle courageously and established himself as a successful General. Guru Sahib had complete mastery over swordplay, archery and horse riding. Guru Sahib had all the qualities of a commander of a high calibre. Guru Sahib had made the Mughals and hill chiefs to lick dust even with his lesspr number of soldiers and limited resources. During the battle of Chamkaur Sahib, Guru Sahib had hardly forty Sikhs in his army. But under his command, they displayed such a spectacular fighting power that the Mughal army of thousands failed to defeat them.

Answer the following questions in 100-120 words:

Question 1.
What do you know about the life of Guru Gobind Singh Ji?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji was the tenth and the last Guru of the Sikhs. Guru Sahib gave the final shape to the Sikh religion. After creating the Khalsa in 1699, Guru Sahib created the spirit of unity, courage and heroism among the Sikhs. Guru Sahib gave a strong reply to the oppression of the Mughals with his limited resources. Guru Sahib is remembered as a great spiritual leader, an organizer par excellence, a successful commander, a literary genius and a great social reformer. A brief description of his life history is as follows:

Birth and Parentage. Guru Gobind Singh Ji was born on December 22, 1666, at Patna. The name of the mother of Guru Sahib was Mata Gujari Ji. Guru Sahib was the only son of Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji. Guru Sahib was originally (by birth) named Gobind Das. According to some scholars, Guru Sahib was later named as Gobind Rai.

Childhood Period at Patna. Guru Sahib spent the first five years of his childhood at Patna. Guru Sahib used to play such games which had revealed beforehand that one day the child Gobind Rai would become a great religious leader. Guru Sahib used to organise wrestling bouts and races of his playmates. Guru Sahib himself took part in the games. Guru Sahib used to divide his playmates into two groups and played mock battles. Guru Sahib used to hold his own court in his childhood to settle the disputes among his childhood friends. A Muslim saint, Sayyed Bhikan Shah, when he visited him from Ghuram had predicted that the child would become a great prophet one day.

Education. Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji started living with his family at Chak Nanki (Anadpur Sahib) from 1672. The arrangements for the education of the child Gobind Rai were made here by Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji. Guru Sahib studied Persian from Qazi Pir Muhammad and Sanskrit from Pandit Harjas. The Rajput Bajar Singh gave him training in horse riding and use of armaments. Guru Sahib learnt Gurumukhi from Bhai Sahib Chand and Bhai Mati Das.

Martyrdom of Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji and Accession of Guru Gobind Singh Ji to Gaddi. Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji achieved martyrdom. In 1675 in order to save Kashmiri Pandits from the oppression of the Mughals. The child Gobind had himself enjoined upon his father to achieve martyrdom. After the martyrdom of Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji, Guru Gobind Dass took over the responsibility of Guru Gaddi, which was granted to him by Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji himself and he guided the destiny of the Sikh community for the next thirty-three years.

Marriage. According to Sikh traditions, Gobind Das married three women-Bibi Jito, Bibi Sundari, and Bibi Sahib Devan. According to some historians, these are the names of one woman only. Guru Sahib was blessed with four sons. Their names were Sahibzada Ajit Singh, Sahibzada Jujhar Singh, Sahibzada Zorawar Singh and Sahibzada Fateh Singh.

Organization of Army. Guru Sahib had rightly realized the need of raising an army for the protection of Sikh religion. Hence, Guru Sahib ordained that a Sikh, who had four sons, should recruit his two sons in his army. Guru S&hib further advised them to make gifts of arms and horses in place of any other thing. As a result, soon Guru Sahib was able to collect enough military weapons to raise an army. Guru Sahib also employed 500 Pathan soldiers of Pir Buddhu Shah of Sadhana.

Magnificent Court and Royal Insignias of Guru Sahib. Guru Sahib had adopted royal insignias following the footsteps of his grandfather Guru Hargobind Ji. Guru Sahib occupied a raised throne and adorned his headgear with a crest (Kalghi). Guru Sahib held his court under magnificent canopies. Guru Sahib had also kept numerous elephants and horses of the best breeds. Guru Sahib regularly went on hunting expeditions in the jungles of Anandpur Sahib. Guru Sahib also constructed the Ranjit Nagara or the victory drum.

Guru Sahib in Poanta Sahib. Raja Bhim Chand of Bilaspur did not like the activities of Guru Sahib at Anandpur Sahib and became jealous of him. He feared the rising power of Guru Sahib. The Raja was trying to find an opportunity to pick up a quarrel with Guru Sahib. Guru Sahib knew it but he did not want to waste his military power in useless fights. Guru Sahib accepted the invitation of Raja Medni Parakash of Nahan to settle down in his state. In Nahan, Guru Sahib selected a scenic, peaceful and secluded place on the banks of river Yamuna. The place was named Poanta meaning a place where Guru Sahib rested his feet.

Guru Sahib brought 52 poets to Poanta Sahib. Guru Sahib composed many important literary works with the assistance of those poets. Guru Sahib got translated Ramayana and Mahabharata into Gurumukhi for the intellectual development of the Sikhs. Guru Sahib also made arrangements for imparting training in horse riding, archery, and swordplay to the Sikhs at Poanta Sahib.

Battles of the Pre-Khalsa Period,

Guru Sahib was compelled by the circumstances to fight the battle of Bhangani. Guru Sahib defeated Bhim Chand of Bilaspur and Fateh Shah of Srinagar in the battle of Bhangani. It was the first battle and an important victory of Guru Sahib. Guru Sahib decided to leave Poanta Sahib after the battle and came back to Anandpur Sahib. Guru Ji built forts of Anandgarh, Lohgarh, and Fatehgarh at Anandpur Sahib.
In the meantime, Aurangzeb who was in South India at that time got the reports of rising power of Guru Sahib. He directed his officers in Punjab in 1693, to start a war against Guru Sahib, As a result, the Faujdar of Kangra deputed his son Khanzada to lead an expedition against Guru Sahib. The Sikhs gave him a crushing defeat.
In 1695, the Faujdar of Kangra deputed Hussain Khan against Guru Sahib. However, his expedition turned into a tussle with hill chiefs and the local Sikhs and he did not get the chance to trouble Guru Sahib, as he was killed.
Shahzada Muazzam took many steps to crush the power of hill chiefs and Guru Sahib. Shahzada Muazzam succeeded in reducing the power of hill chiefs. However, Prince Muazzam did not act against Guru Sahib because Guru Sahib was highly respected by some of his officers.

Creation of the Khalsa. Guru Gobind Singh Ji created the Khalsa on the Baisakhi day in 1699 at Anandpur Sahib. Guru Sahib prepared Khande Ka Pahaul (Baptism of Sword) and administered it to his five Piyaras (chosen ones) named Daya Ram. Dharam Das, Mohakkam Chand, Sahib Chand and Himmat Rai. Guru Sahib added the word ‘Singh’ (Lion) to their names. Guru Sahib also added the word Singh to his own name.

Battles of the Post-Khalsa Period, The period after the creation of Khalsa is called the Post-Khalsa Period. Guru Gobind Singh Ji remained engaged in many battles during Post-Khalsa period. Guru Sahib fought the first battle of Anandpur Sahib in 1701, battle of Nirmoh in 1702, battle of Basoli in 1702, second battle of Anandpur Sahib in 1704, battle of Shahi Tibi and battle of Chamkaur Sahib in 1705. From Chamkaur Sahib, Guru Sahib reached Khidrana (Muktsar) after visiting places like Machchiwara, Dina etc. At Khidrana, Guru Sahib defeated the Mughal army in the last battle of his life in 1705. From Khidrana, Guru Sahib went to stay at Talwandi Sabo.

Death of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, Guru Gobind Singh Ji visited Nanded (Maharashtra) in 1708. The Faujdar of Sirhind had sent two Pathans to kill Guru Sahib. They used to visit the court of Guru Sahib occasionally. One evening, one of the Pathans got the opportunity to make a surprise attack on Guru Sahib and thrust a dagger into the stomach of Guru Sahib. Guru Sahib received a severe injury. On October 7, 1708, Guru Sahib made the final union with the Divine Power.

Question 2.
Why did Guru Gobind Singh Ji create the Khalsa?
Answer:
It was the glorious day in the history of Sikh religion when the saints of Guru Nanak Dev Ji were transformed into ‘Singhs’ the lions. They were transformed into such selfless soldiers who readily sacrificed their lives for the protection of their religion with smile on their faces, whenever any occasion demanded.

The great transformation took place in 1699, when Guru Gobind Singh Ji created Khalsa. Guru Sahib had created the Khalsa due to following reasons:
1. Contribution of the first Nine Guru Sahibans. The creation of Khalsa was the culmination of the work started by Guru Nanak Dev Ji. G.C. Narang remarks, “The harvest which ripened in the time of Guru Gobind Singh had been sown by Guru Nanak Dev Ji and watered by his successors. Guru Nanak Dev Ji had called upon the people to fight against injustice and for freedom from tyranny. After Guru Nank Dev Ji, the second, the third and the fourth Gurus consolidated the work begun by the first Guru. Guru Arjan Dev Ji had given to the Sikhs a holy book, a code and a treasury. He was addressed as “Sacha Padshah”. Guru Hargobind by his New Policy converted the Sikhs into saint-soldiers. The first four Guru Sahibs and the 8th Guru were peace loving but they did not make any changes in the basic policies of the other Gurus. The 9th Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji enjoined upon his followers to be brave, fearless, and courageous. By creating Khalsa, Guru Gobind Singh Ji, completed the process begun by his predecessors. In fact, all the elements of Khalsa are traceable in the doctrines given by the predecessors of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.

2. Oppression ofAurangzeb. The atrocities committed by the Mughals on the Sikhs went on increasing during the period of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. Aurangzeb demolished Hindu temples and removed Hindus from the government services. He imposed more unjust taxes and restrictions on them. The most oppressive measure was the forcible conversion of the Hindus to Islam. The helpless Hindus had submitted helplessly to the continuous oppression. In fact, the very existence of Hindu religion in the Punjab was in danger. Guru Gobind Singh Ji was, severely opposed to any kind of oppression and had firmly resolved to fight against it. It was one of the main causes which led Guru Sahib to create Khalsa and to raise a strong army of the Sikhs.

3. Evil of Caste System. The Indian society was infested with social evils. The most crippling social evil was Caste System. The feelings of high and low caste were the major hurdles in achieving national unity. There was a big gulf between the Shudras and the Upper Classes in the society. There was a dire need of unity in the society. Guru Gobind Singh Ji furnished its solution by creating a united Khalsa. Guru Sahib wanted that the Khalsa should emerge as a united whole, dropping out all the caste considerations.

4. Aptitude of the Jats. The Jats had adopted Sikh religion in large numbers. The Jats were brave, fearless and had an inborn talent for battles. Guru Gobind Singh Ji needed a well-organised army to destroy the enemies of the Sikhs. Guru Sahib, therefore, encouraged the war loving Jats to adopt Sikh religion. Guru Sahib wanted to organise his followers and thus created the Khalsa.

