PSEB 4th Class Books PDF | Punjab State Board PSEB Class 4 Books

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हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules.

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

याद रखने योग्य बातें

  1. हॉकी टीम के खिलाड़ियों की संख्या = 11 बदलवें, 5
  2. हॉकी के मैदान की लम्बाई = 100 गज़, 91.40 मी०
  3. हॉकी के मैदान की चौड़ाई = 60 गज़, 54.86 मीटर
  4. हॉकी खेल का समय = 15-3-15, 15-10-15 की चार अवधियां लेकिन ओलम्पिक में 35-10-35 होता है।
  5. मध्यान्तर का समय = 5 मिनट से 10 मिनट
  6. गेंद का वज़न = 156 ग्राम से 163 ग्राम
  7. गेंद का व्यास = 8 ईंच से 9 ईंच
  8. हॉकी का वज़न = 12 औंस कम-से-कम 28 औंस अधिक-से-अधिक
  9. हॉकी रिंग से गुजर सके = 2.1″
  10. हॉकी स्टिक की लम्बाई = 37” से 38
  11. अधिकारी = एक टैकनीकल आफिसर, दो अम्पायर, दो जज, एक रीजरव अम्पायर।
  12. महिलाओं की हॉकी स्टिक का वज़न = 23 औंस
  13. गोल के खम्भों की लम्बाई = 4 औंस
  14. गोल बोर्ड की ऊँचाई = 18 इंच
  15. अन्तिम रेखा से “डी” की दूरी डा का दूरा = 16 इंच
  16. पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक की दूरी = 7 गज़
  17. डाटड शूटिंग सर्कल का दायरा = 21 गज़
  18. बैक बोर्ड की गहराई = 4 फीट

हॉकी खेल की संक्षेप रूप-रेखा
(Brief outline of the Hockey Game)

  1. मैच दो टीमों में खेला जाता है। प्रत्येक टीम में ग्यारह-ग्यारह खिलाड़ी होते हैं। खेल के दौरान किसी भी टीम में एक से अधिक गोलकीपर नहीं हो सकता।
  2. खेल का समय मध्यान्तर (Interval) से पहले और बाद में 35-5-35 मिनट का होगा। आराम पांच मिनट का होगा।
  3. मध्यान्तर के बाद दोनों टीमें अपना-अपना क्षेत्र बदल लेंगी।
  4. मैच के समय कोई टीम अधिक-से-अधिक खिलाड़ी बदल सकती है। जिस खिलाड़ी के स्थान पर प्रतिस्थापित खिलाड़ी (Substitute) लिया जाता है, उसे मैदान में पुनः आने की आज्ञा दी जा सकती है। पैनल्टी कार्नर लगाते समय खिलाड़ी बदला नहीं जा सकता।
  5. हॉकी के मैच में एक टैक्नीकल आफिसर, दो अम्पायर, दो जज और एक रिजर्व अम्पायर होता है।
  6. निलम्बित किए गए खिलाड़ी की जगह कोई अन्य खिलाड़ी नहीं खेलेगा।
  7. अतिरिक्त समय में बदला हुआ खिलाड़ी फिर खेल में नहीं आ सकता।
  8. कप्तान आवश्यकतानुसार गोल कीपर बदल सकते हैं।
  9. कप्तान साइडों के चुनाव के लिए टॉस करते हैं।
  10. कोई भी खिलाड़ी कड़ा या अंगूठी आदि वस्तुएं नहीं पहन सकता।
  11. हॉकी के खेल में 16 खिलाड़ी होते हैं। 11 खेलते हैं तथा 5 बदलवे (Substitutes) होते हैं।
  12. हिट लगाते समय हॉकी कन्धे से ऊपर भी उठ सकती है।
  13. यदि D के अन्दर या D के 25 गज़ अन्दर रक्षक टीम खतरनाक फाऊल करती है तो रैफ़री पैनल्टी कार्नर दे देगा।
  14. गोल कीपर या कोई अन्य खिलाड़ी D में से बाल को पकड़ ले या पांव नीचे दबा दे, तो रैफरी पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक दे देगा।
  15. हॉकी की कोई टीम अधिक-से-अधिक खिलाड़ी बदल सकती है बदलवें खिलाड़ी के स्थान पर फिर उसे बदला जा सकता है। केवल टाईब्रेकर के समय खिलाड़ी नहीं बदल सकते।
  16. गोल कीपर को पैनल्टी कार्नर अथपा पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक के समय नहीं बदला जा सकता, उसे चोट लगने पर ही बदला जा सकता है।
  17. 16 गज़ के सर्कल से बाहर 21 गज़ की डाटड रेखा सर्कल में अंकित की जाती है।

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

प्रश्न
हॉकी खेल में कितने खिलाड़ी खेलते हैं ? और खेल का समय बताओ।
उत्तर—
टीमें और खेल का समय
(Teams and duration of play)

  1. हॉकी का खेल दो टीमों के बीच खेला जाता है। प्रत्येक टीम में ग्यारह-ग्यारह खिलाड़ी होते हैं। खेल के दौरान किसी भी टीम में एक से अधिक गोल रक्षक न होगा।
  2. मैच के दौरान प्रत्येक टीम अधिक-से-अधिक खिलाड़ी बदल सकती है।
  3. एक बार बदला हुआ खिलाड़ी पुनः खेल में भाग ले सकता है। निलम्बित किए खिलाड़ी के स्थान पर कोई दूसरा खिलाड़ी नहीं खेल सकता।
    HOCKEY GROUND
    हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
  4. कार्नर, कार्नर दण्ड या पैनल्टी दण्ड दिए जाने के अतिरिक्त जब खेल रुका हो तो स्थानापन्न (Substitute) खिलाड़ी रैफरी की आज्ञा से मैदान में उतर सकता है। इस काम में जितना समय लगा हो वह खेल के समय में जोड़ा जाएगा।
  5. यदि कोई परिणाम निकालने के लिए अतिरिक्त समय (Extra time) दिया जाए तो दूसरा खिलाड़ी (Substitute) भी किया जा सकता है।
  6. खेल की 35-35 मिनट की दो अवधियां होती हैं। इनके मध्य मध्यान्तर होता है।
    मध्यान्तर में टीमें अपनी साइड बदल लेती हैं। मध्यान्तर कम-से-कम पांच मिनट और अधिक-से-अधिक दस मिनट का हो सकता है।

कप्तान (कैप्टन)-

  1. साइडों (दिशाओं) के चुनाव के लिए दोनों टीमों के कप्तान खेल के आरम्भ में टॉस करेंगे। टॉस द्वारा दिशा या पास करने का फैसला करेंगेटॉस जीतने वाला पास या दिशा में से एक चुन सकता है।
  2. कोच न होने की अवस्था में कोच अम्पायर का काम करेगा।
  3. आवश्यकता पड़ने पर कप्तान गोल कीपरों की तबदीली करेगा। इस तबदीली के बारे अम्पायरों को सूचित करेगा।

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

प्रश्न
हॉकी खेल के मैदान, गोल पोस्ट, शूटिंग सर्कल, गेंद, हॉकी, खिलाड़ी की पोशाक और बैक पास के बारे में लिखें।
उत्तर-
खेल का मैदान-हॉकी के खेल का मैदान आयताकार होगा। इसकी लम्बाई 91.40 m तथा चौड़ाई 55 m होगी। छोटी सीमा रेखा गोल रेखा कहलाती है। गोल रेखा की मोटाई 3 इंच होगी। पुश इन के नियन्त्रण और उसकी सहायता के लिए केन्द्र रेखा के परे तथा प्रत्येक 22.90 m की रेखा साइड लाइन के 5 गज़ के समतल प्रत्येक साइड लाइन पर तथा इसके भीतरी किनारे किनारे अन्दर गोल रेखा का समतल प्रत्येक साइड लाइन पर तथा इसके भीतरी किनारे से 16 गज़ पर 12″ लम्बा एक निशान लगाया जाएगा। कार्नर हिट के लिए मैदान के अन्दर समीप के गोल स्तम्भ से 5 गज़ तथा 10 गज़ पर गोल के दोनों ओर गोल रेखा पर निशान लगाया जाएगा। कार्नर हिट के लिए मैदान के भीतरी कार्नर फ्लैग के 5 गज़ पर रेखाओं तथा पार्श्व (साइड) रेखाओं पर निशान लगाया जाएगा। प्रत्येक गोल केन्द्र से 6.40 m दूर सामने की ओर एक सफेद बिन्दु लगाया जाएगा जिसका व्यास 6″ से अधिक न होगा। झण्डियां केन्द्र रेखा से एक गज़ बाहर को रखी जाएंगी।
हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2
गोल पोस्ट-

  1. प्रत्येक गोल रेखा के केन्द्र में 1.20 m की दूरी पर पड़े हुए दो खम्बों के बीच भूमि से 6.40 m ऊंची (अन्दर की माप) तथा पड़ी क्रास बार से जुड़ा एक गोल होगा। गोल पोस्टों का अगला भाग गोल रेखा के बाहरी किनारे को छुएगा। गोल पोस्ट क्रास छड़ों से ऊपर नहीं निकलेंगे और न ही क्रास बार गोल स्तम्भों से बाहर को होगी। गोल स्तम्भ और क्रास बार सामने से 5 cm चौड़ी और 71/2 cm गहरी होगी। गोल पोस्टों के पीछे अच्छी तरह मज़बूती से जाल लगा होगा।
  2. गोल पोस्टों के अन्दर 4 गज़ लम्बे तथा अधिक-से-अधिक 8” ऊंचे मैदान को छूते हुए गोल बोर्ड लगाए जाएंगे। ये बोर्ड गोल लाइन के साथ 90° का कोण बनाएंगे। ये बोर्ड लकड़ी के बने होंगे।
  3. बोर्ड को दूरी पर सहारा देने के लिए गोल के भीतर लकड़ी के तख्ते रखे होंगे।

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 3

शूटिंग सर्कल (Shooting Circle)—प्रत्येक गोल के सामने गोल रेखा से 16 गज़ की दूरी 3.66 m लम्बी और तीन इंच चौड़ी एक समानान्तर सफेद रेखा लगाई जाएगी। यह रेखा हर ओर चौथाई वृत्त बनाती हुई गोल रेखा से मिलेगी जिसका केन्द्र बिन्दु गोल स्तम्भ होंगे। इन रेखाओं द्वारा घिरा हुआ स्थान शूटिंग सर्कल कहलाएगा।
गेंद-गेंद सफेद रंग के चमड़े या किसी दूसरे सफेद पेंट किए हुए चमड़े की बनी होगी। इसका आकार क्रिकेट की गेंद से मिलता-जुलता है। इसकी परिधि (घेरा) 814” से 97″ तक होती है। इसका वज़न 51/5 औंस से 53/4 औंस तक होता है।
हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 4

हॉकी (स्टिक)-स्टिक का केवल बायां भाग चपटा होना चाहिए। इसका सिरा धातु से जुड़ा नहीं होना चाहिए। स्टिक का भार 28 औंस और 12 औंस से कम नहीं होना चाहिए। स्टिक का आकार ऐसा होना चाहिए कि वह 2” के आन्तरिक व्यास वाले छल्ले से निकल जाए।

खिलाड़ियों की पोशाक तथा सामान–प्रत्येक टीम का खिलाडी वही पोशाक धारण करेगा जो संस्था या क्लब द्वारा निश्चित की गई है। प्रत्येक खिलाड़ी ऐसे जूते पहनेगा जिससे दूसरों को हानि न पहुंचे। गोल कीपर इन चीज़ों को धारण कर सकता है-पैड, निक्कर, दस्ताने, बूट और मास्क।
SHOOTING CIRCLE
BACK LINE 60 YARDS
हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 5

बैक पास-खेल शुरू करने के लिए, गोल हो जाने पर, खेल दुबारा शुरू करने और मध्यान्तर के बाद खेल शुरू करने के लिए, मैदान के मध्य में टॉस जीतने वाले खिलाड़ी पर गोल हो तो वह खिलाड़ी और आधे समय के बाद विरोधी टीम का खिलाड़ी बैक पास करेगा। बैक पास करने वाला खिलाड़ी सैंटर लाइन पर या दूसरी तरफ पैर रख सकता है।

प्रश्न
हॉकी खेल के साधारण नियम लिखें।
उत्तर-
खेल के लिए साधारण व्याख्या
हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 6

  1. गेंद खेलने के लिए स्टिक का उल्टा भाग प्रयोग नहीं करना चाहिए, केवल चपटा भाग ही । प्रयोग में लाना चाहिए। बिना अपनी स्टिक के कोई खिलाड़ी खेल में हस्तक्षेप नहीं कर सकता।
  2. गेंद पर प्रहार करते समय प्रहार के शुरू या अन्त में स्टिक कन्धों से ऊपर जा सकती है, लेकिन गेंद खतरनाक न हो।
  3. गेंद पर इस प्रकार प्रहार नहीं करना चाहिए जिससे दूसरे खिलाड़ी के लिए खतरा पैदा हो जाए।
  4. अपनी टीम के लाभ के लिए खिलाड़ी गेंद को भूमि या हवा में अपने शरीर के किसी भाग से नहीं रोक सकता।
  5. विरोधी खिलाड़ी के रोकने के लिए स्टिक को टांग या पैर का सहारा नहीं देना चाहिए।
  6. स्टिक के अतिरिक्त किसी भी रूप या दिशा में गेंद को उड़ाया, लुढ़काया या फेंका नहीं जा सकता।
  7. विरोधी खिलाड़ी की स्टिक के साथ हुकिंग, हिटिंग या स्ट्राइकिंग आदि की आज्ञा नहीं है।
  8. कोई भी खिलाड़ी गेंद और विरोधी खिलाड़ी के बीच भाग कर उस खेल में बाधा नहीं पहुंचाएगा और न ही वह स्वयं स्टिक द्वारा विरोधी के खेल में बाधा डाल सकता है।
  9. जब गेंद गोल कीपर के चक्र में हो तो वह इसे किक मार सकता है या अपने शरीर के किसी भी अंग से इसे रोक सकता है।
  10. यदि गेंद गोल कीपर के पैडों में या किसी खिलाड़ी या रैफरी के कपड़ों में अटक जाए तो खेल रोक दिया जाएगा और उसी स्थान से पास द्वारा फिर से शुरू करवाया जाएगा जहां पर घटना घटी हो।
  11. यदि गेंद अम्पायर से टकरा जाए तो वह खेल में रहती है अर्थात् खेल चालू रहेगा।
  12. रफ या खतरनाक खेल, किसी तरह का दुर्व्यवहार या व्यर्थ समय को नष्ट करने की आज्ञा नहीं है।

दण्ड-इस नियम के उल्लंघन होने की दशा में—
गोल्डन गोल रूल (Golden Goal Rule) हॉकी के खेल में समय समाप्त होने पर यदि दोनों टीमें बराबर रह जाती हैं तो बराबर रहने की स्थिति में 772, 712 मिनट का खेल होगा। इस समय में जब भी गोल हो जाए तो वहीं पर खेल समाप्त हो जाता है और गोल करने वाली टीम विजयी घोषित की जाती है। उसके बाद यदि फिर गोल न हो तो दोनों टीमों को 5-5 पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक उस समय तक दिए जाते रहेंगे जब तक फैसला नहीं हो जाता।

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

प्रश्न
हॉकी खेल में हो रहे साधारण नियमों की उल्लंघना के बारे में लिखें।
उत्तर-

  1. यदि उल्लंघन शूटिंग वृत्त (चक्र) से बाहर हुआ हो तो विरोधी टीम को फ्री हिट दी जाती है, परन्तु अम्पायर के विचार में यदि रक्षक टीम के खिलाड़ी ने अपनी 25 गज़ की रेखा में यह अपराध जानबूझ कर किया है तो इसे पैनल्टी कार्नर अवश्य देना चाहिए।
  2. यदि आक्रमक खिलाड़ी द्वारा उल्लंघन वृत्त (चक्र) के भीतर हुआ है तो विरोधी टीम को फ्री हिट दी जाती है। इसके विपरीत यदि रक्षक खिलाड़ी द्वारा वृत्त के अन्दर उल्लंघन हुआ हो तो आक्रामक टीम को पैनल्टी कार्नर या पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक दिया जाता है।
  3. यदि वृत्त से बाहर दोनों विरोधी खिलाड़ियों द्वारा एक साथ नियम का उल्लंघन हुआ हो तो अम्पायर उल्लंघन वाले स्थान पर बुल्ली करने की आज्ञा देगा, परन्तु गोल रेखा के 5 गज़ से बाहर (पास) होनी चाहिए।
  4. रफ़ या खतरनाक खेल या दुर्व्यवहार की स्थिति में अम्पायर दोषी खिलाड़ी को
    • चेतावनी दे सकता है।
    • उसे अस्थाई तौर पर मैदान से बाहर निकाल सकता है।
    • उसे शेष खेल में रोक सकता है।

नोट-अस्थायी तौर पर निकाला गया खिलाड़ी अपने गोल नेट के पीछे उस समय तक खड़ा रहेगा जब तक कि अम्पायर उसे वापिस नहीं बुलाता।
गोल-जब गेंद नियमानुसार गोल पोस्टों में से गुज़र कर गोल लाइन पार कर जाए तब गोल हो जाता है। उस समय गेंद वृत्त में होनी चाहिए और आक्रामक खिलाड़ी की स्टिक से लग कर आई हो। अधिक गोल करने वाली टीम की मैच में विजय होती है। पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक के समय यदि गोलकीपर फ़ाऊल करता है तो बाल का गोल लाइन को पार करना ज़रूरी नहीं है।

प्रश्न
निम्नलिखित से आपका क्या भाव है ? फ्री हिट, कार्नर, पैलन्टी कार्नर।
उत्तर-
फ्री हिट—

  1. फ्री हिट प्राय: उल्लंघन (अवज्ञा) वाले स्थान से ली जाती है। यदि आक्रामक खिलाड़ी द्वारा उल्लंघन वृत्त के अन्दर होता है तो वृत्त के किसी भी बिन्दु से फ्री हिट ली जा सकती है।
  2. फ्री हिट लेते समय गेंद भूमि पर स्थिर रहेगी। इसमें गेंद पर किसी भी प्रकार का प्रहार प्रयोग में लाया जा सकता है, परन्तु गेंद घुटने से ऊपर नहीं उछलनी चाहिए। इसमें स्कूप स्ट्रोक की आज्ञा नहीं।
  3. यदि फ्री हिट 16 गज़ के अन्दर मिली हो तो रक्षक टीम के खिलाड़ी द्वारा घटना वाले स्थल के समानान्तर किसी भी स्थान से लगाई जा सकती है।
  4. फ्री हिट लेते समय टीम का खिलाड़ी गेंद से 5 गज़ के घेरे में न होगा। अपनी टीम का खिलाड़ी पांच गज़ दूर होना जरूरी नहीं।
  5. यदि फ्री हिट लेते समय प्रहारक से गेंद चूक जाए तो वह इसे दोबारा हिट लगा सकता है।
  6. फ्री हिट लेने के पश्चात् प्रहारक उस समय तक गेंद को छू नहीं सकता जब तक कि किसी दूसरे खिलाड़ी ने गेंद छू न लिया हो या खेल न लिया हो।

दण्ड-इस नियम के उल्लंघन की दशा में—

  1. शूटिंग चक्र के बाहर-विरोधी टीम को एक फ्री हिट दी जाएगी।
  2. शूटिंग चक्र के अन्दर—
    • आक्रामक टीम के विरुद्ध विरोधी टीम को 16 गज़ की एक फ्री हिट दी जाएगी।
    • आक्रामक टीम को रक्षक टीम के विरुद्ध पैनल्टी कार्नर या पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक दिया जाएगा।

पुश-इन—

  1. जब गेंद साइड लाइन से पूरी तरह बाहर निकल जाए तो उसी स्थान से पुश या हिट करके गेंद को खेल में लाया जाता है। गेंद के साइड लाइन से बाहर निकलने से पहले जिस टीम के खिलाड़ी ने इसे अन्त में छुआ हो उसकी विरोधी टीम का कोई भी खिलाड़ी पुश-इन करता है।
  2. जब पुश-इन लिया जा रहा हो तो किसी भी टीम का कोई भी खिलाड़ी 5 गज़ के घेरे में नहीं होना चाहिए। यदि ऐसा हुआ तो अम्पायर दुबारा पुश-इन के लिए कहेगा।
  3. पुश-इन करने वाला खिलाड़ी स्वयं गेंद को उस समय तक नहीं छू सकता जब तक कि अन्य खिलाड़ी इसे छू न ले या खेल न ले।

दण्ड—

  1. पुश-इन लेने वाले खिलाड़ी द्वारा नियम के उल्लंघन की दशा में विरोधी टीम को पुश-इन दिया जाएगा।
  2. किसी अन्य खिलाड़ी द्वारा नियम का उल्लंघन होने पर पुश-इन दुबारा ली जाएगी परन्तु बार-बार उल्लंघन होने पर विरोधी टीम को फ्री हिट दी जाएगी।

गेंद का पीछे जाना—

  1. यदि आक्रमक टीम के खिलाड़ी द्वारा गेंद गोल रेखा के पार चली जाए और गोल न हो या अम्पायर के विचार में गोल रेखा से 25 गज़ या अधिक दूर से रक्षक टीम के किसी खिलाड़ी द्वारा अनजाने में गोल रेखा के पार चली जाए तो रक्षक टीम का खिलाड़ी उस स्थान से 16 गज़ की फ्री हिट लगाएगा जहां से गेंद ने गोल लाइन को पार किया हो।
  2. यदि गेंद रक्षक टीम के खिलाड़ी द्वारा अनजाने में ही गोल रेखा से 25 गज़ की दूरी से बाहर निकाल दी जाती है तो विरोधी टीम को पैनल्टी कार्नर दिया जाता है।
  3. यदि रक्षक टीम का खिलाड़ी जान-बूझ कर गेंद को मैदान के किसी भाग से गोल रेखा से बाहर निकाल लेता है तो यदि गोल न हुआ हो तो विरोधी टीम को पैनल्टी कार्नर दिया जाता है।
  4. यदि अम्पायर के मतानुसार रक्षक टीम के खिलाड़ी ने अपने 25 गज़ की रेखा के अन्दर जान-बूझ कर नियम की अवज्ञा की है तो विरोधी टीम को पैनल्टी कार्नर दिया जाता है।

