Class 9 – Page 3 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Democracy and Election Politics

October 16, 2024October 15, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Democracy and Election Politics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Democracy and Election Politics

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Democracy and Election Politics Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the
Answer:
President.

Question 2.
First Lok Sabha Elections were held in _________
Answer:
1952.

Question 3.
Elected Member of Parliament is known as _________ in India.
Answer:
M.P.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
People’s representatives are
(i) Appointed
(ii) Elected by the people for a specific period
(iii) Permanently elected by the people
(iv) Selected by the President.
Answer:
(ii) Elected by the people for a specific period.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not the pillar of Democracy?
(i) Political Parties
(ii) Fair and free elections
(iii) Poverty
(iv) Adult Suffrage.
Answer:
(iii) Poverty.

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) Statements :

Question 1.
There is a Multi Party System in India.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The function of Election Commission is to direct, to control and to supervise the election.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the designation of the elected representatives of the Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
They are called Panch.

Question 2.
What is the designation of the elected representatives of the State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
They are designated as M.L.A.

Question 3.
Give the names of the election methods.
Answer:
Direct elections and Indirect elections.

Question 4.
Name the election method by which President and Vice President of India are elected.
Answer:
They are elected by indirect elections. They are elected by the representatives of the people.

Question 5.
Which institution is responsible for holding elections in India?
Answer:
Election Commission is responsible for holding elections in India.

Question 6.
Enumerate any two features of Indian Electoral System.
Answer:

Elections in India are conducted on the basis of adult franchise.
One candidate is elected from one electoral constituency.

Question 7.
Where can the petition regarding election dispute be filed?
Answer:
Election dispute related petition can be filed in the High Court.

Question 8.
Describe any two functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:

Election Commission prepares voters’ list and even changes it from time to time.
Election Commission gives recognition to different political parties.

Question 9.
How many seats are there in Punjab for State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
There are 117 seats in Punjab State Legislative Assembly.

Question 10.
Who conducts the election process in India?
Answer:
The election process in India is conducted by the Election Commission in India. .

Question 11.
Who appoints the election commissioner and deputy election commissioners?
Answer:
They are appointed by the President of India.

Question 12.
What is the tenure of the office of the Chief Election Commissioner and Deputy Election Commissioners? °
Answer:
They are appointed for a period of 6 years or’till they attain the age of 65 years whichever comes earlier.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the significance of election in democratic countries.
Answer:

Without election, democracy is not possible. Without election, rule of the people is neither possible nor desirable.
Without election it is not possible to select the representatives. It is not possible for all the people to sit at one place and select the representatives on the basis of knowledge and education. Hence elections are needed for a democratic system.

Question 2.
Draw the flow chart of the stages of election process.
Answer:

Demarcation of the constituencies
Declaration of date of election
Filing of the nomination form
Withdrawal of nomination form
Election campaign
Closure of canvassing
Polling of votes
Counting of votes
Declaration of results.

Question 3.
What is meant by election campaign?
Answer:
After the last date of the withdrawal of nomination papers, all the candidates are given minimum of 20 days for canvassing. It is called election campaign. During the time of election campaign, all the candidates campaign for themselves to get maximum votes. Political parties and candidates announce their election manifesto to impress the public. Big promises are made with the public. Election campaign comes to an end 48 hours before the beginning of elections.

Question 4.
What do you mean by booth capturing?
Answer:
Enclosure of polling booth by one person or a group, forcing the polling staff to surrender, forcible possession on the polling booth is called booth capturing. According to law if anyone forcibly does so he will get minimum of 6 months of imprisonent and fine and the punishment can be increased upto 2 years. If any government official does so, he will get imprisonment of one year along with fine. This punishment can be increased up to 3 years.

Question 5.
Describe the role of political parties in election.
Answer:
In a train called democracy, political parties act as its wheels without which elections are not possible. We cannot think democracy without political parties. Whichever type of government is there, political parties are always there. It hardly matters whether a dictatorship like North Korea is there or a democratic set up like India, political parties are always there. In India, there is multiparty system. In India, there are 7 National parties and about 58 regional parties. If one counts all the political parties registered with the Election Commission, this number reaches up to 1700.

Question 6.
Name any four National Political Parties.
Answer:

Indian National Congress
Bhartiya Janta Party
Bahujan Samaj Party
Communist Party of India.

Question 7.
Name any four Regional Political Parties.
Answer:

Shiromani Akali Dal (Punjab)
Shiv Sena (Maharashtra)
Aam Aadmi Party (Delhi and Punjab)
Telugu Desham Party (Andhra Pradesh.)

Question 8.
How can the Chief Election Commissioner be removed from his office?
Answer:
The tenure of Chief Election Commissioner is 6 years or age of 65 years, whichever comes earlier but he can be removed even before the completion of his term. If both the houses of Parliament pass a censure motion with two-third majority and send that motion to the President, who can then remove him from his post.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in brief the salient features of Indian Electoral System.
Answer:
The main features of Indian Electoral System are :

Universal Adult Franchise: In India the system of universal adult franchise has been adopted for the election of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Every person who is a citizen of India and who is not less than eighteen years of age has the right to exercise his/her vote in election of members of the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies.
Direct Election: The Constitution provides for the system of direct election of the members of the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly of every state by the eligible voters.
Joint Electoral System: The Constitution of India provides for a system of joint electorates. Under the joint electorate system every voter in constituency is entitled to participate in electing representative from the constituency.
Single Member Constituency: The Constitution of India provides for a single member constituency. For this purpose the entire country is divided in 543 contituencies. Belonging voters elect their representatives. But only one representative represents his/her constitutency.

Question 2.
Explain in brief the function of Election Commission.
Answer:

Election Commission supervises, directs and controls the elections. Such elections include elections to Parliament, the legislature of every state and to the offices of the President and Vice-President.
Election Commission prepares electoral rolls and delimitations of constituencies. It also considers the objections raised in this regard. Revision of electoral rolls takes place before every general elections.
Election Commission appoints returning officers and assistant returning officers to conduct the election.
Election Commission allots election symbols to political parties and to the independent candidates.
The Election Commission is responsible to conduct free and fair election.
The Election Commission is authorised to recognise a political party.
The Election Commission fixes the timetable for the election.
The Election Commission prepares a code of conduct for all political parties and candidates and independent candidates who. are contesting election.
All election results are announced by the Election Commissioner.

Question 3.
Explain in brief the stages of Election Process.
Answer:
India is a democratic country. But India has adopted indirect democracy. The administration is run by the representatives of the people, who are elected for a fixed term. In India election procedure is as follows :

Constituencies: The first important task in election is delimitation of constituencies.
List of Voters: First, a temporary list of voters is prepared. If anybody’s name is excluded in the list, he can ask for inclusion of his/her name. But such a request is to by made within a fixed time.
Appointment: Senior and Junior staff for election purposes are appointed and supervised.
Polling Station: In each constitutency polling stations are established and fixed number of voters are directed to cast their votes there.
Filing of the Nomination Papers: After the appointment of the date of election, nomination papers are field in favour of candidate.
Withdrawal of Nomination: Candidates are allowed to withdraw their name from election. But this is to be done befsore the last date for withdrawal.
Scrutiny and Objections: On the fixed date nominations papers are scrutinised and those papers, which are not proper, are rejected and the names of eligible candidates are announced.
Propaganda. With the announcement of election, political parties and independent candidates start propaganda and try to influence the voters.
Polling: On the day of the polling, holiday is declared so that each voter can cast his vote. At polling booth voters are given ballot paper and the voter stamps against the name of the candidate, whom he/she wants to vote. After that the voter puts the ballot paper in the ballot box.
Counting of Votes: On the fixed date, ballot boxes are opened in the presence of the representatives of the candidates and votes are counted. A candidate getting the highest votes is declared elected. If a candidate fails to get one-sixth of the votes then he loses his security also.

Question 4.
Write a note on the importance of Elections.
Answer:
The election system is a political device through which a democratic state creates among its citizens a sense of involvement and participation in public affairs. The importance of election is as under :

Elections give chance to voters to take part in the political affairs of the country.
The election serves as a plebiscite, referendum or a mandate. Elections are the instruments for choosing the leaders and also determining the will of the people. Through election voters approve or reject the policies of the government.
Rosenan uses the term support-building as an all-embracing function of election. Through election legitimacy of the government is established.
Elections provide political stability.
Another important function of the elections is to bring the individual citizen into closer contact with the political system. It gives them the feeling that they are important part of the political system of the country.
Elections provide a means of protection to every voter.
Elections provide education to the voters. In fact, elections are training grounds for the people in the art of government.
Elections serve important functions in the area of political recruitment and training.
Elections are important agencies of political communications between the people and the government.
In a democratic state, elections are the means through which the will of people is expressed. Voters decide who shall govern them. Conflicts are decided by ballots and not by bullets.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Democracy and Election Politics Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What type of democracy exists in India?
(а) Representative Democracy
(b) Direct Democracy
(c) Monarchical Democracy
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Representative Democracy.

Question 2.
After how many years elections in India are held for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
(a) 2 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 7 years.
Answer:
(c) 5 years.

Question 3.
What is the age to cast vote in India?
(a) 15 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 25 years.
Answer:
(b) 18 years.

Question 4.
Election Commission has members.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
Answer:
(c) 3.

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Vice President.
Answer:
(a) President.

Question 6.
How many Lok Sabha elections have been conducted till today?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 16.
Answer:
(d) 16.

Question 7.
When were first elections held in India?
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1955.
Answer:
(c) 1952.

Question 8.
When were 16th Lok Sabha elections held in India?
(a) 2006
(b) 2008
(c) 2007
(d) 2014.
Answer:
(d) 2014.

Question 9.
Name the state which used voter’s card for the first time.
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Haryana.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_________ are of great importance in a democratic country.
Answer:
Elections

Question 2.
Chief Election Commissioner is appointed for_______ years.
Answer:
Six

Question 3.
Elections of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies are held after _________ years.
Answer:
Five

Question 4.
There are _________ national parties in India.
Answer:
Seven

Question 5.
The elected members of Municipalities are known as _________
Answer:
Municipal Councillors

Question 6.
Election Commissioners are appointed by the _________
Answer:
President.

True/False:

Question 1.
Prime Minister can remove Chief Election Commissioner.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Elections are conducted by the government.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Elected members of Lok Sabha are known as M.L.A.S.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The function of amending voters’ list is of the Election Commission.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Election Commission gives sanction to political parties.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which system of government was adopted in India in 1950?
Answer:
Democratic form of government.

Question 2.
Which representative system is adopted in India?
Answer:
Regional Representative System.

Question 3.
After how many years elections for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly are held?
Answer:
5 years.

Question 4.
How many members of Lok Sabha are elected by the people?
Answer:
543.

Question 5.
Give one condition of democratic elections.
Answer:
Every one has the right to cast one vote and value of each vote is same.

Question 6.
Give one demerit of electoral competition.
Answer:
It leads to the creation of factionalism in the constituency.

Question 7.
What do you understand by general election?
Answer:
When election takes place after a fixed term, it is called general election. It is a democratic method used for choosing people’s representatives.

Question 8.
What is mid-term election?
Answer:
When the general election is held before the completion of term, it is called mid-term election.

Question 9.
What is by-election?
Answer:
When election is held to fill a particular seat, it is called by-election.

Question 10.
Give one feature of the Indian election system.
Answer:
Integrated election system is adopted in India.

Question 11.
Who is a voter in India?
Answer:
One who is of the age of 18 years and is registered with the election commission is a voter.

Question 12.
What is meant by voters’ list?
Answer:
The list in which names of voters’ of a constituency are given is known as Voters’ List.

Question 13.
Can Election Commission derecognise any political party?
Answer:
Yes, Election Commission can derecognise any National or regional party if they are unable to fulfil the required conditions.

Question 14.
In which part and Articles of the Constitution, the mention of Election is given?
Answer:
15th part and Articles 324-329A.

Question 15.
How many members does Election Commission have?
Answer:
Election Commission has 3 members-Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.

Question 16.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
Answer:
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President.

Question 17.
Give the tenure of Election Commissioners.
Answer:
They are appointed for a time period of 6 years.

Question 18.
Give one functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:
Election Commission conducts elections in the country and prepares voters’ list.

Question 19.
What is the importance of Election Symbol?
Answer:
Many of the Indian voters are illiterate. That’s why, just by looking at election symbol, they can cast their vote to their candidate.

Question 20.
What is meant by Election Petition?
Answer:
If any candidate uses wrong means to win election, opposition parties can file a case in the High Court and this is known as election petition.

Question 21.
Who hears the dispute related petition to election?
Answer:
The petition related to the dispute of election is heard in the High Court or the Supreme Court.

Question 22.
Give one demerit of the Indian election system.
Answer:
Communalism greatly affects the election process which is an obstacle in the way of social progress.

Question 23.
Give one way of bringing reforms in Elections.
Answer:
Those who try to capture booths must be severely punished.

Question 24.
In which year the first elections were held in India?
Answer:
In 1952.

Question 25.
Give one election-related reforms done by the Indian Government.
Answer:
Through 61 constitutional amendment, the age of casting vote was changed from 21 to 18 years.

Question 26.
Which methods are used for election campaigning?
Answer:
Election manifesto, meetings, door to door campaigning etc.

Question 27.
When does election campaign end?
Answer:
48 hours before the election.

Question 28.
Who conducts election in the country?
Answer:
Election Commission.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give any three qualities of the Indian voter.
Answer:

He must be the citizen of India.
He must be of the age of 18 years or more.
His name must be in the voters’ list.

Question 2.
Tell something about the nature of elections in India.
Answer:

Due to 16 general elections in the country, election-related consciousness has aroused among the people.
Now people have started taking interest in elections.
Voters have come to know about the policies and programmes of political parties.

