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PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Physical Education Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet

Physical Education Guide for Class 8 PSEB Nutritious and Balanced Diet Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by food?
Answer:
Food is very important for our body because it helps in the growth and development of our body. It repairs old cells and forms the new cells. Food prevents us from diseases. We consider such things as food which becomes part of our body after taking it and develops the body.

Question 2.
What do you mean by nutritious food?
Answer:
The following are the constituents of nutritious food:

Proteins
Vitamins
Carbohydrates
Fats
Mineral Salts
Water.

Question 3.
What do you mean by balanced diet?
Answer:
Balanced Diet. Balanced diet is the diet which has all the nutrients in right proportion and which is capable of fulfilling all the needs of the body. It should have all nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, salts and water in proper proportion. Such a diet needs to be taken for the proper development of body, protection from diseases and good health. No single item of food is balanced diet in itself. Only milk is an exception, as it has got almost all nutrients.

Question 4.
What do you understand by protein? How many types of proteins are there?
Answer:
Proteins:
Protein is a complex compound consisting of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulphur, phosphorus and nitrogen. It is of two kinds vegetable protein and animal protein.

Sources:
1. Vegetable Protein: It is available in soyabeans, groundnuts, cashew-nuts, pistachio, walnuts, wheat, millet, maize, etc.
2. Animal Protein: It is available in meat, fish, egg, cheese, etc.
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet 1
Advantages of Protein:

It ensures physical growth and development
It repairs broken tissues
It keeps the body temperature normal
It produces energy in case there is lack-of the quantity of carbohydrates or fats in the body.

Harms due to lack of Proteins:
The body catches the following diseases due to lack of proteins-
1. Kwashiorkor:
This disease is common in children in the age group of 1-3 years in case there is lack of proteins. At first, the child’s legs are affected. Then this disease causes swelling on the face and then the whole body. The skin of the child becomes rough and red. The child becomes irritated.

2. Rickets or Rachitis:
As a result of the lack of proteins children suffer from rachitis. A child affected with this disease looks very thin and weak. Bones are visible through his flesh.

3. Hunger Oedema:
Because of prolonged hunger and lack of protein, the body does not get nourishment, and water gets accumulated in cells, and body appears to be swelled up.

4. Pellagra: As a result of this disease, one’s skin appears to be rough and dry.

5. Defect in the Liver. Liver gets damaged due to the lack of protein in food.

Harms due to excess of Proteins:
One may suffer from kidney ailments in case of excessive intake of proteins. Blood vessels too get affected and one begins to have joint pains.

Proper quantity:
Children in the age group of 1-6 years are in dire need of proteins in large amount. A normal person should consume 70 to 100 gms. of proteins every day.

Question 5.
What are carbohydrates? What are the harmful effects of its deficiency and excess.
Answer:
Carbohydrates: Carbohydrates provide heat and energy to the body. Indians, in general, compensate 70-80% of their food with this element.

Sources: Carbohydrates are available in wheat, rice, barley, maize, millet, jaggery, sugar, potatoes, etc.

Advantages of Carbohydrates:

Carbohydrates provide heat and energy to the body.
They help in digesting fat.
They cleanse intestines and liver.

Harms due to lack of Carbohydrates:

As a result of the lack of carbohydrates, blood loses its alkaline nature, and becomes more acidic. In such a condition, a person may become unconscious. In such a condition due to hunger one may get diabetes.
Intestines are not cleaned properly.
As a result of lack of carbohydrates, fats remain undigested in the body.
As a result of lack of carbohydrates acidic elements in the liver get cleansed, and it is harmful to the body
A person becomes very weak and may die in case there is excess of lack of carbohydrates in his food.

Harms due to excess of Carbohydrates:
The excess of carbohydrates causes-

fatness
high blood pressure
joint pains and
diabetes.

Proper Quantity:
Our food has 50-80% of carbohydrates. 50-60% part of balanced diet consists of carbohydrates. A normal person should have 400 to 700 gms. of carbohydrates in his daily food.

Question 6.
What do you mean by fats? What are its types.
Answer:
Fats are of two types-
(i) vegetable fats
(ii) animal fats.

Sources.
1. Vegetable Fats. These are available in almonds, walnuts, soyabeans, groundnuts, coconut oil, mustard, etc.
2. Animal Fats. These are available in ghee, butter, milk, meat, fish, egg, etc.
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet 3

Advantages:

It provides energy to the body.
It keeps the body temperature stable.
It protects all parts of the body against external injuries.
It keeps in reserve vitamins A, D and K according to the needs of the body.

Harms due to the lack of Fats:
The body suffers in the following ways in case there is lack of fats-

Skin becomes dry.
The deficiency of vitamins A, D and K follows.
The skin goes dry because of the lack of acids of fat.

Harms due to excess of Fats:
The excess of fats in one’s food also proves to be harmful in the following ways-

One suffers from obesity.
Heart diseases are caused.
Digestion weakens.
One suffers from diabetes.
Stones may form in the abdomen.

Proper Quantity: A normal person should have 50 to 75 gms. of fats in his daily food.

Question 7.
Milk is a complete food. Explain it?
Answer:
Milk:
Milk is an ideal and whole food. It has got all the essential nutrients. It has 3.6% fat, 3.4% protein, 4.8% carbohydrates, 0.7% salts and 7.5% water. Milk is given to growing children because it is a complete food. At home, patient is also given milk which acts as complete food.
For good health, milk serves as a balanced diet.

All the essential nutrients as proteins, carbohydrates, fats, minerals, salts, water, vitamins are available in milk in right proportion. All these nutrients have different functions to perform in our body. Milk is considered to be an ideal food as it has all the essential nutrients including vitamins, though it does not have iron.

Question 8.
What are the principles of cooking food?
Answer:
Cooking Food:
Properly cooked food is useful for health. Food must be cooked properly, if food is over cooked, it does loses some essential nutrients like vitamins C and D. Food must be cooked properly for the following reasons:

Properly cooked food becomes easily digestible.
By cooking food disease causing germs get killed.
Cooked food is tasty. One feels like eating it.
We can preserve the cooked food for long.

Methods of Cooking food:
The following methods for cooking food are generally followed-

Boiling
Cooking with steam
Roasting
Frying

These methods are explained in brief below:
1. Boiling:
In this method, food articles are cooked by boiling in water. But essential vitamins and mineral salts dissolve in water and are lost in this method of cooking. A little quantity of water should be used in boiling eatables. If water used in boiling is excessive, it should not be thrown. Rice, pulses, meat and vegetables are cooked by boiling.

2. Cooking with Steam:
Food is also cooked with steam. Essential nutrients do not get lost in cooking by this method. The food cooked in a steam cooker is nutritious and beneficial to health. So this method is considered to be better than other methods.

3. Roasting:
In this method, food is directly roasted on the fire. Excessive roasting also destroys essential nutrients. The roasted meat is tasty and easily digestible.

4. Frying:
There are many food items such as ‘pakora’, ‘samosa’ and “purian” which are fried. Food is cooked very soon by frying. But essential nutrients also get lost in this method. Moreover, fried food is not easily digestible, and is often harmful to one’s health. Best Method. Of all the methods of cooking, cooking with steam is the best. The food cooked in this way does not lose essential nutrients and it is very beneficial to one’s health.

Question 9.
Explain the rules of taking food.
Answer:

Always have your food at a fixed time. Untimely eaten food causes indigestion.
Wash your hands with soap before taking meals and always wear clean clothes. Nails should be cut and cleaned.
We should not eat too hot or too cold food. Hot food causes blisters or boils and cold food cannot be chewed properly.
Food should be taken in an adequate quantity, over-eating may cause indigestion.
Food should be chewed slowly and properly so that it can be digested easily.
Food should be nutritious and easily digestible.
Never take stale food because it causes food poisoning.
We should be happy while taking food. Never talk or watch T.V. while taking food.
Take dinner at least two hours before sleeping because it is dangerous to sleep immediately after taking a meal.
Rest a while after meals.

Question 10.
Right notes on the following:
(a) Roughage
(b) Water
(c) Minerals
(d) Cooking food.
Answer:
(a) Roughage:
Wheat, pulses, vegetables, fruits, dry fruits, milk, meat, fish are the main food products. The advantages of these are as under:
(i) Cereals:
Wheat, rice, grams, maize, barley are generally taken as food.

Advantages of Cereals:

These are helpful for the formation of our body.
Food provides energy to body.
They contain too much carbohydrates.
The outer parts of these food material provide iron, lime, vitamins and proteins.
They are very useful to remove constipation.

(ii) Pulses:
Soyabean, peas, turnip, almonds are counted in pulses. These pulses provide us vitamins A, B, and C. They also supply us with proteins, minerals, salt, iron and phosphorus.

Advantages of Pulses:

These provide energy.
Increase appetite.
Improve digestion.

(iii) Vegetables:
Cauliflower, palak, sarson ka saag, methi, carrots, walnut, turnip, tomatoes, potatoes, peas, cabbage and onion are the main vegetables.

Advantages of Vegetables:

Vegetables protect our body.
Vegetables maintain the health of a person.
They purify the blood.
They prevent constipation.

(b) Water:
Our body is composed of 2/3rd of water. It is formed of the combination of oxygen and hydrogen. It is as important as air for our body.
Sources. It is available in pure form in many nutrients also such as milk, fruit and vegetables.

Uses of Water:

Water helps in the formation of cells.
It carries nourishment to cells. It helps in the excretion of waste products from the body.
It helps in digestion of food.
It regulates the heat in our body.
It helps in mixing nutrients with blood.
It keeps the parts and joints of body soft.
It ensures blood circulation in the body.

Harms due to lack of Water:
There are many harms of drinking less water-

The food does not digest properly in case one drinks less water.
Liver remains heavy.
Constipation is caused.
One feels physical fatigue all the time.
The body gets weakened.
The face turns pale.
Waste products in the body do not get excreted properly.
One is afflicted with joint pains.
Stones are formed in kidneys.

Harms due to excess of Water:
Water should always be taken in right proportion. Liver remains filled by taking water in excess and one does not feel appetite. If one continues taking water with food, food does not digest properly.

Proper Quantity:
The quantity of water intake varies with season, exercise and food. Normally, 5-6 glasses of water a day are enough for a normal person.

(c) Minerals:
Our body has 4% of minerals and salts. Phosphorus, calcium, sodium, chlorine, potassium, magnesium, manganese, iodine and zinc are some prominent minerals.
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Nutritious and Balanced Diet 4
Sources:
Minerals and salts are available in green vegetables, fruits, meat, milk. Milk has less amount of iron, but it has all other minerals.

Advantages of Minerals:
1. They help in the development of muscular tissues.
2. They make the blood red.
3. Calcium helps in blood clotting.
4. Iron is very important for the formation of blood.
5. Minerals help in the Topper functioning of all parts of the body.

Harms due to lack of Minerals:

The lack of calcium causes the weakening of teeth and bones.
Body loses its power of resistance to diseases.
The lack of iodine is the cause of goitre in the body.

(d) Cooking Food:
Properly cooked food is useful for health. Food must be cooked properly, if food is over cooked, it does loses some essential nutrients like vitamins C and D. Food must be cooked properly for the following reasons:

Properly cooked food becomes easily digestible.
By cooking food disease causing germs get killed.
Cooked food is tasty. One feels like eating it.
We can preserve the cooked food for long.

Methods of Cooking food:
The following methods for cooking food are generally followed-

1. Boiling
2. Cooking with steam
3. Roasting
4. Frying

3. Roasting:
In this method, food is directly roasted on the fire. Excessive roasting also destroys essential nutrients. The roasted meat is tasty and easily digestible.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Guide Nutritious and Balanced Diet Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Balanced diet contains:
(A) Protein
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Fats and Mineral Salts
(D) Above all.
Answers:
(D) Above all.

Question 2.
How the protein is made?
(A) Carbon
(B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) None of them.
Answers:
(A) Carbon
(B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen

Question 3.
How many types of Protein?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five.
Answers:
(A) Two

Question 4
Write the sources of Fat:
(A) Fruits .
(B) Soyabeans
(C) Groundnuts
(D) All above.
Answers:
(A) Fruits .
(B) Soyabeans
(C) Groundnuts

Question 5.
Mention the types of carbohydrates
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five.
Answers:
(A) Two

Question 6.
Important food is:
(A) Butter
(B) Fruits
(C) Almond or Milk
(D) None of these.
Answers:
(C) Almond or Milk

Question 7.
The rules of eating food:
(A) Always have your food at fix time.
(B) Wash your hands with soap before taking meal.
(C) Food should be chewed slowly.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(A) Always have your food at fix time.
(B) Wash your hands with soap before taking meal.
(C) Food should be chewed slowly.
(D) All above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of food?
Answer:
Those eatable things which satisfy our hunger and develop our body are called food.

Question 2.
Write down the salts, which are found in our food?
Answer:
Calcium, phosphorus, iron, sodium, magnesium, potassium, iodine, chlorine, and sulphur are salts found in our body.

Question 3.
Why the food cooked on steam is considered well?
Answer:
Because the food cooked by steam does not destroy the nutritious elements.

Question 4.
What is the percentage of water in our body?
Answer:
There is 60% of water in the body of a human being.

Question 5.
How many types of proteins are there? Write their names.
Answer:
Proteins are of two types:

Animal proteins
Vegetable proteins.

Question 6.
Mention sources of Animal Proteins
Answer:
It is available in meat, fish and milk.

Question 7.
Mention the three sources of Vegetable Proteins.
Answer:
It is available in soyabeans, groundnuts and cashew-nuts.

Question 8.
What are Carbohydrates?
Answer:
Carbohydrates contain Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen.

Question 9.
Mention the types of vitamins.
Answer:
Vitamins are of six types-A, B, C, D, E and K.

Question 10.
Lack of which vitamin causes night blindness?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin A.

Question 11.
Lack of which vitamin causes Berry-Berry disease?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin B.

Question 12.
Lack of which vitamin causes Scurvy disease?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin B.

Question 13.
What is the cause of Pyoria?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin C.

Question 14.
Lack of which vitamin causes infertility in women?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin E.

Question 15.
Mention the vitamins which are not soluble in water?
Answer:
Vitamins C, D and K.

Question 16.
Which milk is useful for a child?
Answer:
Mother feed.

Question 17.
What are the various methods of cooking food? Name them.
Answer:

Boiling
Roasting
Frying
Cooking with steam.

Question 18.
How much quantity of proteins should we take in our daily meals?
Answer:
70 to 100 grams.

Question 19.
Describe the main constituents of carbohydrates.
Answer:
Starch and sugar.

Question 20.
Name the constituents of proteins.
Answer:
Carbon, Nitrogen, Hydrogen and Sulphur.

Question 21.
To whom do we call life giving?
Answer:
Vitamins.

Question 22.
Which vitamins are soluble?
Answer:
Vitamins B and C.

Question 23.
How much Fat do we require in our meals?
Answer:
50 to 70 gms.

Question 24.
Which disease is caused by lack of iron?
Answer:
Lack of Haemoglobin.

Question 25.
What should be kind of Dinning site?
Answer:
Clean and airy.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of food?
Answer:
Food is very important for our body because it helps in growth and development of our body. It repairs olcfcells and forms the new cells.
Food prevents us from diseases. We consider such thing as food which becomes part of our body after taking it and develops the body.

Question 2.
Why it is necessary for our body?
Answer:
Everybody needs food for living. Daily we take part in many activities or perform so many types of work. To perform these activities we need energy. This energy is derived from food.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of food?
Answer:

Food provides energy to the body.
Food helps growth and development of the body.
Food helps in the formation of new cells.
Food helps in repairing the broken cells.
Food helps in preventing diseases.

Question 4.
Name the main nutrients of food.
Answer:
The following are the constituents of food:

Proteins
Vitamins
Carbohydrates
Fats
Mineral Salts
Water.

Question 5.
How is water useful for our body?
Answer:
Our body needs water to live. We cannot live without water. Advantages of Water.

It carries nourishment to cells. It helps in the excretion of waste products from the body.
It regulates the heat in our body.
It helps digestion of food.
It helps in mixing nutrients with blood.
It keeps the parts and joints of the body soft.
It ensures blood circulation in the body.

Question 6.
Why it is compulsory to cook food?
Answer:
Need for cooking food. Properly cooked food is useful for health. Food must he cooked properly. If food is overcooked, it loses some essential nutrients like vitamins C and D. Food should be cooked for the following reasons:

Properly cooked food becomes easily digestible.
By cooking food disease-causing germs get killed.
Cooked food is tasty, one feels like eating it.
We can preserve the cooked food for long.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Flower Cultivation Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Which is the major cut flower crop?
Answer:
Gladiolus.

Question 2.
Which is the major loose flower crop?
Answer:
Marigold.

Question 3.
How much area is under flower crops in Punjab?
Answer:
The area under cultivation of flowers in Punjab is around 2160 hectares out of which 1300 hectares area is under fresh flowers.

Question 4.
What are different types of flowering crops being cultivated in Punjab?
Answer:
Divided into two categories :

Loose flowers
Cut flowers.

Question 5.
When Gladiolus corms are planted in the field?
Answer:
September to mid-November.

Question 6.
Which month is suitable for making Chrysanthemum cuttings?
Answer:
End June to mid-July.

Question 7.
How Gerbera is propagated?
Answer:
Through tissue culture.

Question 8.
Which color of the rose is widely grown for loose flower production?
Answer:
Red Rose.

Question 9.
Which flowers are used for the extraction of oil?
Answer:
Flowers of Tuberose, Motia (Jasmine).

Question 10.
Which flower is generally grown in protected conditions?
Answer:
Gerbera.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Define cut flowers and name the major cut flower crops under cultivation.
Answer:
These are flowers that are cut with long stems or branches. Some of the major cut flowers are Gladiolus, Gerbera, Chrysanthemum, Rose, and Lilium.

Question 2.
How Gladiolus spikes are harvested and stored?
Answer:
Gladiolus flower spikes are harvested when the basal floret is half or fully open. These cut spikes can be stored by keeping them in water for nine days in a cold store.

Question 3.
How the roses are propagated?
Answer:
Propagation of rose plants can be done

by T-budding for cut flower varieties
from stem cuttings for loose flowers.

Question 4.
Which months are suitable for raising the nursery of Marigold crop?
Answer:
For rainy season nursery is raised during last week of June to first week of July. For winter it is done in mid September and foT summer first week of January.

Question 5.
What is the planting time for winter season marigold?
Answer:
In winter season marigold is sown during the mid September.

Question 6.
Write harvesting stages of the following flowers :

Gladiolus
Rose as cut flower
Motia.

Answer:

Gladiolus. Harvesting is done when the basal floret is half or fully open.
Rose as a cut flower. It is harvested at the tight bud (closed) stage.
Motia. These are harvested at the unopened flower buds stage.

Question 7.
What is plant spacing in African and French marigolds?
Answer:
For African marigold spacing is 40 x 30 cm and for French marigold, spacing is 60 x 60 cm.

Question 8.
What is planting time of Gerbera ? For how many years Gerbera crop gives flowers?
Answer:
Planting time for Gerbera is September to October. This crop once planted can produce flowers for three years.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 6

Question 9.
Write names of loose flowers and write their uses.
Answer:
Loose flowers are Rose, Marigold, Motia, Chrysanthemum etc. These flowers are used for making garlands, used for worshipping God and for other decorative purposes.

Question 10.
Which is the appropriate soil for Jasmine production?
Answer:
Light to heavy soil with good drainage are appropriate soils for Jasmine.

Question 1.
What is the importance of flowers in human life?
Answer:
Flowers are very important in human life. These make the world around us beautiful and colourful. Flowers play an important role in cultural and customary events. During marriage ceremonies, birthdays, flowers are used to complete some customs and are also used for decorative purposes. Devotees present flowers to their gods in the temples and other religious places to show their respect, faith and devotion. Chief guests are welcomed by presenting flowers to them in the form of bouquets or garlands. Women use flower as part of their make up. Flower cultivation has become economically beneficial for the farmers. Thus flowers play an important role in our life.

Question 2.
What is the difference between cut flowers and loose flowers? Give examples.
Answer:

Loose flowers: These flowers are harvested without stem. Examples of such flowers are Marigold, Motia, Chrysanthemum etc. These are used for making garlands, for worshipping gods and for other decorative purposes.
Cut flowers: These flowers are harvested with a long stem or branch attached with them. These are marketed as such with stem. These are usually used for making bouquets e.g.Gladiolus, Chrysanthemum, Gerbera, Rose, Lilium etc.

Question 3.
Write a brief note on importance and cultivation of motia.
Answer:
It is one of the main flower among fragrant flowers. These flowers are used to extract fragrant oil. These are also used for worshipping gods.
Climate. Summer season and dry climate is suitable for their growth.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 5

Soil. Light to heavy soils with good drainage are suitable. Appearance of flower. Flowers appear during the months of July—August.
Harvesting. Unopened flower buds are harvested for marketing.

