PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Operating Systems Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
An operating system is a:
(a) Terminal
(b) Software
(c) Storage system
(d) Processor
Answer:
(b) Software

Question 2.
The process of running multiple applications at the same time is known as:
(a) Multi-application
(b) Multi processing
(c) Multi programming
(d) Multi timing
Answer:
(c) Multi programming

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 3.
It enables us to access internet securely and prevent unauthorized applications and people from accessing our PC:
(a) Anti-Virus
(b) Security
(c) Firewall
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Firewall

Question 4.
The time taken by the system to respond to an input and display of required updated information is:
(a) Response time
(b) Access time
(c) Output time
(d) Total time
Answer:
(a) Response time

Question 5.
Remote access to servers is possible from different locations in:
(a) Batch Processing System
(b) Time Sharing System
(c) Network Operating System
(d) Distributed system
Answer:
(c) Network Operating System

2. Fill In The Blanks

1. A …………………. represents a collection of related
Answer:
Pile, Information.

2. ………….. system use multiple processors to serve ………… multiple real-time applications and multiple users.
Answer:
Distributed, Central

3. …………..is the process of preventing and detecting ……….. use of our computer.
Answer:
Computer Security, Unauthorized

4. …………. provide access to accounts arid enable us to perform various activities linked with account like shopping, emailing, online transactions etc.
Answer:
Passwords, Online

5. …………. are used when there are time requirements on the operation of a processor or the flow of data.
Answer:
Real Time Systems, Rigid.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

3. True or False

1. The time taken by the system to respond to an input and display of required updated information is termed as the response time.
Answer:
True

2. Anti-virus software alone is enough to be secure from Internet Security threats.
Answer:
False

3. An Operating System cannot manage the communication between user and device drivers.
Answer:
False

4. Linux source code is freely available and it is community based development project.
Answer:
True

5. The OS manages all kinds of resources using schedulers.
Answer:
True

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 6 Operating Systems

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
An interface between computer user and computer hardware is called?
Answer:
Operating System

Question 2.
What hides the peculiarities of specific hardware devices from the users?
Answer:
Drivers

Question 3.
A mechanism or a way to control the access of programs, processes, or users to the resources defined by a computer system is called?
Answer:
Protection

Question 4.
The process of preventing and detecting unauthorized use of our computer is called?
Answer:
Computer Security

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is an operating system?
Answer:
Operating system is an interface between user and computer. It communicates whatever the user says to the hardware of computer.

Question 2.
List type of operating systems.
Answer:
Different types of operating system are:

  • Batch processing operating system.
  • Time sharing operating system.
  • Network operating system.
  • Real time operating system.
  • Distributed operating system.

Question 3.
Explain real time operating system.
Answer:
A real-time system is defined as a data processing system in which the time interval required to process and respond to inputs is so small that it controls the environment. In this type of operating system, the response time is very less as compared to online processing.
Real-time systems are used when there are rigid time requirements on the operation of a processor or the flow of data. A real-time operating system must have well-defined, fixed time constraints, otherwise the system will fail.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 4.
What are the functions of operating system? Make a list.
Answer:
Following are the functions of operating system:

  • It provides programs an environment to execute.
  • It provides users the services to execute the programs in a convenient manner.

Following are a few common services provided by an operating system:

  • Program execution
  • I/O operations
  • File System manipulation
  • Communication
  • Error Detection
  • Resource Allocation
  • Protection.

Question 5.
What do you mean by computer security?
Answer:
Computer security is the process of preventing and detecting unauthorized use of our computer. Prevention measures help us to stop unauthorized users (hackers) from accessing any part of our computer system. Detection helps us to determine whether or not someone attempted to break into our system, if they were successful, and what they may have done.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain functions of operating system
Answer:
Following are the functions of operating system:
1. Program Execution:
Operating systems handle many kinds of activities from user programs to system programs like printer spooler, name servers, file server, etc. Each of these activities is encapsulated as a process.

2. I/O Operation:
An I/O subsystem comprises of I/O devices and their corresponding driver software. Drivers hide the peculiarities of specific hardware devices from the users. An Operating System manages the communication between user and device drivers.

3. File System Manipulation:
A file system is normally organized into directories for easy navigation and usage. These directories may contain files and other directions. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to file management:

  • Program needs to read a file or write a file.
  • The operating system gives the permission to the program for operation on file.
  • Permission varies from read-only, read-write, denied and so on.
  • Operating system provides an interface to the user to create/delete files.
  • Operating system provides an interface to the user to create/delete directories.
  • Operating system provides an interface to create the backup of file system,

4. Communication:
In case of distributed systems which are a collection of processors that do not share memory, peripheral devices, or a clock, the operating system manages communications between all the processes. Multiple processes communicate with one another through communication lines in the network. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to communication:

  • Two processes often require data to be transferred between them.
  • Both the processes can be on one computer or on different computers, but are connected through a computer network.
  • Communication may be implemented by two methods, either by Shared Memory or by Message Passing.

5. Error Detection:
An error may occur in CPU, in I/O devices or in the memory hardware. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to error detection:
1. The OS constantly checks for possible errors.
2. The OS takes an appropriate action to ensure correct and consistent computing.

6. Resource Management.
In case of multi-user or multi-tasking environment, resources such as main memory, CPU cycles and files storage are to be allocated to each user or job. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to resource management:

  • It acts like a resource manager. The OS manages all kinds of resources using schedulers.
  • CPU scheduling algorithms are used for better utilization of CPU.

7. Protection:
Protection refers to a mechanism or a way to control the access of programs, processes, or users to the resources defined by a computer system. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to protection:

  • The OS ensures that all access to system resources is controlled.
  • The OS ensures that external I/O devices are protected from invalid access attempts.
  • The OS provides authentication features for each user by means of passwords.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 2.
What are the basic features of Linux?
Answer:
The basic features of Linux operating system are:
1. Portable:
Portability means software can works on different types of hardware in same way. Linux kernel and application programs supports their installation on any kind of hardware platform.

2. Open Source:
Linux source code is freely available and it is community based development project. Multiple teams work in collaboration to enhance the capability of Linux operating system and it is continuously evolving.

3. Multi-User:
Linux is a multiuser system means multiple users can access system resources like memory/ram/application programs at same time.

4. Multiprogramming: Linux is a multiprogramming system means multiple applications can run at same time.

5. Hierarchical File System:
Linux provides a standard file structure in which system files/user files are arranged. Files and directories are arranged in tree structure form.

6. Shell:
Linux provides a special interpreter program which can be used to execute commands of the operating system. It can be used to do various types of operations, call application programs, etc.

7. Security:
Linux provides user security using authentication features like password protection/controlled access to specific files/encryption of data.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Operating Systems Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which one is function of operating system related to program management?
a) Execution
(b) Controt
(c) Loading
(d) All of above.
Answer:
(d) All of above.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 2.
Main function of shared memory is:
(a) to use primary memory efficently
(b) to do intra process communication
(c) to do inter process communication
(d) none of above
Answer:

Question 3.
Memory protection is normally done by:
(a) the processor and the associated hardware
(b) the operating system
(c) the compiler
(d) the user program
Answer:
(a) the processor and the associated hardware

Question 4.
Which of the following operating system does not implement the multitasking truly?
(a) Windows 98
(b) Windows NT
(c) Windows XP
(d) MS DOS
Answer:
(d) MS DOS

Question 5.
What are the functions of operating system?
(a) Memory management
(b) Process management
(c) Device management
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Fill in the Blanks

1. Operating system is …………. software.
Answer:
System

2. Memory management is function of ……………
Answer:
Operating System

3. File management is function of ……………
Answer:
Operating System.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

True or False

1. Operating system in application software.
Answer:
False

2. Windows is uni-tasking operating system.
Answer:
False

3. Unix is not an operating system.
Answer:
False

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the function which deals with hardware.
Answer:
Device management.

Question 2.
Name the most important system software
Answer:
Operating system.

Question 3.
Name the most famous operating system.
Answer:
MS Windows.

Question 4.
Name the most secured operating system proven.
Answer:
UNIX.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain advantages of time sharing operating system.
Answer:
Following are advantages of time sharing operating system.
1. Immediates response is available.
2. It is best suitable operating system for system who need quick response.

Question 2.
Explain disadvantages of time Sharing Operating System.
Answer:
Following are disadvantages of time sharing operating system.
1. It is not suitbale for long tasks
2. Important job may be completed in long time.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain distributed operating system in detail.
Answer:
Distributed Operating System:
Distributed systems use multiple central processors to serve multiple real-time applications and multiple users. Data processing jobs are distributed among the processors accordingly.The processors communicate with one another through various communication lines (such as high-speed buses or telephone lines). These are referred as loosely coupled systems or distributed systems. Processors in a distributed system may vary in size and function. These processors are referred as sites, nodes, computers, and so on. The advantages of distributed systems are as follows:

  • With resource sharing facility, a user at one site may be able to use the resources available at another.
  • Speedup the exchange of data with one another via electronic mail.
  • If one site fails in a distributed system, the remaining sites can potentially continue operating.
  • Better service to the customers.
  • Reduction of the load on the host computer.
  • Reduction of delays in data processing.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 2.
Discuss network operating system along with its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Network Operating System:
A Network Operating System runs on a server arid provides the server the capability to manage data, users, groups, security, applications, and other networking functions. The primary purpose of the network operating system is to allow shared file and printer access among multiple computers in a network, typically a local area network (LAN), a private network or to other networks.
Examples of network operating systems include Microsoft Windows Server 2003, Microsoft Windows Server 2008, UNIX, Linux, Mac OS X, Novell NetWare and BSD.

The advantages of network operating systems are as follows:

  • Centralized servers are highly stable.
  • Security is server managed.
  • Upgrades to new technologies and hardware can be easily integrated into the system.
  • Remote access to servers is possible from different locations and types of systems

The disadvantages of network operating systems are as follows:

  • High cost of buying and running a server.
  • Dependency on a central location(server) for most operations.
  • Regular maintenance and updates are required.

Multi Programming:
Multi Programming Operating System is the name given to the interleaved execution of two or more different and independent programs by the same computer. Interleaving of programs mean chain of programs that are either in running phase, ready or blocked phase. It is an efficient way to improve the system performance.

Multi programming approach permits more than one job to utilize the CPU time at any moment by applying the scheduling techniques like first come first serve, shortest job first etc . The more the number of programs requesting for system resources, resource utilization would be better. The operating system picks up any of the programs as scheduled and starts execution.

An OS does the following activities related to multiprogramming.

  • The operating system keeps several jobs in memory at a time.
  • This set of jobs is a subset of the jobs kept in the job pool.
  • The operating system picks and begins to execute one of the jobs in the memory.
  • Multiprogramming operating systems monitor the state of all active programs and system resources using
  • memory management programs to ensure that the CPU is never idle, unless there are no jobs to process.

Advantages:

  • High and efficient CPU utilization.
  • User feels that many programs are allotted CPU almost simultaneously.

Disadvantages:

  • CPU scheduling is required.
  • To accommodate many jobs in memory, memory management is required.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 3.
Discuss Real Time Operating System in detail.
Answer:
Time Sharing:
A real-time system is defined as a data processing system in which the time interval required to process and respond to inputs is so small that it controls the environment. The time taken by the system to respond to an input and display of required updated information is termed as the response time.

So in this method, the response time is very less as compared to online processing. Real-time systems are used when there are rigid time requirements on the operation of a processor or the flow of data. A real-time operating system must have well-defined, fixed time constraints, otherwise the system will fail.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Mention four basic principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the four main principles of India’s foreign policy :

  1. Faith in the policy of non-alignment
  2. Faith in the principles of Panchsheel,
  3. Full faith in the U.N.
  4. Opposition to colonialism and imperialism.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Panchsheel?
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, P.M. of China formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence for the nations of the world. These five principles are calledTanchsheel. The main objective of Panchsheel is to maintain world peace by promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means making decisions independently on the basis of merit to solve international problems. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Question 4.
Describe one basic reason which created bad blood between India and the United State of America.
Answer:
India has refused to join military pacts set up by America.

Question 5.
What is the Atomic Policy of India?
Answer:
To use the atomic energy for constructive and peaceful purposes.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Enumerate the number of permanent members and non-permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
The Security Council has 15 members. Out of them five are permanent members. The remaining ten are temporary members. Each temporary member is elected for a term of 2 years by the General Assembly. The five permanent members are: U.S.A., Russia, Great Britain, France and China.

Question 7.
When the UN came into existence and how many were its original members?
Answer:
The United Nations was founded on October 24, 1945. It had 51 original (founder) members.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Disarmament?
Answer:
Disarmament means destruction or reduction of arms. The term implies voluntary destruction of arms and the creation of world without arms.

Question 9.
Describe the basic cause of tension and stagnation of relations between India and China.
Answer:
The border dispute is the main cause of tension between India and China. This tension became intense when China attacked India in 1962.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the main principles of Indian foreign policy.
Or
Write down three principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the main principles of Indian Foreign Policy :

  1. Non-alignment. It is the basic principle of India’s foreign policy. India was the first country that initiated the policy of Noii-alignment.
  2. Opposition to Imperialism. India has always opposed imperialism and colonialism.
  3. Opposition to the policy of Caste, ColoSr and Discrimination etc. India has always raised voice against the policy of Caste, Colour and Discrimination.
  4. Faith in the United Nations. India is a founder member of the United Nations and has full faith in the aims and principles of the United Nations.
  5. Panchsheel. Panchsheel is an important principle of Indian foreign policy.
  6. Friendly Relations with other States. India is always ready to have friendly relations with other States of the world.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on Panchsheel.
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, the Prime Minister of China held a meeting in Delhi. They formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence between the nations of the world. These principles are called Panchsheel.

Following are these principles:

  1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
  2. Non-aggression. In other words, the disputes among the nations should be settled by negotiations.
  3. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other states.
  4. To endeavour to achieve mutual gains and co-operation.
  5. To adhere to the policy of peaceful co-existence among different nations Live and let live. If these principles are respected, there can be no danger of any deadly war in the world.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 3.
Describe the meaning of the’^bficy of Non-alignment and reasons for its adoption by India.
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc and having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means taking decisions independently on the basis of merit while solving international problems. Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Reasons. At the time of our independence, there were two power blocs in the world: the American bloc and the Russian bloc. ‘There existed tension between the two blocs. Thus there was a cold war between them. Newly^^.d countries could reduce this tension and make progress with the aid of both, tfiesel.two.blocs. So they did not join any bloc and formed their own group. Pandit Jawaharl, ejiru based India’s foreign policy on the principle of Non-alignment.

Question 4.
Describe the organisation and functions of the General Assembly, Security Council and International, Court of Justice.
Answer:
General Assembly. It is made up of all the member nations of the U.N.O. each of whom has one vote. However, each member state can send five representatives to attend its meetings. The Assembly takes decisions on ordinary matters by a simple majority. It passes the annual budget of U.N.O.

Security Council: It is made up of 15 members out of Ayhqm five are permanent members. The remaining ten members are elected for a term of two years by the General Assembly.

The Security Council is entrusted with the task of preserving world peace. It tries to settle disputes between the different nations in a just and fair manner.

International Court of Justice:
It is called “The World Court”. The Court hears and decides, disputes arising between states according to International Law. It also gives advice to the General Assembly on legal matters.

Question 5.
Describe the role of India in the United Nations.
Answer:
India is one of the 51 founder members of the United Nations. From the very beginning, the Indian leaders have been keeping a firm faith in this great institution. It has been playing an important role in the functioning of the United Nations.

  1. India stood for anti-colonialism. India along with other members got the resolution passed against imperialism and colonialism in 1950.
  2. Admission of New States. India tried her best for the admission of Communist China and Bangladesh. ,
  3. Cooperation in ending wars in other Countries. India supported the peace efforts of the United Nations to put an end to the wars in Egypt, Congo, Korea and Indo-China.
  4. Against Racial Discrimination. India, with the cooperation of the United Nations, raised a strong voice against the policy of racial discrimination followed by the imperialist government in South Africa.
  5. Human Rights. With the cooperation of the United Nations, India raised a strong voice of protest against the countries.which violated the human rights.
  6. Support of Disarmament. India have so supported disarmament for lessening the possibility of wars.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Describe the main reasons which Abated tension and hostility between India and Pakistan.
Or
Write a short note on the Indo-Pak relationship and their main dispute.
Answer:
India has made every effort to establish friendly relations with Pakistan but the tension and hatred between the two countries has never ended. The two countries had border disputes, river water distribution disputes and had to make settlement of evacuee property. The dispute about the sharing of river waters between the two countries was settled with the help of the World Bank^ through the Indus Water Treaty in 1960. The settlement of border disputes and the prql^em of evacuee property have been solved to a great extent. But the Kashmir problem is the bone of contention between the two countries.

Question 7.
Discuss briefly Indo-American relations.
Answer:
India and U.S.A. are the two largest democracies in the world. During 1947-2001 the relations between the two countries were marked by two opposite features. On one side, there was a spirit of co-operation and friendship between the two countries. But on the other, their relations were strained and conflicting. There has been, however, a marked improvement in the relations between the two countries since 2000 A.D. Both these countries are fighting against terrorism

The U.S.A. had begun to give massive military aid to Pakistan. This was strongly opposed by India. The lowest point in the Indo-US relations came in 1971 when India signed the Treaty of peace, friendship and co-operation with the USSR. India’s peaceful nuclear explosion on May 18, 1974, at Pokhran was strongly criticised by the US leaders and the people. There has been a marked improvement in the relations between America and India since 2001 A.D. The President of the U.S.A. Barack Obama visited India in January 2015.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Describe one cause of tension between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan has been claiming Kashmir since independence whereas it is an integral part of India.

Question 2.
Describe one positive aspect of Indo-Pak relationship.
Answer:
On 17th Feb., 1999, India and Pakistan signed a formal agreement for launching the Delhi-Lahore Bus Service.