Question 3.
Write a short note on election symbols.
Answer:
Election Commission allots symbols to political parties participating in elections. These symbols are identification of political parties. In India maximum voters are illiterate. So by recognising election symbol they choose their favourite party and give vote to that party.

Question 4.
How does the independence of Election Commission affect the functioning of Indian democracy?
Answer:
To conduct elections in the country, the Constitution has arranged for an independent Election Commission. The independence of Election Commission has greatly affected Indian democracy. Its independence has given great contribution in strengthening and making Indian democracy a successful democracy. Due to its independence, it has been able to conduct free and fair 16 Lok Sabha elections. Only due to independent and impartial elections, people have great faith in democracy.

Question 5.
Explain two reforms to change the election process in India.
Answer:
Following reforms are necessary in the Indian election process:

Impartiality: Elections must be conducted in a fair manner. Sitting government must not have any interference in election and it must not use official machinery to win elections.
Expenses: People spend much more money than the fixed amount to win elections. It must be stopped.

Question 6.
What do you ‘mean by the cancellation of election?
Answer:
The meaning of cancellation of election is that if during campaigning, any candidate dies due to some reason, election for that constituency stands cancelled. In 1992, a change was rpade in the People’s Representative Act and it was said that in case of death of any independent candidate, election will not be cancelled.

Question 7.
Explain any two stages of the election process in India.
Answer:
Given below are the two stages of the election process in India :

Electoral Notification: The election process is formally set into motion by a presidential announcement calling upon electors to elect their representatives to the Lok Sabha. At the same time the Election Commission issues notification specifying the timetable for nominations, scrutity, withdrawals and polling.
Filing of Nomination Papers: The Election Commission fixes last date for filing the nomination papers for election. The nomination papers of the candidates are filed with the returning officer appointed by the Election Commission.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give five arguments in favour of adult franchise in India.
Answer:

In democracy, power lies within the hands of the people. That’s why on the basis of equality, every one should have the right to vote.
The impact of laws is same on all the citizens. That’s why all the citizens must have the right to vote.
The right to vote is very much necessary for individual development.
The government elected through adult franchise is more powerful because it is a type of government which is elected through the constitutional means.
Adult franchise encourages political consciousness and people get political education with adult franchise.

Question 2.
Explain different methods of election campaign.
Answer:
As soon as Election Commission issues notification for the date of polling, different political parties and independent candidates start their election campaign within prescribed rules.

The following are the important techniques of election campaign :
1. Election Manifesto. Every main political party and sometimes independent candidates issue Election Manifesto. Election Manifesto is a document which contains the policies and programme of political parties. By comparing the election manifesto of the various political parties voters can understand the views and policies of different parties on different issues.

2. Public Meetings and Processions. Members of different political parties and candidates arrange public meetings and processions by which they try to persuade the voters in their favour through their speeches and personality. For example, Mr. Narender Modi, in his election campaign in 2014 of 45 days, addressed 285 scheduled public meetings, reaching out in person to more than 50 million people.

3. Wall-paintings’, Posters and Big Leaflets etc. Wall-paintings, posters etc. are other important techniques of election-campaign which not only make colourful different walls of cities, but also print the minds of common men.

4. T.V. and Radjo. In the present age, the most sophisticated way of campaigning is to broadcast speeches of leaders of political parties on T.V. and Radio. In 1977, it was started for the first time in India and the system continues till date.
5. Door to Door Canvassing. In this technique the leaders of different political parties go from door to door or area to area canvassing for their candidates.

6. Slogans. It is a very popular and influential technique of election campaign. In 1971, ‘Garibi Hatao’ and in 1980, ‘Indira Lao Desh Bachao’ were very popular slogans of Congress (I).

7. Flags and Banners. Flags and banners are another method of election campaign.

8. Loudspeakers and Gramophones. Different party-workers and candidates arrange different types of vechicles and fit loudspeakers and gramophones on them for noisy canvassing from mohalla to mohalla.

Question 3.
Write five reasons of less people’s participation in elections in India.
Answer:
Indian democracy is the largest democracy in the world. During the 16th Lok Sabha elections in 2014, the number of voters stood at more than 81 crore 40 lakhs. But many voters in India do not cast their vote.

The reasons for less people’s participation are given below :

Illiteracy: A large number of Indian population is illiterate. An illiterate person cannot understand the meaning of voting right and he even hardly knows how to cast his caste to the best candidate.
Poverty: Poor people cannot even think of contesting elections. They don’t even understand the importance of their vote and are even ready to sell their vote.
Unemployment: A lot many individuals are unemployed. They don’t understand the value of their vote and generally sell their vote to the candidate whosoever wish to buy it.
Non-participation in politics: People do not participate in political activities as they consider it a wastage of time.
Election booths situated at far off places: Many a time election booths are situated at far off places and people don’t like to move to such places only to cast their vote.

Question 4.
Explain the composition of the Election Commission.
Answer:
In the Election Commission, there can be a Chief Election Commissioner and few more other members. This number is fixed by the President. In 1989, Congress government appointed two more election commissioners but the government of National Front changed this decision. On 1st October, 1993, two new Election Commissioners, M.S. Gill and G.V.G. Krishnamurthy were appointed and an important step was taken for making it a three member Commission. In December 1993, the Indian Parliament passed a bill and made it a multi member Commission. The Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners (total of 3) are appointed by the President.

Question 5.
Mention main drawbacks in Indian electoral system.
Answer:
Following are the major drawbacks in Indian electoral system :
1. The distortion df Seat-Vote Ratio. The first and foremost defect of the present electoral system is that there is no relationship between the votes secured by a party and its stsrength in the Assembly or the Parliament. The number of seats secured by a particular party is not proportionate to the votes polled in their favour.

2. Money Power. Another important drawback of Indian electoral system is the growing influence of money in elections. The expenses incurred on elections are so huge that parties tend to give ticket to a millionaire. The high cost of electioneering has resulted in corrupt practices.

3. Independent Candidates. Independent candidates are also proving headache for Indian electoral system. These candidates join hands with any particular party according to opportunity.

4. Role of Caste. Right from the selection of a candidate by a party to the election of a legislator by the voters the caste factor plays a key role.

5. Misuse of Public Media. It is being alleged that the Congress was using the governmnt monopoly in radio and television for the party. This thing has gone a long way in helping the party in power by projecting its image. These public media have thus been abused.

6. Importance of Individual Candidates. The existing system of election gives more importance to the individual candidates than the political party. The result is that these important individuals dictate their terms for remaining in the party.

7. Defect in Single Member Constituency System. Election on the basis of single-member constituency system results in tension and bitterness among different sections of the population.

Question 6.
Examine the major suggestions for electoral reforms.
Answer:
Following remedies are suggested to improve the Indian Electoral System.

The present electoral system of single-member constituencies should be replaced by system of proportional representation.
Strict action should be taken against those who indulge in booth capturing and bogus voting.
There should be a provision for recall.
The elections including the polling should be so conducted that the people are in a position to exercise their franchise freely, without intimidation, coercion, interference, undue inducement by political parties and others.
The number of polling booths in a constituency should be increased.
The electoral rolls should be open for additions and deletions every three months after the general revision is completed.
Every effort should be made to check the role of money in elections.
Election petitions should be disposed of expeditiously. ‘
The state must share election expenses.
Ministers and other officials must not misuse the official machinery.
Eligible voters should be given identity cards.
The Election Commission has suggested that election need not be countermanded on the death of any candidate.
Every political party, registered with the Election Commission, should publish its accounts annually.

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

PSEB 9th Class Science Guide Structure of the Atom Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Compare the properties of electron, proton and neutron.
Answer:

Particle	Charge (e)	Mass (m)	Charge/Mass (e/m)
Electron	– 1.6022 × 10¹⁹C	9.109 × 10²⁸g	– 1.76 × 10⁸
Proton	+ 1.6022 × 10^-19C	1.672 × 10^-24g	+ 9.58 × 10⁴
Neutron	Zero	1.675 × 10^-24g	Zero

Question 2.
What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson model of atom?
Answer:
Limitations of J.J. Thomson model of atom

It could not explain stability of the atom.
It could not explain hydrogen spectrum.

Question 3.
What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of atom?
Answer:
Limitations of Rutherford’s model of atom

It can’t explain stability of the atom.
It can’t explain hydrogen spectrum.

Question 4.
Describe Bohr’s model of atom.
Answer:
The main points of Bohr’s model of atom are:
1. An atom has three types of particles called fundamental particles. These are electrons, protons and neutrons.
2. The protons and neutrons are present in the nucleus, present in the centre. The electrons are present around the nucleus and at very large distances from it. There is a large vacant space between the nucleus and the electrons.
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 1
3. An atom is electrically neutral as the number of protons is equal to the number of electrons.
4. The electrons are revolving around the nucleus in fixed circular paths which are called energy levels or energy shells or orbits. The energy levels or energy shells can be counted in two ways 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 or as K, L, M, N, O, P. The counting starts from the centre outwards.
5. The various energy levels are arranged in order of increasing energy. The order of energy is 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 < 5 or K < L < M < N < O ………..
6. The energy of an electron in an atom is quantised.
7. There is no change in the energy of the electrons as long as they keep on revolving in the same energy level.
8. The angular momentum of an electron in an atom is quantised.
9. The change in energy can take place only when the electron jumps from one energy level to the other. If the electron gains energy from outside, it jumps from lower energy to the higher energy level. If the electron jumps from higher energy level to the lower energy level, it loses energy.

Question 5.
Compare all the proposed models of atom given in the chapter 3 of the text.
Answer:
Comparing Thomson’s model, Rutherford’s model and Bohr’s model of atom.
A. Thomson’s model of atom.
1. According to Thomson, an atom may be regarded, a uniform sphere of positive electricity (protons) in which negatively charged electrons are embedded like the seeds in a watermelon.
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 2
2. The total positive charge is equal to the total negative charge on all the electrons so that atoms on the whole is electrically neutral.

B. Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom.
The main features of Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom are:

Atom has a dense, heavy, positively charged central part called nucleus.
The electrons are present at very large distances from the nucleus.
The total positive charge on the nucleus is equal to the total ~ve charge on all the electrons so that atom on the whole is electrically neutral.
The electrons are revolving around the nucleus so that attractive force of the nucleus is balanced by the centrifugal force (just like planets revolve around the sun).
It is different from Thomson’s model, because in Thomson’s model of atom, the total mass, positive charge and electrons are uniformly distributed

C. Bohr’s model of atom. Described in given above.

Question 6.
Summarize the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the first eighteen elements.
Answer:
The various rules for writing the electronic configuration of first elements are:
1. The energy levels or energy shells are filled in order of increasing energies. The electrons first enter the K shell (n =

which is closest to the nucleus. This is followed by L shell (n = 2), M shell (n = 3) and so on. Here V represents the number of the shell.
The maximum number of electrons in any shell is given as 2n² (n = No. of shells).
The outermost energy shell cannot have more than 8 electrons. The next inner shell called penultimate shell cannot have more than 18 electrons.
It is not necessary that an energy level or shell is fully filled before the filling in the next energy level starts. In fact filling of electrons in a new shell starts when any shell contains 8 electrons.

Question 7.
Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.
Answer:
Valency: It is the combining capacity of an atom of the element and is numerically equal to the number of electrons present in the valence shell of an atom (if the no. of electrons is 1 to 4) or eight minus the number of electrons present in the valence shell of an atom (if the no. of electrons is more than 4).
e.g. Silicon (₁₄Si) has electronic configuration = 2, 8, 4
∴ its valency = 4 (No. of electrons in its valence shell)
Oxygen (₈O) has electronic configuration = 2, 6
∴ its valency = 8 – 6 = 2 (8 – No. of electrons in the valence shell)

Question 8.
Explain with examples

Atomic number
Mass number
Isotopes
Isobars. Give any two uses of isotopes.

Answer:

Atomic number. It is the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom of an element.
Mass number. It is the sum of total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom.
Isotopes. These are the atoms of the same element having same atomic number but different mass numbers.
Isobars. These are the atoms of different elements having same mass number but different atomic numbers.

Uses of isotopes:

\({ }_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U}\) isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear reaction.
\({ }_{27}^{60} \mathrm{Co}\) isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.
\({ }_{53}^{131} \mathrm{I}\) isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of goitre.

Question 9.
Na⁺ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.
Answer:
Na has atomic number =11
∴ Na atom has electrons =11
Na⁺ ion has electrons = 11 – 1 = 10
The electronic configuration of Na⁺ = 2, 8
∴ In Na⁺, K and L-shells are completely filled.

Question 10.
If bromine atom is in the form of say two isotopes 35 Br (49.7%) and 35 Br (50.3%), then calculate the average mass of bromine atom.
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 3

Question 11.
The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u, what are the percentages of isotopes g X and “X in the sample?
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 4

Question 12.
If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.
Answer:
Z = 3

Atomic no. of element = 3
No. of electrons in one atom of the element = 3
Atomic no. of the element (Z) = 3
Its electronic configuration = 2, 1
Hence its valency = 1 (No. of electrons in the valence shell.)
The name of the element = Lithium.

Question 13.
Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 5
Give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?
Answer:

Mass no. of X = 6 + 6 = 12
Mass no. of Y = 6 + 8 = 14
The two species are isotopes because they have same atomic number but different mass numbers.

Question 14.
For the following statements write T for True and F for False.
(a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it is neutral.
(c) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of proton.
(d) Isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a medicine.
Answer:
(a) F
(b) F
(c) T
(d) F.