5. Opposition of Hill Chiefs against Guru Gobind Singh Ji. Before the creation of Khalsa Panth, Guru Gobind Singh Ji had explored the possibility of raising a joint front against the oppressive Mughal Empire. Guru Sahib had learnt it from his experience that he could not bank upon the undependable hill people. Guru Sahib realised that the solution to the problem lay in raising their own army. Hence, Guru Sahib created the Khalsa.

6. To Strengthen Sikh Religion. One of the causes of the creation of Khalsa by Guru Sahib was that the people belonging to the factions of Meenas (Prithia’s sympathizers), Dhir Malia’s, and Ram Rai’s groups had been creating troubles for the Guru Sahibans before the period of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.Guru Gobind Singh Ji wanted to save the Sikh religion from such dishonest people and to establish discipline within the Sikh community. Guru Sahib, therefore, established the Khalsa Panth.

7. Corruption in the Masand System. The Masands were very helpful in the spread of the message of Sikh religion, during the period of Guru Arjan Dev Ji. However, gradually many shortcomings crept into the Masand System. The Masands started exploiting the Sikh ,devotees instead of guiding them on the right path. They had started misusing the donations and gifts for the Sikh Panth. A more disciplined organisation like the Khalsa was the need of the hour.

8. Need of a New Organisation. By the time of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, the Sikh community had acquired its own language, distinctive script, their own spiritual guide and their own original holy book. Now they were in need of a new organization. Guru Gobind Singh Ji fulfilled this need by creating the Khalsa.

9. Aim of the Life of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. Guru Gobind Singh Ji wrote ‘Bachitra Natak’ which is his autobiography. It states that Guru Sahib aimed at spreading the message of Sikh religion all over the worlds finish the oppression and protect the saints and noble souls. It was not possible to “achieve such an aim without organising an army of devoted soldiers. As a result, Guru Sahib created the Khalsa Panth.

Question 3.
What was the significance of creation of the Khalsa’?
Answer:
The creation of Khalsa was an epoch-making event in the history of the Sikhs. In the words of Dr. Hari Ram Gupta, a distinguished historian of Punjab, “The creation of Khalsa was an epoch-making event in the religious and political history of the country.”

The significance of creation of Khalsa can be studied, as under:
1. Completion of the work of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. Guru Nanak Dev Ji founded the Sikh religion. All his successors worked with great devotion for the progress of the Sikh religion. Guru Gobind Singh Ji completed the works started by Guru Nanak Dev Ji by creating the Khalsa.

2. End of the Masand System. The fourth Guru Sahib, Guru Ram Das Ji had started Masand system. The Masands had done commendable work by spreading and popularising the Sikh religion during the early years of their existence. However, by the period of Guru Teg Bahadur Ji, the Masands had degraded themselves by becoming selfish, greedy, and corrupt. Hence, Guru Gobind Singh Ji instructed his Sikhs to snap all their ties with the Masands, Consequently, the Masand system ended.

3. Importance of Khalsa Sangat Enhanced. Guru Gobind Singh Ji granted the right to Khalsa Sangat to prepare the Khande Ka Pahaul and of investiture for the new entrants to the Khalsa Panth. The Khalsa Sangat was also entrusted with the right to take decisions in a democratic way. Therefore, the importance of the Khalsa Sangat increased.

4. Rise in the number of the Sikhs. Guru Gobind Singh Ji united the Sikh« into a common bond of brotherhood, the Khalsa, by the investiture ceremony of Amrit’ from Khande Ka Pahaul. Guru Sahib Ji ordained, that from then onwards, any five Khalsa Sikhs could perform the investiture ceremony of ‘Amrit’ and admit the followers to Khalsa Panth. Consequently, the membership of the Sikh community increased by leaps and bounds.

5. Infused a New Spirit among the Sikhs. The Sikhs were filled with a new spirit of sacrifice by the creation of the Khalsa Panth. They started calling themselves the ‘Singhs’ (lions). By feeling like lions and being addressed as Singhs, their fears and cowardice disappeared. They started maintaining high moral standards in their conduct. Further, they felt themselves united with the end of caste considerations among them.

6. Brave and successful struggle against the Mughals. Guru Gobind Singh Ji had infused the Sikhs with a spirit of courage and fearlessness. Guru Sahib made his sparrows to tear hawks and his single burly soldier was ready to cross swords with one lakh soldiers. It actually happened in the battle of Chamkaur Sahib when forty Sikhs crossed swords with thousands of Mughal soldiers. As a result of the foundation of the Khalsa, the Sikhs successfully fought many battles against the Mughals’from 1699 to 1708.

7. Battles between Guru Gobind Singh Ji and the Hill Chiefs. The creation of Khalsa alarmed the hill chiefs. Especially, Bhim Chand of Bilaspur was highly perturbed and terrified by the military activities of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. Bhim Chand made alliance with the other hill chiefs in order to counter the rising power of Guru Sahib. As a result, Guru Sahib was compelled to fight battle against them.

8. Distinctive symbols of the Sikh Community. By the time of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, the Sikhs had acquired their exclusive sacred towns for pilgrimages. The Sikhs had their own holy book in ‘Adi Granth Sahib’. The Sikhs had by then their own distinctive festivals and customs. After the creation of Khalsa, they were given their own five sacred Ks. In this manner, they acquired distinctive outer symbols also, which made them a distinct religious sect.

9. Saviour of the Hindu Religion. Aurangzeb was cruelly oppressing the Hindus. The Singhs or the Khalsa offered him a stiff resistance. The people of other religions were much impressed by their examples and took courage to start a series of revolts against Aurangzeb. In this manner, the Hindu religion was saved from extinction especially in the North India.

10. End of Superstitions. The Khalsa did not accept the useless beliefs of the Hindus. The Khalsa stopped practising the Hindu ceremonies concerning sacrifices, Yajnas, fasting, Idol worship, etc. In this manner, with the coming of Khalsa, the clouds of superstitions and ignorance were cleared.

11. Popularity of the Democratic Principles. Guru Gobind Singh Ji initiated his Five Piyaras into the Khalsa Panth and then himself stood before them and asked them to initiate him into the Khalsa. Guru Sahib also ordained that any five Khalsas could initiate a person into the Khalsa Panth by performing the ceremony of initiation (Baptism).The Guru Sahib thus based the Khalsa Panth on sound democratic principles.

12. Rise of Political Power of the Sikhs. With the creation of the Khalsa, the spirit of heroism, fearlessness, courage, and self-sacrifice became alive forever among the Sikhs. Therefore, even after Guru Gobind Singh Ji had left the mortal world, the struggle of the Sikhs continued with the same force against the tyranny of the Mughals. Ultimately, they occupied a large part of the Punjab under the leadership of Banda Bahadur. They were severely persecuted by the Mughal governor of Lahore for some years after the death of Banda Bahadur, but they survived by establishing their reputation of being a courageous community which was firm in its resolve to destroy the Mughal power in the Punjab. By 1762, the powerful Sikh chiefs were able to establish their small independent states called the Misls.

Question 4.
Describe the Post Khalsa period battles of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
Answer:
During the Post Khalsa Period Guru Gobind Singh Ji remained involved in the battles for a long time. A brief description of those battles is as follows:
1. The First battle of Anandpur Sahib 1701 A.D. The hill chiefs were perturbed by the creation of the Khalsa. Raja Bhim Chand of Bilaspur issued warning to Guru Gobind Singh Ji that either Guru Sahib should vacate Anandpur Sahib or pay the rent for his total stay in Anandpur Sahib. Guru Sahib declined to accept his unreasonable demand. Bhim Chand made a joint front with the other hill chiefs and attacked Guru Sahib. Guru Sahib boldly faced their attack and defeated them though he had a small army. After their defeat, the hill chiefs sought the help of Mughal army and again attacked Anandpur Sahib. They were again badly defeated. In desperation, they offered a peace treaty, which Guru Sahib accepted. According to the terms of the treaty, Guru Sahib retired to Nirmoh, which was two kilometres away from Kiratpur.

2. Battle of Nirmoh (1702). Raja Bhim Chand had learnt from his experience that it was not possible for him to destroy the Sikh power. Hence, he tried to seek the help of Mughals. In 1702, from one side, Raja Bhim Chand and from the other direction, the Faujdar of Sirhind with his Mughal army attacked Nirmoh. The Gujjars of surrounding areas also joined in the attack. The Sikh army fought their enemies with great courage. The fight continued for full one day and a night. Finally, the Sikh army succeeded in repulsing the attack.

3. Battle of Satluj (1702). Guru Sahib decided to leave Nirmoh after his victory in the battle of Nirmoh. Guru Sahib had hardly crossed the river Satluj, when the enemy armies again attacked the Sikhs. The battle continued for four hours in which Guru Sahib and the Sikhs emerged victorious.

4. Battle of Basoli. Guru Sahib came to Basoli after crossing the river Satluj. Even here,the army of Bhim Chand came chasing after him. The army of the Sikhs again defeated the army of Bhim Chand. As the Rajas of Basoli and Jaswan were the admirers of Guru Sahib, Bhim Chand found it in his own interest to sign a treaty with Guru Sahib. The treaty was signed in the middle of 1702. As a result, Guru Sahib came back to Anandpur Sahib. For next one year, Guru Sahib did not fight any battle.

5. The Second battle of Anandpur Sahib. The hill chiefs felt uncomfortable and did not relish the fact that Guru Sahib was stronger and more influential than them. Hence, they formed a joint front and asked Guru Sahib to vacate Anandpur Sahib. When Guru Sahib declined straightaway to accept their unreasonable demand, the hill chiefs reacted by attacking Anandpur Sahib. They suffered a humiliating defeat this time again. Now Bhim Chand and his allies adopted a new strategy to avenge their repeated defeats and sought the help of the Mughals. The Faujdar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan, brought his army.

Combined armies of Wazir Khan, the hill chiefs and the Gujjars attacked Anandpur Sahib. The Sikhs repulsed the attack on Anandpur Sahib. The enemy army besieged Anandpur Sahib and Mughal army cut off all the communication to Anandpur Sahib. The Sikh army faced starvation. The Sikhs suggested to Guru Sahib to vacate Anandpur Sahib but Guru Sahib refused to accept their suggestion. At that juncture, 40 Sikhs deserted Guru Sahib. Finally, on December 21, 1704, on the persuasion of Mata Gujari Ji, Guru Sahib vacated Anandpur Sahib.

6. Battle of Shahi Tibbi. The enemies occupied Anandpur Sahib after Guru Gobind Singh Ji had left if. They chased Guru Sahib. By the orders of Guru Sahib, Udai Singh along with his 50 Sikhs blocked the march of the big army of the enemy at Shahi Tibbi. All the Sikhs achieved martyrdom at Shahi Tibbi after killing thousands of enemy soldiers.

7. Battle of Sarsa. Guru Gobind Singh Ji proceeded further and reached the banks of river Sarsa. The enemy continued pursuing Guru Sahib. Guru Sahib deputed his devoted Sikh, Bhai Jeevan Singh Rangreta to check the advance of enemy forces. The Sikhs gave them a tough fight and caused them heavy losses.