Question 3.
Give the names of the founder countries of the Non-alignment Movement.
Answer:
India, Yugoslavia and Egypt.

Question 4.
Mention any one object of the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
To maintain international peace and security.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 5.
Mention one important function of the Security Council.
Answer:
To help in maintaining international peace and security.

Question 6.
Throw light on any ope aspect of India’s policy of Non-alignment.
Answer:
Not to join any of the power blocs.

Question 7.
Mention any one cause for the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation was established to maintain peace in the world.

Question 8.
Give one example of the work done by the U.N. for world peace.
Answer:
In 1949, it made the Dutch forces to vacate Indonesia.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Human Rights?
Answer:
Human Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can be his best self.

Question 10.
Why is disarmament necessary? Give one reason.
Answer:
To save humanity from total destrubtidh.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 11.
What was Marshall Plan of America?
Answer:
The Marshall Plan was a big programme of American aid-to the European nations to rebuild their war shattered economies.

Question 12.
Why were SEATO and Baghdad pacts prepared by the U.S.A.?
Answer:
To check spread of communism.

Question 13.
What is India’s Atomic or Nuclear Policy?
Answer:
India wants to make’ the use of atomic energy.for constructive and peaceful purposes.

Question 14.
What is meant by atomic weapons?
Answer:
The weapons which are exploded by the use of atomic or nuclear energy are called atomic weapons.

Question 15.
Which powers colonised Africa?
Answer:
The continent of Africa was colonised by Britain, France, Italy, Portugal and Belgium.

Question 16.
When was Bangla Desh created?
Answer:
In 1971.

Question 17.
Write down the names of two permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
England and U.S.A.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 18.
What is meant by policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but to have friendly relations with all countries.

Question 19.
Write down the names of two organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
1. General Assembly and
2. Security Council.

Question 20.
Enumerate the number of non-permanent members of Security Council of UNO.
Answer:10.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
There are ____________ organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
six

Question 2.
United Nations was established on ___________
Answer:
24th October, 1945

Question 3.
Originally United Nations consisted of ___________ members.
Answer:
51

Question 4.
Pt. ___________ is rightly acknowledged as the chief architect of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 5.
The train characteristic of India’s foreign policy is ___________
Answer:
Non-alignment,

Question 6.
India has full faith in the ___________ of United Nations.
Answer:
principles

Question 7.
At present United Nations consists of ____________ members.
Answer:
193

Question 8.
The word ‘Panchsheel’ stands for principles.
Answer:
five

Question 9.
___________ is a major issue of conflict between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Kashmir

Question 10.
There are ___________ permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
five.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
China made a sudden attack on India in:
(a) August 1962
(b) September 1962
(c) October 1962
(d) September 1965.
Answer:
(c) October 1962

Question 2.
The Principles of Panchsheel were signed between the Heads of the Govt. of:
(a) India and China
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and Japan
(d) Inia and Nepal.
Answer:
(a) India and China

Question 3.
The architect of Non-alignment is:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Dr. Rajinder Praad
(c) Atal Behari Vajpaye
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 4.
India became a member of U.N. in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1960.
Answer:
(a) 1945

Question 5.
Which organ of United Nations has all the member states as Its members?
(a) Security Council
(b) General Assembly
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) Economic and Social Council.
Answer:
(b) General Assembly

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Bangladesh was established in:
(a) 1965
(b) 1972
(c) 1971
(d) 1970.
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 7.
International Court of Justice has _________________ Judges.
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 22
(d) 20.
Answer:
(a) 15

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a basic principle of India’s foreign policy?
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Friendly relations with other states
(c) Faith in United Nations
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.
Answer:
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.

Question 9.
Who was the first woman president of the U.N. General Assembly?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit
(d) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur.
Answer:
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a permament member of U.N. Security Council?
(a) India
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Russia
(d) England.
Answer:
(a) India

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are security and defence so important for India today?
Answer:
It was easier to defend the frontiers of India in ancient times. The Himalayas served as the sentinal in the north. The ocean protected us in the south. But now the high Himalayas and the deep oceans have lost their importance as the protectors of the country. Due to the progress of science and technology, the mountains ánd the seas are no longer barriers to check the enemy. So it has become very important for India to defend her borders. Secondly, our relations with some of our neighbours are not very friendly. We have to defend ourselves against them. So India’s need for defence and security is greater these days.

Question 2.
Write the names of any four organs of the United Nations. Explain one important function of each organ.
Answer:
Following are the four main organs of the United Nations.

  1. General Assembly,
  2. Security Council,
  3. Economic and Social Council and
  4. International Court of Justice.

Question 3.
Give some suggestions to Improve the relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
The relations between India and Pakistan can be improved by promoting common interests of both the countries.

The following steps should be taken in this direction:

  • Trade relations between both the countries should be strengthened.
  • Efforts should be made to improve cultural and educational relations between the two countries.
  • There should be friendly sports matches between the teams of the two countries.

Question 4.
When was the United Nations established? Mention its aims.
Answer:
The United Nations was established, on 24th October 1945. The number of its founder members was 51. But now about 209 countries of the world are its members. India is one of its founder members.

Following are its aims :

  • To settle the disputes between the states through peaceful means.
  • To promote friendly relations among the member states.
  • To find solutions to social and economic problems of the world.
  • To protect and uphold the freedom and rights of man.
  • To maintain world peace.
  • To strive hard to achieve these objects.

Question 5.
Write the full names of ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO. Write the functions of any two of these organisations.
Answer:
ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO are specialized agencies of the United Nations.
1. ILO: Its full name is International Labour Organisation.
Its functions are as under :

  • It tries to improve the living and. working conditions of the labourers.
  • To fix minimum wages and hours of work for the workers.

2. UNESCO: Its full name is United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation. Its main function is to promote educational, scientific and cultural co-operation among the member nations of the world.

3. FAO: Its full name is Food and Agricultural Organisation. Its main function is to
formulate schemes to increase agricultural production and consider the food situation of all the nations. . ,

4. WHO: Its full name is World Health Organisation. Its main function is to protect the health of people and to eradicate diseases.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Write a short note on the following :
(i) SAARC
(ii) Veto Power.
Answer:
(i) SAARC: Its full name is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. It is an organisation of developing countries of South Asia. Its members are—India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Maldives. Some similarities are found in the cultural and economic problems of these countries. The representatives of these countries sit together to solve their problems and promote mutual cooperation.

(ii) Veto Power: The permanent members of the Security Council possess Veto power. These members are United States, Britain, China, France and Russia. For all effective decisions of this body, the unanimity of these five big powers is compulsory. This implies that these big powers have a veto on all important decisions of the council and anyone of these five powers can prevent it from taking any action against any country.

Question 7.
Mention some positive aspects of Indo-China relationship.
Answer:

  1. Both the countries have agreed to solve their border dispute through a special committee consisting of officials from the both sides.
  2. Both the countries have agreed to extend economic co-operation to each other. There is a considerable increase in the trade between the two countries.
  3. In 1988, the then Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi, visited China. The Chinese Prisident visited India in December 1991 and again in 2014. The way for the restoration of friendly relations between the two countries became clear. Since then many good-will missions have’been exchanged between the two countries.

Question 8.
Write down six features of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:

  • To make efforts for security and peace in the world.
  • To support the movements for self-determination in the colonies.
  • To oppose racialism.
  • Settlement of international disputes by peaceful methods.
  • To co-operate with U.N.O. and its Specialized Agencies.
  • To support the Non-Alignment movement and to remain away from the military blocs.

Question 9.
Write a short note on United N&tibns’ Security Council.
Answer:
The United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. The UNSC was formed in 1945 following World War II to address the failings of the previoifs international organisation i.e. the League of Nations to maintain world peace. The Security Council consists of 15 members. Soviet Union (Russia), United Kingdom, France, China and United States of America are its five permanent members. These countries can veto any resolution. There are 10 non-permanent members elected on regional basis to serve for a term of two years. The Council held its first session on 17th January, 1946.

Question 10.
What is the contribution of India to promote world peace?
Answer:
Following the policy of Non-Alignment, Indi%has always condemned colonialism and imperialism.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 11.
Enumerate six main organs of the U. N. O.
Answer:
Following are the names of the chief organs of the U. N. 0.:

  • The General Assembly.
  • The Security Council.
  • Economic and Social Council.
  • The Trusteeship Council.
  • The Secretariat.
  • International Court of Justice.

Question 12.
Name five permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
Following are the names of five permanent members of the Security Council of the U.N. – United States of America, Great Britain, Russia, China, and France.

Question 13.
Briefly explain the International Court of Justice.
Answer:
There is a total of fifteen judges in the International Court of Justice. Its headquarter is the Hague in Holland. Its main task is to settle the disputes between the U.N.O.’s member countries.

Question 14.
Write down a note on Secretary-General of the U. N.O.
Answer:
The head of the Secretariate of U.N.O. is called Secretary-General. He is appointed by the U. N. Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council for five years. Now Antonio Guterres is Secretary-General of UNO.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do we write balanced chemical equations?
Answer:
To understand the method to write balanced chemical equation, let us take an example.
Zinc + Sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + hydrogen This equation can be written as below
Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2

Check the number of atoms on both sides of the arrow.

Element No. of atoms in reactants (LHS) No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Zn 1 1
H 2 2
S 1 1
0 4 4

In the equation, number of atoms are same on the both sides of the arrow, thus it is balanced chemical equation.
Now let us try to balance the following chemical equation
Fe + H2O → Fe3O4 + H2

Step I: Make a list of atoms of different elements in the unbalanced equation

Element No. of atoms in reactants (LHS) No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Fe 1 3
H 2 2
0 1 4

Step II: Choose a compound with maximum number of atoms for balancing whether it is reactant or product. Choose an element with maximum number of atoms in the choosen compound. On this basis we choose Fe3O4 and in it we choose the element oxygen. On the right, there are four atoms of oxygen and on the left only one.

To balance, oxygen atom

Atoms of oxygen In reactants In product
(i) initially 1 (In H2O) 4 (In Fe3O4)
(iii) after balancing 1 × 4 4

To equalize the number of atoms, we can not change the formulae of elements and compounds taking part in the reaction e.g. to balance oxygen atoms we can put coefficient ‘4’ and can write 4H20 but we cannot write H204 or (H2O)4 or (H2O4).

A partially balanced equation will be
Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + H2
(Partially balanced equation)

Step III: Fe and H are still unbalanced. Choose any one and move ahead. To balance hydrogen atoms, on left side, make number at atoms of hydrogen ‘4’.

Atoms of hydrogen In reactants In product
Initially 8 (4 In H2O) 2 (In H2)
After balancing 8 2 × 4

Now equation becomes
Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

Step IV: Check the above equation and choose third element which still is unbalanced. We will find that only iron is the element, which remains to be balanced.

To balance Fe we take 3 atoms of Fe on the left side.
3Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

Step V: At the end, let us count the number ofatoms of elements on both sides of the equation
3 Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2 (Balanced equation)

Number of atoms of every element on both sides of the equation are equal. Therefore this equation is now balanced. This method of balancing chemical equations is known as hit and trial method because we use smallest integral coefficient to balance the equation.

Step VI: To write the symbols for physical states. There is no information given about the physical state in the above balanced equation.
To make chemical equation more informative, write the physical states with the reactants and products. To represent the states of solid, liquid, gas, aqueous of the reactants and products we write (s), (l), (g) and (aq) respectively with them. When reactant or product is present in the form of solution in water then word (aq) is written.

Thus, balanced equation will be
3Fe(s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
when (g) is used with water, then it means that water is used in the form of steam in the reaction. Usually, physical state is not mentioned in the chemical equation until it is very necessary.

Sometimes the conditions of the reaction like temperature, pressure, catalyst etc. are shown over or under the arrow e.g.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Question 2.
Give types of chemical reactions with examples.
Answer:
The various types of chemical reactions are :
1. Combination reactions: In these reactions two or more than two reactants combine to form a single product. Such reactions are known as combination reactions.

Example: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydoxide (slaked lime) and a lot of heat is evolved.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2
In this reaction calcium oxide and water combine to give single product calcium hydroxide.

2. Dissociation or Decomposition reactions: In these reactions single reactant breaks into two or more than two new substances. Such reactions are called dissociation reactions.

Examples of dissociation reaction :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

3. Displacement reactions: When an element displaces another element from a compound, then it is called displacement reaction.

Examples:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

4. Double displacement reactions. In such a reaction two different atoms or group of atoms exchange themselves with each other.

Example :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 6

Question 3.
Briefly describe oxidation and reduction with suitable examples.
Answer:
Oxidation. Oxidation of a substance takes place in a reaction when there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen in it and opposite to it reduction takes places when there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Example: A black coating of copper (II) oxide is seen on copper powder. Why this black substance is formed?
This copper oxide is formed due to combination of copper with oxygen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 7
If on this heated substance hydrogen gas is allowed to flow, this black coloured coating changes into brown colour because in these circumstances reverse reaction takes place and copper is again obtained.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 8
When there is gain of oxygen in a substance in a reaction we say oxidation of the substance has taken place and when there is loss of oxygen we say reduction of the substance has taken place.

There is loss of oxygen in copper (II) oxide, therefore it gets reduced. There is gain of oxygen in hydrogen, therefore it is oxidized. Thus, in a reaction one of the reactant is oxidized and other reactant is reduced. Such type of reactions are called reduction-oxidation reactions or redox reactions.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 9

Other examples of redox reaction are :

  • ZnO + C → Zn + CO
  • MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
  • In this reaction carbon is oxidized to become CO and ZnO is reduced to Zn.
  • In this reaction HCl is oxidized to Cl2 and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2.

Question 4.
Balance the following chemical equations.
(i) H2 + N2 → NH3
Answer:
3H2 + N2 → 2NHg

(ii) BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → AlCl3 + BaSO4
Answer:
3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)2 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4

(iii) H2S + O2 → SO2 + H2O
Answer:
2H2S + 3O2 → 2SO2 + 2H2O

(iv) KBr + BaI2 → KI +BaBr2
Answer:
2KBr + BaI2 → 2KI + BaBr2

(v) Al + CuCl2 → AlCl3 + Cu
Answer:
2Al + 3CuCl2 → 2AlCl3 + 3Cu

(vi) AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 +Ag
Answer:
2AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag

(vii) Al (OH)3 → Al2O3 + H2O
Answer:
2Al(OH)3 → Al2O3 + 3H2O

(viii) NH3 + CuO → Cu + N2 + H2O
Answer:
2NH3 + 3CuO → Cu + N2 + 3H2O

(ix) KClO3 → KCl + O2
Answer:
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2

(x) BaCl2 + K2SO4 → 2BaSO4 + KCl
Answer:
BaCl2 + K2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2KCl.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples from our daily life to show that chemical changes do take place in our daily life.
Answer:

  1. Fermentation of grapes take place.
  2. Our body digests the food.
  3. In summer, if milk is left in the room, we can see a change in it as it becomes sour.

Question 2.
Differentiate between balanced and skeletal chemical equation.
Answer:
Balanced equation. If number of atoms of each element are same before and after the reaction, then such a reaction is balanced chemical reaction.

Skeletal chemical equation. When number of atoms of each element before and after the reaction are not same then such a chemical equation is called skeletal Chemical equation.

Question 3.
What are the necessary requirements while writing a chemical equation?
Answer:
These are :

  • It represents a true chemical change.
  • It should be balanced.
  • It should represent physical states of the reactants and products.
  • It should indicate the necessary conditions required for the reaction to occur.
  • It should represent heat changes during reactions.

Question 4.
Give one example each of balanced and skeletal equation.
Answer:
2KCl + O2 → 2 KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
This is example of balanced equation.
Zn + AgNO3(aq) → Zn (NO3)2 + Ag
This is example of skeletal equation.

Question 5.
Give chemical formula for slaked lime and one use of it.
Answer:
Chemical formula -Ca(OH)2. Solution of slaked lime is used for white washing the buildings.

Question 6.
Why there is a shine on the walls after two-three days of white washing?
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with carbon dioxide present in the air and form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. After 2-3 days of white wash, calcium carbonate is formed due to which there is a shine on the walls.

Question 7.
Give chemical formula of marble and give reaction to show bow it is formed?
Answer:
Marble is also known as calcium carbonate.
Its chemical formula is CaCO3 Reaction to show its formation
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 10

Question 8.
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
How oxidation and reduction in the above reaction is taking place? What is the name of such reaction?
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 11
Such a reaction is called redox reaction.

Question 9.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 12
Complete the above reaction and tell the colour of the product.
Answer:
Above reaction is :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 13
colour of PbO is yellow.

Question 10.
Give colours of following solutions.
1. FeSO4
Answer:
FeSO4 → green

2. CuS04
Answer:
CuSO4 → blue

Question 11.
What is rusting? What is the chemical formula of rust. What is its loss?
Answer:
New articles made up of iron are shiny but after some time a reddish brown coating is seen on their surface. Usually it is called rusting of iron.

Chemical formula of rust – Fe2O3.H2O (Hydrated iron (III) oxide)
It is powdery substance that gets removed from the surface and due to this iron articles are getting damaged.

Question 12.
Fats are oils containing foods, when kept for long time then what change take place in them? What is name of this process?
Answer:
Fats and oils containing foods, when kept for long time, results in the change of their taste and smell. This process is named as rancidity.

Question 13.
How can we stop rancidity?
Answer:

  • To slower down the rate of oxidation, antioxidants are added to food items.
  • By keeping food items in air tight containers.
  • By flushing nitrogen gas in packets of chips so as to stop the oxidation of chips.

Question 14.
Zinc metal can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. But copper metal can not displace zinc from the solution of Zinc sulphate. Give reason.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. Copper is less reactive than zinc thus copper can not displace zinc from zinc sulphate solution.