Put tick (✓) against correct choice and cross (×) against wrong choice in questions 15, 16 and 17

Question 15.
Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of :
(a) Atomic Nucleus
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Neutron
Answer:
(a) Atomic Nucleus (✓)
(b) Electron (×)
(c) Proton (×)
(d) Neutron (×)

Question 16.
Isotopes of an element have:
(a) the same physical properties
(b) different chemical properties
(c) different number of neutrons
(d) different atomic numbers.
Answer:
(a) the same phvsicul properties (×)
(b) different chemical properties (×)
(c) different number of neutrons (✓)
(d) different atomic numbers (×)

Question 17.
Number of valence electrons in Cl⁺ ion are:
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 17
(d) 18
Answer:
(a) 16 (×)
(b) 8 (×)
(c) 17 (×)
(d) 18 (×).

Question 18.
Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?
(a) 2, 8
(b) 8, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 8
(d) 2, 8, 1.
Answer:
(d) 2, 8, 1.

Question 19.
Complete the following table:

Atomic Number	Mass Number	Number of Neutrons	Number of Protons	Number of Electrons	Name of the Atomic Species
9	–	10	~	–	–
16	32	–	–	–	Sulphur
–	24	–	12	–	–
–	2	–	1	–	–
–	1	0	1	0	–

Answer:

Atomic Number	Mass Number	Number of Neutrons	Number of protons	Number of Electrons	Name of the Atomic Species
9	19	10	9	9	Fluorine
16	32	16	16	16	Sulphur
12	24	12	12	12	Magnesium
1	2	1	1	1	Deuterium
1	1	0	1	0	Protium

Science Guide for Class 9 PSEB Structure of the Atom InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are canal rays?
Answer:
A beam of rays or stream of particles which travel in a direction away from anode, towards cathode, when any gas taken in a discharge tube is subjected to the action of high voltage under low pressure are called canal rays.

Question 2.
If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?
Answer:
No, it will not carry any charge.

Question 3.
On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.
Answer:
Thomson’s model of atom.
1. According to Thomson, an atom may be regarded as a uniform sphere of positive electricity (protons) in which negatively charged electrons are embedded like the seeds in a watermelon.
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 6
2. The total positive charge is equal to the total negative charge on all the electrons so that atoms on the whole is electrically neutral.

Question 4.
On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom which sub-atomic particle is present in the molecule of an atom?
Answer:
Proton.

Question 5.
Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.
Answer:

Question 6.
What do you think would be the observation if the ∝-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of metal other than gold?
Answer:
Almost all the ∝-particles will pass undeflected and hardly any a-particle is deflected.

Question 7.
Name the three sub-atomic particles of an atom.
Answer:
These are:
(a) Electron
(b) Proton and
(c) Neutron

Question 8.
Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4 u and two protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons does it have?
Answer:
Atomic mass of Helium = 4 u No. of protons = 2
∴ No. of neutrons = 4 – 2 = 2

Question 9.
Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.
Answer:

Element	At. No.	Electronic Configuration
Element	At. No.	K	L	M
Carbon	6	2	4	1
Sodium	11	2	8	1

Question 10.
If K and L shell of an atom are full then what would be the total number of electrons in it?
Answer:

No. of electrons in K-shell = 2
No. of electrons in L-shell = 8
Total no. of electrons = 2 + 8 = 10

Question 11.
How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?
Answer:
Chlorine has the electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7
∴ Valency of chlorine = 8 – 7 = 1
Sulphur has the electronic configuration = 2, 8, 6
∴ Valency of sulphur = 8 – 6 = 2
Magnesium has the electronic configuration = 2, 8 ,2
∴ Valency of magnesium = 2

Question 12.
If number of electrons in an atom are 8 and number of protons are also 8, then ;
1. What is the atomic number of the atom?
2. What is the charge on the atom?
Answer:
1. No. of protons = 8
∴ Atomic no. of the element = 8
2. Zero.

Question 13.
With the help of table 4.1 (given in Text Book) find out the mass number of oxygen and sulphur atom.
Answer:

Mass number of oxygen = 8 + 8 = 16
Mass number of sulphur = 16 + 16 = 32

Question 14.
For the symbols H, D and T tabulate three fundamental particles found in each of them.
Answer:

Symbol of element	Atomic number	Mass No.	No. of electrons	No. of protons	No.of Neutrons
H	1	1	1	1	0
D	1	2	1	1	1
T	1	3	1	1	2

Question 15.
Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 8

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

October 15, 2024October 14, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Physical Education Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When Indian Olympic Association came into existence?
Answer:
In 1927.

Question 2.
Who was the first president of Indian Olympic Association?
Answer:
Sh. Dorab Ji Jotsi.

Question 3.
Who was the first Assistant Secretory of Indian Olympic Association?
Answer:
Sh. J.D. Sondhi.

Question 4.
The Office Bearers of Indian Olympic Association are elected after five years. (Right or Wrong.)
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
Write any more work of I.O.A.
Answer:
To organise competition of different games and provide the information to International Olympic Committe.

Question 6.
What do you mean I.O.A.
Answer:
International Olympic Association.

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

Question 7.
What stands for I.O.C?
Answer:
International Olympic Committee.

Question 8.
Write the name of one Sports Federations of your choice.
Answer:
Basket Ball Federation of India.

Question 9.
Name any two Indian Sport Federations which are affiliated with Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:

Indian Hockey Federation.
All India Football Association.

Question 10.
Write any one objective of Indian Olympic Committee.
Answer:
To promote Olympic Movement and patronise Amateur sport.

Question 11.
Where were the first modern Olympic games held?
Answer:
They were held in Athens, Greece in 1981.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about C.K. Naidu Trophy.
Answer:
C.K. Naidu Trophy:
This tournament is organised by the Schools Games Federation of India every year. The trophy is named after a very outstanding and famous cricket player C.K. Naidu. This competition is for school boys and is conducted on knock-out basis. The losing team goes out of the tournament.

Question 2.
What do you know about Ranji Trophy?
Answer:
Ranji Trophy:
A meeting of sports lovers was held at Shimla in 1934 under the presidentship of Sir Sikandar Hyat. A proposal to conduct National Level Cricket Competition was discussed in this meeting. Maharaja Sir Bhupinder Singh of Patiala decided to donate a trophy in the name of Mr. Ranjit Singh, who was very outstanding cricketer, for the national level cricket tournament.

This competition is organised every year by the Cricket Control Board. It is organised on inter-state level on league basis. The winner teams of the states from their zone again play on knock out basis. The state of Maharashtra (Bombay) have won this trophy more than fifteen times. The Railways Sports Board also participate in the tournament.

Question 3.
Write few lines regarding Santosh Trophy.
Answer:
Santosh Trophy:
The king of Kooch Bihar Maharaja Santosh donated a trophy for National Football Competition which became very famous as Santosh Trophy. This tournament is organised by one of the members of Indian Football Association every year. All the different. states of India, Railways and Senior teams participate in this tournament. This tournament is organised on knock-out cum league basis. Bengal has won this trophy many times and Punjab won this championship in 1970 at Jalandhar.

Question 4.
What do you know about Rovers Cup?
Answer:
Rovers Cup:
This Football tournament is organised every year by Rovers Cup Tournament Committee. All good teams from different parts of the country participate in this competition which is organised as knock out cum league basis.

Question 5.
Write regarding Subroto Mukerjee Cup.
Answer:
Subroto Mukerjee Cup:
It is also known as Junior Durand Competition. This tournament is organised to commend the sweet memory of Air Marshall Subroto Mukerjee. This tournament is organised every year in Delhi by Durand Committee. In this tournament upto Sixteen year old players can take part. The very outstanding players of this tournament awarded scholarships by the Govt, of India.

Question 6.
Write a note on Ranga Swami Cup (National Hockey Championship)
Answer:
Ranga Swami Cup (National Hockey Championship):
Indian Hockey Association organised first National Hockey Championship in 1927. This competition is famous as National Hockey Competition. A citizen of Newzealand named Mooris presented a shield for the winners of National Competition in 1935. This competition was organised after every two years from 1928-1944.

In 1946 the Punjab state won this championship and the shield of this competition was lying with the then secretary of Mr. Bakshish Ali Sheikh. After the partition of India in 1947 this shield remained in Pakistan. After the partition the owners of “The Sports and Pastime” and “The Hindu” and Chennai (Madras) donated a new cup for this competition in the honour of Chief Editor Late Sh. Ranga Swami.

For this reason National Hockey Championship is known as Ranga Swami Cup Tournament. Since 1947, National Hockey Championship has been organised every year. Uttar Pradesh won this championship for first time and Punjab had an honour to win this championship in 1949. This competition was earlier organised on knock out basis but these days it is organised on League cum Knock out basis.

Question 7.
What do you know about Agha Khan Cup?
Answer:
Agha Khan Cup:
Maharaja Agha Khan had donated a cup in 1860 for the first time for the competition. This tournament became famous as Agha Khan Cup after his name. The Charlier Regiment won this cup permanently in 1912. Maharaj Agha Khan donated another cup for the competition. The winning team of this championship is awarded the same cup these days. The Bombay Gymkhana had an honour to win this cup for the first time. The Punjab Police won this Agha Khan cup in 1948. This tournament is organised by the Agha Khan tournament Committee. The most outstanding teams of India participate in this tournament. This tournament is organised as knock out basis.

Question 8.
Write about Bombay Gold Cup or All India Nehru Senior Hockey Competition.
Answer:
Bombay Gold Cup:
Bombay state got prepared a Gold Cup worth 10,000/- from its provincial funds and donated it for the competition which became famous as Bombay Gold Cup Tournament. This competition is organised by the Bombay (Now Maharashtra) Hockey Association every year. Lousit Anion Club Bombay won this prestigious cup the first time. Punjab Hawks had an honour to win this cup in 1928. This competition is organised on knock cum league basis.

All India Nehru Senior Hockey Competition:
This tournament originated in 1964 in the sacred memory of Late Prime Minister Sh. Jawahar Lal Nehru. In the sacred memory of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru this tournament was named Nehru Hockey Competition. This competition is organised on knock-out cum league basis. Very outstanding teams participate in this tournament. Uttar Pradesh had the honour to win the inaugural championship. The prize distribution is performed by the President of India every year in this competition.

Question 9.
Write a note on the following:
1. All India Nehru Junior Hockey Competition
2. Beigton Cup.
Answer:
1. All India Nehru Junior Hockey Competition:
Nehru Hockey Tournament Committee organises this Junior Hockey Competition every year in Delhi. In this competition only 14-16 year old players can take part. The outstanding teams of different states participate in this tournament. The Education Dept, of Govt, of India gives scholarship to all outstanding sports persons. The final match of this tournament is played on 14th November on the birthday of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru.

2. Beigton Cup:
This is the oldest competition of our country which was organised for the first time in 1895. This cup was donated by Legal Advisor Sh. T.D. Beigton of Bengal. For this reason this tournament is known as Beigton Cup Tournament. Naval V.A.C. won this cup on the first occasion, Unfortunately this original cup was stolen from Railway Institute Asansole but Railway Institute has donated another same type of cup for the competition which is awarded to the winners of this tournament even today. This competition is organised every year by the West Bengal Hockey Association on knock out basis. Very outstanding teams take part in this competition. Punjab Police got an opportunity to win this cup in 1966.

Question 10.
What do you know about Durand Cup Competition?
Answer:
Durand Cup:
This cup was donated by the Foreign Secretary of British India Mr. Mortimor Durand in 1895 for the competition of British soldiers. Firstly this competition was played at Shimla. The name of this tournament was Shimla Tournament. This competiton was organised in Delhi after 1950. The Regiment of Black Begh won this cup permanently in 1899.

Afterwards Mr. Mortimor donated another cup for this competition. In this tournament after 1931, civilians teams also started taking part along with military teams. Patiala Tigers got opportunity to participate in this tournament as civilian team. This tournament is organised every year on knock-out cum league basis. Very outstanding teams of the country and abroad participate in this tournament.

Question 11.
Write a note on sports competitions in India.
Answer:
Everybody possesses a spirit of competition. This spirit inspires him to take steps forward for his progress in his life. This spirit also helps him to get honours in his life. The competitions were held in Ancient India, some of which were in very bad taste. In combat a player used to kill his opponent. But with the passage of time the spirit of brotherhood emerged in sports competitions. The competition satisfied the emotions of person these days. In these competitions he can get skill and become experts.

He become successful in his best performance in the field of sports. These competitions not only provide recreation but also make him healthy. In Ancient times. Horse Riding, Archery, Javelin throwing and wrestling were most popular activities. The competition of these events were organised. With the passage of time and due to the Britishers contact with Indians the game of Hockey, Foot Ball and Cricket became popular and national level competition of these games are organised these days.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in detail about Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:
Modern Olympic Games came into existence in the Greek city of Athens in 1896. Mr. Baron de Coubertin made a great contribution in the revival of Olymplic games. India took part in Olympic in 1900. The Indian Olympic Association. The Indian Olympic Association was founded in 1927. It came into existence with the efforts of Sh. A.G. Neohren and Mr. H.C. Buck. Its first President was Mr. Dorabji Tata. Mr. G.D. Sondhi was its Assistant Secretary. This Association has been working since 1927, and is affiliated to International Olympic Association.

Selection of Office Bearers:
The office bearers of this Association are selected for four years.,Nobody can hold a post for more than eight years. In other words, nobody can participate in the election for more than two terms. National Sports Federations and State Sports Associations are affiliated to their respective International Sports Federations. The National Federations have state-level bodies in their respective games such as State Olympic Association, etc. They control the organization of tournaments in states.

Working:
Its office bearers are elected every fourth year.
The following are the members of its Executive Council:

President
Seven Vice-Presidents
One General Secretary
Two Assistant Secretaries
One Honorary Treasurer
Five members are elected from among the representatives of State Olympic Associations.
Nine members are elected from among the representatives of National Federation/Associations and Service Sports Control Board.

The members of this association are elected for four years. No office bearer can hold his post for more than two consecutive terms or eight years.