At that time, the river Sarsa was in flood. However, Guru Sahib and his undaunting Sikhs plunged into the river along with their horses. Some of the Sikhs were swept away in the river. Some precious Sikh literature was also lost in the flood. During such a confusing situation, Mata Gujari Ji and two younger’Sahibzadas, SaKibzada Zorawar Singh and Sahibzada Fateh Singh were separated from the main party.

8. Battle of Chamkaur Sahib 1705. After crossing the river Sarsa, Guru Gobind Singh Ji reached Chamkaur Sahib. Guru Sahib camped in a mud house of a landlord of the village. The enemy army came in his pursuit and besieged the place. At that time, only 40 Sikhs and two Sahibzadas, Sahibzada AJit Singh and Sahibzada Jujhar Singh were present there with Guru Sahib. Guru Sahib gave the enemies tough fight even then. The three Piyaras and both the Sahibzadas achieved martyrdom. Guru Sahib was left with only five Sikhs. The situation was very unfavourable for Guru Sahib. On the persistent request by the Sikhs, Guru Sahib vacated the place and moved to the jungles of Machchiwara. Guru Sahib reached Khidrana after passing through Alamgir, Dina, etc.

9. Battle of Khidrana 1705. The battle of Khidrana was the last battle of Guru Sahib. Those forty Sikhs, who had given him disclaimer (Badhawa) in the second battle of Anandpur Sahib returned to him and joined the battle. Guru Sahib had two thousand Sikhs, who fought with an army of ten thousand Mughal soldiers. The forty Sikhs with him, who had realised their folly, showed exemplary courage and valour and achieved martyrdom fighting against the Mughals. The Guru Sahib was so much impressed by their bravery that he forgave them for their previous fault. Guru Ji blessed them and granted them salvation or Mukti and named Khidrana as Mukatsar in their memory.

Question 5.
What do you know about Guru Gobind Singh Ji as a man?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji occupies a very high place in the history of Sikh religion and also of India. Guru Sahib was epitome of supreme sacrifices, literary scholarship, a model of courage, forbearance, patience, high moral character and a practical leader of men. Guru Sahib was a rare combination of multiple qualities.

A brief description of Guru Sahib as a complete human being can be given as follows:
1. Impressive Personality. Guru Sahib had a charming and impressive personality. Guru Sahib was tall, fair, with a broad forehead and muscular body. There was a unique glamour on his face. Guru Sahib always carried weapons. Guru Sahib adorned his headgear with a crest (kalgi). Guru Sahib is fondly and respectfully called ‘Kalgidhar Dashmesh’ due to his imposing gait. It was not possible for a mortal being to escape his mesmerizing influence. Guru Sahib was affable, gentle and cheerful by nature. Guru Sahib possessed the qualities of patience, confidence and forbearance.

2. A dutiful son and an ideal father. Guru Sahib was a dutiful son and an ideal father. By helping his father, Guru Teg Bahadur Ji, in finding the right person to end the oppression of the Mughals by saying, “Who is more worthy than you, who is generous, holy and brave,” Guru Sahib proved that he was a dutiful son. Guru Sahib sacrificed all his sons for the protection of the religion. His two younger sons were bricked alive. His two elder sons achieved martyrdom. All the four died in the service of the Khalsa Panth. Guru Sahib respected the wishes of his mother. It was only on the advice of his mother that Guru Sahib vacated Anandpur Sahib.

3. High Moral Values. The life of Guru Sahib was based on high moral values. Guru Sahib never adopted dubious means in his life. Guru Sahib never compromised with falsehood whether it was war or peace time. His moral values earned him ful-fledged devotion of all the Hindus and Muslims. Guru Sahib never valued materialistic pleasures. It is a part of oral history that once a Sikh gifted him costly gold jewellery. Guru Sahib just threw it in the river.

4. Man of Firm Resolve. Guru Sahib was a man of firm determination. The ups and downs of life never made him leave his true path. Guru Sahib was hardly nine years old when his father sacrificed his life. His two younger sons were bricked alive. His two elder sons lost their lives in the battles for the cause of religion. His mother died of a shock at the tragedy of her two young grandchildren. No turmoil in his life succeeded in breaking his resolve to fight against injustice.

5. Tolerant in his Religious views. Aurangzeb had martyred Guru Teg Bahadur Ji just because he was not prepared to embrace Islam. But it did not make Guru Gobind Singh Ji a fanatic like him. Guru Sahib, a real saint, did not become revengeful towards the Muslims. Rather numerous Muslims were his ardent supporters and followers. Pir Muhammad, Buddhu Shah, Nihang Khan, Nabi Khan, Ghani Khan were such Muslims who admired and adored Guru Sahib for his religious tolerance and broadmindedness. There were numerous Turk and Pathan soldiers in his army. Guru Sahib himself made it clear in his Bachitra Natak that he had come on a divine mission to save his people from the wicked and tyrants.

6. A Literary Genius and Saint. Guru Sahib was a saint by nature. Guru Sahib was also a literary genius. Guru Sahib composed numerous verses in Persian, Hindi, and Gurumukhi. The Jap Sahib, Zafarnama, Bachitra Natak, Chandi di Var, etc. are his literary achievements. Guru Sahib enjoyed the company of his 52 poets. Guru Sahib was usually engrossed in deep meditation even on his hunting expeditions. Guru Sahib lived peaceful and most fruitful life at Talwandi Saboo. Guru Sahib was a role model for writers like Saina Pat and Bhai Nand Lai.

7. A Complete Man. Guru Gobind Singh Ji was a perfect example of a complete man. Guru Sahib was fearless, patient, and courageous. The creation of Khalsa and his literary works stand testimony to his genius. The most imposing and tyrannical Mughal empire of his times could not deter him from his resolves. Guru Sahib had made sacrifice of his four illustrious sons and his father Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji. But he did not leave the path of Truth. His secular and rational ideas are well revealed in Zafarnama. Guru Sahib won the hearts of all. Even during his lifetime, Guru Sahib was worshipped as a god. However, Guru Sahib did not like such practice of his followers and had reprimanded them. Guru Sahib was a saint in the real sense and as a man, an epitome of perfection that a man could ever achieve.

Question 6.
Describe the battles of Chamkaur Sahib and Khidrana.
Answer:
The battles of Chamkaur Sahib and Khidrana were the two most important battles fought by Guru Gobind Singh Ji.

Both the battles took place during the Post Khalsa Period of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
1. Battle of Chamkaur Sahib 1705. Guru Sahib vacated Anandpur Sahib, crossed the river Sirsa, and reached Chamkaur Sahib along with his Sikhs. There were only forty Sikhs in his party which reached Chamkaur Sahib. His two Sahibzadas, Sahibzada Ajit Singh, and Sahibzada Jujhar Singh were also with him. Guru Sahib took shelter in a mud fort of Chamkaur Sahib. The enemies followed them there and besieged the fort.

The doughty Sikhs gave them a tough fight. Both the Sahibzadas demonstrated their valor and martial qualities. They achieved martyrdom after slaying many enemy soldiers. Three Piyaras out of the five Piyaras namely, Bhai Sahib Singh, Bhai Mohkam Singh, and Bhai Himmat Singh achieved martyrdom. Guru Sahib was left with only five Sikhs. The five Sikhs requested Guru Sahib to leave the fort. Guru Sahib left the fort along with Bhai Daya Singh and Bhai Dharam Singh. The remaining Sikh followers continued to fight till they achieved martyrdom.

Guru Sahib moved towards the jungles of Machchiwara and passed through Alamgir, Dina etc. and finally reached Khidrana.

2. Battle of Khidrana 1705(P6. 2011 (A)) Guru Sahib reached the place called Taba near Khidrana, where a large number of Sikhs had already assembled. Those forty Sikhs who had deserted Guru Sahib in the second battle of Anandpur Sahib also joined the followers of Guru Sahib at Khidrana. Mai Bhago had especially arrived to fight along with other Sikhs for Guru Sahib. It is said that nearly two thousand Sikhs had gathered there.

On the other side, with ten thousand soldiers Wazir Khan, the Subedar of Sirhind, came in pursuit of Guru Sahib. On September 29, 1705, a fierce battle was fought at Taba near Khidrana. Guru Sahib and his followers fought the battle with unbelievable courage and valour. They slew the enemy soldiers into pieces in large numbers. The
Mughal soldiers started losing battle because of thirst. Finally, the remaining Mughal soldiers ran away to save their lives. Mai Bhago was badly injured and the forty Sikhs, who had signed a disclaimer (Badawa) achieved martyrdom. It was a complete victory for Guru Sahib and his Khalsa. Guru Sahib appreciated the sacrifices of the forty Sikhs and tore their disclaimer in the presence of Bhai Maha Singh. Guru Sahib prayed for their deliverance and the forty martyrs became the forty Muktas in the history of the Sikh religion. Now Khidrana is called Muktsar in their memory.

Activity:

Question 1.
In the given map of Punjab, show any four places where battles mere fought by Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 5 Guru Gobind Singh Ji’s Life, Creation of Khalsa and his Personality 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Guru Gobind Singh Ji’s Life, Creation of Khalsa and his Personality Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word:

Question 1.
What was the childhood name of Guru Gobind Singh Ji?
Answer:
The childhood name of Guru Gobind Singh Ji was Gobind Dass Ji.

Question 2.
Give one main aim of the creation of the Khalsa.
Answer:
To end the tyranny of the Mughals.

Question 3.
Which kettledrum was made by Guru Gobind Singh Ji?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji got manufactured Ranjit Nagara, the victory drum.

Question 4.
Between whom was the first battle of Anandpur Sahib fought?
Answer:
It was fought between Raja Bhim Chand of Bilaspur and Guru Gobind Singh Ji.

Question 5.
Which three different hill chiefs had formed a joint front against Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the second battle of Anandpur Sahib?
Answer:
The Rajas of Bilaspur, Kangra, and Guler.

Question 6.
When did the battle of Bhangani take place?
Answer:
The battle of Bhangani took place in 1688 A.D.

Question 7.
Write the names of those battles which Guru Gobind Singh Ji had fought during his Pre-Khalsa Period.
Answer:
The battle of Bhangani in 1688 and the battle of Nadaun in 1690.

Question 8.
How many persons had offered to sacrifice their lives on the command of Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the assembly of 1699 at Anandpur Sahib?
Answer:
Five persons.

Question 9.
Which are the two words attached to the name of each Khalsa men and woman?
Answer:
The word ‘Singh’ is affixed to the name of each rpale Khalsa and the word ‘Kaur’ to the name of each Khalsa woman.

Question 10.
Give the names of any two battles which Guru Gobind Singh Ji fought during his Post-Khalsa Period.
Answer:
The First Battle of Anandpur 2. Battle of Chamkaur.

Question 11.
Give the names of the two Sahibzadas of Guru Gobind Singh Ji who were bricked alive in a wall.
Answer:
Sahibzada Zorawar Singh Ji and Sahibzada Fateh Singh Ji.

