Class 10 – Page 7 – PSEB Solutions

Lawn Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 17, 2024October 16, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Lawn Tennis Game Rules.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question. 1.
Write about the history of Lawn Tennis?
Answer:
History of Lawn Tennis:
Originating from the old indoor game of Real Tennis, its proper name is Lawn Tennis. Although the only major tournament in the world still to use grass courts today is that held at Wimbledon. Lawn Tennis has its roots in France but the game was brought to England. The first championship was held at Wimbledom in 1877 and the first International Championship was held in U.S.A. in 1881 in Australia 1905 and in France 1925. In Modern Olympic which was originated in 1896. Tennis was an official game but it was withdrawn from the Olympic after 1924 but was again included in 1988.

International Tennis Federation (ITF) came into existence in 1977. The game is played in so many forms as men and women singles men and women doubles and mixed double. First time Lawn Tennis was included in Asian Games in 1958. Today it is most interesting game played both at amateur and professional levels. Tennis is a racket game in which the player of one team sends the ball oyer net to the opponent area so that opponent is unable to return the ball. In this way points are scored by the player which won the games set and match. Our player named Leander Paes had won Olympic singles in 1996 at Atlanta.

Latest Rules of Lawn Tennis:

The length of the Lawn tennis court is 78 feet (28.77 m.) and its width is 27 feet (8.23 m).
The height of the net is 3 feet (0.91 m.), and the maximum diameter of the cord or metal cable which suspends the net is 1/3 (0.8 cm).
The diameter of posts is 6″ (15 cms.), and the distance of the centre of the post outside the court on each side is 3 ft. (0.91 m).
The diameter of the Lawn tennis ball is 2 (6.34 cms.), and its weight is 2 ounces (56.7 gm.) The bounce of the ball when dropped from a height of 100″ (254 cms.) is 53″ (1.35 m).
The maximum number of sets in a game for men is 5, and for women is 3.

Question. 2.
Write about the court of the Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
Lawn Tennis Court:
The tennis court shall be rectangular. It shall be 78′ (23.77 m.) in length and 27′ (8.23 m.) width. It should be divided across the middle by a net suspended from a cord or metal cable. The diameter of this cord should be 1/3 (0.8 cm.), the ends of which shall be attached to or pass over the tops of two evenly pointed posts. These posts should be 3’66” (1.07 m.) in height and not more than 6 inches (15 cm.) square or 6 inches (15 cm.) in diameter, the centre of which shall be 3’ (0.91 m.) outside the court on each side.

The net should be tightly and fully extended so that it fills the space between the two posts fully, and should be so small mesh as to prevent the ball passing through. The height of the net shall be 3′ (0.914 m.) at the centre, and it shall be tautly held down by a strap not more than 2″ (5 cm.) wide and white in colour. A band shall cover the cord and the top of the net for not less than 2 inches (5 cm.) and inches (6.3 cm.) deep on each side. Its colour should be white. There should be no advertisement on the net, strap, band or single sticks.

The lines surrounding the ends and sides of the court shall respectively be called the Base fines and the side-lines. On each side of the net, at a distance of 0.21 feet (6.00 cm.) from it and parallel’to it, service-fines shall be drawn. The space on each side of the .net between the service-line and the side-line shall be divided into two equal parts called the service courts by the centre service-fine. This service fine shall be 2 inches (5 cm.) in width, drawn half-way between and parallel to the side lines.

Each base-line shall be bisected by a centre-service fine which is 4 inches (10 cm.) in length and 2 inches (5 cm.) in width, and is called centre mark. Except the base-lines, all lines should be minimum 1″ (2.5 cm.) and maximum 2″ (5 cm.) in length. The base line may be four inches (10 cm.) in width. All measurements should be made to the outside of the fines.

The permanent fixtures of the court shall include not only the net; posts, single sticks, cord or metal cable, strap and band but also the back and side stops, the fixed stands, movable seats and chairs. All other fixtures around and above the court and the Umpire, Net- cord, Foot-fault Judge, Linesmen and Ball Boys shall be in their proper places.

Question. 3.
Write about the ball of the Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
The Lawn-tennis Ball:
The ball should have a uniform outer surface. It shall be white or yellow in colour. The diameter of the ball shall be minimum 2 1/2” (5.35 cm.) and maximum 2 5/8” (6.67 cm.). Its weight should be more than 2 ounces (56.7 gm.) and not less than 2 1/16 ounces (58.8 gm.). It should have a bounce of more than 53 inches (135 cm.) and less than 58 inches (147 cm.) when dropped from a height of 100” (254 cm.) upon a concrete base.
Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
The ball should have a forward deformation of more than 220 inches (.956 cm.) and less than .290 of an inch (.74 cm.), and a return deformation of more than .350 of an inch (.89 cm.) and less than .425 of an inch (1.08 cm.) at 18 pounds (8.165 kg.) load. The two deformation figures shall be the averages of three individual readings along three axes of the ball and no two individual readings shall differ by more than 0.30 of an inch (.80 cm.) in each case.

Players:
The players shall stand on opposite sides of the net. The players who delivers the ball first is called the server, and the other will be called the receiver. The choice of ends and the right to be Server or Receiver in the first game is decided by the toss. The toss winning players may choose his end or may ask the other player to choose. If a player decides to choose the end, the other player has the right to choose to be the Server or the Receiver.

Service:
The service shall be delivered in the following manner : Before delivering the service, the Server shall stand with both feet at rest behind (that is, farther from the net than the base-line). This place shall be within the imaginary continuation of the Centre Mark and the side-line. Then the Server shall project the ball by hand into the air and before it hits the ground, strike it with his racket, and the delivery shall be considered to have been completed at the moment of the impact of the racket and the ball. A player with the use of one arm may utilize his racket for protection or defence.

The Server, throughout the delivery of the service, shall-

not change his position by walking or running.
not touch, with either foot, any area other than that behind the base-line within the imaginary extension of the centre mark and side-line.

1. In delivering the service, the Server shall stand behind the right and the left courts turn by turn. He shall start from the right in every game. If the service is delivered from a wrong half of the court and is undetected, the play resulting from such wrong service shall stand, but the inaccuracy of station shall be corrected immediately after it is detected.

2. The ball served should pass over the net and hit the ground in the Service Court which is diagonally opposite, before the Receiver returns it. If the ball touches any other line of the court, the Service shall not be considered.

General Rules of Lawn Tennis:
1. The tennis player shall not serve until the other player or receiver is ready. If the receiver attempts to return, he is deemed to be ready.

2. The service is a let if the ball served touches the net, strap or band, or touches the receiver or anything he wears or carries. It shall be let if it is delivered when the receiver is not ready.

3. At the end of the first game the receiver shall become server, and the server shall become the receiver. This will continue alternately in all the games of a match.

4. The server wins the point if the ball served is not a let, and touches the receiver or anything he wears or carries before it hits the ground.

5. If a player knowingly does something which, in the opinion of the Umpire, hinders his opponent in making a stroke, the Umpire shall award the point to the opponent and in case such an act of player is involuntary, the Umpire shall order the point to be replayed.

6. If the ball in play touches a permanent fixture other than the net, posts, single sticks, cord or metal cable, strap or band after it has hit the ground, the player who struck it wins the point. But if the ball touches such an object before it hits the ground, the point is awarded to the opponent.

7. If a player wins his first point, his score is 15, on winning the second point, the score is 30; and on winning the third point, his score rises to 40. The player who gets 40 points wins the set of game. But in case both the players win 3 points each, the score is called deuce, and the next point won by a player is scored advantage for that player. If the same player (with advantage) wins the next point, he wins the game. If the other player wins the point, the score is again called deuce; and so on, until a player wins two points following the score at deuce.

8. When a player wins first six games, he wins a set, except that he must win by a margin of two games over his rival, and if necessary, a set is extended until this margin is achieved. The players shall change ends at the end of the first and third game and at the end of each set provided the total number of games in each set is not even, and in which case the change is made at the end of first game of the next set.

9. The maximum number of sets in a match for men is 5 and for women 3.

10. The game shall continue from the start to the conclusion, provided that after the third set, or when moment participate, after the second set, a player can take rest. But the duration of rest is from 10 to 15 minutes. When it is essential, the Umpire may suspend the play for such a period as he may deem necessary.

11. In case the play is suspended, and is not be resumed until a later day rest may be taken by a player after the third set or after the second set in case of women players. In case the play is postponed to a later day, the completion of an unfinished set shall be considered as one set. These provisions should be properly explained. The play should, however, never be suspended, delayed or interfered with for the purpose of enabling a player regain his strength.

12. The Umpire shall be the sole judge of such suspension of the game, and after living due warning to the offender who causes such suspension, may disqualify him.

13. In changing ends, a maximum of one minute should elapse from the close of the previous game till the players are ready for the start of the next game.

The Doubles Game
The Court:
For the Doubles Game, the court shall be 36 feet (10.97 m) in width, that is, it shall be wider by 4 1/2 feet (1.47 m) on each side that meant for the Singles game. Those portions of the singles side-lines which lie between the two services lines are called the Service Side-Lines. In other respects, the Court shall be similar to the one described in the court for the Singles game. However, the portions of the singles side lines between the base-line and service-line on each side of the net may be omitted, if so desired.

Question 4.
Write down any five rules of Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
General Rules:
1. The order of serving shall be decided at the start of each set in the following manner:
(а) The pair who are to serve in the first game of each set shall decide who shall, do so, while the opposing pair shall decide similarly in the second game.
(b) The partner of the player who served in the first game shall serve in the third game, the partner of the player who served in the second game shall serve in the fourth game, and so on in the same order in all the subsequent games of a set.

2. The order of receiving the service shall be decided at the start of each set as mentioned below:

(i) The pair who are to receive the service in the first game shall decide as to which partner shall receive the first service, and that partner shall continue to receive the first service in every odd game throughout the set.
(ii) The rival pair shall decide which partner shall receive the first service in the second game and that partner will continue to receive the first service in every even game throughout the set. Partners shall receive the service alternately throughout each game.

3. If a partner serves out of his/her turn, the partner who should have served shall serve as soon as the mistake is found out. In such case, all points scored, and any faults served before such discovery, shall be considered. If a game is completed before such discovery, the order of service does not change.

4. In case the order of receiving the service is changed by the receivers during a game, it shall remain unchanged until the end of the game in which the mistake is detected. But the partners shall resume their original order of receiving the service in the next game of the set in which they are the receivers.

5. The ball shall be struck alternately by one or other player of the opposing pairs. In case a player touches the ball in play with his racket against the above said rule, his opponents shall get the point.

Important Information about the Lawn Tennis Game

Length of Tennis court = 78’ or 26, 77” Metre
Breadth of court = 27’ or 8.23 Metre
Height of the net = 3’6” or 1.07 Metre
Diametre of iron tar (cable) = 1/4 inch
Diametre of Poles = 6 inch or 15 cm
Distance of poles from centre = 3’ or 90 cm
Weight of Tennis ball = 2 ounces (56.7 – 60.24 grns)
Distance of Tennis Poles = 2 1/2; inches
Bounch of ball after throwing it from the height of 100 feet = 53 inches
Number of sets for men = 5 sets
Number of sets for women 3 sets
Colour of Tennis ball = White or yellow.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

October 17, 2024October 16, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

PSEB 10th Class Science Guide Chemical Reactions and Equations Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?
2PbO(s) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CO₂(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised.
(d) Lead oxide is being reduced.
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all.
Answer
(i) (a) and (b)

Question 2.
Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe
The above reaction is an example of a
(a) combination reaction.
(b) double displacement reaction.
(c) decomposition reaction.
(d) displacement reaction.
Answer:
(d) displacement reaction.

Question 3.
What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings?
Tick the correct answer.
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(c) No reaction takes place.
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.

Question 4.
What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical equations be balanced?
Answer:
Balanced chemical equation. It is a chemical equation in which number of atoms of each element are equal on both sides of the equation.

The chemical equation should be balanced because law of conservation of mass holds good i.e., the total mass of the reactants must be equal to the total mass of the products.

Question 5.
Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them :
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
Answer:
3H₂ (g) + N₂ → 2NH₃ (g)

(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
Answer:
2H₂S (g) + 3O₂ (g) → 2H₂O (l) + 2SO₂ (g)

(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate.
Answer:
3BaCl₂ + A12(SO₄)₃ → 2AlCl₃ (aq) + 3BaSO₄ (s)↓

(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Answer:
2K (s) + 2H₂O (l) → 2KOH (aq) + H₂ (g)

Question 6.
Balance the following chemical equations :
(a) HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + H₂O
Answer:
2HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + 2H₂O

(b) NaOH + H₂SO4 → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O
Answer:
2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O

(d) BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + HCl
Answer:
BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2HCl

Question 7.
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions :
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate + Water
Answer:
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O

(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver.
Answer:
Zn + 2AgNO₃ → Zn(NO₃)₂ + 2Ag

(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride.
Answer:
BaCl₂ + K₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2KCl

Question 8.
Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction and identify the type of reaction in each case.
(a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) → Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium bromide (s)
Answer:
2KBr (aq) + Bal₂ (aq) → 2KI (aq) + BaBr₂ (aq) — Double displacement reaction

(b) Zinc carbonate (s) → Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g)
Answer:
ZnCO₃ (s) → ZnO (s) + CO₂ (g) — Decomposition reaction

(d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) → Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
Answer:(a)
Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl₂ (aq) + H₂ (g) — Displacement reaction

Question 9.
What is meant by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
Or
Differentiate between exothermic and endothermic reactions.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction. It is a chemical reaction in which heat energy is given out.
e.g. C (s) + O₂ (g) → CO₂ + Heat energy
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H₂O (l) + Heat energy

Endothermic reaction : It is a chemical reaction in which heat energy is absorbed,
e.g. N₂ (g) + O₂ (g) → 2NO (g) — Heat energy
C (S) + H₂O (g) → CO + H₂ (g) — Heat energy.

Question 10.
Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction? Explain.
Answer:
During respiration oxidation of glucose occurs which produces heat energy.

Question 11.
Why are decomposition reactions called opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
During decomposition a single substance breaks down into two or more substances which is just the reverse of combination reaction.

Examples for decomposition reactions are :
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Question 12.
Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or electricity.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2
Here electrical energy is supplied to bring about the reaction.

Question 13.
What is the difference between the displacement and double displacement reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
Displacement reaction: In this reaction a more active element displaces less active element from solution of its compound. Examples:
Fe (s) + CuSO₄ (aq) → FeSO₄ (aq) + Cu (s) ↓
Zn (s) + CuSO₄ (aq) → ZnSO₄ (aq) + Cu (s) ↓

Double displacement reaction: The reaction in which there is an exchange of ions between two reactants is called a double displacement reaction.
AgNO₃ (aq) + NaCl (aq) AgCl (s) ↓ + NaNO₃ (aq)
BaCl₂ (aq) + Na₂SO₄ (aq) BaSO₄ (s) ↓ + 2NaCl (aq)

Question 14.
In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involved displacement by copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Answer:
Cu (s) + 2AgNO₃ (aq) → Cu(NO₃)₂(aq) + 2Ag ↓

Question 15.
What do you mean by precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.
Answer:
Precipitation reaction. A reaction in which an insoluble product or precipitate is produced is called precipitation reaction.
AgNO₃ (aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (s) ↓ + NaNO₃ (aq)
BaCl₂ (aq) + Na2SO₄ (aq) → BaSO₄ (s) ↓ + 2NaCl (aq)

Question 16.
Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with two examples each :
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction.
Answer:
(a) Oxidation: A chemical reaction in which a substance gains oxygen or loses hydrogen is called oxidation.
Examples
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

(b) Reduction: A chemical reaction in which a substance loses oxygen or gains hydrogen is called reduction.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

Question 17.
A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
Answer:
The element X is copper.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5
Therefore the black coloured compound formed is copper (II) oxide (CuO).

Question 18.
Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
Answer:
The iron articles can be protected from rusting by applying paint on them so that the iron surface does not come in contact with air (or oxygen) and moisture which causes rusting.

Question 19.
Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
Answer:
This is because food items are prevented from oxidation by oxygen or air.

Question 20.
Explain the following terms with one example each :
(a) Corrosion
Answer:
Corrosion: The slow eating up of metals by the action of air and moisture on their surfaces is called corrosion. For example, iron undergoes corrosion or rusting in the presence of moist air.

(b) Rancidity.
Answer:
Rancidity: When fats and oils or food containing oils and fats get oxidised with air or oxygen, their smells and tastes change, This process is called rancidity. For example, the packet containing potato chips is flushed with nitrogen gas to avoid rancidity.

Science Guide for Class 10 PSEB Chemical Reactions and Equations InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
Answer:
Magnesium ribbon should be cleaned before burning to remove the protective layer of basic magnesium carbonate from its surface.

Question 2.
Write the balanced equation for the following chemical reactions.
(i) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
Answer:
H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl

(ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium Sulphate → Barium Sulphate + Aluminium Chloride
Answer:
3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → 3BaSO₄ + 2AlCl₃

(iii) Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Answer:
2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂

Question 3.
Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions.
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble sulphate and the solution of sodium chloride.
Answer:
BaCl₂(aq) + Na₂SO4(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce sodium chloride and water.
Answer:
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H₂O (l)

Question 4.
A solution of substance “X’ is used for white washing.
(i) Name the substance X’and write its formula.
Answer:
X is calcium oxide (quick lime) and its formula is CaO.

(ii) Write the reaction of the substance X named in (i) above with water.
Answer:
CaO (s) + H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂ (aq)

Question 5.
Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test tubes in activity 1.7 double of the amount collected in the other? Name this gas.
Answer:
When electric current is passed through acidulated water, the reaction taking place is

Therefore hydrogen and oxygen produced are in the ratio 2 : 1 by volume. Hence volume of gas collected in one test tube is double the volume of gas collected in the other tube and this gas is hydrogen.