Functions of Indian Olympic Association:

To organise Amateur Sport competition in India and conform them to the international Olympic Committee.
To make plans. To make short term and long term plans with the help and co-operation of State Olympic Association for non professional players.
To use Olympic Flag and the motto on behalf of India and settle all issues regarding dispute of any state Olympic Association and follow the Olympic chart.
To establish different state Olympic Associations in all states and supervise their expenditure.
To allow All Associations of different games to participate in international competitions and give financial assistance for these competitions.
This committee insists that every year Olympic week must be celebrated in the month of August. The Olympic movement and its Philosophy must be popularised among Indians.

Question 2.
Describe the main Objectives of Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:
Objectives:
This Association has been constituted with the following objectives in view:
1. For the progress of the Olympic Movement and development of Amateur Games.

2. For the encouragement and promotion of physical, moral and cultural education of the youth in order to make them good and healthy citizens of high character.

3. For enforcing all rules formulated by International Olympic Association.

4. To protect and enforce the right of the use of Olympic flag and insignia only by the association. To ensure that both remain confined to Olympic games.

5. To function fully like a government organization, and take hold of all the matters pertaining to the Olympic games in the country.

6. To apprise the countrymen with the value and importance of Amateur games.

7. To control all Indian sports teams and their organization with the co-operation of Indian Sports Federations and Associations the teams which fall under International Olympic Committee and which participate in Olympic games and such other games.

8. To enforce rules with the co-operation of national sports federations, and associations.

9. To maintain the high ideals of sports and promote the interest of the people in Olympic games and those games which are under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

10.To control all matters relating to India’s Participation in the Olympic games and those games falling under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

11.To arrange with the co-operation of national sports federations and associations economic assistance, transportation, care and welfare of those Indian teams which take part in the Olympic games and other games falling under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

12. It certifies Indian players participating in international competitions as regards to their amateur level.

13. It promotes the people’s interest in Olympic games, and towards this objective it forms Olympic Association in each state and a National Amateur Sports Federation.

14. It acts as a mediator between National Sports Federation and Indian Govt, for financial assistance.

15. It affiliates the state-level Olympic Associations and National Amateur Sports Federation. The state level Olympic

16. Associations and National Amateur Sports Federation send their annual reports to the International Olympic Association.

17. It initiates disciplinary action against that Federation that brings dishonour through some improper deed.

18. It will do anything to promote Amateur Sports and games.

Question 3.
What do you know about Olympic Chart?
Answer:
Olympic Chart:
All sports competitions at the national and international levels are organized under the supervision of National Sports Federation and Indian Olympic Association. There is no discrimination of caste, colour, and creed, etc. in it. But the Olympic Chart is silent over the question of governmental intervention in case National Sports Federation and Indian Olympic Association function in a way as to hurt the interests of sports in the country.

But the members of the International Olympic Committee have time and again said that the government which provides funds to various sports organization should remain vigilant as to how these funds are being utilized. The government can supervise the functioning of all sports bodies. The International Federation seeks the views of the government when National Sports Federation (N.S.F.) and Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) fail to perform their duties, or when opposite Federations come into being.

The government of the country in which international games such as Asian Games are being held holds such responsibility. The government should provide adequate financial help to federations so that sports and games may be developed in the country. It should not remain a silent spectator if National Sports Federation (N.S.F.) and Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) fail to discharge their duties properly, such as in the fair selection of teams and their training. Keeping in view these points, the government has framed certain guidelines for these sports bodies, but it is pity that many a time these guidelines are totally ignored.

Question 4.
Describe the functions of All Indian Sports Federations or State Sports Associations.
Answer:
All Indian Sports Federation and State Sports Associations are affiliated to their respective international sports Federation. All sports Federations have established their State Associations in all states of India just like state Olympic Association.

Functions:
1. To Conduct Competitions: To conduct senior and juniors sports competitions every year at district, state and national levels.

2. Planning: To frame a One-year and Four-year plans to prepare a national team.

3. To arrange equipment:
To arrange equipment and other essential items to raise the standard of games. If some items are to be imported from abroad, these are to be got through Indian Olympic Association or Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala with the help of Union Education Ministry.

4. Attendance of Selectors: It ensures the attendance of its selectors at the Senior or Junior level competitions at the state or national level.

5. Prepare and Publish List of Probabilities: To prepare and publish national and international probabilities.

6. To appoint National Coach: Each National Federation/ Association will appoint a National Coach.

7. Help in Selection of National Teams:
It will help Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) and All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.) to select national teams for international competitions.

8. To Frame Rules of Games: In co-operation with Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala, it frames rules of games.

9. Training of Umpires and Coaches:
It helps Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala and Indian Olympic Association in the training of umpires and coaches.

10. To Prepare a Panel of Selectors: It prepares a panel of selectors purely on merit basis.

11. Selection of Office Bearers:
The selection of its office bearers should be done according to the constitution of the Federation. At the time of selection it should invite one observer each from Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) and All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.)

12. Settling Disputes:
If there is some dispute in some Sports Federation, it is referred to I.O.A. or I.I.C.S. Its decision has to be obeyed. If there is some dispute between Indian Olympic Association and National Sports Federation, it is referred to and decided by All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.).

13. Audit of Accounts: It is the responsibility of the Federation to present the audited report of its accounts in time.

Question 5.
Write the names of different Associations of India which are affiliated with Indian Olympic Associations.
Answer:
Federations or Associations Regarding Different Games or Sports. The various Federations or Associations of different games or sports are as follow:

The Indian Hockey Federation, 1925
The All India Football Federation, 1937
The Swimming Federation of India, 1940
The Amateur Athletic Federation of India, 1544
The Wrestling Federation of India, 1948
The Volleyball Federation of India, 1951
The Basketball Federation of India, 1950
The National Rifle Association of India, 1953
The Gymnastic Federation of India, 1951
The Indian Amateur Boxing Federation, 1958
The National Cycle Federation, 1938
The Board of Control for Cricket in India, 1926
The All India Tennis Association, 1920
The Table Tennis Federation of India, 1938
The All India Badminton Association, 1934
The Indian Hand Ball Association, 1969-70
The Archery Association, 1968
The Kabaddi Federation of India, 1951-52
The Indian Polo Association, 1892
The Indian Weight Lifting Federation, 1935
The Indian Billiards Association, 1940
The Indian Squash Racket Association, 1953

In addition to the above Federations and Associations, there are some national level sports bodies which have their own identity-

The Service Sports Control Boards, 1919 (restructured in 1945)
School Games Federation of India, 1954
Inter Varsity Sports Control Board.
The Railway Sports Control Board.
All India Police Sports Council Board.

Similarly, there are associations of different games in different states. They are affiliated to National Sports Federation/Association. Their chief functions are to organise Inter-District sports competitions in their respective states, organize coaching camps, and ensure the participation of state teams in national level competitions.

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 First Aid

October 14, 2024October 13, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 4 First Aid Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Physical Education Chapter 4 First Aid

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about First Aid?
Answer:
The aid which is given to a patient before arrival to the doctor is known as first aid.

Question 2.
What is Fracture?
Answer:
Breakage in Bone is called Fracture.

Question 3.
What is Unconsciousness?
Answer:
It means to lose consciousness.

Question 4.
What is Electric Shock?
Answer:
One gets electric shock when touches a live electric wire.

Question 5.
Name any two types of fracture?
Answer:

Simple fracture
Multiple fracture.

Question 6.
Complicated Fracture is dangerous. (Right or Wrong)
Answer:
Right.

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Chapter 4 First Aid

Question 7.
Depressed Fracture is harmful. (Right or Wrong)
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 8.
Write any two symptoms of unconciousness.
Answer:

Pulse becomes very slow
skin becomes cold.

Question 9.
What is dislocation?
Answer:
Displacement of bone from the joint is known as Dislocation.

Question 10.
Is there any difference between strain and sprain?
Answer:
Yes, there is a difference.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about First Aid?
Answer:
In our daily life many accidents occur. No wonder we may get injured or wounded on bicycle or in the playfield. Accidents can occur anywhere and anytime at home and outside. It is not possible that doctor may be present at the place of accident. The aid given to the wounded or the patient till the doctor arrives or is approached is called FIRST AID.

Question 2.
What is strain?
Answer:
Often we hear players say that their muscles are under strain, and so they cannot carry on their game any more. Over work makes the muscles crack, sometimes more and sometimes less. As a result of cracked muscles players feel much pain. Many times that part that has been greatly strained swells.

Question 3.
What is sprain?
Answer:
The player may get sprain:
The feet and the wrists are prone to receive sprains. The ligaments and tissues quickly crack by chance around it. The player feels pain and is unable to take part in the game.

Question 4.
What will you do if you got dislocation of your knee joint while playing Hockey?
Answer:
If I got my knee joint dislocated while playing Hockey, I will get treatment as under:
I will get dressed dislocated joint with plaster. I will try my level best the joint which was dislocated may not have external pressure. I shall use splint to check die movement of the joint.

Question 5.
What First Aid will you render to a patient of drowning?
Answer:
Treatment of Drowning:
Some people get drowned while crossing, or bathing in rivers, canals or streams. If First Aid is given to a drowned person after taking him out of water, his life may be saved. Such a person should be given First Aid in the following ways:

1. Removing Water from the Belly:
The drowned person should be taken out of water, and lied down with his belly on a pitcher to get water removed from his belly. If the pitcher is not available, he should be lied on belly-side, and toss him upward by holding his waist. This action will remove water from his belly.

2. Making the Patient Wear Dry clothes: Give the patient dry clothes to wear.

3. Keeping the Patient’s Body Warm: Wrap a blanket or sheet round the patient’s body so that his body may remain warm.

4. Administering Artificial Respiration: If the breathing of the drowned man stops, he should be administered artificial respiration.

5. Giving Hot Tea or Coffee: When the patient comes to his senses, he should be given hot tea or coffee to drink.

6. Taking the Patient to the Doctor: If necessary, the patient should be taken to a doctor.

Question 6.
What First Aid will you render to a patient in case of burning?
Answer:
Sometimes a person gets burnt in fire, by hot vessels, chemicals, acid or electric shock. The result is that skin, muscles and tissues are destroyed. Sometimes scalds are caused by very hot tea, milk, coffee or acid. The skin turns red or clothes get stuck up to the body. One feels intolerable pain. Sometimes a person dies as a result of excessive burns.

Treatment:

The burnt up part should be carefully treated.
One should not run in case one catches fire. In such case, one should lie down.
The person whose clothes catch fire should be wrapped with a blanket.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Electric Shock? How will you treat it?
Answer:
Electric Shock:
One gets electric shock when one touches a live electric wire, or when such a wire accidentally touches any part of his body. Even one’s body may get burnt in the process. One may go unconscious, or may even die of electric shock. If a person gets touch to a live electric wire, the main supply of electricity should be switched off to release him from the wire. If one fails to locate main switch, the following steps may be taken:

1. Using Rubber Gloves and Dry Wood:
The life of a person may be saved by the use of rubber gloves and dry wood in case the power of electricity is up to 500 watts. Electric current does not pass through these things. A moist or metallic thing should not be used.

2. Removing the Plug: If electric wire is coming from a distant place, it should be broken or the plug should be removed.

3. Giving Artificial Respiration: If the electrocuted person is not breathing, he should be administered artificial respiration.

4. Treatment of Scald or Burnt Part: If some part of the patient is scalded or burnt, its treatment should be done.

5. Encouraging the Patient: The patient should be encouraged.

6. Wrapping in a Blanket: The patient should be kept warm in a blanket.

7. Giving Hot Milk or Tea: The patient should be given hot tea or milk to drink.

Question 8.
Describe the various rules of First Aid.
Answer:
Rules of First Aid:
1. Immediate Aid:
First Aid should be given to the injured at the earliest possible. There should be no hesitation or fear in providing First Aid because there is no time in thinking. Immediate decisions have to be taken to save the life of the injured.

2. Artificial Respiration:
If a person is unconscious, and is not breathing, he should be given artificial respiration. A person suffering from heart attack can also be saved by artificial respiration.

3. Sympathetic Attitude:
The injured person gets extremely frightened. So a sympathetic attitude and goodwill prove to be very important. These are beneficial in removing the fear in the mind of the injured.

4. Prevention of Bleeding:
The flow of blood from the injury should be stopped at the earliest as the excessive loss of blood may endanger the life of the injured.

5. Keeping the injured away from the Crowd:
When a person gets involved in an accident, many people come and surround him from all sides. It prevents the flow of fresh air to the injured and the injured also gets frightened and upset. So the steps should be taken to keep the injured away from the crowd, and to provide First Aid at the earliest.

6. Immediate Medical Aid:
The Medical aid should be arranged for the injured immediately. No untrained person should be allowed to use hit and trial methods of treatment.

Question 9.
Write down the causes, symptoms and treatment of dislocation of joints.
Answer:
Generally, there is a joint dislocation in the field of sports. The displacement of bones is known as dislocation. The displacement generally occurs in the case of bones of shoulders, hips and wrists.

Causes:

When heavy thing hit fastly to any joints of a person.
The weight of sports material is too much heavy.
Hard surface or uneven ground.
Insufficient warming up of a player.
Suddenly falling of an athlete.

Symptoms:

The movement in the joint stops. The joint pains with the slightest of movement.
The joint pains as well as swelling.
The bone can be seen protruding at the place of dislocation.
The shape of the joint also changed.
There is a feeling of strain in the joint.

Treatment:

The dislocated joint should not be moved much.
The bone should be got reset from a competent doctor.
Icy cold water should be poured on the dislocated joint.

Question 10.
Mention the causes of Fracture, its symptoms and treatment.
Answer:
Causes:

When a player plays the game with over courage, over joy or under pressure.
To fall on hard or slippery ground.
To play on uneven playfields and fall down.
To play the game without the supervision of an expert.

Symptoms:

The place of fracture develops swelling.
The fracture part of the body becomes strengthless.
The player feels much pain.
The shape of fracture part also changes.
The part of the body becomes shapeless.
A cracking sound is produced when the fractured part is made to move.