Question 4.
Write a short note on transplanting, harvesting and yield of marigold.
Answer:
Marigold is one of the major loose flowers crop of our state. It is cultivated throughout the year. Soils of Punjab are found very appropriate for the cultivation of Marigold.
Sowing Nursery: For rainy season nursery is sown during last week of June to first week of July, for winter in mid September and for summer in first week of January. The seedlings are ready in a month of transplanting.
Varieties:L These are of two types—African and French.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 4

Spacing: For African variety spacing should be 40 x 30 cm and for French variety spacing should be 60 x 60 cm.
Flowering: Flowering starts after 50-60 days of transplanting.
Harvesting: Fully opened flowers are harvested.
Yield: Average yield in rainy season is 200 quintal per hectare and in winter it is 150 to 170 quintal per hectare.

Question 5.
How the following flowers are propagated?
1. Gladiolus
Answer:
Gladiolus. It is propagated by planting corms in the field.

2. Tuberose
Answer:
Tuberose. These are propagated from underground bulbs.

3. Chrysanthemum
Answer:
Chrysanthemum. These are propagated by stem cuttings of plants. These are cut from old plants.

4. Gerbera.
Answer:
Gerbera. These plants are propagated through tissue culture.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How much area comes under fresh flower cultivation?
Answer:
1300 hectare.

Question 2.
What type of flowers are Gladiolus, Chrysanthemum, Gerbera?
Answer:
Cut flowers.

Question 3.
What type of flowers are Rose and Motia?
Answer:
Loose flower.

Question 4.
How Gladiolus plants are propagated?
Answer:
From corms.

Question 5.
What is the sowing time of corms of Gladiolus in the fields?
Answer:
From September to mid-November.

Question 6.
When can the cultivation of marigold be done?
Answer:
Throughout the year.

Question 7.
Which soil is good for the cultivation of Marigold?
Answer:
All soils of Punjab are suitable for the cultivation of Marigold.

Question 8.
Name the varieties of Marigold.
Answer:
African and French.

Question 9.
How much seed is required for raising seedlings for one acre?
Answer:
600 gram.

Question 10.
When is the nursery of Marigold sown for the rainy season?
Answer:
Last week of June to first week of July.

Question 11.
After how many days of transplanting Marigold the crop starts flowering?
Answer:
After 50-60 days.

Question 12.
What is the yield of Marigold in rainy season?
Answer:
Around 200 quintals per hectare.

Question 13.
What is the yield of Marigold in winter?
Answer:
150-170 quintal per hectare.

Question 14.
From which plants Chrysanthemum cutting are obtained?
Answer:
These are cut from old plants.

Question 15.
When the stem cuttings of Chrysanthemum are done?
Answer:
Last week of June to mid July.

Question 16.
When are stem cuttings of chrysanthemum planted in fields?
Answer:
Mid July to mid September.

Question 17.
Give plant spacing for Chrysanthemum.
Answer:
30 x 30 cm.

Question 18.
When does the flowers appear on the chrysanthemum?
Answer:
November-December.

Question 19.
At what height the cut stems are harvested above ground level?
Answer:
5 cm above the ground level.

Question 20.
When do we get rose flowers in Punjab?
Answer:
November to February-March.

Question 21.
What is the colour of Gerbera flowers?
Answer:
Red, orange, white, pink, yellow.

Question 22.
When are.Gerbera flowers planted?
Answer:
September to October.

Question 23.
How many types of Tuberose are there?
Answer:
Two types—single and double.

Question 24.
Which type of Tuberose is more fragrant?
Answer:
Single type.

Question 25.
When are the bulbs of tuberose planted?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 26.
When do the flowers of Tuberose appear?
Answer:
July-August.

Question 27.
Give yield of Tuberose.
Answer:
Cut flowers 80,000 or 2-2.5 tons of loose flowers per acre.

Question 28.
Name a fragrant giving flower.
Answer:
Motia.

Question 29.
What is the color of Motia flowers?
Answer:
White.

Question 30.
When do we get Motia flowers?
Answer:
April to July-August.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How to prepare bulbs of Gladiolus for planting in the next season?
Answer:
Corms are dug out from the soil after 6-8 weeks of harvesting the spikes. These corms are cleaned. These are dried in shade and are stored in a cold store for planting in the next season.

Question 2.
When is the nursery of marigold raised?
Answer:
Sowing Nursery. For the rainy season nursery is sown during last week of June to first week of July, for winter in mid September and for summer in first week of January. The seedlings are ready in a month of transplanting.

Question 3.
When are the cuttings for Chrysanthemum prepared?
Answer:
Stem cuttings are cut from the old plants which are known as mother stock from end June to mid July.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 1

Question 4.
When do the flowers of Chrysanthemum appear and write about their harvesting?
Answer:
Chrysanthemum flowers appear in November-December. For cut flower use, stems are harvested 5 cm above ground whereas for loose flowers fully opened flowers are harvested.

Question 5.
When do the flowers of Rose appear and write about their harvesting?
Answer:
Rose flowers appear in November to February—March in Punjab. Cut flowers are harvested in tight bud stage and for loose flowers harvest in fully open stage.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 2

Question 6.
Write about types of Tuberose.
Answer:
Tuberose flowers are of two types—single and double. Single types are more fragrant and oil can be extracted from these flowers

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 3

Question 7.
When are the bulbs of tuberose planted and when do the flowers appear?
Answer:
Bulbs are planted in February-March and flowers appear in July-August.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write details of cultivation of Galdiolus.
Answer:

Gladiolus is main flower crop used as cut flower.
Seed: Gladiolus corms are used as seed.
Sowing time: September to mid-November.
Spacing: 30 x 20 cm
Harvesting: Spikes are harvested when basal floret is half or fully open.
Storing: Spikes can be stored by keeping them in water for nine days in cold store.
Next season seed: Dug out the corms from the soil from which flower spikes have been cut. Dug out these after 6-8 weeks after taking spikes. Clean and dry the corms in shade and store them in cold store of next season planting.

Question 2.
Write about cultivation of Chrysanthemum.
Answer:
Chrysanthemumilowers are used as cut flowers as well as loose flower. These can be planted is pots.

Preparing cuttings: Stem cuttings are prepared from old plants during last June to mid-July.
Sowing time: Cuttings are planted during mid-July to mid-September.
Plants spacing: 30 x 30 cm.
Appearance of flowers: November to December.
Harvesting: Cut flowers are harvested from 5 cm above the ground. But loose flowers are harvested when fully open.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Flower Cultivation Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. ……………….. is the main cut flower crop :
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Gladiolus
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Gladiolus

2. Produce obtained for tuberose is ……………….. loose flowers per acre.
(a) 2-2.5 ton
(b) 5 ton
(c) 20 ton
(d) 1 ton.
Answer:
(a) 2-2.5 ton

3. Gladiolus is propagated from the ………………..
(a) Corms
(b) Grafting
(c) Leaves
(d) All
Answer:
(a) Corms

4. Loose flower is :
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Jasmine
(d) Gerbera
Answer:
(d) Gerbera

5. French flower is type of ………………..
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Motia
(d) Gerbera.
Answer:
(a) Marigold

True/False:

1. In Punjab, area under flower cultivation is 5000 hectares.
Answer:
False

2. In Punjab, area under fresh flower cultivation is 13000 hectares.
Answer:
False

3. Gladiolus is propagated from the corms.
Answer:
True

4. For raising nursery of one acre of marigold 600 gram seed is required.
Answer:
True

5. Tuberose flowers are used as loose and cut flowers for oil extraction.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. In Punjab, flower crops are mainly classified in ……………… categories, Loose flower, Cut flower.
Answer:
two

2. Cut flowers are harvested with their ………………
Answer:
long stems

3. Marigold is the main major ……………… crop of Punjab.
Answer:
loqse flower

4. Tuberose bulbs are planted during ………………
Answer:
February-March

5. Motia (Jasmine) flowers are of ……………… colored having good fragrance.
Answer:
white

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Reaching the Age of Adolescence Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
What is the term used for secretions of endocrine glands responsible for changes taking place in the body?
Answer:
Hormones.

Question 2.
Define adolescence.
Answer:
Adolescence.
The period of life, when the body undergoes changes, leading to reproductive maturity is called adolescence. Adolescence begins around the age of 11 and lasts upto 18 or 19 years of age. The adolescents are also called “teenagers”. Adolescence in girls may begin a year or two earlier than in boys. Also the period of adolescence varies from person to person.

Question 3.
WTaat is Menstruation ? Explain.
Answer:
Menstruation.
The rhythmic changes in the uterus which occur about every 28 days throughout the reproductive cycle of women except the pregnancy is called menstrual cycle. The female sex hormones initiate the thickening of the uterine wall for the implantation of a fertilized ovum. If the ovum is not fertilized, the lining wall is broken down the discharge from the body. This is called menstruation. Normally the menstrual cycle starts at the age of 10-14 years and stops at the age of 45-50 when menopause is reached.

Question 4.
List changes in the body that takes place at puberty.
Answer:
Puberty. Puberty is period between the age of 11 to 19 years. Following changes take place at the onset of puberty.

1. Changes taking place at puberty in boys.

Height increase suddenly. The bones of legs and arms become long and make a boy tall.
Boy’s shoulders become broader and chest also become wider.
Muscles of the body grow more prominently.
The voice becomes hoarse. Adam’s apple, a protruding part of throat is seen. They have a deep voice.
They get acne and pimples on the face at this time due to the increased activities
of sweat and subaceous glands.
Male sex organs like testes and penis develop completely.
Boys develop hair on their chest, under the arms and on the pubic region.

2. Changes taking place at puberty in girls.

Height also increases in girls but comparatively less.
The region below the waist becomes wider.
In girls the larynx is hardly visible from the outside. Girls have a high pitched voice.
Like boys girls also get pimples on the face.
The ovaries enlarge and eggs begin to mature.
Breasts begin to develop.
Hair grow under the arms and also on the pubic region.

Question 5.
Prepare a table having two columns depicting names of endocrine glands and hormones secreted by them.
Answer:
The table given ahead indicates the endocrine glands and their hormones:

Endocrine gland	Hormones
(i) Pituitary gland	(i) Growth Hormones
(ii) Thyroid	(ii) Thyroxine
(iii) Adrenal	(iii) Adrenalin
(iv) Pancreas	(iv) Insulin
(v) Testis	(v) Androgen (Testosterone)
(vi) Ovaries	(vi) Estrogen

Question 6.
What are sex hormones ? Why are they named so ? State their function.
Answer:
Sex hormones.
There are the hormones secreted by testes in males and ovaries in females. They are named so because they are secreted by male and female sexes separately.

Male Sex hormone (Testosterone).
It is secreted by testes. It causes changes in boys like growth of facial hair. It also stimulates spermatogenesis.

Female sex hormone (Estrogen).
It is secreted by ovaries. It controls the development of secondary sexual characters in females, appearance of mammary glands etc. It maintains pregnancy.

Question 7.
Choose the correct option.
[a] Adolescents should be careful about what they eat, because
(i) proper diet develops their brains.
(ii) proper diet is needed for the rapid growth taking place in their body.
(iii) adolescents feel hungry all the time.
(iv) taste buds are well developed in teenagers.
Answer:
(ii) proper diet is needed for the rapid growth taking place in their body.

[b] Reproductive age in women starts when their
(i) menstruation starts.
(ii) breasts start developing.
(iii) body weight increases.
(iv) height increases.
Answer:
(i) menstruation starts.

[c] The right meal for adolescents consists of
(i) Chips, noodles, coke.
(ii) Chapati, dal, vegetables.
(iii) Rice, noodles and burger.
(iv) Vegetable cutlets, chips and lemon drink.
Answer:
(ii) chapati, dal, vegetables.

Question 8.
Write notes on:
(а) Adam’s apple.
(b) Secondary sexual characters.
(c) Sex determination in the unborn baby.
Answer:
(a) Adam’s apple.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence 1
At puberty boys develop larger voice box or larynx. This box in boys is seen as a protruding part of the throat called Adam’s apple.

(b) Secondary sexual characters.
We know testis and ovaries are the reproductive organs. They produce the gametes i.e. sperms and ova. In girls, breasts begin to develop at puberty and boys begin to grow facial hair, i.e. moustaches and beard. As these features help to distinguish the male from the female they are called secondary sexual characters. Boys also develop hair on their chest. In both boys and girls hairs grow under the arms and in the region above the thighs or the pubic region.

(c) Sex determination in the unborn baby.
Determination of the sex of child. Sex chromosomes determine sex in human beings. In males, there are 44 + XY chromosomes, whereas, in females there are 44 + XX chromosomes. Here X and Y chromosomes determine sex in human beings.

Two types of gametes are formed in male, one type is having 50% X-chromosome, whereas, other type is having Y-chromosome. In female, gametes are of one type and contain X-chromosome.

Thus females are homogametic. If male gamete having Y-chromosome undergoes fusion with female gamete having X-chromosome the zygote will have XY chromosome and this gives rise to male child.

If male gamete having X-chromosome undergoes fusion with female gamete having X-chromosome, the zygote will be having XX-chromosome and this gives rise to female child.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence 2

Question 9.
Word game : Use the clues to work out the words.
Across
3. Protruding voice box in boys
4. Glands without ducts
7. Endocrine gland attached to brain
8. Secretion of endocrine glands
9. Pancreatic hormone
10. Female hormone

Down
1. Male hormone
2. Secretes thyroxine
3. Another term for teenage
5. Hormone reaches here through blood stream
6. Voice box
7. Terms for changes at adolescence
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence 3
Answer:

Question 10.
The table below shows the data on likely heights of boys and girls as they grow in age. Draw graphs showing height and age for both boys and girls on the same graph paper. What conclusions can be drawn from these graphs?
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence 5
Answer:

The above graph shows that the increase in the growth in heights of boys and girls is same. The increase in growth is less in girls upto first eight years and after that it remains the same upto twenty years.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Reaching the Age of Adolescence Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Adolescent period normally start from …………………. of age.
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 13
(d) 15.
Answer:
(b) 11.

Question 2.
Adolescence period ends in the ……………….. year of age.
(a) 19
(b) 22
(c) 25
(d) 27.
Answer:
(a) 19.

Question 3.
Menstrual period of human female is of how many days ?
(a) 20 days
(b) 22 days
(c) 18 days
(d) 28 days.
Answer:
(d) 28 days.

Question 4.
The stoppage of menstrual cycle is called:
(a) Menopause
(b) Menstruation
(c) Metaphorsis
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Menopause.

Question 5.
Female sex harmone is called:
(a) Estrogen
(6) Testosterone
(c) Adrenalin
(d) Thyroxin.
Answer:
(a) Estrogen.

Question 6.
The male sex harmon is:
(a) Estrogen
(b) Adrenalin
(c) Testosterone
(d) Thyroxin.
Answer:
(c) Testosterone.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two endocrine glands in humans.
Answer:

Pituitary
Thyroid.

Question 2.
Which of the endocrine gland secretes growth hormone ?
Answer:
Growth hormone is secreted by pituitary gland.

Question 3.
What are female sex cells called ?
Answer:
Ova.

Question 4.
When do human stop growing ?
Answer:
Human stops growing after about 20-25 years of age.

Question 5.
What is the main element of thyroxine hormone ?
Answer:
Iodine.

Question 6.
In which part adrenaline is produced ?
Answer:
Adrenal gland.

Question 7.
Name the male and female sex hormones.
Answer:
Testosterone, Estrogen.

Question 8.
Name the following:
(i) The types of glands that secrete hormones.
(ii) The other name of hormones.
(iii) The gland which is called ‘Master gland’.
(iv) The hormone secreted by thyroid gland.
(v) The disease caused by the deficiency of iodine.
(vi) The hormones that control blood glucose level.
(vii) The gland which produces the so called ‘emergency hormone’.
Answer:
(i) Endocrine glands or ductless glands
(ii) Chemical coordinators
(iii) Pituitary gland
(iv) Thyroxine
(v) Goitre
(vi) Insulin and glucagon
(vii) Adrenalin.

Question 9.
Define sex chromosomes.
Answer:
Sex chromosomes.
The chromosomes associated with sex determination are called sex chromosomes. XX in female and XY chromosomes in male are called sex chromosomes.

Question 10.
How many chromosomes are found in human cells ?
Answer:
46 (44 autosomes and a pair of sex chromosomes).

Question 11.
When do adolescence begins and ends ?
Answer:
Adolescence begins at the age of 11 years and lasts upto the 18 or 19 years of age.

Question 12.
The glands which pour their secretions directly into the blood stream is called ……………. ?
Answer:
Endocrine glands.

Question 13.
What is target site ?
Answer:
Target Site. Target site is a body part where the hormones act.

Question 14.
What is the period of reproductive phase in females ?
Answer:
The reproductive phase begins at puberty (10-12 years) and lasts till the age of 45-50 years.

Question 15.
Define menarch.
Answer:
Menarch. The first menstrual flow in females begins at puberty which is called menarch.

Question 16.
Define Menopause.
Answer:
Menopause. Stoppage of menstruation is called menopause.

Question 17.
What are the sex chromosomes in males and females ?
Answer:
Females have two X-chromosomes (XX), Males have one X and one Y-chromosome (XY).

Question 18.
To which body part pituitary gland is attached ?
Answer:
Pituitary gland is attached to brain.

Question 19.
Name the hormones which control metamorphosis in insects and frog.
Answer:
In insects-Insect hormone In frog-Thyroxine.

Question 20.
Expand AIDS.
Answer:
AIDS. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.

Question 21.
What is the legal age of marriage in India ?
Answer:
The legal minimum age for marriage is 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does hormone affect a girl’s body between the age of 10-15 years ?
Answer:
Hormones affect girl’s body by making the breast to become bigger and hips becoming more rounded.

Question 2.
How does hormone affect a boy’s body between the age of 11-16 years ?
Answer:
In boy’s body, the following changes are caused by hormones:

his voice becomes hoarse (deeper)
hairs start to grow on his face and body.
his body muscles develop.
his testis start producing sperms.

Question 3.
Write short notes on :
(i) Menstruation
(ii) Menopause.
Answer:
(i) Menstruation.
Destruction of the mucous membrane of foetus and consequent bleeding which occur periodically in human and other mammals.

(ii) Menopause.
Stoppage of menstrual flow and other events is called menopause. It occurs between 45 to 55 years.

Question 4.
Explain sexual cycle in human female.
Answer:
Sexual cycle.
The rhythmic changes in the uterus which occur about every 28 days throughout the reproductive cycle of woman except the pregnancy period is called menstrual cycle. The female sex hormones initiate the thickening of the uterine wall for the implantation of a fertilized ovum.

If the ovum is not fertilized, the lining wall is broken down and discharged from the body. This is called menstruation. Normally the menstrual cycle starts at the age of 10-14 years and stops at the age of 45-50 when menopause is reached.

If the ovum is fertilized by sperm, the zygote develops in the wall of uterus and developing embryo called foetus is nourished by placenta. During the period, ovulation or ‘menstruation does not occur. However these activities are restored after child birth.

Question 5.
What is meant by reproductive health ?
Answer:
Reproductive health.
Reproductive organs are important organs of the body. Proper knowledge and hygiene of these organs is important otherwise persons may get some sexually transmitted diseases such as AIDS, syphilis and gonorrhoea.

Question 6.
Write modes of transmission of AIDS.
Answer:
Modes of transmission of AIDS. It is transmitted during transfusion of infected blood, use of contaminated needles, artificial insemination and several intercourse with an infected partner without a condom.

Question 7.
Differentiate between menarch and menopause.
Answer:
Differences between Menarch and Menopause

Menarch	Menopause
1. Commencement of menstruation at puberty is called menarch.	1. Stoppage of menstrual flow and other events is called menopause.
2. It starts at the age of 11 to 12 years.	2. It stops around the age of 50 years.

Question 8.
Write whether True (T) or False (F):
(i) Fertilization is process of fusion of sperm and ovum.
Answer:
True

(ii) Duration of menstrual cycle in human female is 20 days.
Answer:
False

(iii) Onset of menstruation is termed as menopause.
Answer:
False

(iv) In human beings, males attain puberty little later than females.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Why the endocrine glands are called ductless glands ?
Answer:
The transport of hormones from one place to another takes place through body fluids, rather than through the ducts. Therefore, the endocrine glands are also called ductless glands.

Question 10.
Which gland secretion reduces pituitary secretion ?
Answer:
Increased secretion of thyroxin from the thyroid gland reduces the production of hormones by the pituitary gland.

Question 11.
Adrenalin secretion increases during a frightening situation. What is the response ?
Answer:
Frightening experience (scene) is the stimulus which causes the increase of adrenalin secretion. Therefore, increased adrenalin secretion acts as response to the stimulus.