Question 6.
Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change, when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Answer:
This is because iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
Therefore, the concentration of copper sulphate solution decreases and blue colour of solution gradually fades away.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 7
The concentration of copper sulphate solution decreases as ferrous sulphate is produced.

Question 7.
Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one given in the activity 1.10 given in textbook
Answer:
NaCl (aq) + AgNO₃(ag) → NaNO₃(aq) +AgCl(s) ↓

Question 8.
Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions :
(i) 4Na(s) + O₂(g) → 2Na₂O (s)
(ii) CuO(s) + H₂(g) → Cu(s) + H₂O(l)
Answer:

Substance oxidised	Substance reduced
1. Na_(s)	H₂
2. H₂	CuO_(s)

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

October 17, 2024October 16, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Physical Education Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why Olympic Games are called Olympic?
Answer:
Olympic games were started in village Olympia. That is why it is known as Olympic.

Question 2.
When Ancient Olympics started?
Answer:
It was started in 776 in Greece.

Question 3.
What prizes were given to the winner of the Ancient Olympics?
Answer:
The roots of tree from the Goddess of Jess Temple were given.

Question 4.
Write any two rules of Ancient Olympic.
Answer:

Participants must be citizens of Greece.
Professional players cannot take part in Ancient Olympic.

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Modern Olympic games?
Answer:
Baron De Coubertin.

Question 6.
When and where modern Olympic games were started?
Answer:
It was started in 1896 in Athens.

Question 7.
Write any two rules of Modern Olympic games.
Answer:

There is no bar to participate in Olympic of caste and creed.
Professional players cannot take part in Olympic.

Question 8.
Who has originated Asian Game?
Answer:
It was started with the effort of Maharaja Yadvinder Singh of Patiala and Mr. G.D. Sondhi.

Question 9.
When and where Asian Games were started?
Answer:
It was started in 1951 at New Delhi.

Question 10.
After how many years Olympic games were held?
Answer:
After every four years.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 11.
Where were the fifth Asian games held?
Answer:
It was held in 1966 in Jakarta (Indonesia).

Question 12.
In which Olympic Mr. Milkha Singh got 4th position in 400 metres race?
Answer:
1960 (Rome Olympic) Mr. Milkha Singh got fourth position in 400 meters race.

Question 13.
In which year India participated in Olympic First Time?
Answer:
In 1920 Olympic Games.

Question 14.
Which Indian player won gold medal in 2008 Beijing Olympic Games?
Answer:
Mr. Abhinav Bindrg, won the gold medal in the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.

Question 15.
When and where did the Indian Hockey team won Gold Medal for the first time?
Answer:
In 1928 India Hockey team won Gold Medals at Amsterdam.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the founder of Modern Olympic Games? What do you know about him?
Answer:
Modern Olympic Games:
In 1859, the Olympic games were brought to life with the efforts of James. Only the Greeks could take part in these games. These games were held four times, but could not get much success. But the attention of the whole world was drawn towards these games, and the efforts began to make the games successful.
PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games 1
In 1893, a conference of all nations was convened with the sole aim of reviving the Olympic games. In June, 6, 1894, another conference was convened in Paris. It was unanimously resolved that these games would be conducted every four year in some country of the world. Baron de Coubertin made a great contribution in the revival of Olympic games. With his efforts the Olympic games were a new in the Greek city of Athens in 1896.

Question 2.
Discuss the rules for the competition of Modern Olympics.
Answer:
Entries and Rules For Olympic Games. In order to participate in the Olympic games, a player, whether man or woman, of age-group must be Amateur. All entries in the games are routed through National Olympic Committee. National Sports Committees select players to represent their respective countries, and send their names to the International Olympic Committee.

International Olympic Committee:
In order to organize Olympic games a committee was named International Olympic Committee was formed. It had one representative of each country in the world. Its head office is located in Compague Mon Zeps Lausanne (Switzerland). For this committee, one President, two Vice Presidents and members of the Executive are elected. This committee decides the time and venue of the Olympic games to be held every four years.

Question 3.
Discuss the various events which have been included in Modern Olympic games. Discuss the opening and closing ceremonies of Olympic games.Answer:
Olympic Programme:
Whichever event is to be included in the Olympic games is recognized first by the International Olympic Committee two years before the start of the games.This event must be played by at least 25 countries. With the inclusion of more games, new programmes and events came into being. The following events have been included in the Modern Olympic games :

Athletics
Football
Basketball
Hockey
Boxing
Volleyball
Weight-lifting
Cycling
Gymnastics
Handball
Swimming and Diving
Roving
Canoeing
Fencing.
Judo
Wrestling
Equestrain
Water polo
Shooting
Archery
Yachting
Pentathlon.

Opening and Closing Ceremonies of Olympic Games:
The opening ceremony of the Olympic games is very impressive. The torch which is kept burning with sunrays in Olympia is brought to that city where the Olympic games are to be held. The King, President or Prime Minister of that place announces the opening of the games . It is followed by the March Past by the athletes and oath-taking ceremony. The Olympic flag unfurled and pigeons and balloons are released.

Question 4.
When and where the Modern Olympic were held?
Answer:
List of Olympic Games held so far:

Second	1954	Manila	Phillipines
Third	1958	Tokyo	Japan
Fourth	1962	Bangkok	Thailand
Fifth	1966	Jakarta	Indonesia
Sixth	1970	Bangkok	Thailand
Seventh	1974	Tehran	Iran
Eighth	1978	Bangkok	Thailand
Ninth	1982	New Delhi	India
Tenth	1986	Seoul	South Korea
Eleventh	1990	Beijing	China
Twelfth	1994	Hiroshima	Japan
Thirteenth	1998	Bangkok	Thailand
Fourteenth	2002	Passan	S.Korea
Fifteenth	2006	Doha	Quatar
Sixteenth	2010	Goingz	China
Seventeenth	2014	To be held	S. Korea

The 1906 Olympic games were organised to mark the 10th anniversary of the Games. These were not held after a period of 4 years as usual:
At the time of holding ancient Olympic Games battle between the countries used to be stopped. But it is a matter of pity and shame that the Olympic Games stated for 1910 and then for 1914 were stopped because of the First World War and then the Second World War, and lovers of games could not participate in these games.

Moreover, in 1980 many countries did not participate in Olympic Games held in Moscow (U.S.S.R.) on political considerations. A large number of players who had put in their best efforts in their preparation had to face disappointment when their countries boycotted these games held in Moscow.

The world remained in tension as to what might happen in the Games which were held in Barcelona in 1992. In the Olympic Games of 1972 held in Munich, some players were attacked on narrow consideration of colour forgetting the true spirit of the Olympics. Many players were killed, and the whole world was plunged in sorrow and shame.

The founder of the modern Olympic games Baron de Coubertin might not have even imagined of this tragic fate which the Games met. It would be indeed fortunate if we could continue the Olympic Games in the spirit with which they were revived. History changes, and new incidents happened giving new turns to history. One is afraid if such tragic incidents would bring the Olympic Games to the same point when another Baron de Coubertin had to make efforts to revive them.

Question 5.
What do you know about Olympic Oath?
Answer:
Olympic Oath:
Olympic oath taking ceremony was started in 1920 in Antwerp. In the Charter of Olympic Games 63 it has been mentioned that an outstanding sportsperson of the host country would take oath by holding comer of the flag by one hand, and raising other hand upward swear as :
“We swear that we will take part in the Olympic Games in loyal competition respecting the regulations which govern them and with the desire to participate in the true spirit of sportsmanship for the honour of our country and glory of sports.”

Question 6.
What is the importance of Olympic Flag and Olympic Motto? What type of prizes are awarded to the winners of Modern Olympics?
Answer:
Olympic Flag:
Olympic flag was first hoisted in the city of Antwerp of Belgium in Olympic games. It was of white colour. It contains five connected circles of different colours (Red, Green, Yellow, Blue and Black). These are like the English alphabet W. It represents five continents i.e. Europe, America, Asia, Africa and Australia. The motto of Olympic games was shown by three words Citius, Altius and Fortius.
PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games 2

Olympic Awards – Certificates are awarded to persons who are placed in first three positions:

First Position – Gold Medal
Second Position – Silver Medal
Third Position – Bronze Medal

In addition to this a medal was awarded to an employee who helps in organising Olympic games.

Olympic Motto:
The Olympic Motto consists of three Latin words Citius, Altius and Fortius. The modern interpretation of this motto is Faster, Higher, Stronger. This represents the athletic games of running faster, jumping higher and throwing more strongly.

Question 7.
Which prizes were won by the Indian players in the 2008 Olympic games? Write the name of players and their games.
Answer:
The 2008 Beijng Olympic Indian won these medals:

Name	Medal	Sports
Abhinav Bindra	Gold	Shooting
Sushil Kumar	Bronze	Wrestling
Vijander Kumar	Bronze	Boxing

Question 8.
Write the contribution of Indian in 2012 Olympic.
Answer:
2012 Olympic games were held, at London. In this games Indian performed very well and won six medals as under :

Medal	Name	Sports
Silver	Sushil Kumar	Wrestling
Silver	Vijay Kumar	Shooting
Bronze	Mary Kom	Boxing
Bronze	Gagan Narang	Shooting
Bronze	Yogeshwar Dutt	Wrestling
Bronze	Saina Nehwal	Badminton

2016 Olympic games were held of Rio (Brazil) in this game India won two medal as under:

Medal	Name	Sports
Silver	P.V.Sindhu	Badminton
Bronze	Shakshi Malik	Wrestling

Question 9.
When and where Asian Games were started? What is the contribution of India in organizing the Asian Games?
Answer:
Asian Games:
Brief History. The Asian Games were born on Feburary 13, 1949 when representatives of Afghanistan, Burma, India, Pakistan and Phillipines signed the Constitution at Patiala house, New Delhi and thus became the founder-members of Asian Games Federation. The representatives adopted “Ever Ownard as the motto of the games.” However behind that date lies a long period of gestation on the part of the member countries plus the efforts of late Sh. G.D. Sondhi, a former member of International Olympic Committee, President of Amateur Athletics Federation of India and the prime mover behind the founding of the western Asiatic Games.

The inspiration for the Asian Games can be traced back to these fore manners. The Far Eastern Games were held periodically between Japan-China and Phillipines in the first three decades of the century. The Olympic games in which the Asian countries were taking increasing interest, and Western Asiatic Games (for countries east of Suez and west of Singapore), which were held in 1934, but were discontinued with the start of World War II, gave rise to Asian Games.

These two types of sports festival had the idea of bringing together the youth of Asia on the field of sports. This idea was dormant until March, 1947, when the Asian Relation Conference called by Pt. Nehru in New Delhi, presented an opportunity to bring to the notice of the countries attending that conference, the proposal for Asian Games.

Mr. Sondhi raised the question of the Asian Games project with some assembled representatives attending the Asia Relation Conference and also approached Mr. Nehru who readily offered his support for the idea. During the London Olympics in 1948 the plan way again put before a gathering of Asian representatives and the First Asian Games were initially set to take place in 1950. After several postponements, the first Games were finally held in New Delhi March 1951. Since then Asian games have been held regularly four years interval.

The cavelcade of Asian Games went forward as follows :

Second	1954	Manila	Phillipines
Third	1958	Tokyo	Japan
Fourth	1962	Bangkok	Thailand
Fifth	1966	Jakarta	Indonesia
Sixth	1970	Bangkok	Thailand
Seventh	1974	Tehran	Iran
Eighth	1978	Bangkok	Thailand
Ninth	1982	New Delhi	India
Tenth	1986	Seoul	South Korea
Eleventh	1990	Beijing	China
Twelfth	1994	Hiroshima	Japan
Thirteenth	1998	Bangkok	Thailand
Fourteenth	2002	Passan	S.Korea
Fifteenth	2006	Doha	Quatar
Sixteenth	2010	Goingz	China
Seventeenth	2014	To be held	S. Korea

Member Contries:

Afghanistan
Behrain
Burma
China
Hongkong
India
Indonesia
Iran
Iraq
Israel
Japan
Republic of Khemer
Democratic Republic of Korea
Republic of a Korea
Kuwait
Laos
Malaysia
Republic of Mangolia
Nepal
Pakistan
Phillipines
Saudi Arabia
Singapore
Sri Lanka
Thailand
Republic of Vietnam

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the History of Ancient Olympics. (OR) When and where the Ancient Olympic Games started ? Why are these known as Olympic Games ?
Answer:
History:
The Ancient Olympic Games came into existence in the Greek city of Olympia in 776 A.D. The credit for starting these games is given to Ifitus and Claustheius. The games began on full moon night in the months of August and September. The first winner of the Olympic games was Corbus. These games were organised after a year. They got banned in 394 A.D. on the orders of Roman Emperor Theodosius. The Olympic city was situated on the bank of Elfis river. It was the sacred city of Elis state. These games acquired special status in 1100 A.D., and began to be taken care of like a temple. With the beginning of the Olympic games, all battles in Greece used to be stopped. Nobody with weapons could enter Olympia. These games are related to Greek God Zeus.

Sports :
The Ancient Olympic games used to begin with race. It used to be 100 yards. In 724 A.D. the distance of the race was increased to 400 yards. In the 15th Olympic games the distance of the race was increased to 3 miles. In the 18th Olympic games Pentathlon was started. It included five games-long jump, 200-yard race, javelin throw and wrestling. In 25th Olympic games, chariot race was introduced, and in 30th Olympics, boxing, water- sports, wrestling pekprium and some other games were introduced. At first women were not allowed to participate in games, but then they were allowed to do so.

Rewards :
The winners of the games were amply rewarded. They were taken to the temple of Zeus and were presented the leaves and branches of olive tree. People would sing in their praises. The games were named after these winners. The companions of these winners would bring them home in the accompaniment of instrumental music. The country would take pride in her winners, and all Greeks would pray for good luck to all participants of these games.

End :
With the passage of time these games became more and more popular, and other countries also began to take part in these games. After the victory of Greece by Romans, these games had a severe setback. Some professionals began to take part in these games, thus giving rise to many evils in the games. On the orders of Roman Emperor Theodosius in 394 A.D., these games came to an end. In 395 A.D., the statue of the Greek god Zeus was also broken. The Olympic city got deserted. Roman Emperor Theodosius also destroyed stadiums. For some time even the relics of Olympic games and Olympic city disappeared.

Question 2.
What were the rules for competition in Ancient Olympics ?
Answer:
Rules of Ancient Olympics. It was extremely essential to follow the following rules to take part in Olympic games :

All players participating in the games ought to be Greeks.
It was essential for a player to take up training for 10 months under the care of somebody before taking part in these games.
No professional could participate in the games.
In the initial stage, women were neither allowed to witness, nor participate in these games.
The players had to take oath to participate in the games properly.
The players should not have any criminal charge.
The first and last days of games were fixed for religious ceremonies and sacrifices.

Sports:
In the beginning, only one game was included in the Olympics, but more games were slowly introduced. First of all the race used to be of 100 yards. In 724 A.D. at the 14th Olympic games 400 yards race was introduced. At the 18th Olympic games Pentathlon was started. It include long jump, Javelin throw, 200 yards race, discus throw and wrestling. In 23rd and 25th Olympics, 3 miles race was introduced. In 28th Olympics, chariot race, and in 30th Olympics, water sports were included. These games used to last for there to five days. At first women were not allowed to take part in games, but they were allowed to do so later on.

Question 3.
What do you know about the opening ceremony of Ancient Olympics ?
Answer:
Opening ceremony and conduct of Games:
Before the start of the games, all the players, their father’s and brothers and the coaches used to assemble in a hall. The Chief Judge would utter some words to them, and they used to take the oath that they would not resort to only illegal ways and means in the games, and that they had a training of 10 months prior to the games. Thereafter, the player and some other people would take part in the March Past. When a player came out in sight, his name, his father’s name, and the name of his state were announced so that the spectators would become familiar with him fully. If a spectator had some objection to his participation, he would make it known.

If no objection was raised, it was presumed that nobody had any objection to his participation, he would make it known. If no objection was raised, it was presumed that nobody had any objection to his participation. Thereafter-, the opening of the games was announced. Some distinguished person or the chief judge would address the players, and the games would start immediately thereafter.

Question 4.
What do you know about the awards of the Ancient Olympic Games ?
Answer:
Awards. Till the 6th Olympic games the winners were given cattle and corn in the form of awards, but this practice came to an end. Then the winners used to be honoured with garlands or crown made of the leaves and branches of olive tree. The players were highly honoured and rewarded, and they used to enjoy high status in society. The award distribution ceremony used to be very impressive. The names of the winners were noted down in the calender, and poems in their praises were composed. The sculptors would make their statues. Gates were erected to honour the winners. Friends used to give them gifts. The Greeks used to honour them in all ways, and look upon these games as a matter of pride and glory.

We can realize the importance of these games from one incident. Once a player, who has earlier won some game, came alongwith his two sons to see them honoured for having won two races in a single day. When the awards were being given, people were so happy and excited that they said that the father had got so much happiness in his life because of his sons that he could not expect more happiness in life, and, it would be better if he simply ceased to be. This incident reveals the people’s extreme love for Olympic games, and their importance in one’s life. During those days people did not participate in these games in expectation of any material or economic reward. They participated in these games for the love of games. They had no temptation.

Question 5.
Write a note on the decline of the Ancient Olympic Games.
Answer:
Decline for the Ancient Olympic Games:

The Olympic games continued for many years with much enthusiasm and zeal, and people in large number used to participate in them. But when people from outside Greece began to take part, the people forgot the spirit of the amateur and turned professionals. These people then made the victory in the games their sole motive.One of the reasons of the decline of these games was the Roman victory over Greece. The decline started because the Romans were not very enthusiastic about these games.