Treatment:

In case of fracture, the fractured part should not be allowed to move.
The treatment of the fracture should be immediately done as far as possible.
In case of injury in the fracture, first of all bleeding should be controlled.
The broken bone should be set with splints and bandage.
The fractured part should be plastered with the help of a doctor.

Question 11.
What is unconsciousness? Mention its symptoms and treatment.
Answer:
Unconsciousness means losing of sense
Symptoms:
These are as under-

Rate of pulse becomes very slow.
Skin becomes cold.
The colour of face turns pale.
Blood pressure becomes low.

Treatment:

Check up the heart beat and pulse rate of the patient properly.
The tongue of the patient should not touch the upper part of the wind pipe.
Peal off the clothes or loosen the clothes of a patient.
Let the fresh air should come.
Massage the chest continuously.
Try to give artificial respiration if needed.
Patient should not be given anything orally till he gets conscious.
He may be given hot drink.
You may make him smell ammonia, spirit or onion.
The cause of unconsciousness may be removed as early as possible.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the qualities and duties of First Aider?
Answer:

A First Aider should be a person who seeks comfort and joy in serving others, and who looks upon his job as his religious duty.
He should have the maximum knowledge of medical sciences particularly, he should be quite well versed in
Anatomy and Physiology.
He should be capable of understanding the nature of injury, and should be properly trained in First Aid.
He should be a man of genial nature and self-confidence.
He should be capable of understanding the mental state of the injured.
He should have patience, devotion and dedication.
He should be capable of giving First Aid in a very natural, affectionate manner.
He should be capable of encouraging the injured.
He should be familiar with all those points which are relevant to providing First Aid.
All necessary medicines should always be ready for use in his First Aid Box.
A high academic qualification is not sufficient for a First Aider. He should have developed in him qualities of a man of high moral character.

In order to make the job of First Aid interesting, a First Aider should be a jovial person. His jovial nature will help in establishing a good rapport between him and the person who needs First Aid, but his humour should not be of cheap variety. His personality should be balanced. He should be perfectly capable, healthy and strong from physical, mental, social and psychological point of view.

Duties of First Aider:

First aider should give First Aid immediately to the patient.
He should encourage the patient.
Try to arrange the doctor as early as possible.
The dress of the patient should be removed or loosened.
He should help the patient to save his life.
He should keep the patient in a comfortable position.
There should not be crowd or noise around the patient.
In case of continuous bleeding, the main vessels should be pressed.
The patient must be kept in open air.
If the accident occurs due to electronic current or gas, he should first switch off electric current or gas.

Question 2.
Describe the types of Fracture which is the most dangerous fracture.
Answer:
When a bone is broken into two or more parts is known as fracture. Fractures are of seven types which are as under:
1. Simple Fracture: In this type of fracture, there is neither any visible injury on the body nor is there any harm to the muscles. This is known as simple or closed fracture.
PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 First Aid 1
2. Compound Fracture or Open Fracture: In case of Com-pound Fracture, the part of the bone comes out of the skin.

3. Complicated Fracture: In this type of fracture, the internal organs are hurt and affected such as heart, spinal cord, lungs, kidney etc.
4. Commuted Fracture: In commuted fracture, the bones gets broken at many places, and sometimes it is broken Sito pieces.
PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 First Aid 3
5. Impacted Fracture: In this type of fracture, the broken bones come inside another bone.

6. Green Stick Fracture: This type of fracture occurs mostly in the young boys of tender age because their bones are very soft and they bend easily. A piece of bones, getting out of the bone, cracks up in this type of fracture.
PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 First Aid 5
7. Depressed Fracture: This type of fracture occurs in the skull bones. The skull bones gets depressed downward. It is known as depressed fracture.

Question 3.
What is strain? Describe its causes, symptoms and treatment?
Answer:
Strain:
Often we hear players say that their muscles are under strain, and so they cannot carry on their game any more. Over work makes the muscles crack, sometimes more and sometimes less. As a result of cracked muscles players feel much pain. Many times that part that has been greatly strained swells.

Causes:

Excess loss of water from the body through sweating.
More Physical Fatigue.
Less co-ordination in the parts of the body.
The hard playground also causes straining of muscles.
The main cause of strain is insufficient working of a player.
Bring the weak muscles in action quickly.
Use of bad types of sports equipments.
Body is insufficient in strength to bear the load of the activities.

Symptoms:

Too much tension in muscles.
Strain parts become unable to do the work.
Feeling too much pain after getting strain.
The part of the body seems to be depressed.
The player may turn blue internally.
Joint becomes very soft.

Safety Measures:

The playground should be properly watered, neat and clean. The surface should not be uneven.
The pitch of High Jump and Long Jump must be kept very soft.
The students must get safety education.
The players should be properly warmed up before entering the field.
Players should not play on wet or slipery place.
The equipment should be of high standard.
The players should be cool. They should not take part in games while they are excited.

Treatment:

The main cause of strain is insufficient warming of a player entering the field.
The hard playground, too, causes straining of muscles. As such, the playground should be watered off and on.
The weak muscles crack soon. So one should do exercises to make muscles strong.
In case muscles are under strain, the player should take rest.
At first, the strained spot should be cooled down with ice. After 24 hours, it should be fomented by salty hot water.

Question 4.
What is sprain? Discuss its causes, symptoms and treatment.
Answer:
Sprain:
The player may get sprain. The feet and the wrists are prone to receive sprains. The ligaments and tissues quickly crack by chance around it. The player feels pain and is unable to take part in the game.

Type of Sprain:
Broadly speaking, there are two types of sprain-

1. Ordinary Sprain: In such a case the player gets slight in-jury on the tissue groups that crack, and he does not feel much pain.

2. Heavy Sprain: The player gets hard injury on his tissue group, and feels much pain, and is unable to take part in the game.

Causes:
There may be causes of sprain, some of which are as follows:

The feet of the player land on uneven place.
Sometimes the jumping pit is not well dug out.
Sprain is caused sometimes when the player is not properly warmed up before actual play.
The weakness of joints.
The lack of proper coaching.
A sudden fall while running.
Sprain may be caused because of inadequate or rough sports equipment such as stud loose boots used in football.

Symptoms:
Whenever a player gets sprain on his joints, he feels pain on the very joint. He is unable to carry on with his game. He feels as if his joint has lost strength and is inflamed.

Treatment:

When a player gets sprain, he should be called out of the play ground.
By pouring cold water on the sprained joint or putting some ice on it, the bleeding slows down internally and the swelling also decreases.
Dressing on the sprained joint also reduces the pain and swelling. Dressing should be done in shape of number 8.
The sprained joint should be fomented after 48 hours.
The player should not be allowed to move much.
Index should be applied after 48 hours on the upper part of the joint. The patient may get some relief and the swelling decreases.
The sprained joint should be fomented by warm lemon.

Question 5.
Describe the various rules of First Aid.
Answer:
Rules of First Aid:
1. Immediate Aid:
First Aid should be given to the injured at the earliest possible. There should be no hesitation or fear in providing First Aid because there is no time in thinking. Immediate decisions have to be taken to save the life of the injured.

4. Prevention of Bleeding:
The flow of blood from the injury should be stopped at the earliest as the excessive loss of blood may endanger the life of the injured.

6. Immediate Medical Aid:
The Medical aid should be arranged for the injured immediately. No untrained is should be allowed to use hit and trial methods of treatment.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 3 Interpersonal Relationships

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 3 Interpersonal Relationships Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Welcome Life Chapter 3 Interpersonal Relationships

Welcome Life Guide for Class 9 PSEB Interpersonal Relationships InText Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No.13

The procedure of Activity:

Pictures 1 & 2 will be shown to the students. Then they will answer the questions related to these pictures shown to them.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 3 Interpersonal Relationships Img 1

Question 1.
What is the difference between these two?
Answer:
In picture 1 members of a family are laughing and celebrating a birthday. In picture 2, everyone is busy on his/her mobile and is not talking to each other which is wrong.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 3 Interpersonal Relationships Img 2

Question 2.
How do you treat your young ones? Choose your response from picture 3 or picture 4.
Answer:
Our treatment with young ones will be in picture 4. In picture 3, two girls are fighting and in picture 4, two boys and a girl are collectively doing work.

Textbook Page No. 14

Question 3.
When you obey and show respect to your elders how do they react to your response?
Answer:
Whenever I obey and show respect to my elders, they become very happy and give me many blessings.

Question 4.
Whenever you disobey or show disrespect to your elders then what is their reaction?
Answer:
Whenever I disobey or show disrespect to my elders, they become very angry and speak rudely as well.

Question 5.
What do we gain by giving respect to our elders?
Answer:
I feel very happy when I give respect to our elders. They love me and bless me and I feel blessed with this.

Textbook Page No. 18

Question 1.
If you were in the place of these girls what would you have done?
Answer:
If I were in the place of these girls, I would have talked with my parents and teachers as well. I could have made Manjot and Simranjot realize that they must not dare to do it again.

Question 2.
If you were in Anmol’s place, what would you do?
Answer:
I would be doing the same thing that Anmol has done. I would have told them that the act of theirs is wrong and they must not repeat the same thing.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Guide Interpersonal Relationships Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the character you like most in the play ‘live and let others live’ and why?
Answer:
I believe, Anmol is the best character in the play. Its reason is he handled the situation quite wisely. He was the eldest among all and he considered solving friend’s problems as his duty. He makes Manjot and Simranjit understand that we must not tease girls but be with them as friends. So, he handled the situation easily and wisely.

Question 2.
Should boys and girls have equal rights?
Answer:
Yes, both boys and girls should have equal rights. Even our constitution has given us the Right to Equality and it is said that there shall be no discrimination on the basis of sex. Instead of looking at social differences, both should be treated in equal terms.

Question 3.
Where you live your own life till now without caring for the Rights and liberty of others?
Answer:
Yes, till now, I lived my life for myself but after reading the play, I realized that I must do something for others as well. Now I will change my habit and will try to do something for others.

Question 4.
Do you come to know that we should let others live their own life too?
Answer:
Yes, now I realised that others have their own life too and they also have the right to live life like us. Everyone wants to live life according to his own wish and others don’t have any right to interfere in anyone’s life. What will happen if others will start interfering in our lives? That’s why we should let others live their lives according to their wish.

Question 5.
How you should treat your classmates?
Answer:
We should treat our classmates with friendly behavior which should be based upon equality. Along with this, we must understand the fact that others have their lives too and we must not interfere in their lives. Instead, we should live in cooperation with others.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Welcome Life Interpersonal Relationships Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. What should be there in a mutual relationship?
(a) Respect
(b) Love
(c) Sympathy
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

2. All the ……………. of the family are part of a family tree.
(a) members
(b) friends
(c) relatives
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) members.

3. Elder members of the family should be …………….
(a) respect
(b) jealousy
(c) ended
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) respect.

4. Where was Pooja standing?
(a) School
(b) Stage
(c) Home
(d) Road.
Answer:
(b) Stage.

5. Who misbehaved with Pooja and Komal?
(a) Manjot
(b) Simranjit
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Anmol.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

6. Pooja and Komal tell their problem to ……………….
(a) Manjot
(b) Teachers
(c) Family
(d) Anmol
Answer:
(d) Anmol

7. Who didn’t want to tell her problem to her family
(a) Pooja
(b) Anmol
(c) Komal
(d) Simranjit
Answer:
(a) Pooja

8. Which is the adolescent age ?
(a) 14-18 years
(b) 10-19 years
(c) 15-21 years
(d) 17-21 years
Answer:
(b) 10-19 years

9. Harassing girls is known as ……………….
(a) Eve, Teasing
(b) Adam Teasing
(c) Girls Teasing
(d) Women Teasing
Answer:
(a) Eve Teasing

10. Teasing boys are known as …………….
(a) Eve Teasing
(b) Adam Teasing
(c) Boys Teasing
(d) Male Teasing
Answer:
(b) Adam Teasing

11. Under Section ………………….. of Indian Penal Code, 1-9 years of imprisonment can be given for Eve Teasing.
(a) 519
(b) 509
(c) 529
(d) 539.
Answer:
(b) 509

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Harassing girls is known as …………………
Answer:
Eve Teasing

2. Harassing boys is known as ……………..
Answer:
Adam Teasing

3. ………………. and ………………… misbehaved with Komal and Pooja.
Answer:
Simranjit, Manjot

4. We must ……………. the elders.
Answer:
respect

5. We must ……………. the younger ones.
Answer:
love

Tick the Right (✓) or Strong (x) Statement:

1. We should live in love with family members.
Answer:
✓

2. Komal and Pooja did not tell their family about teasing by boys.
Answer:
✓

3. Anmol told a few things to Manjot and Simranjit.
Answer:
✓

4. There is no punishment for Eve Teasing.
Answer:
x

5. We must follow the concept of Live and Let Live.
Answer:
✓

Match the following:

(A)	(B)
Section 509	Love
Harassing girls	1-9 years of imprisonment
Harassing boys	Eve Teasing
Elders	Adam Teasing
Young ones	Respect

Answer:

(A)	(B)
Section 509	1-9 years of imprisonment
Harassing girls	Eve Teasing
Harassing boys	Adam Teasing
Elders	Respect
Young ones	Love

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What mutual relationships should be like?
Answer:
Mutual relationships should be full of love and respect.

Question 2.
Who is the inseparable part of the family tree?
Answer:
Family members are the inseparable part of the family tree.

Question 3.
Who is of great importance in our lives?
Answer:
Elders of the family have great importance in our lives.

Question 4.
Who are the main characters of the play given in the chapter?
Answer:
Komalpreet, Pooja, Simranjit, Manjot, and Anmol are the main characters of the play.

Question 5.
Who harassed Komal and Pooja?
Answer:
Simranjit and Manjot harassed the girls.