Question 12.
Draw a diagram showing various endocrine glands.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence 7

Question 13.
List some of the functions of pituitary gland.
Answer:
Functions of pituitary gland.

Regulates growth.
Influences the thyroid gland, the adrenals and gonads.
Can produce changes in the skin colour of many amphibians and fishes.
Influences migration and nest building in birds.

Question 14.
Why should an adolescent eat right kind of food ?
Answer:
Adolescents are in growing years. It is very important to eat right kind of food. It helps in the better nourishment of growing bones, muscles and other parts of body.

Question 15.
Why do adolescents become independent than before ?
Answer:
Adolescents are more independent than before and are also self conscious. It is a period of change in a person’s way of thinking. Intellectual development takes place and they tend to spend more time in thinking. In fact, it is often the time in one’s life when the brain has the greatest capacity for learning. Sometimes, however, an adolescent may feel insecure while trying to adjust to the changes in the body and mind.

Question 16.
How will you explain that sex hormones are under the control of pituitary glands ?
Answer:
The sex hormones are controlled by pituitary gland. The gland secretes many hormones, one of which is FSH or Follicle Stimulating Hormone. It makes ova and sperms mature in the ovaries and testis respectively. It can be shown as follows:
Hormones from pituitary stimulates gonads to release Testosterone (in male) and Estrogen (in female)
Released in the blood stream and reach parts of the body (Target site)
Stimulate changes in the body and onset of puberty.

Question 17.
Adolescent should say ‘No’ to the drugs. Why ?
Answer:
Adolescence is a period of much activity in the body and mind. So, do not feel confused or insecure. If anybody suggests that you will get relief if you take some drugs, just say ‘No’ unless prescribed by doctor. We know that drugs are addictive, if you take them once, you feel like taking them again and again. They harm the , body in the long run. They ruin health and happiness.

Question 18.
Give some myths about adolescents.
Answer:
One comes across many myths and taboos. We should discard them. These myths are as follows-

A girl becomes pregnant if she looks at boys during menstruation,
A drop of semen lost means loss of 10 drops of blood which will make the boy weak.
The mother is responsible for the sex of her child.
A girl should not be allowed to work in the kitchen during menstruation.

Question 19.
What changes occur in voice at the time of puberty ?
Answer:
At puberty, the boys develop larger voice box and it can be seen as a protruding part. The voice of boys becomes hoarse and cracked due to increase in larynx. Such kind of difference is not visible in the voice box or larynx of girls. The girls have a high pitched and sweet voice due to smallness of larynx.

Question 20.
Write the main characteristics of hormones.
Answer:
Main characteristics of hormones are following:

Hormones are secreted by endocrine glands. They have specific functions.
Hormones are required in very little quantity,
These effect only specific organs.

Question 21.
Why is pituitary gland called master gland ?
Answer:
This gland is located in the lower portion of the brain. The hormone secreted . by it controls the growth of bones and tissues. This gland secretes a hormone which controls the function of other glands, therefore, it is called master gland.

Question 22.
What is reason behind this fact that boys and girls should not be married in young age ?
Answer:
In young age, the body of adolescents, especially reproductive organs, are not ready for motherhood. If marriage takes place in such a situation, then such couples may face many health problems which can cause stress. In our country, the legal age for marriage is 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys when adolescents are allowed to get married. The adolescents below this age are not allowed to marry under the law of marriage and it is legally wrong doing so.

Question 23.
Why there is great possibility of disease HIV-AIDS in adolescents ?
Answer:
Many adolescents start taking drugs to make themselves stress free. By taking drugs from HIV contaminated needle of injection, this dangerous virus spreads in other adolesqents. The other reason of spreading this virus is unsafe sexual relationship. In many cases, this virus may enter in infants through the milk of mother.
So,it is very necessary for adolescents to remain aware to save their precious life from HIV.

Question 24.
List any two changes in the body that take place at puberty.
Answer:
Changes taking place in boys at puberty.

Height increase suddenly. The bones of legs and arms become long and make a boy tall.
Boy’s shoulders become broader and chest also become wider.

Changes taking place at puberty in girls.

Height also increases in girls but comparatively less.
The region below the waist becomes wider.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give a chart showing the average rate of growth in height with age.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence 8

Calculation for full height (cm)
Present height (cm)
= \(\frac{\text { Present height }(\mathrm{cm})}{\% \text { of full height at this age }}\) × 100
(as given in the chart)
For example, A boy is 8 years old and 108 cm tall. At the end of the growth period, he is likely to be
\(\frac{108}{72}\) × 100 cm = 150 cm tall.

Question 2.
Describe the various conditions or factors needed for keeping the body healthy during adolescence.
Answer:
During adolescence following conditions are essential for a healthy body:
1. Nutritional needs.
Adolescence is a stage of rapid growth and development, hence the diet for an adolescent has to be carefully planned. A balanced diet means that the meals should include proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, and minerals in the requisite proportion. Our Indian meal of roti/rice, dal (pulses) and vegetables, milk, fruits is a balanced meal.

Chips and packed or tinned snacks, though very tasty should never replace regular meals as they do not have adequate nutritional value.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence 9
2. Personal hygiene.
Having a bath at least once every day is more necessary for teenagers because the increased activity of sweat glands sometimes makes the body smelly. All parts of the body should be washed and cleaned every day. If cleanliness is not maintained, there are chances of catching a bacterial infection. Girls should keep track of their menstrual cycle and be prepared for the onset of menstruation. Undergarments should be changed every day. Cotton undergarments should be preferred.

Kho-Kho Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Kho-Kho Game Rules.

Kho-Kho Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Discuss the playground of the Kho-Kho Chasers, Runners, To take a direction, To Turn the face, Returning, Lona?
Answer:
Kho-Kho
The size of the Kho-Kho playground is rectangular. It is 29 metres long and 16 metres wide. There are two rectangles at the fend of the playground. One side of the rectangle is 15 m. and the other side is 2.75 m. In the middle of these rectangles, there are two wooden poles.

The central lane is 2.10 m. long and 30 cm. wide. There are eight small squares, 30 × 30 cms., on this lane. The height of each pole from the ground is 1.20 cms. A line is drawn towards the width of each pole. Eight lanes are drawn parallel to this line. Each lane is 15 m. in length and 30 cm. in width. This lane is divided into two equal parts, each of 7.10 m, by the central lane. kho-kho image 1

The thickness of each line is 2 cms. Each lane is 2.10 m. long Each outside lane and pole line are 2.25 metres from each other Each pole line is farther from outside boundary by 2.70 metres. There is a lobby 3 metre wide along the four sides of the playground.

Definitions

1. Posts:
Two posts are fixed at the end of the central lane. Thej are 1.20 cms. high above the ground. Their circumference cannot be less than 30 cms and not more than 40 cms.

2. Central Lane:
There is a central lane in between two poles. It is 21.60 m. long and 30 cm wide.

3. Cross Lane:
Each rectangle is 15 m. long and 30 cm. wide. It crosses the central lane at right angles (90°). It is itself divided into two halves. It is called cross-lane.

4. Square:
The area, 30 cm. × 30 cm., made by the intersection of the central lane and cross lane is called square.

5. The Line of the Post:
The line that goes to the centre of the post, parallel to cross lanes, is known as the line of the post.

6. Rectangle:
The area which is outside the line of post is known as rectangle.
kho-kho image 2

7. Limits:
The lines on both sides and at a distance gf 7.30 m. from the central line, and parallel to it, are called limits.

8. Chasers:
The players who sit in the squares are called chasers. A player who actively pursues the players of the rival team is termed an active chaser.

9. Runners:
The players of the opposite side other than those of chasers are called runners.

10. To give Kho:
In order to give good Kho, an active chaser should touch the sitting chaser from behind, uttering clearly and loudly the word “Kho”. The action of touching and uttering of the word “Who” should be done simultaneously.

11. Foul:
If a sitting or active chaser breaks any rule, that is called a foul.

12. To take a Direction:
The taking of direction is to go from one post to another post.

13. To turn the Face:
At a time when an active chaser, going in a particular direction, turns his or her shoulders at 90°, he or she is said to have turned the face. It is a foul.

14. Returning:
When the active chaser, going in a particular direction, changes his direction to the opposite, he or she is said to have returned or receded. This is also a foul.

15. To Leave the Post Line:
When an active chaser leaves hold of a post, and leaves the rectangle or goes beyond it, such actions are known as leaving the post line.

16. Foot Out:
When a runner’s feet touch the ground outside the limits, it is called Foot-out, and the runner is out.

17. Lona:
When all runners are out within 7 minutes, the chaser will mark “Lona” against the runners. But no point is awarded for “Lona.”

How to begin the Play:
The game of Kho-Kho is started with a toss. The toss winning captain of the team shall decide to touch or be touched, and inform the referee about his decision. The players who sit are called chasers. The opposing players of the chasers are known as runners. Except one chaser, all the chasers sit in such a way that no two adjacent chasers face the same side. At the start of the game, the ninth chaser stands near a pole. When the referee whistles, the action of touching begins.

Question 2.
Discuss the rules in the Kho-Kho game?
Answer:
Rules Of The Play

No part of an active chaser’s body should touch the ground of the central lane. Moreover, he cannot cross the central lane by jumping from within the posts.
The playfield shall be marked as shown in the diagram.
The decision to be a chaser or a runner is made by toss.
If a Kho is to be given, it shall have to be given from behind to a sitting chaser. Without having received the Kho, the chaser cannot get up. The active chaser shall not give Kho by touching the extended arm or leg of the sitting chaser. If the chaser breaks Rule no. 1 and 2, the referee shall award a foul.
After having played, the active chaser takes the plac§ of the sitting chaser whom he has given the ‘Kho’.
After taking the Kho the running chaser shall go in the direction which goes to the central lane.
Until the utters ‘Kho’ to any sitting chaser, he can come only by crossing through the opposite side of the central lane above the pole.
The face of the runner should be towards the direction of running.
The chaser should sit in such a way that he does not obstruct the runners. If a runner is out because of any such obstruction, he shall be declared out.
The active chaser can’ come out of the limit. But he will have to follow the rules regarding taking direction and turning the face, etc.
After having taken the direction, the active chaser can attack again in the cross line, and it shall not be considered a foul.
The runner cannot touch a sitting chaser. If he does so, he is given warning once. If he does so even after the warning, he is declared out.
If the runner goes out of court, he shall be deemed to be out.
If the runner is touched by a chaser, he shall be considered out.
The rules regarding taking direction and changing direction shall not be applicable in the rectangular area.

Question 3.
Discuss the rules of the match in the Kho-Kho game?
Answer:
Rules About the Match

1. Each team shall have 9 members with 3 extras.

2. Each innings shall Mve four running and chasing turns which shall be of 7-7 minute duration. The two innings are for touching, and two for running.

3. Before the start of the match the captains of both teams shall decide about the turn of chasers or runners by toss.

4. Runners, in order of playing, shall get their names recorded with the scorer. At the beginning of a turn, the first three players shall be within the limit. When these three players are out, the next three shall succeed them before the kho is given. The players who fail to enter within that period shall be out. The players who enter out of turn shall also be declared out. This process will continue until the end of the term. The active chaser who has removed the third runner shall not pursue the newly entered runner. He will give Kho. The runners of each team shall enter the field from one side only.

5. The chaser and the runner have the option to end the turn before the given time. The captain of the runner or chaser team shall inform about his decision to the referee, and shall request the referee to declare the turn close. On such a request, the referee shall stop the game to end the turn. There shall be a rest of two minutes after this turn, and of five minutes in between two innings.

6. The chaser, on each runner’s being out, shall score one point. A ‘Lona’ is scored against all the runners who are out before time. Afterwards, that team sends its runners in the same turn. No extra point is given for scoring a Lona. The play shall continue in the same way until the close of the innings. The order of runners during the innings can be changed.

7. The team that scores more points at the end of a match in knock-out system is declared the winner. If the points are equal, one more innings is played. If again the points are equal, the Baker Rule 29 is used. In this condition, the players need not be the same.

In the league system, the winning team scores two points and the losing one scores zero point, and in case of a tie, each team is awarded one point. If in a league system, the league points are equal, the team or teams shall replay the game by lots. Such matches shall be played on knock-out system.

8. If due to any reason match is not completed, it shall be played at some other time, and the previous score shall not be counted. The match shall be replayed from the beginning.

9. If the points of a team are more than the points of the opposing team by 12 or more, the first team can ask the other team to follow on their innings as chasers. If the other team scores more points, it retains its right to be chasers.

10. If a player gets hurt during the play, he can be replaced by a substitute on the referee’s permission.

Question 4.
Mention the number of officials conducting the game of Kho-Kho?
Answer:
Officials:
The following officials are appointed to conduct the match:

Two Umpires
One Referee
One Time Keeper
One Scorer

1. Umpire:
The umpire shall stand outside the lobby ground and shall supervise the match from the central lane. He shall give all decisions of his half, and shall help the other umpire to make correct decisions in the other half.

2. Referee:
There is only one referee in the game of Kho-Kho. His duties as referee are as follows:

He shall help the umpire perform their duties. He shall give his own decision in case there is any difference between the umpires on an issue.
A referee shall punish the defaulting player for his misbehaviour or for breaking the rules of the game.
He is responsible for proper conduct of the game and match.
At the end of innings he declares the score won by each team, and announces the result.

3. Time Keeper:
The duty of the time keeper is to record time. He signals the start and the end of the innings by blowing a whistle.

4. Scorer:
The scorer makes it certain that the players enter the field in accordance with the approved order. He keeps a record of the runners who are out. At the end of each term, he enters makes on the score sheet and prepares the score of the chasers. At the end of the match, he prepares the result and hands over the same to the referee for announcement.

Question 5.
Write down the score sheet of Kho-Kho game.
Answer:
kho-kho image 3

Important Information About the Kho-Kho Game

The length and breadth of ground for man = 29 × 16 m
The number of square in central line = 8
Size of the lobby = 16 × 2.75 meter
Distance of square from each line = 2.50 meter
Breadth and length of central line = 30 c.m. & 23.50 meter
Size of square = 30 × 30 c.m.
Number of players in a team = 9 players
Substitution of players = 3 players
Duration of the Kho-Kho match = 9-5-9 (9) 9-5-9 minutes
Inning of Kho-Kho match = 2
Sitting players in square are called = Chaser
Opponent of chaser = Runner
Duration of play for girls = 7-2-7 (5) 7-2-7 minutes
Official of the match = One referee, Two Umpire, One time keeper, One scorer
Height of the pole = 1.20 meter
The size of the Kho-Kho playground is rectangular. It is 29 metre long and 16 metre wide.
A Kho-Kho team includes 12 players, of which 9 players play and 3 players are substitutes.
The start of the game is by toss. The captain of the toss winning team decides to be a chaser or runner.
Except one chaser, all chasers sit on the squares in such a way that there are no two adjacent chasers facing the same side.
Kho should be given from behind to a sitting chaser.
Kho-Kho match consists of 2-2 innings. The team that scores more points in all the innings is declared the winner.
A player who gets injured or hurt during the play may be substituted by another player with the permission of the referee.
No part of an active chaser’s body should touch the central lane.
If the two teams score equal points, one more innings shall be played. If again the scores are equal, another innings is played.
A substitute comes in place of an injured player.
The duration of the game is 9-5-9, 7,9-5-9 minutes.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Summer Vegetables Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Write the name of two varieties of chili.
Answer:
Punjab Surkh, CH-1.

Question 2.
How much is a requirement of vegetables per person per day for maintenance of good health?
Answer:
284 gm.

Question 3.
Write the name of two improved varieties of tomato.
Answer:
Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.

Question 4.
How much seed per acre of okra is required for sowing in February?
Answer:
15 kg per acre.

Question 5.
How much spacing is required between rows in the brinjal crop?
Answer:
60 cm.

Question 6.
Write the name of two varieties of bitter gourd.
Answer:
Punjab-14, Punjab Kareli-1.

Question 7.
When sowing of bottle gourd should be done?
Answer:
Feb-March, June-July, and November-December.

Question 8.
How much seed of cucumber is required per acre?
Answer:
1 kg per acre.

Question 9.
How much seed of muskmelon is required per acre?
Answer:
400 gram.

Question 10.
What is the sowing time of the sponge gourd?
Answer:
Mid May to July.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
What do you mean by vegetable?
Answer:
Any succulent part like fruit, leaf, stems, etc. of a plant which can be eaten fresh as salad or after cooking is called vegetable.

Question 2.
How much seed and area is required for raising nursery for transplanting one acre tomato ?
Answer:
100 gram seed is required for nursery raising in 2 maria area for transplanting in one acre.

Question 3.
How much fertilizers are used per acre for chilli crop ?
Answer:
10-15 ton well rotten farm yard manure, 25 kg. nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus and 12 kg potash can be used. This dose is for one acre.

Question 4.
How four crops of brinjal are raised in a year?
Answer:
Four crops of brinjal are raised in a year by sowing in October, November, February-March and July.

Question 5.
What are the sowing time and seed rate of okrg?
Answer:
Spring season crop is sown in February-March and rainy season crop is sown in June-July. Seed rate is 15 kg (February), 8-10 kg (March), 5-6 kg (June-July).

Question 6.
Give the reasons for the low availability of per capita’ per day vegetables in our country.
Answer:
The low availability of per capita per day vegetables in our country is due to

population explosion and
due to post-harvest losses which are nearly one-third of the total production of vegetables.

Question 7.
What is the ideal time for sowing and transplanting of the nursery of tomato?
Answer:
The ideal time for sowing the nursery of tomatoes is the second fortnight of July. Transplanting of seedlings is done in second fortnight of August.

Question 8.
How many days are required from sowing to harvesting in bitter gourd ?
Answer:
55-60 days are required from sowing to harvesting in bitter gourd.

Question 9.
Write two improved varieties and sowing time of muskmelon.
Answer:
Improved varieties of muskmelon are Punjab hybrid, Hara madhu and sowing time is February-March.

Question 10.
How can we get early and higher yield in cucumber ?
Answer:
We get early and higher yield in cucumber by growing under low tunnel polythene sheets.

Question 1.
Write name of summer vegetables and describe any one of them.
Answer:
Summer vegetables are – tomato, brinjal, bottle gourd, sponge gourd, bitter gourd, chilli, okra, summer squash, cucumber, long melon, squash melon etc.

Tomato

Improved varieties—Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.
Seed rate—100 gram seed is required for sowing nursery in 2 maria for transplanting in one acre.
Time of sowing—Sow nursery in the second fortnight of July.
Transplanting—Second fortnight of August.
Row spacing—120-150 cm.
Weed control—Spray stomp or sencor.
Plant spacing—30 cm.
Irrigation—First irrigation should be done immediately after transplanting and later irrigations should be done after 6-7 dhys interval.

Question 2.
Write a short note on improved varieties, sowing time, seed rate, and control of weeds in okra.
Answer:
Improved varieties. Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmani.
Sowing time. Spring season sowing is done in February-March and rainy season crop is sown in June-July.
Seed rate. Seed rate per acre is 15 kg (for February), 8-10 kg (March), 5-6 kg (June-July).
Weed control. 3-4 hoeings are needed or spray stomp.

Question 3.
What is the importance of vegetables in human diet?
Answer:
Vegetables have a very important role in the human diet. Vegetables contain a sufficient amount of nutrients like carbohydrates, minerals, proteins, vitamins etc. These nutrients are essential for the maintenance of good health. A large population of our country is vegetarian, therefore, importance of vegetables becomes more in our country. According to scientific research, a person should consume 284 gram of vegetable in a day. Vegetables include leafy vegetables (spinach, fenugreek, lettuce, saag etc.), root vegetables (carrot, radish, turnip), flower buds (cauliflower), fruit (tomato, brinjal) etc.

Question 4.
Describe cultivation of Bottlegourd.
Answer:

Improved varieties. Punjab Berkat, Punjab Komal.
Sowing time. February-March, June-July, November- December.
Harvesting. After 60-70 days of sowing, the crop is ready for harvesting.

Question 5.
How to raise a successful crop of ashgourd?
Answer:
Ash gourd belongs to
Improved Varieties—PAG-3
Sowing time—Feb-March and June-July.
Seed rate—2kg seed/acre
Method of sowing–Sow at least two seeds per hill on one side.
Spacing—Beds should be 3m wide and spacing should be 75-90 cm.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the seed rate for chilli?
Answer:
200 grams per acre.

Question 2.
What is the time of sowing of Nursery for chilli?
Answer:
End October to mid-November.

Question 3.
What is the time of transplanting the seedlings of chilli?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 4.
What is row spacing for chilli?
Answer:
75 cm.

Question 5.
What is plant spacing for chilli?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 6.
Write names of varieties of tomato.
Answer:
Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.

Question 7.
Write seed rate for tomato.
Answer:
100 gram per acre.

Question 8.
What is a time of sowing of the nursery for tomato?
Answer:
Second fortnight of July.