Question 15.
What happens when zinc rod is placed in copper sulphate solution? Give chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It wall displace copper from solution of copper sulphate and zinc sulphate is formed. Blue colour of the solution of copper sulphate change to white slowly.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 14

Question 16.
What is lime mitigation? Why there is sound of shuun-shuun in this process? Give chemical equation representing the reaction.
Answer:
When quick lime is mixed with water, it changes to slaked lime. This is lime mitigation. This is a exothermic reaction and heat is evolved due to which there is sound of shuun-shuun is produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 15

Question 17.
Write names of the substances which got reduced and oxidized.
1. SO2 + 3H2S → 2H3O + 3S
Answer:
In SO2, S is reduced and in H2S, S is oxidized.

2. 2Al + 3HCl → 2AlCl2 + 3H2
Answer:
Aluminium is reduced and chlorine is oxidized.

3. 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and sulphur is reduced.

4. Zn + 2AgNOa → An (NO3)2 + 3Ag
Answer:
Zinc is oxidised and silver is reduced.

5. H2 + CuO → Cu + H2O.
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and copper is reduced.

Question 18.
What does a complete chemical equation represent and why is it necessary to balance a chemical equation?
Answer:
A complete chemical equation represents reactants, products and their physical state in a symbolic form.
A chemical equation is balanced so that number of atoms of every element in reactants and products becomes equal. Therefore it is necessary to balance the chemical equation.

Question 19.
What type of reactions are combustion of coal and formation of water? Represent by chemical equation.
Answer:
1. Combustion of Coal:
C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

2. Formation of water from H2 and O2 :
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)

Question 20.
How is dissociation reaction different from combination reaction?
Answer:
In a combination reaction two or more than two substance combine to give a single new substance where as in dissociation reaction a single substance breaks or dissociates into two or more than two new substances.

Question 21.
Give two examples of dissociation reaction.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 16

Question 22.
What is the difference between oxidation and reduction?
Answer:
In reaction, some substance gain or loose oxygen and hydrogen. If there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen from a substance then it is called oxidation. Loss of oxygen and gain of hydrogen is called reduction.

Question 23.
Give two examples of corrosion.
Answer:
Examples of corrosion are :

  1. black coating on silver
  2. green coating on copper.

Question 24.
Which type of reaction is shown in figure given below and define it.
Answer:
Displacement Reaction. It is a reaction in which more active element (metal or non-metal) displaces less active element (metal or non-metal) from its solution of its compound.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 17

Question 25.
What is shown in the figure given ahead? Also indicate 1 and 2 in the figure .
Answer:
The figure represents electro-lysis of water :

  1. Oxygen gas
  2. Hydrogen gas

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 18

Question 26.
The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the following questions:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 19
(i) Identify the type of chemical reaction.
Answer:
Photochemical decomposition

(ii) Write the chemical equations.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 20

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do we get on the combustion of magnesium ribbon?
Answer:
We get a white powder of Magnesium oxide.

Question 2.
What is law of conservation of mass?
Answer:
In any chemical reaction, mass can neither be created nor destroyed.

Question 3.
Define balanced chemical equation.
Answer:
If number of atoms of each element before and after the chemical reaction are equal, then such a chemical reaction is balanced equation.

Question 4.
Give one example of balanced equation.
Answer:
3 Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2.

Question 5.
If (g) is written with water, then what does it represent?
Answer:
Water is in the form of vapour or steam.

Question 6.
Sometimes we show the conditions of a reaction like pressure, temperature, catalyst etc. where do we write it.
Answer:
Above and below the arrow.

Question 7.
How does a new substance form in a chemical reaction?
Answer:
By breaking and making of bonds between atoms.

Question 8.
Define combination reaction.
Answer:
A reaction in which two or more than two reactants combine to give single product is called combination reaction.

Question 9.
What is the use of slaked lime?
Answer:
For whitewashing the buildings.

Question 10.
Write chemical formula for Marble.
Answer:
CaCO3.

Question 11.
What do we get on the combustion of natural gas?
Answer:
CO2, H2O and energy.

Question 12.
Write formula for ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
FeSO4.7H2O.

Question 13.
What is formed of grey colour from silver chloride in sun light?
Answer:
Silver metal.

Question 14.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 21
Where is above reaction used?
Answer:
Black and white photography.

Question 15.
Why after some time shining iron articles become dull?
Answer:
Due to rust.

Question 16.
What is the colour of rust coating on iron?
Answer:
Brown colour.

Question 17.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
When a metal comes in contact with moisture, acid etc. it gets corroded and the process is called corrosion.

Question 18.
What is the colour of coating on silver due to corrosion?
Answer:
Black coating.

Question 19.
What is the colour of coating on copper due to corrosion?
Answer:
Green coating.

Question 20.
Due to which process, there is a change in smell and taste of food items which contain fat and oils?
Answer:
This change is due to oxidation and is called rancidity.

Question 21.
What do the manufacturer of chips flush in the packets of chips to prevent oxidation?
Answer:
Nitrogen gas.

Question 22.
What is the colour of coating of copper(II) oxide?
Answer:
Black colour.

Question 23.
What is other name of oxidation-reduction reaction.
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Question 24.
When does oxidation of substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is gain of O2 or loss of H2.

Question 25.
When does reduction of a substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is loss of O2 or gain of H2.

Question 26.
White coloured silver chloride change to which colour in sunlight?
Answer:
In grey colour.

Question 27.
Give one example of endothermic reaction.
Answer:
3AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)

Question 28.
In w hat calcium carbonate dissociate when heat is given to it?
Answer:
Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

Question 29.
Write chemical formula for slaked lime.
Answer:
Ca(OH)2.

Question 30.
What is special there in potato, rice and bread?
Answer:
Carbohydrate.

Question 31.
What do we get on the decomposition of carbohydrate?
Answer:
Glucose.

Question 32.
Write the reaction for combination of natural gas?
Answer:
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + energy.

Question 33.
What type of reaction is combination of coal and formation of water from H2 and O2?
Answer:
Combination reaction.

Question 34.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 22
What is A in above reaction.
Answer:
Chlorophyll.

Question 35.
What is skeletal chemical equation?
Answer:
If in a chemical reaction, number of atoms of each element on left hand side is not equal to number of atoms of each element on right hand side such a reaction is called skeletal chemical equation.

Question 36.
What are products?
Answer:
In a chemical reaction new substances are formed which are known as products.

Question 37.
What are reactants?
Answer:
Those substances which take part in a chemical reaction and undergo chemical changes are called reactants.

Question 38.
What is reduction reaction?
Answer:
It is a reaction in which there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Question 39.
What is oxidation reaction?
Answer:
It is reaction in which there is loss of hydrogen or gain of oxygen.

Question 40.
If in a reaction one reactant is reduced and other is oxidised, what is name of such a reaction?
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The chemical reaction given below represents :
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) →
BaSO4(s) + 2 NaCl(aq)
(A) Decomposition reaction
(B) Displacement reaction
(C) Combination reaction
(D) Double diplacement reaction.
Answer:
(D) Double displacement reaction

Question 2.
The chemical reaction in which heat energy is given out is called:
(A) Exothermic reaction
(B) Endothermic reaction
(C) Polymerisation reaction
(D) All.
Answer:
(A) Exothermic reaction

Question 3.
During electrolysis, hydrogen and oxygen are produced in the ratio by volume :
(A) 2:1
(B) 1:1
(C) 2:2
(D) 4:1.
Answer:
(A) 2: 1.

Question 4.
The chemical formula of rust is:
(A) Fe2O3
(B) FeCO3
(C) Fe2O3 .xH2O
(D) FeCO3 xH2O.
Answer:
(C) Fe2O3 .xH2O

Question 5.
Which is an example of a decomposition reaction?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 23
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 24

Question 6.
Redox reaction involves:
(A) Oxidation
(B) Reduction
(C) Both oxidation and reduction
(D) None.
Answer:
(C) Both oxidation and reduction

Question 7.
In a packet of chips oxygen is replaced by gas:
(A) CO2
(B) SO2
(C) N2
(D) O3.
Answer:
(C) N2

Question 8.
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
What type of chemical reaction is shown by the above equation?
(A) Combination reaction
(B) Dissociation reaction
(C) Displacement reaction
(D) Double displacement reaction.
Answer:
(C) Displacement reaction.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Complete the following chemical equation.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 25
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 26

Question 2.
Respiration is an ________ reaction.
Answer:
Respiration is an exothermic reaction.

Question 3.
Rusting of iron is a ________ reaction.
Answer:
Rusting iron is a redox reaction.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Plant Clinic Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
In which year plant clinic was established at Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana?
Answer:
In 1993.

Question 2.
How many plant clinics have been established by Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana in Punjab?
Answer:
Plant clinics are running at 18 Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKS) in various districts and four at regional research stations Abohar, Bathinda and Gurdaspur and Department of Fruit science, PAU, Ludhiana.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 3.
Where is plant clinic located at PAU?
Answer:
PAU clock tower, located near gate no. 1 at PAU campus.

Question 4.
Name any two instruments/tool being used in the plant at clinics?
Answer:
Computer, Microscope, scissors, knife etc.

Question 5.
Name the principle based on which the exact quantity of pesticides is calculated to control insect pests on different crops.
Answer:
Economic threshold level.

Question 6.
Name the instrument with the help of which one can observe the pictures on slides.
Answer:
Projector.

Question 7.
Name the tool used to observe the small disease specimens under field conditions.
Answer:
Microscope.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 8.
Name any two chemicals used for preservation of diseased plant specimens.
Answer:
Formalin, acetic acid.

Question 9.
Mention the email address of plant clinic located at Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana.
Answer:
[email protected].

Question 10.
Mention the telephone number of plant clinic situated at PAU, Ludhiana.
Answer:
0161-240-1960 with extension 417. Mobile number: 9463048181.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What is plant clinic?
Answer:
Plant clinic is a place where diagnosis and remedial measures for diseased plants, nutrient deficiency, insect attack etc. are provided to the farmers.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of Plant Clinic?
Answer:

  • Diagnosis and remedial measures for plants are provided.
  • Various experts are available at all times in the plant clinic for quick redressal of day to day problems faced by farmers.
  • Farmers can get solutions to their problems through email, mobile phone, whatsapp.

Question 3.
How plant clinic differ from human hospitals?
Answer:
In human hospitals, diseases of human beings are identified and treated. Whereas in plant clinic besides treating diseased plants, training and education to identify diseased plants is also given.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
Mention the disiciplines / subjects used for the identification of plant specimens.
Answer:
In these clinics attack of disease, nutrient deficiency, insect attack and other reasons which are harming plants are studied. Disciplines which are used to identify plant, specimen etc. at plant clinic are plant pathology, entomology, soil sciences, agronomy etc.

Question 5.
Enlist the equipments being used in plant clinic.
Answer:
Following equipments are required at plant clinic:
Microscope, magnifying lenses, chemicals, incubator, scissors, knife, computer, photo camera, projector, books, etc.

Question 6.
What is the importance of microscope in plant clinic?
Answer:
Plant is dissected to see the symptoms of disease by using microscope. Actual colour, small identification marks etc. are also seen by using microscope.

Question 7.
What do you understand from the term “Economic Threshold Level”?
Answer:
To protect plants from diseases and insects, fertilizers and insecticides should be used after properly calculating the required dose of these. When number of insects increased upto a specific number or affect a specified number of plants of the crop. Spray of pesticide should start after this level has reached. This way crop as well as farmers will get some benefit. This is known as economic threshold level.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 8.
Comment on the use of computer in plant clinic.
Answer:
Some specimens cannot be preserved either wet or dry. Such samples are scanned and stored in computer. These can be used when needed.

Question 9.
How incubator is useful in diagnosis of microorganisms in plants?
Answer:
Media after inoculation with pathogen is placed in incubator which is set at appropriate temperature and proper moisture is provided for the proper growth of pathogen. This is used for identification of other organisms also.

Question 10.
Enlist the chemicals required for the preservation of plant specimen in glass jars.
Answer:
For this work formalin, alcohol etc. is used.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Describe the mobile diagnosis-cum-exhibition van.
Answer:
To make the reach of plant clinics upto the villages, plant clinics have mobile diagnostics cum exhibition van. This van has the facilities in it for diagnosis and for exhibition. It has various equipments in it and it has the facility to show movies of technical know how to farmers, Agricultural experts provide remedies at the spot after testing and knowing their problems. Farmers are gaining a lot from this van.

Question 2.
What is the use of camera and Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) projector in plant clinic?
Answer:
Camera is used to take photographs of diseased plants. These photographs and slides are kept safe in the plant clinic. These are shown to the students for further reference. Scientists can also take help from these photos. Projector is used to see these slides. It can show enlarged view of photos and slides.

Question 3.
Define PAU doots and KMAS service of plant clinic.
Answer:
PAU doots is a new service introduced by clinic plants in which some farmers are enrolled as ‘PAU doots’ who are given the responsibility to disseminate the agriculture technology: These doots disseminate the information, which they get regularly through mobile messages and emails, to the fellow farmers using public address system.

KMAS is Kisan Mobile Advisory Service which is provided by Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) to the farmers for adopting advanced and new agricultural practices at their field. Messages are sent to the fellow farmers for spreading the technology related information.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
What is touch screen Kisok and farmer service centre?
Answer:
Plant clinic has a computerized touch screen Kisok which is called information booth. It pictorially explains the production and protection technology of rabi and Kharif crops from sowing till harvesting. Plant clinic was made a part of Farmer Service Centre (FSC) in 1999 and now it is known as agricultural technology information centre. Various types of problem of allied activities related to agriculture are taken. This is very helpful centre for the farmer.

Question 5.
Describe the services provided by plant clinic to the farmers. Or What are the advantages of plant clinic?
Answer:

  • In Plant Clinic identification of deficiency of nutritional elements in plants is done and also identification of harmful insects is also done.
  • After identifying the symptoms of the diseased plarfts brought from the fields, methods to prevent diseases are suggested on the spot.
  • In Plant Clinic training is given to identify the symptoms of diseases and insects.
  • Training is given to calculate the required amount of fertilizers and insecticides etc. to be applied to the crop so that unnecessary expenditure can be avoided.
  • Training is also given about the economic threshold of main insects of different crops. This helps in knowing exact amount of fertilizers and insecticides to be used or applied.
  • Training for using different types of spray pumps and other agriculture implements is also given.
  • Students are shown various types of diseased plants and are trained to treat such plants. This help in reducing the expenditure of the fanners.
  • Photographs of various types of implements, fertilizers, pumps, plant sample, seed and other items used for studying plants are kept at the plant clinic.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Plant Clinic Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Name of chemical used for preservation of diseased plant specimens.
(a) Formalin
(b) Gulocose
(c) Sodium bromide
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Formalin

Question 2.
In which year plant clinic was established in. PAU?
(a) 2010
(b) 1993
(c) 1980
(d) 1955.
Answer:
(b) 1993

Question 3.
Which tool is tised to diagnose micro organisms in plants?
(a) microscope
(b) incubation
(c) Projector
(d) All.
Answer:
(b) incubation

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
In how many Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) are plant clinics working?
(a) 1
(b) 27
(c) 18
(d) 22.
Answer:
(c) 18

Question 5.
What is the e-mail address of plant clinic of Punjab Agriculture University?
(a) www.gadvasu.in
(b) www.pddb.in
(c) [email protected]
(d) www.pau.edu.
Answer:
(c) [email protected]

Question 6.
Mention the landline telephone number of plant clinic situated at Punjab Agricultural University.
(a) 0161-2401960 Extension-417
(b) 94630-48181
(c) [email protected]
(d) www.pau.edu.
Answer:
(a) 0161-2401960 Extension-417

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

True False:

1. PAU established Central Plant Clinic at Ludhiana in 1993.
Answer:
True

2. Various types of equipments and apparatus are required in the plant clinic.
Answer:
True

3. No chemicals are required in plant clinic.
Answer:
False

4. e-mail address of plant clinic at Punjab Agricultural University is [email protected].
Answer:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Fill in the blanks:

1. To see various symptoms of disease, we use ………….. .
Answer:
microscope

2. One of the chemical used to preserve fresh symptoms of various plants is …………. .
Answer:
formaldehyde

3. Computer, ………… are important part of plant clinic.
Answer:
scanners

4. Plants are dissected using knife, ……………..etc.
Answer:
scissors.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give one reason due to which yield is reduced.
Answer:
Deficiency of nutrients, diseases, attack of insects.

Question 2.
Which instrument is used to see the symptoms of diseases?
Answer:
Microscope.

Question 3.
What is used for disection of plants?
Answer:
Knife, scissors etc.

Question 4.
Which equipment is used to observe micro organisms?
Answer:
Incubator.

Question 5.
At which mobile number one can contact plant clinic?
Answer:
9463048181.

Question 6.
Which type of van is used by plant clinic at PAU for giving technical knowledge to villagers?
Answer:
Mobile diagnostic cum exhibition van.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 7.
Write name of any one chemical which is used in plant clinic?
Answer:
Formalin.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the need of knife in the plant clinic?
Answer:
Knife is used to dissect the plant so that it can be viewed under the microscope.

Question 2.
What is the use of magnifying lens in plant clinic?
Answer:
This is used Ip see small parts of plants, insects and other smaller organism and to identify them.

Question 3.
Which service has been started by plant clinic so as to reach the villagers?
Answer:
PAU doot and KMAS service has been started. Farmers can register their email and mobile number with the plant clinic to” get benefits.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by economic threshold? Describe in detail.
Answer:
Before applying insecticides, their exact amount required for the particular crop is first calculated. This way plants can get maximum benefit and expenditure is also minimum. Many problems are created if insecticides f are used in excess of what is required or if these are unnecessarily used. e.g. insects become resistant to the use of insecticides, these become habitual rather than dying, friendly insects are also killed, the insects which were not harmful earlier may start harming the crop, whole of the environment gets polluted.

Every year the same insect does not attack the crop to the same extent. On one year the attack is intense on the other year it may be moderate or mild. Therefore, one should take proper care while using these drags. Insecticides should be used only when the number of insects reach a particular level for a given crop. This way plant get more benefit and expenditure is also lowered.