Question 12.
What was the earlier name of Muktsar?
Answer:
The earlier name of Muktsar was Khidrana.

Question 13.
What does a Khalsa say to the other in salutation when they meet?
Answer:
Waheguru Ji Ka Khalsa, Waheguru Ji Ki Fateh.

Question 14.
At the time of creation of the Khalsa, who was the first person to stand up to sacrifice his life for the Panth?
Answer:
Daya Ram Khatri.

Question 15.
Where and when did Guru Gobind Singh Ji breathe his last?
Answer:
Nanded on 7 October, 1708 A.D.

Question 16.
Give the names of any two popular compositions of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
Answer:
Jaap Sahib, Bachitra Natak.

Question 17.
What was the significance of the Battle of Bhangani?
Answer:
The victory of Bhangani rasied the prestige of Sikh army of Guru Sahib.

Question 18.
What was the earlier name of Muktsar?
Answer:
Khidrana.

Question 19.
Wazir Khan was the Subedar of which place?
Answer:
Sirhind.

Question 20.
When and where was the Khalsa created?
Answer:
On the Baisakhi Day in 1699 A.D. at Anandpur Sahib.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Guru Gobind Singh Ji spent first five years of his childhood at____________
Answer:
Patna

Question 2.
Guru Sahib created the Khalsa in ___________
Answer:
1699 A.D.

Question 3.
Guru Sahib constructed forts of___________
Answer:
Anandgarh, Keshgarh, Lohgarh, Fatehgarh

Question 4.
The first Battle of Anandpur Sahib 1701 was fought between __________ and __________
Answer:
Bhim Chand of Bilaspur and Guru Gobind Singh

Question 5.
Guru Gobind Singh Ji made the final Union with Supreme God at __________ on __________
Answer:
Nanded, 7 October 1708 A.D.

Multiple Choice Question:

Question 1.
Where was Khalsa created by Gobind Singh Ji? Give the correct answer:
(a) Delhi
(b) Lahore
(c) Anandpur Sahib
(d) Patna.
Answer:
(c) Anandpur Sahib

Match the following:
table-1
Answer:
1. (e)
2. (b)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (a).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the battle of Bhangani fought between Guru Gobind Singh Ji and the Hill Chiefs.
Answer:
The Hill Chiefs were perturbed by the military preparations of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. They, therefore, turned against Guru Sahib. In the meanwhile, an incident took place. Raja Bhim Chand of Bilaspur showed intentions to route the marriage party of his son through Poanta Sahib, But Guru Sahib, who knew about the bad intentions of the Hill Chief, did not permit him to pass through Poanta Sahib. Bhim Chand took it as his insult and after the completion of the marriage ceremony of his son, he formed a joint front of the hill chiefs and attacked Guru Sahib.

A fierce battle was fought at Bhangani, a place six miles away from Poanta Sahib. During the course of the battle, the Pathan soldiers (Afghans) and the Udasis deserted Guru Sahib. However, the situation was saved when a contingent of Buddhu Shah’s soldiers reached the battleground just in time. Buddhu Shah and his four sons and his seven hundred followers fought along with Guru Sahib. Guru Sahib gave a crushing defeat to the Hill Chiefs. It was the first victory of Guru Sahib in the battlefield.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on the creation of the Khalsa.
Answer:
In 1699, Guru Gobind Singh Ji called an assembly of his followers at Anandpur Sahib on the Baisakhi day. The assembly was attended by 80,000 people. When all the people present in the gathering settled down, Guru Sahib came on the stage, brandished his sword, and gave a call. “Is there any one who would lay down his life for Dharama?” There was no response for some time. Guru Sahib repeated his call three times. Finally, Daya Ram Khatri of Lahore stood up and offered himself.

Guru Sahib took him to a tent nearby from where Guru Sahib had given the call. Guru Sahib soon returned with his sword smeared with blood dripping from it. Guru Sahib again asked for another person to sacrifice his life. Then, four persons responded to his call one by one and they were Dharam Das, Mohkam Chand, Sahib Chand, and Himinat Rai.

Those five persons, who had offered themselves for sacrifice in response to the call of Guru Sahib, are remembered in the Sikh religion as Panj Piyaras—the Five Beloved Ones. Guru Sahib then gave them the Amrit’ prepared from Khande Ka Pahaul. They were consecrated as Khalsa and they became ‘Singhs’. After that, Guru Sahib himself received the ‘Amrit’ from the Punj Piyaras. In this manner, Guru Sahib Gobind Rai became Guru Gobind Singh Ji.

Question 3.
Write four main achievements of Guru Gobind Singh Ji of his Pre- Khalsa Period (1675-1699).
Answer:
The four main achievements of Guru Gobind Singh Ji of his Pre-Khalsa Period are as follow:

Raising of Army. Guru Sahib was hardly nine year’s old when his father Guru Teg Bahadur Ji achieved martyrdom. Guru Sahib wanted to save his religion from the tyranny of the Mughals and avenge the martyrdom of his father. Guru Sahib, therefore, raised his own army.
Construction of Ranjit Nagara. Guru Sahib got constructed a kettledrum and named it Ranjit Nagara. It was beaten whenever Guru Sahib left for hunting.
Construction of the fort of Poanta Sahib. Guru Sahib visited Nahan on the invitation of the ruler of Nahan Raja Medni Parkash. Guru Sahib got constructed the fort of Poanta Sahib there.
Battle of Bhangani. In 1688, Raja Bhim Chand along with some hill chiefs attacked Guru Sahib. A fierce battle was fought at Bhangani. Guru Sahib inflicted a crushing defeat on the hill chiefs.

Question 4.
What is the significance (importance) of the creation of Khalsa in the Sikh history?
Answer:

With the creation of Khalsa, the Sikhs became a community of Sant Sipahis. Before the creation of Khalsa, the Sikh community was a mere sect of worshippers of True Name. But with the establishment of Khalsa Panth, the use of sword became an inseparable feature of their creed. Gum Sahib had emphasized the importance of sword.
The number of followers of Guru Sahib started increasing rapidly after the creation of Khalsa.
The lower castes of Punjab got a new lease of life and their caste barriers were broken with the creation of Khalsa.
The establishment of Khalsa infused the Sikhs with the spirit of courage and heroism. Even a humble Sikh was transformed into a roaring lion.

Question 5.
Describe any four important features of the personality and character of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji is known for the greatness of his character and personality.

A Literary Genius. Guru Sahib was a literary genius par-excellence. Guru Sahib had unmatched mastery over Gurumukhi, Sanskrit, Persian and Hindi (Braj Bhasha). Guru Sahib composed standard literary works like Akal Ustat, Bachitra Natak, (Guru Sahib’s autobiography), Chandi di Var, and Zafamama.
A Great Organiser-, Soldier, and Military Strategist. Guru Sahib was a great organizer, a seasonsed soldier and a military strategist. Guru Sahib created Khalsa to organise the Sikhs.Guru Sahib commanded and fought many battles. Guru Sahib also built numerous forts.
A Great Saint and a Religious Leader. Above all, Guru Sahib was a great saint and a religious leader. Guru Sahib spread the message of Guru Nanak Dev Ji and taught the Sikhs to fight for the protection of their religion.
A Great Social Reformer. Guru Sahib strongly opposed caste system and fought against other prevalent social evils.

Question 6.
Was Guru Gobind Singh Ji a Nation Builder? Support your answer with any four established facts.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji was definitely a nation builder.

Guru Sahib was a builder par excellence. Guru Sahib raised an edifice on the strong foundation laid by Guru Nanak Dev Ji. Guru Sahib did not fight against the Mughals to establish a separate state but fought mainly to end the tyranny and oppression of the Mughals in the country. Guru Sahib did not have any religious contentions against Islam or the Mughals.
Guru Sahib united the Sikhs in a bond of unity by creating the Khalsa. No class discrimination was observed in Khalsa Panth. Hence, the establishment of the Khalsa Panth was a national institution with the aims of unity and brotherhood of all the Indians.
Guru Sahib composed the literature for the whole of humanity.
The social reform activities of Guru Sahib were definitely motivated by the spirit of nation-building.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe in detail the battle of Bhangani,
Answer:
The battle of Bhangani was fought between Guru Gobind Singh Ji and the hill chiefs. The important Hill Chiefs who fought against Guru Sahib were Raja Bhim Chand of Bilaspur, Raja Kirpal Chand (Katoch) of Kangra, Fateh Shah, the ruler of Srinagar, Raja Gopal Chand of Guler and Raja Kesar Chand of Jasowal. Raja Bhim Chand was the leader of Hill Chiefs.

Causes. The main causes of the battle of Bhangani fought between Guru Sahib and the Hill Chief were, as follow.
1. Guru Sahib had started recruiting his followers in his army. They were being imparted training in horse riding, use of arms and hunting. In addition, Guru Sahib had collected a larger number of weapons. Guru Sahib advised his followers to donate horses and arms in place of cash and kind. The hill chiefs felt uncomfortable with the rising military activities of Guru Sahib.

2. The hill chiefs were ardent believers in Idol worship. But Guru Sahib strongly condemned this practice at Poanta Sahib.

3. The lifestyle of Guru Sahib was highly aristocratic and majestic. The hill chiefs were jealous of him because of his high standard of living. They feared that if Guru Sahib tried to acquire political power, they would stand in no comparison with Guru Sahib.

4. While Guru Sahib was making military preparations in the hill regions, the hill chiefs feared that it could push them into an undesirable conflict with Emperor Aurangzeb.

5. The Sikh followers used to give precious and costly gifts to Guru Sahib. It became a major cause of jealousy of the hill chiefs.

6. The immediate cause of battle of Bhangani was that Raja Bhim Chand of Bilaspur intentionally wanted to pass the marriage party of his son through Paonta Sahib. Guru Sahib knew about the wrong intentions of Raja Bhim Chand and denied him the passage. Raja Bhim Chand took it as his insult and became revengeful. Soon after, he raised a joint front with other hill chiefs and attacked Guru Sahib.

7. Events of the Battle. A huge army under” the leadership of Raja Bhim Chand marched towards Paonta Sahib. Guru Sahib also sent his forces to meet the enemy in a battle at Bhangani, a place near Paonta Sahib. Guru Sahib faced some problem in the beginning of the battle. However, Guru Sahib gave tough fight evtfn in such a situation. A hard contested battle continued and Guru Sahib suffered some initial reverses. On that every occasion, Buddhu Shah of Sadhora arrived and joined Guru Sahib. The situation completly turned in favour of Guru Sahib after that. The enemy lost confidence and the hill chiefs totally became frustrated. Soon after, a large number of enemy soldiers were chopped off by the swords of the Sikhs and the hill chiefs ran away for their safety.