Question 6.
Why did Pooja did not tell the incident to her family?
Ans.
She feared that her family might scold her.

Question 7.
Why did Pooja have a fear that her family might scold her?
Answer:
Because she believed that boys can do anything and no one will say anything to them but parents are* always ready to scold girls.

Question 8.
Why did Pooja and Komal not tell the incident to teachers?
Answer:
Because if teachers will tell the incident to their family, they will not let them go to school.

Question 9.
Who was told about the incident by Pooja, and Komal?
Answer:
They told the incident to Anmol who is their well-wisher.

Question 10.
What did the girls tell Anmol?
Answer:
They told Anmol that Simranjit and Manjot harass them on the way.

Question 11.
What is adolescent age?
Answer:
The age of 10-19 years is known as the adolescent age in which children develop psychologically, socially, and emotionally.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Eve Teasing?
Answer:
Harassing girls is known as Eve Teasing.

Question 13.
What do you mean by Adam Teasing?
Answer:
Harassing boys is known as Adam Teasing.

Question 14.
What is the punishment for eve-teasing?
Answer:
According to Section 509 of I.P.C., there is a punishment of 1-9 years for eve-teasing.

Question 15.
What was the impact of Anmol’s discussion with Manjot and Simran?
Answer:
They both regretted their actions and apologized to the girls as well.

Question 16.
What did they all decide?
Answer:
They all decided that they will not do eve-teasing and Adam teasing.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the importance of a family tree in our lives?
Answer:
Just as roots, stems, flowers, branches, fruits, etc. are parts of a tree, so are family members. This family tree grows only when the elders love the young ones and younger ones respect the elders. Each family member has its own significance. This tree can only remain green if all live together with love. Only with the mutual love and respect of family members, the family grows and prosper. Family is of great importance in our lives and we are nothing without family.

Question 2.
Why didn’t Pooja tell the family and teachers about the incident of teasing?
Answer:
When Komal told Pooja that we should tell the parents and teachers about the incident, she refused to do as she was afraid of her family. The family will rebuke her and find her fault in the incident. She did not want to discuss the incident with teachers as well as they might approach her family which in turn will not let her go out of the house. That’s why they decided to handle the situation themselves.

Question 3.
Why did Pooja and Komal decide to tell Anmol about this incident?
Answer:
When Pooja and Komal were thinking about finding the solution to the issue, suddenly the name of Anmol come up in their minds. The reason was Anmol was their well-wisher and neighbor as well. Along with this, he was a good friend of Manjot and Simran as well. He considered both the girls as his sisters. That’s why they both believed that Anmol will sort out the issue very easily.

Question 4.
Why is adolescent age important?
Answer:
The age of 10-19 years is known as the adolescent age. This is the time when our mental, social and emotional development takes place. Human personality is also formed in this age. During this age, we must keep emotions in control and focus on our study or the time will be wasted. We need to focus on the career instead of looking for boys or girls. This is the time when we need to concentrate on making a career.

Question 5.
What did Anmol tell Manjot and Simranjit?
Answer:
When Manjot and Simranjit harassed the girls the girls decided to tell the incident to Anmol. Anmol told the boys that everyone wants to live with complete freedom. That’s why we must not interfere in girls’ lives. Teasing is not good for anyone. We must not become enemies but should cooperate with each other.

Question 6.
What was the impact of Anmol’s discussion with Manjot and Simran?
Answer:
When Anmol discussed the incident of teasing with Manjot and Simran then they realized that this is wrong. They promised not to repeat the same mistake again. They realized their fault and decided to follow the concept of ‘Live and Let Live. Both the boys apologized to the girls and become good friends.

Long Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
What did we learn from this chapter?
Answer:
We learned many things from this chapter such as :

Family is just like a tree with many members in it. There should be mutual love and respect between the family members and they should cooperate with each other.
There should be no gender-based discrimination in society. Both must be given equal rights.
We need to make boys understand that girls also have their self-respect. We should not tease them. Instead, they should also be respected.
We must respect the elders of the family and live by cooperating with each other.
We must respect the existence of others in society and follow the idea of ‘Live and Let Live’.
In adolescent age, we should focus on career building and should not waste our time. We should do hard work to get success in life.

Source-Based Question:

Question 1.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow :
The family tree continues to grow and there is a need that by doing, respect, and care we can make this family tree strong and green which means strong bonding within and with the society. Dear students! As a tree consists of Roots, Stem, Branches, Leaves, Flowers, and fruits, in the same way our family members can be represented in a family tree. Now let us try to make your own family tree. Paste maximum pictures of your family members from Paternal and Maternal too.

1. How should we behave with the elders of the family?
Answer:
We should behave with respect to the elders of the family and learn from their experiences.

2. How should we treat the younger ones of the family?
Answer:
We should treat younger ones with love as they learn everything from their elders.

3. What is the importance of family in our lives?
Answer:
Family is of great importance in our lives as, without family, there is no value in life. We cannot learn anything without family.

4. Do the little ones matter in the family?
Answer:
Yes, little ones matter in the family as they will become elders one day and run the family.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 2 Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Contemporary Society

October 10, 2024October 9, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 2 Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Contemporary Society Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 2 Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Contemporary Society

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Contemporary Society Textbook Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The class to which the writers belonged in the Muslim society was
(a) Upper Class
(b) Middle Class
(c) Lower Class
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Middle Class.

Question 2.
The worshippers of Goddess Durga were called
(a) Vaishnavas
(b) Shaivas
(c) Sunnis
(d) Shaktas
Answer:
(d) Shaktas.

Question 3.
What was Jaziya?
(a) Religious
(b) Tax
(c) Tradition
(d) Jewel.
Answer:
(b) Tax.

Question 4.
Who were Ulemas?
(a) Labourers
(b) Hindu religious leaders
(c) Muslim religious leaders
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Muslim religious leaders.

Question 5.
The event of Sachcha Sauda happened in ________
(a) Chuharkana
(b) Rai Bhoi
(c) Haridwar
(d) Sayyidpur.
Answer:
(a) Chuharkana.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The two sects of Islam are Sunni and ________
Answer:
Shia

Question 2.
________ worshipped the God Vishnu.
Answer:
Vaishnavas

Question 3.
The purpose of Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s life was the welfare of ________
Answer:
whole humanity

Question 4.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave a message of ________ at Kartarpur.
Answer:
Naam Japo, Kirat Karo, Vand Chhako (meditate, work and share)

Question 5.
During his stay at Sultanpur, Guru Nanak Dev Ji used to bathe in the ________ river
Answer:
Bein.

III. Match the following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Battle of Panipat	(i) Chuharkana
2. Sachcha Sauda	(ii) 1526 AD.
3. Guru Angad Dev Ji	(iii) Taiwandi
4. Birth of Guru Nanak Dev Ji	(iv) Bhai Lehna.

Answer:

A	B
1. Battle of Panipat	(ii) 1526 AD.
2. Sachcha Sauda	(i) Chuharkana
3. Guru Angad Dev Ji	(iv) Bhai Lehna.
4. Birth of Guru Nanak Dev Ji	(iii) Taiwandi

IV. Differentiate between the following :

Question 1.
Muslim Nobility and Muslim Middle Class.
Answer:
1. Muslim Nobility. The high ranking nobles, Iqtadars, Ulemas, etc. were counted among the members of this class. A noble held high rank in the Muslim government. He was addressed as ‘Malik’, ‘Khan’, ‘Amir’ etc. Iqtadars were basically big landlords. All the nobles had their personal armies, which they offered to Sultans for military purpose on demand. The life of a member of this class was .spent in luxury and merry-making. The upper class people lived in palaces or mansions. They indulged in drinking and kept numerous women for their different types of amusements. The Ulemas enjoyed great respect in the society. They had indepth knowledge of Quran and Arabic language. As a result, they wielded great influence in the Muslim royal courts.

2. Muslim Middle Class. The farmers, traders, soldiers, middle ranking government officers were included in the middle class. The Muslim scholars and writers were also counted among them. Their standard of living and social status were far better than the social status and economic condition of the Hindus.

Question 2.
Vaishnavas and Shaivas.
Answer:

Vaishnavas: People believing in Vaishnavism worshipped the incarnations of Lord Vishnu i.e. Lord Krishna and Lord Rama. These people were completely vegetarians.
Shaivas: People believing in Shaivism worshipped Lord Shiva. Most of these were hermits. People of Shaivism included Gorakhpanthi, Nathpanthi and Jogis.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the last ruler of the Lodhi Dynasty?
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodhi was the last ruler of the Lodhi Dynasty.

Question 2.
Who invited Babur to attack Punjab?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi invited Babur to attack Punjab.

Question 3.
Which religious persons were given state patronage during the Lodhi period?
Answer:
The Ulemas and Sufi Sheikhs were given state patronage during the Lodhi period.

Question 4.
What do you understand by Jaziya?
Answer:
Jaziya was a type of tax which Mughal rulers collected from the non-Muslim population. It lieu of it, rulers took the responsibility of their protection.

Question 5.
What do you mean by pilgrimage tax?
Answer:
Pilgrimage tax was collected from non-Muslims. They gave this tax for visiting their pilgrimage places.

Question 6.
When and amongst whom was the Battle of Panipat fought?
Answer:
The first Battle of Panipat was fought in 1526 A.D. between Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi.

Question 7.
Name the two sects of Muslim society.
Answer:
Shia and Sunni.

Question 8.
When and where was Guru Nanak Dev Ji born?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born in 1469 A.D. at Rae Bhoe Ki Talwandi. Now it is known as Nankana Sahib.

Question 9.
Name the parents of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
The name of the mother of Guru Nanak Dev Ji was Mata Tripta and father’s name was Mehta Kalu.

Question 10.
Name any two Banis composed by Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Var Malhar, Var Assa, Japji Sahib, Barah Maha etc.

Question 11.
What are the travels of Guru Nanak Dev Ji called?
Answer:
The travels of Guru Nanak Dev Ji are called Udasis.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the condition of women in early 16th century.
Answer:
In the early 16th century, the condition of women was not good. They were considered lower than males. Their condition in their home was just like a servant. They had to live under the control of males. Few Rajput tribes considered girls a cause of sorrows and even killed them. Women did not enjoy a good status even in the Muslim society. Female was considered only a means of entertainment. They lived a pitiable life from birth till death.

Question 2.
What do you know about the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
1. God is One. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that there is one God. He was not different for different people and thus, could not be divided. He gave the message of one Supreme Formless or Supreme Onkar.

2. God is Formless and Self-Created. Guru Nanak Dev Ji preached that Supreme God is Formless, without attributes and absolute. The Supreme God has attributes, which cannot be explained in words. Guru Sahib further said that God is Self-Created and not bound by the laws of time. Hence, He cannot be presented in the form of an idol and worshipped.

3. God is Omnipotent and Omnipresent. Guru Nanak Dev Ji explained that God is Omnipotent and Omnipresent. He existed everywhere. He cannot be confined within the four walls of a temple or mosque.

4. God is Supreme. According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, God is Supreme. He is incomparable. It is impossible to measure the depth of His grace and greatness.

5. God is Compassionate (Kind). Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that God is compassionate. He attends to his true seekers whenever they need Him.

Question 3.
Write a note on the middle class during the Lodhi period.
Answer:
Middle Class. The low ranking Qazis, soldiers, middle ranking government officials, traders etc. were members of this class. They enjoyed more freedom under the Sultanate rule as compared to other lower sections of the society and also a position of respect in the Muslim Society.

Question 4.
Which social evils did Guru Nanak Dev Ji oppose?
Answer:
Guru Ji believed that there is no place of external rituals in true religious reverence of devotion. That’s why Guru Ji strongly criticised irrational rites and performance of Yajnas and sacrifices in order to achieve God. Guru Nanak Dev Ji also did not accept the methods of Jogis. It had two major reasons-lack of reverence devotion in their behaviour towards God and disagreement towards social responsibilities in their Sanyasi life. Guru Ji did not accept Vaishnav Bhakti and did not give any place to incarnationism in his ideology. Except this, he also criticised the customs of Muslims.

Question 5.
Write a note on the Muslim society during the Lodhi period.
Answer:
1. Upper Class. The high-ranking nobles, Iqtadars, Ulemas, etc. were counted among the members of this class. A noble held high rank in the Muslim government. He was addressed as ‘Malik’, ‘Khan’, ‘Amir’, etc. Iqtadars were basically big landlords. All the nobles had their personal armies, which they offered to Sultans for military purpose on demand. The life of a member of this class was spent in luxury and merry-making.

2. Middle Class. The farmers, traders, soldiers, middle ranking government officers were included in this class. The Muslim scholars and writers were also counted among them. Their standard of living and social status were far better than the social status and economic condition of the Hindus.

3. Lower Class. The artisans, domestic servants, male and female slaves etc. formed the lower class of the Muslim society. The standard of living of this section of Muslim society was very low. They worked hard to earn their livelihood. The artisans like weavers, goldsmiths, ironsmiths, carpenters, cobblers, etc. could hardly earn two square meals by even putting in hardwork throughout the day. The domestic servants and slaves served the high class of the Muslim society.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe in detail about social and religious condition of society during Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s era.
Answer:
Social Condition. During 16th century, the social condition of Punjab was quite pitiable. There was discrimination in society. As compared to Hindus, Muslims were better positioned. There was no proper arrangement of education. People were forced to study Persian language. The condition of women was quite bad. The birth of a female child was considered a curse on the family. Due to prevailing superstitions and evils, this age was considered a dark age.

Following was the social and religious condition of Punjab during 16th century.
1. Position of Muslims. From 11th to 16th centuries, Punjab remained under the Muslim rulers. Under these rulers, many Muslims permanently started residing over here. They married with many females including prostitutes and slaves. Many of the low caste Hindus, due to the fear of Muslim rulers, and under the influence of Muslims, adopted their religion. During this time, many Mughals and Iranis settled in Punjab.