Many evils cropped, up in the games. People began to bribe the judges in order to win. Then some such events came to be included in the Olympics as caused the death of one or the other player everyday. In game like boxing players began to hold iron pieces in their hands which would prove very injurious or fatal, thereby discouraging the honest people from taking part in such games.

In 394 A.D. these games were banned on the orders of the Roman Emperor Theodosius. The contribution of the Greeks in the sprots field was, thus, put to an end. The stadiums and temple where life buzzed with activity turned into ruins, and revealed the decline of the Olympic games. No doubt, everything that takes birth in the world ceases to exist one day as per the law of nature. In accordance with this law, the zeal of the Olympic games got buried under the debris of time, but people continued to have sweet memories of the old days. They continued to talk about these games.

Question 6.
In which country were the 1982 Asian Games were held?
Answer:
In India.

Question 7.
What place has the Indian player achieved in 2012 Olympic Games?
Answer:
56th.

Question 8.
Which prizes were won by the Indian in the eleventh Asian games?
Answer:
Medals of Indian players in Asian Games Beijing (China), 1990.

Game	Gold	Silver	Bronze	Total
Athletics	–	4	2	6
Boxing	–	–	1	1
Hockey	–	1	–	1
Kabaddi	1	–	–	1
Rowing	–	–	4	4
Shooting	–	–	1	1
Tennis	–	–	1	1
Weight Lifting	–	2	2	4
Wrestling	–	1	1	2
Yachting	–	–	2	2
Total	1	8	14	23

12th Asian game India won 4 Gold and silver and 15 bronze Medals.
Thirteenth Asian games in 1998 and India won 7 Gold, 11 Silver and 17 Bronze Medals.
Fourteenth Asian games India get 14 Gold 17^Silver and 33 Bronze Medals. „
Seventeenth Asian games were held in incheon South Koren in 2014 in these games won 57 Medals (11 Gold, 10 Silver, 36 Bronze).

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

October 16, 2024October 15, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB The Central Government Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Mention the tenure of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The term of the Lok Sabha is five years but the President, on the advice of the Prime Minister, can dissolve it before the expiry of its term. During the emergency, this period can be extended for one year by the Parliament.

Question 2.
What is the maximum number of the members of the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha has been fixed at 550 members. Out of this number, 530 members represent the people of the States of India and 20 members are elected by the voters of the Union Territories. The President can nominate two Anglo- Indians, if he feels that this community has not got adequate representation.

Question 3.
How is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha appointed?
Answer:
The Speaker or Chairman of the Lok Sabha is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves.

Question 4.
What do you mean by a Vote of No-confidence?
Answer:
The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers can continue to be in office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the Lok Sabha. They can be thrown out of office by a vote of no-confidence passed by a majority of members present and voting in the house.

Question 5.
What is the minimum age required to become a member of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The minimum age limit for a person to become a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 , years and that of the Rajya Sabha is thirty years.

Question 6.
When and how many Anglo-Indians can be nominated by the President in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
If no Anglo-Indian is elected to the Lok Sabha, the President can nominate two members of this community to it.

Question 7.
Enumerate the stages through which an ordinary bill passes to become a law.
Answer:
A bill passes through three stages or readings through both the houses of the parliament separately. If the bill is passed, it is sent to the President for his assent.

Question 8.
How and who elects the members of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The members of the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies. The maximum number of the members of Rajya Sabha can be 250.

Question 9.
Who are included in the electoral college for the election of the President? ,
Answer:
Elected representative of the people are included in the electoral college for the President.

Question 10.
How is the Vice-President of India elected?
Answer:
The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of both the houses of Parliament in a joint sitting by an absolute majority.

Question 11.
How is the Prime Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is appointed by the President. He appoints that person as the Prime Minister who enjoys a majority in the Lok Sabha.

Question 12.
Explain the organisation of the Union Council of Ministers,
Answer:
The Union Council of Ministers is appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.

Question 13.
Explain each of the following :
(a) Qualification of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Answer:

He must be a citizen of India.
He must have worked as a judge of High Court for a period of not less than five years or must have worked as an advocate in some high courts for a period of not less than ten years. Or he must be an eminent jurist in the view of the President.

(b) Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It is the obligation of the Supreme Court to advise on constitutional as well as other legal matters to any legislature, the Council of Ministers or the President. But it is not binding upon the President or the government to accept the advice given by the Supreme Court.

(c) Supreme Court Act as a Court of Record.
Answer:
Supreme Court Act as a Court of Record. The Supreme Court is a Court of Record. It means that its decisions and Judicial proceedings are recorded and printed. The Courts subordinate to it and the lawyers use them in their pleadings. The decisions given by the Supreme Court are recorded and then used by the Lower Courts to give further Judgements.

II. Answer the following questions in short :

Question 1.
Explain the powers of the Parliament.
Answer:
Following are the main powers of the Parliament :
1. Legislative Powers. The Parliament legislates on the subjects included in the Union List and the Concurrent List. It can also pass laws on the Residuary Subjects. During the emergency, it can also legislate on any and every subject mentioned in the State List.

2. Executive Powers. It can dissolve the cabinet by passing a vote of no-confidence against it. It also exercises control over the executive by asking questions and supplementary ‘questions. The members can table certain other resolutions to suspend the normal proceedings of the Parliament.

3. Financial Powers. The Parliament is the custodian of the Union purse. It passes the budget and authorises all expenditure. No tax can be imposed without its sanction.

4. Constitutional Amendment. All proposals for the constitutional amendments can be initiated only by the Parliament.

Question 2.
Examine the role or functions of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Speaker is elected by the House from amongst its members. Following are the main functions of the Speaker :

He presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha and conducts its business. He generally belongs to the majority party, but he acts in an impartial manner.
He maintains discipline in the House. He can suspend a member from the House for his misconduct and indiscipline in the house.
He decides whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.
If a joint session of both the Houses of the Parliament is summoned by the President to discuss a bill, it is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Question 3.
How a bill becomes an Act in the Indian Parliament?
Answer:
An ordinary bill may be introduced in the either House by any minister or a member of the Parliament. A bill, before becoming an Act, has to pass through the stages given below :

First Reading. Only the heading and main clauses of the bill are read out at this stage. No discussion takes place.
Second Reading or Stage. The bill is debated-clause by clause and amendments are moved. If the majority of the members vote in its favor, the bill is referred to the select committee.
Third Reading or Stage. The debate at this stage is confined only to the matter of the bill. The bill is rejected or accepted by the House.
Bill in the Second House. The Bill in the Second House also passes through the same stages as in the First House. If the Bill is also passed by the Second House, it is referred to the President for his assent.
Assent of the President. After getting the assent of the President, it becomes a law.

Question 4.
Explain the collective and individual responsibility of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
Principle of Collective Responsibility. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The ministers come into the office and go out of it as a team. The Prime Minister is the captain of this team. He presides over the meetings of the Cabinet or the whole Council of Ministers. They take decisions collectively. After decisions are arrived at, all the members of the Cabinet are equally responsible for it, including those who might have argued against it. If a vote of no-confidence is passed against one Minister in the Lok Sabha, the whole Council of Ministers must resign. The ministers sink and sail together. When any minister is criticised in the Parliament, the other members of the Council of Ministers come to his rescue and support the action and policy of the minister. The ministers are thus responsible to the Parliament both collectively and individually.

Question 5.
How is the Union Cabinet appointed in India?
Answer:
The Cabinet which is a part of the Council of Ministers is appointed by the President of India. In fact, the President has not free hand in the appointment of the Prime Minister or Ministers. He appoints the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as a Prime Minister. The President has no choice in this matter.

The Prime Minister prepares the list of other ministers to be included in the Council of Ministers. He presents this list to the President. The President cannot refuse to approve this list. Sometimes a person who is not a member of the Parliament is appointed a minister. Such a minister must become the member of Parliament within six months of his appointment as a minister.

Question 6.
Examine the position of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
The Prime Minister enjoys vast powers in the constitutional setup of the country. He chooses the Ministers of his team and allots the portfolios to them. In the Cabinet, he is not only the first among the equals, but a moon among the stars. His resignation brings about the fall of the entire Cabinet. He is thus the key stone of the Cabinet arch. Although all the executive authority of the Union is vested in the President, it is invariably exercised by his Council of Ministers and the President is supposed to be a mere constitutional head. To sum up, the Prime Minister is the linchpin of the government.

Question 7.
Examine the powers of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
‘There is no doubt that the Prime Minister is the pivot of the cabinet. He appoints the ministers. The President appoints the ministers only on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. He allots the portfolios to the ministers. He can reorganise the cabinet to make the administration efficient. He can change the portfolios of the ministers. If the Prime minister resigns, the whole council of ministers is dissolved. He can ask the erring ministers or a minister having a different opinion, to quit. If a minister refuses to resign, he can tender the resignation of his Council of Ministers and reconstitute the ministry. He presides over the meetings of the Cabinet and exercises control over its agenda.

Question 8.
Explain the emergency powers of the President.
Answer:
Following are the emergency powers of the President :
1. National Emergency. If the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India is threatened by war, external aggression or armed rebellion, he may declare a state of emergency for the whole of India or a part of it. (Article 352)

2. Constitutional Emergency. If the President is satisfied either on the recommendation of the Governor or otherwise that the government cannot be carried on in the state in accordance with the constitution, he may declare emergency in that state. (Art.-356) .

3. Financial Emergency. The President may declare financial emergency if he is satisfied that there is a threat to financial stability or credit of the country as a whole or a part thereof. (Art. 360)

Question 9.
Describe the procedure of Impeachment of the President.
Answer:

The process of impeachment of the President may be started in either house of the Parliament.
A prior notice to this effect has to be given to the President duly signed by l/4th of the total number of that house;
A prior notice of 14 days must be served before initiating the impeachment;
Such resolution of charges must be supported by at least 2/3rd of the total membership of that house;
The charges initiated in one house, if are proved after investigation in the other house by 2/3 majority of the total membership of the house, the President shall have to leave the office from the date such a resolution is approved. The President can defend himself personally or through a counsel before both the houses.

Question 10.
Do you think that the Indian President is nominal head of the union executive? If yes, then who is the real executive?
Answer:
From the study of powers of the President in various fields, it seems that he is a very powerful executive head. Besides, he has important legislative, financial and judicial powers. He can declare emergency. He can dissolve the Lok Sabha, can issue ordinances. No bill can become law without his signature.

In actual practice, however, he is the nominal head of the state. He does not exercise these powers himself but on the advice of the Council of Ministers. He declares emergency only on the advice of the Council of Ministers and uses these powers with its aid. He can never become a dictator. His powers closely resemble the powers of the Queen of Britain. He can advise, encourage and warn his ministers. But much depends upon the personality and character of the President. And in this sense, he is no figure head. He is, in fact, a guide who can shape and mould the policy of India both at home and abroad.

Question 11.
Describe the role of the Vice-President of India.
Answer:
Following are the two important functions of the Vice-President of India :

He is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. When he acts as the President of India or discharges his functions, he shall not preside over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha.
He can officiate as the President for a maximum period of six months in case of death, resignation or removal of the latter till the new President is elected. He discharges the functions of the President when the latter is unable to do so owing to any reason.

Question 12.
Explain briefly the powers of the President of India.
Answer:
Following are the powers of the Indian President :
1. Executive Powers

All laws are enforced in the name of the President,
He appoints the Prime Minister and other ministers on the basis of the recommendations of the Prime Minister,
He can make a declaration of war and peace.
It is he who appoints ambassadors to foreign states and receives those coming from other countries.

2. Legislative Powers.

No bill becomes an act without his approval,
He can dissolve the Lok Sabha before its fixed term on the advice of the Prime Minister.
He nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha and two to the Lok Sabha.

3. Financial Powers. No money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the President.

4. Judicial Powers

The President can remove the judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court on the basis of the resolution passed by the Parliament with 2/3rd majority of the members present and voting,
He can pardon or reprieve the punishment confirmed by the Supreme Court.

5. Emergency Powers: The President can proclaim emergency under certain circumstances,

War, external aggression and armed rebellion.
Breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State,
Financial crisis.

Question 13.
Explain the following :
(a) How an ordinary bill differs from a money bill?
Answer:
Money bill. A money bill relates to the imposing, reducing or repealing of taxes, borrowing of money or authorizing expenditure by the government. It is called a money bill. A money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha by a minister.

Ordinary bill. All the bills other than money bills are called ordinary bills. They are of two types, Public bill and Private bill. Public bill is of universal nature and affects all the residents of the state. Private bill relates to a particular section of the society or some private companies.

(b) Unified concept of Judiciary in India.
Answer:
India has single unified judicial system. The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of Justice in India, immediately below which are the state High Courts, below the High Courts, there are District Courts. All these courts apply the same law code in the decisions of all civil, criminal and constitutional cases. The appeals can be taken to the High Court, against the decision of the District Court. The Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions of High Court.

(c) The power of Judicial Review in India.
Answer:
The power of Judicial Review in India (2014 III). The Supreme Court can exercise the power of judicial review. It can declare any law passed by the Union Parliament or by a State Legislature as unconstitutional if it violates the Constitution.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide The Central Government Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
What is meant by the Indian Parliament?
Answer:
In India, the Union Legislature is called the Parliament or Sansad.

Question 2.
Mention any one essential qualification for the members of Lok Sahha.
Answer:
He must, be a citizen of India.

Question 3.
Write any one important function of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
He presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha.

Question 4.
What is the difference between a money bill and an ordinary bill?
Answer:
A money bill can originate in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.

Question 5.
Write down one power of the President relating to a bill.
Answer:
No bill can become a law without his assent.

Question 6.
Mention any one method by which the Parliament keeps the executive under control.
Answer:
It can dissolve the cabinet by passing a vote of no-confidence against it.

Question 7.
What is meant by the Parliamentary system?
Answer:
It means a system of government in which all the powers of the state are exercised by the Prime Minister and his ministers.

Question 8.
When can the President declare Financial Emergency?
Answer:
If he is satisfied that there is a threat to financial stability or credit of the country as a whole or a part thereof.

Question 9.
What is the composition of Electoral College which elects the Vice¬President of India?
Answer:
The electoral college which elects the Vice-President includes only the elected members of the Parliament. .

Question 10.
Explain any one function of the Vice-President.
Answer:
He is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Question 11.
How many types of ministers are included in the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers.

Question 12.
What is meant by the Reading of the Bill?
Answer:
The procedure of discusssion of a bill is called the Reading of the Bill.

Question 13.
What is an adjournment motion?
Answer:
To discuss a grave matter of public importance out of turn in the Parliament is called adjournment motion.

Question 14.
Explain the meaning of Question Hour.
Answer:
The first hour of every sitting in both the houses of the parliament is devoted to asking arid answering questions.

Question 15.
In connection with the Parliament what is a supplementry question?
Answer:
The right of the members to ask some more questions relating to the same matter. Question 16. Mention any two qualifications for the membership of the Rajya Sabha. Answer:He must be a citizen of India and must have completed 30 years of age.

Question 17.
Write any one important function of the Speaker of Lok Sahha.
Answer:
To preside over the meetings of the Lok Sabha.

Question 18.
What is the main function of the Parliament?
Answer:
The main function of the Parliament is to make laws.

Question 19.
What is a Bill?
Answer:
The proposed law is called a Bill.

Question 20.
Who decides whether a bill is an ordinary or money bill?
Answer:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether a Bill is ordinary or money bill.

Question 21.
For how many days can the Rajya Sabha delay a money hill duly passed by the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
A money bill duly passed by the Lok Sabha can be delayed by fourteen days by the Rajya Sabha.

Question 22.
What should be the minimum age required to become the President of India?
Answer:
35 years.

Question 23.
What is the tenure of the President of India?
Answer:
The tenure of the President is five years.

Question 24.
Write one executive power of the President.
Answer:
The President makes the appointment of the Prime Minister and other Ministers on his advice.

Question 25.
Who is the Supreme Commander of all the three armed forces?
Answer:
The President.

Question 26.
Who can issue an ordinance?
Answer:
The President can issue an ordinance.

Question 27.
Write one legislative power of the President.
Answer:
All bills passed by the Parliament must receive his assent before becoming laws.

Question 28.
Write any one financial power of the President.
Answer:
The President causes to be laid, before the Parliament the annual: budget.

Question 29.
Write one judicial power qf the president.
Answer:
The President appoints judges of the. Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Question 30.
Who is the real head of the Union Government’?
Answer:
The Prime Minister.

Question 31.
Write one power of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
He chooses the Ministers of his team and allocates portfolios to them.

Question 32.
Which is the highest court of justice in India?
Answer:
The Supreme Court.

Question 33.
How many judges are there in the Supreme Court?
Answer:
At present Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and 33 other Judges.

Question 34.
Mention any one qualification with regard to experience for appointment as a judge in the Supreme Court.
Answer:
He has been for at least 10 years an advocate of a High Court or two or more such courts in succession.

Question 35.
How many jurisdictions are there of the Supreme Court? Which are these?
Answer:

Original
Appellate and
Advisory jurisdiction.

Question 36.
Who is the guardian of our fundamental rights?
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of our fundamental rights.

Question 37.
What does the term ‘appeal’ mean?
Answer:
When petition against the decision of a lower court is made to a high court, it is called appeal.

Question 38.
Describe one function and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
It decides the cases regarding the fundamental rights.

Question 39.
How can the President remove the judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts?
Answer:
On the basis of a resolution passed by the parliament by a special majority.

Question 40.
How is the Lok Sabha dissolved?
Answer:
Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.

Question 41.
Who presides over the meetings of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Vice-President of India presides over the meetings of Rajya Sabha.