8. Importance of the Battle.

The victory at Bhangani raised the prestige of the Sikh army of Guru Sahib.
Guru Sahib was fully convinced that he could successfully end the tyranny of the Mughals by organizing and training his followers.
The hill chiefs dropped the idea of fighting against Guru Sahib and decided to cultivate friendship with Guru Sahib.
After the victory of Bhangani, Guru Sahib decided to leave Paonta Sahib and returned to Anandpur Sahib.
Raja Bhim Chand of Bilaspur specifically adopted the policy of friendship towards Guru Sahib. The period of peace and friendship with the hill chiefs was used by Guru Ji to raise the four forts in Anandpur Sahib, which were Anandgarh, Keshgarh, Lohgarh, and Fatehgarh.

Question 2.
Write on the personality and character of Guru Gobind Singh Ji under the headings as given below:
1. An Organiser Par-Excellence
2. A True Saint and a Religious Leader
3. A Social Reformer
4. A Poet and Literary Genius.
Answer:
An Organiser: Par-Excellence:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji was a great organizer. Guru Sahib had proved his amazing ability as an organiser by creating the Khalsa. Guru Sahib united the scattered Sikh community suffering from the evils of social and religious conflicts into a brotherhood by the creation of Khalsa. Guru Sahib was the first Indian leader, who popularized the principle of democracy and helped Indians to learn to follow the directives of Gurumutta or the directives of Sangat.

As a Saint and Religious Leader:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji was first and foremost a great religious leader. Patience and forbearance were the prominent features of his personality. Guru Sahib did not have any grudge against Islam. But he did not favour an attitude of meekly submitting to any kind of tyranny in the nam’e of saintly pursuits. The aim of creation of Khalsa was to end tyranny and oppression. Guru Sahib was a religious leader who respected all other religions as he respected the creed of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Guru Sahib was equally a saintly person. Guru Sahib had firm faith in one Supreme God and attributed all his acts to His name. Being a saintly person, Guru Sahib had never coveted any materialistic or worldly gains.

As a Social Reformer Guru Sahib was a great social reformer. Guru Sahib had strongly condemned the social evils like caste system, idol worship, etc. The Khalsa-Panth was open to people of all castes and tribes without any discrimination. The people who were considered as drudges of humanity, and had lived like slaves of higher classes, became under the inspiring leadership of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, doughty warriors. They took up the responsibility of protection of the country and religion. Guru Sahib had opposed the irrational ceremonies, sacrifices, Yajnas, etc. and helped to reform the society.

As a Poet and a Literary Genius (Scholar) :
Guru Gobind Singh Ji was a poet and scholar of high merit. Guru Sahib had mastery over Gurumukhi, Sanskrit, Persian, and Hindi. Guru Sahib enjoyed composing verses in all the languages of his choice. His poetry is alive with the spirit of heroic deeds (Vir rasa) and deep religious and mystic insight. The most popular compositions of Guru Sahib are Jap Sahib, Zafarnama, Chandi di Var, Akal Ustat, and Bachitra Natak. Guru Sahib always enjoyed the company of the scholars and poets.

At Poanta Sahib, Guru Sahib had gathered 52 poets. Guru Sahib even got translated Ramayana and Mahabharta and other ancient books into Hindi and Gurumukhi. While at Talwandi Sabo, Guru Sahib produced numerous literary works and earned the epithet of Guru Ki Kashi for Talwandi Sabo. A large number of scholars had gathered around him at Talwandi Sabo who were highly inspired by the scholarship of Guru Sahib. The most famous Sikh scholars, who were influenced by Guru Sahib, were Saina Pat and Bhai Nand Lai. Saina Pat composed Guru Shoba and Nand Lai composed Zindagi Nama in praise of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.

Question 3.
Describe the creation of Khalsa.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji created the Khalsa in 1699. It is considered as the foremost event in the history of Sikh religion. Guru Sahib took the following steps to create Khalsa:
1. Selection of Panj Piyaras (the Five Beloved Ones). Guru Gobind Singh Ji established the Khalsa Panth on the day of Baisakhi in 1699. Guru Sahib convened an assembly of his Sikh followers at Anandpur Sahib. On that day, his nearly 80000 Sikh followers gathered there. When all the people had settled down, Guru Sahib arrived in the meeting and sat on a raised platform. Guru Sahib brandished his sword and gave a call, “Is there any true Sikh of mine, who is ready to die for Dharma?” First, there was complete silence in the meeting for sometime. Then, Daya Ram Khatri of Lahore stood up and presented himself to the Guru. Guru Sahib took Daya Ram to a nearby tent and returned after sometime with a sword with blood dripping from it. Guru Sahib repeated his call. The second time Dharam Dass Jat of Delhi offered himself. Guru Sahib took him to the tent.

Finally, Guru Sahib, in this way, accepted three more Sikhs one by one. They were Mohkam Chand, Sahib Chand, and Himmat Rai. Guru Sahib was actually trying to check the loyalty of the-Sikh followers. Guru Sahib’s followers did not disappoint him. They won Guru Ji’s favour by this event. Finally, Guru Sahib brought all the chosen ones and raised them to the position of Panj Piyaras or the Five Beloved Ones.

2. Khande Ka Pahaul. After choosing his Panj Piyaras, Guru Sahib bestowed upon them the Amrit from Khande Ka Pahaul. For preparing Khande Ka Pahaul, Guru Sahib asked for an iron vessel. The vessel was filled with pure water, some ‘Patasas’ were added, and the water was stirred with a double-edged dagger by one of the Panj Piyaras. The sacred hymns of the Gurus from, the Adi Granth Sahib, namely Jupji Sahib, Anand Sahib, Chaupais and Sawayas were recited simultaneously. The water which was prepared thus was ‘the Amrit’ or the ‘Sacred Water of Immortality’.

The procedure adopted by Guru Gobind Singh Ji was his new procedure to prepare the Amrit. It was first bestowed upon the Panj Piyaras. Then Guru Sahib instructed them to kneel down and gave them the instruction to give a call, “Waheguru Ji Ka Khalsa, Shri Waheguru Ji Ki Fateh.” Guru Sahib sprinkled the Amrit on their faces and heads. Guru Sahib called each of them as Khalsa and attached the word ‘Singh’ to their names. After that, Guru Sahib received the Amrit himself from the Panj Piyaras. Guru Sahib then revealed that every step was directed by the Divine Power.

Question 4.
Describe briefly the principles of the Khalsa Panth. Also state the significance of creation of Khalsa.
Answer:
The Principles of Khalsa Panth.

The person, who wanted to join the Khalsa Panth, should first receive Khande Ka Pahaul.
Every Sikh was to add ‘Singh’ (lion) after his name and every woman, ‘Kaur’ after her name.
The Sikhs were given distinguished marks. They were to wear five Ks. Kesh (unshorn hair), Kangha (comb), Kara (Iron bangles), Kachchera (a pair of shorts), and Kirpan (dagger).
The Khalsa was to believe in one God and abstain from idol worship.
Every Khalsa was to take bath in the morning and recite the five prayers of Japji Sahib, Jap Sahib, Anand Sahib, Chaupai, and Sawaya’s.
Every Khalsa was to earn his livelihood by the right means. Every Khalsa would donate Daswandh for religious activities.
The Khalsa would not practice the Caste System.
Every Khalsa would sacrifice everything for the Guru and the Khalsa Panth.
Every Khalsa was to put on weapons and remain ready to fight for the protection of the Sikh religion.
The Khalsa was not to use intoxicants and tobacco.
The Khalsa was to lead high moral life.
The salutation of the Sikhs was to be Waheguru Ji Ka Khalsa, Shri Waheguru Ji Ki Fateh.’

Significance of the creation of the Khalsa
By the creation of Khalsa, the great Guru laid the foundation of a brotherhood which produced in the fullness of time, men of uncommon bravery, unique devotion, and rare spirit of sacrifice. Men like Banda Bahadur, Bhai Mani Singh, Baba Deep Singh, Bhai Taru Singh, and Jassa Singh Ahluwalia were among those which the Khalsa produced within only fifty years of its creation. Secondly, the creation of Khalsa converted Sikhs into a race of saint-soldiers. Though the Sikhs worshipped the Supreme Being at heart, they were ready to take up arms against injustice and oppression.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 1 Basic Concepts

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 1 Basic Concepts Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 1 Basic Concepts

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Basic Concepts Textbook Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define national income.
Answer:
According to Dernburg, “National income may be defined as the factor income in the form of rent, wages, interest and profit of the normal residents of a country in one year. It is composed of domestic factor income and net factor income from abroad.”

Question 2.
Define per capita income.
Answer:
Per capita income is the average income of the people of a country in a definite period of time. In other words,
Per Capita Income = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

Question 3.
What is meant by consumption?
Answer:
Use of goods and services produced in order to satisfy human wants is called as consumption. In other words, consumption means expenditure made on consumption during one year in an economy.

Question 4.
What is meant by average propensity to consume?
Answer:
Average propensity to consume is the ratio of consumption to income. In other words,
Average Propensity to Consume = \(\frac{\text { Consumption }}{\text { Income }}\)

Question 5.
Define Investment.
Answer:
An addition to capital is called investment. During a year that part of income which is not spent on consumption but is saved for the use of capital formation is called investment.

Question 6.
What is meant by induced investment?
Answer:
Induced investment is that investment which depends upon the level of income and profit. Most of the private investment is induced investment.

Question 7.
What is meant by autonomous investment?
Answer:
That investment which is independent of the changes in the level of income, output and profits, is called as autonomous investment. Most of public investment or government investment is autonomous investment.

Question 8.
What is capital formation?
Answer:
Net investment in fixed assets, i.e., additions to the stock of physical and human capital, is known as capital formation.

Question 9.
What is meant by disguised unemployment?
Answer:
A person is said to be disguisedly unemployed if his contribution in the total product is almost zero or negligible. Thie type of unemployment is normally found in most of the agricultural dominated under-developed countries of the world.

Question 10.
Define full employment.
Answer:
Full employment signifies a situation in which all those who are willing to work at the current wage rate get work.

Question 11.
What is meant by inflation?
Answer:
Inflation signifies increase in the level of prices and consequent deterioration in the value of money over a period of time. In the words of Crowther, “Inflation is a state in which the value of money is falling, i.e., prices are rising.”

Question 12.
What is meant by supply of money?
Answer:
Generally money supply means currency and deposits of banks available with the people of the country. Broadly speaking, there are two constituents of money supply:

Currency and
Bank deposits.

Question 13.
Write a note on the government budget.
Answer:
Government Budget is an annual statement of estimated revenue and expenditure of the government. Indian Government generally present its budget in Lok Sabha on Feb 28th of every year.

The government budget can be of three types:

Balanced Budget
Surplus Budget &
Deficit Budget.

Question 14.
What is meant by deficit financing?
Answer:
Deficit financing is the method by which government meets the budgetary deficits by taking loans from the Central Bank. Central Bank meets this deficit by printing new currency notes. In the same way when aggregate expenditure exceeds aggregate revenue then the government has to face deficit.