कार्नर—

  1. आक्रामक टीम को गोल रेखा या साइड रेखा के किनारे वाले फ्लैग पोस्ट से 5 गज़ के वृत्त में से फ्री हिट दी जाएगी।
  2. पैनल्टी कार्नर लगाते समय यदि बाल पुश करने से पहले ही रक्षक टीम के रिगाड़ी दौड़ पड़ें तो रैफ़री दोबारा पुश करने के लिए कहेगा।

पैनल्टी कार्नर-जब अम्पायर का मत हो कि रक्षात्मक खिलाड़ी ने जान-बूझ कर गेंद गोल पोस्ट के अतिरिक्त गोल रेखा में डाल दी है, और यदि गोल न हुआ हो तो विरोधी टीम को पैनल्टी कार्नर दिया जाता है।

पैनल्टी कार्नर लगाते समय एक खिलाड़ी बॉल को गोल रेखा पर लगे शूटिंग सर्कल के अन्दर के निशान से बॉल पुश करेगा, तो इधर डी के किनारे पर खड़ा खिलाड़ी हॉकी से ही खेलेगा और तीसरा बॉल को हिट करेगा। पैनल्टी कार्नर का गोल तब माना जाएगा जब बॉल गोल के फट्टे (Goal Post) से ऊंचा न जाए या under cut न हो। गोल रेखा पार कर चुका हो।
पैनल्टी कार्नर मिलने के पश्चात् यदि खेल का समय समाप्त हो जाता है तो भी पैनल्टी कार्नर अवश्य मिलेगा।
पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक-आक्रामक टीम को उस समय पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक दिया जाता है। जब रक्षक टीम का खिलाड़ी वृत्त के अन्दर से जान-बूझ कर ग़लती न करे तो कार्नर हिट के समय दोनों टीमों के खिलाड़ी जिस स्थान पर चाहें, खड़े हो सकते हैं। यदि नए नियमों के अनुसार शूटिंग चक्र में आक्रमण रोकने वाली टीम कोई फाऊल करती है, चाहे वह जान-बूझ कर करे, चाहे अनजाने में उसके विरुद्ध पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक दिया जाता है।

  1. पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक आक्रामक टीम के किसी खिलाड़ी द्वारा गोल-रेखा के सामने 7 गज़ की दूरी से मारा जाता है और रक्षक टीम के गोल कीपर द्वारा रोका जाता है, परन्तु गोल कीपर के नियम उस पर पूरी तरह लागू होंगे।
  2. पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक लगाते समय दोनों टीमों में सभी खिलाड़ी नज़दीक की 25 गज़ वाली रेखा के बाहर रहेंगे।
  3. स्ट्रोक लेते समय अम्पायर की सीटी बजने पर आक्रामक खिलाड़ी गेंद के निकट खड़ा हो जाता है। सीटी बजने के बाद और स्ट्रोक लेते समय वह एक कदम आगे कर सकता है।
  4. वह गेंद को केवल एक बार ही छू सकता है। इसके पश्चात् वह न तो गेंद की ओर जाएगा और न ही गोल रक्षक की ओर। अम्पायर की सीटी का संकेत मिलने पर पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक मारा जाएगा।
  5. गोल रक्षक गोल-रेखा पर खड़ा रहेगा। वह उस समय तक अपने स्थान से नहीं हिलेगा जब तक गेंद को हिट नहीं किया जाता।
  6. कन्धों से ऊंची गेंद को गोल रक्षक स्टिक के किसी भाग से स्पर्श नहीं कर सकता। गोल रक्षक को मिलने वाली सुविधाएं उसकी जगह लेने वाले खिलाड़ी को मिलेंगी, परन्तु उसे पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक के दौरान कपड़े और सामान नहीं मिल सकता। अभिप्राय पैड, दस्ताने या अन्य सामान पहन सकता है/सकती है, जो गोल कीपर पहन सकता है।
  7. पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक लगाने पर गेंद किसी भी ऊंचाई तक जा सकती है।
  8. यदि पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक लेने वाला खिलाड़ी या प्रहारक की कोई क्रिया गोल रक्षक को अपने पांव हिलाने के लिए विवश करे या प्रहारक बेहोश हो जाए तो स्ट्रोक फिर से लिया जाएगा।
  9. यदि पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक के फलस्वरूप—
    • गेंद स्तम्भों के बीच और क्रासबार के नीचे गोल रेखा को पूरी तरह पार कर जाए तो गोल हो जाता है।
    • गोल रक्षक द्वारा किसी नियम का उल्लंघन करने से गोल होने पर से रुक जाए तो भी गोल हुआ माना जाएगा।
    • यदि गेंद को गोल रक्षक पकड़ ले या गेंद उसके पैडों में अटक जाए तो गेंद रुक गई मानी जाती है।
    • यदि गेंद वृत्त के अन्दर स्थिर हो जाए या बाहर चली जाए तो पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक समाप्त हो जाता है।
    • गोल हो जाने अथवा दिए जाने के बिना खेल पुनः फ्री हिट से आरम्भ होती है। गोल रेखा से 16 गज़ की दूरी से रक्षक टीम फ्री हिट लगाती है।
    • पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक तथा खेल के दोबारा शुरू होने तक की अवधि का खेल उसी मध्य या Half में जोड़ा जाएगा।

दण्ड—

  1. यदि आक्रामक खिलाड़ी किसी नियम का उल्लंघन करता है तो रक्षक टीम द्वारा गोल रेखा से 16 गज़ की दूरी से फ्री हिट लगाने से खेल पुनः शुरू होगा।
  2. यदि गोल रक्षक द्वारा नियम का उल्लंघन होता है तो अम्पायर स्ट्रोक दोबारा लगाने के लिए कहेगा।

दुर्घटनाएं—

  1. किसी खिलाड़ी या अम्पायर के अस्वस्थ हो जाने की दशा में दूसरे अम्पायर द्वारा खेल को कुछ समय के लिए रोक दिया जाता है। इस प्रकार नष्ट हुए समय को लिख दिया जाता है। खेल रोकने से पहले यदि गोल हो जाता है या अम्पायर के विचार से दुर्घटना न होने की दिशा में गोल हो जाता है तो इस प्रकार का हुआ गोल मान लिया जाएगा।
  2. जितनी जल्दी सम्भव हो सके अम्पायर खेल पुनः शुरू कराएगा। अम्पायर द्वारा चुने हुए स्थान से बुली द्वारा पुनः खेल शुरू किया जाएगा।
    हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 7
    मैदान में खिलाड़ियों का स्थान ग्रहण करना

हॉकी टीम में ग्यारह खिलाड़ी होते हैं और पांच बदलवें खिलाड़ी होते हैं। इनमें से 4 फ़ारवर्ड, 4 हॉफ बैक, 2 फूल बैक तथा एक गोल कीपर होता है।

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

प्रश्न
हॉकी खेल के कुछ महत्त्वपूर्ण तकनीक के बारे में बताइए।
उत्तर-
हॉकी खेल के कुछ महत्त्वपूर्ण तकनीक जल्दी से जल्दी पूरे स्तर के मैचों में खेलने के इच्छुक खिलाड़ी, जब तक हॉकी के प्रमुख स्ट्रोकों की जानकारी प्राप्त न कर लें, तब तक खेल का सच्चा आनन्द प्राप्त करना असम्भव है। मैं समझता हूं कि यदि नौसिखिए खिलाड़ी मैच में खेलने से पहले गेंद को मैदान में आसानी से लुढ़काने लायक हॉकी का प्रयोग करना सीख लें तो वह अच्छी शुरुआत रहेगी।

विभिन्न स्ट्रोकों को खेलते समय सिर, पैर और हाथों की क्या स्थिति हो इस विषय में कोई सुनिश्चित नियम नहीं है। यद्यपि सरलता से स्ट्रोक लगाने में खिलाड़ी के फुट वर्क (Foot work) का बहुत महत्त्व होता है। सबसे पहले तो खिलाड़ी को स्टिक पकड़ने का सही तरीका मालूम होना चाहिए। स्ट्रोक लगाने के दूसरे सिद्धान्त व्यक्तिगत अथवा छोटेछोटे ग्रुपों में अभ्यास करने से अपने आप आ जाते हैं। पूर्ण सफलता के लिए यह आवश्यक है कि सभी अभ्यास तब तक धीमी गति से किए जाएं जब तक खिलाड़ी उनकी सही कला न सीख ले। फिर धीरे-धीरे उसे अपनी गति बढ़ानी चाहिए।

प्रमुख स्ट्रोक निम्नलिखित हैं—
पुश स्ट्रोक कलाई की सहायता से लगाया जाता है, जिसमें बायां हाथ तो हैंडल के ऊपरी सिरे पर और दायां हाथ स्टिक के बीचों-बीच रहता है तथा बाजू और कन्धे इसके ठीक पीछे रहने चाहिएं। गेंद को ज़मीन के साथ-साथ धेकल देना चाहिए। यह स्ट्रोक छोटे और सुनिश्चित ‘पास’ के लिए लगाया जाता है और यह बहुत ही रचनात्मक महत्त्व का होता है।

फ्लिक (Flik)
फ्लिक स्ट्रोक में दोनों हाथ स्टिक पर साथ-साथ रहते हैं और यह स्ट्रोक ढीली कलाइयों से लगाया जाता है। फ्लिक करते समय स्टिक गेंद के एकदम साथ रहनी चाहिए। यह स्ट्रोक स्टिक को पीछे की ओर उठाए बिना ही लगाया जाता है। साधारणतया यह स्ट्रोक लुढ़कती हुई गेंद पर और गेंद को जल्दी निकासी के लिए हिट की अपेक्षा लगाया जाता है। रिवर्स फ्लिक में गेंद को दायीं ओर लाने के लिए रिवर्स स्टिक का प्रयोग किया जाता है। प्रतिपक्षी को चकमा देने का यह बहुत ही सूझ-बूझ वाला तरीका है और जब खिलाड़ी इस कला में फर्राट हो जाता है, तो यह स्ट्रोक बहुत ही दर्शनीय होता है। एक जमाना था जब भारतीय खिलाड़ी यूरोपीय टीमों के साथ खेलते हुए ‘स्कूप’ का बहुत प्रयोग करते हुए उन्हें लाजवाब कर देते थे। लेकिन हाल ही में नई दिल्ली में खेले गए टेस्ट-मैच में यह देखा गया है कि सधे हुए ‘फ्लिक स्ट्रोक’ का प्रयोग करके प्रतिपक्षी जर्मन खिलाड़ी भारतीय खिलाड़ियों के सिर पर से गेंद उछाल कर अक्सर भारतीय क्षेत्र या यों कहिए कि भारतीय रक्षा-पंक्ति में घुसपैठ करने में सफल हो जाते थे। आश्चर्य की बात है कि इस प्रकार गेंद 30 गज़ और इससे भी ज्यादा अन्दर तक फेंकी गई। परिणाम यह होता था कि हमारी रक्षा पंक्ति को वहां तुरन्त पहुंचने और बचाव करने का अवसर ही नहीं मिलता था।

अधिक शक्तिशाली फ्लिक स्ट्रोक लगाने के लिए आवश्यक है कि स्टिक की पकड़ बंटी हुई हो यानी दाएं हाथ की पकड़, बाएं हाथ की पकड़ से अलग स्टिक पर थोड़ी नीचे की ओर रहनी चाहिए। छोटी दूरी के लिए फ्लिक स्ट्रोक लगाने के लिए सिद्धान्त में यह कुछ भिन्न है। हमारे खिलाड़ियों को इस कला में पारंगत होना चाहिए, क्योंकि ‘खिलाड़ी से खिलाड़ी को’ वाली आधुनिक नीति का एक यही सर्वोत्तम जवाब है।

यह एक आकर्षक तथा सबसे लाभकारी स्ट्रोक है, परन्तु इसके लिए आवश्यकता है अभ्यास और पुष्ट कलाइयों की। कलाइयों को पुष्ट बनाने के लिए अग्रलिखित अभ्यास किए जाने चाहिएं—

  1. स्टिक के ऊपरी हिस्से को बाएं हाथ से पकड़ें और इसके पास ही दाएं हाथ से, स्टिक को थोड़ा पलट कर गेंद दायीं ओर धकेल दें। स्ट्रोक के प्रारम्भ में शरीर के वज़न का दबाव बाएं पैर पर पड़ता है, दायां कन्धा घूम जाता है और इसके साथ ही कलाई के झटके के साथ स्ट्रोक लगता है। इस स्ट्रोक को अभ्यास में लाने के लिए गेंद को घेरे के आकार में रिवर्स स्ट्रोक से लुढ़काएं।
  2. गेंद उसी प्रकार आगे बढ़ाएं, परन्तु उसी स्थिति में रहते हुए और स्टिक को सिर्फ बाएं हाथ से पकड़ कर।
    ये दो अभ्यास बहुत आवश्यक हैं, विशेषकर उन भारतीय खिलाड़ियों के लिए जो ‘लेफ्ट फ्लिक’ या ‘पुश’ में बिल्कुल ही अनाड़ी हैं। इससे उनके बाएं हाथ को वह शक्ति भी प्राप्त होगी, जो फ्लिक स्ट्रोक के लिए आवश्यक है। यह स्ट्रोक गेंद को तेज़ गति प्रदान करने की दृष्टि से भी, और गेंद की शीघ्र निकासी के लिए भी उपयोगी है। इस स्ट्रोक के द्वारा खिलाड़ी अपने पास की दिशा तो छिपाता ही है, साथ ही बाएं हाथ की भिड़न्त के लिए आवश्यक शक्ति भी प्राप्त करता है।

स्कूप (Scoop)
यह स्ट्रोक जानबूझ कर गेंद उछालने के लिए लगाया जाता है। स्टिक तिरछी झुकी हुई, ज़मीन से कुछ ऊपर गेंद के पीछे रहती है और स्टिक पर खिलाड़ी की पकड़ में दोनों हाथ एक-दूसरे से काफ़ी दूर रहते हैं। गेंद के ज़मीन पर गिरते समय यदि तथा यह स्ट्रोक लगाते समय खेल में किसी प्रकार का जोखिम पैदा हो जाए तो इसे नियम भंग की कार्यवाही मानना चाहिए। हालांकि एक लैफ्ट विंगर के लिए प्रतिपक्षी खिलाड़ी को उसकी स्टिक पर से गेंद उछालकर उसे चकमा देने की दृष्टि से यह स्ट्रोक बहुत ही लाभकारी है, परन्तु इसका प्रयोग कभी-कभी ही करना चाहिए। भारी तथा कीचड़ वाले मैदान पर यह स्ट्रोक बहुत उपयोगी रहती है।

ड्राइव (Drive)
यह एक ग़लत धारणा है कि गेंद को ज़ोर से हिट करने के लिए स्टिक को किसी भी तरफ कन्धे से ऊपर से ले जाना आवश्यक है। सच तो यह है कि हॉकी को पीछे की तरफ थोड़ा-सा उठाकर हिट करने से गेंद अपने लक्ष्य तक अपेक्षाकृत अधिक शीघ्रता से पहुंच सकती है। हिट की गति और शक्ति खिलाड़ी के फुट वर्क (Foot work) समयानुपात तथा गेंद को हिट करते समय कलाइयों से मिली ताकत पर निर्भर करती है। खिलाड़ी को काटदार या नीचे से प्रहार करने से बचना चाहिए, क्योंकि ये स्ट्रोक नियम विरुद्ध होते हैं।

लंज (Lunge)
यह स्ट्रोक लगाते समय खिलाड़ी के एक हाथ में स्टिक, बाजू पूरी खिंची हुई तथा एक पैर पर शरीर टिका हुआ और घुटने मुड़े हुए होते हैं। जब प्रतिपक्षी खिलाड़ी भिड़न्त की सीमा से दूर हो तो गेंद को उसकी स्टिक से बचाने के लिए इस स्ट्रोक का प्रयोग किया जाता है। फारवर्ड खिलाड़ी गेंद को साइड लाइन तथा गोल लाइन से बाहर जाने वाली गेंद को स्ट्रोक द्वारा अतिरिक्त पहुंच की सहायता से रोक सकते हैं।

जैब (Jab)
यह एक और एक हत्था स्ट्रोक है। इसे दाएं हाथ से भी लगाया जा सकता है और बाएं से भी। इस स्ट्रोक का उपयोग गेंद को धकियाने के लिए किया जाता है। गेंद धकियाने की यह ऐसी गतिशील फारवर्ड कार्यवाही है, जिसमें खिलाड़ी ने एक हाथ से स्टिक पकड़ी हुई होती है और उसकी बाजू पूरी तरह आगे तक बढ़ी हुई रहती है। जब दो विपक्षी खिलाड़ी गेंद हथियाने के उद्देश्य से आगे बढ़ रहे हों, तो इससे पहले कि उनमें से कोई गेंद हथियाए, गेंद को उनकी पहुंच से बाहर धकेलने के लिए यह स्ट्रोक प्रयोग में लाया जाता है।

जैब तथा लंज के अभ्यास के लिए
(क) स्टिक को एक हाथ से पकड़ और बाजू पूरी तरह आगे बढ़ा कर खिलाड़ी को ‘शार्प जैब’ का अभ्यास करना चाहिए।
(ख)

  1. स्टिक बाएं हाथ से पकड़ कर, बाजू पूरी तरह आगे तक बढ़ाकर खिलाड़ी को रिवर्स स्ट्रोक खेलने का अभ्यास करना चाहिए, इससे बाईं कलाई में मजबूती आएगी।
  2. गेंद को अपने बीच में रख कर दो खिलाड़ी खड़े हो जाएं। फिर गेंद को खेलने के लिए तेज़ी से दौड़ पड़ें। दोनों ही खिलाड़ियों को एक-दूसरे से पहले गेंद को दाएं हाथ से जैब करने, और इसके बाद बाएं हाथ से लंज करने का प्रयत्न करना चाहिए।

इन दोनों एक हत्थे स्ट्रोकों का नियमित अभ्यास आवश्यक है। जब दोनों हाथों से खेलना या स्ट्रोक लगाना असम्भव हो, तभी इन स्ट्रोकों का प्रयोग करना चाहिए। दूसरे शब्दों में, कहना चाहूंगा जब खिलाड़ी को गेंद खेलने के लिए अपेक्षाकृत अधिक पहुंच की ज़रूरत हो, तब ये स्ट्रोक बहुत ही उपयोगी होते हैं।

ड्रिबल (Dribble)
ड्रिब्लिंग की कला हॉकी में बहुत ही महत्त्वपूर्ण है। एक खिलाड़ी तब तक पूरा खिलाड़ी नहीं हो सकता, जब तक कि वह इसमें प्रवीणता न प्राप्त कर ले। अगर वह अपने सहयोगी खिलाड़ी की तरफ गेंद हिट या पुश कर देने से काम चल सकता हो, तो जहां तक हो सके ड्रिब्लिग नहीं करनी चाहिए। कीचड़दार, उछाल या उबड़-खाबड़ मैदानों पर खिलाड़ियों को ड्रिब्लिग नहीं करनी चाहिए। ड्रिब्लिंग का मुख्य उद्देश्य कब्जे में आई गेंद को पहले बाएं, फिर दाएं-इसी सिलसिले से लेकर खिलाड़ी को अधिक से अधिक तेज़ी से भागना होता है। ड्रिब्लिग करते समय खिलाड़ी को स्टिक इस तरह पकड़नी चाहिए कि उसके बाएं हाथ की पकड़ तो सामान्यतः स्टिक के हैंडल के ऊपर की तरफ रहे और उसके दाएं हाथ की पकड़ बाएं से तीन-चार इंच नीचे रहे। गेंद खिलाड़ी से लगभग एक गज़ की दूरी पर रहनी चाहिए। ड्रिब्लिग करते समय स्टिक गेंद से काफ़ी निकट होनी चाहिए।

गेंद रोकना (Fielding the ball)
अनुभव बताता है कि गेंद को स्टिक से रोकना सबसे आसान और फुर्तीला कार्य है। इसलिए गेंद रोकने के लिए हाथों का प्रयोग कभी-कभार ही होता है। पैनल्टी कार्नर के लिए पुश लेते समय या जब गेंद हवा में खिलाड़ी की कमर से ऊपर हो, तब सर्वोत्तम परिणाम प्राप्त करने के लिए गेंद को हाथ से रोकना आवश्यक है। अगर गेंद हाथ से पकड़ ली जाए तो उसे तुरन्त छोड़ देना चाहिए।

गेंद रोकते समय खिलाड़ी स्टिक को इस तरह ढीला पकड़े कि उसका बायां हाथ हैंडल पर ऊपर रहे और स्टिक के ठीक बीचों-बीच उसका दायां हाथ गेंद को इधर-उधर लुढ़कने से बचाने के लिए, उसके गेंद से टकराने से पहले ही हाथों को थोड़ा ढीला छोड़ देना चाहिए। आड़ी स्टिक से गेंद अच्छी तरह रोकी जाती है।

जब कोई विपक्षी फारवर्ड खिलाड़ी गेंद के पीछे भाग रहा हो, तब गेंद रोकने का सबसे आसान और सुरक्षित तरीका यह है कि खिलाड़ी अपने शरीर और स्टिक को गेंद के समानान्तर ले आए। अगर उसके पास समय और गुंजाइश हो तो अपनी दाईं ओर गेंद रोकने का प्रयत्न करना चाहिए। इस प्रकार वह गेंद को आसानी से हिट कर सकेगा।