Question 42.
How are the judges of Supreme Court-appointed?
Or
Who elects (appoints) the Judges of Supreme Court?
Answer:
They are appointed by the President of India.

Question 43.
What is the tenure of the Judges of Supreme Court?
Answer:
The Judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of 65 years.

Question 44.
Who is Public Prosecutor?
Answer:
Public prosecutor is a person appointed by central / state govt, to represent cases on behalf of the state in criminal trials.

Question 45.
How many members can be nominated in the Lok Sabha and Ra\ya Sabha by the President?
Answer:
The President can nominate twelve members to the Rajya Sabha. The President can nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha if no member of the community is elected to the Lok Sabha.

Question 46.
Mention the term of the members of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha is six years. One third members of the Rajya Sabha retire after two years.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The tenure of the Lok Sabha is ___________ years.
Answer:
five

Question 2.
Maximum number of the members of Lok Sabha can be ___________
Answer:
550

Question 3.
The Prime Minister is appointed by the ___________
Answer:
President

Question 4.
The term of the members of Rajya Sabha is ___________ years.
Answer:
six

Question 5.
Upper House of the Parliament is known as ___________
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 6.
Lower House of the Parliament is known as ___________
Answer:
Lok Sabha

Question 7.
Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the ___________
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 8.
The Speaker of the Lok-Sabha is elected by the members of the ___________
Answer:
Lok Sabha

Question 9.
No money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the ___________
Answer:
Speaker

Question 10.
The highest court of justice is ___________
Answer:
Supreme Court

Question 11.
The tenure of the President is ___________years.
Answer:
five

Question 12.
Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the ___________
Answer:
President.

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The Indian Parliament is:
(a) Unicameral
(b) Three Houses
(c) Bicameral
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Bicameral

Question 2.
The tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 5 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 3 years.
Answer:
(c) 6 years

Question 3.
The term of office of the Indian President is:
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 3 years.
Answer:
(b) 5 years

Question 4.
The Judges Qf the Supreme Court retire at the age of:
(a) 62
(b) 58
(c) 60
(d) 65.
Answer:
(d) 65.

Question 5.
The President of India is elected by:
(a) The Electoral College
(b) The Legislative Assemblies
(c) The Parliament
(d) The People.
Answer:
(a) The Electoral College

Question 6.
Who is the guardian of ouí’ fundamental rights?:
(a) President
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(cl) Prime Minister.
Answer:
(b) Supreme Court

Question 7.
Who is the supreme commander of the defence forces?
(a) Defence Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Home Minister
(d) President,
Answer:
(d) President,

Question 8.
The real head of the Union Government is:
(a) The President
(b) Home Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet.
Answer:
(c) Prime Minister

Question 9.
The President is:
(a) Head of Govt.
(b) Head of the State
(c) Head of the Union Territory
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Head of the State

Question 10.
Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and :
(a) 13 other Judges
(b) 25 other Judges
(c) 20 other Judges
(d) 33 other Judges.
Answer:
(d) 33 other Judges.

Question 11.
While appointing the Judges of the Supreme Court it is obligatory for the President to consult the :
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Law Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India.
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice of India.

Question 12.
The tenure of the Prime Minister is :
(a) 5 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) Not fixed.
Answer:
(d) Not fixed.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give arguments to prove that there is the Supremacy of the Parliament in the country.
Or
What do you mean by the ‘Supremacy of the Parliament’?
Answer:
By the ‘Supremacy of the Parliament’, we mean that the Parliament is the supreme law-making body. It can enact, amend and repeal any lav/ as and when it likes. It is both an ordinary law-making body as well as a constitutional law-making body.

The Indian Parliament is the creation of the Constitution of India which has specified its powers, etc. in relevant articles. It is the legislative organ of the Union and is comprised of the representatives of the people. It takes part in the election of the President and the Vice-President. It exercises control over the executive who is collectively responsible to it. It can dissolve the Cabinet by withdrawing confidence in it. It keeps complete control over the national finance. The foregoing points prove its supremacy but it is not a sovereign body uncontrolled or having unlimited powers. The Supreme Court can strike down the Acts passed by the Parliament, if they violate the Constitution.

Question 2.
Make a mention of the mutual relationship between the President and the Prime Minister.
Answer:
The essence of the Parliamentary form of Government is that the chief executive head of the State is a nominal head. All those powers vested in him are exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is the link between the President and the Council of Ministers. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President. The President invariably appoints that person as the Prime Minister who is the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister is the chief advisor of the President and as the present constitutional position stands, it is binding on the President to act on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Question 3.
Write any four powers of the Prime Minister.
Or
Explain three powers of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
Main functions of the Prime Minister are given ahead :

He chooses the ministers of his team and allocates portfolios to them.
He can change the portfolios of the ministers.
He advises the President on different matters of the government.
He formulates all internal and external policies of the government.
Inside the Parliament, he is the chief spokesman of the government.
He supervises the work of administration of different departments.

Question 4.
When can emergency be declared in a state?
Answer:
A state of emergency may be declared in a state by the President. Generally, it is declared on the advice of the Governor of the state.

If the President is satisfied either on the recommendation of the Governor or otherwise that the government cannot be carried on in a State in accordance with the Constitution, he may declare emergency in the State. Initially, the President’s Rule is imposed for a period of six months but it can be extended upto a maximum period of three years. During this emergency, the President can suspend or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly. The President can himself assume all or any of the functions of the State. He may vest all or any of those functions in the Governor or any other executive authority.

Question 5.
Explain the relations between the Parliament and Judiciary in India.
Answer:
In India, there is a close relation between the Parliament and Judiciary. The Parliament determines the number of judges of the Supreme Court and can also pass a resolution for their removal. Moreover, it can increase or decrease the powers of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court of India is also competent to declare null and void the laws of the Parliament if they violate the Constitution by exercising its power of ‘Judicial Review’.

Question 6.
Mention the procedure of election of the members of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Lok Sabha is the lower chamber of the Parliament. It has 544 members. These members are directly elected by the people. Every Indian citizen (who is 18 years of age) whose name is on the voters’ list can participate in the election to the Lok Sabha. Some seats are reserved for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. The President can nominate two Anglo-Indians if he feels that the community has not received proper representation.

The members of Lok Sabha are elected on the basis of population. Every member represents 10 lakh to 15 lakh of population. The whole country is divided into constituencies. Every state gets representation in proportion to its population.

Question 7.
Who can be elected the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and how?
Answer:
The office of the Presiding Officer of the Lok Sabha (called the Speaker) is of great dignity and authority. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members. After the general elections, when the House assembles, it is presided over by the seniormost member of the House to elect its Presiding Officer. Any member can seek election to this office and one getting majority of votes is elected as the Speaker of the House.

Question 8.
What is meant by Parliament? Tell the names of the two Houses of the Parliament and also their term.
Answer:
The Union Legislature of India is called the Parliament. Constitutionally Parliament consists of the President and two houses-the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The Parliament can make laws on all the subjects of national importance. It is the supreme law making body.

1. Term of the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha is elected for 5 years. But it can be dissolved earlier by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. During the emergency due to external aggression or armed revolt its life can be extended.

2. Term of the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house. But every two years one-third (l/3rd) of its members retire and new ones are elected in their place. Thus every member is elected for a term of six years.

Question 9.
Mention six essential qualifications for the membership of the Parliament.
Answer:
Following are the six essential qualifications for the membership of the Parliament :

He must be a citizen of India.
He must have completed 30 years of age for the Rajya Sabha and 25 years for the Lok Sabha.
He must not hold any office of profit under the state or union government.
He must not be of unsound mind.
He must not be bankrupt.
He must not be an alien or non-citizen.

Question 10.
Mention the basis on which the President can nominate 12 members for the Rajya Sabha and 2 members for Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The President can nominate twelve members to the Rajya Sabha from amongst the persons of eminence having practical experience in literature, science, art and social services. He is also empowered to nominate to the Lok Sabha not more than two members from the Anglo-Indian Community if he feels that it has not got adequate representation.

Question 11.
Mention three types of legislative and non-legislative powers of the Parliament.
Answer:
Legislative Powers :

It can legislate upon all ordinary bills.
It also passes the money bills.
It approves all the ordinances issued by the President. It can also reject them.

Non-legislative Powers :

It accords approval to all emergency proclamations promulgated by the President.
Any member of Parliament may ask the government any question to elicit information regarding its policies.
It also considers the no-confidence motion initiated against the Cabinet.

Question 12.
Who makes the appointment of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and other judges and with whose consultation?
Answer:

The appointment of the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court is made by the President.
The appointment of the Chief Justice is made in consultation with the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
The appointment of other judges of the Supreme Court is made in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and others whom the President may deem necessary.

Question 13.
Mention the qualifications, tenure, and salary of the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
Qualifications for an appointment :

He must be a citizen of India.
He has been for at least five years a judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
He has been for at least 10 years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
He is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.

Tenure :

A Judge of a Supreme Court can serve up to the age of 65 years.
Salary. The salary of the Chief Justice is Rs. 2,80,000 per month and Rs. 2,50,000 of the other Judges of the Supreme Court.

Question 14.
Mention those five references from the Constitution which make the Supreme Court independent and impartial.
Answer:

The Directive Principles of State Policy provide that the judiciary be made independent of the control of the executive.
The appointment of Judges is made on the basis of their legal acumen.
The judges are paid decent salaries befitting their position which cannot be altered to their disadvantage.
The procedure for their removal has been made very difficult.
The decisions of the Supreme Court cannot be subjected to criticism by an individual, institution or even Parliament.

Question 15.
Describe the effects of the emergency proclamation on the state administration.
Answer:
According to Article 356 of the Constitution, the President can proclaim an emergency in a state if he is satisfied that the constitutional machinery in a state has broken down. The President declares constitutional emergency in a state only after receiving a report from the Governor. During the emergency, the whole administration of the state comes under the control of the central govt. Such an emergency is declared when the constitutional machinery in a state does not work properly. The Governor of the state is generally asked to run the state administration on behalf of the central government. The Governor can suspend or dissolve the state legislative assembly. He becomes the real ruler of the state.

Question 16.
What do you mean by a Vote of No-confidence?
Answer:
The Constitution grants the Lok Sabha the power of passing a Vote of No-confidence against the Council of Ministers. It means that the Council, of Ministers, is responsible to the Lok Sabha. The members of the Council of Ministers remain in office so long as they enjoy the confidence of the Lok Sabha. If the Lok Sabha passes by a majority of votes, the motion of No-confidence against the Council of Ministers will resign.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

October 16, 2024October 15, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Government of every country establishes law and order and peace in the society. This work is done by the Government by making laws, establishing law and order in the society. But Government can not do whatever it wants by passing laws according to its will. The Government of country has to work according to constitutional fundamental laws. So the Constitution is the basic source of framing of country’s administration as well as state administration and it keeps check on misuse of power. It decides the relationship between the organs of the government and its citizens. It checks misuse of power by the Government.
(а) What do you mean by constitution?
Answer:
Constitution is a document of basic laws according to which the government of a country functions.

(b) Write briefly any three objectives described in preamble.
Answer:
The preamble to the constitution throws light on the nature of the Indian administrative system and goals to be achieved by the state. Its objectives are as under:

India would be Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic Republic state.
Social, economic and political justice to all citizens.
Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship to all citizens.
Equality of status.
Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation.

Question 2.
Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin. Both of these runs side by side. In other words, there is no place for rights without duties. So all countries of world have mentioned fundamental rights along with fundamental duties. In Indian culture, emphasis has been always given to duties instead of rights. In basic constitution, there was no mention of duties of citizens.
In 1976 by 42nd amendment of constitution in chapter IV A, ten duties were added for citizens. In the year 2002, by 86th amendment of constitution, a new duty was also added.
(a) Why and when the fundamental duties of Indian citizens were inserted in the constitution?
Answer:
There was no mention of duties of citizens in the basic constitution.
These were included in the Indian constitution by the 42nd constitutional amendment in 1976.

(b) Write any three duties of Indian Citizens.
Answer:
The following are the fundamental duties of Indian citizens :

To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals, National Flag and National Anthem.
To Cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
To develop the feelings of interalion among citizens for religion, language and territory.
To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite nature. –
To protect the nation’s environment and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
To safeguard public property and abjure violence.

Question 3.
Democracy is considered to be the best system. At present many countries of the world have adopted this form of government and it has become very popular. In spite of this, the democratic system is not successful in every country.
For the success of democracy, every citizen should have good character, vigilent and wise, educated, intelligent, responsible and having interest in public matter. There should be good and able leadership, social and economic equality and independent press and judiciary, good political parties and tolerance among the citizens for success of democracy. According to J.S. Mill, “In order to make democracy successful, there, should be intentions to regularise democratic rule in the people and ability to run it, always to be ready for protection of Democracy and there should be intention among the citizens and to protection of rights of the people and to perform the duties is necessary.
(а) What do you mean by Democracy?
Answer:
According to Lincoln, “Democracy is the government of’the people, for the people and by the people”.

(b) Describe three conditions for the success of Democracy.
Answer:
Following are the main conditions necessary for the success of Democracy:

Spread of Education: Government should take the appropriate steps to spread education. Schools should be opened in every village. There should be adequate arrangement of women education and should encourage adult education.
Change in Curriculum: There should be change in syllabus of school and colleges. Children should be aware of political science. There should be democratic meetings in educational institutions where children can get training of election and administration.
Reform in Election Process: There should be such system that elections should be conducted in a single day and their results should also be declared on the same day.
Reform in Judiciary: There should be increase in a number of judges in the country so that cases could be settled as early as possible. There should be an arrangement of advocates for poor people by the government.
Freedom of Press. There should be complete freedom to newspapers and press in the country to express their views.
Economic Development: Government should establish new industry in the country. Government should provide employment opportunities to the citizens. Appropriate steps should be taken in villages for the development of Agriculture.

Question 4.
In order to understand the deep connection between democracy and public opinion, it should be understood that public opinion is the basis of democracy. Today is the age of democracy and Democracy is always for welfare of the people. Besides this, in real sense public opinion is soul of Democratic government. Because, Democratic government gets its whole power from peoplg and holds on this base. This type of government always tries that public opinion should be in their favour and not reverse. So, we can say that public opinion is the soul of social well being government. Besides this, in democracy, in order to run the government, intelligent public opinion is necessary.
(a) What do you mean by public opinion?
Answer:
Public opinion means the opinion of people on a particular matter of public interest.

(b) Describe the role of public opinion (in democracy).
Answer:
Public opinion is the soul of Democracy. Because, democratic government gets its power from public opinion. This type of government always tries its best that the public opinion always remains in its favour. Besides this, democracy is the rule of people. This type of government implements its policies keeping in view the will and directions of the public. It is oftenly observed that the general elections are conducted after long period. As a result of it, public remains untouched with the government and there is possibility of government becoming dictorial which puts democracy in danger. In such a situation, public opinion becomes base of democratic government.

Question 5.
The Prime Minister is the link between the President and Cabinet. It is his constitutional duty to inform the President about decisions of Council of Ministers. President can get information about any department from Prime Minister. If any minister wants to meet or get advice from President, he can do so only through Prime Minister. In brief, he acts as a middle man between President and Council of Ministers.
Prime Minister is considered to be the leader of Lok S&bha. In every adverse situation, Lok Sabha wants its leadership. Lok Sabha cannot do anything against the will of Prime Minister because, he has support of majority in Lok Sabha. He announces the policies and decisions of government in Lok Sabha. Speaker, with the consent of Prime Minister, decides the programmes of Lok Sabha.
(a) How is the Prime Minister appointed?
Answer:
President appoints the person as the Prime Minister who enjoys a majority in the Lok Sabha.

(b) Examine any three important powers of the Prime Minister.
Answer:

There is no doubt that the Prime Minister is the pivot of the Cabinet. He appoints the ministers and also he allots the portfolios to the ministers
He can reorganise the Cabinet to make the administration efficient. This means he can replace old ministers with new ministers. He can change the portfolios of the ministers. If the Prime minister resigns, the whole Council of Ministers is dissolved,
If any minister refuses to resign, he can dismiss the whole cabinet. While reorganising, he can keep that minister out of Cabinet. Besides this, he presides over the meetings of the Cabinet and decides its date, time and place.

Question 6.
According to the constitution, if Governor reports to the president or president gets this information through dependable source that state government is not running according to the constitution, he can announce President’s rule in that state. After this type of announcement, President can dismiss Cabinet of that state and can dissolve Legislative Assembly or suspend it. Under the President’s rule, Governor is the real head of the state, meaning thereby, he acts as an agent of central government. In the event of the failure of the constitutional machinery, all the executive powers of the state rests with the President and Legislative powers goes to Parliament.
(a) How the Governor of state is appointed?
Answer:
The Governor of state is appointed by the President for the period of five years.

(b) How a declaration of breakdown of constitutional machinery affects the state government?
Answer:
In case of breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state, the President with the consent of Governor can delcare constitutional emergency in the state. It results in dissolution or suspension of Legislative Assembly of that state. The Council of Ministers of the state is also dismissed. President takes the control of state administration in his own hands. It means that state’s administration is run by central government for short time.

Practically, the President transfers actual powers to Governor to run state administration. All powers of Legislature temporarily goes to central government.

Question 7.
India has made Non-Alignment a basic principle of our foreign policy. When India got freedom, the whole of the world was divided into two blocs, i.e. Russian and Anglo- American blocs. The main framer of India’s foreign policy, Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru felt that India should keep’dwayfrom these two power blocs for India’s development. That is why, Pandit Nehru adopted the policy of Non-Alignment. Non-Alignment means willingly to remain aloof from the competitive power blocs. Not to keep sense of enmity against
any country and decide the international problems according to their quality and to adopt the independent policy. As a result of India’s endeavors, Non-Alignment became powerful movement in the world.
(a) What is India’s Atomic Policy?
Answer:
India is an atomic power country. But our foreign policy is based on peacefulness. That is why base of India’s atomic policy is to achieve peaceful objectives and to develop the nation. India is not in the favour of supressing any neighbouring country with nuclear power. We have made it clear that we would not use nuclear power first even in the situation of war.