Question 15.
How many people are considered to be below poverty line in India?
Answer:
The Planning Commission has defined the poverty line on the basis of the ‘ recommended nutritional intake of 2,400 calories per person per day for rural areas and 2,100 calories for urban areas. On this basis, in rupee terms, the poverty line works out at? 972 per head per month for rural areas and at? 1407 per head per month for urban areas, both at the 2013-14 prices. In the year 2014-15 in India 29.8 percent people were below poverty line.

Question 16.
How growth rate is determined?
Answer:
Growth rate is that percentage rate from which it is known that in comparison to one year how much percentage change has taken place in national income or per capita income in any other year.

It is calculated by using following formula:
Growth Rate = Change in Per Capita Income × 100/Original Capita Income.

Question 17.
What is meant by foreign aid?
Answer:
By foreign aid, we mean the inflow of external assistance in the form of foreign capital, loans, grants apd assistance by foreign countries, private individuals, business organisations, foreign banks and international organisations.

Question 18.
Define balance of payments.
Answer:
Balance of payments is a statement of systematic record of all economic transactions between one country and the rest of the world (or foreign countries). Thus the account of receipts and payments of the government of one country from other countries during a period of one year is called Balance of Payments. In the words of Kindleberger, “Balance of payments is a systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of the reporting country and residents of foreign countries during a given period of time.”

Question 19.
What is meant by fiscal policy?
Answer:
The policy of the government regarding income and expenditure is known as fiscal policy. As a matter of fact, fiscal policy is the policy of any govt, regarding its expenditure, taxation, borrowing, budget to achieve the various macro-economic objectives.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define National Income. What is the difference between National Income and Domestic Income?
Answer:
National income is defined as the sum total of factor incomes viz. rent, wages, interest and profit accruing to the normal residents of a country for their productive services during a definite period of time i.e. one year. Income is a flow. Thus national income is the earned income by the normal residents of a country during one year. Domestic income equals national income minus net factor income from abroad. In other words,

Domestic Income = National Income – Net Factor Income From Abroad Net factor income from abroad is the difference between the income received by the residents of a country from abroad for providing factor services and the income paid for the factor services provided by the non-residents in the domestic territory of a country.

Question 2.
What is meant by Per Capita Income? How can you estimate Per Capita Income?
Answer:
Per capita income is considered to be a better measure of economic progress as compared to that of national income.

Per capita income is the average income of the people of a country in a definite period. Obviously per capita income is the average income. Thus, per capita income does not mean that each and every individual of the country is having income equal to it. Some people might be having income greater than it and some less than it. For example, the per capita income of India at current prices in 2013-14 was ₹ 74380 and that of Punjab was ₹ 74606.

Per capita income can be calculated by dividing national income by the population.
In other words,
Per Capita Income = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

Question 3.
What do you mean by Consumption? Define Average Propensity to Consume and Marginal Propensity to Consume.
Answer:
The word consumption is used in two senses viz. a process and an expenditure. Thus consumption is that process which satisfies human wants directly like the use of food for the satisfaction of hunger. In the expenditure sense consumption means that total expenditure which is incurred on the consumption goods.

Average propensity to consume is defined as the ratio of consumption to income.
According to Prof. Peterson, “A.P.C. is the proportion of a given income that is spent for consumption purposes.” In other words,
A.P.C = \(\frac{\text { Consumption }}{\text { Income }}\)

Marginal Propensity to Consume (M.P.C.) is defined as the ratio of change in consumption to change in income.
According to Prof. Kurihara, “M.P.C. is the ratio of change in consumption to change in income.” In other words,

Question 4.
What do you mean by Savings? Define Average Propensity to Save and Marginal Propensity to Save.
Answer:
Saving is the difference between income and consumption. In the words of Keynes, “Saving is the excess of income overconsumption.” In other words,

Saving = Income – Consumption
Average Propensity to Save (A.P.S.): A.P.S. is the ratio of saving to income. In other words,
A.P.C = \(\frac{\text { Saving }}{\text { Income }}\)

Marginal Propensity to Save (M.P.S.): M.P.S. is defined as the ratio of change in saving to change in income. In other words,
M.P.S = \(\frac{\text { Change in Saving }}{\text { Change in Income }}\) or \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{S}}{\Delta \mathrm{Y}}\)

Question 5.
Define investment. What are the elements of determining the Investment?
Answer:
Investment, in economics, signifies nothing but addition to capital. It is defined as the surplus of total production over total consumption. Investment is necessary for increasing the production capacity in the economy. According to Mrs. Joan Robinson, “By investment is meant an addition to capital, such as occurs when a new house is built or a new factory is built. Investment means making an addition to the stock of goods in existence.”

Determinants of Investment: Investment primarily depends upon two factors :

Expected rate of profitability or Marginal Efficiency of Capital (M.E.C.),
Rate of Interest or Cost of Investment.

A rational businessman will invest only if M.E.C. is more than the rate of interest. On the contrary, if the rate of interest seems to be greater than M.E.C., then there will be no inducement to invest.

Question 6.
What is meant by Capital Formation? What is the difference between Gross Capital Formation and Net Capital Formation?
Answer:
In economic term that part of income by which more production is possible than before, is called capit’al formation. In other words, an addition to capital stock is called capital formation.

Gross capital formation: Gross capital formation signifies gross investment which includes within itself net investment and depreciation.
Net capital formation. Net capital formation signifies nothing but net investment.
Net capital formation = Gross capital formation – Depreciation
As a matter of fact, capital formation means increase in net investment.

Question 7.
Define disguised unemployment. Explain it with the help of an example.
Answer:
Disguised employment is that situation when more number of labourers are engaged in a work than actually required for it. It means there are some extra or excess workers engaged in that work. This can be explained with the help of an example. Suppose any family has a farm of 3 acres. Three members of that family can work efficiently in this farm with the existing methods of cultivation. But if that family has 6 “members and due to the shortage of employment opportunities in other fields, all of the 6 workers are employed in that farm, then it will be said that out of these 6 the 3 workers are actually disguisedly unemployed.

Question 8.
What is meant by full employment? What is the meaning of Structural Unemployment and Technical Unemployment?
Answer:
Full employment signifies” a situation in which all those who are willing to work at the current wage rate are able to get work. In other words, full employment means absence of involuntary unemployment.

Structural unemployment. Unemployment which arises due to structural changes in the economy is called as structural unemployment.

Technical unemployment: Unemployment which arises due to changes in the techniques of production is known as technical unemployment.

Question 9.
What is meant by inflation? Explain it.
Answer:
In Economics, the constant rise in prices is called inflation. In the words of Shapiro, “Inflation is a continuous and extreme rise in general price level.”

According to Crowther, “Inflation is a state in which the value of money is falling, i.e., prices are rising.”
From the above definitions, it is clear that inflation is a process of continuous rise in prices and hence fall in the value of money.

There are various causes of inflation. But the main cause of inflation is the excess of demand over supply. When the demand for goods exceeds the supply of goods, prices start rising and hence the problem of inflation arises.

Question 10.
What is Budget? What are the main components of income and expenditure in the budget of Indian Govt.?
Answer:
Budget is a statement of expected income and expected expenditure of the govt, for the given financial year. When the govt, levies taxes and incurs public expenditure, it comes under the purview of budget. Thus govt, budget is a sort of financial plan which includes within itself both income and expenditure. Traditionally, the budget is presented once in a year by the govt. The Govt, of India normally presents the budget in the Lok- Sabha on Feb. 28 or 29.

The main items of budget of the Govt, of India are as follows :
Items of Revenue. “Corporate tax, Income tax, Import and Export duties, Central Excise, Central Sales Tax, Gift tax, etc. are the main sources of income.
Main items of Expenditure. Security, Police, Administration, Education, Health, Social welfare, Industry, Agriculture, Planning, Rural development etc. are the main heads of expenditure.

Question 11.
Define deficit financing. What methods are included in it?
Answer:
Deficit financing is the method by which government meets the budgetary deficits by taking loans from the Central Bank. Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao has defined deficit financing as “the financing of a deliberate created gap between public revenue and public expenditure, the method of financing resorted to being borrowing of a type that results in a net addition to national outlay or aggregate expenditure.”

There are three important techniques through which the govt, may finance its budgetary deficits.

They are as follows:

Borrowing from Central Bank i.e., creation of new money.
The running down of accumulated cash balances.
The govt, may issue new currency.

It is, thus, obvious that all these methods lead to an increase in the supply of money. The increase in money supply normally causes prices to rise. In India, a major part of the budgetary deficit is financed through borrowing from the Central Bank.

Question 12.
What is meant by Public Finance? Explain direct and indirect taxes, with examples.
Answer:
Public finance deals with the income and expenditure of public authorities. Public authorities include all sorts of governments. Hence it can be said that it deals with the finances of the Govt. Central, State, and Local that are studied in the science of public finance. Prof. Dalton defined public finance as: “It is concerned with the income and expenditure of public authorities and with the adjustment of one to another.” In short, public finance is a study of the nature and principles of state expenditure and state revenue.

Direct Tax: A direct tax is one that cannot be shifted or passed on. It implies that in the case of direct taxes the impact or immediate money burden and the incidence or the ultimate money burden are on the one and the same person. According to Dalton, “A direct tax is really paid by a person on whom it is legally imposed.”

In the group of direct taxes, thus, income tax, wealth tax, property tax, estate duties, capital gains tax may be included.

Indirect Tax: An indirect tax is one that can be shifted or passed on. In case of indirect taxes, the immediate money burden and the ultimate money burden of taxes are on different persons. According to Dalton, “An indirect tax is imposed on one person, but paid partly or wholly by another.” Commodity taxes or sales tax, excise duties, etc. may be grouped as indirect taxes.

Question 13.
What is meant by Public Expenditure? How many types of public expenditure are possible?
Answer:
Public Expenditure: The expenditures incurred by the government are called Public Expenditures.

These can be of four types :

Public Works. The expenditure incurred on the roads, dams and bridges etc.
Public Welfare Works. The expenditure incurred on education, public health etc.
The expenditures on the security and law and order of the country like on Police, Prisons etc.
The expenditure on subsidies given to the producers to increase production, exports and transfer payments.

Question 14.
Explain the concept of‘Poverty Line’. What are the limits of poverty line in India?
Answer:
The concept of poverty line is used to measure poverty in a country. The people who are living below the poverty line are called as poor.

Poverty line signifies a sum that is needed by a person to meet his minimum consumption needs per month. In other words, by poverty line we mean that sum which is required by a person monthly to meet his minimum needs (food, clothing, housing, education and health, etc.).

Limits of Poverty line in India—In their book “Poverty in India”, V.M. Dandekar and Nilkanth Rath are of the opinion that all those who do not get food worth 2,250 calories are to be considered as poor. In order to get food worth 2,250 calories, the per capita monthly income in the rural areas and the urban areas must be ₹ 15 and ₹ 22.5 respectively at 1960-61 prices.