गेंद रोकने और हिट करने का अभ्यास

मान लीजिए कि दो खिलाड़ी ‘क’ और ‘ख’ एक-दूसरे से 20 गज़ के अन्तर पर खड़े हैं। मध्य रेखा उन दोनों के बीच का केन्द्र है। ‘क’ खिलाड़ी ‘ख’ खिलाड़ी की तरफ गेंद हिट करता है। ‘ख’ उसे रोक कर वापस ‘क’ को लौटा देता है-दोनों का उद्देश्य एकदूसरे पर गोल ठोकना है। अगर गेंद विपक्षी खिलाड़ी की गोल रेखा को पार कर जाती है, तो गोल माना जाता है। अपने उद्देश्य की पूर्ति के लिए खिलाड़ी को ठीक से गेंद रोकने और तुरन्त वापस हिट कर देनी होती है। अगर खिलाड़ी के पास कमज़ोर हिट आती है, तो वह विपक्षी खिलाड़ी के क्षेत्र में घुस कर बच रहे दस गज़ के दौरान में एक फुर्तीली हिट लगा कर उसे ग़लत स्थिति में पकड़ने का प्रयत्न करेगा।
नियम—

  1. अगर खिलाड़ी गेंद को साइड लाइन या उसके समानान्तर खिंची दस गज़ की रेखा के पार हिट कर देता है, तो प्रतिपक्षी खिलाड़ी गेंद के रेखा पार करने की जगह पर कहीं से भी हिट ले सकता है।
  2. अगर कोई खिलाड़ी गेंद रोकने के प्रयत्न में गेंद को रेखा के पार लुढ़का देता है, तो प्रतिपक्षी खिलाड़ी उस स्थान से हिट ले सकता है, जहां से गेंद लुढ़की थी।

इस अभ्यास का उद्देश्य खिलाड़ी की गेंद रोकने और हिट करने की कला को सुधारना है। अतः इस अभ्यास से सर्वोत्तम लाभ उठाने के लिए खिलाड़ियों को विपक्षी खिलाड़ियों के क्षेत्र में फुर्ती से घुसपैठ करने और तुरन्त वापसी के अवसरों की तलाश में रहना चाहिए।

दौड़ते हुए गेंद रोकने का अभ्यास

यह अभ्यास गोल लाइन की अपेक्षा साइड लाइन की दिशा में 25 गज़ के क्षेत्र के अन्दर रह कर ही करना चाहिए। दोनों ही खिलाड़ियों को एक-दूसरे को ग़लत स्थिति में पकड़ने के लिए गेंद को प्रतिपक्षी खिलाड़ी के दाएं या बाएं कुछ दूरी से गुजरती हुई हिट मारनी चाहिए। पहुंच से बाहर जा रही गेंद को बाएं और दाएं हाथ के लंज से कैसे रोका जाएखिलाड़ी के सीखने की यह मुख्य बात है।
हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 8
हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 9

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical हॉकी (Hockey)

प्रश्न 1.
हॉकी का खेल किस प्रकार शरू होता है ?
उत्तर-
हॉकी का खेल सैंटर लाइन के निश्चित नियम से जब एक खिलाड़ी दूसरे अपने खिलाड़ी को पास दे दे तो खेल शुरू हो जाता है।

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

प्रश्न 2.
हॉकी की खेल में कुल कितने खिलाड़ी होते हैं ?
उत्तर-
हॉकी की खेल में 16 खिलाड़ी होते हैं जिनमें से 11 खिलाड़ी खेलते हैं और पांच अतिरिक्त होते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
हॉकी की खेल में कितने खिलाड़ी बदले जा सकते हैं ?
उत्तर-
इसमें जितने चाहो खिलाड़ी बदले जा सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
हॉकी की खेल में कुल कितना समय होता है और बराबर की परिस्थिति में और कितना समय दिया जाता है?
उत्तर-
हॉकी की खेल में 35-5-35 मिनट का समय होता है।
गोल्डन गोल रूल (Golden Goal Rule)-हॉकी के खेल में समय समाप्त होने पर यदि दोनों टीमें बराबर रह जाती हैं तो बराबर रहने की स्थिति में 7V2, 7V2 मिनट का खेल होगा। इस समय में जब भी गोल हो जाए तो वहीं पर खेल समाप्त हो जाता है और गोल करने वाली टीम विजयी घोषित की जाती है। इसके बाद यदि फिर गोल न हो तो दोनों टीमों को 5-5 पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक उस समय तक दिए जाते रहेंगे जब तक फैसला न हो जाए।

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

प्रश्न 5.
हॉकी के खेल के मैदान की लम्बाई-चौड़ाई बताओ।
उत्तर-
हॉकी के खेल के मैदान की लम्बाई 100 गज़ और चौड़ाई 60 गज़ होती है।

प्रश्न 6.
हॉकी की गेंद का वज़न और घेरा बताओ।
उत्तर-
हॉकी की गेंद का वज़न 512 औंस और घेरा 912 इंच होता है।

प्रश्न 7.
हॉकी की खेल में खिलाने वालों की गिनती का वर्णन करो।
उत्तर-
हॉकी की खेल में निम्नलिखित अधिकारी होते हैं—

  1. टेकनीकल आफिशल — 1
  2. अम्पायर — 2
  3. जज़ — 2
  4. रिजर्व अम्पायर — 1

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

प्रश्न 8.
हॉकी की खेल में खिलाड़ियों की स्थिति बताओ।
उत्तर-
हॉकी की खेल में 11 खिलाड़ी होते हैं—

  1. गोलकीपर
  2. राइट फुल बैक
  3. लैफ्ट फुल बैक
  4. राइट हाफ़ बैक
  5. सैंटर हाफ़ बैक
  6. लैफ्ट हाफ़ बैक
  7. राइट आऊट फारवर्ड
  8. राइट इन फ़ारवर्ड
  9. सैंटर फारवर्ड
  10. लैफ्ट इन फ़ारवर्ड
  11. लैफ्ट आऊट फारवर्ड।

प्रश्न 9.
गोल पोस्ट की लम्बाई और ऊंचाई बताओ।
उत्तर-
गोल पोस्ट 4 गज़ लम्बे और 7 फुट ऊंचे होते हैं।

प्रश्न 10.
गोल बोर्ड की लम्बाई और ऊंचाई कितनी होती है ?
उत्तर-
गोल बोर्ड 4 गज़ लम्बा और 18 इंच से अधिक ऊंचा नहीं होना चाहिए।

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

प्रश्न 11.
हॉकी का भार कितना होता है ?
उत्तर-
पुरुषों के लिए हॉकी का भार 28 औंस और स्त्रियों के लिए 23 औंस होता है।

प्रश्न 12.
हॉकी के खिलाडियों के लिए किस प्रकार की वर्दी होनी चाहिए ?
उत्तर-
हॉकी के खिलाडियों के लिए एक कमीज़, निक्कर, जुराबें और बूट होने चाहिएं। गोल कीपर के सामान में पैड, हाथ के दस्ताने आदि होने चाहिएं।

प्रश्न 13.
हॉकी में स्ट्राइकिंग घेरा क्या होता है ? ।
उत्तर-
प्रत्येक गोल के सामने एक सफ़ेद रेखा 4 गज़ लम्बी और तीन इंच चौड़ी होती है, जो गोल रेखा के समानान्तर और उससे 16 गज़ की दूरी पर होगी। यह तीन इंच रेखा की चौड़ाई के घेरे तक जाएगी जिसका केन्द्र गोल पोस्ट होगा। 16 गज़ की दूरी घेरे के बाहरी किनारों और गोल लाइनों के मध्य वाला स्थान जिसमें रेखाएं भी शामिल हैं, स्ट्राइकिंग घेरा कहा जाता है।

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

प्रश्न 14.
पैनल्टी की दूरी बताओ।
उत्तर-
पैनल्टी गोल पोस्ट की 8 गज की दूरी से लगाई जाती है।

प्रश्न 15.
हॉकी के खेल में क्या स्टिक होती है ?
उत्तर-
अब हॉकी के खेल में स्टिक नहीं होती। चाहे हॉकी कन्धे के ऊपर तक उठाई जाए तो भी फाऊल नहीं होता। शर्त यह है कि भयावह ढंग से स्टिक न ली गई हो।

प्रश्न 16.
क्या डी से बाहर भी पैनल्टी कार्नर दिया जा सकता है ?
उत्तर-
डी से बाहर पैनल्टी कार्नर दिया जा सकता है यदि आक्रामक को भयावह ढंग से रोका गया हो।

हॉकी (Hockey) Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

प्रश्न 17.
पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक कब दिया जाता है ?
उत्तर-
जब रक्षक टीम के खिलाड़ी जानबूझ कर गेंद को पकड़ लें या पांव के नीचे दबा लें तो पैनल्टी स्ट्रोक दिया जाता है।

5th, 8th, 10th, 12th Class Date Sheet 2023 Punjab Board – PSEB Exam Date Sheet 2023 Revised 

Punjab Board Date Sheet 2023: Punjab board has announced the exam timetable for classe 5th, 8th, 10th, and 12th. If you are one of the students in any one of these classes, check out the exam date sheet of 2023 along with some other information like exam timings, pdf download, instructions to follow while writing the exam or when you are going to the exam, preparation tips, and many more.

Continue reading the post to know everything about the Punjab board exam timetable that was given subjectwise with all other useful information.

Punjab Board Date Sheet 2023 Class 5th, 8th, 10th & 12th

You can check out all the exam timetables or date sheets of PSEB Board 2023 in the links below. And the official website where you can check these exam timetables for PSEB 2023 is pseb.ac.in. When it comes to exam timings of these classes, matric exams will be conducted on morning shifts and the senior secondary exams will be conducted in afternoon shifts.

Look into the links below and click on the class you are in and check out the timetable of Punjab board 2023 or go to the official website.

PSEB Punjab Board Exams 2023 for Class V, VIII, X, XII – Complete Overview

Pay attention to this section and check out the information that was provided in the below table carefully to know the exam dates, timings, and many more. By knowing the exam dates you can really prepare well for the exams.

School Board Punjab School Education Board
Exam Name PSEB 5th, 8th, 10th, 12th Board Exams
Session 2022-2023
Punjab Board Class 5th Exam Date 2023 16 Feb 2023 to 24 Feb 2023
Punjab Board Class 8th Exam Date 2023 20 Feb 2023 to 06 Mar 2023
PSEB Class 10th Exam Date 2023 21 Mar 2023 to 18 Apr 2023
PSEB Class 12th Exam Date 2023 21 Mar 2023 to 18 Apr 2023
Exam Mode Offline
Admit Card Download Date To be Announced
Exam Timings 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM
Result Announcement May-June 2023
Category Board Exam Time Table
Official Website Exam Portal pseb.ac.in

Note: For any more information other than this can be checked on the official website portal pseb.ac.in

5th Class Date Sheet 2023 Punjab Board

Check out the timetable below of class 5th released by Punjab board 2023. As per the schedule, the exams will be conducted from 27 Feb to 6 Mar 2023.

Exam Date Subjects
27-2-2023 English
28-2-2023 Welcome Life
2-3-2023 Mathematics
3-3-2023 First Language: Punjabi, Hindi, Urdu
4-3-2023 Envoirmantal Studies
6-3-2023 Second Language: Punjabi, Hindi, Urdu

8th Class Date Sheet 2023 Punjab Board

Have a look at these PSEB date sheet of class 8th 2023 released online and we have provided you with the table below. Exams For class 8th will tentatively start from 25 Feb to 21 Mar 2023.

Exam Dates Subject Names
25-2-2023 Social Science
27-2-2023 English
28-2-2023 First Language: Punjabi, Hindi, Urdu Science
1-3-2023 Welcome Life
2-3-2023 Science
3-3-2023 Computer Science
4-3-2023 Second Language: Punjabi, Hindi, Urdu
20-3-2023 Health and Physical Education
21-3-2023 Elective Subjects: Agriculture, Dance, Geometric Drawing & Painting, Home Science, Music (Vaadan), Music (Gayan), Electrical & Radio Work, Sanskrit, Urdu Elective

Vocational Subjects: Simple Home Appliances, Wiring Repairs & Maintenance, Repair, and Maintenance of the Transistor

22-3-2023 Mathematics

10th Class Date Sheet 2023 Punjab Board

As per the Punjab board exam time table, that exams of class 10 will be held from 24 Mar to 20 Apr 2023. Check out the complete subject-wise schedule that was given below.

Exams Dates Name of the Subjects
24-3-2023 Punjab-A, Punjab History, and Culture-A
27-4-2023 English
28-3-2023 Music (Gayan)
29-3-2023 Punjab-B, Punjab History, and Culture-B
31-3-2023 Computer Science
1-4-2023 Mechanical Drawing & Painting
3-4-2023 Mathematics
5-4-2023 Science
6-4-2023 Agriculture
10-4-2023 Social Science
11-4-2023 Welcome Life
12-4-2023 Hindi / Urdu (Alternate Language)
13-4-2023 Home Science
15-4-2023 Health and Physical Education
17-4-2023 Music Tabla
18-4-2023 Physical Education
19-4-2023 Music Vadan
20-4-2023 Tailoring
Languages: Sanskrit/ Urdu/ French/ GermanPre-vocational: Computer Science (pre-vocational)/ Repair and Maintenance of Household Electrical Appliances/ Electronic Technology/ Repair and Maintenance of Agriculture Power Machines/ Knitting (Hand and machine)/ Engineering, Drafting & Duplicating/ Food Preservation/ Manufacturing of Leather GoodsNSQF subjects – Groceries/ Automobiles/ Healthcare/ Information Technology/ Security/ Health & Lifestyle/ Travel & Tourism/ Physical Education and Sports/ Agriculture / Apparel/ Construction/ Plumbing/ Power

12th Date Sheet 2023 Punjab Board

According to Punjab secondary education board(PSEB), the exams for class 12th will start from 20 Feb to 13 Apr 2023. Look into the time table below.

Dates Subject Names
20-2-2023 General Punjabi and Punjab History & Culture
21-2-2023 Music (Vocal)
22-2-2023 Philosophy, Chemistry, Business Economics (for compartment only)
23-2-2023 Sociology
24-2-2023 General English
27-2-2023 Media studies, Biology
28-2-2023 History
1-3-2023 Mathematics
2-3-2023 Punjabi Elective, Hindi Elective, English Elective, Urdu
3-3-2023 Sanskrit, French, German
4-3-2023 Political science, Physics
20-3-2023 Geography
21-3-2023 Computer Applications
22-3-2023 Business Studies- II
24-3-2023 Gurmat Sangeet
27-3-2023 Physical Education & Sports
28-3-2023 Welcome Life
29-3-2023 Home Science
31-3-2023 Economics
1-4-2023 Dance
3-4-2023 Public Administration
5-4-2023 Religion
6-4-2023 Music (Tabla), fundamentals of e-business
10-4-2023 Psychology
11-4-2023 History and appreciation of arts
12-4-2023 Agriculture
13-4-2023 Accountancy-II
15-4-2023 Music Instrumental
17-4-2023 Defence Studies
18-4-2023 National Cadet Corps
19-4-2023 Computer Science
20-4-2023 NSQF Subjects – Automobiles/ Physical Education/ Information Technology/ Security/ Health care/ Beauty and wellness/ Travel & Tourism/ Agriculture/ Apparel/ Construction/ Plumbing/ Power
21-4-2023 Environmental Studies

How To Download PDF of PSEB Exam Time Table of 5th, 8th, 10th & 12th 2023

Checkout the steps to download the PDF of public board date sheet of class 5th, 8th, 10th & 12th 2023.

  • If you are a student of class 5th, 8th, 10th & 12th, then just open the link pseb.ac.in to download your exam schedule.
  • Now, Click ‘’Date sheet 2023” which you can see on the left side of the site.
  • Next, Select the class of 5th, 8th, 10th & 12th.
  • You can see the PDF file opening up.
  • Download it and check out your exam dates that were given subject-wise.
  • That’s Simple!!! Still, if you want you can take out the printout for future reference.

Exam Day Instructions To Follow For PSEB Punjab Board Exams 2023

Look at the below instruction or guidelines that you need to follow when you appear for the exam.

  • You need to reach the exam hall 30 minutes before starting time of the exam.
  • Student should carry their PSEB hall ticket 2023 to the exam hall without fail.
  • Always bring extra stationery before you go to the exam hall.
  • Do not use unethical methods that will lead to strict punishments.
  • Students should not be taken any electronic devices like cell phones or calculators.

Preparation Tips For Punjab Board Exam 2023

Follow the preparation tips before you go to the final exams that were conducted by the Punjab Secondary Exam Board(PSEB). By following these tips you can earn a good score in your exams, especially those who are in classes 10th & 12th.

  • Complete the syllabus as soon as possible, so that you will get enough time to revise your syllabus.
  • Prepare a timetable and follow it accordingly, so that the time will not go to waste.
  • Once after complete your syllabus, try to solve model papers whenever you have time so that you will improve your speed and also you will know where you are lacking.
  • Always prepare notes of the concept you study, that will help you to remember for a long time and at the end, you can just revise that notes.

FAQS on PSEB New Date Sheet 2023 of Class 5th, 8th, 10th & 12th.

1. Is the PSEB date sheet 2023 released?

Yes, the Punjab board exam timetable for classes 5th, 8th, 10th & 12th are released on the official website of pseb.ac.in.

2. How To Download admit card for the PSEB 10th exam?

To know the way to download the PSEB 10th exam admit card you can check out the official website of PSEB.

3. Which type of exam is conducted by PSEB, is it offline or online?

The exams that are conducted by Punjab university are offline.

4. What are the exam dates of PSEB class 12th?

The exam dates of the PSEB Punjab board class 12th are 20 Feb to 13 Apr 2023.

Final Words

We aspire that the knowledge we have shared regarding the Punjab board timetable 2023 is useful for you. Follow the tips to score good marks in the examination. If you still have any doubts you can comment to us or check the official website of PSEB.

If you like to check other states’ exam timetables, check out our board exam timetable at versionweekly.com website.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Guide The Solid State InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the term ‘amorphous’. Give a few examples of amorphous solids.
Answer:
Amorphous solids are the solids whose constituent particles are of irregular shapes and have short range order. In such an arrangement, a regular and periodically repeating pattern is observed over short distances only. Examples are glass, rubber, and plastic.

Question 2.
What makes a glass different from a solid such as quartz? Under what conditions could quartz be converted into glass?
Answer:
Glass is an amorphous solid in which the constituent particles (SiO4 tetrahedral) have only a short range order, but in quartz, the constituent particles have both long range and short range orders. Quartz can be converted into glass by melting it and cooling it rapidly.

Question 3.
Classify each of the following solids as ionic, metallic, molecular, network (covalent) or amorphous.
(i) Tetra phosphorus decoxide (P4O10)
(ii) Ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4
(iii) SiC
(iv) I2
(v) P4
(vi) Plastic
(vii) Graphite
(viii) Brass
(ix) Rb
(x) LiBr (xi) Si.
Answer:
Ionic Solid – (ii) Ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4, (x) LiBr
Metallic Solid – (viii) Brass, (ix) Rb
Molecular Solid – (i) Tetra phosphorus decoxide (P4O10), (iv) I2, (v) P4.
Covalent (network) Solid – (iii) SiC, (vii) Graphite, (xi) Si
Amorphous Solid – (vi) Plastic

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 4.
(i) What is meant by the term ‘coordination number’?
(ii) What is the coordination number of atoms:
(a) in a cubic close-packed structure?
(b) in a body-centred cubic structure?
Answer:
(i) The number of nearest neighbours of any constituent particle present in the crystal lattice is called its coordination number.
(ii) The coordination number of atoms
(a) in a cubic close-packed structure is 12, and
(b) in a body-centred cubic structure is 8

Question 5.
How can you determine the atomic mass of an unknown metal if you know its density and the dimension of its unit cell? Explain.
Answer:
Atomic mass of element, M = \(\frac{d a^{3} N_{A}}{z}\)
where, d = density
NA = Avogadro’s number
z = Number of atoms present in one unit cell.

Question 6.
‘Stability of a crystal is reflected in the magnitude of its melting point’. Comment. Collect melting points of solid water, ethyl alcohol, diethyl ether and methane from a data book. What can you say about the intermolecular forces between these molecules?
Answer:
(i) Higher the melting point, greater is the intermolecular force of attraction and greater is the stability. A substance with higher melting point is more stable than a substance with lower melting point.

(ii) The melting points of the given substances are:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 1
The intermolecular forces in molecules of water and ethyl alcohol are mainly hydrogen bonding. The magnitude is more in water than in ethyl alcohol which is evident from the value of their melting points. The intermolecular forces in the molecules of diethyl ether are dipolar forces while in methane only weak vander waals’ force of attraction exist. The value of melting points are the evidences for the same.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 7.
How will you distinguish between the following pairs of terms:
(i) Hexagonal close-packing and cubic close-packing?
(ii) Crystal lattice and unit cell?
(iii) Tetrahedral void and octahedral void?
Answer:
(i) Hexagonal close packing (hep): The first layer is formed utilizing maximum space, thus wasting minimum space. In every second row the particles occupy the depressions (also called voids) between the particles of the first row. In the third row, the particles are vertically aligned with those in the first row giving AB AB AB … arrangement. This structure has hexagonal symmetry and is known as hexagonal close packing (hep). This packing is more efficient and leaves small space which is unoccupied by spheres. In hep arrangement, the coordination number is 12 and only 26% space is free. A single unit cell has 4 atoms.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 2
Cubic close packing (ccp) Again, if we start with hexagonal layer of spheres and second layer of spheres is arranged by placing the spheres over the voids of the first layer, half of these holes can be filled by these spheres. Presume that spheres in the third layer are arranged to cover octahedral holes. This arrangement leaves third layer not resembling with either first or second layer, but fourth layer is similar to first, fifth
layer to second, sixth to third and so on giving pattern ABCABCABC …. This arrangement has cubic symmetry and is known as cubic closed packed (ccp) arrangement. This is also called face-centred cubic (fee) arrangement.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 3
The free space available in this packing is 26% and coordination number is 12.