So, In the beginning of the 16th century, there was a sizeable amount of Muslims in Punjab. Most of them lived in towns. In the society of 16th century, Muslims were in a better position than Hindus. Its reason was the Muslim rule in Punjab. Muslims were appointed at higher official posts. They were always favoured in every espect. Upper-Class Muslims had certain privileges as well.

2. Classes of Muslim Society. The Muslim society of the sixteenth century in Punjab was divided into the following three classes :
1. Upper Class. The Afghan Amirs, Sheikhs, Qazis, Ulemas or religious leaders and powerful feudal lords etc. were included in this class. The ministers of the Sultans and high ranking civil and military officers also belonged to this section of the Muslim society. This section led a life of luxury and merry-making.

2. Middle Class and Lower Class:
Middle class: The low ranking Qazis, soldiers, middle ranking government officials, traders etc. were members of this class. They enjoyed more freedom under the Sultanate rule as compared to other lower sections of the society and also a position of respect in the Muslim society.

Lower class: The slaves, the domestic servants, artisans and eunuchs were included in this class. There were female slaves also. Their life was miserable.

3. Condition of Hindus. The condition of Hindu society in the sixteenth century Punjab was very miserable. Every Hindu was treated with suspicion. They were not appointed on high jobs in the government. The Jaziya and Toll tax (which were imposed only on non-Muslims) were forcibly collected from them. The government had imposed numerous restrictions on Hindu customs, traditions, festivals and dress. They were subjected to torture and humiliation to compel them to embrace Islam.

4. Status of Women. Following was the condition of women during the sixteenth century :
1. Miserable Condition. The condition of women in Punjab was pitiable in the beginning of the sixteenth century. They were rated as feeble, hopeless, weak and inferior to men. They were treated as slaves in their own homes. They were cursed to live in subordination to men. Among some of the Rajput clans, the birth of a girl was considered as an ill-omen and she was killed at the time of birth.

2. Evils. Many evils prevailed in the contemporary society which hindered the overall growth of women. Some of the worst traditions and customs were-Practice of Sati, Female infanticide, Child Marriage, Johar, Purdah System, Polygamy, etc.

3. Purdah System. The Purdah system was prevalent among both the Hindu and Muslim women. The Hindu women covered their faces with their chunnis or saris and Muslim women wore Burkas.

Polygamy. The custom of polygamy was very popular among the Muslims. The Emperor and high-ranking officers kept many women for their amusement and fun. Female education was totally neglected. Only the women of royal family received some education. The rest of women folk remained illiterate. There were other numerous restrictions on women.

Religious Condition : During 16th century, Hinduism was the major religion of Punjab. Their major principles were based on Vedas, Ramayana, Mahabharta, Upnishadas, Gita etc. Hinduism was divided into many sects :

Vaishnav Sect: Those who had faith in this sect worshipped Lord Vishnu and his incarnations Lord Rama, Lord Krishna etc. They were completely vegetarians.
Shaiv Sect:. The proponents of Shaivism worshipped Lord Shiva. Most of them were hermits which included Gorakhpanthi, Nathpanthi and Jogis.
Shakti Sect: The believers of Shakti sect worshipped Goddess Kali and Durga as incarnation of Shakti. They also performed animal sacrifice.

Many of them believed in magic. Many people worshipped their ancestors, Gugga Peer, Sheetla Mata etc. Except these in the mountainous regions of Punjab, there lived many people who believed in Buddhism and Jainism. They believed in non-violence.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the first Udasi of Shri Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji went first to the east and then to south on his first journey. He started his journey around 1500 A.D. Guru Sahib took along with him an ardent devotee, Mardana on his first journey. Mardana was a good player of Rabab (a stringed musical instrument).

Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited the various places which are given below :
1. Sayyidpur. Guru Nanak Dev Ji reached Sayyidpur from Sultanpur Lodhi. In the beginning of his journey, Guru Sahib converted a carpenter Bhai Lalo. Guru Sahib refused to partake the food provided by Malik Bhago. Guru Sahib refused to take the food because Malik Bhago followed corrupt means and oppressed the poor to earn money.

2. Talumba. Guru Nanak Dev Ji reached Talumba in district Multan from Sayyidpur. Sajjan Thug, who pretended to be a religious man, lived there. Sajjan was basically a cunning man. Sajjan planned to play his dirty game with Guru Nanak Dev Ji. However, when Guru Nanak Dev Ji sang his hymns before going to bed, it deeply touched the heart of Sajjan. He fell at the feet of Guru Sahib and pleaded for forgiveness. Guru Nanak Dev Ji pardoned him and accepted him as his follower. After that, Sajjan stopped cheating the people and adopted the path of spreading the message of True Faith. The historian Teja Singh has rightly said, “The criminal’s den became a temple of God worship.”

3. Kurukshetra. Guru Nanak Dev Ji went to Kurukshetra from Talumba. He found thousands of Brahmins, Saints, and Hindus gathered there on the occasion of solar eclipse. Guru Nanak Dev Ji addressed the congregation, where Guru Sahib laid stress upon the purity of soul in place of giving more importance to the outer purity or purity of physical existence. Guru Sahib taught them the path of honesty, love, and truth.

4. Panipat. Guru Sahib went to Panipat from Kurukshetra. Guru Sahib met Sufi Sheikh Ikul Kabir. The Sufi saint was highly impressed by Guru Nanak Dev Ji and became his follower.

5. Haridwar. Guru Nanak Dev Ji travelled to Haridwar from Panipat passing through Delhi on his way. At Haridwar, Guru Nanak Dev Ji observed that the people were throwing water upwards facing the sun saying that they were sending water to their ancestors. In order to help the people to see reason, Guru Sahib started throwing water in the opposite direction. When the people inquired about the aim of his such action, Guru Sahib told them that he was watering his fields in the Punjab. The people tried to mock at his reasoning. Then, Guru Nanak Dev Ji sought to reason by questioning that when they could not accept that he could send water a few hundred miles away, then how could they justify their belief that their water offerings were reaching their ancestors millions of miles away? When no one came up with any answer, they became the followers of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

6. Gorakhmatta. Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited Kedarnath, Badrinath, Joshi Math etc. and finally reached Gorakhmatta. Guru Sahib met the followers of Saint Gorakh Nath. Guru Nanak Dev Ji taught that they could not attain moksha by piercing their ears, smearing their bodies with ashes, keeping sticks in their hands and abandoning their social responsibilities. The Yogis of Gorakhmatta were so impressed that they changed the name of the place to Nanakmatta.

7. Benaras. Guru Nanak Dev Ji went to Benaras from Nanakmatta. Guru Sahib met Pandit Chaturdass in Benaras. The teachings and grace of Guru Nanak Dev Ji overwhelmingly impressed Pandit Chaturdass. He submitted before Guru Nanak Dev Ji along with all his followers and all of them became the devotees of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

8. Gaya. Guru Nanak Dev Ji continued his journey from Benaras and reached Gaya, the well-known place of pilgrimage of the Buddhists. Guru Nanak Dev Ji blessed numerous people of Gaya with his teachings and they became his followers.

9. Assam. Guru Nanak Dev Ji travelled through Bihar and Bengal and reached Assam. At ‘Dhubri’, Guru Sahib met Shankar Dev. Guru Sahib met a beautiful magician woman named Nooran, whom Guru Sahib taught that the real beauty was of a pure character.

Guru Nanak Dev Ji continued his journey through Guwahati and Shillong and reached Syhlit. Guru Sahib met Sheikh Jalal at Syhlit. Sheikh Jalal was so impressed by his teachings that he became his follower.

10. Dacca, Cuttack and Jaganath Puri. Guru Nanak Dev Ji went to Dacca from Kamrup. Guru Sahib had an exchange of ideas with numerous religious leaders there. From Dacca, Guru Sahib passed through Cuttack and reached Jagannath Puri in present Orissa. Guru Sahib watched the performance of aarti (worship of an Idol with lamps and cinders) of Idol of Lord Jagannath, the incarnation of God Vishnu. Guru Sahib preached to the people the uselessness of Idol worship. He preached that God is Omnipresent.

11. Journey of South India. Guru Nanak Dev Ji continued his journey to South India. Guru Sahib visited Guntur, Kanchipuram, Trincholopoly, Nagapatnam, Rameshvaram, Trivandrum, and Sri Lanka. The king of Sri Lanka, Shivnabh, was highly impressed by the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. He became his follower. His Queen and other people accepted him as their Guru. In Sri Lanka, Guru Nanak Dev Ji deputed one of his followers, Jhanda Bedi to continue to spread his message.

The Return Journey. On his return journey from Sri Lanka, Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited numerous small towns. Finally, Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited Kusali, Bycola, Anumadhyam, Pannar and Pakpattan. At Pakpattan, Guru Sahib met Sheikh Ibrahim, the tenth descendant of Sheikh Farid. Sheikh Ibrahim felt highly elated by listening to the divine talks of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. From Pakpattan, Guru Sahib went to Dipalpur and returned to Sultanpur.

Question 3.
What do you learn from the life of Shri Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
The teachings and life of Guru Nanak Dev Ji served as ideals for all. Guru Sahib was strongly against the narrow views like irrational customs and rites, caste system, racialism, etc. Guru Sahib had deep faith in the True Name and existence of Supreme God and gave this message to all those who sought His grace.

The main teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji are given below :
1. The Greatness of God. Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s views about God are as follow :

Faith in One Supreme God. Guru Nanak Dev Ji stressed that there is one Supreme God. Guru Sahib did not believe in the incarnation of God. Guru Sahib had called ‘Ram’, ‘Krishna’, ‘Buddha’ etc. as supreme beings but did not accept them as incarnations (Avtars) of God.
God is Formless and Self-Created. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that God is Formless. According to him, God is Self-Created. Hence, God should not be worshipped in the form of idols made by man.
God is Omnipresent and Omnipotent. Guru Nanak Dev Ji preached that God is Omnipresent and Omnipotent. God is present in every living being. Everything exists only because of him.
God is Compassionate (Kind). Guru Nanak Dev Ji assured humanity that God was compassionate and generous. God comes whenever He is sought. The person, who attributes all his acts to the will of God, God Himself comes to his rescue.

2. The Recitation of True Name (Sat Nam). Guru Nanak Dev Ji stressed on the recitation of the True Name. Guru Sahib explained that as a person needed water for washing his body, he needed the recitation of the true name for the purification of his mind.

3. Importance of Guru. Guru Nanak Dev Ji considered the grace of Guru as most essential for reaching God. The Guru is like a ship which takes the follower across the sea of life. Guru Sahib said one could not realize God without the blessings of the Guru. The Guru is the ladder or a path to reach God.

4. Complete faith in the Principles of Right Conduct (Sat Karma). Guru Nanak Dev Ji told that a person passed through a cycle of births and deaths time and again as a result of the deeds performed by him. A person who did wrong deeds, took birth, again and again, to pay for his evil deeds. On the other hand, a person who performed pious deeds escaped the cycle of births and deaths and achieved moksha.

5. Stress on the life of a Householder. Guru Nanak Dev Ji favoured the life of a true householder. Guru Sahib gave the message that a person should live a right type of life on this earth and try to become pure. Guru Sahib showed by his personal example that a person could attain salvation while leading the life of a householder. Guru Sahib showed that a person could lead a detached and pure life even as a family man.

6. Faith in Love for Humanity. Guru Nan^k Dev Ji did not believe in social differences based on colour and race. To him, all the hujnan beings were the creatures of one and the same God. Hence they were all equal.

7. Criticism of Caste System. Guru Nanak Dev Ji strongly criticised the caste system. For him, no one was a Hindu, Muslim, low or high. According to him, there was fundamental equality and unity among all the castes and religions.

8. Social Service. According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the person who did not love and respect all the creations of God, could never achieve God. Guru Sahib asked his followers to serve the society and love humanity selflessly. For him, love for humanity was love for God.

9. Criticism of Idol Worship. Guru Nanak Dev Ji criticised idol worship in very strong terms. According to him, it was useless to worship God in the form of an idol made by a man. For him, the right way to worship God was to recite His Name with full devotion and to realise His presence all around.

10. Criticism of Yajnas, Sacrifices, and Irrational Ceremonies. Guru Nanak Dev Ji strongly criticised irrational rites and performance of yajnas and sacrifices in order to achieve God. According to him, superficial presentations to God had no place in the worship of God.

11. Attainment of Supreme Bliss (Sach Khand). According to the Guru Sahib, the main aim of life of a human being is the attainment of Supreme Bliss or Sach Khand. The Sach Khand is that state of mind under divine grace wherein all the troubles and fears of a person disappear. A devotee becomes fearless and his troubled mind gets peace. In such a state of mind, the person gets a glimpse of the Supreme Being.

12. Emphasis on Life of Virtue. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message to people to |ead a virtuous life. Guru Sahib gave the following principles for an ideal life : (0 Speak the truth, (ii) Do not steal. (Hi) Live a life of piety, (iv) Never hurt the feelings of fellow beings.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Contemporary Society Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Bibi Sulakhni, wife of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, lived in .
(a) Batala
(b) Amritsar
(c) Bhatinda
(d) Kiratpur Sahib.
Answer:
(a) Batala

Question 2.
Who founded the city of Kartarpur?
(a) Guru Angad Dev Ji
(b) Guru Nanak Dev Ji
(c) Guru Ram Dass Ji
(d) Guru Arjan Dev Ji.
Answer:
(b) Guru Nanak Dev Ji

Question 3.
Sajjan Thag met Guru Nanak Dev Ji at
(a) Patna
(b) Sialkot
(c) Talumba
(d) Kartarpur.
Answer:
(c) Talumba

Question 4.
________ was the mother of Gurvr Nanak Dev Ji.
(a) Sulakhani Ji
(b) Tripta Ji
(c) Nanki Ji
(d) Bibi Amro Ji.
Answer:
(b) Tripta Ji

Question 5.
Babur made Guru Nanak Dev Ji prisoner at :
(a) Sialkot
(b) Kiratpur Sahib
(c) Sayyidpur
(d) Pakpattan.
Answer:
(c) Sayyidpur

Question 6.
Babur defeated ________ in the battle of 1526 A.D.
(a) Daulat Khan Lodhi
(b) Behlol Lodhi
(c) Ibrahim Lodhi
(d) Sikandar Lodhi.
Answer:
(c) Ibrahim Lodhi

Question 7.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji started his third Udasi from ________
(a) Sialkot
(b) Kiratpur Sahib
(c) Amritsar
(d) Pakpattan.
Answer:
(d) Pakpattan.