Question 9.
What is time of transplanting seedlings of tomato?
Answer:
Second fortnight of August.

Question 10.
What is row spacing for tomato?
Answer:
120-150 cm.

Question 11.
What is plant spacing for tomato?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 12.
Weed control is done in tomatoes by using
Answer:
Stomp, Sencore.

Question 13.
Write varieties of Brinjal.
Answer:
Punjab Neelam (round), B.H.-2 (Oblong), PBH-3 (small).

Question 14.
Write seed rate for brinjal.
Answer:
300-400 grams per acre.

Question 15.
Write row spacing for brinjal.
Answer:
60 cm.

Question 16.
What is plant spacing for brinjal?
Answer:
30-40 cm.

Question 17.
How is Okra sown?
Answer:
Sowing is done on ridges.

Question 18.
Write varieties of Okra.
Answer:
Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmani.

Question 19.
How is the Okra crop sown in February-March?
Answer:
On ridges.

Question 20.
How is the okra crop sown in June-July?
Answer:
On planes.

Question 21.
What is row spacing for okra?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 22.
What is plant spacing for okra?
Answer:
15 cm.

Question 23.
When is okra harvested?
Answer:
45-50 days after sowing.

Question 24.
Write improved varieties of summer squash.
Answer:
Punjab Chappan Kadoo.

Question 25.
Write time of sowing for summer squash.
Answer:
Mid-January to March and October-November.

Question 26.
What is the seed rate for summer squash?
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 27.
How many seeds are sown at a place for summer squash?
Answer:
Two seeds at a place.

Question 28.
When is summer squash ready for harvesting?
Answer:
In 60 days.

Question 29.
Write varieties of Bottle gourd.
Answer:
Punjab Berkat, Punjab Komal.

Question 30.
Write time of sowing for bottle gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July, November-December.

Question 31.
When is the bottle gourd ready for harvesting?
Answer:
60-70 days after sowing.

Question 32.
Write varieties of bitter gourd.
Answer:
Punjab-14, Punjab Kareli-1.

Question 33.
Write time of sowing for bitter gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 34.
Write seed rate for bitter gourd.
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 35.
What is plant spacing for the bitter gourd?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 36.
How is bitter gourd sown in Kyaris (beds)?
Answer:
On both sides.

Question 37.
Write varieties of sponge gourd.
Answer:
Pusa chikni, Punjab sponge gourd-9.

Question 38.
What is a time of sowing for sponge gourd?
Answer:
Mid-February to March.

Question 39.
What is seed rate for sponge gourd?
Answer:
2 kg seed per acre.

Question 40.
When is sponge gourd ready for harvesting?
Answer:
After 70-80 days of sowing.

Question 41.
Write varieties of ash gourd.
Answer:
PAG—3.

Question 42.
Write time of sowing for ash gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 43.
What is seed rate for ash gourd?
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 44.
Write varieties of cucumber.
Answer:
Punjab Naveen.

Question 45.
What is seed rate for cucumber?
Answer:
One kg per acre.

Question 46.
Write varieties for long melon.
Answer:
Punjab long melon.

Question 47.
What is time of sowing for long melon?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 48.
What is seed rate for long melon?
Answer:
One kg per acre.

Question 49.
Write about harvesting of long melon.
Answer:
After 60-70 days of sowing.

Question 50.
Write varieties of squash melon.
Answer:
Tinda-48.

Question 51.
What is time of sowing for squash melon?
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 52.
What is seed rate for squash melon ?
Answer:
1.5 kg per acre.

Question 53.
When is squash melon ready for harvesting?
Answer:
After 60 days of sowing.

Question 54.
Is muskmelon a vegetable or fruit ?
Answer:
It is a vegetable.

Question 55.
What is time of sowing for muskmelon?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 56.
What is sedd rate for muskmelon ?
Answer:
400 gram per acre.

Question 57.
What is plant spacing for muskmelon?
Answer:
60 cm.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Which nutrients are found in vegetables?
Answer:
Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins, etc.

Question 2.
Write about fertilizers for chillis.
Answer:
Apply 10—15 ton well rotten farmyard manure, 25 kg nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 12 kg potash per acre.

Question 3.
Write about irrigation for chillis.
Answer:
Give first irrigation immediately after transplanting. Give irrigation after intervals of 7-10 days in summer.

Question 4.
Write irrigation requirements for tomatoes.
Answer:
Give first irrigation immediately after transplanting. Give irrigation after intervals of 7-10 days in summer.

Question 5.
Write about the method of sowing for brinjal.
Answer:
Brinjal is sown in 10-15 raised beds in one maria.

Question 6.
Give the method of sowing of summer squash.
Answer:
Summer squash is sown in 1.25 m wide beds and two seeds are sown per hill at a distance of 45 cm on both sides of beds.

Question 7.
Write about the cultivation of cucumbers. Improved varieties, time of sowing, seed rate.
Answer:

Improved varieties—Punjab Naveen.
Time of sowing—February-March.
Seed rate—One kg per acre.

Question 8.
Write about the cultivation of long melon.
Answer:

Improved varieties—Punjab long melon-1.
Time of sowing—February-March.
Seed rate—One kg per acre.
Harvesting—After sowing 60-70 days.

Question 9.
Write about the cultivation of squash melon.
Answer:

Improved varieties—Tinda-48.
Time of sowing—February-March, June-July.
Seed rate—1.5 kg seed per acre.
Method of sowing—Sow seeds on both sides of 1.5 m wide beds at a spacing of 45 cm.
Harvesting—Fruits are ready for picking after 60 days of sowing.

Question 10.
Write about the cultivation of sponge gourd.
Answer:

Varieties—Pusa Chikni, Punjab sponge gourd-9.
Time of sowing—Mid February to March, Mid May to July. Method of sowing—Sow in 3 m wide beds with a spacing of 75-90 cm.
Seed rate—2 kg seed per acre.
Harvesting—70-80 days after sowing.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about the cultivation of muskmelon.
Answer:
Muskmelon is a vegetable scientifically but we consider it as a fruit.

Varieties: Punjab hybrid, Hara Madhu, Punjab Sunehri.
Time of Sowing: February-March.
Seed Rate: 400-gram seed per acre.
Method of Sowing: Sow in 3-4 m wide beds.
Plant Spacing: Plant to plant spacing is 60 cm.
Irrigation: Water the crop every week in summer at the time of fruit maturity. Avoid direct contact of water with fruit.

Question 2.
Write about the cultivation of Chilli.
Answer:

Varieties: Punjab Surkh, Punjab Guchhedar, and Chilli hybrid-1.
Seed Rate: 200-gram seed per acre.
Sowing Nursery: Sow nursery in one maria and the seed is sown in the nursery during the end of October to mid-November.
Transplanting: It is done in February-March.
Plant Spacing: Spacing between rows is 75 cm and plant to plant spacing is 45 cm.
Fertilizer: 10 to 15 tonnes of well rotten farmyard manure is required, 25 kg Nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 20 kg potash per acre are also required.
Irrigation: Apply first irrigation after transplanting. Give water after every 7-10 days in summer.

Question 3.
Write about the cultivation of Brinjal.
Answer:

Varieties: Punjab Neelam (Round fruited), BH-2 (oblong fruited), and PBH-3 (small fruited)
Seed Rate: 300-400 grams for one acre.
Method of Sowing: Nursery is sown in 10-15 cm raised beds of one maria.
Crops of Brinjal: We can get four crops of brinjal in one-year i. e., by sowing nursery in October, November, February, March, and July.
Plant Spacing: Spacing between rows 60 cm and in plants 30-45 cm.
Irrigation: Apply first irrigation after transplanting. Give water after every 6-7 days.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Summer Vegetables Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Seed rate for tomatoes is
(a) 100 gram per acre
(b) 500 gram per acre
(c) 100 gram per acre
(d) None
Answer:
(c) 100 gram per acre

2. Punjab Barkat is a variety of :
(a) Ghia
(b) Bitter gourd
(c) Tomato
(d) Chilli.
Answer:
(a) Ghia

3. Variety of Bitter Gourd :
(a) Punjab Kareli-1
(b) Punjab Chappan Kaddu
(c) Punjab Neelam
(d) P.A.G.-3.
Answer:
(a) Punjab Kareli-1

4. Seed rate for Muskmelon (per acre) :
(a) 200 gram
(b) 700 gram
(c) 100 gram
(d) 400 gram.
Answer:
(d) 400 gram.

5. Punjab Naveen is a variety of :
(a) Petha
(b) Ghia
(c) Tomato
(d) Cucumber
Answer:
(d) Cucumber

True/False:

1. Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, and vitamins.
Answer:
True

2. For maintaining good health, the consumption of 504 grams of vegetables per person per day is essential.
Answer:
False

3. Leaf vegetables are – spinach, fenugreek, lettuce (salad), saag.
Answer:
True

4. Root vegetables are – carrot, radish, turnip.
Answer:
True

5. Any succulent part like fruit, leaf, stems, etc. of a plant which can be eaten fresh as a salad or after cooking is called a vegetable.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks :

1. Major ……………….. vegetables are chilli, brinjal, okra, bitter gourd, squash melon, tomato, bottle gourd, sponge gourd, long melon etc.
Answer:
Kharif (summer)

2. Seed rate for chiili for sowing nursery in one maria is ………………..
Answer:
200 gram

3. Seed rate for sowing nursery of brinjal is ……………….. per acre.
Answer:
300-400 gram

4. Punjab Gucchedar is a variety of ………………..
Answer:
Chilli

5. Varieties of ……………….. are – Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmini.
Answer:
Okra

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Sorting Materials into Groups

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 4 Sorting Materials into Groups Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials into Groups

Science Guide for Class 6 PSEB Sorting Materials into Groups Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 36)

Question 1.
The density of an object is slightly less than that of water will it sink or float in water?
Answer:
It will float on water.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 37)

Question 1.
Is clear water opaque, transparent, or translucent?
Answer:
Clearwater is transparent.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Sorting Materials into Groups Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Name five objects which can be made from wood. ………….., …………….., …………….., ………………, …………..
Answer:
table, chair, plough, door, cricket bat

(b) Sugar is …………….. in water.
Answer:
soluble.

2. Write True or False:

(a) Stone is transparent.
Answer:
False

(b) A piece of wood floats on water.
Answer:
True

(d) Oil mixes with water.
Answer:
False

(e) Vinegar dissolves in water.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column A with Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Book	(a) Glass
2. Tumbler	(b) Wood
3. Chair	(c) Paper
4. Toy	(d) Leather
5. Shoes	(e) Plastics

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Book	(c) Paper
2. Tumbler	(a) Glass
3. Chair	(b) Wood
4. Toy	(e) Plastics
5. Shoes	(d) Leather

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following is not matter ?
(a) water
(b) sound
(c) air
(d) fruits.
Answer:
(b) sound

Question (ii)
Which property is common to all matter ?
(a) Matter takes up space and has no mass
(b) Matter takes up space and some mass
(c) Matter takes up space and has mass
(d) Matter takes up space and may or may not have mass.
Answer:
(c) Matter takes up space and has mass

Question (iii)
Which of the following is transparent ?
(a) wood
(b) glass
(r) paper
(d) plastic.
Answer:
(b) glass

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is an atom ?
Answer:
Atom is the smallest particle that is present in all types of matter.

Question (ii)
Define density.
Answer:
The mass per unit volume of substance is known as density.

Question (iii)
What are transparent objects ?
Answer:
The substances through which one can see, are called transparent.

Question (iv)
What are opaque objects ?
Answer:
The substances through which one cannot see are called opaque.

Question (v)
What are translucent objects ?
Answer:
The substances through which one can see partially but not clearly, are called translucent.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is the difference between transparent and translucent objects ? Give examples.
Answer:
The substances, through which one can see, are called transparent substances. Examples are glass, water, air, etc. The substances through which one can see partially but not clearly, are called translucent substances. Examples are frosted glass used in windows, paper sheet having an oily patch, etc.

Question (ii)
Select the objects from the following which shine.
Glass bowl, plastic mug, steel chair, cotton shirt, gold chain silver ring.
Answer:
Glass bowl, steel chair, gold chain and silver ring.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

(i) Are all liquids soluble in water ?
Answer:
No, all liquids are not soluble in water. When we mix any liquid we observe three things. Some of the liquids will dissolve completely in water. Some of the liquids mix with water only to some extent. Some liquids do not mix with water.

Liquids which mix with water are called miscible liquids. Examples are vinegar and water.
Liquids which do not mix with water are called immiscible liquids. Examples are oil and water.
Liquids which mix only partially are called partially miscible liquids. Examples are phenol and water.

Question (ii)
List any four item that can float on water and five items that can not float on water ?
Answer:
Objects which can float on water. The items which have density less than that of water will float on water. Examples are dried leaves, piece of wood, cork piece, paper, cardboard, cloth, etc.

Objects which can not float on water. The items which have density more than that of water cannot float on water. Examples are items made of iron, gold ring, silver chain, stone, lead ball, etc.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Sorting Materials into Groups Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Glass tumbler is made of :
(a) wood
(b) glass
(c) steel
(d) cloth.
Answer:
(b) glass

Question 2.
Stone is an example of :
(a) opaque substance
(b) transparent substance
(c) translucent substance
(d) none.
Answer:
(a) opaque substance

Question 3.
Some solids can dissolve in water. These are called :
(a) soluble
(b) insoluble
(c) transparent
(d) opaque.
Answer:
(a) soluble

Question 4.
Paper can ……………… on the surface of water.
(a) sink
(b) float
(c) both (i) and (ii)
(d) none.
Answer:
(b) float

Question 5.
Sponge can be compressed easily. So, it is a ………….. material.
(a) hard
(b) gas
(c) soft
(d) none
Answer:
(c) soft

Question 6.
………………… has no shine at all.
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Wood
(d) Aluminium.
Answer:
(c) Wood

Question 7.
Grouping of material is done for :
(a) decoration
(b) covering less space
(c) convenience
(d) none.
Answer:
(c) convenience

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) All objects around us are made of one or more ……………….
Answer:
materials

(b) We can group objects in many …………….. ways.
Answer:
different

(d) Silver and gold have a …………….
Answer:
lustre

(e) ………………. material can be compressed easily.
Answer:
Soft

(f) …………. is a hard material.
Answer:
Iron

(g) Some ………….. are soluble in water, are known as ………………… materials.
Answer:
materials, soluble

(h) Vinegar and lemon juice …………………. well with each other.
Answer:
mix

(i) Glass is a ………………. material.
Answer:
transparent

(j) Opaque materials are those which …………… light to pass through them.
Answer:
do not allow

(k) We cannot ………………… clearly through a translucent material.
Answer:
see

(l) We group materials for …………….. and to ……………. their properties.
Answer:
convenience, study

(m) Materials are grouped together on the basis of …………… and dissimilarities.
Answer:
similarities

Write ‘T’ against true and ‘F’ against false Statements:

(a) All objects are not made of one material only.
Answer:
True

(b) One material can be used for making different objects.
Answer:
True

(d) Hard materials can be compressed easily.
Answer:
False

(e) Some objects lose their shine after sometime.
Answer:
True

(f) Oil and water mix well to form a clear solution.
Answer:
False

(g) Water is important for functioning of body.
Answer:
True

(h) Some gases are soluble in water.
Answer:
True

(i) Glass containers are made so that things placed inside them can be seen from outside.
Answer:
True

(j) Grouping of objects is done to store them in small places.
Answer:
False

(k) Materials can be grouped on the basis of their size and colour.
Answer:
True

Matching

Match the column A with column B

Column A	Column B
(1) Wax	glass
(2) Rubber	magnetic material
(3) Common salt	floats in water
(4) Tumbler	bad conductor
(5) Iron nail	dissolves in water.

Answer:
(1) Wax – Floats in water
(2) Rubber – bad conductor
(3) Common salt – dissolves in water
(4) Tumbler – glass
(5) Iron nails – magnetic material.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are objects made of ?
Answer:
Materials.

Question 2.
Which materials can be compressed easily ?
Answer:
Soft.

Question 3.
Name two substances which shine.
Answer:
(i) Gold, (ii) Aluminium.

Question 4.
Is wood hard or soft ?
Answer:
Hard.

Question 5.
Are oil and water soluble in one another ?
Answer:
No.

Question 6.
Which gas dissolves in water and is important for survival of sea life ?
Answer:
Oxygen.

Question 7.
Which materials do not sink in water- heavy or light ?
Answer:
Light materials.

Question 8.
The materials which do not allow light to pass through them completely are translucent materials. Give examples.
Answer:
Butter/Oiled paper, Coloured glass.

Question 9.
What is grouping of materials ?
Answer:
To store and collect different materials on basis of their size, shape, colour, smell, use etc. is grouping of materials.

Question 10.
Why is grouping of materials needed ?
Answer:
For convenience.

Question 11.
What is classification ?
Answer:
Classification. The process of grouping things on the basis of their common properties, is called classification.

Question 12.
How various objects are grouped ?
Answer:
Various objects are grouped according to their similarities and necessities like size, shape, colour, hardness, transparency, conduction of heat etc.

Question 13.
Name some materials that can be used to make school bags.
Answer:
Cloth of cotton, jute or nylon, plastic, metals etc.

Question 14.
Name some objects made from glass.
Answer:
Jug, bowl, bottle, cup, test tube etc.

Question 15.
List some solutions that are used in your home.
Answer:
Salt solution, cold drinks, sugar solution and lime juice etc.

Question 16.
List some transparent liquids.
Answer:
Water, petrol, spirit, alcohol etc.

Question 17.
Why water is called universal solvent ?
Answer:
Water as universal solvent. Water has property of dissolving a large number of materials in it, which makes it a universal solvent.

Question 18.
Name some liquids which are miscible in water.
Answer:
Milk, soft drinks, glycerine etc.

Question 19.
Name some liquids which are immiscible in water.
Answer:
Petrol, kerosene oil, edible oils etc.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Some materials lose their shine after sometime. How can they be made to shine again ?
Answer:
Steps to make materials shine again :

By rubbing them with sand paper
By cutting their surfaces.

Question 2.
Name few properties of materials used in daily life ?
Answer:
Properties of materials used in daily life :

Lustre
Hardness/softness
Solubility/Insolubility
Lightness/heaviness
Transparency etc.

Question 3.
Fill the following table :
Different things made from same material :

Material

Things

Wood

Paper

Leather

Plastic

Cotton

…………….

……………..

Answer:
Material Things

Material	Things
Wood	Plywood, utensils, house windows, house doors.
Paper	Fibrous stem of plant is used to make paper, covering material, notebooks, books.
Leather	Bags, purses, shoes, chappals, sandles etc.
Plastic	Buckets, mugs, tubs, household utensils, containers etc.
Cotton	Clothes, raw material for rayon, mattresses, pillows, quilts, curtains.

Question 4.
Fill the table :
Things made from different materials :

Item

Material from which they can be made

Chair

Schoolbag

Tumbler

Shoes

Shirt

………………

……………….

Answer:

Item	Material from which they can be made
Chair	Wood, plastic, iron.
Schoolbag	Leather, cotton, heavy cloth.
Tumbler	Glass, steel, brass, wood, plastic.
Shoes	Leather, cloth, plastic.
Shirt	Cotton cloth, synthetic cloth.

Question 5.
Why grouping of materials is necessary?
Answer:
Need of Grouping. The things around us are made up of large variety of materials. The same materials can be used to make large number of things. Similarly, same thing can be made from different type of materials. Different materials have different properties so grouping of materials is done on the basis of their similarities and differences in their properties.

Question 6.
What are miscible and immiscible substances ?
Answer:
Miscible substances. Those liquids which mix well with water to form homogeneous mixtures are said to be miscible substances.
Example. Vinegar, Lemon Juice, etc. are miscible in water.

Immiscible substances. Those substances which do not mix well with water are known as immiscible substances.
Examples. Coconut oil, mustard oil, etc. are immiscible in water.

Question 7.
Why do we not cook our food in the utensils made of wood ?
Answer:
Wood is a combustible substance. So, utensils made of wood bum on heating on a direct flame. So we do not cook our food in utensils made of wood.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain Transparent, Translucent, and Opaque materials with the help of examples.
Answer:
Transparent. Those substances or materials through which things can be seen clearly are called transparent. Glass, plastic bottles used in the kitchen are transparent.

Opaque. Those substances or materials through which we are not able to see, are called opaque. For example, wooden almirah, metal containers are opaque materials.

Translucent. The substances through which things are only partially visible are called translucent materials. For example, cellophane paper (tracing paper), Oiled portion of the paper, etc.