(ii) The regular three dimensional arrangement of identical points in the space which represent how the constituent particles (atoms, ions, molecules) are arranged in a crystal is called a crystal lattice.
A unit cell is the smallest portion of a crystal lattice, which when repeated over and again in different directions produces the complete crystal lattice.

(iii) A void surrounded by four spheres occupying the corners of tetrahedron is called a tetrahedral void. It is much smaller than the size of spheres in the close packing. A void surrounded by six spheres along the corners of an octahedral is called octahedral void. The size of the octahedral void is smaller than that of the spheres in the close packing but larger than the tetrahedral void.

Question 8.
How many lattice points are there in one unit cell of each of the following lattice?
(i) Face-centred cubic
(ii) Face-centred tetragonal
(iii) Body-centred
Solution:
(i) Number of corner atoms per unit cell
= 8 corners × \(\frac{1}{8}\) atom per unit cell 8
= 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) = 1 atom 8
Number of face centred atoms per unit cell
= 6 face centred atoms × \(\frac{1}{2}\) atom per unit cell
= 6 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 3 atoms
∴ Total number of atoms or lattice points =1 + 3 = 4

(ii) As in (i) ;
No. of lattice points = 4

(iii) In bcc unit cell, number of comer atoms per unit cell
= 8 corners × \(\frac{1}{8}\) per corner atom 8
= 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) = 1 atom 8
Number of atoms at body centre = 1 × 1 = 1 atom
∴ Total number of atoms or lattice points = 1 + 1 = 2

Question 9.
Explain
(i) The basis of similarities and differences between metallic and ionic crystals.
(ii) Ionic solids are hard and brittle.
Answer:
(i) Similarities
(a) Both ionic and metallic crystals have electrostatic forces of attraction. In ionic crystals, these are between the oppositely charged ions. In metals, these are among the valence electrons and the kernels.
(b) In both cases, the bond is non-directional.

Differences
(a) In ionic crystals, the ions are not free to move. Hence, they cannot conduct electricity in the solid state. They can do so only in the molten state or in aqueous solution. In metals, the valence electrons are not bound but are free to move. Hence, they can conduct electricity in the solid state.

(b) Ionic bond is strong due to electrostatic forces of attraction. Metallic bond may be weak or strong depending upon the number of valence electrons and the size of the kernels.

(ii) Ionic crystals are hard because there are strong electrostatic forces of attraction among the oppositely charged ions. They are brittle because ionic bond is non-directional.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 10.
Calculate the efficiency of packing in case of a metal crystal for
(i) simple cubic
(ii) body-centred cubic
(iii) face-centred cubic (with the assumptions that atoms are touching each other).
Solution:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 4
(i) Simple Cubic: In a simple cubic lattice, the particles are located only at the corners of the cube and touch each other along the edge.
Let the edge length of the cube be ‘a’ and the radius of each particle be r.
So, we can write: a = 2r
Now, volume of the cubic unit cell = a3
= (2r)3
= 8r3
We know that the number of particles per unit cell is 1.
Therefore, volume of the occupied unit cell
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 5

(ii) Body-centred cubic: It can be observed from the figure given below that the atom at the centre is in contact with the other two atoms diagonally arranged.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 6
From ΔFED, we have
b2 = a2 + a2
⇒ b2 = 2a2
⇒ b = √2a
Again, from ΔAFD, we have
c2 = a2 + b2
⇒ c2 = a2 + 2a2 (since b2 = 2a2)
⇒ c2 = 3a2
⇒ c = √3a
Let the radius of the atom be r.
Length of the body diagonal, c = 4r
⇒ √3a = 4 r
⇒ a = \(\frac{4 r}{\sqrt{3}}\)
r = \(\frac{\sqrt{3} a}{4}\)
or Volume of the unit cell a3 = (\(\frac{4 r}{\sqrt{3}}\))3
A body-centred cubic lattice contains 2 atoms.
So, volume of the occupied cubic lattice = 2 x \(\frac{4}{3}\) r3
= \(\frac{8}{3}\)πr3
∴ Packing efficiency
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 7
(iii) Face-centred cubic: Let the edge length of the unit cell be ‘a’ and the length of the face diagonal AC be b.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 8
From AABC, we have
AC2 = BC2 + AB2
⇒ b2 = a2 + a2
⇒ b2 = 2a2
⇒ b = √2a
⇒ 4r = √2a ⇒ = \(\frac{4 r}{\sqrt{2}}\) (∵ b = 4r)
Volume of the unit cell, a3 = (\(\frac{4 r}{\sqrt{2}}\))3
A face-centred cubic lattic contains 4 atoms
So, volume of the occupied cubic lattic = 4 × \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3 = \(\frac{16}{3}\) πr3
∴ Packing efficiency
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 9

Question 11.
Silver crystallises in fee lattice. If edge length of the cell is 4.07 × 10-8 cm and density is 10.5 g cm-3, calculate the atomic mass of silver.
Solution:
Given, a = 4.07 × 10-8 cm, d = 10.5 g cm-3
Number of atoms in fee lattice (z) = 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 6 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 1 + 3 = 4
We also know that, NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol-1 (Avogadro’s constant)
Using the formula
d = \(\frac{z M}{a^{3} N_{A}}\)
M = \(\frac{d a^{3} N_{\cdot A}}{z}\)
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 10
= 107.13 g mol-1
Hence, atomic mass of silver = 107.13.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 12.
A cubic solid is made of two elements P and Q. Atoms of Q are at the comers of the cube and P at the body-centre. What is the formula of the compound? What are the coordination numbers ofPandQ?
Solution:
It is given that the atoms of Q are present at the corners of the cube.
Therefore, number of atoms of Q in one unit cell = 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) = 1
It is also given that the atoms of P are present at the body-centre.
Therefore, number of atoms of P in one unit cell = 1
This means that the ratio of the number of P atoms to the number of Q
atoms, P : Q = 1 : 1
Hence, the formula of the compound is PQ.
The coordination number of both P and Q is 8.

Question 13.
Niobium crystallises in body-centred cubic structure. If density is 8.55 g cm-3, calculate atomic radius of niobium using its atomic mass 93 u.
Solution:
Given, d. = 8.55 g cm-3, M = 93gmol-1
Number of atoms in bcc lattice (z) = 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 1 × 1 = 1 + 1 = 2
We know that, NA = 6.022 × 10 23 mol-1 (Avogadro’s constant)
Using the formula
d = \(\frac{z M}{a^{3} N_{A}}\)
⇒ a3 = \(\frac{z M}{d N_{A}}\) = \(\frac{2 \times 93 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}{8.55 \mathrm{gcm}^{-3} \times 6.022 \times 10^{23} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\)
= 3.612 × 10-23 cm3
so, a = 3.306 × 10-8cm
For body-centerd cubic unit cell:
r = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\) a = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\) × 3.306 10-8cm
= 1.432 × 10-8 cm = 14.32 × 10-6 cm = 14.32

Question 14.
If the radius of the octahedral void is r and radius of the atoms in close packing is R, derive relation between r and R.
Solution:
A sphere with centre 0, is fitted into the octahedral void as shown in the figure given below. It can be observed from the figure that ΔPOQ is right-angled
∠POQ =90°
Now, applying Pythagoras theorem, we have
PQ2 = PO2 + OQ2
⇒ (2R)2 = (R + r2) + (R + r)2
⇒ (2R)2 = 2(R + r)
⇒ 2R2 = (R + r)2
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 11
⇒ √R = R + r
⇒ r = √2R – R
⇒ r = (√2 – 1)K
⇒ r = (1.414 – 1)R
⇒ r = 0.4141 R

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 15.
Copper crystallises into a fee lattice with edge length 3.61 × 10-8 cm. Show that the calculated density is in agreement with its measured value of 8.92 g cm-3.
Solution:
Given, edge length, a = 3.61 × 10-8 cm
Number of atoms of Cu in fee unit cell, z = 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 6 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 1 + 3 = 4
Atomic mass, M = 63.5 g mol-1
We know that, NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol-1 (Avogadro’s number)
Using the formula
d = \(\frac{z M}{a^{3} N_{A}}\)
= \(\frac{4 \times 63.5 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}{\left(3.61 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{~cm}\right)^{3} \times\left(6.022 \times 10^{23} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\right)}\)
= 8.97 g cm
The measured value of density is given as 8.92 g cm-3 . Hence, the calculated density 8.97 g cm-3 is in agreement with its measured value.

Question 16.
Analysis shows that nickel oxide has the formula Ni0.98O1.00.
What fractions of nickel exist as Ni2+ and Ni3+ions?
Solution:
98 Ni atoms are associated with 100 O atoms. Out of 98 Ni atoms,
suppose Ni present as Ni2+ = x
Then, Ni present as Ni3+ = 98 – x
Total charge on x Ni2+ and (98 – x) Ni3+ should be equal to charge on 100 O2- ions.
Therefore x × 2 + (98 – x) × 3 = 100 × 2
2x + 294 – 3x = 200
x = 94
∴ Fraction of Ni present as Ni2+ = \(\frac{94}{98}\) × 100 = 96%
Fraction of Ni present as Ni3+ = \(\frac{4}{98}\) × 100 = 4%

Question 17.
What is a semiconductor? Describe the two main types of semiconductors and contrast their conduction mechanism.
Answer:
Semiconductors are substances having conductance in the intermediate range of 10-6 to 104 ohm-1 m-1. As there is rise in the temperature, conductivity also increase because electrons from the valence band jump to conduction band.
The two main types of semiconductors are:
n-type semiconductor: The semiconductor whose increased conductivity is a result of negatively-charged electrons is called an n-type semiconductor. When the crystal of a group 14 element such as Si or Ge is doped with a group 15 element such as P or As, an n-type semiconductor is formed.

Si and Ge have four valence electrons each. In their crystals, each atom forms four covalent bonds. On the other hand, P and As contain five valence electrons each. When Si or Ge is doped with P or As, the latter occupies some of the lattice sites in the crystal. Four out of five electrons are used in the formation of four covalent bonds with four neighbouring Si or Ge atoms. The remaining fifth electron becomes delocalised and increases the conductivity of the doped Si or Ge.

p-type semiconductor: The semiconductor whose increased in conductivity is a result of electron hole is called a p-type semiconductor. When a crystal of group 14 elements such as Si or Ge is doped with a group 13 element such as B, Al, or Ga (which contains only three valence electrons), a p-type of semiconductor is formed.

When a crystal of Si is doped with B, the three electrons of B are used in the formation of three covalent bonds and an electron hole is created. An electron from the neighbouring atom can come and fill this electron hole, but in doing so, it would leave an electron hole at its original position. The process appears as if the electron hole has moved in the direction opposite to that of the electron that filled it. Therefore, when an electric field is applied, electrons will move toward the positively-charged plate through electron holes. However, it will appear as if the electron holes are positively-charged and are moving toward the negatively- charged plate.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 18.
Non-stoichiometric cuprous oxide, Cu2O can he prepared in laboratory. In this oxide, copper to oxygen ratio is slightly less than 2:1. Can you account for the fact that this substance is a p-type semiconductor?
Answer:
In the cuprous oxide (Cu2O) prepared in the laboratory, copper to oxygen ratio is slightly less than 2:1. This means that the number of Cu+ ions is slightly less than twice the number of O2- ions. This is because some Cu+ ions have been replaced by Cu2+ ions. Every Cu2+ ion replaces two Cu+ ions, thereby creating holes. As a result, the substance conducts electricity with the help of these positive holes. Hence, the substance is a p-type semiconductor.

Question 19.
Ferric oxide crystallises in a hexagonal close-packed array of oxide ions with two out of every three octahedral holes occupied by ferric ions. Derive the formula of the ferric oxide.
Solution:
Let the number of oxide ions (O2-) in the closed packing be x.
So, number of octahedral voids = x
It is given that two out of every three octahedral holes are occupied by ferric ions.
So, number of ferric (Fe3+ ) ions = \(\frac{2}{3}\)x
Therefore, ratio of the number of Fe3+ ions to the number of O2- ions,
Fe3+: O2- = \(\frac{2}{3}\)x : x = \(\frac{2}{3}\) : 1 = 2 : 3
Hence, the formula of the ferric oxide is Fe2O3.

Question 20.
Classify each of the following as being either a p-type or an n-type semiconductor:
(i) Ge doped with In
(ii) Si doped with B.
Answer:
(i) Ge (a group 14 element) is doped with In (a group 13 element). Therefore, a hole will be created and the semiconductor generated will be a p-type semiconductor.
(ii) Si (a group 14 element) is doped with B (a group 13 element). Thus, a hole will be created and the semiconductor generated will be a p-type semiconductor.

Question 21.
Gold (atomic radius = 0.144 nm) crystallises in a face-centred unit cell. What is the length of a side of the cell?
Solution:
For a face-centred unit cell (fee)
Edge length, (a) = 2√2r
It is given that the atomic radius, r = 0.144 nm
So, a = 2√2 × 0.144 nm = 0.407 nm
Hence, length of a side of the cell = 0.407 nm

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 22.
In terms of band theory, what is the difference (i) between a conductor and an insulator
between a conductor and a semiconductor
(i) The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band in an insulator is very large while in a conductor, the energy gap is very small or there is overlapping between valence band and conduction band.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 12
(ii) In a conductor, there is a very small energy gap or there is overlapping between valence band and conduction band whereas in semiconductor there is always a small energy gap between them.

Question 23.
Explain the following terms with suitable examples:
(i) Schottky defect
(ii) Frenkel defect
(iii) Interstitials and
(iv) F-centres
Answer:
(i) Schottky defect: This defect arises when equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice. It is a common defect in ionic compounds of high coordination number where both cations and anions are of the same size, e.g., KCl, NaCl, KBr, etc. Due to this defect, density of crystal decreases and it begins to conduct electricity to a smaller extent.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 13
(ii) Frenkel defect: This defect arises when some of the ions of the lattice occupy interstitial sites leaving lattice sites vacant. This defect is generally found in ionic crystals where anion is much larger in size than the cation, e.g., AgBr, ZnS, etc. Due to this defect density does not change, electrical conductivity increases to a small extent and there is no change in over all chemical composition of the crystal.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 14
(iii) Interstitial defect : When some constituent particles (atoms or molecules) occupy an interstitial site, the crystal is said to have interstitial defect. Due to this defect the density of the substance increases.
Vacancy and interstitial defects are generally shown by non-ionic solids because ionic solids must always maintain electrical neutrality.

(iv) F-centres: These are the anionic sites occupied by unpaired electrons. F-centres impart colour to crystals. They impart yellow colour to NaCl crystals, violet colour to KCl crystals and pink colour to LiCl crystals.
The colour results by the excitation of electrons when they absorb energy from the visible light falling on the crystal.

Question 24.
Aluminium crystallises in a cubic close-packed structure. Its metallic radius is 125 pm.
(i) What is the length of the side of the unit cell?
(ii) How many unit cells are there in 1.00 cm3 of aluminium?
Solution:
(i) For an fee unit cell, r = \(\frac{a}{2 \sqrt{2}}\) (given, r = 125 pm)
a = 2√2 r = 2√2 × 125 pm
= 353.55 pm
≅354 pm

(ii) Volume of one unit cell = a3 = (354 pm)3
= 4.4 × 107 pm3
= 4.4 × 107 × 10-30cm3
= 4.4 × 10-23 cm3
Therefore, number of unit cells in 1.00 cm3 = \(\frac{1.00 \mathrm{~cm}^{3}}{4.4 \times 10^{-23} \mathrm{~cm}^{3}}\)
= 2.27 × 1022

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 25.
If NaCl is doped with 10-3 mol % of SrCl2, what is the concentration of cation vacancies?
Solution:
It is given that NaCl is doped with 10-3 mol% of SrCl2, this means that 100 mol of NaCl are doped with 10-3 mol of SrCl2.
Therefore, 1 mol of NaCl is doped with SrCl2 = \(\frac{10^{-3}}{100}\) = 10-5 mol
Cation vacancies produced by one Sr2+ ion = 1
∴ Concentration of the cation vacancies produced by 10-5 mol of Sr2+ ions
= 10-5 × 6.022 × 1023
= 6.022 × 1018 mol-1
Hence, the concentration of cation vacancies created by SrCl2 is 6.022 × 1018 per mol of NaCl.

Question 26.
Explain the following with suitable examples:
(i) Ferromagnetism
(ii) Paramagnetism
(iii) Ferrimagnetism
(iv) Antiferromagnetism
(v) 12-16 and 13-15 group compounds.
Answer:
(i) Ferromagnetism: They have strong attraction towards the magnetic field. These substances can be permanently magnetised.
In solid state, the metal ions of ferromagnetic substances are grouped together into small regions, called domains. Thus, each domain acts as a tiny magnet. When the substance is placed in a magnetic field all the domains get oriented in the direction of the magnetic field, and a
strong magnetic effect is produced. This ordering domains persist even when the magnetic field is removed and the ferromagnetic substance becomes a permanent magnet.
A few substances like iron, cobalt, nickel, CrO2 shows ferromagnetism at room temperature.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 15

(ii) Paramagnetism: These materials are weakly attracted by a magnetic field. They can be magnetised in a magnetic field in the same direction Paramagnetism is due to the presence of one or more unpaired electrons which are attracted by the magnetic field.
O2, Cu2+, Fe3+, Cr3+ are some examples of such substances. They loss their magnetism in the absence of magnetic field.

(iii) Ferrimagnetism: When the magnetic moments of the domains in the substance are aligned in parallel and antiparallel direction in unequal numbers they are weakly attracted by magnetic field as compared to ferromagnetic substances. Fe3O4 (magnetite) and ferrites like MgFe2O4 and ZnFe2O4 are examples of such substances. These substances also lose ferrimagnetism on heating and become paramagnetic.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 16
(iv) Antiferromagnetism: In these substances their domains are aligned in such a way that net magnetic moment is zero. This type of magnetism is called antiferromagnetism. For example, MnO has antiferromagnetism.

(v) 12-16 and 13-15 group compounds: Combination of elements of groups 12 and 16 yield some solid compounds which are referred to as 12-16 compounds. For example, ZnS, CdS, CdSe, HgTe, etc. In these compounds, the bonds have ionic character.
When the solid state materials are produced by combination of elements of groups 13 and 15, the compounds thus obtained are called 13-15 compounds. For example, InSb, AIP, GaAs, etc.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Chemistry Guide for Class 12 PSEB The Solid State Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why are solids rigid?
Answer:
The intermolecular forces of attraction that are present in solids are very strong. The constituent particles of solids cannot move from their positions i.e., they have fixed positions. They can only oscillate about their mean positions due to strong attraction forces between the particles. This imparts rigidity.

Question 2.
Why do solids have a definite volume?
Answer:
The constituent particles in solids are bound to their mean positions by strong forces of attraction. The interparticle distances remain unchanged at a given temperature. Therefore, solids have a definite volume.

Question 3.
Classify the following as amorphous or crystalline solids:
Polyurethane, naphthalene, benzoic acid, teflon, potassium nitrate, cellophane, polyvinyl chloride, fibre glass, copper.
Answer:
Amorphous solids Polyurethane, teflon, cellophane, polyvinyl chloride, fibre glass.
Crystalline solids: Naphthalene, benzoic acid, potassium nitrate, copper

Question 4.
Why is glass considered a super cooled liquid?
Answer:
Similar to liquids, glass has a tendency to flow, though very slowly. Therefore, glass is considered as a super cooled liquid. This is the reason that glass windows or doors of old buildings are invariably found to be slightly thicker at the bottom than the top.

Question 5.
Refractive index of a solid is observed to have the same value along all directions. Comment on the nature of this solid. Would it show cleavage property?
Answer:
An isotropic solid has the same value of physical properties when measured along different directions. Therefore, the given solid, having the same value of refractive index along all directions, is isotropic in nature. Hence, the solid is an amorphous solid.

When an amorphous solid is cut with a sharp edged tool, it cuts into two pieces with irregular surfaces.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 6.
Classify the following solids in different categories based on the nature of intermolecular forces operating in them :
Potassium sulphate, tin, benzene, urea, ammonia, water, zinc sulphide, graphite, rubidium, argon, silicon carbide.
Answer:
Potassium sulphate, zinc sulphide – Ionic solids (as they have ionic bond)
Tin, rubidium – Metallic solids (as these are metals)
Benzene, urea, ammonia, water, argon – Molecular solids (as they have covalent bond)
Graphite, silicon carbide – Covalent solids (as they are covalent giant molecules)

Question 7.
Solid A is a very hard electrical insulator in solid as well as in molten state and melts at extremely high temperature. What type of solid is it?
Answer:
Since, the solid A is an insulator in solid as well as in molten state, it shows the absence of ions in it. Moreover it melts at extremely high temperature, so it is a giant molecule. These are the properties of covalent solids so it is a covalent solid. Examples of such solids include diamond (C) and quartz (SiO2).

Question 8.
Ionic solids conduct electricity in molten state hut not in solid state. Explain.
Answer:
In ionic solids, electricity is conducted by ions. In solid state, ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces and are not free to move about within the solid. Hence, ionic solids do not conduct electricity in solid state. However, in molten state or in solution form, the ions are free to move and can conduct electricity.

Question 9.
What type of solids are electrical conductors, malleable and ductile?
Answer:
Metallic solids are electrical conductors, malleable and ductile.