Number of insects should not be allowed to increase from the specified value and do not allow these to damage the crop. Farmers should not get monetary loss due to unnecessary use of drugs. Sometime the signs of attack are counted and not the number of insects e.g. Stemborer in rice. Its attacked sites are counted and not actual number of insects.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 2.
Criticise the future of economic clinics.
Answer:
This is a competition age. Therefore, farmers should not allow the nutrient deficiencies to occur in their crops and also should take proper measures to protect the crop from diseases. This way he can earn more profit. The agriculture is now not limited only to state or country but has extended to international level. Produce has to be exported to other countries.

If produce is of good quality one can earn more profit. Help from plant clinic can be taken to maintain the proper quality of the crop. Nutrient deficiencies can be checked and proper fertilizers can be used to overcome the deficiencies. Amount of insecticide or fertilizers to be used can be calculated and expenditure on these poisons can be reduced. Unnecessary use of these poisons also harm the whole of environment Therefore, plant clinics have an important role to play in future.

Question 3.
Which facilities are available at plant clinic?
Answer:

  • Farmers are given technical knowledge at plant clinics.
  • Diagonsis of diseases is done, their symptoms are noted. Damage of crop by insects is also estimated.
  • Soil and water testing facility is also available.
  • Farmers can contact plant clinic through telephone, e-mail and whats app and can get solution to their problems.
  • Plant clinic has a diagnostic cum exhibition mobile van, which is used to reach villagers and films are shown to farmers having technical information.
  • PAU has started PAU messengers and KMAS service. Farmers can register their phone no. and e-mail with the plant clinic.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
Explain the need of plant clinic by telling its history.
Answer:
For the last few years there is an increase in number of students from cities who are seeking admission in higher education courses related to agriculture. These students do not have much of practical knowledge about agriculture works and when they go to the field work after getting higher education degrees, they face so many practical problems.

First plant disease clinic was set up by PAU Ludhiana in 1978 and later on PAU Ludhiana established central plant clinic in 1993. In different districts there are 18 agriculture science centres, where plant clinics are also running. These clinics have proved very useful for the students. Because of this principle farmers are getting knowledge and information about the nutritional deficiencies in their crops and protection against diseases, thus they are earning more profit.

Question 5.
What is plant clinic? What is the use of computer in plant clinic?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Marching Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Marching Game Rules.

Marching Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
What is marching?
Answer:
Marching:
1. Attention:
It is very important position. The ankle of the feet should be in line, making the 30° angle should be straight along with body, chest should be normal. Both the arms are attached with side of the body and finger should be little close.

2. The neck should be straight by looking ahead the body. Weight should be on both feet and respiration should be normal.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Stand at Ease:
Stand at ease position move left foot toward, left side at the distance 12″. The weight of the body should be on both legs and drag both the hands behind. His body and right hand would be under the left hand. The thumb of right hand should be under left hand. At ease position, both the hand should be stretched keeping the finger stretched.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2
Right Dress:
On the command of right dress, all students move ahead with right foot and get the position at the distance of 15″, but a student standing at right will remain standing, student in a first row raise right hand, left shoulders and move towards left. The fingers load others, students would stand to his right hand and other would follow, they would keep at the distance of 30″.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 3
Left Dress: On getting command left dress, all movement will be followed by left hand.

Left Turn:
In this exercise, student will stand in attention position and counting two. On counting one, student will turn left side at the 90° and on left toe and right finger will raise upward after this exercise. On counting two, will raise a foot 6″ and meet with other foot.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 4
Right Turn:
This exercise is performed on counting two as it is done on left turn. In the same way right ankle or left foot is done.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 5
About Turn:
On command of about turn, student will turn back from the right side at the degree of 180°, while taking turn left, foot will be raise and turn on right foot. The body weight should be parallel on both feet on counting two, student will turn left foot and will remain in attention position.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 6
Quick March:
On command quick march, student will take left foot ahead. This foot will drag near the earth keeping knee straight, in this same way, right foot will be followed. The finger of hand will close, this exercise is performed after taking right foot ahead and repeat again and again. The hand position with be contrast to it. This exercise will be continue on counting one and two.

Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Halt:
The command of halt is given, when right foot is the cross to the left foot. As command is given to students, as soon as will touch the left foot to the earth. Right leg will come to the parallel, and they will stand. Their both hands will be together and student will remain in attention position.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB The State Government Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
How many Chambers a State Legislative Assembly has? Give their names.
Answer:
In many states of India, the State Legislatures have one House. Some State Legislatures have two Houses. Where the State Legislature has two Houses, these are Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad. Where there is only one House, the name of the House is Vidhan Sabha pr Legislative Assembly.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions concerning State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
(a) The qualifications to become its member.
Answer:
Essential qualifications for a person to become the member of the Legislative Assembly or the Vidhan Sabha. Following are the essential qualifications for a person to become the member of the Vidhan Sabha :

  • He must be a citizen of India.
  • He must have completed 25 years of age.
  • He must not be either an insolvent or a bankrupt or of unsound fnind.
  • He must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the State Government.

(b) The maximum and minimum number of its members as per the Constitution.
Answer:
Number of Members. The number of members of the Vidhan Sabha is fixed by the Parliament on the basis of the population of the state concerned. It can have a maximum membership of 500 and a minimum of 60 persons.

(c) Mention the stages, an ordinary bill has to pass through.
Answer:
Stages of an ordinary bill. An ordinary bill, before becoming an act, has to pass through the following stages; At the first stage, the bill is introduced in the House and its first reading is done. At the second stage, a general discussion on each clause of the bill takes place. At the third stage, the debate is confined to the acceptance or rejection of the bill.

(d) The minimum age required to become the member of the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
Minimum age limit for the member of the Vidhan Sabha.
The minimum age limit for contesting election to the Vidhan Sabha is 25 years.

(e) How is the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly elected?
Answer:
Election of the Speaker. The Speaker presides over the meetings of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and maintains discipline and decorum in the House. He is elected by the House from amongst its own members.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
Answer the following questions concerning Legislative Council of a state :
(а) How many members can be there of the Legislative Council?
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Vidhan Parishad. The Vidhan Parishad is the upper House of the State Legislature. The maximum strength of this House is fixed at one-third of the membership of the Vidhan Sabha and a minimum of 40 members.

(b) Mention the term of the members of Legislative Council.
Answer:
Term of the members of Legislative Council.
The Legislative Council is a permanent house. The term of members is six years but one-third of its members retire after every two years.

(c) Mention the term of the members of Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The term of the members of Legislative Assembly is 5 years but the Assembly can be dismissed by the President by using Article 356 even before the completion of its term.

(d) Name four states where the Lagislative Council Exists.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh have Legislative Councils. It means these states have bicameral legislature.

Question 4.
Enumerate the four powers of the State Legislature.
Answer:
Following are the main powers of the State Legislature :

  • To exercise control over the Council of Ministers.
  • To pass the budget, and to impose, reduce or repeal taxes.
  • To make laws on the subjects included in the State List and the Concurrent List.
  • To punish those who violate the discipline of the House.

Question 5.
Do your state has bicameral legislatuse?
Answer:
Punjab has a unicameral legislature called Vidhan Sabha. Punjab has no Second Chamber or Vidhan Parishad.

Question 6.
How is the Governor of a State appointed?
Answer:
The Governor is the constitutional head of a state. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.

Question 7.
Who and how is a Chief Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor. He appoints a person who is the leader of the majority party in the State Vidhan Sabha.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 8.
Examine the role of the Governor during President’s rule in a state.
Answer:
If the President is satisfied either on the recommendation of the Governor or otherwise that the government cannot be carried on in a State in accordance with the Constitution, he declares constitutional emergency in the state. The Governor can dismiss the Council of Ministers and dissolve the Vidhan Sabha. He becomes the real head of the State.

Question 9.
Mention the term of the office of the Governor.
Answer:
The term of the Governor is five years. But before the expiry of this term, he can be removed from his office by the President. The President can ask him to hold this office even after five years of his term.

Question 10.
Name the three lists under which powers between union and states are distributed.
Answer:
There are three lists under which powers are divided between union government and state governments :

  • Union List. It contains 97 subjects on which only union government can make laws.
  • State List. This list contains 66 subjects on which state government can make laws.
  • Concurrent List. This list contains 47 subjects on which both union government and state governments can make laws. But in case of clash of laws, central law prevails.

Question 11.
What do you understand by Lok Adalats?
Answer:
Lok Adalats haye been set up in the country with a view to providing speedy and cheap justice to the poor. The first Lok Adalat held its session at Delhi on Oct. 6, 1985. It decided 150 cases in a single day.

Question 12.
When and who appoints Finance Commission?
Answer:
The president of India appoints the Finance Commission at the end of every fifth year or earlier, as the deemed necessary by him/her.

II. Answer the following questions in short :

Question 1.
Briefly describe the administrative powers of the Governor.
Or
Explain three powers of the Governor
Answer:
Following are the executive powers of the Governor of a state :

  • All executive actions of the State are taken in his name.
  • It is his responsibility to maintain law and order in the State. There is a provision for a Council of Ministers to assist hini in this work.
  • He appoints the Chief Minister, and on his advice, other ministers of his Council of Ministers.
  • He makes high appointments like those of the Advocate General, Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission, etc.
  • He is also consulted by the President in matters relating to the appointment of the judges for the High Court of his State.

Question 2.
Examine the process of appointment of the Council of Ministers in a state.
Answer:
The Constitution of India establishes Parliamentary form of government at the State level and at the Centre. The Governor, therefore, is a nominal head of the State. There is a provision for a Council of Ministers to assist him. The Council of Ministers is the real executive of the State. The Governor appoints a person as the Chief Minister who is the leader of the majority party in the Legislative Assembly. He also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. The Governor can neither delete nor add any new name to the list, given to him by the Chief Minister.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
Explain the discretionary powers of a Governor.
Answer:
The Governor has some powers which he can use on his own discretion. These are called his discretionary powers.

The Governor can exercise these powers in the following cases :

  • When no party holds a clear majority in the State Vidhan Sabha, he shall exercise his discretion in the appointment of the Chief Minister.
  • In the event of the failure of the constitutional machinery in the state, he may recommend the imposition of the President’s rule in his state.
  • To safeguard the interests of the Scheduled Castes and Tribes in his state.
  • To reserve any bill passed by the state legislature for the approval of the President.
  • The Governor can dismiss the ministry if he is convinced that it has lost the majority support.

Question 4.
How a declaration of the breakdown of constitutional machinery affects the State Government?
Answer:

  • The President can use all the powers or any of the executive powers of the state.
  • The powers taken over by him shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him. These powers are generally exercised by the state Governor.
  • He can suspend or dissolve the legislative assembly of the state.
  • The Parliament can make laws on any subject on the State list for that State.
  • The Parliament passes the annual budget of the state.
  • The Council of Ministers of the state is dismissed.

Question 5.
Distinguish between the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
There are the following differences between the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers :

  • The Council of Ministers consists of about 60 ministers, whereas the Cabinet has only 15-20 members.
  • The Cabinet is the inner part of the Council of Minister. That is why, it is commonly termed as wheel within a wheel.
  • The Cabinet formulates all the policies of the state whereas the Council of Ministers does not take part in policy making.
  • The meetings of the Cabinet are held once or twice a week but the meetings of the Council of Ministers are very rarely held.

Question 6.
Examine the four main functions of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
Following are the four main functions of the Council of Ministers :

  1. Formulation of Policies. The first important function of the Council of Ministers of a state is the formulation of the policies on the basis of which the administration of the state is to be conducted.
  2. Administration. The Council of Ministers is the real executive of the state. Each minister is made incharge of a department and it is his responsibility to run the administration of the department smoothly.
  3. Legislative functions. It is the Council of Ministers that decides the time of summoning and prorougation of the legislature. The Governor’s address is prepared by the council. Majority of the bills are introduced in the legislature by the Council of Ministers.
  4. Financial functions. It is the Council of Ministers which prepares the budget and decides the financial policy of the state. It decides which new taxes are to be imposed. It also decides which taxes are to be increased or decreased.

Question 7.
How a money bill becomes an Act in a State Legislature?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced by a minister only in the Vidhan Sabha. In a State, which has bicameral legislature, the money bill, after being passed by the Vidhan Sabha, is sent to the Vidhan Parishad. The Vidhan Parishad can keep pending the money bill for 14 days. After this, it sends the bill to Vidhan Sabha with or without its suggestions. The Vidhan Sabha has power to reject or accept these suggestions. Then the bill passed by the Vidhan Sabha is sent to the Governor for approval. The bill, after getting the assent of the Governor, becomes an act.

Question 8.
Explain the original jurisdiction or administrative powers of a High Court.
Answer:
Some cases can be brought before the High Court directly. This is called the original jurisdiction of the High Court. The High Court has original jurisdictions in the following cases :

  1. Any case regarding the fundamental rights can be brought directly to the High Court. The High Court is empowered to issue five kinds of writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
  2. The State High Courts like the Supreme Court can strike down any law passed by the State Legislature or the Parliament or any order of the executive if it violates any provision of the Constitution.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 9.
Describe the Appellate jurisdiction of a High Court.
Answer:

  • The High Court can hear appeals against the decision of the lower courts in most of the revenue and criminal cases.
  • The High Court can hear appeals in criminal cases in which the accused has been sentenced to four years imprisonment by the Sessions Judge. The Sessions Judge of a district court can award death sentence in criminal cases. But such a sentence is subject to the confirmation of the High Court.

Question 10.
‘A High Court is a Court of Record’. How?
Answer:
According to Article 251, every State High Court is a Court of Record, and as such its decisions are recorded and the courts subordinate to it accept these decisions as judicial precedents.

Question 11.
Examine the organization and main functions of the Lok Adalats.
Answer:
Lok Adalats. The Lok Adalats have been set up in the country with a view to providing speedy and cheap justice to the poor. Justice P.N. Bhagwati is regarded as its founder. The first Lok Adalat held its session at Delhi in October 6, 1985 and settled many cases in a single day. Our courts have heavy work-load. Lakhs of cases are pending. The system provides the simplest way to file a petition for a poor citizen in the Lok Adalat through a simple letter written on a postcard. In 1987, these Lok Adalats got legal recognition.

Question 12.
Describe briefly the relations between the Union and States on one of the following :
(a) Legislative Relations
(b) Administrative Relations
(c) Financial Relations.
Answer:
(а) Legislative Relations. The union legislature can make laws on the subjects given in the Union list and Concurrent list while the State Legislature can make laws on the State list and the Concurrent list. Only the Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List as well as the Concurrent List during the declaration of emergency in the State (Art. 356).

(b) Administrative Relations. The administrative powers of the State shall be so exercised that they do not come into conflict with executive powers of the Centre. The Union government can issue instructions to the States for that purpose if it thinks it necessary. The executive powers of the union government shall also extend to the giving of directions to a state regarding the construction and maintenance .of the means of communication declared to be of national and military importance.

(c) Financial Relations. The sources of income are divided between the Centre and the States. The important sources of income of the Central Government are such as

  • Customs and export duties.
  • Income tax.
  • Estate duty.
  • Interstate trade tax.

Sources of Income of the States are such as :

  • Land revenue
  • House tax
  • Taxes on succession to agricultural land
  • V.A. tax.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide The State Government Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Where is Punjab High Court located?
Answer:
Punjab High Court is located at Chandigarh.

Question 2.
How many States and Union Territories are there in the Indian Republic?
Answer:
There are twenty-eight States and eight Union Territories in India.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
On what basis have the states been classified?
Answer:
In India, the states have been organised on a linguistic basis.

Question 4.
What is called a Union Territory?
Answer:
An administrative unit the administration of which is under the Union Government.

Question 5.
On which lists of subjects can the State Government make laws?
Answer:
The State Legislature can make laws on the subjects in the State list and Concurrent list.

Question 6.
In which House can a money bill be introduced?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced only in the Vidhan Sabha.

Question 7.
Who is the real head of a State Government?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is the real head of a State Government.

Question 8.
Mention two qualifications for the office of the Governor.
Answer:
He must be a citizen of India and must have completed 35 years of age.

Question 9.
Write any one executive power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Governor is the executive head of the State.

Question 10.
Mention any one legislative function of the Governor.
Answer:
He summons, adjourns and prorogues the State Legislature.

Question 11.
Mention any one financial power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Budget of the State is presented to the Legislative Assembly in his name.

Question 12.
Write any one judicial power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Governor is consulted by the President in the appointment of the judges of the High Court.

Question 13.
How many minimum sessions of the State Legislature must be held in a year?
Answer:
The State Legislature must hold at least two sessions in a year.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 14.
Who is the chipf adviser of the Governor?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is the chief adviser of the Governor.

Question 15.
Write any one power of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
The Chief Minister prepares a list of the ministers and sends it to the Governor for approval.

Question 18.
What is the number of members of the Punjab Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
The Punjab Legislative Assembly consists of 117 members.

Question 17.
Who can appoint the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor is appointed by the President of India.

Question 18.
Who appoints the Chief Minister?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.

Question 19.
What is the tenure of the Governor?
Answer:
The tenure of the Governor is five years.

Question 20.
What is tenure of Legislative Council?
Answer:
Legislative Council is a permanent body. Its one-third members retire by rotation after every two years and these members can be re-elected. The tenure of each member is six years.