Question 2.
What are the different criteria on the basis of which materials can be grouped?
Answer:
Materials are abundant in nature. It is very difficult to know and study each and every object in the world. Materials have different properties which make them capable of grouping. Some of these are:

States of matter, (a) Solid (b) liquid (c) gas.
Visibility of the matter, (a) Transparent (b) translucent (c) opaque.
Magnetic property, (a) Magnetic (b) Non-magnetic.
Conductivity, (a) Conductors (b) Insulators.
Elements, (a) metals (b) non-metals (c) metalloids.
Taste, (a) Sweet (b) sour (c) bitter (d) salty.
Size, (a) big (b) small
Shape, (a) round (b) square (c) pyramid (d) cone.

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 9th Class Computer Science Chapter 3 Networking

Computer Guide for Class 9 PSEB Networking Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………………………. is a group of two or more computers.
(a) Network
(b) Internet
(c) Wireless
(d) Topology
Answer:
(a) Network

2. ………………………………. is the normal computer system that is connected to the network for sharing of resources.
(a) Server
(b) Client/Node
(c) LAN
(d) WAN.
Answer:
(b) Client/Node

3. …………………………. is a device that allows you to connect multiple computers to a single network device
(a) HUB
(b) BUS
(c) Ring
(d) Star.
Answer:
(a) HUB

4. In ………………………… network, a single cable is shared by all the devices and data travel only in one direction.
(a) Single Ring
(b) Dual ring
(c) MAN
(d) LAN.
Answer:
(a) Single Ring

5. ………………………… prepares information and sends it.
(a) Protocol
(b) Receiver
(c) Sender
(d) Hub.
Answer:
(c) Sender

2. True/False

1. LAN covers a large geographic area.
Answer:
False

2. In full-duplex, information can move in both directions.
Answer:
True

3. Protocols are rules under which data transmission takes place.
Answer:
True

4. The network does not provide security to us.
Answer:
False

5. The efficiency of the network is increased with the increase of computers.
Answer:
False.

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name any four Network topologies.
Answer:
The main types of Network Topologies are as under:

Bus topology
Ring topology
Star topology
Tree topology
Mesh
Hybrid topology

Question 2.
Define the computer that is used for networking.
Answer:
A computer network is an interconnected collection of a group of two or more autonomous computers that are linked together to share information and resources. Here autonomous means, there is no master and slave relationship and all computers are equal and free to act independently. The computer network enables to share the resources. Basically, the computer network is a collection of computers, printers, and other equipment, which are connected together so that they can communicate with each other. The components in a network system are normally connected together through a cable, however, the connection may be wireless.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Routers.
Answer:
A Router is a* network device that typically operates at the network layer of the OSI model. A Router performs its job by examining the network layer data packet (Ethernet Frame) and forwarding the packet to other devices based on IP Addresses. Both switches and bridges function using the addressing system, also known as MAC addresses. Each port of a network switch is in a separate collision domain and therefore Switches are used to divide a big collision domain into multiple smaller collision domains

Question 4.
Write a note on Hub.
Answer:
Hub is a device that splits a network connection into multiple computers. Hubs were the common network infrastructure devices used for Local Area Network (LAN) connectivity. Hubs function as the central connection point for Local Area Network (LAN). Hubs are designed to work with Twisted pair cabling and normally use an RJ45 jack to connect the devices. Network devices (Servers, Workstations, Printers, Scanners, etc) are attached to the hub by individual network cables. Hubs usually come in different shapes and different numbers of ports.

Question 5.
What are the two types of ring topologies?
Answer:
In a ring topology, all computers are connected via a cable that loops in a ring or circle. A ring topology is a circle that has no start and no end and terminators are not necessary for a ring topology. Signals travel in one direction on a ring while they pass from one computer to the next, with each computer regenerating the signal so that it may travel the distance required.

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Network? Explain the advantages and disadvantages of the network.
Answer:
Computer networking is the practice of interfacing two or more computing devices with each other for the purpose of sharing data. Computer networks are built with a combination of hardware and software components.

Advantages of Network :

File Sharing. The major advantage of a computer network is that it allows file sharing and remote file access.
Resource Sharing. Resource sharing is another important benefit of a computer network.
Inexpensive Set-Up. Shared resources mean a reduction in hardware costs. Shared files mean a reduction in memory requirement, which indirectly means a reduction in file storage expenses.

Disadvantages of Network :

Security Difficulties. Since there is already a huge number of people who are using computer networking in sharing some of their files and resources, your security would be always at risk.
Presence of Computer Viruses and Other Malware. There are instances that the stored file you have in your gadget is already destroyed because there are already viruses that corrupt your file.

Question 2.
Write information about the parts of computer networks.
Answer:
A Data Communication system has the following components :

Message: It is the information or data to be communicated. It can consist of text, numbers, pictures, sound or video, or any combination of these.
Sender: It is the device/computer that generates and sends that message.
Receiver: It is the device or computer that receives the message. The location of the receiver computer is generally different from the sender’s computer. The distance between sender and receiver depends upon the types of networks used in between.
Medium: It is the channel or physical path through which the message is carried from the sender to the receiver. The medium can be wired like twisted-pair wire, coaxial cable, fiber-optic cable, or wireless like a laser, radio waves, and microwaves.
Protocol: It is a set of rules that govern the communication between the devices. Both sender and receiver follow the same protocols to communicate with each other.

Question 3.
Write about the types of networks.
Answer:
Ahead are the types of computer networks :

Local Area Network (LAN)
This is one of the original categories of network, and one of the simplest. LAN networks connect computers together over relatively small distances, such as within a single building or within a small group of buildings.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 1

Wide Area Network (WAN)
This is another of the original categories of network, and slightly more complex in nature. WAN networks connect computers together over large physical distances, remotely connecting them over one huge network and allowing them to communicate even when far apart. The Internet is a WAN and connects computers all around the world together.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 2

Metropolitan Area Network
This is a network that is larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN and incorporates elements of both. It typically spans a town or city and is owned by a single person or company, such as a local council or a large company.

Question 4.
What are the methods of data transmission?
Answer:
The way in which data is transmitted from one place to another is called data transmission mode. It is also called the data communication mode. It indicates the direction of the flow of information. Sometimes, data transmission modes are also called directional modes.

Types of Data Transmission Modes
Different types of data transmission modes are as follows :

Simplex mode
Half-duplex mode
Full-duplex mode

1. Simplex Mode. In simplex mode, data can flow in only one direction. In this mode, a sender can only send data and cannot receive it. Similarly, a receiver can only receive data but cannot send it. Data sent from computer to printer is an example of simplex mode.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 3

2. Half-Duplex Mode. In half-duplex mode, data can flow in both directions but only in one direction at a time. In this mode, data is sent and received alternatively. It is like a one-lane bridge where two-way traffic must give way in order to cross the other.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 4

3. Full-Duplex Mode. In full-duplex mode, data can flow in both directions at the same time. It is the fastest directional mode of data communication. The telephone communication system is an example of a full-duplex communication mode. Two persons can talk at the same time. Another example of the fully-duplex mode in daily life is automobile traffic on a two-lane road. The traffic can move in both directions at the same time.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 5

PSEB 9th Class Computer Guide Networking Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks

1. Process of error for data communication is called …………………………………..
(a) Delivery
(b) Accuracy
(c) Protection
(d) Protocol.
Answer:
(b) Accuracy

2. …………………………. receive information.
(a) Sender
(b) Receiver
(c) Protocol
(d) Medium.
Answer:
(b) Receiver

3. Graphical representation of Network devices is called.
(a) Topology
(b) Network
(c) Ring
(d) Cable.
Answer:
(a) Topology

4. …………………. Topology uses common wire.
(a) Ring
(b) Star
(c) Bus
(d) Tree.
Answer:
(c) Bus

True or False

1. A node is a workstation that is connected to a computer.
Answer:
True

2. MAN is a network that spreads in a city.
Answer:
True

3. Data transfer rate is in Giga Bytes per second.
Answer:
False

4. NIC connects servers and workstations.
Answer:
True

5. URL means Uniform resource locator in the network.
Answer:
True

6. 1 GBPS = 1,000,000,00
Answer:
False

7. Air has an unguided transmission medium.
Answer:
True

8. A hub helps you to connect to a network.
Answer:
True

9. Bandwidth is the capacity to transfer signals.
Answer:
True

10. Available copy of a file can be used in a computer network, in case of availability of multiple copies.
Answer:
True

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Network.
Answer:
A network is a set of devices connected by physical media links. A network is recursively is a connection of two or more nodes by a physical link or two or more networks connected by one or more nodes.

Question 2.
What is a LAN?
Answer:
LAN is short for Local Area Network. It refers to the connection between computers and other network devices that are located within a small physical location.

Question 3.
What is a node?
Answer:
A node refers to a point or joint where a connection takes place. It can be a computer or device that is part of a network. Two or more nodes are needed in order to form a network connection.

Question 4.
Describe Network Topology.
Answer:
Network Topology refers to the layout of a computer network. It shows how devices and cables are physically laid out, as well as how they connect to one another.

Question 5.
How does a network topology affect your decision in setting up a network?
Answer:
Network topology dictates what media you must use to interconnect defaces. It also serves as the basis on what materials, connector, and terminations that is applicable for the setup.

Question 6.
What is WAN?
Answer:
WAN stands for Wide Area Network. It is an interconnection of computers and devices that are geographically dispersed. It connects networks that are located in different regions and countries.

Question 7.
Define star topology.
Answer:
Star topology consists of a central hub that connects to nodes. This is one of the easiest to set up and maintain.

Question 8.
What advantages does fiber optics have over other media?
Answer:
One major advantage of fiber optics is that is it less susceptible to electrical interference. It also supports higher bandwidth, meaning more data can be transmitted and received. Signal degrading is also very minimal over long distances.

Question 9.
What is the difference between a hub and a switch?
Answer:
A hub acts as a multiport repeater. However, as more and more devices connect to it, it would not be able to efficiently manage the volume of traffic that passes through it. A switch provides a better alternative that can improve the performance especially when high traffic volume is expected across all ports.

Question 10.
Define networking.
Answer:
Networking refers to the interconnection between computers and peripherals for data communication. Networking can be done using wired cabling or through wireless links.

Question 11.
What is mesh topology?
Answer:
Mesh topology is a setup wherein each device is connected directly to every other device on the network. Consequently, it requires that each device have at least two network connections.

Question 12.
What is the difference between logical and physical topology?
Answer:
Logical topology: The logical topology defines how the media is accessed by the hosts. It is used to describe the arrangement of devices on a network and how they communicate with one another. It is also referred to as Signal Topology.

Physical topology: The physical topology defines the actual layout of the wire i.e. media. It is concerned with the physical layout of the network; how the cables are arranged; and how the computers are connected. The physical topology of a network refers to the configuration of cables, computers, and other peripherals.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is physical, and wireless media used in networking?
Answer:
Physical media:

Twisted pair cable – consists of two independently insulated wires twisted around each other
Coaxial cable – consists of an insulated center wire grounded by a shield of braided wire Fiber optic cable – contains hundreds of clear fiberglass or plastic fibers
ISDN line – a special digital telephone line that transmits and receives information at very high speeds

Wireless media:

Microwave system – transmits data via high-frequency radio signals through the atmosphere
Satellite system – receive signals from the earth, amplify them, and then transmit back these signals to the appropriate locations on the earth.
Cellular technology – uses antennae resembling telephone towers to pick up radio signals within a specific area.

Question 2.
What are the various disadvantages of networking?
Answer:
Disadvantages of computer networks :
Computer networks are very helpful when it comes to sharing resources and saving time and money but this technology has some disadvantages too. The most common disadvantages of computer networks are as follows :

1. Expensive: The first and foremost disadvantage of computer networks is that they are expensive to purchase and maintain. The cabling and installation of a large-sized computer network are very costly.

2. Data Security: Special security measures are needed to stop users from using programs and data that they shouldn’t have access to. The proper permissions must be issued to various users according to their nature of work. The proper password validation check must be applied for the authorization and authentication of the user.

3. Manager dependence: The complex networks require a network manager to keep it running. The major problem with networks is that their efficiency is very dependent on the skill of the network manager. A badly managed network may operate less efficiently than non-networked computers. Also, a badly run network may allow external users into it with little protection against them causing damage.

4. Vulnerable to hackers and viruses: Computer networks are very vulnerable to hackers and viruses. For example, if the network is poorly implemented, improper communication may take place. This may lead to the situation in which the private or important mails can be seen by other users or hackers and this may result in loss of privacy or corrupt information system. Secondly, the virus on one system in a network can affect the whole computer network and could prove fatal for the organization.

5. Social problems: Computer networks pose social problems when people post offensive views about sensitive issues like religion, sex, and politics. The newsgroup or bulletin boards allow people«to exchange messages freely on the network. This could lead to a problem because” they are not restricted to post materials on any subject including deeply offensive views regarding religion, caste or creed, etc.

Basketball Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

October 5, 2024October 4, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Basketball Game Rules.

Basketball Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Describe the game of Basketball, its court and Restricted Area?
Answer:
The game of basketball is played between two teams. Each team consists of 5 players. The number of substitutes is 5-7. Each team aims at throwing the ball into the basket of the opposing team, and the opposing team tries to prevent the other team from securing the goal. The basketball court is 28 metres long and 15 metres broad. Its length and breadth can be decreased by 2 and 5 metres respectively in proportion to the two sides.

The height of the hall is 7 metres, and the light should be uniform. Its floor should be wooden or cemented: It can be made of synthetic rubber. For the competition of FIBA (International Amateur Basketball Federation) the court should be of specified dimensions. The boundary lines of the basketball court shall be marked at every point at least 2 metres away from any obstruction. The breadth of lines shall be 5 cms.

Board:
Backboards should be made of hard wood or of fibre glass. Each board should be 2 cm. thick. A rectangle behind the ring above the board of the dimension of 59 cms. horizontal and 45 cms. vertical is made with 5 cm. broad lines. The boundary of the board is also marked with 5 cm. broad lines. The lower edge of the board from the ground is 2.75 metre high.
Basketball image 1
Basket:
The basket is made of white net with iron rings. The length of the net is 40 cm. and the radius of the ring is 45 cms. while its thickness is 20 mm.

Centre Line:
A centre line, parallel to the end lines, shall be marked. It shall divide the court into Front Court and Back Court. This line shall be 15 cm. outside on both sides.

Centre Circle:
A circle with a radius of 1.80 m. shall be marked exactly in the centre of the court. It shall be measured from the outer line of the circle.

Three Points Field Goal Area:
The three points field goal area is marked by two arcs, which is from a radius of 6.25 metres to the outer edges of the centre of the side line. It is directly perpendicular to the centre of the basket. The end lines are parallel to the side lines. The distance between the end line and the lines of the three point field goal area is 1.25 m. The centre point is 1.575 metre from the inside edge of the mid point of the end line. The arc is only upto semi-circle and is thereafter parallel to the side line.

Restricted Area, Free Throw Lines:
Parallel to each end line, a free throw line with its further edge at a distance of 5.80 m. shall be drawn. It shall be 3.60 m. long and its mid-point shall be on the line joining the mid points of the two ends. Basketball image 2
The restricted area is formed by the lines from end lines and free-throw lines. Its radius is marked by end lines and free-throw lines. The outer edge of these lines shall be 3 metres from the mid-points of end-lines and finish at the ends of the free throw lines. This line is in the semi-circle with a r idius of 1.80 m. in the court.

The first line is 1.75 m. from the inside edge of the end line. The first lane place shall be limited by a line 85 cm away. Next to it will be neutral zone 30 cm in width. The second lane place shall be 85 cm in width and is close to the neutral zone. The third lane place will be adjacent to the second lane place and shall be 85 cm in width. Each marked portion in the broken semi-circle shall be 35 cm. in length and the gap between two portions shall be 40 cm.

Backboard Size, Material and Position:
Backboards should be made of hard wood or of fibre glass. Each backboard is 3 cm. in thickness. It is 1.80 metre horizontally and 1.20 metre vertically. A 59 × 45 cm. rectangle is made behind the ring on the board. The width of its lines is 5 cm. The upper edge of this line is parallel to the level of the ring. The board is limited by 5 cm. thick lines. The lower edge of the board is 2.75 metre high from the ground. The uprights that support the backboards“shall be at a distance of 1 m. from the outer-edges of the end-lines in the restricted area.
Basketball image 3
BASKET:
The basket is made of rings and net. It is 40 cm. in length. It is fixed with an iron ring. The rings are 45 cm. in inside diameters. The radius of this orange painted basket is 45 cm. The metal of rings is 20 mm. thick. A net made of white cord suspends from the rings. The rings are made in such a way that when the ball passes through it, they check it momentarily. The length of the net should be 40 cm.

Ball:
The ball is spherical. It is made of leather and has in it a rubber bladder. Its circumference is from 75 to 78 cm. Its weight is from 600 to 650 gms. The rules also now permit the use of used ball. The referee may choose a used ball. The ball should have been so much inflated that when it falls on the ground from a height of 1.80 m. it does not bounce from its upper edge, by not less than 1.20 m. and not more than 1.40 m.

A ball, once selected, cannot be used by any player before the match. A new ball may be used in case a suitable used ball is not available.
Basketball image 4

Question 2.
What type of technical equipment is used in the game of Basketball?
Answer:
Technical Equipment

(a) (i) Game Watch
(ii) Time-out Watch

(b) Score-sheet

(c) Marks numbered from 1 to 5 having a minimum size of 20 cm × 10 cm. Marks from 1-4 shall be black while mark 5 is red.

(d) An efficient instrument visible to players and spectators to implement the 30 second rule.

(e) A Score Board, visible to all, having game points (scores) of both the teams written on it.

(f) Scorers shall have two red flags as foul markers of both the teams. The flag will be brought to the side of the team in case of eight fouls during a certain period and will be visible to the players, coach and game officials.

Question 3.
What is the number of officials conducting the game of Basketball?
Answer:
Officials and their Assistants and their Duties

(i) Referee’s Duties:

It is the referee’s duty to look after the whole equipment and to give advice to the players through signs
To perform other functions according to rales.
To make the scorer fill up the record sheet.
To toss in the middle of the game
To conduct the whole game under his care. He gives proper decisions to both the teams. His decisions are adhered to by all the players
He also adjudicates in case of misunderstanding among players, and conducts the game according to rales
If a player plays wrongly, he awards him penalty (8) He signs the score sheet at the end of the play and awards victory or defeat.

Time-Keeper:

(1) His function is to have control over time during the play. Before the start of the game he informs the referee that the game is to begin within three minutes so that he may inform the teams. After the interval he also reminds the referee that two minutes have left in the beginning of the game.

(2) He keeps the whole record from the start to the end of the game. He has to remember as to how long the game could not be played. When the time keeper rings the bell, the referee also blows his whistle to declare that time is over.

Scorer:

His duty is to note the scores made by a player in the score sheet.
He writes down the names of the all the players on the score sheet before the start of the game.
The scorer should know as to how many scores have been made by an individual player.
He adds each score made by a player very carefully to his account.
He should note all the fouls done by a player on the side of his fouls. When a player makes five fouls, he informs the referee about it so that the player may be expelled from the game.
After the end of the play, scorer gets the signature of the referee on the score sheet. Two scores are made if the ball falls from above in the basket. One score is made in case of a free throw.

Player Leaving Court:

No player can leave the court until the interval or until the rules permit without the permission of the game officials.

Captain:

Only the captain can talk to the officials for seeking any information or interpretation of any sort. The right to substitute a player lies with the coach or the captain acting as a coach.

Duration of Play:

The game is played in the four durations of 20 minutes each. There is an interval of 10 minutes for rest between the four durations.

Start of Play:

The referee starts the game. He shall toss the ball for a centre jump between two opponent players in centre circle. The game shall not start until five players of each team have entered the ground. If within five minutes after the starting time, a team does not enter the playground, the opposing team shall get walk over, that is, it is declared winner without playing.

Question 4.
What is the Jump ball in Basketball, what type of fouls can occur during Jump ball?
Answer:
Jump Ball. At the time of jump ball the two jumpers shall stand with their feet inside the half of the circle beside their respective basket, and one of their feet shall be beyond the centre of the line that is between them. An official shall toss the ball upward in such a way that no player can reach it by jumping and the ball drops between them.

No player shall tap the ball before it reaches its full height. A jumping player can tap the ball only twice. The moment the violation during the jump ball is made, it is penalised with a throw in at the side line. It is mid point for the opponents.

Goal:
A goal is scored when the ball enters the basket from above and is held there or passes through it. Two points are counted when a goal from the field is attempted from within the 3 point line, and one point when a goal is attempted from free throw. A field goal attempted from beyond the 3-point line would count 3 points.

Obstacle during Attack:
When the ball goes downward flight above the basket, no player shall touch or catch it even if an attempt is being made for goal.

Obstacle during Defence:
When an opponent tries for a goal by tossing the ball and the ball is above the level of the basket area and begins its downward flight, then no defender shall try to touch it. In case of violation, the ball shall become dead. If the violation occurs at the time of free throw, the thrower is awarded one point, and if it occurs at the time of attempting a goal, the thrower is awarded two points.