Question 10.
Give the significance of a ‘lattice point’.
Answer:
The significance of a lattice point is that each lattice point represents one constituent particle of a solid which may be an atom, a molecule or an ion. The arrangement of the lattice points in shape is responsible for the shape of a particular crystalline solid.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 11.
Name the parameters that characterise a unit cell.
Answer:
A unit cell is characterised by:
(i) its dimensions along the three edges, a, b, and c. These edges may or may not be mutually perpendicular.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 17
(ii) angles between the edges, which are α (between b and c), β (between a and c) and γ(between a and b)

Question 12.
Distinguish between
(i) Hexagonal and monoclinic unit cells
(ii) Face-centred and end-centred unit cells.
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 18

Unit cell Face-centred End-centred
(a) Position of lattice points At the corners and at the centre of each face At the corners and at the centres of two end faces
(b) No. of atoms per unit cell 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 6 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 4 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 2

Question 13.
Explain how much portion of an atom located at (i)comer and
(ii) body-centre of a cubic unit cell is part of its neighbouring unit cell.
Answer:
(i) An atom located at the corner of a cubic unit cell is shared by eight unit cells.
Therefore, \(\frac{1}{8}\)th portion of the atom is shared by one unit cell.

(ii) An atom located at the body centre of a cubic unit cell is not shared by its neighbouring unit cell. Therefore, the atom belongs only to the unit cell in which it is present i.e., its contribution to the unit cell is one.

Question 14.
What is the two dimensional coordination number of a molecule in square close packed layer?
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 19
In square close-packed layer, a molecule is in contact with four of its neighbours. Therefore, the two-dimensional coordination number of a molecule in square close-packed layer is four.

Question 15.
A compound forms hexagonal close-packed structure. What is the total number of voids in 0.5 mol of it? How many of these are tetrahedral voids?
Solution:
Number of close-packed structure = 0.5 × 6.022 × 1023 = 3.011 × 1023
Therefore, number of octahedral voids = 3.011 × 1023
Number of tetrahedral voids = 2 × 3.011 × 1023 = 6.022 × 1023
Therefore, total number of voids
= 3.011 × 1023 + 6.022 × 1023 = 9.033 × 1023

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 16.
A compound is formed by two elements M and N. The element N forms ccp and atoms of M occupy 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?
Solution:
Suppose atoms of element N represent in ccp = x
Then, number of tetrahedral voids = 2x
According to the question, the atoms of element M occupy \(\frac{1}{3}\)rd of the tetrahedral voids.
Therefore, the number of atoms of element M = 2x × \(\frac{1}{3}\) = \(\frac{2 x}{3}\)
Ratio of M : N = \(\frac{2 x}{3}\): x = 2 : 3
Thus, the formula of the compound is M2N3.

Question 17.
Which of the following lattices has the highest packing efficiency
(i) simple cubic
(ii) body-centred cubic and
(iii) hexagonal close-packed lattice?
Answer:
Hexagonal close-packed lattice has the highest packing efficiency of 74%. The packing efficiencies of simple cubic and body-centred cubic lattices are 52.4% and 68% respectively.

Question 18.
An element with molar mass 2.7 × 10-2 kg mol-1 forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405 pm. If its density is 2.7 × 103 kgm-3, what is the nature of the cubic unit cell?
Solution:
Given density, d = 2.7 × 103 kg m-3
Molar mass, M =2.7 × 10-2 kg mol-1
Edge length, a = 405 pm = 405 × 10-12m = 4.05 × 10-10 m
Avogadro’s number, NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol-1
Using the formula d = \(\frac{z \times M}{a^{3} \times N_{A}}\) => z = \(\frac{d \times a^{3} \times N_{A}}{M}\)
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 20
= 4.004 = 4
Since, there are four atoms of the element present per unit cell. Hence, the cubic unit cell is face-centred cubic {fee) or cubic close-packed (ccp).

Question 19.
What type of defect can arise when a solid is heated? Which physical property is affected by it and in what way?
Answer:
When a solid is heated, vacancy defect can arise. A solid crystal is said to have vacancy defect when some of the lattice sites are vacant. Vacancy defect leads to a decrease in the density of the solid.

Question 20.
What type of stoichiometric defect is shown’by:
(i) ZnS
(ii) AgBr
Answer:
(i) ZnS shows Frenkel defect because its ions have large difference in size.
(ii) AgBr shows Frenkel defect as well as Schottky defect.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 21.
Explain how vacancies are introduced in an ionic solid when a cation of higher valence is added as an impurity in it.
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State 21
When a cation of higher valence is added to an ionic solid as an impurity to it, the cation of higher valence replaces more than one cation of lower valence so as to keep the crystal electrically neutral. As a result, some sites become vacant. For example, when Sr2+is added to NaCl, each Sr2+ ion replaces two Na+ ions. However, one Sr2+ ion occupies the site of one Na+ ion and the other site remains vacant. Hence, vacancies are introduced. The reason is that the crystal as a whole is to remain electrically neutral.

Question 22.
Ionic solids, which have anionic vacancies due to metal excess defect, develop colour. Explain with the help of a suitable example.
Answer:
The colour develops because of the presence of electrons in the anionic sites. These electrons absorb energy from the visible part of radiation and get excited. For example, when crystals of NaCl are heated in an atmosphere of sodium vapours, the sodium atoms get deposited on the surface of the crystal and the chloride ions from the crystal diffuse to the surface to form NaCl with the deposited Na atoms. During this process, the Na atoms on the surface lose electrons to form Na+ ions and the released electrons diffuse into the crystal to occupy the vacant anionic sites. These electrons get excited by absorbing energy from the visible light and impart yellow colour to the crystals. These electrons are called F-centres (from the German word Farbenzenter meaning colour centre).

Question 23.
A group 14 element is to be converted into re-type semiconductor by doping it with a suitable impurity. To which group should this impurity belong?
Answer:
An n-type semiconductor conducts because of the presence of extra electrons. Therefore, a group 14 element can be converted to n-type semiconductor by doping it with a group 15 element.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 The Solid State

Question 24.
What type of substances would make better permanent magnets, ferromagnetic or ferrimagnetic. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Ferromagnetic substances make better permanent magnets than ferrimagnetic substances.
In solid state, the metal ions of ferromagnetic substances are grouped together into small regions. These regions are called domains and each domain acts as a tiny magnet. In an unmagnetised piece of a ferromagnetic substance, the domains are randomly oriented. As a result, the magnetic moments of the domains get cancelled. However, when the substance is placed in a magnetic field, all the domains get oriented in the direction of the magnetic field and a strong magnetic effect is produced.

The ordering of the domains persists even after the removal of the magnetic field. Thus, the ferromagnetic substance becomes a permanent magnet.

 

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the structures of the products when Butan-2-ol reacts with the following:
(i) CrO3
(ii) SOCl2
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 1

Question 2.
What happens when ethanol reacts with CH3COCl/pyridine ?
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 2

Question 3.
When phenol is created with bromine water, while precipitate is obtained. Prove the structure and the name of the compound formed.
Answer:
When phenol is treated with bromine water, white ppt. of 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol is obtained.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 3

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Question 4.
Answer the following questions :
(i) Dipole moment of phenol is smaller than that of methanol. Why?
(ii) In Kolbe’s reaction, instead of phenol, phenoxide ion is treated with carbon dioxide. Why ?
Answer:
(i) In phenol, C—O bond is less polar due to electron-withdrawing effect of benzene ring whereas in methanol, C—O bond is more polar due to electron-releasing effect of —CH3 group.

(ii) Phenoxide ion is more reactive than phenol towards electrophilic aromatic substitution and hence undergoes electrophilic substitution with carbon dioxide which is a weak electrophile.

Question 5.
What is denatured alcohol ?
Answer:
Alcohol is made unfit for drinking by mixing some copper sulphate and pyridine in it. This is called denatured alcohol.

Question 6.
Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their acidic strength: p-cresol, p -nitrophenol, phenol
Answer:
p-cresol < phenol < p-nitrophenol

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Question 7.
Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of acidity.
(i) H2O, ROH, HC ☰ CH
(ii) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 4
(iii) CH3OH, H2O, C6H6OH
Answer:
(i) H2O > ROH > HC ☰ CH
(ii) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 5
(iii) C6H5OH > H2O > CH3OH

Question 8.
Suggest a reagent for conversion of ethanol to ethanal.
Answer:
Ethanol can be oxidises into ethanal by using pyridinium chlorochromate.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 6

Question 9.
Explain why sodium metal can be used for drying diethyl ether but not ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Due to presence of an active hydrogen atom, ethyl alcohol reacts with sodium metal.
2CH3 — CH2 — OH + 2Na → 2CH3 — CH2 — ONa + H2
Diethyl ether, on the other hand, does not have replaceable hydrogen atom therefore does not react with sodium metal hence can be dried by metallic sodium.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Question 10.
Phenol is an acid but does not react with sodium bicarbonate solution. Why?
Answer:
Phenol is a weaker acid than carbonic acid (H2CO3) and hence does not liberate CO2from sodium bicarbonate.

Question 11.
In the process of wine making, ripened grapes are crushed so that sugar and enzyme should come in contact with each other and fermentation should start. What will happen if anaerobic conditions are not maintained during this process?
Answer:
Ethanol will be converted into ethanoic acid.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is the reactivity of all the three classes of alcohols with cone. HCl and ZnCl2 (Lucas reagent) different ?
Answer:
The reaction of alcohols with Lucas reagent (cone. HCl and ZnCl2) follow SN1 mechanism. SN1 mechanism depends upon the stability of carbocations (intermediate). More stable the intermediate carbocation, more reactive is the alcohol.

Tertiary carbocations are most stable among the three classes of carbocations and the order of the stability of carbocation is 3° > 2° > 1°. This order, intum, reflects the order of reactivity of three classes of alcohols i. e., 3° > 2° > 1°.

Thus , as the stability of carbocations are different so the reactivity of all the three classes of alcohols with Lucas reagent is different.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Question 2.
Write the mechanism of the following reaction:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 7
Answer:
SN2 mechanism
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 8
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 9

Question 3.
Explain a process in which a biocatalyst is used in industrial preparation of a compound known to you.
Answer:
Enzymes are biocatalyst. These biocatalysts (enzymes) are used in the industrial preparation of ethanol. Ethanol is prepared by the fermentation of molasses—a dark brown coloured syrup left after crystallisation of sugar which still contains about 40% of sugar.

The process of fermentation actually involves breaking down of large molecules into simple ones in the presence of enzymes. The source of these enzymes is yeast. The various reactions taking place during fermentation of carbohydrates are :
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 10
In wine making, grapes are the source of sugars and yeast. As grapes ripen, the quantity of sugar increases and yeast grows on the outer skin. When grapes are crushed, sugar and the enzyme come in contact and fermentation starts. Fermentation takes place in anaerobic conditions i.e., in absence of air. CO2 gas is released during fermentation.

The action of zymase is inhibited once the percentage of alcohol ,formed exceeds 14 per cent. If air gets into fermentation mixture, the oxygen of air oxidises ethanol to ethanoic acid which in turn destroys the taste of alcoholic drinks.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Question 4.
Explain why alcohols and ethers of comparable molecular mass have different boiling points ?
Answer:
Boiling point depends upon the strength of intermolecular forces of attraction. Higher these forces of attraction, more will be the boiling point. Alcohols undergo intermolecular hydrogen bonding. So, the molecules of alcohols are held together by strong intermolecular forces of attraction.

But in ethers no hydrogen atom is bonded to oxygen. Therefore, ethers are held together by weak dipole-dipole forces, not by strong hydrogen bond.

Since, lesser amount of energy is required than to break weak dipole-dipole forces in ethers than to break strong hydrogen bonds in alcohol.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 11

Question 5.
Explain why is O = C = O non-polar while R—O—R is polar ?
Answer:
CO2 is a linear molecule. The dipole moment of two C —O bonds are equal and opposite and they cancel each other and hence the dipole moment of CO2 is zero and it is a non-polar molecule.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 12
While for ethers, two dipoles are pointing in the same direction. These two dipoles do not cancel the effect of each other. Therefore, there is a finite resultant dipoles and hence R—O—R is a polar molecule.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 13

Question 6.
Give reasons for the following:
(i) p-Nitrophenol is more acidic than o-nitrophenol
(ii) Bond angle C—O—C in ethers is slightly higher than the tetrahedral angle (109°28′).
(iii) (CH3)3C—Br on reaction with NaOCH3 gives an alkene instead of an ether.
Answer:
(i) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 14
Intramolecular H-bonding in o-nitrophenol makes loss of proton difficult. Therefore, p-nitrophenol is more acidic than o-nitrophenol.

(ii) The PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 15 bond angle in ether is slightly higher than 109 °28′ due to repulsive interaction between the two bulky alkyl groups.

(iii) It is because NaOCH3 is a strong nucleophile as well as a strong base. Thus, elimination reaction predominates over substitution reaction.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Question 7.
Explain the following behaviours :
(i) Alcohols are more soluble in water than the hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses.
(ii) Ortho-nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho-methoxyphenol.
(iii) Cumene is a better starting material for the preparation of phenol.
Answer:
(i) Alcohols are more soluble in water than the hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of H-bond formation between alcohol and water molecules.
(ii) Ortho-nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho-methoxyphenol because nitro being the electron with drawing group stabilises the phenoxids ion.
(iii) Cumene is a better starting material for the preparation of phenol because side product formed in this reaction is acetone which is another important organic compound.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
(a) Name the starting material used in the industrial preparation of phenol.
(b) Write complete reaction for the bromination of phenol in aqueous and non-aqueous medium.
(c) Explain why Lewis acid is not required in bromination of phenol?
Answer:
(a) The starting material used in the industrial preparation of phenol is cumene.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 16

(b) Phenols when treated with bromine water gives polyhalogen derivatives in which all the hydrogen atoms present at ortho and para positions with respect to —OH group are replaced by bromine atoms.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 17
However, in non-aqueous medium such as CS2, CCl4, CHCl3 monobromophenols are obtained.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 18
In aqueous solution, phenol ionises to form phenoxide ion. This ion activates the benzene ring to a very large extent and hence the substitution of halogen takes place at all three positions.

On the other hand, in non-aqueous solution ionisation of phenol is greatly suppressed. Therefore, ring is activated slightly and hence monosubstitution occur.

(c) Lewis acid is an electron deficient molecule. In bromination of benzene, Lewis acid is used-to polarise Br2 to form Br+ electrophile.

In case of phenol, oxygen atom of phenol itself polarises the bromine molecule to form Br+ ion (electrophile). So, Lewis acid is not required in the bromination of phenol.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 19

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Question 2.
Explain the mechanism of the following reactions :
(i) Addition of Grignard’s reagent to the carbonyl group of a compound forming an adduct followed by hydrolysis.
(ii) Acid catalysed dehydration of an alcohol forming an alkene.
(iii) Acid catalysed hydration of an alkene forming an alcohol.
Answer:
(i) Step I : Nucleophilic addition of Grignard reagent to carbonyl group.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 20
Step II : Formation of carbocation : It is the slowest step and hence, the rate determining step.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 21
To drive the equilibrium to the right, ethylene is removed as it is formed.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 22

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why first ionisation enthalpy of Cr is lower than that of Zn?
Answer:
Ionisation enthalpy of Cr is less than that of Zn configuration. In case of zinc, electron comes out from completely filled 4s-orbital. So, removal of electron from zinc requires more energy as compared to the chromium.

Question 2.
Zn, Cd and Hg are soft metals. Why?
Answer:
Because they have one or more typical metallic structures at normal temperatures.

Question 3.
Although fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen, but the ability of oxygen to stabilise higher oxidation states exceeds that of fluorine. Why?
Answer:
Oxygen can form multiple bonds with metals, while fluorine can’t form multiple bond with metals. Hence, oxygen has more ability to stabilise higher oxidation state rather than fluorine.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 4.
Mn shows the highest oxidation state of + 7 with oxygen but with fluorine it shows the highest oxidation state of +4. Why?
Answer:
This is due to ability of oxygen to form pπ – dπ bond.

Question 5.
Mn2O7 is acidic whereas MnO is basic.
Answer:
Mn has +7 oxidation state in Mn2O7 and +2 in MnO. In low oxidation state of the metal, some of the valence electrons of the metal atom are not involved in bonding. Hence, it can donate electrons and behave as a base. On the other hand, in higher oxidation state of the metal, valence electrons are involved on bonding and are not available. Instead effective nuclear charge is high and hence it can accept electrons and behave as an acid.

Question 6.
Copper atom has completely filled d-orbitals in its ground state but it is a transition element. Why?
Answer:
Copper exhibits +2 oxidation state wherein it has incompletely filled d orbitals (3d9 4s0) hence a transition elements.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 7.
Why is zinc not regarded as a transition element?
Answer:
As zinc atom has completely filled d-orbitals (3d10) in its ground state as well as oxidised state, therefore, it is not regarded as transition element.

Question 8.
Zn2+ salts are white while Cu2+ salts are coloured. Why?
Answer:
Cu2+(3d94s0) has one unpaired electron in d-subshell which absorbs radiation in visible region resulting in d-d transition and hence Cu2+ salts are coloured. Zn2+(3d104s0) has completely filled d-orbitals. No radiation is absorbed for d-d transition and hence Zn2+ salts are colourless.

Question 9.
The second and third row of transition elements resemble each other much more than they resemble the first row. Explain, why?
Answer:
Due to lanthanoid contraction, the atomic radii of the second and third row transition elements is almost same. So, they resemble each other much more as compared to first row elements and show similar character.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 10.
Why does copper not replace hydrogen from acids?
Answer:
Because Cu shows E positive value.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do transition elements show variable oxidation states? How is the variability in oxidation states of d-block different from that of the p-block elements?
Answer:
In transition elements, the energies of (n – 1)d orbitals and ns orbitals are nearly same. Therefore, electrons from both can participate in bond formation and hence show variable oxidation states.

In transition elements, the oxidation states differ from each other by unity e.g., Fe2+ and Fe3+, Cu+ and Cu2+ etc., while in p-block elements the oxidation state differ by units of two, e.g., Sn2+ and Sn4+, Pb2+ and Pb4+ etc. In transition elements, the higher oxidation states are more stable for heavier elements in a group e.g., Mo(VI) and W(VI) are more stable than Cr(VI) in group 6 whereas in p-block, elements the lower oxidation states are more stable for heavier elements due to the inert pair effect, e.g., Pb(II) is more stable than Pb(IV) in group 16.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 2.
When a chromite ore (A) is fused with sodium carbonate in free excess of air and the product is dissolved in water, a yellow solution of compound (B) is obtained. After treatment of this yellow solution with sulphuric acid, compound (C) can be crystallised from the solution. When compound (C) is treated with KC1, orange crystals of compound (D) crystallise out. Identify A to D and also explain the reactions.
Answer:
K2Cr2O7 is an orange compound. It is formed when Na2Cr2O7 reacts with KCl. In acidic medium, yellow coloured \(\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}\) (chromate ion) changes into dichromate.
The given process is the preparation method of potassium dichromate from chromite ore.
A = FeCr2O4; B = Na2CrO4; C = Na2Cr2O7; D = K2Cr2O7
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 1

Question 3.
Mention the type of compounds formed when small atoms like H, C and N get trapped inside the crystal lattice of transition metals. Also give physical and chemical characteristics of these compounds.
Answer:
When small atoms like H, C and N get trapped inside the crystal lattice of transition metals.
(a) Such compounds are called interstitial compounds.
(b) Their characteristic properties are :

  1. They have high melting point, higher than those of pure metals.
  2. They are very hard.
  3. They retain metallic conductivity.
  4. They are chemically inert.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 4.
On the basis of lanthanoid contraction, explain the following:
(i) Nature of bonding in La2O3 and Lu2O3.
(ii) Trends in the stability of oxosalts of lanthanoids from La to Lu.
(iii) Stability of the complexes of lanthanoids.
(iv) Radii of 4d and 5d block elements.
(v) Trends in acidic character of lanthanoid oxides.
Answer:
(i) As the size decreases covalent character increases. Therefore, La2O3 is more ionic and Lu2O3 is more covalent.
(ii) As the size decreases from La to Lu, stability of oxosalts also decreases.
(iii) Stability of the complexes increases as the size of lanthanoids decreases.
(iv) Radii of 4d and 5d block elements will be almost same.
(v) Acidic character of oxides increases from La to Lu.

Question 5.
A solution of KMnO4 on reduction yields either a colourless solution of a brown precipitate or a green solution depending on pH of the solution. What different stages of the reduction do these represent and how are they carried out?
Answer:
Oxidising behaviour of KMnO4 depends on pH of the solution.
In acidic medium (pH < 7),
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 2

Question 6.
Identify the following:
(i) Oxoanion of chromium which is stable in acidic medium.
(ii) The lanthanoid element that exhibits + 4 oxidation state.
Answer:
(i) Cr2O7
(ii) Cerium

Question 7.
The magnetic moments of few transition metal ions are given below:

Metal ion Metal ion
Sc3+ 0.00
Cr2+ 4.90
Ni2+ 2.84
Ti3+ 1.73

(at no. Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Ni = 28)
Which of the given metal ions :
(i) has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(ii) forms colourless aqueous solution?
(iii) exhibits the most stable + 3 oxidation state?
Answer:
(i) Cr2+
(ii) Sc3+
(iii) Sc3+

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 8.
Consider the standard electrode potential values (M2+/M) of the elements of the first transition series.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 3
Explain:
(i) E0 value for copper is positive.
(ii) E0 value of Mn is more negative as expected from the trend.
(iii) Cr2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+.
Answer:
(i) E0 value for copper is positive because the high energy to transform Cu(s) to Cu2+(aq) is not balanced by its hydration enthalpy.
(ii) E0 value of Mn is more negative as expected from the trend because Mn2+ has d5 configuration i. e., stable half-filled configuration.
(iii) Cr2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ because d4 to d3 occurs in case of Cr2+ to Cr3+ (more stable \(t_{2 g}^{3}\)) while it changes from d6 to d5 in case of Fe2+ to Fe3+.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write similarities and differences between the chemistry of lanthanoids and that of actinoids.
Answer:
Similarities between lanthanoids and actinoids :

  1. Both lanthanoids and actinoids mainly show an oxidation state of +3.
  2. Actinoids show actinoid contraction like lanthanoid contraction is exhibited by lanthanoids.
  3. Both lanthanoids and actinoids are electropositive.