Question 21.
What is the name of the Governor of the Punjab?
Answer:
V.P. Singh Bednore.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
There are _________ States in India.
Answer:
28

Question 2.
There are _________ Union Territories in India.
Answer:
8

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
In Punjab there is _________ Legislature.
Answer:
unicameral

Question 4.
The _________ is the Chief advisor of the Governor.
Answer:
Chief Minister

Question 5.
The Governor is appointed by the _________
Answer:
President

Question 6.
The tenure of the Governor is _________
Answer:
five

Question 7.
The Chief Minister is appointed by the _________
Answer:
Governor

Question 8.
The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the _________
Answer:
President

Question 9.
The strength of the Punjab Legislative Assembly is _________
Answer:
117

Question 10.
The Judges of the High Court retire at the age of _________ years.
Answer:
sixty-two

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 11.
The constitutional head of the state is _________
Answer:
Governor

Question 12.
The Legislative Council is a _________ House.
Answer:
Permanent

Question 13.
The tenure of the Legislative Assembly is _________ years.
Answer:
five.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The Governor of a state is :
(a) Head of Govt.
(b) Head of the State
(c) Head of the Union Territory
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Head of the State

Question 2.
Two Houses of the State Legislature are :
(а) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) Legislative Council and Lok Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council
(d) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(c) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council

Question 3.
Who is the constitutional head of the state?
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(a) Governor

Question 4.
The term of office of the Governor is :
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 6 years.
Answer:
(b) 5 years

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 5.
The tenure of the Legistative Assembly in normal time is :
(a) 4 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years.
Answer:
(d) 5 years.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the composition of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
Answer:
The Vidhan Sabha consists of the members directly elected by the people of the State on the basis of adult franchise. According to the Constitution, its maximum membership shall not exceed 500 and shall not be below 60. A citizen having attained the age of 25 years is eligible to be elected to this house. The tenure of the Vidhan Sabha is five years. This house has a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker to conduct its meetings. The House elects them from among its members.

Question 2.
How is the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) organised?
Answer:
The membership of the Vidhan Parishad cannot exceed one-third of the membership of the Vidhan Sabha with a minimum of 40 members. Its members are elected or nominated as under:

  • 1/3rd members are elected by the Vidhan Sabha from amongst persons who are not its members.
  • 1/3rd members are elected by the local bodies of the state.
  • 1/12th of members are elected by persons of at least three years’ standing as teachers in educational institutions not lower in standard than that of a secondary school.
  • 1/12th of members are elected by the university graduates of at least three years’ standing in the state.
  • 1/6th members are nominated by the Governor from amongst persons possessing special knowledge and experience in the fields of arts, literature, science, etc.

Question 3.
Describe the position of the Governor as a representative of the Central Government.
Answer:
The Governor of an Indian State is the head of the State but he is the representative of the Centre also. The following facts prove it :

  1. He acts as a link between Central Government and the State Government. He can reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President.
  2. If the Governor feels that administration of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, he can recommend to the President to declare emergency arising due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state. In that case, the President may impose President’s Rule in that state.
  3. The State Vidhan Sabha and the Council of Ministers may be suspended or dissolved. During the emergency the Governor acts as a representative of the Central Government. He runs the administration with the help of an Advisory Council.

Question 4.
Mention the grounds on the basis of which the Governor can recommend President’s rule in the state.
Answer:
The Governor can recommend to the President for the imposition of President’s rule in his state if he is satisfied that :

  1. the constitutional machinery has broken down in the state; and
  2. the ruling party has lost the support of the majority of legislators.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the ‘Union Territories’.
Answer:
There are, at present, eight Union Territories apart from the 2S States. Since the area and population covered by them is small, so these are not given the status of a full-fledged state. The administration of the Union Territories is under the control of the President acting through a Lt. Governor or a Chief Commissioner. The Parliament may constitute, for every such territory, a Council of Advisors to the Chief Commissioner which may partly be elected and partly nominated.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 6.
List out three similarities in the organisation of Central and the State Governments.
Answer:
The following are three similarities with regard to the organisation of Central and State Governments :

  1. The Constitution’ establishes the parliamentary form of government both at the Centre and in the units.
  2. Both at the Centre and in the States there exists’ independent impartial judicial system with a single hierarchy of coy^s to administer justice on, both the Union and the State laws.
  3. The legislature of the Centre is bicameral and so it is in many states such as Bihar, Tamilnadu, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh.

Question 7.
List out three dissimilarities in the organisation of the Centre and State Governments.
Answer:
The following are the three dissimilarities with regard to the organisation of Central and State Governments :

  1. The head of the state at the centre is an elected President; but the Governor, the head of the state, is nominated.
  2. The central legislature is bicameral but most of the states have unicameral legislatures.
  3. There is no office like that of the Vice-President in the States.

Question 8.
Give four non-legislative functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
The following are the non-legislative functions of the State Legislature :

  1. The State Legislature exercises control over the finances of the State.
  2. The Legislature’deliberates on the no-confidence motion against the Government.
  3. The elected members of the State Legislature elect the members of Rajya Sabha.
  4. Each of the Houses of the Legislature elects its own Chairman and Deputy Chairman.

Question 9.
Mention three major legislative functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The following are the legislative functions of the Governor :

  1. He summons, adjourns and prorogues the State Legislature.
  2. All bills passed by the legislature are sent to him for his approval.
  3. He can issue ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 10.
Mention three major executive functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The following are the executive functions of the Governor :

  1. He appoints the Chief Minister and on his advice the other ministers.
  2. He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the Chairman and the members of the Public Service Commission and other officials of the State.
  3. The Chief Minister informs the Governor about all decisions of the Council of Ministers and supplies him information relating to the administration of the State.

Question 11.
Mention the four major functions of the State Governments.
Answer:
The State Governments perform the following functions :

  1. The most important function of each State Government is to maintain law and order in its State.
  2. It is also the function of the State Government to provide the citizens with basic amenities of life.
  3. It provides educational facilities to its citizens.
  4. The Government is also expected to look after the economic welfare of the citizens by undertaking development programmes.

Question 12.
Explain three powers of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Following are the powers of the Chief Minister :

  1. Appointment of the Minister*. The Chief Minister prepares a list of his Ministers and sends it to the Governor.
  2. Distribution of Portfolios. The Chief Minister distributes the portfolios among the ministers.
  3. Removal of Ministers. He can ask a minister to resign. If that minister refuses to resign, the Chief Minister can ask the Governor to remove him from the Cabinet.
  4. Head of the Council of Ministers. The Chief Minister calls the meetings of the Council of Ministers and presides over the meetings.

Question 13.
Describe the position of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Position of the Chief Minister, In fact, the Chief Minister is the most important and powerful authority in the State. There is no field of the State administration which is not under the control of the Chief Minister. A minister remains in office so long as he continues to enjoy the confidence of the Chief Minister. He is the pivot around which the whole administration of the state revolves.

Question 14.
Discuss the administrative powers of the High Court.
Answer:
Following are the administrative powers of the High Court:

  • It exercises the power of superintendence and control over all the subordinate courts.
  • It makes rules and regulations for the transaction of business of the subordinate courts.
  • It frames rules for the promotion of the judges.

Question 15.
Write a note on the District Courts.
Answer:
For the convenience of judicial administration, a state is divided into districts. There are subordinate courts in every district which are under, the control of the District and Sessions Judge. The District and Sessions Judge is appointed by the State Governor in consultation with the High Court. A person to be eligible for appointment to the post of District and Sessions Judge should be an advocate of at least 7 years’ standing or should have served in the central or state government. The High Court exercises control over the district courts.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 16.
What are the unitary features of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has created a very strong Centre. There are three Lists : Central List, State List and Concurrent List, distributing the powers between the Centre and the States. The Central Government has a large number of powers. It has co-equal powers with the States to legislate on the Concurrent List and in the event of any difference between the Centre and the State, on any law, the central law prevails. The residuary powers are also with the Centre.

During the emergency the Centre gets powers to legislate even on State List. Yet another implication of the declaration of emergency in the country is that the federal structure turns into unitary one, thus making the Centre all powerful.

Question 17.
How have the powers of government been divided between the Union and the States?
Answer:
Powers of the government have clearly been divided between the onion and the states. There are three different lists of the Subjects:

  1. The Union List. There are 97 subjects in the Union list. Only Union Government can make laws on these subjects. The main subjects, are Railways, Post and Telegraph, Coinage and Currency, Defence, and Foreign Affairs.
  2. The State List. There are 66 subjects in this list. The state governments make laws on them. The main subjects are law and order, police, agriculture, irrigation, and public works.
  3. The Concurrent List. There are 47 subjects on the concurrent list such as Family Planning, Marriage and Divorce, control over press, Education etc. In this list are those subjects on which both the Centre and the States can make laws. But if the two laws are contradictory, the law made by the Centre prevails.

Question 18.
Discuss the relationship between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The Governor is the executive head of the State. He is the nominal head of the State. He is to act on the advice of the State Council of Ministers. The Governor cannot act according to his discretion while appointing the Chief Minister and other members of the Council of Ministers. Only the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly is appointed the Chief Minister by him. However, if no party gets clear majority, he is at liberty to appoint the Chief Minister. Other ministers are appointed by him on the advice of the Chief Minister. He distributes portfolios among the ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. But under certain circumstances, he becomes the real head of the state. He acts as the agent of the centre in the state in times of Constitutional Emergency. He also enjoys certain discretionary powers.

Question 19.
What are the powers of the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor has many legislative, executive, financial and judicial powers.

  • He organises the Council of Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister,
  • He appoints members of the State Public Service Commission,
  • The bills passed by the State Legislature are sent to him for assent.
  • Before the start of every financial year, he causes to be laid through the Finance Minister annual Budget before the Legislature,
  • He advises the President about’ the appointment of the judges of the High Court,
  • He can reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President. He can send report to the President with regard to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the State.

Question 20.
Describe the powers of State Legislature.
Answer:
1. Legislative Powers. It can legislate on all subjects included in the state list and concurrent list as well. If its legislation on some subjects of the concurrent list is contrary to the parliamentary law then it becomes null and void to the extent it is contrary to that.

2. Financial Powers. It has complete control over the financial affairs of the state. The finance minister presents the state budget before the legislative assembly every year. To impose or reduce or abolish all taxes is within its executive powers.

3. Executive Powers. The. council of ministers headed by Chief Minister is the real executive and it is directly and collectively responsible to the legislative assembly.

4. Miscellaneous functions,

  • Members of the legislative assembly participate in the election of the President and the Vice President of India.
  • The legislative assembly elects its own Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
  • It can create a contingency fund of the State which is controlled by the (Governor.
  • It can suspend its own members if they disrupt the proceedings of the House.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 21.
Explain the original jurisdiction and powers regarding*the fundamental rights of the High Court.
Answer:
Some cases can directly be brought to a High Court. They are cases relating to fundamental rights, wills, divorce, marriages, contempt of court etc. Election disputes can also be heard by the High Court. The High Courts of Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai can hear civil cases of a value exceeding Rs. 20,00Q or more.

In case regarding fundamental rights, the High Court can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
The High Court can declare unconstitutional any law passed by the State Legislature or any executive order of a State Government which it finds violative of any of the provisions of the Constitution. Laws declared unconstitutional by a High Court cannot be enforced.

Question 22.
How is a money bill passed in a State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced in a State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha). After a bill is passed by it, the bill is sent to Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) which can delay it for 14 days only.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How many species of rodents are there in Punjab?
Answer:
8 types.

Question 2.
In which area of Punjab Indian bush rat is found?
Answer:
Dry and sandy areas.

Question 3.
How much damage is caused to germinating winter maize by rodents?
Answer:
10.7%.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
At how many locations poison bait should be placed in one acre?
Answer:
At 40 locations at the rate of 10 grams of bait at a point

Question 5.
Name the two reodent eating beneficial birds.
Answer:
Owl and eagle.

Question 6.
Name the bird causing maximum damage to crops. Or Which is the most harmful bird in agriculture?
Answer:
Parrot (Rose ringed parakeet)

Question 7.
How much should be the height of scare crow from the crop?
Answer:
One metre more than the height of crop.

Question 8.
Name any one chemical used for killing rodents.
Answer:
Zinc phosphide.

Question 9.
Where does lapwing make its nest?
Answer:
On the ground.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 10.
What does Hoopoe eat its diet?
Answer:
Insects.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Why we need to protect the agricultural products from harmful animals?
Answer:
Development in the agriculture field can be maintained if agriculture produce is stored properly and protected from harmful animals, birds etc. It is necessary to protect the produce from the pests.

Question 2.
Describe the method of pre-baiting for rodents.
Answer:
To trap more rodents it becomes necessary to prebait the rodents. For this purpose place bait in each cage consisting of 10 to 15 gram pearl millet, sorghum or cracked wheat, which contains two per cent of powdered sugar and two ppr cent of groundnut or sunflower oil, for 2-3 days.

Question 3.
How to reduce the ill effect of Bromadiolone in human being?
Answer:
Effect of bromadiolone can be reduced by using vitamin K as antidote. Use this vitamin under the supervision of ajdoctor.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
How the anti rat campaign can help in eradication of rats at village level? .
Answer:
It is of no use to eradicate rats in a smaller area. Because rats will come again from the neighbouring field or area. To get best results there should be rat killing campaign at village level. Under this campaign rodents are killed collectively in whole of the village at all the locations e.g. in orchards, in cultivated, uncultivated, forestry land etc.

Question 5.
What do you mean by scarecrow? What is its role in crop protection?
Answer:
Take a small pitcher, draw human face on it using colour. This pitcher is made to hang on the sticks fixed vertically in the fields. Put on human clothes on this structure. This is known as scarecrow. Birds consider this structure as human being and do not come to the field.

Question 6.
How the oil seed crop can be protected from parakeet damage?
Answer:
Parrot has little communal association with crows. Therefore to keep the parrots away from the fields, hang 1-2 dead crows/their dumies at sites of frequent bird damage. This way we can protect oilseed crops from parrots.

Question 7.
Why the crop should not be sown at the place having dense trees?
Answer:
Birds have their nests on the trees. If maize and sunflower crops are sown near such sites where birds come and go very easily and very frequently then birds can easily damage the crop. Therefore, crop should not be sown near the places having dense trees.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 8.
How the beneficial birds help farmers in protecting the crops?
Answer:
Rats are the prey for owls, hawks, falcon, eagles etc. Birds like drongos, blue joy, cattle egret, lapwings etc. are insects eating birds. These eat many of the harmful insects from the fields.

Question 9.
How do you identify the Cattle Egret?
Answer:
It is a white coloured bird and its beak is yellow. This bird is seen preying on insects behind the tractor or oxen during ploughing.

Question 10.
What do you know about the precautions to be taken during use of poisonous bait?
Answer:
Precautions while-using poisonous baits:

  • Use a stick or Khurpa for mixing the ingredients of bait while preparing. Otherwise use rubber gloves. Protect eyes, nose and mouth from the bait;
  • Keep rodenticides and poisonous bait away from the reach of children and domestic animals.
  • Never prepare baits in household utensils.
  • Use polythene bags for carrying baits and after use bury these bags under the earth.
  • Killed rats along with baits should be buried deep under the earth.
  • Zinc phosphide is very poisonous for humans. In case of accidental ingestion induce vomitting by inserting fingers in the mouth upto throat and rash to doctor.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
How many types of rodents are there in Punjab? Describe the rodent species found in various areas of Punjab.
Answer:
In Punjab there are 8 species of rats and mice. Indian gerbil, Indian bush rat, Indian mole rat, soft furred field rat, short tailed mole rat, house mouse, brown spiny mouse, field mouse. The Indian mole rat can damage sugarcane and rice-wheat at the time of germinating. Indian mole rat is found mostly in bet area whereas Indian gerbil and Indian bush rat are found in Kandi region (district Hoshiarpur)

Question 2.
Describe the two methods of preparation of poisonous bait.
Answer:
1. 2% zinc phosphide bait:
Take 1 kg of bajra or sorghum or cracked wheat with 20 gram of vegetable oil (sunflower or groundnut oil), and 25 gram of zinc phosphide. Mix all these materials thoroughly. Always prepare fresh bait and never add water to this bait.

2. 0.005% Bromadiolone bait:
Take 20 gram of vegetable oil, (sunflower or groundnut oil), 20 gram powdered sugar and 20 gram bromadiolone powder and 1 kg of cracked wheat or any other cereal flour. Mix this material properly, bait is ready for use.

Question 3.
How to manage rodents by integrated management methods?
Answer:
Using only one method to control rats is not very effective. Rats multiply themselves quickly by giving birth to offsprings. Therefore, use more than one method to kill rats. Rats coming out from flooded burrows should be killed using sticks. After sowing of a crop use chemical methods to kill rats. After pre-baiting also put some gas tablets in the burrows. After zinc phosphide if needed use bromadiolone.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
Describe the traditional methods used for protection of crops from birds.
Answer:

  • Sow Dhaincha and Bajra near the costly crops to save the crops from birds. Birds like to eat bajra and dhaincha. Birds prefer these crops as their feed and main crop is saved.
  • Do not sow crops like sunflower near the places where birds usually visit e.g. near the electricity wires and near the dense trees.
  • To save maize and sunflower from Parrots, sow these crops at least in two-three acres of area. Parrots do not go inside the crop and does not harm the crop to large extent.

Question 5.
Describe the mechanical method of protecting crop from birds.
Answer:
1. Making explosions: Make false gun shots at different time intervals to scare the birds.

2. Using scarecrow:
Take a small pitcher, draw human face on it using colour. This pitcher is made to hang on the sticks fixed vertically in the fields. Put on human clothes on this structure. This is known as scarecrow. Birds consider this structure as human being and do not come to the field.

3. Hanging dead crows:
Parrot has little communal association with crows. Therefore, to keep the parrots away from the fields, hang 1-2 dead crows/their dumies at sites of frequent bird damage. This way we protect oilseed crops from parrots.