Ball in the Play after the Goal:
Five seconds after a goal has been secured, any player of the opposing team shall put the ball in play from any point out of bounce at the end of the court.

Decision of Play:
A team scoring greater number of points is declared the winner.

Forfeit of Play:
If any team does not enter the playfield after the interval or when the time is due on the call of the referee, the ball shall be brought in the ground and the absent team shall forfeit the game. If during the play the number of players of a‘team comes down to 2, the game shall come to end and that team forfeits the game.

Score and Extra Time:
In case the score is a tie at the end of the second half, five minutes more and such time more will be given till the decision of the game is given. In an extra period, there shall be tos? to select the basket, and thereafter in every extra period the basket shall be changed.

Time-out:
Each team can get two times-out until interval and one time out in one extra period. A time-out of one minute is given in case a player receives an injury. If during this time the injured player does not get well, a substitute is taken.

Question 5.
Describe five second, Eight second, three second and twenty four second rules?
Answer:
Five second Rule:
If a closely-guarded player blocks the ball from play and does not attempt to throw the ball in the game within five seconds, it is called blocking.

Eight second Rule:
When a team receives the ball in its back court, it has to send the ball into its front court within ten seconds.

Twenty four second Rule:
As per new rule, a new 24 second period does not begin following a throw in from out of line bounds at the side line until:

(a) The ball has gone out of bounds and throw-in is taken by a player from the same team.
(b) The officials have suspended the play to protect an injured player and the throw-in is taken by a player from the team to which the injured player belongs. After 30 seconds the operator will re-start the device from the time it was stopped when team control is again established by the same team after the thrown-in has been made.

Termination of Play:
On receiving the signal of the termination of play by the time keeper, the game shall be terminated.

Substitution of Player:
A substitute player before entering the court shall report to the scorer and shall be ready to play the game immediately. As soon as he gets the signal he shall reach the court. He should not take more than twenty seconds in reaching the court. If he takes more time, it shall be deemed as time-out, and it shall be charged against the opposing team.

Dead Ball:
The ball is dead when the ball, already in flight, on a shot for a goal, is touched by any player after time has expired for half or extra period or after a foul has.been called.

Three-second Rule:
When the ball is in the control of a team, no player of that team can remain for more than three seconds in the opponent court.

Dribbling:
Dribbling holds an important place in basketball. A player learns half of the game when a player has learnt to have full control over the ball and to dribble the ball. When a player continues to toss the ball into the air, fall it on the ground, and then re-takes it, it is called dribbling. When a player after having taken the ball places his foot on the floor in such a way that he appears to be rotating on a point, it is called pivot foot.

Ball in Play after Foul:
When a ball goes out of play by a foul, this dead ball shall be taken in play by

a throw-in from out-of-bounds, or
by a jump-ball at one of the circles, or
by one or more free throws.

Throw-in:
A ball shall be known to be dead in case of violation of rules, and the opposite team is awarded a throw-in from a close point on side line. The rule now permits a player who is to make the throw-in to touch the end line, and it is no longer a violation now.

Free throw:
A player on whom the foul is made takes a free throw. But in a technical foul any player can take a free throw. When a free throw is attempted, the positions of other players shall be as follows:

Two players of the opposing team shall stand near the basket.
Other players shall take alternate positions.
Other players can take any position provided they do not disturb a free-throw.

Violation of Free-throw Rules:
After the ball has been given to a player for a free throw:

(a) He must throw the ball within five seconds and in such a way that it enters the basket or touches the ring
(b) While the ball is on its way to the basket or is on or within the basket, no player shall touch it.
(c) The thrower shall not touch the floor or across the free throw line. No. player of either team shall touch the free-throw line or create an obstacle for the player taking free throw.

Game to be Forfeited. As per the new rule it is no more necessary for the referee to put the ball in play in a manner as if both the teams were on the floor ready to play and forfeit the game. Now, if after the call for play by the referee a team refuses to play, the team shall forfeit the game.

Ball Return to Back Court. As per the new rule, the ball is sent into team ‘A’s back court provided it is touched by a player of the team A only when team ‘A’ has control of the ball in front court. Accordingly, a touch by player of the team ‘A’, while the ball is in control of the team B in the team A’s front court, if made to go into the team A’s back court, is not considered as caused to go into back court.

Further, during a throw-in from mid-point, the official makes it certain that the player takes his position by having his one foot on either side of the extended centre line.

Violation on Out of Bounds Play:
It is not considered to be a violation when a player, who has been awarded a throw-in, steps on the line while releasing the ball.

Penalty:
(i) If the infringement is made by the free-thrower, no point shall be recorded. The ball shall be given out of bounds on the side line to the opponent.

(ii) In case there is an infringement by a team-mate of the free thrower, the point shall be recorded. If the violation is done by both the teams, no point shall be recorded and the play will be restarted with a jumping ball on the free-throw line.

(iii) In case of the violation of rule (c) by a team-mate of the free thrower and the free-throw is successful, the goal shall be counted ignoring the violation. In case the free-throw is not successful, it shall be penalised.

(iv) In case of the violation of rule (c) by the free thrower’s opponents and the success of the free throw, a goal shall be counted ignoring the violation.

(v) If the rule (c) is violated by both the teams and the free-throw succeeds, the goal shall be counted ignoring the violation. If the free-throw does not succeed, the play shall be resumed by a jump ball on the free- throw line.

Question 6.
How many types of fouls are there in the game of Basketball?
Answer:
Technical Foul by Player. No player shall ignore the warning given by the official, and behave in a manner which does not behove a good player, for example:

Addressing an official in a disrespectful manner, or meeting him.
To misbehave,
Troubling an opponent or obstructing his vision by waving the hand before his eyes.
Obstructing or delaying the game in an improper way.
Not raising the arm properly on the signal of a foul.
Changing his playing number without reporting to the scorer or referee.
Sending the substitute in the court without reporting to the scorer.

Penalty:
Every offence shall be considered a foul and the opponents shall be awarded two free throws for one foul. For repeated offence of this rule, the player shall be disqualified and expelled from the game.

Technical Foul by Coach or Substitute Player:
No coach or a substitute player can enter the court without the permission of the official. He can neither leave his place to follow the action in the court nor address an opponent disrespectfully.

Penalty:
On the violation of this rule by the coach, a four shall be recorded against him. For each offence a free-throw shall be awarded and the ball shall be given to the same team for throw-in on the central line. On the repeated violation of this rule, the coach can be removed from the vicinity of the court.

Personal Foul:
The person who makes a personal foul blocks, attacks, catches or pushes an opponent carrying the ball normally. At such a moment the referee blows his whistle and awards penalty.

Penalty:
If a foul is committed on a player who is in the act of shooting, then

(i) if a goal is scored, it shall be counted, and one free-throw shall be awarded, (ii) if the shot for goal (2 points) does not succeed, two free- throws shall be awarded, and (iii) if the shot for goal (3 point attempt) remains unsuccessful, three free-throws shall be awarded.

Intentional Foul:
It is that personal foul which a player commits intentionally. A player who commits this foul time and again is disqualified and expelled from the play.

Penalty:
An offender shall be charged of personal foul, and two free-throws shall be awarded. If this foul is committed by a player who scores a goal, the goal shall be counted, and an extra free-throw shall be awarded.

Double Foul:
A double foul is committed in such a situation in which two opposing players strike against each other, and both of them are at fault. This foul is recorded against both the players. In case of this foul, the play is resumed from the near circle by a jump ball.

Multiple Foul:
A multiple foul is committed when two or more players of a team commit a personal foul on one opposing player. In case of such a situation, a foul shall be recorded against each offending player, and the player against whom it is committed shall be awarded a free-throw. If the foul has been committed against a player during the act of shooting, the goal, if made, shall be counted and one free-throw shall be awarded.

Five Fouls:
If a player commits five fouls, either personal or technical, he shall be turned out.

Three for two Rule:
When a player is about to score a goal and an opponent commits a foul, if the goal is scored, one more free-throw shall be given. In case no jfoal is scored and if neither of the two free-throw succeeds, an additional free-throw shall be awarded.

Right of Option:
The right of option for a throw-in from mid-point is applicable in respect of one and two throws and three free-throws. Before the option is made, the captain is permitted to have a Brief consultation with the coach.

Four Fouls by a Team:
After a team has committed four player fouls (personal or technical) in a half all subsequent players shall be penalised by two free throws. If a player’s foul includes two or three free-throws.

Jump Ball:
The game is played with jump-ball at the start of the game, after the interval or when double or multiple foul is committed. The referee tosses the ball between the opposing players inside the centre circle. Both the players try to catch the ball by jumping. The game starts with the touch of a player on the ball.

Fouls during Jump Ball:
During jump ball the player commits following types of fouls:

Jumping at each other.
Touching the line.
Touching the ball in flight after it has been tossed by the referee.
Elbowing or pushing the opponent during jumping in order to block the opponent’s jump.
Blocking the opponent’s jump by placing one’s foot on the opponent’s foot during the process of jumping.
Touching the lines of the radius during jumping.
Moving of the players from one place to the other while jumping.

Question 7.
Describe the important passes in basketball?
Answer:
Important Passes In Basketball

1. Two Hands Chest Pass:
The pass is made quickly by placing the ball in front of the chest with both the hands. This pass is made when the player faces no opponent. It is given to the team mates by holding the ball in both the hands, raising shoulders and arms, bending the body a little and by pressing one foot forcibly. This is a normal practice in the game.

2. Side Arm Pass:
This pass is given to the team-mates by either extending or raising the arm. This way is put into practice when a player wants to give pass to his playmate who is away. This pass can be given when an obstruction occurs during the process of dribbling. Then a player gives pass to another by extending his arm. Some teams are very well- versed in putting the ball jnto the ring from the centre.

3. Over-head Pass:
This pass is given to the team-mates by raising both the arms. It is considered to be proper when a player is surrounded by many opponents. The player makes the pass by crossing the ball over many heads raising his arm. The opponents have to make very bard efforts to block such a ball given through this type of pass.

4. Ground Pass:
This pass is given when the opposing player is tall, and the ball cannot be crossed over his head. At that time, the pass is given by throwing the ball on the ground.

5. Back Pass:
This pass is given from Back Side. The player moves to by tossing the ball on the hands, and in case there is an obstruction on the way, he gives back pass to his team mate standing behind.

Important Information About the Basketball Game

The length and breadth of court = 28 × 15 m
Number of players in one team = 12, five players, seven substitutes.
Radius of central circle = 1.80 meter
Breadth of lines = 5 c.m.
Thickness of the board = 3 c.m. c
Height of the board from floor = 2.90 meter
Dimension of board = 180 × 120 c.m.
Circumference of the ball = 75 to 78 c.m.
Weight of the ball = 600 to 650 gm
Rectangle size of the board = 49 × 45 c.m.
Distance of each pole = 2 meter
Duration of the game = 10-2-10 (10) 10-2-10 from half
Officials of the match = One table commissioner, One referee, One Umpire, One chief Refree, One time keeper, One scorer and 24 second operator.
A match of basketball is played between two teams. Each team has 5 players, and 5 or 7 substitutes.
The basketball court is rectangular. It is 28 metres long and 15 metres broad. The court must be made of wood or cement.
Each member of the team shall be numbered from 4 to 15 on the front and back of his vest or shirt. The front numbers should be 6″ long and the back numbers 15″.
The game has four durations of 10-2-10-10, 10-2-10. Until the interval which is of 10 minutes, no player can leave the court without the permission of the concerned official.
During the play players can be substituted any number of times but their names must appear on the score sheet, and the substitution of player can take place at the throw or watch of the substituted team or at dead ball.
Two or three free throws are awarded, as per the situation, after a foul which follows 4 fouls in one half of a team.
A player is expelled from the match after he has done five fouls.
The weight of the basketball is from 600 to 650 gms. and its circumference is from 75 to 78 cms.
During the play of a game, a coach can secure a time out (which is of 1 minute) two times for rest.
The radius of the centre circle of the basketball court is 1.80 m, the thickness of the board is 3 cm, the height of the lower edge of blackboard from the ground is 2.75 m, the height of the ring is 3.05 m and the length of the white net is 40 cms. The breadth of all boundary lines is 5 cms.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

October 1, 2024September 30, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Kharif Crops Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Name two Kharif bowls of cereal.
Answer:
Paddy, Maize, Jowar.

Question 2.
Name two important varieties of rice.
Answer:
P.R.-123, P.R.-122.

Question 3.
Give seed requirement of desi cotton hybrid for one acre.
Answer:
1.5 kg seed per acre.

Question 4.
Name one major insect pest of maize.
Answer:
Maize borer

Question 5.
Name two diseases of sugarcane?
Answer:
Red rot, Red stripe, wilt, etc.

Question 6.
Name two Pulse crops.
Answer:
Moong, Mash, Arhar.

Question 7.
Give seed rate of maize for one acre.
Answer:
It is 7 kg for pearl popcorn and 8 kg per acre for other varieties. For fodder crop, it is 30 kg per acre.

Question 8.
Give sowing time of cotton.
Answer:
1 April to 15 May.

Question 9.
Name one intercrop in sugarcane.
Answer:
Summer Moong or Summer Mash.

Question 10.
Name two fodder crops.
Answer:
Maize, Bajra, Guara.

(B) Answer In one-two sentence:

Question 1.
What is crop rotation?
Answer:
Different types of crops which are sown in a sequence in the field in one year is called crop rotation, e.g. Paddy-wheat, Paddy- Potato-Sunflower, etc.

Question 2.
Name two rice-based crop rotations.
Answer:
Rice-wheat/Berseem, Rice-wheat-sathi maize/sathi moong. Rice-Potato-Sathi Moong/Sunflower.

Question 3.
What are the deficiency symptoms of zinc in rice?
Answer:
Due to the deficiency of zinc, seedlings remain stunted and tillerless. Lower leaves become rusty, near the base. The central vein of leaves changes color and leaves ultimately dry up. To avoid and control this malady, apply 25 kg zinc sulfate per acre at the time of puddling.

Question 4.
Write sowing method of maize.
Answer:
Maize is sown from the last week of May to the end of June, can be sown in the second fortnight of August. Row spacing should be 60 cm and plant spacing should be 20 cm. Use 7 kg seed per acre for pearl popcorn and 8 kg for other varieties.

Question 5.
Give control of Its in Maize.
Answer:
It’s can be controlled by using Atrataf within 10 days of sowing.

Question 6.
Why puddling is done in Paddy?
Answer:
Paddy needs a lot of water. Due to puddling, the water holding capacity of the field increases to a large extent. The rate of evaporation of water is decreased. It also helps to prevent the growth of weeds. Transplanting, of paddy, becomes easy.

Question 7.
Give seed requirement of sugarcane.
Answer:
The seed rate for cane crops is twenty thousand, three budded sets or four budded sets 15 thousand, or five budded sets-12 thousand for one acre.

Question 8.
Write time and method of sowing for Autumn sugarcane.
Answer:
Autumn sugarcane is sown from 20 September to 20 October and sowing is done in rows with a spacing of 90 cm.

Question 9.
Give the method of defoliation in moong for combined harvesting.
Answer:
If combine is to be used to harvest the Moong crop, then at the time when 80% of pods are mature, Gramoxone is sprayed to make the leaves and stem dry i.e. for defoliation.

Question 10.
Write method of weed control in rice.
Answer:
Swank and Motha weeds grow in rice. Hoeing should be done twice manually by hands, use paddy weeder for inter-culture. After 15 and 30 days of transplanting pull out the weeds from the fields. Suitable herbicides should be used at the proper time in the required amounts. Herbicides that can be used are Machete, Refit, Top- star, Arozin, etc. use Algrip for a gorilla, Sanni, etc.

Question 1.
Discuss the use of fertilizers in rice.
Answer:
The fertilizer requirement for rice for an acre is 50 kg nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 12. kg potassium. Potassium dose should be applied on a soil test basis. Divide nitrogen dose into three parts. Apply one part of nitrogen and a whole of phosphorus and potassium (if needed) before the last puddling. The remaining two parts of nitrogen are broadcasted in two equal splits at three and six weeks after transplanting. If rice is sown after wheat which had received a recommended supply of phosphorus, then there is no need to apply phosphorus for rice crops.

Question 2.
Explain direct seeding of rice.
Answer:
Rice should be sown directly in only medium to heavy soils. In light (sandy) soils there occurs deficiency of iron in the crop and the yield is reduced.
Time of sowing: Suitable time for direct sowing is the first fortnight of June.
Seed rate: Seed requirement is 8-10 kg per acre.
The depth and row spacing: Seed should be sown at a depth of 2-3 cm using a paddy drill and row spacing should be 20 cm. Early maturing variety of Paddy should be used for direct sowing.
Weed control: Use stomp within 2 days of sowing. If after 30 days of sowing, swank, and motha are seen in the crop then use nominee gold. Segment herbicide is used to control broadleaf weeds.
Fertilizers: Apply 60 kg nitrogen per acre in three equal splits. Broadcast nitrogen after two, five, and nine weeks of sowing.
Irrigation: Keep watering the crop at 5-10 days intervals.

Question 3.
Give details of seed treatment in cotton.
Answer:
Seed rate for B.T. varieties is 750 grams, for non-B.T. hybrid varieties 1 kg, for normal varieties 3 kg, for desi cotton varieties it is 1.5 kg and for simple varieties, it is 3 kg per acre. Use the adviced chemicals for seed treatment. For prevention from Jassid use Gaucho or Cruiser.

Question 4.
Discuss preventive measures for lodging in sugarcane.
Answer:
We should make efforts to prevent the lodging of sugarcane crops because frost has a bad effect on fallen crops. To prevent lodging, we should earth up heavily the crop before the outset of monsoon, nearly the end of June. Prop the crop at the end of August or at the beginning of September.

Question 5.
For which crops and why sulfur is essential?
Answer:
Sulfur is essential for oilseed crops. Single superphosphate is used as a source of phosphorus because it contains sulfur also. If this fertilizer is not available, use gypsum as a source of sulfur.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the time of sowing for the Kharif (Sawani) crop?
Answer:
June-July or in Monsoon.

Question 2.
When is Sawant or Kharif crop harvested?
Answer:
In October-November.

Question 3.
How can you categorize the Kharif crop?
Answer:
Three categories of Kharif crops :

Cereals
Pulses and Oilseed crops
Cotton, Sugarcane, and fodder.

Question 4.
Name Kharif cereal crops.
Answer:
Paddy, Basmati, Maize, Bajra (Sorghum).

Question 5.
Which country is the highest producer of Paddy?
Answer:
China

Question 6.
Which state of India is the highest producer of Paddy?
Answer:
West Bengal.

Question 7.
What is another name for Paddy?
Answer:
Rice and Jeeri, Dhaan, Jhonna.

Question 8.
How much area is occupied by Paddy crop in Punjab?
Answer:
28 lakh hectare.

Question 9.
How much is the average yield of Paddy in Punjab?
Answer:
60 quintal per hectare.

Question 10.
Which Karqha is used to level the field before Puddling it for the Paddy crop?
Answer:
Laser Karahd.

Question 11.
What is the seed rate for Paddy?
Answer:
It is 8 kg per acre.

Question 12.
Which chemical is used to control broadleaf weed like Gorilla in Paddy?
Answer:
Algeria or Segment.

Question 13.
Which device is used to save water for irrigation of Paddy crop?
Answer:
Tensiometer.

Question 14.
What type of soil is suitable for direct sowing of paddy?
Answer:
Medium to heavy soil.

Question 15.
What is used if there is a deficiency of zinc in Paddy and what is its quantity used?
Answer:
Zinc sulfate, 25 kg per acre.

Question 16.
What should be the moisture content for storing rice in godowns?
Answer:
12%,

Question 17.
Name varieties of Basmati.
Answer:
Punjab Basmati-3, Pusa Punjab Basmati-1509, Pusa Punjab Basmati-1121.

Question 18.
What is the time of sowing, for raising the nursery of Paddy?
Answer:
Nursery sowing for Pusa Punjab Basmati-1509 is done in the second fortnight of June and for other varieties, it is done in the first fortnight of June.

Question 19.
What happens to Paddy if excess nitrogen is applied to it? (high doses of nitrogen)
Answer:
It causes excessive vegetative growth and plants attain more height. This causes lodging of the crop and yield is reduced.

Question 20.
Which country is the highest producer of maize?
Answer:
The United States of America.

Question 21.
Which state of India is the highest producer of maize?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh.

Question 22.
How much area of land is occupied by maize crop in Punjab?
Answer:
1 lakh 25 thousand hectares.

Question 23.
What is the average yield of maize in Punjab?
Answer:
15 quintals per acre.

Question 25.
How much rain is suitable for maize?
Answer:
50 to 75 cm.