Differences between lanthanoids and actinoids :

  1. The members of lanthanoid exhibit less number of oxidation states than the corresponding members of actinoid series.
  2. Lanthanoid contraction is smaller than the actinoid contraction.
  3. Lanthanoids except promethium cure non-radioactive metals while actinoids are radioactive metals.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 2.
(a) Assign reasons for the following:
(i) Zr and Hf have almost identical radii.
(ii) The PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 4, value for copper is positive (+0.34 V).
(b) Although +3 oxidation state is the characteristic oxidation state of lanthanoids but cerium shows +4 oxidation state also. Why?
Answer:
(a) (i) This is due to filling of 4/ orbitals which have poor shielding effect (lanthanoid contraction).
(ii) This is because the sum of enthalpies of sublimation and ionisation is not balanced by hydration enthalpy.
(b) It is because after losing one more electron Ce acquires stable 4f0 electronic configuration.

Question 3.
(a) How do you prepare :
(i) K2MnO4 from MnO2?
(ii) Na2Cr2O7 from Na2CrO4?
(b) Account for the following :
(i) The enthalpy of atomisation is lowest for Zn in 3d series of the transition elements.
(ii) Actinoid elements show wide range of oxidation states.
Answer:
(a) (i) Pyrolusite is fused with KOH in the presence of atmospheric oxygen to give K2MnO4.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 5

(b) (i) In the formation of metallic bonds, no electrons from 3d-orbitals are involved in case of zinc, while in all other metals of the 3d series, electrons from the d-orbitals are always involved in the formation of metallic bonds. That is why the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest in the series.
(ii) This is due to comparable energies of 5f, 6d and 7s orbitals.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is CO a stronger ligand than Cl ?
Answer:
CO forms π bonds so it is a stronger ligand than Cl.

Question 2.
What is the relationship between observed colour of the complex and the wavelength of light absorbed by the complex?
Answer:
When white light falls on the complex, some part of it is absorbed. Higher the crystal field splitting, lower will be the wavelength absorbed by the complex. The observed colour of complex is the colour generated from the wavelength left over.

Question 3.
How many isomers are there for octahedral complex [CoCl2 (en) (NH3)2]+?
Answer:
There will be three isomers: cis and trans isomers. Cis will also show optical isomerism.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Question 4.
Why are low spin tetrahedral complexes not formed?
Answer:
Because for tetrahedral complexes, the crystal field stabilisation energy is lower than pairing energy.

Question 5.
A complex of the type [M(AA)2X2]n+ is known to be optically active. What does this indicate about the structure of the complex? Give one example of such complex.
Answer:
An optically active complex of the type [M(AA)2X2]n+ indicates cis- octahedral structure, e.g., cis-[Pt(en)2Cl2]2+ or cis-[Cr(en)2Cl2]+.

Question 6.
Why is the complex [Co(en)3]3+ more stable than the complex [CoF6]3-?
Answer:
Due to chelate effect as the complex [Co(en)3]3+ contains chelating ligand \(\ddot{\mathrm{NH}}_{2}-\mathrm{CH}_{2}-\mathrm{CH}_{2}-\ddot{\mathrm{NH}}_{2}\).

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Question 7.
What do you understand by ‘denticity of a ligand’?
Answer:
The number of coordinating groups present in ligand is called the denticity of ligand. For example, denticity of ethane-1, 2-diamine is 2, as it has two donor nitrogen atoms which can link to central metal atom.

Question 8.
What type of isomerism is shown by the complex [CO(NH3)5(SCN)]2+?
Answer:
Linkage isomerism.

Question 9.
Arrange the following complex ions in increasing order of crystal field splitting energy △0 :
[Cr(Cl)6]3-, [Cr(CN)6]3-, [Cr(NH3)6]3+
Answer:
[Cr(Cl)6]3- < [Cr(NH3)6]3+ < [Cr(CN)6]3-

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Question 10.
A coordination compound with molecular formula CrCl3.4H2O precipitates one mole of AgCl with AgNO3 solution. Its molar conductivity is found to be equivalent to two ions. What is the structural formula and name of the compound?
Answer:
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2] Cl
[Tetraaquadichloridochromium (III) chloride]

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the electronic configuration of the following complexes on the basis of crystal field splitting theory.
[CoF6]3-, [Fe(CN)6]4- and [Cu(NH3)6]2+
Answer:
[CoF6]3-: Co3+(d6) \(t_{2 g}^{4} e_{g}^{2}\)
[Fe(CN)6]4- : Fe2+ (d6) \(t_{2 g}^{6} e_{g}^{0}\)
[Cu(NH3)6]2+ : Cu2+ (d9) \(t_{2 g}^{6} e_{g}^{3}\)

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Question 2.
(i) What type of isomerism is shown by [Co(NH3) 5ONO]Cl2?
(ii) On the basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration for d4 ion, if △0 < P.
(iii) Write the hybridisation and shape of [Fe(CN)6]3-.
(Atomic number of Fe = 26)
Answer:
(i) Linkage isomerism and the linkage isomer is [Co(NH3) 5ONO]Cl2.
(ii) If △0 < P, the fourth electron enters one of two eg orbitals giving the configuration \(t_{2 g}^{3} e_{g}^{1}\).
(iii) Fe3+ : 3d5 4s0
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 1

Question 3.
Explain why [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 5.92 BM whereas [Fe(CN)6]3- has a value of only 1.74 BM.
Answer:
[Fe(CN)6]3- involves d2sp3 hybridisation with one unpaired electron and [Fe(H2O)6]3+ involves sp3d2 hybridisation with five unpaired electrons. This difference is due to the presence of strong CN and weak ligand H2O in these complexes.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Question 4.
CuSO4∙5H2O is blue in colour while CuSO4 is colourless. Why?
Answer:
In CuSO4∙5H2O, water acts as ligand as a result it causes crystal field splitting. Hence, d-d transition is possible in CuSO4∙5H2O and shows colour. In the anhydrous CuSO4 due to the absence of water (ligand), crystal field splitting is not possible and hence it is colourless.

Question 5.
Why do compounds having similar geometry have different magnetic moment?
Answer:
It is due to the presence of weak and strong ligands in complexes, if CFSE is high, the complex will show low value of magnetic moment and vice versa, e.g., [CoF6]3- and [Co(NH3)6]3+, the former is paramagnetic and the latter is diamagnetic.

Question 6.
A metal ion Mn+ having d4 valence electronic configuration combines with three bidentate ligands to form a complex compound. Assuming △0 > P:
(i) Write the electronic configuration of d4 ion.
(ii) What type of hybridisation will Mn+ ion has?
(iii) Name the type of isomerism exhibited by this complex.
Answer:
(i) \(t_{2 g}^{4} e_{g}^{0}\)
(ii) sp3d2
(iii) Optical isomerism

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Using crystal field theory, draw energy level diagram, write electronic configuration of the central metal atom/ion and determine the magnetic moment value in the following: [COF6]3-, [CO(H2O)6]2+, [CO(CN)6]3
Answer:
Magnetic moment, μ = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\)
Where, n = Number of unpaired electrons
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 2
No unpaired electrons, so it is diamagnetic.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Question 2.
(i) Draw the geometrical isomers of complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl2].
(ii) Write the hybridisation and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4].
(Atomic no. of Ni = 28)
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 3
Geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]

(ii) The complex [Ni(CO)4] involves sp3 hybridisation.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 4
The complex is diamagnetic as evident from the absence of unpaired electrons.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Out of PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 1 and PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 2, which is an example of allylic halide?
X
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 1 is an example of allylic halide.

Question 2.
Which of the following reactions is SN1 type ?
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 3
Answer:
Reaction (ii) is SN1 reaction.

Question 3.
Which one of the following compounds is more easily hydrolysed by KOH and why?
CH3CHClCH2CH3 or CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
Answer:
Due to +1 effect of alkyl groups the 2° carbonium ion CH3—CH—CH2—CH3 derived from sec-butyl chloride is more stable than the 1° carbonium ion \(\mathrm{CH}_{3}-\mathrm{CH}_{2}-\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_{2}\) derived from n-propyl chloride. Therefore sec-butyl chloride gets hydrolysed more easily than n-propyl chloride under SN1 conditions.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 4.
What is known as a racemic mixture ? Give an example.
Answer:
equimolar mixture of a pair of enantiomers is called racemic mixture. A racemic mixture is optically inactive due to external compensation.

Question 5.
Consider the three types of replacement of group X by group Y as shown here.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 4
This can result in giving compound (A) or (B) or both. What is the process called if
(A) is the only compound obtained ?
(B) is the only compound obtained ?
(A) and (B) are formed in equal proportions ?
Answer:
(i) Retention
(ii) Inversion
(iii) Racemisation.

Question 6.
What is an asymmetric carbon?
Answer:
A carbon which is attached to four different atoms/groups is called asymmetric carbon. For example, the carbon atom in BrCHClI.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 7.
What is plane polarized light?
Answer:
A beam of light which has vibration in only one plane is called plane polarized light.

Question 8.
Why iodoform has appreciable antiseptic property ?
Answer:
Iodoform liberate I2 when it comes in contact with skin. Antiseptic property of iodine is due to the liberation of I2 not because of iodoform itself.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 5 (responsible for antiseptic property)

Question 9.
How does the ordinary light differ from the plane polarized light?
Answer:
Ordinary light has oscillations in all the directions perpendicular to the path of propagation whereas plane polarised light has all oscillations in the same plane.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 10.
What do you .understand by the term optical activity of compounds?
Answer:
The property of certain compounds to rotate the plane of polarzed light in a characteristic way when it is passed through their solutions is called optical activity of compounds.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give reasons for the following:
(i) Ethyl iodide undergoes SN2 reaction faster than ethyl bromide.
(ii) (±) 2-Butanol is optically inactive.
(iii) C—X bond length in halobenzene is smaller than C—X bond length in CH3 —X.
Answer:
(i) Since I ion is a better leaving group than Br ion, hence, CH3I reacts faster than CH3Br in SN2 reaction with OH ion.

(ii) (±) 2-Butanol is a racemic mixture, i.e., there are two enantiomers in equal proportions. The rotation by one enantiomer will be cancelled by the rotation due to the other isomer, making the mixture optically inactive.

(iii) In CH3—X the carbon atom is sp2-hybridised while in halobenzene the carbon atom is sp3-hybridised. The sp2-hybridised carbon is more electronegative due to greater s-character and holds the electron pair of C—X bond more tightly than sp3-hybridised carbon with less s-character. Thus, C—X bond length in CH3—X is bigger than C—X in halobenzene.

Question 2.
Give reasons for the following:
(i) Haloalkanes easily dissolve in organic solvents.
(ii) Halogen compounds used in industry as solvents are alkyl chlorides rather than bromides and iodides.
Answer:
(i) Haloalkanes dissolve in organic solvents because the new intermolecular attractions between haloalkanes and organic solvent molecules have much the same strength as ones being broken in the separate haloalkanes and solvent molecules.
(ii) Because alkyl chlorides are more stable and more volatile than bromides and iodides.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 3.
Write the mechanism of the following reaction
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 6
Answer:
SN2 mechanism
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 7

Question 4.
Which would undergo SN1 reaction faster in the following pairs and why ?
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 8
Answer:
(i) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 9
Tertiary halide reacts faster than primary halide because of greater stability of 3°-carbocation.

(ii) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 10
Because the secondary carbocation formed in the slowest step is more stable than the primary carbocation.

Question 5.
Give reasons:
(i) n-Butyl bromide has higher boiling point than f-butyl bromide. Racemic mixture is optically inactive.
(ii) The presence of nitro group (—NO2) at o/p positions increases the reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.
Answer:
(i) n-butyl bromide being a straight chain alkyl halide has larger surface area than tert butyl bromide. Larger the surface area, larger the magnitude of the van der Waal’s forces and hence higher is the boiling point.

(ii) A racemic mixture contains the two enantiomers d and l in equal •proportions. As the rotation due to one enantiomer is cancelled by equal and opposite rotation of another enantiomer, therefore, it is optically inactive.

(iii) The presence of NO2 group at o/p position in haloarenes helps in the stabilisation of resulting carbanion by -R and -I effects and hence increases the reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 6.
(i) Why are alkyl halides insoluble in water ?
(ii) Why is butan-l-ol optically inactive but butan-2-ol is optically active ?
(iii) Although chlorine is an electron withdrawing group, yet it is ortho, para directing in electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions. Why ?
Answer:
(i) This is due to the inability of alkyl halide molecule to form intermolecular hydrogen bonds with water molecules.
(ii) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 11
due to presence of a chiral carbon butan-2-ol is an optically active compound.

(iii) As the weaker resonance (+R) effect of Cl which stabilise the carbocation formed tends to oppose the stronger inductive (-I) effect of Cl which destabilise the carbocation at ortho and para positions and makes deactivation less for ortho and para position.

Question 7.
(i) Allyl chloride can be distinguished from vinyl chloride by NaOH and silver nitrate test. Comment.
(ii) Alkyl halide reacts with lithium aluminium hydride to give alkane. Name the attacking reagent which will bring out this change.
Answer:
(i) Vinyl chloride does not respond to NaOH and silver nitrate test because of partial double bond character due to resonance.
(ii) Hydride ion (H )

Question 8.
Give the ITJPAC name of the product formed when :
(i) 2-Methyl-l-bromopropane is treated with sodium in the presence of dry ether.
(ii) 1-Methyl cyclohexene is treated with HI.
(iii) Chloroethane is treated with silver nitrite.
Answer:
(i) 2, 5-dimethylhexane
(ii) 1 -Methyl-1 -iodocyclohexane
(iii) Nitroethane

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Some alkyl halides undergo substitution whereas some undergo elimination reaction on treatment with base. Discuss the structural features of alkyl halides with the help of examples which are responsible for this difference.
Answer:
Primary alkyl halides follow SN2 mechanism in which a nucleophile attacks at 180° to the halogen atom. A transition state is formed in which carbon is bonded to two nucleophiles and finally halogen atom is pushed out. In SN2 mechanism, substitution of nucleophile takes place as follows :
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 12
Thus, in SN2 mechanism, substitution takes place. Tertiary alkyl halides follow? SN1 mechanism, In this case, tert-alkyl halides form 3° carbocation. Now, if the reagent used is a weak base then substitution occur while if it is a strong base then instead of substitution elimination occur.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 13
As alc. KOH is a strong base, so elimination competes over substitution and alkene is formed.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 2.
Why are aryl halides less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions than alkyl halides ? How can we enhance the reactivity of aryl halides ?
Answer:
Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction due to the following reasons :
(i) In haloarenes, the lone pair of electron on halogen are in resonance with benzene ring. So, C—Cl bond acquires partial double bond character which strengthen C—Cl bond. Therefore, they are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 14
(ii) In haloarenes, the carbon atom attached to halogen is sp2-hybridised. The sp2-hybridised carbon is more electronegative than sp3-hybridised carbon. This sp 2-hybridised carbon in haloarenes can hold the electron pair of C—X bond more tightly and make this C—Cl bond shorter than C—Cl bond haloalkanes.

(iii) Since, it is difficult to break a shorter bond than a longer bond therefore haloarenes are less reactive than haloarenes.
In haloarenes, the phenyl cation will not be stabilised by resonance therefore SN1 mechanism ruled out.

(iv) Because of the repulsion between the nucleophile and electron rich arenes, aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halides.

The reactivity of aryl halides can be increased by the presence of an electron withdrawing group (—NO2) at ortho and para positions. However, no effect on reactivity of haloarenes is observed by the presence of electron withdrawing group at meta-position. Mechanism of the reaction is as depicted with OH ion.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 15
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 16
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 17
From the above resonance, it is very clear that electron density is rich at ortho and para positions. So, presence of EWG will facilitate nucleophilic at ortho and para positions not on meta position.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Guide Haloalkanes and Haloarenes InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the following halides according to IUPAC system and classify them as alkyl, allyl, benzyl (primary, secondary, tertiary), vinyl or aryl halides:
(i) (CH3)2CHCH(Cl)CH3
(ii) CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH(C2H5)Cl
(iii) CH3CH2C(CH3)2CH2I
(iv) (CH3)3CCH2CH(Br)C6H5
(v) CH3CH(CH3)CH(Br)CH3
(vi) CH3C(C2H5)2CH2Br
(vii) CH3C(Cl)(C2H5)CH2CH3
(viii) CH3CH=C(Cl)CH2CH(CH3)2
(ix) CH3CH=CHC(Br)(CH3)2
(x) p-ClC6H4CH2CH(CH3)2
(xi) m-ClCH2C6H4CH2C(CH3)3
(xii) o-Br-C6H4CH(CH3)CH2CH3
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 1
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 2

Question 2.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds:
(i) CH3CH(Cl)CH(Br)CH3
(ii) CHF2CBrClF
(iii) ClCH2C ☰ CCH2Br
(iv) (CCl3)3CCl
(v) CH3C(p-ClC6H4)2CH(Br)CH3
(vi) (CH3)3CCH=CClC6H4I-p
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 3

Question 3.
Write the structures of the following organic halogen compounds.
(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
(ii) p -Bromochlorobenzene
(iii) 1-Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane
(iv) 2-(2-Chlorophenyl)-l-iodooctane
(v) 2 -Bromobutane
(vi) 4-terf-Butyl-3-iodoheptane
(vii) l-Bromo-4-sec-butyl-2-methylbenzene
(viii) 1,4-Dibromobut-2 -ene
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 4
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 5

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 4.
Which one of the following has the highest dipole moment?
(i) CH2Cl2
(ii) CHCl3
(iii) CCl4
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 6
1. CCl4 is a symmetrical molecule. Therefore, the dipole moments of all four C—Cl bonds cancel each other. Hence, its resultant dipole moment is zero.

2. As shown in the above figure, in CHCl3, the resultant of dipole moments of two C—Cl bonds is opposed by the resultant of dipole moments of one C—H bond and one C—Cl bond. Since the resultant of one C—H bond and one C—Cl bond dipole moments is smaller than two C—Cl bonds, the opposition is to a small extent. As a result, CHC13 has a small dipole moment of 1.08 D.

3. On the other hand, in case of CH2Cl2, the resultant of the dipole moments of two C—Cl bonds is strengthened by the resultant of the dipole moments of two C—H bonds. As a result, CH2C12 has a higher dipole moment of 1.60 D than CHCl3 i.e., CH2Cl2 has the highest dipole moment.
Hence, the given compounds can be arranged in the increasing order of their dipole moments as:
CCl4 < CHCl3 < CH2Cl2

Question 5.
A hydrocarbon C5H10 does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound C5H9Cl in bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon.
Answer:
CO The hydrocarbon with molecular formula C5H10 can be either a cycloalkane or an alkene.

Since, the hydrocarbon does not react with Cl2 in the dark, it cannot be an alkene but must be a cycloalkane.
As the cycloalkane reacts with Cl2 in the presence of bright sunlight, to give a single monochloro compound, C5H9Cl, therefore all the ten hydrogen atoms of the cycloalkane must be equivalent. Therefore, the cycloalkane is cyclopentane.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 7

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 6.
Write the isomers of the compound having formula C4H9Br.
Answer:
There are four isomers of the compound having the formula C4H9Br.
These isomers are given below:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 8

Question 7.
Write the equations for the preparation of 1-iodobutane from
(i) 1-butanol
(ii) 1-chlorobutane
(iii) but-l-ene.
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 9

Question 8.
What are ambident nucleophiles? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Ambident nucleophiles are nucleophiles having two nucleophilic sites. Thus, ambident nucleophiles have two sites through which they can attack.
For example, nitrite ion is an ambident nucleophile.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 10
Nitrite ion can attack through oxygen resulting in the formation of alkyl nitrites. Also, it can attack through nitrogen resulting in the formation of nitroalkanes.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 11

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 9.
Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in Sn2 reaction with OH?
(i) CH3Br or CH3I
(ii) (CH3)3CCl or CH3Cl
Answer:
(i) Since I ion is a better leaving group than Br ion, hence CH3I reacts faster than CH3Br in SN2 reaction with OH ion.

(ii) On steric grounds, 1° alkyl halides are more reactive than tert-alkyl halides in SN 2 reactions. Hence, CH3Cl will react at a faster rate than (CH3)3 CCl in a SN2 reaction with OH ion.