4. Using rope-crackers:
Tie fire crackers on a rope at 6-8 inch distance. Ignite the lower end of the rope. Explosions caused by fire crackers at different intervals scare the birds and the birds fly away. Fix the rope in the centre at the time of germination and at the boundaries of the field at the time of maturity.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Friendly birds are:
(a) Lapwing
(b) Blue Joy
(c) Drongo
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 2.
Rats eaten by an owl in a day.
(a) 4-5
(b) 8-10
(c) 1-2
(d) All.
Answers:
(a) 4-5

Question 3.
Where does red mattled lapwing (tatihri) make its nest?
(a) on ground
(b) on trees
(c) in water
(d) None.
Answers:
(a) on ground

Question 4.
Chemical used to kill rats is:
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium chloride
(c) Zinc phosphide
(d) All.
Answers:
(c) Zinc phosphide

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 5.
How many types of birds are found in Punjab?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 300
(d) 50.
Answers:
(c) 300

Question 6.
Which bird makes its nest in the cavities of the trees?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-wattled lapwing
(c) Cattle egret
(d) House sparrow.
Answers:
(a) Hoopoe

Question 7.
Which bird makes its nest on ground?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-watded Lapwing
(c) Cattle Egret
(d) Blue Joy.
Answers:
(b) Red-watded Lapwing

Question 8.
Which bird makes its nest in groups on the top of the trees?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-wattled lapwing
(c) Cattle egret
(d) Owl.
Answers:
(c) Cattle egret

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 9.
How much damage is caused to sprouting wheat by rodents?
(a) 2.9%
(b) 10.7%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 1.1%.
Answers:
(a) 2.9%

True False:

1. Blue Joy has insects as its main diet.
Answers:
True

2. Eight type of rodents and mice are found in the fields of Punjab.
Answers:
True

3. Rose-ringed parakeet is most harmful bird in the field of agriculture.
Answers:
True

4. Zinc Phoshide is used to kill cats.
Answers:
True

5. Owl, Falcon are friendly birds for a farmer.
Answers:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Fill in the blanks:

1. Scare crow should be atleast ………………… higher than the crop.
Answers:
one metre

2. For trapping rodents place ………………….. traps per acre in the field.
Answers:
16

3. ………………………….. percent of total bird species in India are useful to agriculture.
Answers:
3. 98

4. ………………………. bird has a yellow beak.
Answers:
Cattle egret.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where does rats live?
Answer:
Rats live in Burrows.

Question 2.
Which species of rats are found in areas of sugarcane and wheat rice and bet areas?
Answer:
Indian mole rat.

Question 3.
Which rat is found in Kandi region?
Answer:
Gerbil rat.

Question 4.
Which rats are found in Kandi region?
Answer:
Indian Bush rats.

Question 5.
How much damage is done by rats at the time of sprouting and maturity?
Answer:
At the time of sprouting is 2.9%. At the time of maturity is 4.5%.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 6.
How much damage is done to peas by rats at the time of maturity?
Answer:
1.1%.

Question 7.
How much damage is done by rats in bet area at the time of maturity of wheat?
Answer:
25%.

Question 8.
How will you kill rats which are coming out of flooded burrows?
Answer:
Kill with sticks.

Question 9.
How many traps per acre should be placed for trapping rats?
Answer:
16 traps.

Question 10.
After how many days cages should be used again for trapping rats?
Answer:
After 30 days.

Question 11.
For how much area one kg of zinc phosphide bait be used?
Answer:
2.5 acre.

Question 12.
What is natural method to control rats?
Answer:
Rats are the prey for owls, kites, hawks, falcons, eagles, snakes, cats, mongooses, jackals, etc.

Question 13.
How many species of birds are found in Punjab?
Answer:
300 species.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 14.
What is the worth in Rs. of rice which are eaten by doves, Pigeons and weaving bird?
Answer:
Worth rupees 2 crore.

Question 15.
After how many days should the direction, clothes and location of the scarecrow be changed?
Answer:
After ten days.

Question 16.
How many rats are eaten by an owl?
Answer:
4-5 rats in a day.

Question 17.
For how many times a single pair of house sparrow feeds its chick?
Answer:
250 times.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What should we do to save birds around us?
Answer:

  • We should plant conventional trees like, Banyan, Peepal, Kikkar, Tahli, Toot etc. around our living area.
  • We should provide place for nests by placing wooden or earthen pots wherever possible.

Question 2.
Write about Neelkanth.
Answer:
It has pale blue abdomen and breast is rufous brown. It is of the size of blue rock pigeon. It feeds on insects. Its nest is in the cavities of the trees.

Question 3.
Write about Red-wattled Lapwing.
Answer:
Its head, bieast and neck are black in colour. It is bronze brown from above and white from below. It feeds on insects and snails. It makes its nest on ground.

Question 4.
How are the crops protected by using scarecrows (Darna)?
Answer:
See in above questions.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give chemical methods of killing rodents (rats).
Answer:
See above question.

Question 2.
Give mechanical methods to protect crops from rats.
Answer:
Following mechanical methods are used:

  • Killing rats-After harvesting, at the time of Rauni rats come out from the flooded burrows which are killed by sticks.
  • Using cage/traps-See above questions.
  • Using bait-See above questions.

Question 3.
How traps and cages can be used to protect crop from rodents?
Answer:
Kill the trapped rats by drowning in water and the interval between two trapping in the same location should not be less than 30 days. P.A.U. has developed double chambered multi-catch trap with tunnel type entrance. Many rats can be trapped at a time. Place 16 traps for an acre at runways and activity sites of rats in the fields, also place traps in homes, poultry farms, godowns, stores etc. Place one trap for 4 to 8 square metre along the walls, comers of rooms, grain storing places and behind the boxes.

In cold stores wrap the traps in newspapers before placing. For catching rats pre-baiting is done. For this purpose put in each cage/trap bait consisting of 10 to 15 grams of bajra or sorghum or cracked wheat, which contains 2% of powdered sugar and 2% of groundnut or sunflower oil. This should be done for 2-3 days. Thus by using traps crops can be saved from damage by rats.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
Why we should not kill birds useful for crops?
Answer:
Useful birds include insectivorous and rodentivorous birds. They feed insects to their young ones. Predatory birds; like, owl, eagle, falcons etc. eat rats and mice. An owl can eat 4-5 rats a day. These birds help the farmers by killing insects and rodents. We should not kill such useful birds.

Question 5.
What do you know about the precautions to be taken during the uses of poison bait?
Answer:

  • Poison bait should be kept away from the reach of children, domestic animals, pets and birds.
  • Save the mouth, eyes and skin from the poison b&t.
  • Never use household utensils for the preparation of poison bait.
  • Use polythene bags for storage and carrying these poison baits. Bury them after use.
  • Collect and burry the left over poison bait and the dead rats aways from the field.

Question 6.
How will you identify the woodpecker?
Answer:
It has a long beak, which has a little bend. It has lines on its feathers, body and tail of white and black colour. It has cockscomb also.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Certified Seed Production Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Write names of two Mexican wheat varieties which were introduced in India in sixties.
Answer:
Lerma Roso, Sonora-64.

Question 2.
Write name of machine which is used for cleaning of seed.
Answer:
Seed grader.

Question 3.
Write name of two recently recommended varieties of wheat.
Answer:
W.H. 1105, PBW 621.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 4.
How many tags are stitched on a bag of certified seed?
Answer:
Two – green and blue.

Question 5.
What is the colour of tag which is used to label foundation seed?
Answer:
White tag.

Question 6.
Write full form of T.L.
Answer:
Truthfully Labelled.

Question 7.
In which year seed act was passed?
Answer:
In the year 1966.

Question 8.
What is the minimum germination per cent of certified wheat seed?
Answer:
Not less than 85%.

Question 9.
Give minimum purity of certified seeds of rice.
Answer:
98%.

Question 10.
Write one important yield contributary hereditary trait of cotton plant.
Answer:
Number of cotton bolls, average weight of cotton bolls.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the objectives of seed act? When was this regulated?
Answer:
The objective of seed act was to provide right pedigree seeds at lower cost to the farmers. This act was enacted in year 1966.

Question 2.
List two important hereditary and yield contributory traits of cotton plant.
Answer:
Heredity qualities of cotton crop are – number of cotton bolls, average weight Of cotton bolls, number of branches bearing fruit etc.

Question 3.
Define foundation seed.
Answer:
Certified seeds are produced from foundation seeds and foundation seeds shall be the progeny of breeder seeds.

Question 4.
Write full name of agency which certifies the quality of seed.
Answer:
Punjab State Seed Certification Authority has the authority to certify seeds.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 5.
List three important yield contributory traits of wheat plant.
Answer:
Some of the yield contributory traits of wheat plants are – number of branches per plant, number of grains per ear, weight of grains, length of ear etc.

Question 6.
Who produces breeder seed?
Answer:
The agency which has researched and discovered the variety, produces nuclear seeds and then produces breeder seed from nuclear seed.

Question 7.
List three parameters of physical quality of seeds. .
Answer:
Physical appearance qualities – colour of seed, shape, weight etc.

Question 8.
Define a certified seed.
Answer:
Those seeds which are produced according to the standards set by Punjab State Seed Certification Agency and also under their supervision are called certified seeds.

Question 9.
What is the importance of isolation distance in seed production?
Answer:
The crop which is used for seed production should be separated from the same crop species by some minimum distance. This way seed quality and standard can be maintained and affect of other crop can be avoided.

Question 10.
Why removal of off types from a seed crop is so important?
Answer:
The seed we get is of high quality and is free from mechanical mixing.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Differentiate hereditary traits from phenotype or physical quality traits.
Answer:
Physical quality traits:
Colour of seed, shape, weight, free from breakage, free from garbage, free from weeds and free from other seeds etc. are some of qualities which a high quality seed should have.

Hereditary traits:
These are the qualities which cannot be seen externally. These are the hidden qualities, which are carried on from one crop to the other crop. These are called genetic traits. Different plants have different genetic qualities. The difference we see in different varieties of the same crop are due to genetic qualities.

Question 2.
List three important field standards in seed production.
Answer:

  • Isolation of seed.crop from other crops.
  • Number of off-plants in the seed crop.
  • Number of diseased plants in the seed crop.

Question 3.
Explain seed standards for a certified seed production.
Answer:
There are two types of standards which are to be followed to produce certified seeds:
(1) Standards to be followed for the seed crop in the field.
(2) Standards of the seed.

(1) Standards to be followed for the seed crop in the field:

  • Isolation of seed crop from other crops.
  • Number of off-plants in the seed crop.
  • Number of diseased plants in the seed crop.

(2) Standards of the seed:
By testing the seed in the laboratory we can check the standards. These standards are like:

  • seed germination
  • physical purity of seed.
  • number of diseased seeds
  • number of seeds of weeds in the seeds, seeds of other crops.
  • moisture per cent in seed.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 4.
Explain procedure for certified seed production on commercial scale.
Answer:
1. One should get proper and full knowledge and information about seed production and Marketing (sound knowledge and required expertise). Such a training can be obtained from P.A.U. Ludhiana, Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK), department of agriculture, Punjab State Seed Certification Authority, PUNSEED etc.

2. Choosing crop whose seed is to be produced, Make a proper plan for necessary infrastructure required for seed production and marketing etc.

3. To establish a firm and get seed licence from the department of agriculture.

4. Some of the basic requirements are seed grading machine for cleaning of seed threshing floor, store, bag closer machine, bags for packing seeds.

5. We can get foundation seed from director seeds, P.A.U. Ludhiana. Bill for seed should be in the name of firm or company and it is necessary.

6. Get the crop as recommended from the foundation seed and get registered the crop with department of Punjab State Seed Certification Authority.

7. Keep on removing by pulling out the plants which are off-type plants, diseased plants, weed plants. The above mentioned department supervise/observe the crop for two-three times.

8. Harvest the crop, clean it and pack it properly. Do all these activities under the supervision of PSSCA. Put on proper tags on the seed bags.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 5.
List important points for starting seed production enterprise.
Answer:
Following points should followed for starting seed production enterprise:

  • Choose a crop that will give good returns and is easy to produce the seeds of this crop or not.
  • Choose the crop suited to the area and which can be cultivated by you.
  • Choose the crop whose seed is consumed in large quantity, e.g. wheat.
  • Become registered farmer with PUNSEED.
  • Whichever seeds you want to produce, gain sound knowledge and expertise to produce such seeds.
  • One can earn good profit by producing hybrid seeds, but it needs hardwork, proper training and patience.
  • Basic infrastructure is required which is a costly affair. Basic infrastructure consists of store, threshing floor, seed grader and other machines.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Certified Seed Production Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Categories of seeds are:
(a) Primary
(b) Breeder
(c) Foundation and certified
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 2.
Which colour tag is put on the foundation seed bag?
(a) White
(b) Blue
(c) Red
(d) Yellow.
Answers:
(a) White

Question 3.
Which colour tag is put on the bag of breeder seeds?
(a) Golden
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue.
Answers:
(a) Golden

Question 4.
New varieties of wheats which are disease free:
(a) WH1105
(b) PBW621
(c) HD3086
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 5.
Which colour tag by Government is put on the certified seed bag?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) None.
Answers:
(a) Blue

Question 6.
Which colour tag is put on bag of breeder seeds?
(a) Golden
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue.
Answers:
(b) White

Question 7.
How many tags are put on the bag of certified seeds?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 4.
Answers:
(a) 2

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 8.
What should be the minimum purity of certified seeds of paddy?
(a) 98%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 13%.
Answers:
(a) 98%

True False:

1. Hereditary traits are determined by genetic factors.
Answers:
True

2. PBW 621 is a variety of wheat.
Answers:
True

3. Bags with certified seeds bear two tags.
Answers:
True

4. Lerma Roso is a Mexican wheat variety.
Answers:
True

5. Certified seeds of rice must have minimum 98% purity.
Answers:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Fill in the blanks:

1. Number of tillers per plant is a trait for wheat.
Answers:
hereditary

2. Certification tags shall be of colour for foundation seed.
Answers:
white

3. The credit of green revolution goes to wheat varieties.
Answers:
Mexican

4. Bag containing seed bears a golden tag.
Answers:
breeder.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When were the Mexican wheat verities cultivated for first time?
Answer:
In 1965-66. .

Question 2.
From where was green revolution started?
Answer:
From the cultivation of semi dwarf Mexican wheat varieties.

Question 3.
Write hereditary qualities of corn.
Answer:
Length and circumference of com cob, average number of grains in the com cob, average weight of 1000 grains, time for maturity etc.

Question 4.
Write about germination of certified seeds of rice.
Answer:
Germination should not be less than 80%.

Question 5.
Which tag is attached on bag of certified seed by government?
Answer:
Blue coloured tag.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did the farmers experience good quality seeds?
Answer:
Nearly 50 years ago when they cultivated the Mexican Semidwarf varieties of wheat and the yield was double than the previous years.

Question 2.
What is seed?
Answer:
Some grains or some other vegetative parts of a plant e.g. roots, stem cuttings, bulbs, sukers etc. which can be used to grow new plants. These all are considered as seeds.

Question 3.
Give properties of certified seeds.
Answer:
Certified seeds have following qualities. These seeds should be of

  • definite purity
  • free from diseases and seeds of weeds
  • definite germination.

Question 4.
Write possible qualities of certified seeds of wheat.
Answer:

  • Germination – pot less than 85% .
  • Purity – not less than 98%
  • Moisture content – not more than 12%.

Question 5.
What information we get from green tag fixed on bags of certified seeds?
Answer:
Green Tag has the following information about the seed germination, purity, diseases and other standards.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 6.
Where is the head office of Punjab State See Certification Agency and where is the zonal office?
Answer:
Head office is at SCO 837-838 Sec. 22 A, Chandigarh and regional offices at Ludhiana, Jalandhar, Kotkpura.

Question 7.
What is the process to reach the certified seed?
Answer:
We get breeder seed from the nuclear seed, foundation seed from breeder seed then certified seed from the foundation seed.

Question 8.
What are the various tags attached to different seed bags?
Answer:
Yellow tag on breeder seed, White tag on foundation seed, Blue tag on certified seed.

Question 9.
How many types of seeds are there according to Seed act?
Answer:
There are four types of seeds – Nuclear seeds, Breeder seeds, Foundation seeds, Certified seeds.

Question 10.
What do you know about T.L. seed?
Answer:
If seed is not certified but otherwise it conforms to all seed and field standards it is called T.L. (truthfully labelled) seed. Such seeds should have standards like – hereditary purity, germination, moisture content as per the standards etc.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about possibilities of profit and risk in the enterprise of seed production.
Answer:
The enterprise of certified seeds production is profitable. Such seeds have more selling price than the other seeds. But there is some initial cost involved e.g. cost of foundation seed, certification fees, cost to remove off-type plants, seed grading, packaging of seed, attaching tag, sealing and storing of seeds. During 2014-2015, minimum support price of one quintal of wheat was Rs. 1450. But certified seed of wheat was sold at a price of Rs. 2000-2500 per quintal. This way enterprise of seed production of certified and hybrid seed is very profitable.

There is also a fear of loss in this business also, as in other businesses. Some times the seed remains unsold and it can fail in laboratory test also. But the possibility of unsold seed is very less because already there is huge demand of seed in the market, which is not being fulfilled. So, this business is very profitable.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 2.
What do you mean by certified seed? Write three features of certified seeds.
Answer:
See in the above questions.

Question 3.
Which four parameters are examined in the seed test laboratory while examining seeds?
Answer:
By testing the seed in the laboratory we can check the standards. These standards are like:

  • seed germination
  • physical purity of seed.
  • a number of diseased seeds
  • number of seeds of weeds in the seeds, seeds of other crops.
  • moisture percent in the seed.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Agro Based Industries Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Which crops can be dried and powdered at domestic level?
Answer:
Turmeric, Chillies etc.

Question 2.
From where the training on agro based industries can be obtained?
Answer:
Punjab Agriculture University, Ludhiana, Krishi Vigyan Kendras.

Question 3.
Name any two machines installed in agro processing complex.
Answer:
Mini rice mill, small flour mill, grinder, oil expeller, cotton ginning machine.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 4.
List the items in which mentha oil is used. What are the uses of peppermint (Mentha) oil?
Answer:
Medicines, perfumes, cosmetics etc.