Question 25.
What type of soil is suitable for maize?
Answer:
Well-drained medium to heavy (loam and silty loam).

Question 26.
Give seed rate for Pearl popcorn (maize variety).
Answer:
7 kg per acre.

Question 27.
Give varieties of maize for normal use.
Answer:
PMH-1, PMH-2.

Question 28.
Name special purpose varieties of maize.
Answer:
Punjab sweet corn-1, Pearl popcorn.

Question 29.
What is the time of sowing for maize?
Answer:
Maize can be sowed from the last week of May to the end of June and in the second fortnight of August.

Question 30.
What are row spacing and plant spacing for maize crops?
Answer:
60 cm, 22 cm.

Question 31.
Which weedicide is more effective for Its in maize?
Answer:
Strata.

Question 32.
What is sown in the Helds of maize crop to prevent weeds?
Answer:
Rawang (grams).

Question 33.
Which herbicide is used to control dila/motha (common sedge)?
Answer:
2, 4-D.

Question 34.
How much irrigation is required for normal maize?
Answer:
4-6 irrigations are needed.

Question 35.
Which state in India is the highest producer of pulses?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 36.
How much area is occupied by Moong crop in Punjab?
Answer:
5 thousand hectares.

Question 37.
What is the yield of Moong in Punjab?
Answer:
350 kg per acre.

Question 38.
Which type of soil is not suitable for Moong?
Answer:
Saline-alkaline or waterlogged soils are not suitable.

Question 39.
What is the seed rate for Moong?
Answer:
8 kg per acre.

Question 40.
Give the time of sowing for Moong,
Answer:
The first fortnight of July.

Question 41.
What are row spacing and plant spacing for moong crop?
Answer:
Row spacing is 30 cm and plant spacing is 10 cm.

Question 42.
Which herbicides are used to control weeds in Moong?
Answer:
Treflan or Basalin.

Question 43.
How much land is occupied by the Mash crop in Punjab?
Answer:
2 thousand hectares.

Question 44.
What is the average yield of Mash in Punjab?
Answer:
180 kg acre.

Question 45.
Which soil is not suitable for the Mash crop?
Answer:
Saline-alkaline or water-logged soils.

Question 46.
What is the seed rate for Mash?
Answer:
6-8 kg per acre.

Question 47.
What is the time of sowing of Mash in the Sub-mountainous region?
Answer:
15 to 25 July.

Question 48.
What is a time of sowing of Mash in regions other than the Sub-mountainous region?
Answer:
Last week of June to the first week of July.

Question 49.
What is row spacing for Mash?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 50.
Which pesticide is used in Mash?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 51.
Which country is the highest producer of Soyabean?
Answer:
The United States of America.

Question 52.
Which state of India is the highest producer of Soyabean?
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh.

Question 53.
Give Soyabean based crop rotation cycle.
Answer:
Soybean—Wheat/Barley.

Question 54.
Name varieties of Soyabean.
Answer:
SL-958, S.L.-744.

Question 55.
Give the time of sowing for Soyabean.
Answer:
First fortnight of June.

Question 56.
What is row spacing for Soyabean?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 57.
Which herbicide is used to control weeds in Soyabean?
Answer:
Stomp, primate.

Question 58.
Name insects/pests which attack Soyabean?
Answer:
Hairy caterpillar and whitefly.

Question 59.
Which crop is a pulse as well as oilseed?
Answer:
Soybean.

Question 60.
Which country in the world is the highest producer of oilseed?
Answer:
The United States of America.

Question 61.
Which state in India is the highest producer of oilseeds?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 62.
Which country in the world is the highest producer of groundnut?
Answer:
China.

Question 63.
Which the State Of India is the highest producer of groundnut?
Answer:
Gujarat.

Question 64.
How much area is occupied by groundnut in Punjab?
Answer:
15 thousand hectares.

Question 65.
Give average yield of groundnut in Punjab.
Answer:
7 kg per acre.

Question 66.
Name a crop rotation cycle involving groundnut.
Answer:
Groundnut-wheat.

Question 67.
Name varieties of groundnut.
Answer:
S.G.-91, S.G.-84.

Question 68.
Give seed rate for groundnut.
Answer:
38-40 kg seed (Kernel) per acre.

Question 69.
What is the time of sowing for rainfed groundnut?
Answer:
With the advent of the monsoon.

Question 70.
What is the time of sowing for irrigated groundnut crops?
Answer:
From end April to end May.

Question 71.
Which herbicides are used to control weeds in groundnut?
Answer:
Treflan, Stomp.

Question 72.
Name Kharif fodder crops.
Answer:
Maize, Jowar, Bajra.

Question 73.
Which country in the world is the highest producer of cotton?
Answer:
China.

Question 74.
Which state of India is the highest producer of cotton?
Answer:
Gujarat.

Question 75.
How much area is under the cotton crop?
Answer:
5 lakh hectare.

Question 76.
What is the average yield of cotton in Punjab?
Answer:
230 kg lint per acre.

Question 77.
Which type of soil is not suitable for cotton?
Answer:
Sandy, saline, or water-logged.

Question 78.
Give normal varieties of cotton.
Answer:
L.H.-2108.

Question 79.
Give seed rate for BT cotton.
Answer:
750 gram per acre.

Question 80.
Name a hybrid variety of desi cotton.
Answer:
PAU 626 H.

Question 81.
Give the time of sowing for cotton.
Answer:
1 April to 15 May.

Question 82.
Give row spacing for cotton.
Answer:
67 cm.

Question 83.
Name herbicides used to control weeds in cotton.
Answer:
Treflan, stomp, gramoxon, Roundup.

Question 84.
Which country is the highest producer of Sugarcane?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 85.
Which state in India is the highest producer of Sugarcane?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 86.
How much area is occupied by sugarcane crop in Punjab?
Answer:
80 thousand hectares.

Question 87.
What is the average yield of sugarcane in Punjab?
Answer:
280 quintals per acre.

Question 88.
How much sugar is obtained from sugarcane?
Answer:
9%.

Question 89.
What type of soil is suitable for sugarcane?
Answer:
Medium to heavy soil.

Question 90.
Name early maturing varieties of spring cane.
Answer:
CoJ-85, CoJ-83.

Question 91.
What is the seed rate if four budded sets are used for a cane?
Answer:
15 thousand per acre.

Question 92.
What is the seed rate for the cane on the basis of weight?
Answer:
30 to 35 quintals per acre.

Question 93.
What is the time of sowing for a cane?
Answer:
Mid-February to end March.

Question 94.
Name herbicides to control weeds in cane crops.
Answer:
Strata, Senior.

Question 95.
Name varieties of Autumn cane.
Answer:
CoJ-85, CoJ-83.

Question 96.
What is a time of sowing for an autumn cane?
Answer:
20 September to 20 October.

Question 97.
Which weedicide should be used if Raya or wheat is intercropped in the autumn cane?
Answer:
Isoproturon.

Question 98.
Which herbicide is used in cane crop if summer moong and summer mash is intercropped?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 99.
How much green fodder is required for an adult animal per day?
Answer:
40 kg green fodder.

Question 100.
Name Kharif fodder crop.
Answer:
Bajra, Maize, Jowar, Napier Bajra, Guniea Grass, Guara, etc.

Question 101.
How many days, Maize, Kharif fodder take to become available for harvesting?
Answer:
50-60 days.

Question 102.
Name the variety of maize, a Kharif fodder.
Answer:
J-1006.

Question 103.
What is the time of sowing for fodder maize?
Answer:
The first week of March to mid-September.

Question 104.
Which pest attacks the fodder maize?
Answer:
Maize borer.

Question 105.
Which fodder is liked by animals?
Answer:
Jowar.

Question 106.
Name varieties of Jowar?
Answer:
S.L. 104.

Question 107.
What is the sed rate of Jowar?
Answer:
20-25 kg per acre.

Question 108.
What is the time of sowing for early maturing Jowar?
Answer:
Mid-March.

Question 109.
What is a suitable time for sowing for Jowar?
Answer:
Mid-June to middle July.

Question 110.
What is row spacing for Jowar?
Answer:
22 cm.

Question 111.
If a mixture of Guara and Jowar are sown together which herbicide is used ?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 112.
Write time of harvesting of Jowar?
Answer:
65-80 days, from boot to milk stage.

Question 113.
Give crop rotation cycle consisting of Bajra.
Answer:
Bajra-Maize-Bersem.

Question 114.
Give varieties of Bajra.
Answer:
PHBF-1, FBC-16.

Question 115.
Give seed rate for Bajra.
Answer:
6-8 kg seed per acre.

Question 116.
Give the time of sowing for Bajra.
Answer:
March to August.

Question 117.
What is the method of sowing for Bajra?
Answer:
Bajra is sown by the broadcasting method.

Question 118.
Which herbicide is used to control weeds in Bajra?
Answer:
Atrataf.

Question 119.
What do you know about the irrigation of Bajra?
Answer:
Normally 2-3 irrigations are required.

Question 120.
After how many days Bajra is harvested?
Answer:
After 45-55 days.

Question 121.
Give diseases of Bajra.
Answer:
Green ear, grain smut.

Question 122.
Write insects pest which attacks Bajra.
Answer:
Root bug, grasshopper.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Give details of climate and soil for cultivating Paddy.
Answer:
Paddy needs high temperature, excess moisture and excess of water. Medium to heavy soil is suitable. It can also grow in alkaline and acidic soil.

Question 2.
Give details of seed rate and seed treatment for paddy.
Answer:
8 kg seed per acre is needed for raising the nursery. To save crops from disease, seeds should be treated with recommended fungicides, soak the seed for 8 to 10 hours in recommended chemicals.

Question 3.
How will you control broadleaf weeds in Paddy?
Answer:
Broadleaf weeds like Gorilla, sunny etc. grow in paddy. Use Algrip or segment after 15-20 days of transplanting.

Question 4.
Why is green manure used?
Answer:
Leguminous plants are used for green manure e.g. Pulse crops, Sunhump, dhaincha, etc. These crops help in the fixation of nitrogen in the soil. Green manure crop is cultivated and it is mixed into the soil of the field. This helps in the increasing of humus and- makes the soil more fertile.

Question 5.
Discuss the harvesting and storing of Paddy.
Answer:
The crop can be harvested when ears are nearly ripe and the straws change color to yellow. Produce can be stored in godown when the moisture content is not more than 12%.

Question 6.
Give the time of nursery sowing for Basmati.
Answer:
For Pusa Punjab Basmati 1509, the time of nursery sowing is the second fortnight of June and for Punjab Basmati-3 and Pusa Basmati-1121, it is the first fortnight of June.

Question 7.
What is the time of transplanting seedlings of Basmati?
Answer:
For Pusa Punjab Basmati-1509, the time of transplanting is the second fortnight of July and for Punjab Basmati-3 and Pusa Basmati-1121, it is the first fortnight of July. Transplanting is done in a puddled field. Transplant 33 plants per square meter.

Question 8.
Give details about climate and soil for maize.
Answer:
Maize requires a moist and hot climate from germination to flowering. If there is less moisture and a very high temperature at the time of flowering, it may damage the foliage. This causes dryness (desiccate) of the pollen and proper pollination does not take place, it results in a poor grain setting. 50 cm to 75 cm rain is suitable for maize. Well-drained, medium to heavy soil is suitable.

Question 9.
What do you know about the irrigation of maize?
Answer:
Maize requires 4-6 irrigations, but it depends on the rainfall. Proper care should be taken to irrigate during the pre-tasselling and silking stages.

Question 10.
What do you know about harvesting Maize?
Answer:
When husk covers become dry and brown even when the stalks and leaves are somewhat green, the crop is ready to harvest. Moisture content should not be more than 15% in the grains.

Question 11.
What do you know about climate and soil for Moong?
Answer:
The hot climate is suitable for Moong. This crop can bear more heat and extra dryness as compared to other pulses. Saline and waterlogged soils are not suitable for this crop.

Question 12.
Give details of land preparation and- application fertilizers for Moong.
Answer:
Prepare the land by giving 2-3 ploughings and level the soil using plank. At the time of sowing apply 5 kg nitrogen a^id 16 kg of phosphorus by drilling.

Question 13.
Explain how to control weeds in Moong?
Answer:
To control weeds one or two hoeings should be done. Use Treflan or Basalin to control weeds before sowing. Use stomp within two days of sowing.

Question 14.
Discuss the harvesting of moong.
Answer:
When nearly 80% of pods are mature, moong can be harvested by using a sickle. Thresher can be used to thresh moong. If combined is to be used to harvest moong, spray gramophone to make leaves and stem dry when about 80% of pods are mature.

Question 15.
What do you know about climate and soil requirements for Mash?
Answer:
For this crop hot and moist climate is found to be suitable. Nearly all types of soils can be used to grow mash, but saline-alkaline or water-logged soil are not suitable for this crop.

Question 16.
What do you know about improved varieties, land preparation and control of weeds for Mash ?
Answer:

Improved Varieties: Mash-114, Mash-338.
Land preparation: Plough two or three times and then use Suhaga to leveler.
Weed Control: Hoeing should be done after one month of sowing or use stomp within 2 days of sowing.

Question 17.
What is the time of sowing for Mash?
Answer:
The time of sowing for Mash in sub-mountainous regions is from 15 to 25 July and in other regions, it is the last week of June to the first week of July. The rainfed crop should be sown with the onset of the monsoon. Sowing should be in rows with spacing 30 cm.

Question 18.
What do you know about the irrigation and harvesting of Mash?
Answer:

Irrigation: Normally Mash crop does not need irrigation. But in summer it needs irrigation.
Harvesting: When leaves fall off and pods change color to greyish black, then crop fs ready to harvest.

Question 19.
What do you know about climate and soil for soybean?
Answer:
It needs a hot climate. It can be grown in all types of soils but well-drained, non-saline/alkaline, fertile soil is more suitable for its cultivation.

Question 20.
Write about improved varieties, crop rotation, and land preparation for soybean.
Answer:

Crop rotation: Soyabean-Wheat/Barley.
Improved varieties: S.L.-958, S.L.-744.
Land preparation: Plough twice and use sugar for leveling.

Question 21.
Write about the seed rate, seed treatment, and method of sowing for Soyabean.
Answer:
The seed rate is 25-30 kg per acre. Treat the seed with recommended chemicals. If Soyabean is being sown for the first time, apply bacterial culture to the seeds. Row spacing should be 45 cm.

Question 22.
What do you know about weed control in Soyabean?
Answer:
Hoeing should be done twice to control weeds. Hoeings should be done after 20 and 40 days after sowing. Use stomp after 1-2 days of sowing or use primate after 15-20 days of sowing to control weeds.

Question 23.
Write about the fertilizer application for Soyabean.
Answer:
Apply 4 tonnes per acre of farmyard manure (FYM) before sowing Soyabean. Apply 13 kg nitrogen and 32 kg phosphorus per acre at the time of sowing.

Question 24.
Write about the irrigation of Soyabean.
Answer:
Soybean normally needs 3-4 irrigations. At the time of pod-filling, one irrigation is necessary. In case there is rain, then there is no need for irrigation.

Question 25.
What do you know about the harvesting of Soyabean?
Answer:
When all leaves fall off and pods change their color, crop is ready for harvesting. For storing, moisture content should not be more than 7%.

Question 26.
What do you know about insects/pests and diseases of Soyabean?
Answer:
Hairy caterpillar and whitefly attack Soyabean crop. The disease which affects the crop is the yellow mosaic virus.

Question 27.
What do you know about climate and soil for groundnut?
Answer:
For rainfed crops, nearly 50 cm of rain is a must in July, August, and September. Light to Medium type soils is suitable for groundnut.

Question 28.
Write about improved varieties, land preparation, and crop cycle for groundnut.
Answer:

Improved varieties: S.G.-99, S.G.-84.
Land preparation: Prepare the land by plowing it twice.
Crop cycle: Groundnut-Rabi crops.

Question 29.
Write about seed rate, seed treatment method of sowing for groundnut.
Answer:
Use recommended chemicals for seed treatment. The seed rate is 38-40 kg seed (Kernels) per acre. Sow after Rauni in 30 x 15 cm spacing.

Question 30.
Write about the application of fertilizers in groundnut.
Answer:
Groundnut needs 6 kg nitrogen, 8 kg phosphorus, and 10 kg potash per acre. Potash should be applied after testing the soil. Use superphosphate for phosphorus. It has sulfur also which is necessary for oil seed crops. If phosphorus is not required then 50 kg Gypsum per acre should be applied.

Question 31.
Write about weed control in groundnut.
Answer:
Hoeing is done after 3 and 6 weeks. To control weeds spray stomp after two days of sowing or spray Treflan and sow the crop the same day.

Question 32.
Write about irrigation of groundnut.
Answer:
Depending on rain, groundnut requires 2 or 3 irrigations. If there is less rain then irrigate at the time of flowering. Apply one or two irrigations depending upon rain at the time of pod formation.

Question 33.
Write about harvesting (digging), insects/pests, and diseases of groundnut.
Answer:

Digging of groundnut: Crop is ready to harvest when uniform yellowing of the leaves takes place and old leaves fell off.
Insects/Pests and diseases: Hairy caterpillar, white grub, Aphid, etc. can attack the crop. Collar rot, Root-knot, and Tikka, etc. are its diseases.

Question 34.
Write about climate and soil for cotton.
Answer:
Cotton can grow well in hot and dry climates. Cotton can grow on all types of soil but saline, water-logged soil is not suitable.

Question 35.
Write about varieties of cotton and crop cycle.
Answer:
Crop Cycle (rotation) : Ahpos-wheat/Barley, Kapas- sunflower, Kapas-Raiya, cotton-senji/Barseem/oats.
Improved varieties

B.T. Varieties—NSC-855, Ankur- 3028, MRC-7017, RCH-650.
Non-B.T. hybrid—LH-144.
Normal varieties—LH-2108.
Desi hybrid varieties—PAU-626H.
Desi Normal varieties—FDK-124, L.D.-694.

Question 36.
Write about seed rate and seed treatment.
Answer:
Seed rate: For one-acre seed rate is :

B.T. cotton: 700 gram
Non-B.T. hybrid cotton: 1 kg.
Normal variety : 3 kg.
Hybrid desi cotton: 1.5 kg.
Desi Normal variety : 3 kg.

Seed should be treated with recommended chemicals. To save it from Jassid use Gaucho or cruiser.

Question 37.
Write about the time and method of sowing for cotton.
Answer:
Time: 1 April to 15 May.
Row spacing: 67 cm.
Plant spacing: For normal varieties, it is 60 cm. For BT and non-BT hybrid varieties, plant spacing is 75 cm. For desi cotton it is 45 cm, for desi cotton hybrid varieties, it is 60 cm.

Question 38.
Write about weed control in cotton.
Answer:
Hoeing is done to control weeds. 2 to 3 hoeings are enough. First time hoeing is done before first irrigation. We can use a cultivator attached to the tractor or can use a trial driven by a bullock. Its/chapatti, Madhana/Makra can be controlled by using Stefan before sowing or spray stomp within 24 hours of sowing and hoeing should be done after 45 days or use one of gramophone and round up and spray directly on weeds by using safety hood.

Question 39.
Write about fertilizer application for cotton.
Answer:
Normal varieties: 30 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre.
B.T. and non-B.T. Ijybrid Varieties: Apply 60 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre. Apply potash after testing the soil. Apply all amounts of phosphorus at the time of sowing and half nitrogen at the time of thinning and remaining nitrogen at the time of flowering.

Question 40.
Write about irrigation and picking of cotton.
Answer:
Cotton needs 4 to 6 irrigations depending upon rain. First irrigation is applied after 4 to 6 weeks of sowing and after that irrigation is applied at a gap of two or three weeks. Picking Pick clean and dry bolls within 15-20 days so as to get a proper price from the mandi.

Question 41.
Write about insects/pests of cotton.
Answer:
Insects/pests which can damage the crop are Aphid, Jassid, Millibug, Pink bollworm, Tobacco caterpillar, American bollworm, Whitefly, etc.

Question 42.
Which insects do not attack and which attack B.T. cotton?
Answer:
American Bollworm does not attack B.T. cotton because B.T. cotton is genetically modified by the insertion of genes from a bacteria, which produces a protein, which acts as a poison for the bollworm. Sucking Pests and Tobacco caterpillars can attack.

Question 43.
Write about climate and soil requirements for sugarcane.
Answer:
The hot climate is suitable for sugarcane, medium to heavy soil is suitable. This crop can bear saline and alkaline soil to some extent.

Question 44.
Write about improved varieties and crop rotation for spring sugarcane.
Answer:
Crop rotation—Paddy/Maize/Cotton-Raya-Sugarcane- Ratoon-Ratoon II-Wheat.
Improved varieties

Early maturing—CoJ-85, CoJ-83,
Mid season varieites—CoPB-91 and CoJ-88
Late maturing—CoJ-89

Question 45.
Write about land preparation for soil.
Answer:
Four to six hoeings are required. Use sugar after every hoeing. Hoeing should be done up to a depth of 45-50 cm, this is beneficial for the crop since it breaks the hard layer under the soil. Water retention ability is increased. Roots can go deep.