(b) Describe the meaning of the policy of Non-Alignment and reasons for its adoption by India.
Answer:
Non-Alignment means to remain aloof from power blocs. It does not mean that we would be mere spectators of International problems but will try to take decision on quality bases. We shall call noble as noble and bad as bad.

Causes to adopt Non-Alignment policy by India. At the time of independence, world was divided into two power blocs i.e. Anglo-American power block and Russian power bloc. The politics of the whole world was revolving around these blocs and there was cold war between them. Then newly independent India could progress by keeping away these power blocs struggle. So Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru based India’s foreign policy on the principle of Non-Alignment.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Source Based Questions and Answers

October 16, 2024October 15, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Solutions History Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The word Punjab is derived from two-Persian words, Panj (five) and Aab (water or river). Thus Punjab is the region of five waters. These five rivers are Satluj, Beas, Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum. The Punjab is situated on the North West of India. In 1947, After the partition of India, Punjab was partitioned into two parts. The western part of Punjab was transfered to Pakistan and eastern part of Punjab became North Western Province of Independent Republic of India. In Pakistani Punjab, which is called Western Punjab, three rivers are flowing namely Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum. In Indian Punjab which is called East Punjab only two rivers are flowing namely Beas and Satluj. The name Punjab is so much popular that the residents of both the Bunjabs called their Punjab as only Punjab instead of west or east-. We will study in this book about medieval ancient Punjab between Yamuna and Sind rivers.
(а) Name the words and language from which the word Punjab has been derived. Write its meaning also.
Answer:
The world Punjab is combination of two Persian words Panj and Aab which means region of five waters or five rivers.

(b) After Partition of India, why the Word Punjab had not remained so appropriate?
Answer:
Before partition, Punjab was region of five rivers. But due to partition, its three rivers became the part of Pakistan and the remaining the Beas and Satluj remained in Present Punjab.

The Sindh Sagar Doab. This Doab is the region between the rivers Indus and Jhelum. This part is not much fertile.
Chhaj Doab. This Doab is the region between the rivers Chenab and Jhelum. The Important cities of this Doab are Gujrat, Bhera and Shahpur.
Rachna Doab. It is the region between rivers Ravi and Chenab, which is very fertile region. Gujranwala and Shekhupura are the Important towns of this Doab.

Question 2.
The Afghan Chiefs were annoyed at Stiff attitude of the Emperor Ibrahim Lodhi. To show their discontentment, they made a plan to declare Alam Khan as ruler of Delhi. They decided to take help of Babur for this. But in 1524 A.D., After managing his victorious areas Babar had just reached the Kabul that Daullat Khan Lodhi after gathering his army seized Lahore from Abdul Aziz. After this, he vacated Sultanpur from Dilawar Khan and also defeated Alam Khan in Dipalpur.
Alam Khan went to Kabul in Babur’s Asylum. Then Daultat Khan Lodhi attacked Sialkot but failed. In order to supress the rising power of Daulat Khan and to eradicate Babur’s army from Punjab, Ibrahim Lodhi again deployed his army. Daulat Khan Lodhi gave crushing defeat to the army. As a result of which independent rule of Daulat Khan was established in central Punjab.
(а) Describe any two shortcomings of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:

Ibrahim Lodhi failed to understand the nature and habits of the Afghans.
He tried to discipline the Afghans but failed miserably in his policy.

(b) Why Dilawar Khan Lodhi went to Delhi? How Ibrahim Lodhi treated him?
Answer:
Dilawar Khan visited Delhi to meet Ibrahim Lodhi and to clarify his position
regarding his relations with his father. Ibrahim Lodhi threatened Dilawar Khan. He told Dilawar Khan that he would severly punish his father for conspiring against him. Dilawar Khan was shown horrifying scenes of torture which were inflicted on the rebels and after word he was imprisoned. Somehow, he managed to escape from the prison of Ibrahim Lodhi. On reaching Lahore, he told his father Daulat Khan all the facts, the treatment meted out to him and happenings at Delhi. Daulat Khan got the message and also came to know the real intentions of Ibrahim Lodhi and decided to cross swords with him.

Question 3.
Before Guru Nanak Devi Ji, Punjab was ruled by Muslims. That is why Muslims could get high position in government. They were treated with respect. Judiciary was in favour of them.

At that time, Muslim society was divided into four sections—Amir and Sardars, Ulema and Sayyad, Middle class and slave.
Women did not enjoy a respectable position in the muslim society. There were harems of women in havelis of Amirs and Sardars (Nobles). The women belonging to Amir and Sardars lived in harems. The Slaves and concubines were provided- to serve them. The Purdah system preveiled at that time. The women of the families of common muslim lived in separate part of the house partitioned by purdah. Their portion was called. ‘Janan Khana’. -They could come out of their dwelling houses only in Purdah. This system was not strictly observed in the rural areas. ‘
(а) Define the Classes into which the Muslim Society was divided.
Answer:
At the end of fifteen century, Muslim society was divided into three classes

Amirs (Nobles) high ranking commanders and Sardars
Ulemas and Sayyad’s
Middle class and the slaves.

(b) Mention the position of women in the Muslim Society.
Answer:
A description of condition of Muslim women is as given below:

(i) Women did not enjoy respectable position in the Muslim society.
(ii) The women belonging to high class lived in highly protected environment of harems. The slaves and concubines were provided to serve them.
The Purdah System was prevalent in the society. However, this system was not strictly observed in the rural areas.
The women of the families of the common people lived in separate portions of the houses. Their portion was called ‘Janan Khana’. They could come out from here only after wearing Burka.

Question 4.
After enlightenment, when Guru Nanak Dev ji returned to Sultanpur Lodhi, he was silent. When he was compeled to speak, then he said only this, “No one is Hindu or Muslim”. When Daulat Khan, Brahman and Kazis asked the meaning of this phrase, then Guru Sahib said that Hindus and Muslims both had forgotten the real principles of their respective religions. The meaning of these words were also that there is no difference between Hindus and Muslims and both are equal. He started giving his message in these importnat words. Guru Ji spent his remaining life in spreading this message. After resigning from his job, Guru ji started long udasis.
(а) What words were spoken by Guru Nanak Dev Ji after attaining enlightenment and explain their meaning?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that “No one is Hindu or Muslim”. The meaning of his message was that Hindus and Mulsims both had distraced from the path of their respecitve religions.

(b) Describe briefly the views of Guru Nanak Dev ji about God.
Answer:

God is One. Guru Nanak Dev ji gave the message that there is one God and could not be divided. He gave the message of one Supreme Formless or Supreme Onkar.
God is Formless and Self Created. Guru Nanak Dev ji preached that the Supreme Godis formless, without attributes and absolute. Even then the Supreme God has attributes which cannot be explained in words. Guru Nanak Sahib further taught that god is Self-Created and not bounded by the laws of time. Hence, he cannot be presented in the form of an idol and worshipped.
God is Omnipotent and Omnipresent. Guru Nanak Dev ji explained that God is Omnipotent and Omnipresent. He existed everywhere. He cannot be confined within the four walls of the temple or mosque.
God is Supreme. According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji-, God is Supreme. He is incomparable. It is impossible to measure the depth of his grace and greatness.
God is Compassionate (kind). According to Guru Nanak Dev ji, God is compassionate. He helps to his true seekers whenever they need them.

Question 5.
To see the indifferent attitude of Guru Nanak Dev ji towards worldly affairs, his father Mehta Kalu ji remained sad. In order to change his thinking, Mehta Kalu ji had given him duty of grazing buffalos. Guru ji took the animals towards fields but did not pay attention to them. They remained involved in meditation of God. Buffalos used to destroy the crops. Mehta Kalu ji had to bear many complaints about this. After hearing these complaints, Mehta ji gave the work of farming to Guru ji. Mehta ji gave twenty rupees to him and advised him to spend this in market for true and profitable deal. But due to his young age, Mehta ji sent Bhai Balaji with him. On the way, they met with the group of Saints. Guru ji spent that money in feeding hungry Saints. Mehta Ji was very disappointed when Guru ji returned empty handed. When he demanded the detail of twenty rupees, then guru ji explained the truth. This incident is called Sachha Sauda.
What is the meaning of Sachha Sauda?
Answer:
The meaning of Sachha Sauda is pious deal or in other words, a true kind of business. Guru Nanak Dev ji made pious deal by spending twenty rupees to feed the hungry Saints.

(b) What professions did Guru Nanak Dev ji adopt in his early life?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev ji had started showing his disinterest in education and worldly affairs at a very young age. His father engaged him in cattle grazing to divert his interest in worldy affairs. While on cattle grazing round, he remained engrossed in deep meditation and his cattle strayed into the fields of other people. Troubled by the complaints of the neighbouring farmers, his father decided to put him in the business. He gave him twenty rupees to start some business but Guru Nanak Dev ji spent all the money in feeding the hungry Saints. This incident of his life is popular as Sachha Sauda or the Pious Deal.

Question 6.
Guru Angad Dev ji continued Langar System, which was started by Guru Nanak Dev ji. This sy stem continued even at the time of Guru Amar Dass ji.
Guru Ji had made a rule according to which nobody would come in his presence without first partaking food. Mughal emperor Akbar and king of Haripur also had to partake food before meeting Guru Sahib, So this system proved to be powerful aid in propaganda work.
(а) Define Langar System.
Answer:
The Langar system or Pangat System refers to that tradition by which all the people without any distinction like caste, religion, etc. sat in one row and partook food.

(b) What is the meaning of Manji System and Why was it started?
Answer:
Manji system was started by Guru Amar Dass ji. The no. of his Sikh followers had increased immensly by the time of Guru Amar Dass ji, However, Guru Amar Dass ji was very old and It was difficult for him to visit his large spiritual empire of Sikh followers in order to spread his teachings. Hence Guru Sahib divided his spiritual empire into 22 regions called the Manjis. Each Manji was further divided into Pidees. The Manji System had great significance in the history of Sikh religion. Dr. Gokal Chand Narang says that this work of Guru Sahib consolidated the foundation of Sikh religion and helped to spread Guru’s teachings in the all parts of the country.

Question 7.
Guru Arjan Dev ji raised Sri Harmandir Sahib in the centre of the Sarovar ‘Amritsar’ in 1588 A.D. It is considered that Sufi Fakir Mian Mir laid the foundation stone of Sri Harmandir Sahib in 1589 A.D. Guru Sahib had constructed doors in each of the four directions of Sri Harmandir Sahib. It was done to declare that the doors of Sri Harmandir Sahib were open to the people of all the castes and religions without distinction. Bhai Budda Singh ji and Bhai Gurdas ji supervised the v. ork of construction of Sri Harmandir Sahib and was completed in 1601 A.D. In 1604 A.D, Adi Granth Sahib was placed in Sri Harminder Sahib and Bhai Budda ji was appointed as the first Granthi of Sri Harmandir Sahib.

The construction work of Sri Harmandir Sahib in Amritsar was an important task to firmly strengthen the Sikh religion. With this, Sikhs need not visit Hindu pilgrimage. Amritsar had become Mecca and Ganga Benaras of Sikhs.
(а) When and who laid the foundation of Sri Harmandir Sahib?
Answer:
The foundation stone of Sri Harmandir Sahib was laid in 1589 A.D. by the renowned Sufi Saint of his times Mian Mir.

(b) Write about Sri Harmandir Sahib.
Answer:
Guru Arjan Dev ji had raised Sri Harmandir Sahib in the centre of the Sarovar ‘Amritsar’ after the final union of Guru Ram Dass Ji with the Divine Power. Sufi Fakir, Mian Mir laid the foundation stone of Sri Harmandir Sahib in 1589 A.D. Guru Sahib had constructed doors in each of the four directions of Sri Harmandir Sahib. It was done to declare that the doors of Sri Harmandir Sahib were open to the people of all the castes and religions without any distinction. Bhai Budda ji supervised the work of construction of Sri Harmandir Sahib and got it completed in 1601 A.D. In 1604 A.D, Adi Granth was placed in Sri Harmandir Sahib and Bhai Budda ji was appointed as the first Granthi of Sri Harmandir Sahib.

Harmandir Sahib soon became Mecca and Ganga—Benaras or main centre of pilgrimage for the Sikhs.

Question 8.
Two Mughal Emperors, Akbar and Jahangir were contemporary to Guru Arjan Dev ji. Since the aim of preaches of gurus was to constitute a society where there will be no privilege given to caste, post, blind faith and strong religious beliefs. For this, Akbar used to like gurus. But Jahangir was jealous of the rising popularity of Guru Arjan Dev ji. He was troubled by the fact that like the Hindus, many Muslims were coming under the influence of Guru Arjan Dev ji. After sometime, Prince Khusro revolted against his father Jahangir. When Royal army chased Khusro, then he ran away and came to Punjab and met Guru ji. On this, Jahangir who was already against Guru ji, fined Guru ji Rs. two lakh for helping rebilious Khusro. Guru ji refused to pay this fine considering it as an unappropriate. For this Guru ji was sentenced to death by giving physical torture in 1606 A.D.
(а) Why did Jahangir want to kill Guru Arjan Dev ji?
Answer:
The Mughal Emperor Jahangir was jealous of the rising popularity of Guru Arjan Dev ji. Jahangir was perturbed (troubled) by the fact that like the Hindus, many Muslims were also coming under the influence of Guru Arjan Dev ji.

(b) Write a note on the martyrdom of Guru Arjan Dev ji.
Answer:
The Mughal Emperor Akbar had very cordial relations with Pancham Padshah (Sikh Guru) Guru Arjan Dev Ji. However, Jahangir, the next Mughal’emperor abondoned the policy of toleration after the death of Akbar. Jahangir was on the look out for an opportunity to give mortal blow to Sikh religion. In the meantime, Prince Khusro, the son of Jahangir, revolted against his father. After getting defeat at the hands of his father, Khusro came to Guru Arjan Dev ji. Guru Sahib blessed him. Jahangir imposed a fine of two lakh rupees on Guru Sahib on the charge of helping rebellious Khusro. Guru Sahib refused to pay the fine. As a result, Guru Sahib was detained and subjected to severe torture. It infuriated the Sikhs. The Sikhs learned that the only course then left with them was to rise in arms for the protection of their religion.

Question 9.
Guru Gobind Singh ji was the tenth and the last guru of Sikhs. Guru Nanak Dev ji founded Sikh religion. His successors spread Sikh religion. The work was completed by Guru Gobind Singh ji.
He gave final shape to Sikh religion by establishing Khalsa in 1699 A.D. He developed the spirit of heriosm, courage and unity among the Sikhs. Guru Sahib gave a strong reply to the opression of Mughals with limited resources and lesser number of Sikh soldiers. Before his final union with divine power, he ended the guru system and gave his divine power to Granth Sahib Ji and Khalsa. For this, he had qualities of a spiritual leader, supreme organiser, general by birth, impressive scholar and best reformer at the same time. ”
(а) When and where Guru Gobind Rai ji was born? Write the names of his parents.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Rai Ji was born on 22nd December 1666 A.D. at Patna. The name of his father was Guru Teg Bahadur ji. The name of his mother was Mata Gujari ji.

(b) Describe the personality of Guru Gobind Singh ji as a General.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh was a successful military commander and a brave soldier. Guru Sahib fought every battle courageously and established himself as a successful General. Guru Sahib had complete mastery over sword play, archery and horse riding. Guru Sahib had all the qualities of a commander of high calibre. Guru Sahib had made the Mughals and hill chiefs to lick dust even with the lesser number of soldiers and limited resources. During the battle of Chamkaur Sahib, Guru Sahib had hardly forty Sikhs in his army. But under his command, they displayed such a spectacular fighting skill that the Mughal army of thousands, failed to defeat him.

Question 10.
In 1699 A.D. on the day of Baisakhi, Guru Gobind Rai ji convened a assembly of Sikh followers at Anandpur Sahib. On that day, his nearly 80,000 Sikh followers gathered there. When all the people had settled down, then Guru Sahib brandished his sword and gave a call. “Is there any true Sikh of mine, who is ready to die for Dharma.” Guru Sahib repeated these words thrice. Third time, Daya Ram Khatri of Lahore stood up and bowed before Guru Sahib. Guru ji took him to nearby tent and returned after sometime with a sword with blood dropping from it. Guru ji repeated his call. This time Dharam Dass jat of Delhi offered himself. Guru Sahib also took him to the tent. In this way, Guru Ji demanded five heads and five men, Bhai Mohkam Chand (Washerman of Dwarka), Bhai Sahib Chand (Barber of Bidar) and Bhai Himmat Rai (Kahar of Jagan Nath Puri) besides Bhai Daya Ram and Bhai Dharam Dass offered their heads to Guru ji. After some time, Guru ji brought that five men before gathering, wearing saff and colored beautiful clothes.

At that time, Guru ji himself had worn saffron coloured clothes. People were surprised to see that five men. Guru ji blessed them with title of ‘Panj Pyare’ collectively.
(а) When and where was Khalsa created?
Answer:
In Anandpur Sahib in 1699 A.D. on the day of Baisakhi.

(b) Describe the principles of Khalsa.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh ji created Khalsa in 1699 A.D. Guru Sahib made the following rules for the Khalsa.