Question 5.
How much Jaggery can be made from one quintal of sugarcane?
Answer:
10-12 kg.

Question 6.
What is the percentage of post-harvest losses in grains?
Answer:
10%.

Question 7.
What is the pre requisite for starting any agro based industry?
Answer:
Basic training.

Question 8.
How much powder can be made from one quintal of raw turmeric? Or How much turmeric powder can be produced during processing from 100 kg raw turmeric?
Answer:
15-20 kg.

Question 9.
How water and oil are separated during mentha processing?
Answer:
With the help of separator.

Question 10.
Name any two rural agro-based industries.
Answer:
Turmeric processing plant, Mentha procesing unit, Juggery manufacturing.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What type of agro based industry can be set at cooperative level?
Answer:
A huge investment is (nearly 30 lakhs Rupees) is needed to set up dehydration and freezing plant for the processing of fruits and vegetables. Such units can be established at cooperative level and initial investment at individual level is reduced to large extent.

Question 2.
Why post harvest loss is taking place in our country?
Answer:
There is lack of sources for processing and storage, therefore post harvest losses are taking place.

Question 3.
What should be done to reduce the post harvest losses?
Answer:
We should process the agriculture produce to stop the damage of grains.

Question 4.
How agro based industries can be helpful in enhancing income of the fanners?
Answer:
Farmers can get more income by processing and selling of the agricultural produce at small scale. Farmer can also increase his income by adopting the occupations like – poultry farming, dairy farming etc.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 5.
Discuss the method for processing mentha.
Answer:
For extracting oil from mentha, mentha processing plant is established. Mentha crop is dried in open sun to reduce the moisture content. It is taken in an,air tight tanks in which steam is passed at pressure. Oil gets heated up and gets mixed with steam. Oil and steam mixture is removed from the tank and is cooled down quickly and oil and water are collected in another tank. This tank is known as separator. Oil is lighter than water and floats on the surface of water. It is decantated and collecte in plastic containers which are then sealed.

Question 6.
Describe the machine developed by PAU, Ludhiana for processing of turmeric.
Answer:
Punjab Agricultural University has developed a machine which is used for washing and polishing of turmeric. This machine can wash 2.5 -3.0 quintal turmeric in an hour and then can polish it also.

Question 7.
What are the technical operations related with jaggery manufacturing?
Answer:
Sugarcane is crushed using cane crusher. Juice so obtained is heated and concentrated to get jaggery.

Question 8.
Discuss any three machines used in agro processing complexes.
Answer:
Agro processing complexes can have machines like minirice mill, oil expel’ler, cotton gining machine etc. which are used to process paddy, oil seeds, cotton etc.

Question 9.
Why can’t the freezing plants for fruits and vegetables be installed at farmers’ level?
Answer:
A huge investment nearly Rs. 30 lakh is required to set up this unit. Therefore, it cannot be established at farmer’s level.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 10.
Which agricultural produces can be used at home after drying? Or Write the name of four agricultural products which are used dried at domestic travel.
Answer:
Fenugreek, corriander, mint, chillies etc. can be used at homes after drying.

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Discuss the advantages of setting up of agro processing complexes in Punjab.
Answer:
Generally, there is damage of 10% grains after harvesting and in case of fruits and vegetables this damage and loss is upto 30 – 40%. If processing units are established at village level then such losses can be minimized. Farmers can get more income. Unemployed youth can get work and we can get fresh and high quality eatables. Due to availability of employment and earning, the migration towards cities is also reduced.

Question 2.
What type of machinery can be installed in a small agro processing complex and which crops will be processed?
Answer:
A small agro processing complex can have following machines.

  • mini rice mill
  • oil expeller
  • small flour mill
  • grinder
  • pulse cleaner and grader
  • cotton ginning machine
  • small feed mill
  • mini dal mill

These machines are used for processing pulses, cereals, oil seeds, spices, paddy, cotton etc. .

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 3.
What should be done to stop the migration of people from rural to urban areas?
Answer:
People migrate towards cities due to non availability of employment and income per family is also not up to the mark instead it is very low. If more opportunities are made available and sources of income are also generated then this will help in stopping the migration towards the cities. Therefore encouragement should be given to agriculture based enterprises.

Youth in rural areas can set their own small processing units. Some other agriculture based enterprises like dairy farming, fish farming, poultry farming, mushroom cultivation, honey production, bee keeping etc. can be adopted. By self-marketing of the processed products, one can get more returns.

Question 4.
What should be the policy for capital intensive agro processing industry?
Answer:
There are some agro processing plants which have very high initial cost. For example, the cost to establish dehydration and freezing plant for fruits and vegetables is nearly Rs. 30 lakh. Such a plant cannot be set up. at an individual level. Such a unit should be established at cooperative level by group of farmers. This way one plant can be used by various farmers and they can process their produce and can market them.

Question 5.
Discuss the various operations involved in turmeric processing. Or How turmeric powder is prepared from raw tarmeric?
Answer:
For processing, all the turmeric, rhizomes are washed properly to remove soil sticking to it etc. For this purpose P.A.U. has developed a machine which can wash and polish turmeric. This machine can wash and polish simultaneously nearly 2.5 – 3.0 quintal turmeric per hour. After this step (i.e. washing etc.) turmeric is boiled so that fingers become soft and their colour becomes uniform.

If boiling is done in open container it takes an hour but if boiled in pressure cooker it takes 20 minutes. After boiling, turmeric fingers are dried in sun so that moisture content is less than 10%. It takes nearly 15 days if strong sunlight is available. Now top layer of turmeric is removed by polishing. Then it is grounded in the grinder (hammer mill). This way 100 kg fresh turmeric gives 15-20 kg. powdered turmeric.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Agro Based Industries Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
……………… kg turmeric powder can be obtained from 100 kg of fresh turmeric.
(a) 25-30
(b) 15-20
(c) 5-10
(d) 45-50.
Answer:
(b) 15-20

Question 2.
……………..kg Gud can be prepared from one quintal sugarcane.
(a) 21-22
(b) 30-35
(c) 10-12
(d) 18-20.
Answer:
(c) 10-12

Question 3.
After harvesting, there is nearly …………. loss in Crops.
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 50%.
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 4.
Mentha oil is used in
(a) medicines
(b) perfumes
(c) cosmetics
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 5.
After harvesting loss in fruits and vegetables in:
(a) 15-20%
(b) 20-30%
(c) 30-40%
(d) 10-15%.
Answer:
(c) 30-40%

Question 6.
How much jaggery (Gud) can be prepared from 100 kg sugarcane?
(a) 10-12 kg
(b) 40-45 kg
(c) 60-70 kg
(d) 30-35 kg.
Answer:
(a) 10-12 kg

Question 7.
What name of Punjabi magazine published by Punjab Agricultural university every month?
(a) Changi kheti
(b) Modem kheti
(c) Kheti niya
(d) Krishi jagran.
Answer:
(a) Changi kheti

Question 8.
From which crop is raw material for textile industry obtained?
(a) wheat
(b) cotton
(c) sugarcane
(d) mustard.
Answer:
(b) cotton

Question 9.
Which machine is used for oil extraction from oil seeds?
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Flour mill
(c) Seed grader
(d) Grinder.
Answer:
(a) Oil expeller

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 10.
Which machine is used for cleaning of seed
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Flour mill
(c) Seed grader
(d) Grinder.
Answer:
(c) Seed grader

True False:

1. Post harvest losses in grains are approximately 10%.
Answer:
True

2. Mentha is a weed.
Answer:
False

3. We can get 15-20 kg of turmeric powder from 100 kg of fresh turmeric.
Answer:
True

4. We can get 30-40 kg of Jaggery from one quintal sugarcane.
Answer:
False

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Fill in the blanks:

1. Post harvest losses in fruits and vegetables is …………….. .
Answer:
30-40 %

2. ……………. is used to dry vegetables.
Answer:
Solar dryer

3. During Mentha processing, oil and water are separated with the help of …………. .
Answer:
Separator

4. Mentha processing plant is used to extract oil from ……………. crop.
Answer:
Mentha.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give one reason of unemployment.
Answer:
Limited number of jobs.

Question 2.
How much damage/loss occur to the vegetables and fruits after harvesting?
Answer:
30 – 40%.

Question 3.
How much is the cost for setting up of agro-processing complexes?
Answer:
5 to 20 lakh Rupees.

Question 4.
How many days are required to dry turmeric fingers after boiling?
Answer:
In strong sunlight 15 days.

Question 5.
What is use of turmeric?
Answer:
Medicines, cosmetics and as dye in cotton clothes.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 6.
What is used for drying vegetables?
Answer:
Solar drier.

Question 7.
Name monthly magazine related to agriculture?
Answer:
‘Changi Kheti’.

Question 8.
How many Krishi Vigyan Kendras are under P.A.U.?
Answer:
17.

Question 9.
Write the name of four agricultural related co-occupations.
Answer:
Cattle rearing (Cows, goats, sheep etc), Poultry fanning, Honey bee rearing, fish rearing, Dairy farm, etc.

Question 10.
What is the use of flour mill (atta chakki)?
Answer:
Used to grind wheat, maize seeds to get flour.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is there any financial help available by government or other organisation for establishing agriculture based enterprises?
Answer:
Government as well as many other organisations provide financial help and training to establish agriculture based occupations.

Question 2.
What is the cost of establishment of agro-processing unit and how much is the income from this unit?
Answer:
Cost for setting up these machines is from Rs. 5 to 20 lakh and one can get an income of Rs. 10 thousand to 50 thousand per month.

Question 3.
Give uses of turmeric (in food).
Answer:
Turmeric is used to prepare various vegetables curries, to give taste, colour and flavour to the food items and it is also used for preparing food and chatnies at large scale.

Question 4.
Which things can be dried in solar drier?
Answer:
Fenugreek leaves, corriander, chilli, garlic etc. and some medicinal plants can be dried.

Question 5.
Write down the names of four agro based industries which can be started at the village level.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about processing of turmeric.
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 2.
Write about processing of mentha?
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 3.
Write the name of any ten agriculture based enterprises.
Answer:

  • Poultry farming
  • Dairy farming
  • Honey production
  • Mushroom cultivation
  • Fish farming
  • Jaggery manufacturing
  • Drying of vegetables and their packaging
  • Agro-processing complex
  • Turmeric processing unit
  • Mentha processing plant.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Indian Democracy at Work Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you understand by democracy?
Answer:
According to Lincoln, “Democracy is the government of the people, for the people and by the people.” In other words, democracy means that form of government in which people rule themselves either directly or indirectly.

Question 2.
Explain Etymological meaning of democracy.
Answer:
The word ‘Democracy’ has been derived from two Greek words, ‘Demos’ and ‘Kratos’. Demo means “The people’ and Kratos means ‘The power’. Democracy, in this way, is a form of government in which the ruling power is vested in the hands of the people.

Question 3.
Describe the one main condition for the success of democracy.
Answer:
Main condition necessary for the success of democracy is :

  • Educated and good citizens.
  • Free and impartial press and judiciary.
  • Well-organised political parties.
  • Co-operation and toleration among the citizens. (Any. one)

Question 4.
How many types of election systems are there in the world?
Answer:
There are two types of methods of elections: (i) Direct election (ii) Indirect election. In the direct election, the citizens themselves elect the members of the Legislature. In the indirect election, the representatives of the citizens elect the members of the Legislature.

Question 5.
What do you mean by public opinion?
Answer:
Public opinion means the opinion of people on a’particular matter of public interest. People’s voice is the voice of God. A government that ignores the public opinion cannot be stable.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 6.
When and under whom the Indian National Congress was formed?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885. It was founded by an English officer named Mr. AO. Hume. Its first session was presided over by Mr. Womesh Chandra Banerji (W.C. Banerji).

Question 7.
When and under whom the Shiromani Akali Dal was formed?
Answer:
The Shiromani Akali Dal was established in 1920 A.D. to bring about reforms in the Sikh Gurudwaras. It was formed under the twin leadership of Master Tara Singh and Sardar Kharak Singh.

Question 8.
Why is India a Secular State?
Answer:
India is a Secular State because India has no state religion.

Question 9.
Describe the ideological base of Shiromani Akali Dal.
Answer:

  • To bring about the reforms in the Gurudwaras and their management.
  • To maintain belief among the Sikhs that their Panth is independent.
  • To end poverty and hunger.
  • To make economic set-up more just.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on National Political Parties of India.
Answer:
There are seven National Political Parties—Indian National Congress, Bhartiya Janata Party, Communist Party of India, Marxist Communist Party of India, Bahujan Smaj Party, National Congress Party, Trinmool Congress Party.

Question 11.
Explain ideology of Indian National Congress.
Answer:

  • Promotion of Secularism and Socialism
  • Non-alignment
  • Reforms in industrial field
  • Modernisation of agriculture.

Question 12.
Describe the ideological base of the Bhartiya Janata Party.
Answer:

  1. The party has pledged itself to defend the unity and integrity of India.
  2. The party stands? for positive Secularism.

Question 13.
Explain the ideology of the Communist Party of India (Marxist).
Answer:
This party believes in the ideology of Karl Marx and Lenin. Its aims is to uplift the working class and make it the ruling class.

II. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the main features of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
Following are the main important features of the Indian democracy :

  1. The Indian Constitution provides for a democratic set-up in the country. Its preamble describes the importance of democracy.
  2. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Equality to all citizens. This right is similar to the principle of democratic equality.
  3. Freedom is the main principle of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Freedom to all the citizens of India.
  4. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution lays stress on promoting fraternity among all citizens.
  5. The Indian Constitution provides for adult franchise in India which is the soul of democracy.
  6. The Constitution also provides for joint electoral system which ensures equality to the people of all castes, religions and races.
  7. Political rights are the demands of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants political rights to all Indians without any kind of discrimination.
  8. Independence of Judiciary, Secularism and Republican system have strengthened the foundations of democracy.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
Explain briefly the electoral process in India.
Answer:
In India election procedure is as follows :

  1. Constituencies. The first important task in the process of election is the delimitation of the constituencies.
  2. Election Notification. The process of election begins with the notification of election. For the elections of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, notification is issued by the President.
  3. Filing of the Nomination Papers. The Election Commission fixes a last date for filing the nomination papers.
  4. Scrutiny of Nomination Papers. On the fixed date, nomination papers are scrutinised by the. Returning Officer and the names of the eligible candidates are announced.
  5. Election Campaign. With the announcement of election, political parties and independent candidates start election propaganda and try to influence the voters.
  6. Polling. On the day of the polling, holiday is declared so that each voter can cast his vote.
  7. Counting of votes and declaration of result. On the fixed date, EVMs are opened in the presence of the representatives of the candidates and votes are counted. A candidate getting the highest number of votes is declared elected. Every candidate is expected to submit the details of his expenses in the election, within 45 days after the election is over.

Question 3.
Name the main means of formation and expression of the Public Opinion.
Answer:
The main means of formation and expression of the public opinion are given below :

  1. Public Meetings. Public meetings stimulate and create public interest in great political, social and economic questions through speeches delivered by men in the domain of public life.
  2. Educational Institutions. It is in the schools, colleges and universities that the life of the would be citizens is moulded.
  3. Role of Newspapers. Newspaper is a very important source of formulating public opinion.
  4. Television. Television moulds public opinion by broadcasting news and comments. It makes the people politically conscious.
  5. Press. Public opinion is formed by newspapers, by presenting news and views on matters of public importance of national and international character.
  6. Political Parties. Political parties help to create public interest without which there can be no public opinion.

Question 4.
Describe the role and importance of Public Opinion.
Answer:
The role of the public opinion in democracy is very important. Public welfare is the basis of public opinion. It always reminds the government of its duties. The fact is that public opinion is the soul of democracy. The source of power of a democratic government is public opinion. The public opinion is the foundation which makes a government stable. The Government always tries its best to mould the public opinion in its favour. The Government implements its policies keeping in view the will and directions of the public opinion. The Government, which ignores the public opinion, becomes dictatorial and puts democracy into danger. Such a government loses the confidence of the people. As a result, it faces a defeat in the elections. That is why the Government tries not to go against the public opinion.

Write a short note on the following :

Question 1.
Main objectives of Shiromani Akali Dal.
Answer:
1. Main objectives of Shiromani Akali Dal. (Pb. 2016 I) The Shiromani Akali Dal was founded in 1920. A constitution of the party was approved in the meeting of its executive on September 2, 1974. According to it, the following are the objectives of the Akali Dal:

  • To bring about reforms in the Gurudwaras and look after them properly.
  • To maintain belief among the Sikhs that their Panth is independent.
  • To end poverty and hunger. To make economic set up more just and to reduce economic inequality between the rich and the poor.
  • To put an end to illiteracy, untouchability and discrimination.
  • To make arrangements for public health and security.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
Emergence/Formation of Bhartiya Janata Party.
Answer:
Emergence/Formation of Bhartiya Janata Party.
The Bhartiya Janata Party was organised on April 6, 1980. Today, this party is very active in Indian politics.

Following is the description of its policies and programmes :

  1. The B.J.P. believes that centre-state relations should be improved and it favours the implementation of the main recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.
  2. For free and fair elections, the B.J.P. will update and adopt the Goswami Committee Report.
  3. The B. J.P. will appoint a Lok Pal to entertain complaints of corruption against anybody holding public office including the Prime Minister.
  4. For better Local self-government at the village level, the B. J.P. will make changes in the Constitution and further strengthen the Panchayati Raj system.
  5. The B.J.P. will set up regional councils for Kashmir, Jammu and Laddakh.
  6. The B.J.P. will set up a National Security Council.

Question 3.
Foreign Policy of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Foreign Policy of Indian National Congress. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885. Even today this party is very active in Indian politics.