Question 46.
Write about seed selection and seed rate on the basis of weight.
Answer:
Use the top two-thirds portion for sowing. Use 30 to 35 quintal per acre seeds on the basis of weight.

Question 47.
Write about time and method of sowing.
Answer:
Time of sowing—Mid February to end March.
Method of sowing—Plant in rows with spacing of 75 cm and give planking and then water it. One more irrigation should be applied after 4-5 days.

Question 48.
What do you know about inter-crops in SHgarcane?
Answer:
Between two rows of sugarcane, inter-crop a row of summer moong or mash. This way we can get an additional yield of 1 to 2 quintals per acre for these crops. These crops help in increasing the. fertility of the soil and also do not affect the cane yield.

Question 49.
What do you know about fertilizer application for cane crops?
Answer:
FYM (Farm Yard Manure)—Apply 8 tonnes of FYM per acre before 15 days of sowing.
Nitrogen Fertilizer—For plant crops apply 60 kg nitrogen and for Ratoon crops use 90 kg of nitrogen per acre.
Phosphorus fertilizer—Based on soil testing, if a deficiency of phosphorus is found, apply 12 kg phosphorus per acre.
The deficiency of Potash usually does not occur in Punjab.

Question 50.
Give the method to apply fertilizers for sugarcane?
Answer:

Fertilizer	Method to apply
Nitrogen	Apply the first half nitrogen dose with the first irrigation after germination to the planted crop. The remaining half dose is to be applied in May or June. Apply three doses in equal quantity to the ratoon crop in February, April, and May.
Phosphorus	Apply full dose at the time of planting. Phosphorus is drilled rows at the time of cultivation in February.

Question 51.
Write about weed control in sugarcane.
Answer:
To control weeds, two three hoeings are required. We can spread trash between the cane rows to suppress weeds and conserve soil moisture. We can use Atrataf or sensor within two-three days of planting. For Climbing vel and Broadlife weeds use 2, 4-D. In case of summer Moong or summer Mash is sown in sugarcane then stomp herbicide should be used instead of above said herbicides.

Question 52.
Write about irrigation requirements for sugarcane.
Answer:
Climate is hot and dry from April to June. Therefore, irrigate the crop at intervals of 7-12 days. During winter, irrigation should be applied at monthly intervals.

Question 53.
Write improved varieties, time of sowing, and method of sowing for the autumn cane.
Answer:

Improved varieties—CoJ-85, CoJ-83.
Time of sowing—20th September to 20th October.
Row spacing-—90 cm spacing.

Question 54.
Write about intercropping and weed control for the autumn cane.
Answer:
Intercropping. Potato, wheat, toria, cabbage, Raya, gobhi Sarson, gram, pea, radish, garlic etc. Weed control. If wheat or Raya is sown in cane use isoproturon and in case garlic is sown then apply stomp.

Question 55.
Write about the time of sowing and sowing method for fodder crop Maize.
Answer:
Time of sowing. From the first week of March to mid-September.
Row spacing—30 cm.

Question 56.
Write about fertilizer requirements for fodder crop maize.
Answer:
At the time of field, preparation applies 10 tonnes of farmyard manure per acre. Apply 23 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre.

Question 57.
Write about weed control in fodder maize.
Answer:
Use Atrataf for controlling weeds. Apply within two days of sowing the crop. It can also be used when the crop is at the 2-3 leaves stage. In case of maize and cowpea are sewn together then stomp can be used within two days of sowing.

Question 58.
Write an improved variety of sorghum, field preparation, seed rate, and treatment of seed.
Answer:
Field preparation. One plowing using harrow and two ploughings with a cultivator followed by planting.
Improved variety. SL 44 Seed rate and treatment. 20-25 kg seeds per acre. Use recommended fungicides for the treatment of seeds.

Question 59.
How to control weeds in sorghum?
Answer:
Use Atrataf within two days of sowing. It is helpful in controlling seasonal weeds like its sit/chupati. I guara and sorghum are sown together stomp can be sprayed within two days of sowing.

Question 60.
Write about crop rotation, improved variety, field preparation for Bajra.
Answer:

Crop rotation—Bajra—Maize-Berseem.
Improved Varieties—PHBF 1, FBC 16
Field preparation. 2-3 ploughings are needed.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Give details of agricultural practices for Bajra.
Answer:
Do it yourself.
Question 2. Write about nursery sowing of paddy.
Answer:
The optimum sowing time for the nursery is 15th to 30th May. At the time of field preparation mix 12-15 ton well rotten farmyard manure per acre. Fertilizers that are applied at the time of sowing are 12 kg nitrogen, 10 kg phosphorus, 13 kg zinc per acre. Treated seeds with recommended fungicides are spread on a thick layer of 7-8 cm wet gunny bags and are also covered by wet gunny bags. This helps in pre-germination. Keep the gunny bags wet by sprinkling water on them. Seeds germinate in 24 to 36 hours. Sow these germinated seeds by the broadcast method of sowing. The seed rate is 8 kg per acre for nursery raising. To prevent weeds use Butachlor or soft herbicide. After 15 days of sowing apply 12 kg nitrogen per acre. Seedlings are ready when they are 20-25 cm tall or have 6-7 leaves.

Question 3.
How to use a mechanical transplanter for transplanting rice?
Answer:
This is a new technique to transplant rice. For this purpose, the nursery is grown on perforated polythene sheets which are of the size of the transplanter frames. Iron frames are placed over it and soil is filled in the frames up to the top surface. Pre-germinated seeds are spread on this soil in the frames and are covered with a thin layer of soil. Sprinkle water on the soil. The frame is lifted carefully and the required number of -such mats are prepared by the same procedure. Mats are kept wet by sprinkling water on a daily basis. For 200 mats nearly 10-12 kg seed is required, which are needed for transplanting for one acre.

Question 4.
Write about the cultivation of rice (Basmati).
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 5.
Write about the cultivation of Maize.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 6.
Write about the cultivation of Moong.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 7.
Write about the cultivation of Mash.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Kharif Crops Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Kharif cereal crops are :
(a) Maize
(b) Rice
(c) Sorghum
(d) All correct
Answer:
(d) All correct

2. Time of sowing for cotton is :
(a) 1 April to 15 May
(b) 1 January to 15 January
(c) December
(d) June
Answer:
(a) 1 April to 15 May

3. Seed rate for pearl popcorn is :
(a) 7 kg per acre
(b) 20 kg per acre
(c) 25 kg per acre
(d) None
Answer:
(a) 7 kg per acre

4. Time of harvesting of Kharif crop is :
(a) January-February
(b) October-November
(c) April-May
(d) Whenever

5. State which is at the top position in India in the production of pulses is :
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Punjab
(d) Gujarat.
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

True/False:

1. Varieties of Basmati rice are Punjab basmati-3, Pusa Punjab basmati-1509, Pusa basmati-1121.
Answer:
True

2. In the production of Maize, the United States of America is at the top position in the world whereas Andhra Pradesh is at the top position in India.
Answer:
True

3. Moong requires a cold climate.
Answer:
False

4. Soyabean belongs to both pulses as well as oilseed categories.
Answer:
True

5. Disease which can affect Soyabean yellow mosaic virus.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Harvest the Moong crop when about ………………. are mature.
Answer:
80% of pods

2. Maize needs an environment which is considerable……………….. from the germination to flowering.
Answer:
moist and warm

3. Soyabean requires ………….. climate.
Answer:
warm

4. High doses of …………… application to basmati should be avoided.
Answer:
nitrogen

5. Seed rate for Soyabean is …………… seed per acre.
Answer:
25-30 kg

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

October 1, 2024September 30, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Fibre to Fabric Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 24)

Question 1.
Name any two natural fibres obtained from plants.
Answer:
Natural Fibres obtained from Plants : (1) Cotton, (2) Bamboo.

Question 2.
Name any two natural fibres obtained from animals.
Answer:
Natural fibres obtained from animals : (1) wool, (2) silk.

Question 3.
Name any three animals which provide us wool.
Answer:
Animals that provide wool : (1) sheep, (2) yak, (3) goat.

Question 4.
Why do some animals have a thick coat of hairs ?
Answer:
The hair of some animals is dense because the wool-giving sheep that are found in cold regions have a dense coat of hair over their body, so that they can keep their body warm in winter. Hair traps a lot of air. This air is a poor conductor of heat and prevents the body heat to escape to the surrounding environment and thus keeps the sheep warm.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 29)

Question 1.
What difference in smell you notice on burning silk thread, thread and wool ?
Answer:
The process of burning of silk gives a smell like burning of meat. When cotton thread bums, it gives smell like burning of paper but the burning of wool gives strong smell like burning of hair.

Question 2.
What type of ash is formed in the above activity ?
Answer:
The ash left after burning of cotton thread is of grey colour. The burning of silk thread and woollen thread produces ash like hollow bead of black colour.

Question 3.
Does the smell of burning of silk thread is same as the smell of burning woollen thread ?
Answer:
No. The smell of burning of silk thread is just like burning of hair while the smell of burning of wool thread is like cooking meat.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Fibre to Fabric Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Wool is obtained from the …………….. of sheep, goat and yak.
Answer:
hairs

(ii) Long hair on the body protect animals from ………………
Answer:
cold

(iii) Removal of fleece from the skin of animal is called ………………
Answer:
shearing

(iv) Rearing of silkworm is called ………………….
Answer:
sericulture

(v) The process of unwinding the filaments from the boiled cocoons, is called ………….. .
Answer:
reeling

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’

Column ‘B’

1. Scouring

2. Sericulture

3. Protein

4. Mulberry leaves

5. Lohi

(a) Food of silkworm

(b) Sheeps found in Rajasthan and Punjab

(d) Rearing of silkworms

(e) Cleaning sheared fleece

Answer:

Column ‘A’

Column ‘B’

1. Scouring

2. Sericulture

3. Protein

4. Mulberry leaves

5. Lohi

(e) Cleaning sheared fleece

(d) Rearing of silkworms

(a) Food of silkworm

(b) Sheep found in Rajasthan and Punjab

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The fibre which is not produced by animals:
(a) Angora Wool
(b) Wool
(c) Jute
(d) Silk
Answer:
(c) Jute.

Question (ii)
Wool is commonly obtained from:
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Yak
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Sheep.

Question (iii)
Washing of sheared hair is called:
(a) Scouring
(b) Sorting
(c) Shearing
(d) Dyeing
Answer:
(a) Scouring.

Question (iv)
Wool is chemically:
(a) Fat
(b) Protein
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Fat.

Question (v)
The animal that does not yield wool is:
(a) Alpaca
(b) Woolly dog
(c) Camel
(d) Goat
Answer:
(b) Woolly dog.

4. Write True or False:

(i) Air is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer:
True

(ii) Air trapped in long hair does not allow body heat to escape from body.
Answer:
True

(iii) In Tibet and Ladakh, wool is obtained from yak.
Answer:
False

(iv) Rearing of silk moths is called apiculture.
Answer:
True

(v) The cover around the body of caterpillar is called cocoon.
Answer:
False

(vi) Tassar silk and moonga silk are produced by silk moth who have been feeding on non-mulberry trees.
Answer:
False

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Names any two plant fibres and animal fibres.
Answer:
Fibres obtained from plants : (1) Husk fibre, (2) Cotton.
Fibres obtained from animals : (1) Wool, (2) Silk.

Question (ii)
What is sericulture ?
Answer:
Sericulture. Cultivation of silkworms to obtain silk is called sericulture.

Question (iii)
Name the common animals who yield fleece.
Answer:
(1) Yak, (2) Sheep, (3) Camel (4) Goat

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What do you understand by Angora and Kashmere wool ?
Answer:
North Angora wool. It is obtained from goats found in mountainous places like Jammu and Kashmir.
Kashmere Wool. Kashmere wool is woven into pashmina shawls.

Question (ii)
Write the states where the following breeds of sheep are found : Lohi, Bakharwal, Nali and Marwari.
Answer:

Types of Sheep	State where they are found
Lohi	Punjab, Rajasthan
Bakharwal	Jammu, Kashmir
Nali	Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
Marwari	Gujarat

Question (iii)
Write all the steps involved in processing fibres into wool.
Answer:
The Different Stages of Rise to the North

Shearing or cutting
Scouring
Sorting
Combing
Dyeing
Spinning or weaving.

Question (iv)
Why do some animals have a thick coat of hair ?
Answer:
The hair of some animals is dense because the wool-giving sheep that are found in cold regions have a dense coat of hair over their body, so that they can keep their body warm in winter.
Hair traps a lot of air. This air is a poor conductor of heat and prevents the body heat from circulating in the external environment which keeps the sheep warm.

Question (v)
How is silkmoth reared ?
Answer:
Rearing of Silkworm. The female silkworm lays hundreds of eggs at a time. These eggs are carefully collected on cloth strips or paper and kept in healthy conditions, at suitable heat and humidity conditions. The eggs are kept warm to a suitable temperature to allow the larvae to hatch. The larvae, called caterpillars or silkworms, are housed on mulberry leaves.

They eat these leaves day and night and increase in size considerably. Then these are kept in clean bamboo trays with fresh mulberry leaves. After 25-30 days, they stop eating and the caterpillars are moved to bamboo chambers to make cocoons. So the twigs are placed in a tray, with which the cocoons clrng. Caterpillar or silkworms form cocoons in which silkworm develop.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Write all the steps in processing silk from cocoons.
Answer:
The process of making silk from the cocoon. The cocoon has a continuous growth of insect inside it. Silk thread is obtained from the cocoon of the silkworm. Silk threads are used to make silk fabrics. These soft silk threads can be as strong as steel wires. There are many types of silkworms that look different from each other.

The different textures (rough, soft, shiny etc.) of silks like tusser silk, mooga silk, consa silk etc. are obtained from different types of insect cocoons. The most common silkworm is the mulberry silkworm. The silk obtained from this worm is very soft, shiny and flexible. It can be painted in beautiful colours. Sericulture or rearing of silkworms is a very old occupation in India. India produces a lot of silk commercially.

Question (ii)
Draw a labeled diagram and explain the life cycle silkmoth.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric 1
Life Cycle of Silkmoth. The life cycle of the silkworm is summarized in the following steps:
Step 1. The female silkworm lays eggs on the leaves of mulberry.

Step 2. The eggs give birth to larvae that take on an insect-like structure over the next two weeks called a caterpillar or silkworm.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Fibre to Fabric Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The wool is obtained from the …………….. of sheep, goat and yak.
Answer:
skin

(ii) Long hair on the body of animals protect them from ……………… .
Answer:
cold

(iii) The process of yielding wool from the skin of animal is known as ………………….. .
Answer:
shearing

(iv) Rearing silk worm is called ………………. .
Answer:
sericulture

(v) The process of removing threads from the boiled cocoon is called ………………….. .
Answer:
reeling.

2. Match the Column I with Column II:

Column I

Column II

1. Scouring

2. Mulberry leaves

3. Yak Cocoon

(a) Yields silk fibres

(b) Wool yielding animal

(c) Food of silk worm.

(d) Reeling

(e) Cleaning sheared skin.

Answer:

Column I

Column II

1. Scouring

2. Mulberry leaves

3. Yak

4. Cocoon

(e) Cleaning sheared skin.

(b) Wool yielding animal

(a) Yields silk fibres.

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
We get from yak:
(a) silk
(b) cotton
(c) wool
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) wool.

Question (ii)
For making Pashmina shawls, wool is obtained from:
(a) Yak
(b) Camel
(c) Sheep
(d) Angora goat.
Answer:
(d) Angora goat.

Question (iii)
In South America wool is obtained:
(a) Llama and Angora goat
(b) Llama and yak
(c) Sheep and Llama
(d) Llama and Alpaca.
Answer:
(d) Llama and Alpaca.

Question (iv)
Bakharwal breed of sheep is found:
(a) In Punjab
(b) In Rajasthan
(c) In Haryana
(d) In Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:
(d) In Jammu and Kashmir.

Question (v)
The sheep’s hair are mostly cut in:
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Both Summer & Winter
(d) Neither very hot or cold season.
Answer:
(a) Summer.

Question (vi)
Process of taking out silk yarn from cocoons:
(a) Rearing silk worms
(b) Sericulture
(c) Reeling
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Reeling.

Question (vii)
Lohi breed of sheep is found in:
(a) Punjab and Rajasthan
(b) Punjab and Himachal
(c) Punjab and Gujarat
(d) Punjab and Jammu.
Answer:
(a) Punjab and Rajasthan.

4. State True or False:

(i) Pashmina Shawl is made from llama and alpaca wool.
Answer:
True

(ii) Wool is chemically a carbohydrate.
Answer:
False

(iii) Warm silk is obtained from leaf-eating insects.
Answer:
True

(iv) The wool obtained from the Marwari sheep (breed of Gujarat) is very soft.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do hair help animals to keep them warm ?
Answer:
Hair trap a lot of air. As air is bad conductor of heat so it does not allow heat of the body to go to the surroundings and therefore, keeps the animal warm.

Question 2.
From where wool is derived ?
Answer:
Hairy skin of animals.

Question 3.
Name wool yielding animals.
Answer:
Yak, Sheep, Goat, Lama, Alpaca.

Question 4.
What is pashmina ?
Answer:
Pashmina is soft wool obtained from Kashmiri goat.

Question 5.
In which part of India is Yak wool commonly seen ?
Answer:
Tibet and Ladakh.

Question 6.
Which animal is commonly reared for wool ?
Answer:
Sheep.

Question 7.
What is called woollen thread ?
Answer:
Fiber.

Question 8.
In winter, which food is given to sheep ?
Answer:
Leaves, grains, dry fodder.

Question 9.
Which instrument is used for shearing ?
Answer:
Machine similar to those used by barbers.

Question 10.
In which season, fleece is sheared off ?
Answer:
Summer or hot season.

Question 11.
Name some Indian breed of sheep.
Answer:
Lohi, Rampur bushair, Nali, Marwari, Bakharwal, Patanwad.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down the different steps for obtaining wool from sheep.
Answer:
Steps for obtaining wool
Shearing, scouring, sorting, drying, dyeing, spinning and weaving.

Question 2.
In which part of India, sheep are reared for wool ?
Answer:
Hills in Kashmir, Himachal, Uttranchal, Arunachal, Sikkim and plains of Haryana. Punjab, Rajasthan and Gujrat.

Question 3.
Why does shearing not hurt the sheep ?
Answer:
Hair grow on uppermost layer of the skin, which consists of dead cells. So sheep do not feel pain of the time of shearing.

Question 4.
Why is fleece scoured ?
Answer:
Fleece is scoured to remove dirt, grease and dust from it. This process is known as scouring

Question 5.
What happens when silk fibre and artificial silk thread is burned ?
Answer:
Burning of silk fibres produces no smell and no residue is left behind.
While burning of artificial silk thread produces pungent smell and a fluffy residue formed.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in brief the process of obtaining silk ?
Answer:
Silk is obtained from silk moth which are reared and their cocoons are collected to get silk fibre. The process involves two steps:
(i) Rearing silk worms.
(ii) Processing silk.

(i) Rearing silk worms. The eggs layed by female silk moth are stored carefully on strips of cloth or paper and kept under hygienic conditions and suitable temperature and humidity.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric 2
Sometimes eggs are warmed to hatch larvae and these larvae are fed on fresh leaves of mulberry tree. These larvae called caterpillars or silkworms eat day and night to grow into enormous sizes.

These larvae are kept in clean bamboo trays along with freshly chopped mulberry leaves. After 20 to 25 days, the caterpillass or silkworms stop eating and move to a tiny chamber of bamboo tray to spin cocoons. Inside cocoon, develops the silk moth.

(ii) Processing silk. A pile of cocoons is collected and kept under the sun. or boiled or exposed to steam to separate out the silk fibres. These silk fibres are reeled and then spun into silk threads which are woven to give silk cloth.

Question 2.
Describe in brief the steps involved in obtaining wool from sheep.
Answer:
Processing of silk involves the following steps:
(i) Boiling. First cocoons are first boiled in hot water then treated in ovens to kill larvae inside. If in case of larvae a not killed, they are allowed to grow. They will break the cocoon and thereby reducing the length of the silk fibre. The hot water softens the silk gum to the unwinding silk fibre as one continuous thread.

(ii) Reeling. It is the process of taking out the thread from the cocoon. Reeling is done with the help of special machines.

(iii) Throwing. In this step raw silk is twisted to produce thrown silk. It prevents the silk from splittings into individual fibres.

(iv) Deying. Thrown silk is then dyed for making coloured fabrics. Dyed Silk fibres are spun into silk threads, which are waven into silk clothes.