The Planning Commission has defined the poverty line on the basis of the recommended nutritional intake of 2,400 calories per person per day for rural areas and 2,100 calories per person per day for urban areas. On this basis, in rupee terms, the poverty line works out at ₹ 1407 per head per month for rural areas and ₹ 972 per head per month for urban areas both at the 2013-14 prices. 21.9 per cent of population was below poverty line in India during 2011-12.

Question 15.
Define Growth Rate. How it can be calculated?
Answer:
Growth rate is that percentage rate from which it is known that in comparison to one year how much percentage change has taken place in national income or per capita income in any other year.

Growth rate is calculated by using the following formula:
Per Capita Income Growth Rate = \(\frac{\text { Change in Per Capita Income }}{\text { Original Per Capita Income }}\) × 100

The calculation of growth rate may be made clear with the help of an example. Suppose in 2001 the per capita income of India was ₹ 10,000 and it increased to ₹ 12,000 in 2002. Clearly, the change in per capita income = 12,000 – 10,000 = ₹ 2000.
Initial Per Capita Income = ₹ 10,000
Growth Rate of Per Capita Income = \(\frac{2000}{10,000}\) × 100 = 20%
Thus Growth Rate of Per Capita Income = 20%.

Question 16.
What is meant by foreign aid? What are its main forms?
Answer:
In economics, the term ‘foreign aid’ is interpreted in a wider sense. By foreign aid, we mean foreign capital, foreign loans and foreign grants. In other words, the inflow of external assistance in the form of foreign capital, loans and grants by the foreign governments, private individuals, business organizations, foreign banks, international institutions, is termed as foreign aid.

Types of Foreign Aid-The main kinds of foreign aid are as follows :

Foreign Capital
Foreign Loans
Foreign Grants.

Question 17.
Define balance of payments. What are the main items of the balance of payments?
Answer:
The account of receipts and payments of the government of one country from other countries during a period of one year is called balance of payments.

According to Kindleberger, “Balance of payments is a systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of the reporting country and residents of foreign countries during a given period of time.”

Main Items of Balance of Payments. The main items of balance of payments can be divided into two categories :

Items of current account. The main items of current account are :
(a) The import and export of visible items like machinery, tea, tobacco, etc. The difference between such exports and imports is known as trade balance.
(b) The import and export of invisible items like services of insurance companies, banks, doctors, engineers, government transactions, donations, tourism and shipping, etc.
Items of capital account. The capital account is made up of such terms as the inward and outward flow of money for investment and international grants and loans.

Question 18.
Define monetary policy. What are its main methods?
Answer:
By monetary policy we mean a conscious action undertaken by the Central Bank of the country to change the quality, availability or cost (rate of interest) of money to achieve the various specified economic objectives.

Methods of Monetary Policy. The different methods of monetary policy, also known as instruments of credit control, are as follows :

Bank Rate
Open Market Operations
Changes in Minimum Cash Reserve Ratio
Change in Liquidity Ratio
Change in the Margin Requirements of Loan.

The govt, can control the problems of inflation and depression through making suitable changes in these instruments of monetary policy.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Basic Concepts Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line :

Question 1.
What are basic concepts?
Answer:
Those words which have special meaning in economics.

Question 2.
How can per capita income be measured?
Answer:
Per Capita Income = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

Question 3.
What is capital formation?
Answer:
It is an addition to capital stock.

Question 4.
What is meant by inflation?
Answer:
Inflation means constant rise in prices.

Question 5.
What is meant by public debt?
Answer:
It means all types of loans taken by the government.

Question 6.
What is meant by poverty line?
Answer:
It is the method of measuring the poverty of any country.

Question 7.
Which policy is related to the government income and expenditure?
Answer:
Fiscal policy.

Question 8.
Define marginal propensity to consume.
Answer:
It is the ratio of change in consumption to change in income.

Question 9.
What is meant by average propensity to consume?
Answer:
It is the ratio of consumption to income.

Question 10.
What is marginal propensity to save?
Answer:
It is the ratio of change in savings to the change in income.

Question 11.
Define investment.
Answer:
An addition to capital is called Investment.

Question 12.
What is meant by induced investment,?
Answer:
Induced investment is that which depends upon the level of income and profit.

Question 13.
What is meant by autonomous investment?
Answer:
Autonomous investment is independent of the change in level of income and profit.

Question 14.
State any one component of money supply.
Answer:
Bank deposits.

Question 15.
How is growth rate determined?
Answer:
Growth rate of per capita income = \(\frac{\text { Change in Per Capita Income }}{\text { Initial Per Capita Income }}\) × 100

Question 16.
State any one determinant of investment.
Answer:
Rate of Interest.

Question 17.
What is the basic cause of inflation?
Answer:
Excess of demand over the supply.

Question 18.
What is balanced budget?
Answer:
When income is equal to expenditure.

Question 19.
What is deficit budget?
Answer:
When Expenditure of the government > Income of the government.

Question 20.
What is surplus budget?
Answer:
When Income of the government > Expenditure of the government.

Question 21.
Give one example of direct tax.
Answer:
Income Tax.

Question 22.
Give one example of indirect tax.
Answer:
Sales Tax.

Question 23.
Give one example of foreign aid.
Answer:
Foreign loans.

Question 24.
What is soft loan?
Answer:
It is a long term foreign loan with low rate of interest.

Question 25.
What is hard loan?
Answer:
It is a short term foreign loan with high rate of interest.

Question 26.
State any one objective of monetary policy.
Answer:
Price stability.

Question 27.
State any one objective of fiscal policy.
Answer:
Economic Development.

Question 28.
State any one instrument of fiscal policy.
Answer:
Taxation.

Question 29.
What is meant by domestic factor income?
Answer:
Domestic factor income is the sum of factor income within the domestic territory of a country.

Question 30.
What is meant by ‘normal resident of a country’?
Answer:
A normal resident of a country is defined as a person or institution who normally resides in a country and whose centre of interest lies in that country.

Question 31.
What is meant by ‘net factor income from abroad’?
Answer:
It is the difference between the income received by the residents of a country from abroad and the income paid for the factor services provided by the non-residents in the domestic territory of a country.

Question 32.
What is meant by factor income?
Answer:
Factor income is the income received by the different factors of production for their services in the production process.

Question 33.
What is ‘national income at current prices’?
Answer:
National income calculated by using the current year prices is called national income at current prices.

Question 34.
Define ‘national income at constant prices’.
Answer:
When national income is calculated by using base year prices, it is called national income at constant prices.

Question 35.
What is the relationship between national income at current prices and national income at constant prices?
Answer:
National income at constant prices = \(\frac{\text { National income at current prices }}{\text { Price Index }}\) × 100

Question 36.
What is the ‘consumption function’ or ‘propensity to consume’?
Answer:
Consumption function signifies the functional relationship between income and consumption. In other words,
C = f(Y)
where C = Consumption and Y – Income.

Question 37.
What type of relationship exists between income and consumption?
Answer:
There is positive relationship between income and consumption.

Question 38.
What are the limits of mar ginal propensity to consume?
Answer:
Marginal propensity to consume lies in between zero and one.

Question 39.
Define saving.
Answer:
According to Keynes, “Saving is the excess of income over consumption.” In other words,
Saving = Income – Consumption.

Question 40.
Define average propensity to save.
Answer:
Average propensity to save is the ratio of saving to income. In other words,
A.P.S = \(\frac{\text { Saving }}{\text { Income }}\)

Question 41.
What is meant by net investment?
Answer:
Net Investment = Gross Investment – Depreciation.

Question 42.
What is meant by replacement investment?
Answer:
Replacement investment is that portion of gross investment that serves to replace the used up or worn out capital investment.

Question 43.
What is voluntary unemployment?
Answer:
A person is said to be voluntarily unemployed if he is not willing to work at the current wage rate.

Question 44.
What is meant by frictional unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment resulting from the time lags involved in the redeployment of labour is known as frictional unemployment.

Question 45.
What is meant by seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment is the unemployment due to the seasonal nature of activity in some industries.

Question 46.
What is meant by Price Index Number?
Answer:
Price index number signifies a single value with the help of which change is measured in the price/prices of a single commodity or a group of related commodities over a period of time.

Question 47.
What is the basic cause of inflation?
Answer:
When demand exceeds supply, prices start rising and hence inflation arises.

Question 48.
What are the main constituents of money supply?
Answer:
The main constituents of money supply are :

Currency which includes notes and coins
Demand deposits.

Question 49.
What is balanced budget?
Answer:
Balanced budget is that budget in which the income of the govt, equals its expenditure.

Question 50.
What is deficit budget?
Answer:
Deficit budget is that budget in which the expenditure of the govt, exceeds its income.

Question 51.
What is the surplus budget?
Answer:
A budget in which the income of the govt, exceeds its expenditure is known as surplus budget.

Question 52.
Give two examples each of direct and indirect taxes.
Answer:

Direct Taxes: Income tax and Wealth tax.
Indirect Taxes: Sales tax and Excise duty.

Question 53.
What is foreign collaboration?
Answer:
Foreign collaboration is one of the forms of foreign capital. Under foreign collaboration, joint ventures are set up by the foreign and the domestic entrepreneurs.

Question 54.
Give two examples of foreign aid.
Answer:

Foreign loans and
Foreign grants.

Question 55.
Distinguish between hard-loans and soft-loans.
Answer:
The long-term foreign loans with low rate of interest are called as soft-loans. On the other hand, the short-term foreign loans with’ high rate of interest are called as hard- loans.

Question 56.
What is meant by trade balance?
Answer:
Trade balance signifies the difference between the value of imports and exports of goods, that is, visible items only.

Question 57.
What is meant by unfavourable balance of payments?
Answer:
Unfavourable balance of payments means that the total value of imports of visible as well as invisible items is greater than the total value of exports of visible as well as invisible items.

Question 58.
What are the main objectives of monetary policy?
Answer:

Price stability
Full employment
Economic development
Exchange rate stability
Reduction in economic inequalities.

Question 59.
What is meant by bank rate?
Answer:
Bank rate is that minimum rate at which the Central Bank lends money to other commercial banks.

Question 60.
What is meant by open market operations?
Answer:
The sale and purchase of securities in the open market by the Central Bank.

Question 61.
What is meant by liquidity ratio?
Answer:
Each bank has to keep a certain fixed proportion of its total deposits with itself. This ratio is called as liquidity ratio.

Question 62.
Name the main objectives of fiscal policy.
Answer:

Economic development
Price stability
Exchange rate stability
Full employment
Economic equality.

Question 63.
What are the main instruments of fiscal policy?
Answer:

Taxation
Public debt
Deficit financing
Public expenditure.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
_______ income may be defined as the factor income of the normal residents of a country in one year. (Per Capita / National)
Answer:
National

Question 2.
Use of goods and services produced in order to satisfy human wants is called as __________ (Consumption / Production)
Answer:
Consumption

Question 3.
An addition to ______ is called investment. (Consumption / Capital)
Answer:
Capital

Question 4.
_________ = \(\frac{\text { Consumption }}{\text { Income }}\) (MPC/APS)
Answer:
APC

Question 5.
__________ is defined as the ratio df change in savings to change in income. (MPC / MPS)
Answer:
MPS

Question 6.
The policy of the government regarding income and expenditure is known as ___________ policy. (Fiscal / Monetary)
Answer:
Fiscal

Question 7.
Creation of utility is called ______________ (Consumption / Production)
Answer:
Production.