Following is the description of the policies and programmes of this party :

  • Firm faith in secularism and democracy.
  • To promote socialism along with economic liberalism.
  • To give the status of industry to agriculture. To grant loans to the farmers at low rates of interest.
  • To exempt the industry from licence system and end “the inspector Raj”. To encourage foreign investment.
  • To provide jobs to the unemployed. To improve the economic condition of the working class, to give financial aid to the backward and weak classes to raise their standard of living.
  • To improve the condition of the minorities and the women.
  • To frame foreign policy based on Non-alignment.

Question 4.
Formation of Communist Party of India.
Answer:
Formation of Communist Party of India. In the beginning of the 20th century, a group of redical youth within Indian National Congress was not satisfied with its policies. Russian Revolution inspired under the leadership of inspired Indian Youth for attaining independence through revolution. These disgruntled youth formed many Marxist organisations and assembled at Kanpur 1924 under the leadership of Manvinder Nath Rai. this led to the formation of the Communist Party of India.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 5.
Role of the Opposition.
Answer:
Role of the Opposition. (Pb. 2003 D) In a democratic country like India opposition performs many functions and the most important ones are as follow:

  1. Criticism of the Government. One of the most important functions of the opposition is to criticise the Government. The opposition points out the drawbacks in the laws, policies, plans and programmes of the government.
  2. Suggestions to Government. The opposition not only criticises the policies of the Government but also gives suggestions and proposals to remove its drawbacks.
  3. Alternative Programmes. The opposition provides drafts of alternative laws, policies, plans and programmes to ensure the social, economic and cultural welfare of the people.
  4. The opposition plays an important role in the working of democratic set-up. It makes democracy real and effective. It exposes the lapses of the government before the people.
  5. The opposition parties safeguard the interests and liberties of the people by checking the despotism of the government.
  6. The opposition provides a ready alternative government.

Question 6.
Essential condition for the success of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
An essential condition for the success of Indian Democracy.

  1. A democratic society is necessary for the success of a democracy or democratic country in which there must be political equality.
  2. There has to be earth presence of equal and open thinking in society and it is very much necessary for the success of democracy.
  3. Economic equality must be provided. It means that everyone should be provided equal opportunities for development. It is a guarantee of the success of democracy.
  4. Educated citizens must be there. Democracy is a system that involves a continues and active movement of the people in the political process. That’s why it is essential that literary should be widespread.

Question 7.
Main Principles of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
Main Principles of Indian Democracy;
Following are the main important. features of the Indian democracy:

  1. The Indian Constitution provides for a democratic set-up in the country. Its preamble describes the importance of democracy.
  2. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Equality to all citizens. This right is similar t.o the principle of democratic equality.
  3. Freedom is the main principle of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Freedom to all the citizens of india.
  4. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution lays stress on promoting fraternity among all citizens.
  5. The Indian Constitution provides for adult franchise in India which is the soul of democracy.
  6. The Constitution also provides, for joint electoral system which ensures equality to the people of all castes, religions and races.
  7. Political rights are the demands of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants political rights to nil Indians without any kind of discrimination.
  8. Independence of Judiciary, Secularism and Republican system have strengthened the foundations of democracy.

Question 8.
Indian Democracy at work.
Answer:
Indian Democracy at work. Indian democracy is working quite successfully. India is having indirect democracy in which decisions are taken by the elected representatives of the people. Democracy is completely dependent upon elections and free and fair elections are held India by an independent Election Commission. All the political parties are free to work in society to create public opinion in their favour. Many political parties exist in India which give great contribution in making Indian democracy a great success. So, we can say that Indian democracy is successfully working.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Indian Democracy at Work Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Why are modern democracies indirect or representative?
Answer:
Because modern states are large in size, having a large area with huge population.

Question 2.
What is an election manifesto?
Answer:
It is a document which tells the programme, principles, objectives and promises of a party or a candidate.

Question 3.
Why are election symbols allotted to political parties in India?
Answer:
To facilitate uneducated voters to instantly recognise the party of their choice.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Secret Ballot?
Answer:
The Secret Ballot system means the casting of vote by a voter remains a secret process.

Question 5.
How are the representatives of people kept under check in democracy?
Answer:
The representatives who do not work well can be removed through election.

Question 6.
What is meant by ‘Rule of Law’?
Answer:
By Rule of Law we mean that the government rules according to the law of the land.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of Communalism?
Answer:
Communalism is an ideology which emphasizes the separate identity of a religious group in relation to other groups.

Question 8.
What is the importance of democracy in the modern age?
Answer:
The people get all opportunities of making progress only in a democracy.

Question 9.
Describe any one obstacle in the way of public opinion.
Answer:
Illiteracy. An illiterate person cannot form a sound.public opinion.

Question 10.
How does cinema express the public opinion?
Answer:
Films throw light on the failures and achievements of the government.

Question 11.
Give any one point showing the importance of political parties.
Answer:
A political party, after winning the elections, comes to power and forms the government.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 12.
How are the ideas of democracy and citizenship interlinked with each other?
Answer:
The success of democracy depends on enlightened, honest and vigilant citizens.

Question 13.
Write any one essential condition for the free expression of public opinion.
Answer:
Press and other means of communication should be free and impartial.

Question 14.
Name any one agency through which public opinion is usually expressed.
Answer:
Newspapers or the Press.

Question 15.
After coming to power, the government cannot ignore the public opinion. Why?
Answer:
It is pushed out of power in the next elections.

Question 16.
What is meant by Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The adult franchise means the right of voting is granted to all the adults.

Question 17.
What is the importance of free and impartial elections in democracy?
Answer:
The people elect the representatives of their own choice.

Question 18.
What is an election process?
Answer:
The process by which the citizens cast their votes and elect their representatives.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 19.
What do you mean by the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The right of voting granted to ail the adults

Question 20.
Mention one feature of an election manifesto.
Answer:
It tells the voters about the policies, of the political parties.

Question 21.
Describe any one technique of an election campaign.
Answer:
Political parties arrange public meetings and processions to win over the voters in their favour.

Question 22.
Mention three functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:

  1. Conducting the elections
  2. Counting of votes
  3. Declaring the results of elections.

Question 23.
What is a political party?
Answer:
It is group of citizens having common views on public questions and is organised as a political unit to obtain control of the government.

Question 24.
What do you understand by single-party system?
Answer:
A single party system is that system where only one party functions in the whole of the state.

Question 25.
What do you understand by two party system?
Answer:
Where there are two major political parties in a country.

Question 26.
What do you understand by Multi-Party system?
Answer:
When there are more than two well-organised political parties in a country.

Question 27.
What is a regional party?
Answer:
A party that is organised in a particular region or a state is called a regional party.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 28.
Mention any one difference between a regional party and a national party.
Answer:
A national party has influence all over the country whereas the influence of a regional party is limited to a particular region or a state.

Question 29.
Describe any one function of the opposition party in a democracy.
Answer:
It points out the faults of the government.

Question 30.
What do you mean by proportional representation?
Answer:
It is an electoral device designed to ensure representation of all sections of public opinion in proportion to their voting strength.

Question 31.
What is meant by election symbol?
Answer:
In elections, a special symbol is allotted to every candidate. It is called an election symbol.

Question 32.
What do you mean by simple majority system?
Answer:
A candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rivals is declared elected.

Question 33.
What kind of Democratic Government is in India? (Pb. 2002A)
Answer:
Parliamentary form of government.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Democracy is of two types direct and _________
Answer:
indirect

Question 2.
_________ is a key for the success of democracy.
Answer:
Enlightened citizens

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 3.
India has a _________ government.
Answer:
democratic

Question 4.
Equality and liberty are the basic principles of _________
Answer:
democracy

Question 5.
In India all adult citizens who have attained the age of _________ have been given right to vote.
Answer:
18

Question 6.
An important pillar of Indian democracy is an independent _________
Answer:
judiciary

Question 7.
Political fights are heart and soul of _________
Answer:
democracy

Question 8.
Public meetings are important means for formation of _________
Answer:
public opinion

Question 9.
Indian National Congress was established in _________
Answer:
1885

Question 10.
Bhartiya Janata Party was established in _________
Answer:
1980.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
(d) In India the losing parties accept the verdict.
Answer:
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
The Communist Party of India was formally founded in the year :
(a) 1924
(b) 1885
(c) 1925
(d) 1906.
Answer:
(a) 1924

Question 3.
Bharatiya Janata Party was founded in :
(a) 1952
(b) 1977
(c) 1980
(d) 1984.
Answer:
(c) 1980

Question 4.
Which of the following is a National Party?
(a) Akali Dal
(b) Janata Party
(c) National Conference
(d) Indian National Congress.
Answer:
(d) Indian National Congress.

Question 5.
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by :
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Governor.
Answer:
(b) President

Question 6.
Which of the following is a regional political party?
(а) Shiromani Akali Dal
(b) National Democratic Alliance
(c) Communist Party of India
(d) Indian National Congress.
Answer:
(а) Shiromani Akali Dal

Question 7.
Which of the following is responsible for conducting free and fair elections?
(a) Parliament
(b) Election Commission
(c) President
(d) Speaker.
Answer:
(b) Election Commission

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by democracy in modern times?
Answer:
Modem age is an age of democracy. By democracy we mean the government in which the supreme power of the state is vested in the people. The people directly or indirectly take part in the administrative affairs of the state. The representatives of people make and implement laws keeping in view the welfare of the people. The public can unseat a representative in case he does not work upto their expectations. In fact, democracy is a government of the people, for the people and by the people.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
What do you mean by the principle of Political Equality?
Answer:
By political equality, we mean that all the people should enjoy equal democratic rights. According to this principle, we must not classify the citizens under different categories. So it is clear that political equality means equality before law. All the citizens should hold their positions according to their capability and efficiency. There should be no discrimination on the-basis of caste, colour and creed.

Question 3.
Differentiate between direct and indirect democracy.
Answer:
Democracy can be classified into two categories :

  1. Direct Democracy.
  2. Indirect Democracy.

1. Direct Democracy. In direct democracy, all the citizens of the state directly participate in the administrative affairs of the state. Every citizen takes part in the making and implementation of laws and levying taxes, in deciding the policy of the government and all other important affairs of the state. Even the representatives could be asked to resign if they did not work to their satisfaction.

2. Indirect Democracy. Under indirect democracy, the citizens do not take direct part in the state affairs. They, on the other hand, elect their representatives who run the government on their behalf.

Question 4.
How is the public opinion formed? How can it be expressed?
Answer:
It is the age of democracy and public opinion is the backbone of democracy. A strong public opinion is not formed by itself. Political parties, rulers, leaders, press etc. contribute to its formation.

The following means are used in the formation and expression of public opinion :

  1. The political leaders put their views before the. people in public meetings and assemblies. They explain the policy of their party. Thus people come to know about the various problems and their solutions. This helps in the formation and expression of public opinion.
  2. The press is the main instrument of formation and expression of public opinion. Through the press, the people can express their opinions freely.
  3. The radio, television, literature, cinema, educational institutions and religious institutions all help in the formation and expression of public opinion.

Question 5.
Explain the hurdles in the way of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy for its successful working demands awakened citizens, high calibers, good character leaders with a sense of responsibility and keen interest in the success of democracy. Social conditions are political and economic equality; co-operative and tolerant citizens, well organised political parties, independent judiciary and free press. Absence of these essential conditions is the main hurdle in the way of democracy.

Question 6.
How can obstacles in the way of democracy be removed? Give any two remedies.
Answer:
The obstacles in the way of democracy can be removed in the following two ways :

  1. Spread of Education. Only educated and able citizens can make democracy successful. So education should be wide-spread. All citizens should be educated. Primary education should be made free and compulsory.
  2. Free and Honest Press. A sound public opinion is the backbone of democracy. Press (newspapers) is an effective instrument of public opinion. So it is very necessary to have an honest and free press for the success of democracy. The press should not be controlled either by the government or big industrialists.

Question 7.
Why are modern democracies indirect?
Answer:
Modern states are very large. The number of citizens runs into crores. It is not possible for them to run the government of a country directly. They cannot even assemble at one place. Moreover, we need an organised body, and not a crowd for running the government. The voters elect their representatives to the legislatures or other offices. The number of elected representatives is not very large. This can run the government smoothly and efficiently. That is why, modern democracies are indirect.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 8.
What is the importance of Representation in Democracy?
Answer:
In the modern age, democratic governments are representative governments. It means all depends upon the representation. Modern states have grown in size and population, making it impossible for the people to participate in the affairs of the state. Thus, the system of representation helps them in electing their representatives to run the government. Moreover, the government can know the views of the people and their difficulties and this helps the government in framing right policies to run the administration. Thus the government functions according to the will of the people through their representatives. Thus we see that representation in democracy has great importance.

Question 9.
What is meant, by the responsible government?
Answer:
By responsible government, we mean the governments which were established after the revolutions in England and France. These governments could not be despotic. They had to function according to the law of the land. They were quite different from the democratic governments of today. In modern democratic age, all adults have the right to vote. The government is directly responsible to the legislature and indirectly to the people. But at that time, all the people did not participate in the elections of responsible governments. Such governments were elected by a small number of people.

Question 10.
What is an election manifesto? What are its benefits?
Answer:
An election manifesto is a document which tells the voters about the programme, principles, objectives and promises for which the party stands. An election manifesto is an important document of a political party.

It has the following benefits :

  1. The people judge the political parties by their election manifestoes.
  2. The people are able to form opinion about the aims and objects of the political parties and exercise their franchise accordingly.
  3. The voters are able to know the differences between the different political parties through the election manifestoes.
  4. The political party which comesout successful at the polls tries to implement the programmes published in its election manifesto. If it does not do so, the people can put pressure on it to act according to its manifesto.

Question 11.
Explain simple majority system.
Answer:
In simple majority system, the candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rival/rivals is declared elected. In this system, the elected candidate may or may not get the majority of votes. According to democratic rules, a candidate must be a representative of majority (more than 50%) votes. But sometimes an elected candidate gets less than 50% votes but is still declared elected. Such a candidate cannot be called a real representative of the people. Sometimes a political party getting majority votes sits in opposition in the Legislature and the other party representing minority votes comes to power.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 12.
What is the importance of adult franchise?
Answer:
The universal adult franchise means the right of voting granted to every adult— male or female, without any discrimination. A person above a certain age is called an adult. In India a person of 18 years is an adult. In India every person above 18 years enjoys the right to vote. This right is given to every man and woman without distinction of caste, religion, property or education. In a democracy, people rule themselves or the government is run through their chosen representatives. So universal adult franchise becomes very important. It provides an opportunity to the largest number of people to take part in the functioning of the government.

Question 13.
What is the importance of election campaign?
Answer:
Election campaign has great importance in democracy. Through election campaign, people come to know; the different problems of the country. Political parties try to mould the public opinion in their favour. The opposition parties tell the people about their policies and programmes. They throw light on the wrong policies of the government. They promise that after coming to power, they will do everything for the welfare of the public. Similarly, the ruling party presents before the public its achievements and further plans. All these points make it clear that election campaign has great importance.

Question 14.
Does the electorate have real control over its representatives?
Answer:
In a democracy, people elect their representatives. The electorate has real control over their representatives. The representatives have fear in their minds that the electorate will turn against them and push them out of power if they do nothing for the welfare of the electorate. It is thus clear the electorate has control over their representatives. In some countries, the electorate is entitled to recall their representatives if they do not work upto its expectations.

Question 15.
Why have the political parties so much importance in democracy?
Answer:
Political parties have a special role in democracy. They perform the following functions :

  1. Political parties set their programmes. During elections they prepare their manifestoes and present them before the people. Through them, people come to know the national problems and then form their own opinions.
  2. Political parties help in the formulation of the public opinion.
  3. They contest elections.
  4. The party that secures a majority in the election, forms the government.
  5. The party with minority membership forms the opposition.
  6. The political parties give political education and training to the people.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 16.
What is the importance of elections in democracy? What role do political parties play in elections?
Answer:
Elections are very important in a democracy :

  1. Through the elections, the people choose their representatives to the legislature central or state.
  2. The elections give stability to the government.
  3. People control the government through elections and stop it from becoming despotic.
  4. People change their governments through the elections.

Political parties play a very important role in the elections :

  • They put political problems before the people.
  • They suggest to the people various ways of solving these problems.
  • They give political education to the people;
  • They make people aware of their rights.

Question 17.
Mention the defects of the ‘simple majority’ election system.
Answer:
The representative are generally elected by simple majority. In this system, the candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rivals is declared elected.

There are many defects in this system:

  • The elected representative is not always the choice of the majority. He is generally elected by a minority,
  • The majority party in the legislature represents only minority votes,
  • All parties do not get representation according to the number of their votes,
  • A large number of votes go waste. They do not elect any representative at all.

Question 18.
What is the importance of Secret Ballot System?
Answer:
The Secret Ballot System has great importance in the election process. The following points make it clear :

  • The system of Secret Ballot ensures just and impartial election.
  • The voters are free from outside pulls and pressures in casting their votes.
  • No outside force or fear can influence the voter to cast his vote under the system of Secret Ballot.
  • This system brings the desired result without creating any ill-feeling.

Question 19.
What is the importance of the opposition in democracy?
Or
What are the functions of an opposition party?
Answer:
In a democracy, an opposition party is a great blessing for the people. It has an important role to play :

  • A strong opposition does not allow the government to become despotic. It points out the faults of the government.
  • It brings the people’s grievances to the notice of the government.
  • It brings to the notice of the people the wrong deeds of the government.
  • It provides alternative government to the country.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 20.
What are the advantages of the two-party system (bi-party system)?
Answer:
The two-party system or the bi-party system is the best type of party system. It helps in the smooth functioning of a democratic government.

This system has the following advantages :

  1. Both the parties have clear manifestoes, programmes and policies. The electors are able to make up their mind in the exercise of their franchise much before the date of the election.
  2. It also provides stability to the government. The party which gets the absolute majority, forms the government. The other party acts as an opposition party.
  3. Under the two-party system, the government is able to implement long-term measures of reforms and development.
  4. The opposition party keeps the government alert. It exposes the acts of omission .and commission of the government.