Question 10.
Predict all the alkenes that would be formed by dehydrohalogenation of the following halides with sodium ethoxide in ethanol and identify the major alkene:
(i) 1 -Bromo-1-methylcyclohexane
(ii) 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane
(iii) 2, 2, 3-Trimethyl-3-hromopentane.
Answer:
(i) In 1 -bromo-1 -methylcyclohexane, the β-hydrogens on either side of the Br atom are equivalent, therefore, only 1-alkene is formed.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 12

(ii) All p-hydrogens in 2-chloro-2-methylbutane are not equivalent, hence on treatment with C2H5ONa/C2H5OH, it gives two alkenes.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 13

(iii) 2, 2, 3-Trimethyl-3-bromopentane has two different sets of p-hydrogen and therefore, in principle, can give two alkenes (I and II). But according to Saytzeff rule, more highly substituted alkene (II), being more stable is the major product.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 14

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 11.
How will you bring about the following conversions?
(i) Ethanol to but-1-yne
(ii) Ethane to bromoethene
(iii) Propene to 1 -nitropropane
(iv) Toluene to benzyl alcohol
(v) Propene to propynt
(vi) Ethanol to ethyl fluoride
(vii) Bromomethane to propanone
(viii) But-l-ene to but-2-ene
(ix) 1-Chlorobutane to n-octane
(x) Benzene to biphenyl.
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 15
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 16
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 17

Question 12.
Explain why
(i) The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride ?
(ii) Alkyl halides, though polar are immiscible with water ?
(iii) Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions ?
Answer:
(i) Because of greater s-character, an sp2-hybrid carbon is more electronegative than an sp3-hybrid carbon. Thus, the sp2-hybrid carbon of C—Cl bond in chlorobenzene has less tendency to release electrons to Cl than an sp3-hybrid carbon of cyclohexyl chloride.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 18
Hence, the C—Cl bond in chlorobenzene is less polar than that in cyclohexyl chloride. In other words, the magnitude of negative charge is less on Cl atom of chlorobenzene than in cyclohexyl chloride. Now, due to delocalisation of lone pairs of electrons of the Cl atom over the benzene ring, C—Cl bond in chlorobenzene acquires some double character while the C—Cl bond in cyclohexyl chloride is a pure single bond. Thus, C—Cl bond in chlorobenzene is shorter than in cyclohexyl chloride.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 19
As dipole moment is a product of charge and distance, chlorobenzene has lower dipole moment than cyclohexyl chloride due to lower magnitude of negative charge on the Cl atom and shorter C—Cl distance.

(ii) Alkyl halides, though polar, are immiscible in water because they are unable to form hydrogen bonds with water molecules.

(iii) Grignard reagents are very reactive. They react with moisture present in the apparatus or the starting materials to give hydrocarbons.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 20
Hence, Grignard reagent must be prepared under anhydrous conditions.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 13.
Give the uses of freon 12, DDT, carbon tetrachloride and iodoform.
Answer:
Uses of Freon-12(CCl2F2)

  1. It is used as a refrigerant in refrigerators and air conditioners.
  2. It is also used in aerosol spray propellants such as body sprays, hair sprays.

Uses of DDT (p, p’-dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)

  1. It is very effective against mosquitoes and lice.
  2. It is also used in many countries as insecticide for sugarcane and fodder crops. (But due to its harmful effects, its use has been banned in many contries including U.S.A.

Uses of Carbontetrachloride (CCl4)

  1. It is used for manufacturing refrigerants and propellants for aerosol cAnswer:
  2. It is used as feedstock in the synthesis of chlorofluorocarbons and other chemicals.
  3. It is used as a solvent in the manufacture of pharmaceutical products. Until the mid 1960’s, carbon tetrachloride was widely used as a cleaning fluid, a degreasing agent in industries, a spot reamer in homes, and a fire extinguisher.

Uses of Iodoform (CHI3)
Iodoform was used earlier as an antiseptic, but now it has been replaced by other formulations-containing iodine-due to its objectionable smell. The antiseptic property of iodoform is only due to the liberation of free iodine when it comes in contact with the skin.

Question 14.
Write the structure of the major organic product in each of the following reactions
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 21
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 22
(v) C6H5ONa + C2H6Cl →
(vi) CH3CH2CH2OH + SOCl2
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 23
(viii) CH3CH = C(CH3)2 + HBr →
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 24

Question 15.
Write the mechanism of the following reaction
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 25
Answer:
The given reaction is
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 26
The given reaction is an SN2 reaction. In this reaction, CN acts as the nucleophile and attacks the carbon atom to which Br is attached. CN ion is an ambident nucleophile and can attack through both C and N. In this case, it attacks through the C-atom.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 27

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 16.
Arrange the compounds of each set in order of reactivity towards SN2 displacement
(i) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1 -Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane
(ii) 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 3-Bromo- 2-methylbutane
(iii) 1-Bromobutane, l-Bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane, 1-Bromo -2-methylbutane, 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane.
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 28

Question 17.
Out of C6H5CH2Cl and C6H5CHClC6H5, which is more easily hydrolysed by aqueous KOH?
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 29
In SN1 reaction, reactivity depends upon the stability of carbocations. PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 30 carbocation is more stable as compared to PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 31. Therefore, C6H5CHClC6H5 gets hydrolysed more easily than C6H5CHCl.

Question 18.
p-Dichlorobenzene has higher m.p. and lower solubility than those of o- and m-isomers. Discuss.
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 32
p-Dichlorobenzene is more symmetrical than o-and m-isomers. For this reason, it fits more closely than o-and m-isomers in the crystal lattice. Therefore, more energy is required to break the crystal lattice of p-dichlorobenzene. As a result, p-dichlorobenzene has a higher melting point and lower solubility than o-and m-isomers.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 19.
How the following conversions can be carried out?
(i) Propene to propan-l-ol
(ii) Ethanol to but-l-yne
(iii) 1-Bromopropane to 2-bromopropane
(iv) Toluene to benzyl alcohol
(v) Benzene to 4-bromonitrobenzene
(vi) Benzyl alcohol to 2-phenylethanoic acid
(vii) Ethanol to propanenitrile
(viii) Aniline to chlorobenzene
(ix) 2-Chlorobutane to 3, 4-dimethylhexane
(x) 2-Methyl- 1-propene to 2-chloro-2-methylpropane
(xi) Ethyl chloride to propanoic acid
(xii) But-l-ene to n-butyliodide
(xiii) 2-Chloropropane to 1-propanol
(xiv) Isopropyl alcohol to iodoform
(xv) Chlorobenzene to p-nitrophenol
(xvi) 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
(xvii) Chloroethane to butane
(xviii) Benzene to diphenyl
(xix) tert-Butyl bromide to isobutyl bromide
(xx) Aniline to phenylisocyanide
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 33
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 34
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 35
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 36
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 37
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 38
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 39

Question 20.
The treatment of alkyl chlorides with aqueous KOH leads to the formation of alcohols but in the presence of alcoholic KOH, alkenes are major products. Explain.
Answer:
In an aqueous solution, KOH almost completely ionises to give OH ions. OH ion is a strong nucleophile, which leads the alkyl chloride to undergo a substitution reaction to form alcohol.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 40
On the other hand, an alcoholic solution of KOH contains alkoxide (RO) ion, which is a strong base. Thus, it can abstract a hydrogen from the p carbon of the alkyl chloride and form an alkene by eliminating a molecule of HCl.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 41
OH ion is a much weaker base than RO ion. Also, OH ion is highly solvated in an aqueous solution and as a result, the basic character of OH ion decreases. Therefore, it cannot abstract a hydrogen from the β carbon.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 21.
Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br (A) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound (B).Compound (B) is reacted with HBr to give (C) which is an isomer of (A). When (A) is reacted with sodium metal it gives compound (D), C8H18 which is different from the compound formed when n-butyl bromide is reacted with sodium. Give the structural formula of (A) and write the equations for all the reactions.
Answer:
There are two primary alkyl halides having the formula, C4H9Br. They are n-butyl bromide and isobutyl bromide.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 42
Therefore, compound (A) is either n-butyl bromide or isobutyl bromide. Now, compound (A) reacts with Na metal to give compound (B) of molecular formula, C8H18 which is different from the compound formed when n-butyl bromide reacts with Na metal. Hence, compound (A) must be isobutyl bromide.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 43

Question 22.
What happens when
(i) n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH,
(ii) bromobenzene is treated with Mg in the presence of dry ether,
(iii) chlorobenzene is subjected to hydrolysis,
(iv) ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH,
(v) methyl bromide is treated with sodium in the presence of dry ether
(vi) methyl chloride is treated with KCN.
Answer:
(i) When n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH, the formation of but-l-ene takes place. This reaction is a dehydrohalogenation reaction.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 44

(ii) When bromobenzene is treated with Mg in the presence of dry ether, phenylmagnesium bromide is formed.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 45

(iii) Chlorobenzene does not undergo hydrolysis under normal conditions. However, it undergoes hydrolysis when heated in an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution at a temperature of 623 K and a pressure of 300 atm to form phenol.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 59

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 46

(iv) When ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH, it undergoes hydrolysis to form ethanol.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 47

(v) When methyl bromide is treated with sodium in the presence of dry ether, ethane is formed. This reaction is known as the Wurtz reaction.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 48

(vi) When methyl chloride is treated with KCN, it undergoes a substitution reaction to give methyl cyanide.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 49

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Chemistry Guide for Class 12 PSEB Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write structures of the following compounds :
(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
(ii) 1-Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane
(iii) 4-tert-butyl-3-iodoheptane
(iv) 1-4-Dibromobut-2-ene
(v) 1-Bromo-4-sec-butyl-2-methylbenzene
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 50

Question 2.
Why is sulphuric acid not used during the reaction of alcohols with KI?
Answer:
H2SO4 cannot be used along with KI in the conversion of an alcohol to an alkyl iodide as it converts KI to corresponding HI and then oxidises it to I2.

Question 3.
Write structures of different dihalogen derivatives of propane.
Answer:
(i) ClCH2CH2CH2Cl
(ii) ClCH2CHClCH3
(iii) Cl2CHCH2CH3
(iv) CH3CCl2CH3

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 4.
Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C5H12 identify the one that on photochemical chlorination yields :
(i) A single monochloride
(ii) Three isomeric monochlorides
(iii) Four isomeric monochlorides
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 51
All the hydrogen atoms are equivalent and replacement of any hydrogen will give the same product.

(ii) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 52
The equivalent hydrogens are grouped as a, b and c. The replacement of equivalent hydrogens will give the same product. Thus, three isomeric products are possible.

(iii) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 53
The equivalent hydrogens are grouped as a, b, c and d. Thus, four isomeric products are possible.

Question 5.
Draw the structures of major monohalo products in each of the following reactions:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 54
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 55

Question 6.
Arrange each set of compounds in the order of increasing boiling points.
(i) Bromomethane, Bromoform, Chloromethane, Dibromomethane.
(ii) 1-Chloropropane, Isopropyl chloride, 1 -Chlorobutane.
Answer:
(i) Chloromethane < Bromomethane < Dibromomethane < Bromoform. Boiling point increases with increase in molecular mass.

(ii) Isopropyl chloride < 1-Chloropropane < 1-Chlorobutane. Isopropyl chloride being branched has lower boiling point than 1-Chloropropane.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 7.
Which alkyl halide from the following pairs would you expect to react more rapidly by an SN2 mechanism ? Explain your answer.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 56
Answer:
(i) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
Being primary halide, there won’t be any steric hindrance.

(ii) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 57
Being a secondary halide, there will be less crowding around α-carbon than tertiary halide.

(iii) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 58
The presence of methyl group closer to the halide group will increase the steric hindrance and decrease the rate.

Question 8.
In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes faster SN1 reaction ?
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 59
Answer:
(i) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 60
2-Chloro-2-methylpropane as the tertiary carbocation is more stable than secondary carbocation.

(ii) PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 61
2-Chloroheptane as the secondary carbocation is more stable than primary carbocation.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 9.
Identify A, B, C, D, E, R and R’ in the following:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 62
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 63

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Guide The d-and f-Block Elements InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write down the electronic configuration of:
(i) Cr3+
(ii) Cu+
(iii) Co2+
(iv) Mn2+
(v) Pm3+
(vi) Ce4+
(vii) Lu2+
(viii) Th4+
Answer:
(i)Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3
(ii) Cu+ = [Ar] 3d10
(iii) Co2+ = [Ar] 3d7
(iv) Mn2+ = [Ar] 3d5
(v) Pm3+ = [Xe] 4f4
(vi) Ce4+ = [Xe]
(vii) Lu2+ = [Xe] 4f145d1
(viii) Th4+ = [Rn]

Question 2.
Why are Mn2+ compounds more stable than Fe2+ towards oxidation to their + 3 state?
Answer:
Electronic configuration of Mn2+ is [Ar]18 3d5
Electronic configuration of Fe2+ is [Ar]18 3d6
It is known that half-filled and fully-filled orbitals are more stable. Therefore, Mn in (+ 2) state has a stable d5 configuration. This is the reason Mn2+ shows resistance to oxidation to Mn3+. Also, Fe2+ has 3d6 configuration and by losing one electron, its configuration changes to a more stable 3d5 configuration. Therefore, Fe2+ easily gets oxidised to Fe3+ oxidation state.

Question 3.
Explain briefly how +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first row transition elements with increasing atomic number?
Answer:
As the atomic number increases from 21 to 25, the number of electrons in the 3d-orbital also increases from 1 to 5. +2 oxidation state is attained by the loss of the two 4s electrons by these metals. Sc does not exhibit +2 oxidation state. As the number of d-electrons in +2 state increases from Ti to Mn, the stability of +2 state increases (d-orbital gradually becoming half filled). Mn(+2) has d5 electrons which is highly stable.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 4.
To what extent do the electronic configurations decide the stability of oxidation states in the first series of the transition elements? Illustrate your answer with examples.
Answer:
The stability of oxidation states in the first series of the first transition elements are related to their electronic configurations.

The first five elements of the first transition series upto Mn in which the 3d-subshell is not more than half-filled, the minimum oxidation state is given by fife number of electrons in the outer s-subshell and the maximum oxidation state is given by the sum of the outer s and d-electrons. For example, Sc does not show +2 oxidation state. Its electronic configuration is 4s2 3d1. It loses all the three electrons to form SC3+.+3 oxidation state is very stable as by losing all three electrons, it attains the stable configuration of Argon. For Mn, +2 oxidation state is very stable, as after losing two 4s electrons, the d-orbitals become half-filled.

Question 5.
What may be the stable oxidation state of the transition elements with the following d-electron configurations in the ground state of their atoms?
3d3, 3d5, 3d8 and 3d4
Answer:
Stable oxidation states:
3d3 (vanadium): +2, +3, +4, +5
3d5 (chromium): +3, +4, +6
3d5 (manganese): +2, +4, +6, +7
3d8 (cobalt) : +2, +3 (in complexes)
3d4 : There is no d4 configuration in the ground state.

Question 6.
Name the oxometal anions of the first series of the transition metals in which the metal exhibits the oxidation state equal to its group number.
Answer:
(i) Vanadate, \(\mathrm{VO}_{3}^{-}\)
Oxidation state of V is + 5.

(ii) Chromate, \(\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}\)
Oxidation state of Cr is + 6.

(iii) Permanganate, \(\mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\)
Oxidation state of Mn is + 7.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 7.
What is lanthanoid contraction? What are the consequences of lanthanoid contraction?
Answer:
As we move along the lanthanoid series, the atomic number increases gradually by one. This means that the number of electrons and protons present in an atom also increases by one. As electrons are being added to the same shell, the effective nuclear charge increases. This happens because the increase in nuclear attraction due to the addition of proton is more pronounced than the increase in the interelectronic repulsions due to the addition of electron. Also, with the increase in atomic number, the number of electrons in the 4f orbital also increases. The 4f electrons have poor shielding effect. Therefore, the effective nuclear charge experienced by the outer electrons increases. Consequently, the attraction of the nucleus for the outermost electrons increases. This results in a steady decrease in the size of lanthanoids with the increase in the atomic number. This is termed as lanthanoid contraction.
Consequences of lanthanoid contraction

  1. There is similarity in the properties of second and third transition series.
  2. Separation of lanthanoids is possible due to lanthanoid contraction.
  3. It is due to lanthanoid contraction that there is variation in the basic strength of lanthanoid hydroxides. (Basic strength decreases from La(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3.)

Question 8.
What are the characteristics of the transition elements and why are they called transition elements? Which of the d-block elements may not he regarded as the transition eledaents?
Answer:
Characteristics of the Transition Elements (d-Block)
1. Electronic configuration : General electronic configuration of these elements is (n -1) d1-10 ns1-2.

2. Physical properties : These elements have metallic properties such as metallic lustre, high tensile strength, ductility, malleability, high thermal and electrical conductivity, low volatility (except Zn, Cd, Hg), hardness, etc. Their melting points are high.

3. Atomic and ionic size : In a given series, there is a progressive decrease in radius with increasing atomic number.

4. Ionisation enthalpies : Due to an increase in nuclear charge which accompanies the filling of inner d-orbitals, there is an increase in ionisation enthalpy along each series of the transition elements from left to right.

5. Oxidation states : These elements exhibit variable oxidation states.
e.g.,1 Transition series:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 1

6. Trends in M2+/M values: The general trend towards less negative E0 values across the series is related to the general increase in the sum of the first and second ionisation enthalpies.

7. Trends in M3+/M2+E values : Low value of Ee shows the stability of ion (either d5 or d10 configuration).

8. Magnetic properties : These elements show diamagnetism and paramagnetism.
9. Formation of coloured salts : The compounds of transition elements form coloured ions, e.g., Mn3+ violet; Fe2+ green, etc.

10. Complex formation : These elements form complex compounds due to their small size and high charge density, e.g., [PtCl4]2-

11. Catalyst: Many of these elements are used as catalyst e.g., V2O5 is used as a catalyst in contact process for the manufacture of H2SO4.

12. Interstitial compound formation : Transition elements form interstitial compounds. It means the compounds in which H, C or N etc. are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.

13. Alloy formation : Because of similar radii and other characteristics alloys are readily formed by these metals.
The d-block elements are called transition elements because these elements represent change or transition in properties from s-block to p-block elements.
The electronic configuration of Zn, Cd and Hg is represented by the general formula (n – 1)d10ns2. These elements have completely filled d-orbitals in ground state as well as in their common oxidation states. Therefore, they may not be regarded as the transition elements.

Question 9.
In what way is the electronic configuration of the transition elements different from that of the non-transition elements?
Answer:
Transition elements contain incompletely filled d-subshell, Le., their electronic configuration is (n – 1)d1-10ns1-2 whereas non-transition elements have no d-subshell or their subshell is completely filled and have ns1-2 or ns2np1-6 in their outermost shell.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 10.
What are the different oxidation states exhibited by the lanthanoids?
Answer:
In the lanthanoid series, + 3 oxidation state is most common i.e., Ln(III) compounds are predominant. However, + 2 and + 4 oxidation states can also be found in the solution or in solid compounds.

Question 11.
Explain giving reasons:
(i) Transition metals and many of their compounds show paramagnetic behaviour.
(ii) The enthalpies of atomisation of the transition metals are high.
(iii) The transition metals generally form coloured compounds.
(iv) Transition metals and their many compounds act as good catalyst.
Answer:
(i) Transition metals and many of their compounds show paramagnetic behaviour. Paramagnetism arises due to the presence of unpaired electrons with each electron having a magnetic moment associated with its spin angular momentum and orbital angular momentum. However, in the first transition series, the orbital angular momentum is quenched. Therefore, the resulting paramagnetism is only because of the unpaired electron.

(ii) Transition metals have high effective nuclear charge and a large number of valence electrons. Therefore, they form very strong metallic bonds. As a result, the enthalpy of atomisation of transition metals is high.

(iii) Formation of coloured compounds by transition metals is due to partial adsorption of visible light. The electron absorbs the radiation of a particular frequency (of visible region) and jumps into next orbital.

(iv) Catalysts, at the solid surface, involve the formation of bonds between reactants molecules and atoms of the surface of the catalyst (I row transition metals utilised 3d and 4s-electrons for bonding). This has the effect of increasing the concentration of the reactants at the catalyst surface and also lowering of the activation energy.
Transition metal ions show variable oxidation states so they are effective catalysts, e.g.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 2
Mechanism of catalysing action of Fe3+ in the above reaction
(a) 2Fe3+ + 2I → 2Fe2+ + I2
(b) 2Fe2+ + \(\mathrm{S}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{8}^{2-}\) → 2Fe3+ + \(2 \mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}\)

Question 12.
What are interstitial compounds? Why are such compounds well known for transition metals?
Answer:
Interstitial compounds are those in which small atoms occupy the interstitial sites in the crystal lattice. Interstitial compounds are well known for transition metals because small-sized atoms of H, B, C, N, etc., can easily occupy position in the voids present in the crystal lattices of transition metals.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 13.
How is the variability in oxidation states of transition metals different from that of the non-transition metals? Illustrate with examples.
Answer:
The oxidation states of transition elements differ from each other by unity e.g., Fe2+ and Fe3+, Cu+ and Cu2+ (due to incomplete filling of d-orbitals) whereas oxidation states of non-transition elements normally differ by two units e.g., Pb2+ and Pb4+, Sn2+ and Sn4+ etc.