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Destruction of utility is called
(a) Consumption
(b) Production
(c) Exchange
(d) Distribution.
Answer:
(a) Consumption

Question 2.
Give the formula to calculate Per Capita Income. National Income Population
(a) \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Per Capita Income }}\)
(b) \(\frac{\text { Population }}{\text { National Income }}\)
(c) \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

Question 3.
What is the other name of Per Capita Income?
(a) National
(b) Private
(c) Personal
(d) Average.
Answer:
(d) Average.

Question 4.
The policy of the government regarding income and expenditure is known as________policy.
(a) Monetary
(b) Government
(c) Planning
(d) Fiscal.
Answer:
(d) Fiscal.

Question 5.
Public Income has main aspects.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five.
Answer:
(b) Three

Question 6.
____________ is the ratio of consumption to income.
(a) APS
(b) APC
(c) MPS
(d) MPC.
Answer:
(b) APC

True / False :

Question 1.
Consumption = Income – Savings.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Expenditure for further production is known as savings.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Income tax is direct tax.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The policy related with income and expenditure of the govt., is known as fiscal policy.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Per capita income is also known as Average income..
Answer:
True.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the concept of ‘domestic territory of country’.
Answer:
The domestic territory of the country does not necessarily mean the political limit but we include the following in it:

The area and water which come within the national limit.
Country’s embassies, military stations, consultancy offices in other countries.
The airplanes and ships working in other countries.
Fishing vessels, oil and natural gas rigs, and floating platforms operated by the residents of the country in the international waters.

Question 2.
Distinguish between gross national product and net national product.
Answer:
Gross National Product is the total market value of all the final goods and services produced in a nation in one year.
Net National Product means total of market value of net final goods and services produced in a nation in one year.
Net National Product = Gross National Product – Depreciation of Capital.

Question 3.
Explain the concepts of average propensity to consume and marginal propensity to consume with the help of examples.
Answer:
Average propensity to consume is the ratio of consumption to income. In other words,
A.P.C. = \(\frac{\text { Consumption }}{\text { Income }}\)

Example:

Income (₹)	Consumption (₹)	A.P.C
200	180	0.90
300	260	0.87

When income is 200, Consumption is 180, A.P.C. = \(\frac{180}{200}\) = 0.90. When income increases to ₹ 300, Consumption rises to ₹ 260.

In other words, A.P.C. = \(\frac{260}{300}\) = 0.87.

Marginal propensity to consume is the ratio of change in consumption of the change in income. In other words,
M.P.C = \(\frac{\text { Change in Consumption }}{\text { Change in Income }}\)

Examples:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 1 Basic Concepts 1

Obviously, when income rises from ₹ 300 to ₹ 400, consumption increases from ₹ 230 to ₹ 280. Therefore, M.P.C. = \(\frac{40}{100}\) = 0.5. Similarly, when income rises from ₹ 400 to ₹ 500, Consumption rises from ₹ 280 to ₹ 320 and hence,

Question 4.
Distinguish between gross investment and net investment.
Answer:
Gross investment is the total production of capital goods in a year. This includes

Net investment and
Replacement investment. Replacement investment is that portion of gross investment that serves to replace the used up or worn out capital investment. It refers to the expenditure by the producers on account of depreciation of the fixed capital assets. Thus,

Gross Investment = Net Investment + Replacement Investment.
Net investment is the investment that results in an increase in capital stock. In other words, it is the investment over and above the replacement investment during a given period of time. Thus,
Net Investment = Gross Investment – Replacement Investment.

Question 5.
Distinguish between voluntary and involuntary unemployment.
Answer:
When a worker is not willing to work at the current wage rate, then he is said to be voluntarily unemployed. On the other hand, a worker is said to be involuntarily unemployed when he is willing to work at the current wage rate but does not get work.

Question 6.
In a state of full employment, what types of unemployment may exist?
Answer:
According to the classical economists, the following types of unemployment may exist even at the stage of full employment:

Voluntary unemployment
Frictional unemployment
Seasonal unemployment
Structural unemployment
Technical unemployment.

As a matter of fact, absence of involuntary unemployment signifies full employment in the economy.

Question 7.
Which are the constituents of money supply in India?
Answer:

Currency, which includes within itself notes and coins.
Bank deposits.

Question 8.
What is meant by government budget? What are the different types of budget?
Answer:
Govt, budget is a statement of its expected receipts and expected expenditure for the given financial year.
Govt, budget can be of three types:

Deficit budget. Deficit budget is that budget in which the govt, expenditure exceeds its income. In case of deficit demand, deficit budget is thought to be suitable.
Surplus budget. That budget in case of which the income of govt, exceeds its expenditure is called as surplus budget. This type of budget is suitable to control excess demand.
Balanced budget. Balanced budget is that budget in case of which the income of the govt, equals its expenditure.

Question 9.
Give any two merits of direct taxes.
Answer:
(0 Direct taxes like income tax, wealth tax, etc. are based on the principle of ability to pay, so equity or justice in the allocation of tax burden is well secured by these taxes.
(ii) Direct taxes satisfy the canon of certainty.
The State as well as tax-payers are certain about the amount of tax.

Question 10.
Give any two merits of indirect taxes.
Answer:

Since indirect taxes are collected in small amounts at intervals of time, they are more convenient and less pinching in effect. They are convenient from the point of view of the govt, also, since the tax amount is generally collected from manufacturers or the importers.
Indirect taxes are generally difficult to be evaded as they are included in the price of the commodity. A person can evade an indirect tax only when he decides not to purchase the taxed commodity.

Question 11.
Discuss about the bank rate and open market operations as instruments of credit control.
Answer:
Bank Rate. The rate at which the central bank lends money to commercial banks is known as the bank rate. By changing the bank rate, the credit and thus the money supply can be affected. With an increase or decrease in the bank rate, the market rate of interest also increases or decreases. Thus with the increase in bank rate, credit becomes dearer and vice-versa. Obviously, when it becomes necessary to control the credit, then the bank rate is increased and when credit is to be expanded, the bank rate is decreased.

Open Market Operation. By open market operations, we mean the sale and purchase of securities in the open market by the Central Bank of the country. If the Central Bank of the country wants to control credit, then it will start selling the securities lying with it. And when it is necessary to expand the credit, then the Central Bank starts purchasing securities from the open market.

Question 12.
Discuss about minimum cash reserve ratio and liquidity ratio as instruments of credit control.
Answer:
Minimum Cash Reserve Ratio. The commercial banks have to keep some percent of their total reserves with the Central Bank in the form of reserve fund. The changes in cash reserve ratio affect the lending capacity of the commercial banks. If credit is to be controlled, then this ratio is increased and if credit is to be expanded, then this ratio is decreased.

Liquidity Ratio. The commercial banks have to keep- a certain fixed proportion of their total reserves with themselves in the form of cash. This is known as liquidity ratio. This amount cannot be lent by commercial banks. If the credit.is to be expanded then the Central Bank lowers this ratio. On the other hand, the liquidity ratio is increased if it becomes necessary to control the credit.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain common types of unemployment.
Answer:
Following are the common types of unemployment:
1. Voluntary Unemployment. Voluntary unemployment is a situation where workers are not willing to work on prevailing wage rates. In the words of Prof. Dillard, “Voluntary unemployment exists when potential workers are unwilling to accept the going wages or slightly less than going wages.”

2. Involuntary Unemployment. Involuntary unemployment is contrary to the voluntary unemployment. It is a situation in which the workers are ready to work at prevailing wage rates or even less than prevailing wage rates, but they do not get work. In this way involuntary unemployment is forced on the worker. According to Prof. J.M. Keynes, “Involuntary unemployment is a condition in which a person is willing to work at lower real wages than the current real wages whether or not he is willing to accept the lower money wages.”

3. Open Unemployment. In this type of unemployment labourers have not any work to do. He can get even less work. In the lack of work labourers completely remain unemployed. This type of unemployment exists in urban sectors like industrial unemployment and educated unemployment.

4. Seasonal Unemployment. Seasonal unemployment exists due to the seasonal nature of some occupations. For example, agricultural workers get work for few months in a year. Labourers in sugar mills get work from November to April and for other months they remain seasonal unemployed.

5. Structural Unemployment. Structural unemployment exists due to the change in the industrial structure. If we replace old machine for new machine, so during this replacement period worker remain unemployed. This type of unemployment is called structural unemployment.

6. Frictional Unemployment. Frictional unemployment comes into existence due to the mobility of the economy and imperfections in the labour market. In the words of Prof. Dillard, “Frictional unemployment exists when men are temporarily out of work because of imperfections in the labour market.”
Thus frictional unemployment exists in the economy due to immobility of labour in different industries, seasonal nature of some occupations, breakdown of the machinery and ignorance of job opportunities, etc.

Question 2.
Explain the self-employment and wage generation approach of the government for poverty alleviation.
Answer:
Self-employment and Wage Generation Approach. This approach has been initiated from Third Five Year Plan (1961-66) and enlarged successfully since then.

The following programmes are initiated by the government from time to time under the approach:
1. Food for Work Programme. This programme was launched in the 19706 for the upliftment of the poor. Under this programme, foodgrains are distributed against the wage work.

2. Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana (PMRY). This programme has been implemented by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission, which aims at creating self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns. One can get financial assistance with bank loans to set up small enterprises under this programme. Under PMRY, the educated unemployed from low-income families in both rural and urban areas can get financial help to set up any type of industry which generates employment.

3. Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY): This program mainly aims at creating employment opportunities, both self-employment and wage employment in urban areas. Individuals were given financial assistance under the self-employment programme. Now, the PMRY and SJSRY in the 1990s have been changed. Those who wish to benefit from these programmes are encouraged to form Self Help Groups (SHGs) and then the government will provide partial financial assistance through banks.

4. Swarnajayanthi Gram Swarozgar Yojana. Sawamajayanthi Gram Swarbzgar Yojana was launched in April 1999 and is the only self-employment program currently being implemented. It aims at promoting micro-enterprises and to bring the assisted poor families (Swarozgaris) above the poverty line by organising them into Self-Help Groups through the process of social mobilisation, training and capacity building, and provision of income-generating assets through a mix of Bank Credit and Government subsidy. The scheme is being implemented on a cost-sharing ratio of 75: 25 between the centre and the states.

5. Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY). The SGRY was launched in September 2001. The schemes of Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana and the Employment Assurance Scheme have been fully integrated with SGRY. The objective of the scheme is to provide additional wage employment along with food security, the creation of durable communities, social and economic assets, and infrastructure development in the rural areas. The scheme envisages the generation of 100 man-days of employment in a year. The cost of the program is to be shared between the centre and the states on a cost-sharing ratio of 87.5: 12.5 (including the foodgrains component).