Every Sikh would add ‘Singh’ (lion) after his name. Every Sikh woman would add word ‘Kaur’ after her name.
Before becoming Khalsa, every person has to drink Khande-ke-Pahaul. Only after that he will be declared Khalsa.
Every Sikh must wear five Ks. which are Kesh (unshorn hair), Kangha (comb), Kara (the iron bangle), Kirpan (dagger) and Kachchera (a pair of shorts).
Every Sikh shall recite the five prayers after taking bath every morning, which are recited when the Khande ka Pahul is prepared.

Question 11.
The main target of the military expedition of Banda Singh Bahadur was Sirhind where Subedar Wazir Khan lived, who had troubled Guru Gobind Singh ji throughout his life. He had sent army against Guru ji in battles of Anandpur Sahib and Chamkaur Sahib. At this place his younger sons were bricked alive in a wall. Wazir Khan had murdered thousands of innocent Sikhs and Hindus. That is why, Banda Bahadur and Sikhs had great anger on Wazir Khan. As the news of Banda, Bahadur marching towards Sirhand in Punjab, spread, thousands of people rallied under the flag of Banda Bahadur. A nephew of Suchha Nand, who was an employee of Sirhind administration also joined the invading Sikh army along with his one thousand soldiers. On the other side, number of Wazir Khan’s soldiers were 20000. In his army, besides horsemen, there were gunmen and cannon firemen and elephant riders.
(a) What were the orders, given by Guru Gobind Singh ji to the sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnamas?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh ji instructed the sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama to consider Banda Bahadur as their leader in their struggle against the Mughals.

(b) Describe battles of Chhapparchiri and Sirhind.
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhand Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh ji throughout his stay in Punjab. Besides, the two young Sahibzadas were bricked alive in a wall on his orders. So Banda Bahadur wanted to avenge the heinous crimes committed by Wazir Khan. As he marched towards Sirhind, many people rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, who was an employee of Sirhand administration, also joined the Sikh army along with his thousand soldiers. However, later he deserted the Sikh army. On the otherside, Wazir Khan had twenty thousand soldiers at his disposal. On May 22, 1710 A.D. a fierce battle between two armies took place at Chapparchiri, a place 16 kilometers away from Sirhind, Wazir Khan was slain in this battle. The enemy army became the victim of the swords of Sikhs in large numbers. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. Suchha Nand, who had master minded the attrocities on Sikhs, his nose was pierced and was paraded, in the town.

Question 12.
In 1837 A.D., The Governor-General of India, General, Lord Auckland was feared at the increasing influence of Russia in Afghanistan. He also felt that Dost Mohammad was establishing friendly relations with Russia, a enemy of British. In these situations, Lord Auckland wanted to make ruler of Afghanistan Shah Shuja (Former ruler of Afghanistan who lived on Pension from British) instead of Dost Mohammad. For this, on 26th June 1838 A.D. with the permission of British Government, there was Treaty between the British, Ranjit Singh and Shah Shuja which is called Tripartite Treaty. According to this treaty Shah Shuja would be the ruler of Afghanistan Shah Shuja accepted the right over all areas (Kashmir, Multan, Peshawar, Attuck, Derafat etc.) conquered by Maharaja from Afghans. Maharaja did not accept one term of the treaty that during Afghan war, he would let the English forces pass from his area. On this, the relations between Maharaja and British bittered. Maharaja died on June 1839 A.D.
(а) When was Ranjit Singh born? What was his father’s name?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was born on November 13, 1780 A.D. His father’s name was Mahan Singh.

(b) What was the Tripartite Treaty?
Answer:
The Tripartite Treaty was signed between the British, Ranjit Singh and Shah Shuja in 1838 A.D. The terms of this treaty were as under :

The territories conquered by Ranjit Singh would not be included in the Kingdom of Shah Shuja.
No party would help any foreign power.
Ranjit Singh would be allowed to control that-part of Sindh which he had quite recently conquered.
Enemy of one would be considered as the enemy of other two signatories of the treaty.
Whatever decision the British and Ranjit Singh would take in the matter of Sindh, would be accepable to Shah Shuja.
Shah Shuja would not establish relations with any country without the consent of Ranjit Singh and British.

Question 13.
Although, Lord Hardinge, after defeating Sikhs did not include Punjab in British empire, but he certainly weakened the Lahore Government. British occupied southern areas of Satluj of Lahore state. He occupied fertile areas of Doab Bist Jalandhar. Kashmir, Kangra. Hilly states of Hazara were freed from Lahore. Army of Lahore state was reduced. A large amount of money was recovered from Lahore state. Punjab was weakened so much on economic and army front that when the english desired, they could occupy.
(а) Who was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Kharak Singh was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

(b) What were the terms of second treaty of Lahore?
Answer:
The second Treaty of Lahore was signed between the British and Sikhs on 11th March, 1846 A.D. The terms of the treaty were as under.

British Government will keep large force in Lahore in the security of Maharaja Dalip Singh and inhabitants of Lahore. These forces would remain there upto 1846 A.D.
Lahore city and fort would remain in control of British.
Lahore government signed a treaty on 9 March 1846 A.D. by which it was decided that Lahore government will respect the jagirdars and officials of the area given to the English.
Lahore government will have no right to seize the cannons, property, treasury from the forts given to English.

Question 14.
On January, 1848, Lord Dalhousie became the Governor-General of India in place of Lord Hardinge. He believed in expansion of Brisith empire in India. First of all he decided to include Punjab in British Empire. British got the opportunity to fight with Sikhs on revolt by Mool Raj of Multan and Chattar Singh of Hazara and his son Sher Singh. After the defeat of Sikhs in Second Anglo Sikh War the work of real shape of already decided was given to foreign secreatary Henery Elliot. He compeled the members of Council of Regency to sign a treaty. According to that treaty, Maharaja Dalip Singh was dethroned. British occupied the whole property of Punjab. Kohinoor Diamond was sent to Queen of England (Victoria) A pension of Rs. 4 Lakh-5 Lakh was settled for Dalip Singh. On that day, Henry Elliot narrated a declaration paper written by Lord Dalhousie in Lahore Darbar. In this declaration, the decision of inclusion of Punjab in British Empire was justified.
(а) When was the Punjab annexed to the British Empire? Who was the Governor-General of India at that time?
Answer:
Punjab was annexed to the British Empire in 1849 A,D. Lord Dalhousie was the Governor-General at that time.

(b) What do you know about Maharaja Dalip Singh?
Answer:
Maharaja Dalip Singh was the last Sikh ruler of Punjab (Lahore State). He was minor at the time of First Anglo-Sikh war. According to the Treaty of Bhairowal of 1846 A.D., a Council of Regency was formed to run the administration of the Lahore Darbar. It was to run the administration till the maturity of Maharaja Dalip Singh. But the Sikh forces lost the Second Anglo-Sikh war. As a result of it, Maharaja Dalip Singh was dethroned and given a pension of 4-5 lakhs annually. Punjab became the part of British Empire.

Question 15.
Many cow slaughterers were killed by attacking on slaughterhouses of Amritsar and Raikot. Many in Kukas were openly hanged but they did not get back from their objectives. On January 1872 A.D., a group of 150 Kukas reached Malerkotla to punish cow slaughterers. On 15 January 1872, there was great fight between Kukas and forces of Malerkotla. Many people were killed on both sides. British government sent forces in Malerkotla to take action against Kukas. Sixty five Kukas arrested themselves. Out of them, 49 Kukas were blown off by the cannons on 17th January 1872 A.D. Other 16 Kukas were also blown off by cannons fire on 18th January 1872 A.D. after a trial. Sri Satguru Ram Singh Ji was deported to Rangoon. Many Namdharis were sent to Kala Pani. Many were drowned to death in a sea. Properties of many Kukas was confiscated. In this way, British government did many attrocites. But this wave continued up till 15th August 1947 A.D. untill India became independent.
(а) Why did Sri Satguru Ram Singh Ji show non-cooperation with the British Government?
Answer:
Sri Satguru Ram Singh Ji was opposed to the foreign government, foreign administration and foreign goods.

(b) Describe the tragedy that occured between the Namdharis and Britishers in Malerkotla.
Answer:
Namdharis had started the work of protection of cows. For the protection of cows, they began to kill butchers. In January 1872 A.D. a group of 150 Kukas (Namdharis) reached Malerkotla to punish Cow slaughterers, On 15th January, there was a staff fight between Kukas and forces of Malerkotla. Many peoples were killed on both sides. British government sent his special force to Malerkotla. Sixty five Kukas arrested themselves. Out of them, 49 Kukas were blown off by cannon on 17th January 1872 A.D. After a trial, other 16 Kukas were also killed by cannon on 18th January 1872 A.D.

Question 16.
In an atmosphere of unrest and anger, about 20,(TOO people from Amritsar and nearby villages assembled at Jallianwala Bagh on Baisakhi day 13th April 1919. General Dyer declared these type of meetings illegal on that day at 9.30 A.M. But people did not know about it. That is why the meeting was continuing.
General Dyer got an opportunity to avenge the massacre -of the five Britishers. He arrived at the entrance gate of Jallianwala Bagh with 150 soldiers. There was only one narrow street to reach the garden. General Dyer standing on that street, ordered the people to get out within three minutes. But it was not possible. After three minutes, General Dyer gave shoot order. About 1000 people were killed and more than 3000 were injured. After the incident of Jallianwala Bagh, the country’s independence wave got new direction. The revenge of this incident was taken by Sardar Udham Singh after 21 years by shooting dead Sir Michel O’Dyer (who was Lieutenant governor at the time of incident).
(а) Who took the revenge of Jallinwala Bagh Massacre and How?
Answer:
Shaheed Udham Singh took revenge of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. Twenty-one years after the massacre, he shot dead Michel O’ Dwyer in England.

(b) What were the causes of the Jallianwala Bagh incident?
Answer:
Following were the causes of the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy.

Rowlatt Acts. In 1919 A.D., the British Government passed the Rowlatt Act. According to which police was given special powers to crush the people. So the people oppossed it.
Arrest of Dr. Satpal and Dr. Kichlu. Strikes were called at many places in Punjab to protest against the Rowlatt Act. Violent incidents occurs in some cities. So the Government arrested two popular leaders of Punjab Dr. Satpal and Dr. Kichlu. This enraged the people.
Murder of some Britishers. Police opened fire on the excited people at Amritsar. In return, people killed five Englishmen. So the administration of Amritsar was handed over to General Dyer.
To express anger against these incidents, a meeting was being held at Jallianwala Bagh Amritsar, where tragedy occured.

Question 17.
Group of Akalis started vacating gurdwaras from corrupt Mahants. They got vacated Gurudwara Punja Sahib situated at Hasan Abdal, Gurudwara Sachha Sauda of District Shaikhupura and Gurudwara Chola Sahib of Amritsar District. Akalis fought with Mahants at Tarantaran. Similar incidents happened at Gurudwara Baba Ki Ber at Sialkot and Gurdwara Gajra at District Layalpur (Faislabad). Even then, Akalis remained in struggle to vacate Gurudwaras. There occured incident at Gurdwara Nankana Sahib on 20th February 1921 when group of Akali gathered at gurdwara peacefully. There Mahant Narayan Dass of thfit Gurdwara got massacred 30 Akalis. British Government did not show any sympathy to Akalis. But Muslims and Hindus of Sarparant showed sympathy to Akalis.
(a) Why was the key Morcha Organised?
Answer:
The keys of the treasury of Sri Harnaandir Sahib were with the British Government. The Sikhs launched the Morcha to secure the keys of the treasury of Sri Harmandir Sahib.

(b) Describe the incident of Guru Ka Bagh.
Answer:
Gurudwara ‘Guru Ka Bagh’ is situated 13 KM away from Amritsar at Ajnala Tehsil. This Gurudwara was in the hands of a corrupt person named Mahant Sunder Dass. The Shiromani Gurudwara Parbandhak Committee sent a Jatha under the leadership of Dan Singh on 23rd August, 1921 A.D. to take over the charge of the Gurudwara in its hands. The Englishmen arrested the members of this Jatha.

This incident further enraged the Sikhs. Sikhs sent more and more Jathas. These Jathas were badly treated and tortured by the Englishmen. All the political parties of the country criticised this action of the British. In the end, Akalis won the ‘Guru Ka Bagh Morcha’ in peaceful manner.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 5 Desktop Publishing

October 16, 2024October 15, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 5 Desktop Publishing Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 5 Desktop Publishing

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Desktop Publishing Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Programs that can be used to create books, magazines, newspapers, flyers, pamphlets, and many other kinds of printed documents.
(a) Desk Publishing
(b) DeskTop Publishing
(c) Top Publishing
(d) Publishing
Answer:
(b) DeskTop Publishing

Question 2.
That enable us to see on the display screen exactly what will appear when the document is printed:
(a) WYSWJKI
(b) WKSWUG
(c) WUSIWUG
(d) WYSIWYG
Answer:
(d) WYSIWYG

Question 3.
A printer that works like a photocopy machine:
(a) Laser
(b) InkJet
(c) Line
(d) Drum
Answer:
(a) Laser

Question 4.
……….. is a visual representation of objects.
(a) Charts
(b) Graphics
(c) Frames
(d) Fonts
Answer:
(b) Graphics

Question 5.
Printer that print image by pressing an inked ribbon against the paper using a hammer or pins.
(a) Ink-jet
(b) Impact
(c) Non impact
(d) Laser
Answer:
(b) Impact

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 5 Desktop Publishing

2. Fill in the Blanks

1. Arial, Helvetica, Times, and Verdana etc. are examples of …………… and they have same …………. .
Answer:
Typeface, Design

2. A Gutter margin setting adds extra space to the …………….margin or margin of a ………… document that we plan to bind.
Answer:
Side, Top

3. In web pages the content is ………… not designed for ………… .
Answer:
Viewable, Print

4. Laser printers use …………. that stores an ……………. at a time.
Answer:
Buffers, Entire page.

3. True or False

1. DTP stands for Desk Top Publishing.
Answer:
True

2. Desktop publishing hardware and software is also used to design and produce web pages.
Answer:
True

3. In Ink-Jet Printer, the ink cannot be absorbed into the paper and dries instantly.
Answer:
False.

4. The dot-matrix printer uses print heads containing from 19 to 124 pins.
Answer:
False.

4. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which printer can typically print the range of 1,200 to 6,000 lines per minute?
Answer:
Line Printer

Question 2.
Which printer can be either two or three-dimensional.
Answer:
Computer Graphics

Question 3.
Which printer has a special coating on it to which toner (an ink powder) sticks?
Answer:
Laser Printers

Question 4.
A set of characters of the same design is called?
Answer:
Typeface

Question 5.
The area between the main content of a page and the page edges is called?
Answer:
Margins

5. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Desktop Publishing?
Answer:
An application of compute that is enables small companies and individuals
to produce reports, visiting cards, calendar, advertising, magazines etc. to near typeset quality. Modern systems, which simulate many of the professional typesetting functions, consist of a personal computer using DTP software.

Question 2.
What are the various types of printers?
Answer:
The various types of printers are:

Impact printer
Non-impact printers
Thermal printers

Question 3.
What is margin?
Answer:
Margins are the distance between the text from left and right edges, top and bottom edges. Margins are normally 1 inch, but you can adjust it according to your need.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Gutter Position?
Answer:
A gutter margin setting adds extra space to the side margin or top margin of a document that we plan to bind. A gutter margin helps ensure that text isn’t hidden by the binding.

Question 5.
What are Graphics?
Answer: A graphic is an image or visual representation of an object. Computer graphics are simply images displayed on a computer screen. Computer graphics can be either two or three-dimensional. There are two main types of 2D graphic:

Bitmap or Raster graphics
Vector graphics

Question 6.
Explain the working of Laser Printer.
Answer:
A laser printer works like a photocopy machine. Laser printers produce images on paper by directing a laser beam at a mirror which again directs the beam onto a drum. The drum has a special coating on it to which toner (an ink powder) sticks. Using patterns of small dots, a laser beam conveys information from the computer to a positively charged drum to become neutralized. From all those areas of drum which become neutralized, the toner detaches. As the paper rolls by the drum, the toner is transferred to the paper printing the letters or other graphics on the paper. A hot roller bonds the toner to the paper.

Question 7.
Explain WYSIWYG feature.
Answer:
WYSIWYG, is an acronym for What You See Is What You Get. The term is used in computing to describe a system in which content displayed during editing appears very similar to the final output, which might be a printed document, web page, slide presentation or even the lighting for a theatrical event.

6. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the difference between Vector Graphics and Bitmap Graphics?
Answer:
The difference between vector and bitmap graphics is as follows:

Vector Graphics	Bitmap Graphics
1. Vector Graphics are passed on Vector Paths	1. They are based on Pixels
2. They do not lose quality	2. They lose quality when expended
3. The file size is less	3. The file size is more.
4. These are used in advanced programmes	4. These are used for basic programmes

Question 2.
What is the difference between Impact and Non-Impact printers?
Answer:
The differences between impact and non impact printers are as follows:

Impact Printer	Non-Impact Printers
1. They produces noise.	1. They do not produce noise.
2. A head is strike on page.	2. No head is striked.
3. They are not costly.	3. They are costly.
4. A ribbon is used.	4. No ribbon is used.
5. They are slower in speed.	5. They are faster in speed.
6. The printing quality is low.	6. Their printing quality is high.
7. They use continous paper sheets.	7. They use individual paper sheets.
8. Example are Dot Matrix, Chain.	8. Example are Laser, Inkjet.

Question 3.
Explain any two types of Impact printers.
Answer:
Following are the two types of impact printers:

1. Impact Printers:
An impact printer has a head that contains pins to make contact with the paper. It usually forms the print image by striking its pins on a inked ribbon against the paper. Following are some examples of impact printers. The dot-matrix printer uses print heads containing from 9 to 24 pins. These pins produce patterns of dots on the paper to form the individual characters.