Question 14.
Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from iron chromite ore. What is the effect of increasing pH of a solution of potassium dichromate?
Answer:
Potassium dichromate is prepared from chromite ore FeCr2O4 as follows :
Step I: Conversion of chromite ore to sodium chromate.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 3
Effect of pH : The chromates and dichromates can interconverted to each other in aqueous solution by increasing the pH of the solution.
\(\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}\) + 2OH ⇌ \(2 \mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}\) + H2O

Question 15.
Describe the oxidising action of potassium dichromate and write the ionic equations for its reaction with
(i) iodide
(ii) iron (H) solution and
(iii) H2S.
Answer:
(i) \(\mathrm{Cr}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{7}^{2-}\) + 14H+ + 6I → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3I2
(ii) \(\mathrm{Cr}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{7}^{2-}\) + 14H+ + 6Fe2+ → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 6Fe3+
(iii) \(\mathrm{Cr}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{7}^{2-}\) + 8H+ + 3H2S → Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3S

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 16.
Describe the preparation of potassium permanganate. How does the acidified permanganate solution reacts with
(i) iron
(ii) ions
(iii) SO2 and
(iii) oxalic acid? Write the ionic equations for the reactions.
Answer:
Preparation of potassium permanganate, KMnO4: Potassium permanganate is prepared by the fusion of MnO2 (pyrolusite) with potassium hydroxide and an oxidising agent such as KNO3 to form potassium manganate which disproportionate in a neutral or acidic solution to form permanganate.
2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → 2K2MnO4 + H2O
\(3 \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{2-}\) + 4H+ → \(\mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) + MnO2 + H2O
On large scale : It is prepared by the alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2 to form potassium manganate. The electrolytic oxidation of potassium manganate in alkaline solution produces KMnO4, at the anode.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 4
Reaction of KMnO4 in acidic medium
(a) Oxidises iron (II) ions to iron (III) ions.
\(\mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) + 5Fe2+ + 8H2+ → Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O
(b) Oxidises SO2 to sulphuric acid.
\(2 \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) + 5SO2 + 2H2O → 2Mn2+ + 5SO2 + 4H2O
(c) Oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide.
\(2 \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) + \(5 \mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{4}^{2-}\) + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O

Question 17.
For M2+/M and M3+/M2+ systems, the E values for some metals are as follows:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 5
Use this data to comment upon :
(i) the stability of Fe3+ in acid solution as compared to that of Cr3+ or Mn3+ and
(ii) the ease with which iron can be oxidised as compared to a similar process for either chromium or manganese metal.
Answer:
(i) Higher the reduction potential of a species, greater is the tendency for its reduction to take place. Therefore, Mn3+ with highest reduction potential would be readily reduced to Mn2+ and hence is the least stable.
Thus, from the value of reduction potential, it is clear that the stability of Fe3+ in acidic solution is more than Mn3+ but less than that of Cr3+.

(ii) Lower the reduction potential or higher the oxidation potential of a species, greater the ease with which its oxidation will take place. Thus, order of tendency to undergo oxidation is Fe < Cr < Mn.

Question 18.
Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous solution?
Ti3+, V3+, Cu+, Sc3+, Mn2+, Fe3+ and Co2+. Give reasons for each.
Answer:
Only those ions will be coloured which have incompletely filled d-orbitals. Those with fully-filled or empty d-orbitals are colourless. Due to d-d transition, Ti3+, V3+, Mn2+, Fe3+ and Co2+ are coloured.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 19.
Compare the stability of + 2 oxidation state for the elements of the first transition series.
Answer:
The decreasing negative electrode potentials of M2+/M+1 in the first transition series shows that in general, the stability of +2 oxidation state decrease from left-to right (exception being Mn and Zn). The decrease in the negative electrode potentials is due to increase in the sum IE2 + IE2.

Question 20.
Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of the lanthanoids with special reference to :
(i) electronic configuration
(ii) oxidation states
(iii) atomic and ionic sizes and
(iv) chemical reactivity.
Answer:
(i) Electronic configuration : The general electronic configuration of lanthanoids is [Xe]54 4f1-14 5d0-16s2 whereas that of actinoids is [Rn]865f1-146d0-17s2. Thus, lanthanoids belong to 4/-series whereas actinoids belong to 5/-series.

(ii) Oxidation states : Lanthanoids show limited oxidation states (+2, +3, +4), out of which, +3 is most common. This is because of a large energy gap between 4/, 5d and 6s subshells. On the other hand, actinoids show a large number of oxidation states because of small energy gap between 5/, 6d and 7s subshells.

(iii) Atomic and ionic sizes : Both show decrease in size of their atoms or ions in +3 oxidation state. In lanthanoids, the decrease is called lanthanoid contraction whereas in actinoids, it is called actinoid contraction. However, the contraction is greater from element to element in actinoids due to poorer shielding by 5/-electrons.

(iv) Chemical reactivity : In general, the earlier members of the lanthanoid series are quite reactive (similar to calcium) but with increasing atomic number, they behave more like aluminium.
Values for E for the half-reaction :
Ln3+ (aq) + 3e → Ln(s)
are in the range of -2.2 to -2.4 V except for Eu for which the value is -2.0 V. This is of course, a small variation.

The metals combine with hydrogen when gently heated in the gas. The carbides, Ln3C , Ln2C3 and LnC2 are formed when the metals are heated with carbon. They liberate hydrogen from dilute acids and bum in halogens to form halides. They form oxides and hydroxides —M2O3 and M(OH)3. The hydroxides are definite compounds, not just hydrated oxides, basic like alkaline earth metal oxides and hydroxides.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 6
The actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided. For example, the action of boiling water on them, gives a mixture of oxide and hydride and combination with most non-metals takes place at moderate temperatures. Hydrochloric acid attacks all metals but most are slightly affected by nitric acid owing to the formation of protective oxide layers; alkalis have no action.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 21.
How would you account for the following:
(i) Of the d4 species, Cr2+ is strongly reducing while manganese (III) is strongly oxidising.
(ii) Cobalt (II) is stable in aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing reagents, it is easily oxidised.
(iii) The d1 configuration is very unstable in ions.
Answer:
(i) E value for Cr3+ /Cr2+ is negative (-0.41 V) whereas E value for Mn3+/Mn2+ is positive (+1.57 V). Thus, Cr2+ ions can easily undergo oxidation to give Cr3+ ions and, therefore, act as strong reducing agent. On the other hand, Mn3+ can easily undergo reduction to give Mn2+ and hence act as oxidising agent.

(ii) Co(III) has greater tendency to form coordination complexes than Co (II). Thus, in the presence of ligands, Co (II) charges to Co (III), i.e., it easily oxidised.

(iii) The ions with d1 configuration have the tendency to lose the only electron present in d-subshell to acquire stable d0 configuration. Therefore, they are unstable and undergo oxidation or disproportionation.

Question 22.
What is meant by ‘disproportionation’? Give two examples of disproportionation reaction in aqueous solution.
Answer:
Disproportionation reactions are those reactions in which the same substance undergoes oxidation as well as reduction. In disproportion reaction, oxidation number of an element increases as well as decreases to form two different products, e.g.,
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 7

Question 23.
Which metal in the first series of transition metals exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently and why?
Answer:
Copper has electronic configuration 3d10 4s1 will attain a completely filled d-orbital and a stable configuration on losing 4s1 electron i.e., [Ar] 3d10.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 24.
Calculate the number of unpaired electrons in the following gaseous ions: Mn3+, Cr3+, V3+ and Ti3+. Which one of these is the most stable in aqueous solution?
Answer:
Mn3+ = 3d4 = 4 unpaired electrons
Cr3+ = 3d3 = 3 unpaired electrons
V3+ = 3d2 = 2 unpaired electrons
Ti3+ = 3d1 =1 unpaired electron
Out of these species Cr3+ is the most stable in aqueous solution due to its tendency of complex formation.

Question 25.
Give examples and suggest reasons for the following features of the transition metal chemistry :
(i) The lowest oxide of transition metal is basic, the highest is amphoteric/acidic.
(ii) A transition metal exhibits higher oxidation state in oxides and fluorides.
(iii) The highest oxidation state is exhibited in oxo-anions of a metal.
Answer:
(i) The lowest oxide of transition metal is basic because the metal atom has low oxidation state. This means that it can donate valence electrons which are not involved in bonding to act like a base. Whereas the highest oxide is amphoteric/acidic due to the highest oxidation state as the valence electrons are involved in bonding and are unavailable. For example, MnO is basic whereas Mn2O7 is acidic.

(ii) A transition metal exhibits higher oxidation states in oxides and fluorides because oxygen and fluorine are highly electronegative elements, small in size (and strongest oxidising agents). For example, osmium shows an oxidation state of +6 in O2F6 and vanadium shows an oxidation state of +5 in V2O5.

(iii) Oxometal anions have the highest oxidation state, e.g., Cr in \(\mathrm{Cr}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{7}^{2-}\) has an oxidation state of +6 whereas Mn in \(\mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) has an oxidation state of +7. This is again due to the combination of the metal with oxygen, which is highly electronegative and oxidising element.

Question 26.
Indicate the steps in the preparation of:
(i) K2Cr2O7 from chromite ore.
(ii) KMnO4 from pyrolusite ore.
Answer:
(i) Potassium dichromate is prepared from chromite ore FeCr2O4 as follows :
Step I: Conversion of chromite ore to sodium chromate.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 3
Effect of pH : The chromates and dichromates can interconverted to each other in aqueous solution by increasing the pH of the solution.
\(\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}\) + 2OH ⇌ \(2 \mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}\) + H2O
(ii) Preparation of potassium permanganate, KMnO4: Potassium permanganate is prepared by the fusion of MnO2 (pyrolusite) with potassium hydroxide and an oxidising agent such as KNO3 to form potassium manganate which disproportionate in a neutral or acidic solution to form permanganate.
2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → 2K2MnO4 + H2O
\(3 \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{2-}\) + 4H+ → \(\mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) + MnO2 + H2O
On large scale : It is prepared by the alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2 to form potassium manganate. The electrolytic oxidation of potassium manganate in alkaline solution produces KMnO4, at the anode.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 4
Reaction of KMnO4 in acidic medium
(a) Oxidises iron (II) ions to iron (III) ions.
\(\mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) + 5Fe2+ + 8H2+ → Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O
(b) Oxidises SO2 to sulphuric acid.
\(2 \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) + 5SO2 + 2H2O → 2Mn2+ + 5SO2 + 4H2O
(c) Oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide.
\(2 \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) + \(5 \mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{4}^{2-}\) + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 27.
What are alloys? Name an important alloy which contains some of the lanthanoid metals. Mention its uses.
Answer:
An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or metals and non-metals. An important alloy containing lanthanoid metals is misch metal which contains 95% lanthanoid metals and 5% iron along with traces of S, C, Ca and Al. It is used in Mg-based alloy to produce bullets, shells and lighter flints.

Question 28.
What are inner-transition elements? Decide which of the following atomic numbers are the atomic numbers of the inner-transition elements:
29, 59, 74, 95, 102, 104.
Answer:
The f-block elements, i.e., in which the last electron enters into /-subshell are called inner-transition elements. These include lanthanoids (58-71) and actinoids (90-103). Thus, elements with atomic numbers 59, 95 and 102 are inner-transition elements.

Question 29.
The chemistry of the actinoid elements is not so smooth as that of the lanthanoids. Justify this statement by giving some examples from the oxidation state of these elements.
Answer:
Lanthanoids show a limited number of oxidation state, viz., +2, +3 and +4 (out of which +3 is the most common). This is because of a large energy gap between 4/, 5d and 6s subshells. The dominant oxidation state of actinoids is also +3 but they show a number of other oxidation states also, e.g., uranium(Z = 92) and plutonium (Z = 94), show +3, +4, +5 and +6, neptunium (Z = 94) shows +3, +4, +5 and +7, etc. This is due to small energy difference between 5/, 6 d and 7s subshells of the actinoids.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 30.
Which is the last element in the series of the actinoids? Write the electronic configuration of this element. Comment on the possible oxidation state of this element.
Answer:
The last element in the actinoid series is lawrencium (Lr). Its atomic number is 103 and its electronic configuration is [Rn]5f14 6d1 7s2. The most common oxidation state displayed by it is + 3; because after losing 3 electrons it attains stable f14 configuration.

Question 31.
Use Hund’s rule to derive the electronic configuration of Ce3+ ion and calculate its magnetic moment on the basis of spin only formula.
Answer:
58Ce =[Xe]54f15d16s2
Ce3+ = [Xe]544f1, i.e., there is only one unpaired electron, i.e., n = 1. Hence, p = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) = \(\sqrt{1(1+2)}\) = \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.73 BM

Question 32.
Name the members of the lanthanoid series which exhibit +4 oxidation states and those which exhibit +2 oxidation states. Try to correlate this type of behaviour with the electronic configurations of these elements.
Answer:
+4 = 58Ce , 59Pr, 60Nd, 65Tb, 66Dy
+2 = 60Nd, 62Su 63Eu, 69Tm, 70Yb
+2 oxidation state is exhibited when the lanthanoid has the configuration 5d06s2, so that 2 electrons are easily lost. +4 oxidation state is exhibited when the configuration left is close to 4f0 (e.g., 4f0, 4f1, 4f2) or close to 4f7 (e.g., 4f7or 4f8)

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 33.
Compare the chemistry of the actinoids with that of lanthanoids with reference to:
(i) electronic configuration
(ii) oxidation states and
(iii) chemical reactivity.
Answer:

Characteristics Lanthanoids Actinoids
(i) Electronic configuration [Xe] 4/1-145d0-16s2 [Rn] 5/114 6d0_1 7s2
(ii) Oxidation states Besides +3 oxidation state lanthanoids show +2 and +4 oxidation state only in a few cases. Besides +3 oxidation state, actinoids show higher oxidation state of +4, +5, +6, +7 also because of smaller energy gap between 5/, 6d and 7s subshell.
(iv) General chemical reactivity elements These are less reactive metals.

Lesser tendency towards complex formation.

Do not form oxacation. Compounds are less basic.

These are highly reactive metals

Greater tendency towards complex formation.

Form oxocation.Compounds are more basic.

Question 34.
Write the electronic configurations of the elements with the atomic numbers 61, 91,101 and 109.
Answer:
Z = 61 (Promethium, Pm), electronic configuration [Xe] 4f55d06s2
Z = 91 (Protactium, Pa), electronic configuration = [Rn] 5f26d1s2
Z = 101 (Mendelevium, Md), electronic configuration = [Rn] 5f136d07s2
Z =109 (Meitnerium, Mt), electronic configuration = [Rn] 5f146d7 7s2

Question 35.
Compare the general characteristics of the first series of the transition metals with those of the second and third series metals in the respective vertical columns. Give special emphasis on the following points :
(i) Electronic configurations,
(ii) Oxidation states,
(iii) Ionisation enthalpies and
(iv) Atomic sizes
Answer:
(i) Electronic configurations : The elements in the same vertical column generally have similar electronic configurations. Although the first series shows only two exceptions, i.e., Cr = 3d54s1 and Cu = 3d104s1 but the second series shows more exceptions, e.g., Mo(42) = 4ds5s1,Tc(43) = 4d65s1,Ru(44) = 4d75s1 Rh(45) = 4d85s1, Pb(46) = 4d105s0, Ag(47) = 4d105s1. Similarly, in the third series, W(74) = 5d46s2, Pt(78) = 5d96s1 and Au(79) = 5d10 6d1. Hence, in the same vertical column, in a number of cases, the electronic configuration of the three series are not similar.

(ii) Oxidation states : The elements in the same vertical column generally show similar oxidation states. The number of oxidation states shown by the elements in the middle of each series is maximum and minimum at the extreme ends.

(iii) Ionisation enthalpies : The first ionisation enthalpies in each series generally increase gradually as we move from left to right though some exceptions are observed in each series. The first ionisation enthalpies of some elements in the second (4d) series are higher while some of them have lower value than the elements of 3d series in the same vertical column. However, the first ionisation enthalpies of third (5d) series are higher than those of 3d and 4d series. This is because of weak shielding of nucleus of 4/-electrons in the 5d-series.

(iv) Atomic sizes : Generally, ions of the same charge or atoms in a given series show progressively decrease in radius with increasing atomic number though the decrease is quite small. But the size of the atoms of the 4d-series is larger than the corresponding elements of the 3d-series whereas those of corresponding elements of the 5d-series are nearly the same as those of 4d-series due to lanthanoid contraction.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 36.
Write down the number of 3d electrons in each of the following ions:
Ti2+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn2+, Fe2+, Fe3+, Co2+, Ni2+ and Cu2+. Indicate how would you expect the five 3d-orbitals to be occupied for these hydrated ions (octahedral).
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 8
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 9

Question 37.
Comment on the statement that elements of the first transition series possess many properties different from those of heavier transition elements.
Answer:
The given statement is true. Some evidences in support of this statement are given below :

  1. Atomic radii of the heavier transition elements (4 d and 5d series) are larger than those of the corresponding elements of the first transition series though those of 4d and 5d series are very close to each other.
  2. Ionisation enthalpies of 5d series are higher than the corresponding elements of 3d and 4d series.
  3. Enthalpies of atomisation of 4d and 5d series are higher than the corresponding elements of first series.
  4. Melting and boiling points of heavier transition elements are greater than those of the first transition series due to stronger intermetallic bonding.

Question 38.
What can be inferred from the magnetic moment values of the following complex species?

Example Magnetic Moment (BM)
K4[Mn(CN)6] 2.2
[Fe(H2O)6]2+ 5.3
K2[Mncl4] 5.9

Answer:
Magnetic moment (μ) = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) BM
For n = 1, μ = \(\sqrt{1(1+2)}\) = \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.73;
For n = 2, μ = \(\sqrt{2(2+2)}\) = \(\sqrt{8}\) = 2.83;
For n = 3, μ = \(\sqrt{3(3+2)}\) = \(\sqrt{15}\) = 3.87;
For n = 4, μ = \(\sqrt{4(4+2)}\) = \(\sqrt{24}\) = 4.90;
For n = 5, μ = \(\sqrt{5(5+2)}\) = \(\sqrt{35}\) = 5.92
K4[Mn(CN)6]
Here, Mn is in +2 oxidation, state, i.e., as Mn2+. μ = 2.2 BM shows it has only one unpaired electron.
Hence, when CN ligands approach Mn2+ion, the electrons in 3d pair up
Hence, CN is a strong ligand. The hybridisation involved is d2sp3 forming inner orbital octahedral complex.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 10
[Fe(H2O)6]2+
Here, Fe is in +2 oxidation state, i.e., as Fe2+. μ = 5.3 BM shows that there are four unpaired electrons. This means that the electrons in 3d do not pair up when the ligand H2O molecules approach. Hence, H2O is a weak ligand. To accommodate the electrons donated by six H20 molecules, the hybridisation will be sp3d2.
Hence, it will be an outer orbital octahedral complex.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 11
K2[MnCl4]
Here, Mn is in +2 oxidation state, i.e., as Mn2+. μ = 5.9 BM shows that there are five unpaired electrons. Hence, the hybridisation involved will be sp3 and the complex will be tetrahedral.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 12

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Chemistry Guide for Class 12 PSEB The d-and f-Block Elements Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Silver atom has completely filled d-orbitals (4d10) in its ground state. How can you say that it is a transition element?
Answer:
Silver (Z = 47) can show +2 oxidation state in which it has incompletely filled d-subshell (4d9 configuration). So, silver is a transition element.

Question 2.
In the series Sc (Z = 21) to Zn (Z = 30), the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest i.e., 126 kJ mol-1. Why?
Answer:
In the first series of transition elements Sc to Zn, all elements have one or more unpaired electrons except zinc which has no unpaired electron as its outer electronic configuration is 3d104s2. Hence, interatomic metallic bonding (M-M bonding) is weaker in zinc. Therefore, enthalpy of atomisation is lowest.

Question 3.
Which of the 3d series of the transition metals exhibits the largest number of oxidation states and why?
Answer:
Mn (atomic number = 25) has electronic configuration[Ar] 3d5 4s2.
Mn has the maximum number of unpaffed electrons present in the d-subshell (5 electrons). Hence, Mn exhibits the largest number of oxidation states, i.e., + 2 to + 7 in its compounds.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 4.
The E(M2+/M) value for copper is positive (+0.34 V). What is possible reason for this? (Hint: Consider its high △aH and low △hydH)
Answer:
E (M2+/M) for any metal is related to the sum of the enthalpy change taking place in the following steps:
M(s) + △aH → M(g), (△aH = Enthalpy of atomisation)
M(g) + △iH → M2+(g) (△iH = Ionisation enthalpy)
M2+(g) + aq → M2+(aq) + △hydH
(△hydH = Hydration enthalpy)
Copper has high enthalpy of ionisation and relatively low enthalpy of hydration. So, E(Cu2+/Cu) is positive. The high energy to transform Cu(s) to Cu2+(aq) is not balanced by its hydration enthalpy.

Question 5.
How would you account for the irregular variation of ionisation enthalpies (first and second) in the first series of the transition elements?
Answer:
Irregular variation of ionisation enthalpies is mainly attributed to varying degree of stability of different 3d configuration (e.g., d0, d5, d10 are exceptionally stable).

Question 6.
Why is the highest oxidation state of a metal exhibited in its oxide or fluoride only?
Answer:
Oxygen and fluorine have small size and high electronegativity. Hence, they can oxidise the metal to the highest oxidation state.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 7.
Which is a stronger reducing agent Cr2+ or Fe2+ and why?
Answer:
The following reactions are involved when Cr2+ and Fe2+ act as reducing agents.
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 13
The PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 14 value is -0.41 V and PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 15 value is +0.77 V. This means that Cr2+ can be easily oxidised to Cr3+, but Fe2+ does not get oxidised to Fe3+ easily. Therefore, Cr2+ is a better reducing agent that Fe2+.

Question 8.
Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of M2+ (aq) ion (Z = 27).
Answer:
Electronic configuration of M atom with Z = 27 is [Ar] 3d7 4s2.
∴ Electronic configuration of M2+ = [Ar]3d7, i.e.,
PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements 16
Hence, it has three unpaired electrons.
∴ Spin only magnetic moment (μ) = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\)
= \(\sqrt{3(3+2)}\)
= \(\sqrt{15}\)
= 3.87 BM

Question 9.
Explain why Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solutions.
Answer:
In aqueous solutions Cu+ undergoes disproportionation to form a more stable Cu2+ ion.
2Cu+(aq) > Cu2+(aq) + Cu(s)
The higher stability of Cu2+ in aqueous solutions may be attributed to its greater negative △hyd.H0 than that of Cu+. It compensates the second ionisation enthalpy of Cu+ involved in the formation of Cu2+ ions.

PSEB 12th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 10.
Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction. Why?
Answer:
In actinoids, 5f orbitals are filled. These 5f orbitals have a poorer shielding effect than 4f orbitals (in lanthanoids). Thus, the effective nuclear charge experienced by electrons in valence shells in case of actinoids is much more than that experienced by lanthanoids. Hence, the size contraction in actinoids is greater as compared to that in lanthanoids.