The 24 pin dot-matrix printer produces more dots that a 9 pin dot-matrix printer, which results in much better quality and clearer characters. The general rule is: the more pins, the clearer the letters on the paper. The pins strike the ribbon individually as the print mechanism moves across the entire print line in both directions, i.e, from left to right, then right to left, and so on. The user can produce a color output with a dot-matrix printer (the user will change the black ribbon with a ribbon that has color stripes). Dot-matrix printers are inexpensive and typically print at speeds of 100¬600 characters per second.

2. Daisy-Wheel Printers:
In order to get the quality of type found on typewriters, a daisy-wheel impact printer can be used. It is called daisy wheel printer because the print mechanism looks like a daisy; at the end of each “Petal” is a fully formed character which produces solid line print. A hammer strikes a “petal” containing a character against the ribbon, and the character prints on the paper. Its speed is slow typically 25-55 characters per second.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Desktop Publishing Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which is graphic Software among following?
(a) Adobe Illustrator
(b) Corel Draw
(c) Inter Space
(d) All of Above
Answer:
(d) All of Above

Question 2.
Which one is Photo Editing software?
(a) Adobe Photoshop
(b) Coral PaintShop
(c) Both of These
(d) None of These
Answer:
(c) Both of These

Question 3.
How many types are there of 2D Graphics?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 4.
What is the type of Laser Printer?
(a) Impact
(b) Non Impact
(c) Both of These
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Non Impact

Fill in the Blanks

1. ………….. means spacing between two or more lines.
Answer:
Leading

2. Frame …………..related information or graphics.
Answer:
group

3. WYSIWYG means …………… .
Answer:
what you see is what I get.

4. We can …………. document in many ways.
Answer:
print.

5. Faster color laser printer can print …………. pages/min.
Answer:
100.

True/False

1. Header is written on the bottom of the page.
Answer:
False

2. MS-Word is a DTP software.
Answer:
True

3. We don’t need to planning for preparing a document.
Answer:
False

4. Style include bullet effects.
Answer:
True

5. Spacing between two or more lines are called scaling.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the full form of WYSIWYG?
Answer:
What You See Is What You Get

Question 2.
Which is the best printing?
Answer:
Laser Printing

Question 3.
The printing in which ink is settled on paper is called?
Answer:
Offset Printing

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Desktop Publishing?
Answer:
An application of computer that is enables small companies and individuals to produce reports, visiting cards, calendar, advertising, magazines etc. to near typeset quality. Modern systems, which simulate many of the professional typesetting functions, consist of a personal computer using DTP software.

Question 2.
What are the various methods of printing?
Answer:
There are two methods of printing:

1. Offset Printing:
Ink sit on the surface of the paper, nearly all modem printing is offset. Most short-run-jobs are now being done digitally. Instead of the offset printing as personal, for business use it becomes better and Cheaper.

2. Laser Printing:
A laser printer is a common type of printer that produces high quality text and graphics. Laser printer uses non-impact photo copier technology.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Scaling, Tracking & Leading?
Answer:
1. Scaling:
There are a number of ways for adjusting text in a document. This term refers to that, without changing the points of any font we can increase or decrease its width.

2. Tracking:
Tracking simple means to increase or decrease the character space in a word or multiple words. It can also measure in points.

3. Leading:
It simply shows the line space between two or more lines. It can also measure in points or depends upon the desktop publishing software.

Question 4.
What are Margins?
Answer:
Margins are the distance between the text from left and right edges, top and bottom edges. Margins are normally 1 inch, but you can adjust it according to your need.

Question 5.
What do you mean Document Planning?
Answer:
Document planning mean to set the following:

Page layout
Style
Margin
Hader and Fotter
Font

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are fonts?
Answer:
A font is a set of printable or displayable text character s in a specific style and size or we can say that a font is a specific typeface of a certain size and style. A typeface is a set of characters of the same design. These characters include letters, numbers, punctuation marks, and symbols. Some popular typefaces include Arial, Helvetica, Times, and Verdana. While most computers come with a few dozen typefaces installed, there are thousands of typefaces available.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 5 Desktop Publishing
Question 2.
What do you mean by WYSIWYG?
Answer:
A WYSIWYG is a system in which content (text and graphics) can be edited in a form closely resembling its appearance when printed or displayed as a finished product, such as a printed document, web page, or slide presentation. WYSIWYG is especially popular for desktop publishing.

With desktop publishing, we can increase productivity, minimize production cost, enhance the appearance of our documents, improve the level of creativity, reduce the time taken for printing and produce customized documents. The best part about DTP is that we can create professional-looking documents, without the need for graphic designer.

Question 3.
What are different types of printers? Discuss working of Laser printer.
Answer:
Printer:
A printer is an external output device that takes data from a computer and generates output on a paper in the form of graphics/text. There are two types of printers.

Impact Printers:
An impact printer has a head that contains pins to make, contact with the paper. It usually forms the print image by striking its pins on a inked ribbon against the paper. Following are some examples of impact printers:

1. Dot-Matrix Printers:
The dot-matrix printer uses print heads containing from 9 to 24 pins. These pins produce patterns of dots on the paper to form the individual characters. The 24 pin dot-matrix printer produces more dots that a 9 pin dot-matrix printer, which results in much better quality and clearer characters.The general rule is, the more pins, the clearer the letters on the paper.

The pins strike the ribbon individually as the print mechanism moves across the entire print line in both directions, i.e, from left to right, then right to left, and so on. The user can produce a color output with a dot-matrix printer (the user will change the black ribbon with a ribbon that has color stripes). Dot-matrix printers are inexpensive and typically print at speeds of 100-600 characters per second.

2. Daisy-Wheel Printers:
It is called daisy-wheel printer because the print mechanism looks like a daisy; at the end of each “Petal” is a fully formed character which produces solid-line print. A hammer strikes a “petal” containing a character against the ribbon, and the character prints on the paper. Its speed is slow typically 25-55 characters per second.

3. Line Printers:
Line printers, or line-at-a-time printers, use special mechanism. that can print a whole line at once; it can typically print the range of 1,200 to 6,000 lines per minute. Drum, chain, and band printers are line-at- a-time printers.

Non-Impact Printers:
Non-impact printers do not use a striking device to produce characters on the paper; and because these printers do not hammer against the paper its much quieter. Following are some non-impacted printers:

1. Ink-Jet Printers:
Ink-jet printers work in the same fashion as dot matrix printers in the form images or characters with little dots. However, the dots are formed by tiny droplets of ink. Ink-jet printers form characters on paper by spraying ink from tiny nozzles through an electrical field that arranges the charged ink particles into characters at the rate of approximately 250 characters per second. The ink is absorbed into the paper and dries instantly. Various colors of ink can also be used.

2. Laser Printers:
A laser printer works like a photocopy machine. Laser printers produce images on paper by directing a laser beam at a mirror which again directs the beam onto a drum. The drum has a special coating on it to which toner (an ink powder) sticks. Using patterns of small dots, a laser beam conveys information from the computer to a positively charged drum to become neutralized. From all those areas of drum which become neutralized, the toner detaches. As the paper rolls by the drum, the toner is transferred to the paper printing the letters or other graphics on the paper. A hot roller bonds the toner to the paper.

Laser printers use buffers entire page at a time. When a whole page is loaded, it will be printed. The speed of laser printers is high and it print quietly without producing much noise. Many home-use laser printers can print eight pages per minute, but faster and print approximately 21,000 lines per minute, or 437 pages per minute (if each page contains 48 lines). When high speed laser printers were introduced they were expensive.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 Features of the Indian Constitution

October 16, 2024October 15, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 1 Features of the Indian Constitution Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Features of the Indian Constitution

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Features of the Indian Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you mean by a Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution is a document of basic laws according to which the government of a country functions.

Question 2.
With what words the Preamble begins?
Answer:
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution begins with these words : “We, the people of India, solemnly declare India a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic Republic.”

Question 3.
Enumerate anyone feature of the Constitution.
Answer:
The two main features of the Indian Constitution are below:

A Long and Detailed Constitution. The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest and most detailed constitution in the world. It contains 395 articles and 12 schedules.
Fundamental Rights. The Fundamental Rights have been given in the third chapter of the constitution. These are Right to equality, Right to freedom, Right against exploitation, Right to freedom of religion, Cultural and Educational Rights and the Right to constitutional remedies.

Question 4.
Enumerate any one feature of Indian Federation.
Answer:
Feature of a federal constitution :

There is a division of powers between the Central Government and the State Governments in the federal constitution.
The federal constitution provides for an independent and impartial judiciary. (Anyone)

Question 5.
Mention any one fundamental rights of an Indian citizen.
Answer:
Following are the important fundamental rights of the Indian citizens :

Right to equality.
Right to freedom.
Right to freedom of religion.
Right against exploitation. (Anyone)

Question 6.
Enumerate any one constitutional duty of an Indian citizen.
Answer:

To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, (Anyone)

II. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Explain that India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic and Republican State.
Answer:
The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares India a Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic. Secular means all religions are equal in the eyes of law. A secular state has no religion of its own. No discrimination is made on the basis of religion. Every citizen is free to adopt any religion of his / her own choice. By a Democratic State, we mean that state in which all the citizens enjoy equal rights. They elect their representatives to run the government. By a Republican State, we mean that the head of the state is elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period. The President of India is an elected head, having no hereditary right.

Question 2.
Explain aims and objectives as shown in the Preamble.
Answer:
The Preamble to the Constitution throws light on the nature of the Indian administrative system and the goals to be achieved by the state. It lays emphasis on the following ideals :

India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic Republic.
Social, economic and political justice to all.
Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
Equality of status and of opportunity and to promote them among all.
Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation.

Question 3.
Describe each of the following fundamental rights :
(a) Right to equality.
(b) Right to freedom.
(c) Right against exploitation.
(d) Right to constitutional remedies.
Answer:
(a) Right to Equality. Indian society suffered from different types of inequalities for centuries. So the makers of the constitution gave top priority to the Right to Equality. Following equalities have been granted to the Indians :

Equality before law. All are equal before law. No discrimination can be made on the grounds of religion, race, caste, colour and sex. Equal opportunities will be given to all while giving employment.
(I) No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of law.
(II) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
(Ill) Article 21 provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
Checks on discrimination. The government shall not make any discriminate on the basis of caste, colour, creed, place of birth and sex. All shall be allowed to enter public places built with the aid of the government.
Equal opportunity. Equal opportunities shall be granted to all while giving employment or any job in the state.
Prohibition of untouchability. Untouchability which was a great slur on the
Indian society has been declared an offence. Its practice in any form is punishable by law.
Abolition of titles. The Constitution prohibits the state from conferring titles. But titles for military and academic distinctions can be awarded.

(b) Right to Freedom: This right is the essence of human existence. It is essential for the development of an individual as a good citizen. A good citizen means a good state. Articles 19 to 22 of the Constitution deal with various kinds of individual and collective freedoms guaranteed to the citizens of India.

Some of them are as given below:

Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression. The Constitution gives to every citizen the right to freedom of speech and expression. But this right cannot be used against social order or against safety and integrity of the state. It should not be used to defame others or for inciting public to commit offences.
Right to Assemble Peacefully and Without Arms. This right is necessary for individuals to express their views and exchange ideas. But such an assembly should be peaceful and should not endanger the social order established by law.
Right to Form Associations. The Constitution guarantees the right to form associations and unions to every citizen of India. But restrictions can be imposed bn such associations or unions which pose a danger to law and order or are against public good.
Right to Freedom of Movement. Every citizen of India has been granted freedom to move throughout the Indian territory. The state, however, can impose restrictions on this freedom in public interest.
Right to reside and settle. Every citizen has the right to reside and settle in any part of India.
Right to practise any profession. Every citizen has a right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

(c) Right against Exploitation. In ancient Indian society, many poor persons, women and children suffered from many types of exploitation. The Constitution of India puts a ban on such exploitation.

Our Constitution seeks to ban traffic in human beings. Workers must be paid adequate wages for their labour. The Constitution, therefore, declares forced labour or (Begar) as a crime punishable by law.
Children under 14 years of age cannot be employed on any dangerous job like factories or in mines. This provision has been inserted to prevent the greedy employers from exploiting the children.

(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies. (2009 B (S)). The right to constitutional remedies is the most important fundamental right. This right protects other rights of the citizens. If the fundamental right of any citizen is encroached upon, he can seek justice from a High Court or the Supreme Court. The Court can nullify such act if it violates the Constitution. The High Courts and the Supreme Court can safeguard the rights of the citizens by issuing writs. The right to constitutional remedies can, however, be suspended by the Central Government in case of a national emergency.

Question 4.
Elaborate each of the following categories of directive principles :
(а) Socialist Principles
(b) Gandhian Principles
(c) Liberal or General Principles.
Answer:
(a) Socialist Principles:

The state aims at public welfare.
Adequate means of livelihood for all the citizens.
Proper distribution of wealth so as to serve the common good.
To establish such an economic set up that there is no concentration of wealth and resources in a few hands.
To give financial aid to the old, unemployed and the disabled.
Equal pay for equal work for all men and women.
To provide free and compulsory education to all the children below the age of fourteen years.
The state is to make efforts to decrease economic inequalities.
To provide adequate wages, good standard of living and leisure to all the workers.

(b) Gandhian Principles.

To organise village Panchayats.
To promote cottage industries on individual and cooperative basis in rural areas.
To promote with special care educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the society, especially the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes.
Prohibition of intoxicating drinks and other intoxicants which are injurious to health.
To raise the standard of living of the people and improvement of public health,

(c) The Liberal or General Principles: In this category, those principles are included which are of a general and liberal character. These include :

To frame a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
To bring about the separation of the judiciary from the executive.
To organise agriculture on modern and scientific lines.
To promote animal husbandry on scientific lines.
To preserve and improve the breeds of the cattle and prohibit slaughter of cows, calves and other milch animals.
To provide for the protection of wild animals.
To protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historical interest.
The state should endeavour to promote international peace and security.

Question 5.
Explain the basic differences between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles.
Answer:
There are the following differences between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy :

The Fundamental Rights have been granted by the Constitution to the people. The Directive Principles are instructions from the Constitution to the state.
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in the Constitution and have special sanctity. They are justiciable. The Directive Principles are in the form of directions to the state and are not justiciable. They cannot be enforced by courts of law.
The Fundamental Rights can be suspended in case of national emergency but the Directive Principles cannot be suspended.
The scope of Fundamental Rights is limited. They intend to establish political democracy. The scope of Directive Principles is wider. Their aim is to establish social and economic democracy and a just society.

Question 6.
Why and when were the fundamental duties of Indian citizens inserted in the Constitution?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution in its original form did not contain the fundamental duties of citizens. The fundamental duties were added in the Indian constitution in 1976 through the Forty-second constitution amendment act.
Why were Fundamental Duties inserted in the Constitution?

Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution is a progressive step.
The Fundamental Duties are incorporated in the Constitution to develop a sense of nationalism and patriotic feelings among the citizens.
The Fundamental Duties help the citizens to follow a code of conduct that would strengthen the nation, protect its sovereignty and integrity.

Question 7.
Explain two basic reasons because of which our Constitution has become the bulkiest in the world.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest and the most detailed Constitution in the world.

There are 395 articles and 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
It has a detailed description of the composition, powers and mutual relations of different organs of the government. It also explains the mutual relations of the state and the citizens.
It has a detailed description of the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens. Ten Fundamental Duties of the citizens have also been included in the Constitution by the 42nd constitutional amendment.
The distribution of powers between the centre and the states has clearly been stated by the Constitution as it is federal in form.

Question 8.
The right to freedom is actually a cluster of several rights. Comment.
Answer:
The right to freedom is given in Articles 19-22. This right is a cluster of six freedoms. These are as follows :

Freedom of speech and expression.
Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms.
Freedom to form associations or unions.
Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
Freedom to practise any profession or carry on any occupation, trade or business.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Features of the Indian Constitution Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
How does the Indian Constitution check the misuse of powers by the government?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has clearly stated powers given to different organs of the government.

Question 2.
When was the Indian Constitution passed?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution was passed on November 26, 1949 by the Constituent Assembly.

Question 3.
‘India is a Democratic State.’ Give one reason to clarify it.
Answer:
The administration of the country is run by the representatives elected by the people.

Question 4.
‘India is a Secular State.’ Clarify giving one example.
Answer:
The state does not favour any particular religion.

Question 5.
When did the Indian Constitution come into force?
Answer:
It came into force on 26 January 1950.

Question 6.
Can Preamble be regarded as a part of the Constitution?
Answer:
Preamble is a part of the Constitution but is neither justiciable nor can be enforced by the courts.

Question 7.
Who is the real head of the state?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the real head of the country.

Question 8.
Explain one important feature of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Written and detailed Constitution.

Question 9.
The Indian Constitution has given some rights to the citizens. What are they called in legal language?
Answer:
These are called Fundamental Rights.

Question 10.
How many Fundamental Rights have been given to the citizens in the Constitution?
Answer:
Six Fundamental Rights.

Question 11.
Explain one point mentioned in the Right to Equality.
Answer:
No discrimination shall be made on the basis of caste, race, religion, colour and sex by the state.

Question 12.
What is meant by the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Answer:
The principles which the government keeps in view while framing its policies or making laws.

Question 13.
Describe one Directive Principle of State Policy given in the Constitution.
Answer:
To promote cottage industries in rural areas.

Question 14.
Why have the fundamental duties been added to the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
It is in the interest of the citizens to perform their duties.

Question 15.
Describe any one fundamental right granted to the Indian citizens.
Answer:
Right to Equality.

Question 16.
Write two constitutional duties of an Indian citizen.
Answer:
1. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and National Anthem.
2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

Question 17.
Write two rights of an Indian citizen.
Answer:

Right to Equality is given to all citizens of India. All are equal before law. No discrimination can be made on the grounds of religion, race, caste etc.
All citizens are guaranteed Rights to Freedom. Six freedoms are guaranteed to all citizens.

These freedoms are:

Right to Freedom of Speech,
Right to Form Association,
Right to Freedom of Movement etc.

Question 18.
What is illiteracy?
Answer:
Inability to read or write a language, having little or no knowledge of language.

Question 19.
Which articles of the Constitution give the Right to Freedom?
Answer:
Articles 19 to 22.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Indian Constitution was enforced on __________
Answer:
26 Jan, 1950

Question 2.
Indian Constitution is ________ in form but unitary in spirit.
Answer:
federal

Question 3.
Indian Constitution consists of ________ article.
Answer:
395

Question 4.
Indian Constitution is the ________ Constitution in the world.
Answer:
lengthiest

Question 5.
India is a ________ state.
Answer:
Sovereign

Question 6.
India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular
Answer:
Democratic Republic

Question 7.
In India a form of government has been estabished.
Answer:
Parliamentary.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Indian Constitution came into force on :
(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 26th Jan. 1950
(c) 26th Nov. 1949
(d) 9th Dec. 1950.
Answer:
(b) 26th Jan. 1950

Question 2.
Preamble of the Indian Constitution begins with these words :
(a) People’s Sovereignty
(b) Republic of India.
(c) Democratic India
(d) We the people of India.
Answer:
(d) We the people of India.

Question 3.
At present there are :
(a) 8 Fundamental Rights
(b) 6 Fundamental Rights
(c) 5 Fundamental Rights
(d) 7 Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
(b) 6 Fundamental Rights

Question 4.
Directive Principles of State Policy are included in Indian Constitution :
(a) In Part IV
(b) In Part III
(c) In Part VI
(d) In Part V.
Answer:
(a) In Part IV

Question 5.
Fundamental duties of the citizens were added in the Constitution by :
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 45th Amendment
(d) 73rd Amendment.
Answer:
(a) 42nd Amendment

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Constitution? Why is it important for a democratic country?
Answer:
Constitution. Constitution is a set of laws which regulate the composition and functions of organs of government and relations between the government and the citizens. It states basic structure and powers of the state. It also states rights and duties of the citizens. It is therefore, most important document of every country. Every state must have a constitution.

We must respect our Constitution for the reasons noted below :

The Constitution determines the form of government in a country.
It states the powers of the government and its different organs. Thus it is the source of powers and authority of the government.
It states the relations between different organs of government and delimits the scope of their activities.
The Constitution of a country safeguards the rights granted to its citizens.

Question 2.
Preamble is not legally regarded as a part of the Constitution even then it is important. How?
Answer:
The introduction to the Constitution is called the Preamble of the Constitution. It is the introduction to the Constitution, but is not justiciable. If the government does not implement the objectives of the Preamble, we cannot go to the court against it. Even then it is an important document. It contains the basic principles on which the government is based. It is the key to open the minds of the makers of the Constitution. It is the soul of the Constitution.

Question 3.
What are the salient features of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Following are the salient features of the Indian Constitution:

It is a written and detailed constitution having 395 Articles and 12 Schedules.
It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
It tends to establish a sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic.
It is federal in form but unitary in spirit.
It establishes a bicameral legislature at the centre having Lok Sabha the Lower House, and Rajya Sabha (Upper House).
It establishes the parliamentary form of government, the President being a nominal executive head of the state.
It establishes an independent and impartial judiciary.
The Constitution states the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the following :
(i) Parliamentary form of Government in India
(ii) Adult Franchise
(iii) Independent and Impartial Judiciary.
Answer:
1. Parliamentary form of Government in India. The Indian Constitution has established a parliamentary form of Government in India. The Parliament is the supreme body and it represents the people. People elect their representatives who are members of the Parliament. The government at the centre functions in the name of the President and similarly the state governments function in the name of governors. But the real powers are enjoyed by the Council of Ministers. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Parliament (at the Centre) and to the State Legislative Assembly (in case of State).

The Council of Ministers holds office till it enjoys the confidence of the Parliament or the State Legislative Assembly

2. Adult Franchise. In order to make India a real democracy, the Indian Constitution provides for universal adult franchise. It implies that every citizen of India, having attained the age of’18 years, will be entitled to take part in the elections and to vote for the candidate of his choice. This right is extended to all the citizens irrespective of their caste, colour, creed, sect, sex or status.

3. Independent arid Impartial Judiciary. The Indian Constitution provides for an independent and impartial judiciary in India. It means that judiciary is free from the influence and control of the executive. It remains impartial in settling the disputes between the centre and the states. This judicial system has great importance in a federal system. Besides, the judiciary protects the fundamental rights of the citizens.

Question 5.
Give a list of fundamental rights that are given in the Indian Constitution.
Or
Mention the rights of an Indian citizen.
Answer:
Our Constitution guarantees to Indian citizens the following six fundamental rights :

Right to equality.
Right to freedom.
Right against exploitation.
Right to freedom of religion.
Cultural and educational rights; and
Right to constitutional remedies.

Question 6.
Explain any three rights relating to the right to freedom of religion or right to religious freedom.
Answer:
The following points are included in the right to freedom of religion:

Every citizen is free to adopt, leave or preach any religion of his own choice.
People can form and organise religious institutions and run them.
No citizen can be forced to pay a tax that is imposed on him in the interest of any religion. Besides, no citizen can be forced to get an education relating to any particular religion in a government institution or an institution getting financial aid from the government.

Question 7.
Describe the Cultural and Educational rights.
Answer:

The Indian Constitution guarantees that every community has full freedom to preserve its own language, script and culture and run its own institutions.
The children of all communities and religions shall be admitted in government institutions or non-government institutions aided by the government.
No one can be denied admission to any educational institution run by the government simply on the ground of religion, caste or creed.

Question 8.
Describe any four fundamental rights granted to the Indian citizens.
Answer:

Right to Freedom. The Indian citizens have been granted the freedom to move in any part of the country, express views and choose any profession.
Right to Freedom of Religion. The Indian citizens are free to adopt or leave any religion. They can form religious institutions and run them.
Cultural and Educational Rights. The Indians are given the right to study any language and to protect their culture and script.
Right to Equality. Every citizen has been given the right to equality before law. Any person can get the highest post on the basis of his merit and ability.

Question 9.
What is meant by the Directive Principles of State Policy? Mention any four Directive Principles.
Answer:
The Constitution of India lays down certain principles which the state should keep in its view while framing its policies. These principles are called the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Main Directive Principles of State Policy. Following are the main Directive Principles of State Policy :

Adequate means of livelihood for all the citizens.
Equal pay for equal work for all.
To give financial aid to the old, the unemployed and the disabled.
State should endeavour for prohibition of all kinds of intoxicants which are harmful for health of citizens.

Question 10.
Mention any four facts showing the importance of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy have great importance :

Equal pay for equal work is given in our country. No discrimination i£ made on the basis of sex.
Provision for jobs for backward classes has been made. Free education is given to their children. Seats have been reserved for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the legislatures.
Free primary education is given to children in all parts of the country.
Laws have been passed to protect the interests of the children and the labourers. All this has been done to implement the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Question 11.
Enumerate any six Fundamental Duties that a citizen is required to obey.
Answer:
Ten fundamental duties were added in the Indian Constitution in 1976 through the 42nd amendment act. One duty was added by the 86th amendment act of the Constitution.

Thus there are 11 Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution.

To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and National Anthem.
To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India.
To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 12.
What is the significance of the Directive Principles?
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy aim at securing economic and social equality in the country. They embody the objectives which the state should endeavour to achieve for the welfare of the people and to establish a welfare state.

Question 13.
Explain each of the following features of the Indian Constitution :
(a) Sovereign State
Answer:
Sovereign State. By a sovereign state we mean a state which is completely independent, both in its internal and external affairs.

(b) Socialist State
Answer:
Socialist State. By socialist state we mean a state in which all the citizens enjoy equality in social and economic fields. In it, there is no concentration of wealth and resources in a few hands. The state makes efforts to decrease economic inequalities.

(c) Secular State
Answer:
Secular State. A secular state has no religion of its own. No discrimination is made on the basis of religion. Every citizen is free to adopt and worship the religion of his / her own choice.

(d) Democratic State
Answer:
Democratic State. By a Democratic State, we mean a state in which all the citizens enjoy equal rights. They elect their own representatives who form the government.

(e) Republican State.
Answer:
Republican State. By Republic, we mean that the Head of the state is ‘elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period. The President of India is elected for a fixed period.

Gattka Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 16, 2024October 15, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Gattka Game Rules.

Gattka Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Write down about the plateform, dress and duration of GATTKA.
Answer:

Plateform: Gattka ring is round in size of 7 1/2 m radius.
Dress: Competitors may wear Jercy or shirt but must have Patka on his head.
Size of Gattka: It is made of Baint, (some sort of Bamboo) and three feet in length from its handle.
Duration of Bout: One round of five minutes.

Question 2.
Discuss the Draw, Bye and Walkover in Gattka.
Answer:
Draw, Bye and Walkover:
1. A draw shall be made for all players after taking the name of the players A,B,C,D,E.

2. Player bearing A will,play against the name of A in a bout.

3. In those competitions in which there are more than four competitors a different number shall be drawn in the first series to reduce the number of competitors in the second series.

4. The player who gets a bye in the first series shall be the first to fight Bout in the second series. If there is an odd number of Byes, the player with the last bye shall compete in the second series against the winners of the first bout in the first series.

5. No player can receive a bye in the first series and a walkover in the second or two consecutive walk overs. In case such a position arises a fresh draw shall be made of the competitors still in the competition to provide opponents to those competitors who have already received bye walk over in the preceeding series.
Gattka Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Question 3.
Draw the table of Drawing bout and Byes of Twenty Teams
Gattka Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2
Answer:
TABLE: Drawing Bouts and Byes No of Entries Bouts Byes-

No of Enteries	Bouts	Byes
5	1	3
6	2	2
7	3	1
8	4	–
9	1	7
10	2	6
11	3	5
12	4	4
13	5	3
14	6	2
15	7	1
16	8	–
17	2	15
18	2	14
19	3	13
20	4	12

Question 4.
Write about the competition of Gattka.
Answer:
Competitions of Gattka-

1. Limitations of Competitors:
Only five competitors are allowed to participate in a competition

2. First Draw:
If two members of the same team are being drawn together in a series and if one of them wishes to withdraw in favour of the other, a fresh draw will be made

3. Withdrawal:
If a competitor wants to withdraw from the competition after the draw has been made the official-in-charge will report to the organiser.

4. Retirement:
If any competitor wants to retire from the competition due to any reason, he will have to-inform the official-in-charge.

5. Byes:
Byes that arrive after the first series shall be spared for specified time with an opponent approved by the official-in-charge.

Question 5.
Who control the bout of Gattka?
Answer:
Bout Control:

1. All competitions and contests shall be controlled by a referee, three Judges, a time keeper. The referee shall sit in the ring when the number of Judges is less than three. The referee shall complete the scoring paper. The exhibition bouts shall be controlled by referee.

2. The time keeper shall be seated on one side of the plateform while the Judges on the remaining three sides. The seats shall be replaced as to offer a satisfactory view of bouts.

Question 6.
How the points are awarded in Gattka?
Answer:
Awarding of Points:

In all competitions the Judges shall award points.
The points shall be recorded on the scoring paper at the end of each bout and totalled. Fractions cannot be taken into account.
Each Judge must declare a winner and sign his scoring paper as well as signed on all the scoring slips.

SCORING:
1. The competitor who strikes his opponent the greater number of touch with Gattka he will get the same number of points his touching on the head is awarded two points.

2. If the points to each competitors at the end of the bout is equal, the Judge will award the decision in favour of the competitor who has touched the opponent’s head more time of in the opinion of Judge both the competitors are equal in other aspects also, he will favour the competitor who has shown the better defence.

Stopping the bout:

When a referee is of the opinion that a competitor, due to some injury cannot continue the bout, he stops the bout in such cases, the rival player is declared the winner.
The referee has the right to stop the bout.
In all bouts, any competitor who fails to start the bout where there is time loss loses the bout.

Suspected foul: If the referee suspects that foul which he has not seen clearly soon he can consult the Judges and give the decision accordingly.

Question 7.
Write the fouls of Gattka.
Answer:
Fouls:

Hitting with elbow
Hitting deliberately on the back of the neck or head.
Striking a competitor when he is down.
Holding the competitors.
Lying on with head or body.
Roughing
Shouldering
Wrestling
Double blows to the ear
Intentionally falling down without any reason.

Important Information about the Gattka Game

Shape of Gattka platform = Round
Circumference of platform = 30”, 20 c.m.
Length of Gattka Stick = 3’.3”, 100 c.m.
Weight of Gattka Stick = 500
Gattka made of =Bant
Thickness of Gattka = 1/2 to 3/4, 2 c.m. to 3 c.m.
Duration of Bout = 3 minutes 1 1/2,1 1/2 min (two half)
Dress of players = Jersey or Shirt, Patka on head
Officials of bout = Referee Council & Two Technical Officials, One Judge, One Scorer,One Time Keeper.
There are seven players in Gattka team in which five participate and two are substitutes.
Gattka ring in round in size of 7 1/2 m of radius.
The length of the Gattka is three feet from and three meter its handle which is made of Baint
The duration of Gattka Bout is three minutes.
There are three Judges and one Referee to conduct the bout.

Punjab Style Kabaddi Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Punjab Style Kabaddi Game Rules.

Punjab Style Kabaddi Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Discuss about the circle style Kabaddi, Ground, Duration of the game, Dress of the Players, The official of the Kabaddi game.
Answer:
Playground:
The Punjab Style Kabaddi is also known as Circle Kabaddi. Its playground is circular, and the radius of the circle is 75 feet. The radius can be from 65′ (50 m) to 15′(10 m.) The centre line divides it into two equal parts. There is a gate of 20 feet in the middle of the centre-line. On both the ends of the gate two soil mounds are built. They are called palas.

The diameter of each pala is 6 inches. The palas are 1 foot high from the ground where they are placed. On both the ends of the centre line, the D-area is marked by a 20 feet long line. It is 15 feet from palas towards the sides. Through a quarter circle it touches the centre-line, and the palas are in the middle of it.

KABADDI:
PUNJAB STYLE OR CIRCLE KABADDI-
Punjab Style Kabaddi Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Duration of Play:
The game is played in two durations of 20 minutes each, and there is an interval of 5 minutes for rest in between the two durations.

Teams:
The game is played between two teams. Each team has ten players and two substitutes. When a player becomes incapable of play he is replaced by a substitute. Each team should have 8 players till the end of the game. If the number of players is less than ten, the opposing team is also allowed to have the same number of players (which is less than ten).

Dress of the Players:
Players shall wear loin-clothes. They can play on bare foot or by wearing tennis shoes with thin soles. The player cannot play by wearing a ring or other such things.

Officials:
There are following officials to conduct this game-

One Referee
One Umpire
Two Scorers
One Time Keeper.

Question 2.
Discuss the rules of Punjab Style Kabaddi.
Answer:
General Rules:

The raiders on their turns shall go to the court of the opponents sounding the cant of ‘Kabaddi’. They shall continue sounding the cant within one and the same breath till they return.
The raider shall touch at least the boundary line of the opponent’s court. If he even does not do so, the umpire can ask him for the second raid. If he fails to touch the boundary line even then, the opposing team is awarded one point.
No player can have two successive raids. Each player has to raid at least once in each half of the circle.
When a player is returning after having touched his anti, he cannot be pursued until he has crossed the essential line of his side
If a raider touches any of his opponents and returns to his court, his side gets 1 point.
If a player of the defending team causes an obstruction, the raiding team is at once awarded one point.
During the time of touching and holding between a raider and the player of the opposing team, all the rest of the players are considered temporarily out until a point is scored.
If a raider goes out of the boundary line, the anti-team shall get 1 point. If both the players cross the boundary line, neither side is awarded a point. The point is considered to be common in such a case.
A hold or an attack which may put a player’s life in danger is forbidden.
Applying oil on the body or increasing nails of hands and feet are forbidden.
Coaching of any type from the outside is forbidden.
If a raider touches his opponent or the opponent touches the raider, then both pursue each other till the sounding of the cant. No other player can hold the raider.
No one can hold a player by hair.
The opponent cannot prevent a raider from sounding the cant by shutting his mouth.
Improper or indecent words cannot be used during the play.
No player can go out for drinking water until the game ends.
The players can use soil on their hands.
The umpire can ask each of those players who have not taken their turns to sound the cant and raid.
The leg-scissors cannot be used on a raider without first being held.
No player can slap any other person.

Important Information about the Punjab Style Kabaddi Game

Shape of Kabaddi Playground = Circular
Radius of Circle = 65’to 75′(50 to 70 m)
Distance of Gate in Centre Line = 20′(6.10 m)
Marking of Gate = Two soil mounds are built
The diameter of each pole = 6″ ( 15 cm)
Duration of play = 20-20 Minutes
Time of Interval = 5 Minutes
Playing Members of a team = 14 Players,6 Substitutes
Officials of the match = Two Umpires, One-Referee, one scorer, one time keeper.
The game is played between two teams. Each team consists of 14 players and 6 substitutes.
In case a player is injured during the play, he is replaced by a substitute.
A player can participate in this game on bare foot.
No player can wear an iron bangle (‘Karra’), ring etc. during the play.
No player can have two successive raids.
A hold or attack which may endanger the life of a player is forbidden. Coaching to the players from outside the playfield is forbidden.
The opposing player cannot prevent a player from sounding the cant of ‘Kabaddi-Kabaddi’ by shutting his mouth.
No player can take part in the game after having applied oil on his body.
If a raider loses the cant on the way, the referee asks for the cant again.