Question 8.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born in A.D.
(a) 1269
(b) 1469
(c) 1526
(d) 1360.
Answer:
(b) 1469

Question 9.
Who made Tatar Khan the Nizam of Punjab?
(a) Behlol Lodhi
(b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Daulat Khan Lodhi
(d) Sikander Lodhi.
Answer:
(a) Behlol Lodhi

Question 10.
________ is considered the most famous king of the Lodhi dynasty.
(a) Behlol Lodhi
(b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Daulat Khan Lodhi
(d) Sikander Lodhi.
Answer:
(d) Sikander Lodhi.

Question 11.
________ considered themselves the descendants of Bibi Fatima, daughter of Prophet Mohammad.
(a) Shaikh
(b) Ulema
(c) Sayyid
(d) Quazi.
Answer:
(c) Sayyid

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Babur conquered Punjab in ________ A.D.
Answer:
1526

Question 2.
Sayyids considered themselves descendants of ________, daughter of Prophet Mohammad.
Answer:
Bibi Fatima

Question 3.
Ibrahim Lodhi called ________ to Delhi to punish him.
Answer:
Daulat Khan

Question 4.
________ was made the Subedar of Punjab after Tatar Khan Lodhi.
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi

Question 5.
The Muslim Amirs wore elongated headgear called ________
Answer:
Cheera

Question 6.
________ was the son of Daulat Khan Lodhi.
Answer:
Dilawar Khan Lodhi

Question 7.
The incident when Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent? 20 to serve food to the saints is known as ________
Answer:
Sacha Sauda

Question 8.
________ was the wife of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Bibi Sulakhani

Question 9.
________ and were the sons of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Sri Chand and Lakhmi Chand

Question 10.
Var Malhar, Var Assa, ________ and ________ were four Banis composed by Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Japji Sahib, Barah Maha

Question 11.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born at ______________ village near Lahore.
Answer:
Talwandi

Question 12.
Gurudwara Panja Sahib is situated at ________
Answer:
Sialkot.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the controversy regarding the date of birth of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
According to Janam Sakhi (Biography) by Bhai Bala Ji, Guru Nanak Dev Ji was bom on the day of full moon in the month of Kartik (October-November) in 1469. The modem historians are of the view that he was born in the month of Vaisakh (Baisakhi season—April-May) and support the date April 15, 1469.

Question 2.
Which incident is known as Sacha Sauda?
Answer:
Gum Nanak Dev’s father gave him twenty rupees to start some business. Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent that money in feeding the hungry saints and this incident is famous as ‘Sacha Sauda’.

Question 3.
To which place did Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s wife belong? Write the names of their sons.
Answer:
Mata Sulakhani, wife of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, belonged to Batala (District Gurdaspur). They had two sons named Bhai Sri Chand and Bhai Lakshmi Chand.

Question 4.
What words were spoken by Guru Nanak Dev Ji after attaining Enlightenment? Explain their meaning.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that ‘No one is a Hindu or Muslim’. These were the first words, which Guru Nanak Dev Ji uttered after attaining enlightenment. The meaning of his message was that all the Hindus and Muslims were equal. It also meant that Hindus and Muslims had forgotten the real message of their respective religions.

Question 5.
What work was done by Guru Nanak Dev Ji at Sultanpur and under whom?
Answer:
At Sultanpur Lodhi, Guru Nanak Dev Ji worked as Bhandari (the store accountant) in a Lodhi Khana (government storehouse) of Subedar Daulat Khan Lodhi.

Question 6.
Name the four Banis composed by Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
The four main ‘Banis’ of Guru Nanak Dev Ji are: War Malhar’, War Assa’, ‘Japji Sahib’ and ‘Barah Maha’.

Question 7.
What did Guru Nanak Dev Ji preach at Kurukshetra?
Answer:
At Kurukshetra, Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that a person should lay stress more on the purity of his mind and soul than on mere purity of his physical appearance (carnal existence).

Question 8.
Write Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s visit to Benaras.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji travelled to Benaras from Gorakhmatta. At Benaras, Pandit Chaturdass debated with him on idol worship. Pandit Chaturdass lost the debate. He was convinced by Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s views. He surrendered himself to him and became his follower.

Question 9.
What did Guru Ji preach the Sidhas and Yogis at Gorakhmata?
Answer:
The Sidhas and Yogis smeared their bodies with ashes and led strange ways of life. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave them the message that they would not attain salvation by adopting useless customs like smearing their bodies with ashes, holding sticks, shaving heads, giving up social responsibilities, etc.

Question 10.
Explain Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s views on God.
Answer:
According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the Supreme God was Formless, Omnipotent, Omnipresent and Eternal. He had both the forms of being absolute (Nirguna) and of (Saguna). The word Vanis is also used for Banis.

Question 11.
What type of sacred thread did Guru Nanak Dev Ji want?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji wanted a sacred thread of pure deeds. According to him, such a sacred thread never breaks, nor is stained.

Question 12.
What is the meaning of Sacha Sauda?
Answer:
The meaning of Sacha Sauda is pious deal or in other words a true kind of business. Guru Nanak Dev Ji made a pious deal by spending twenty rupees to feed the saints.

Question 13.
Where was Guru Nanak Dev Ji born?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born at Talwandi, a village 64 kilometres from Lahore.

Question 14.
Why was Guru Nanak Dev Ji sent to Sultanpur Lodhi?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was sent to his sister Nanki and brother-in-law Jairam to start any business.

Question 15.
Where was a new spirit of Brotherhood promoted by Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji started preaching his message at Kartarpur.

Question 16.
Through which two institutions Guru Nanak Dev Ji started a new brotherhood?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji started it through two new institutions of Sangat and Pangat.

Question 17.
What was the meaning of the Udasis of Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
The meaning of Udasis is those travels which Guru Nanak Dev Ji undertook.

Question 18.
What was the objective of the Udasis of Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
To remove superstitions and to help humanity to adopt the right religious path.

Question 19.
Where is Gurudwara Panja Sahib situated?
Answer:
At Sialkot.

Question 20.
From where Guru Nanak Dev Ji started his third Udasi? ,
Answer:
From Pakpattan.

Question 21.
At which place Babur imprisoned Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
Sayyidpur.

Question 22.
In which of his creation, did Guru Nanak Dev Ji critise the attack of Babur on Sayyidpur?
Answer:
In Babur Vani.

Question 23.
Where did Guru Nanak Dev Ji spend last 18 years of his life?
Answer:
At Kartarpur.

Question 24.
Where can we find the views of Guru Nanak Dev Ji about God?
Answer:
In Japji Sahib.

Question 25.
What is meant by Langar System?
Answer:
Having food by sitting at one place by every one without any discrimination.

Question 26.
Who was the first Guru of Sikhism?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Question 27.
When did Guru Nanak Dev Ji leave this world?
Answer:
On 22nd September 1539.

Question 28.
Describe any one influence of the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji on the people of Punjab.
Answer:
The people of Punjab started worshipping one God and the Idol worship declined.

Question 29.
Which invasion of Babur was compared to ‘Marriage party of Sins’ by Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
The third invasion of Babur on India.

Question 30.
When and who founded Kartarpur?
Answer:
Kartarpur was founded in 1526 by Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Question 31.
Who gave the land for the establishment of Kartarpur?
Answer:
It was given by a person named Diwan Kirorimal Khatri.

Question 32.
Where did Guru Nanak Dev Ji meet Sajjan Thag?
Answer:
At Talumba.

Question 33.
What was the impact of Sajjan Thag’s meeting with Guru Nanak Dev Ji on Sajjan Thag?
Answer:
When he came in contact with Guru Nanak Dev Ji, he left his wrong doings and started propagating the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Question 34.
How did the name of Gorakhmata change to Nanakmata?
Answer:
At Gorakhmata, Guru Nanak Dev Ji told Nath Yogis about the real objective of life and they accepted the greatness of Guru Ji. Then this place was called as Nanakmata.

Question 35.
Where did Guru Nanak Dev Ji spend his last days?
Answer:
At Kartarpur.

Question 36.
Give any one teaching of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
God is one and we must worship Him.

Question 37.
What were Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s views about God?
Answer:
According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, God is One, Formless, Omnipresent and Omnipotent, and Compassionate.

Question 38.
What was the name of the mother of Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
Mata Tripta.

Question 39.
To whom was Guru Nanak Dev Ji sent to take education?
Answer:
Pandit Gopal.

Question 40.
What the incident is known as in which Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent ₹ 20 to serve food to a group of Faqirs?
Answer:
Sacha Sauda.

Question 41.
Give the names of the sons of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Srichand and Lakshmichand.

Question 42.
When did Guru Nanak Dev Ji attain true knowledge?
Answer:
In 1499 A.D.

Question 43.
Who accompanied Guru Nanak Dev Ji during his first Udasi?
Answer:
Bhai Mardana.

Question 44.
Name of which place was changed to Nanakmata?
Answer:
Gorakhmata.

Question 45.
Where did Guru Nanak Dev Ji go during his second Udasi?
Answer:
In the north of India.

Question 46.
When did Guru Nanak Dev Ji start his third Udasi?
Answer:
In 1517 A.D.

Question 47.
Who did Guru Nanak Dev Ji meet at a place called Dhubri?
Answer:
Sant Shankar Dev.

Question 48.
Who was Behlol Khan Lodhi?
Answer:
Behlol Lodhi was the Sultan of Delhi from 1451 to 1489. He established Lodhi dynasty.

Question 49.
Describe any one quality of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodhi was a good soldier.

Question 50.
Describe two shortcomings of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:

Ibrahim Lodhi himself was an Afghan (Pathan) but he failed to understand the freedom-loving nature and habits of the Afghans, his own tribesmen.
He abandoned the policy of his father and grandfather and tried to discipline the Afghans. He failed miserably in his policy.

Question 51.
When did Babur conquer Punjab and whom did he defeat in this battle?
Answer:
Babur won a victory in the first battle of Panipat in April 1526. He defeated Ibrahim Lodhi, the Delhi Sultan. ‘

Question 52.
Define the classes into which the Muslim society was divided.
Answer:
The Muslim society was divided into three classes:

Amirs (nobles), high ranking commanders, Ulemas and Sayyids (Muslim clergy)
Middle Class and
the Slaves.

Question 53.
Write the main terms of treaty between Alam Khan and Babur.
Answer:
The terms of the treaty signed between Alam Khan and Babur were as follow :

Babur would provide military help to Alam Khan to acquire the throne of Delhi.
Alam Khan would recognise the supremacy of Babur over whole of the Punjab.

Question 54.
What do you know about the Ulemas?
Answer:
The Ulemas were the leaders of Muslim religious class. They were scholars of Arabic and religious literature.

Question 55.
What was the difference between the food of the Hindu and the Muslim societies?
Answer:
The food of Amirs, high ranking military officers, Sayyids, Sheikhs, Qazis and Muslim priests was rich and non-vegetarian. But the food of the Hindus was simple and mostly vegetarian.

Question 56.
Who were the Sayyids?
Answer:
The Sayyids claimed themselves to be the descendants of Bibi Fatima, the daughter of Prophet Muhammad. This class is highly respected in the Muslim society.

Question 57.
Describe the Muslim Middle Class.
Answer:
The Muslim Middle Class consisted of middle ranking government officials, soldiers, traders and farmers.

Question 58.
Describe the dress of the Muslim women.
Answer:
The Muslim women wore shirts, ghaghras, and tight pajamas, covering their whole body. They covered their whole body with a cloak called Burka.

Question 59.
Describe the sources of entertainment of the Muslims.
Answer:
The main sources of entertainment of Muslim nobles, Amirs and military commanders were polo, horse riding, dance and music. The game of chess was equally popular among the Amirs and the poor sections of Muslim society.

Question 60.
Describe the superstitions observed by the Hindus.
Answer:
Before the times of Guru Nank Dev Ji, the Hindus of Punjab were victims of blind faith and superstitions.

Question 61.
What was the political condition of Punjab under the rule of Ibrahim Lodhi?
Answer:
The Punjab had been reduced to an arena of intrigues under the rule of Ibrahim Lodhi.

Question 62.
Why did Ibrahim Lodhi summon Daplat Khan Lodhi to Delhi?
Answer:
Ibrahim summoned Dault Khan to Delhi to punish him.

Question 63.
Who made Tatar Khan the Nizam of Punjab?
Answer:
Behlol Lodhi.

Question 64.
Who is considered the most famous king of the Lodhi dynasty?
Answer:
Sikander Lodhi.

Question 65.
Who was made Subedar of Punjab after Tatar Khan?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi.

Question 66.
Name the younger son of Daulat Khan Lodhi.
Answer:
Dilawar Khan Lodhi.

Question 67.
During his Punjab invasion of 1519 A.D., which areas were captured by Babur?
Answer:
Bajaur and Bhera.

Question 68.
When did Babur capture Lahore?
Answer:
1524 A.D.

Question 69.
Between whom the first battle of Panipat was fought?
Answer:
Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi.

Question 70.
Who called themselves descendants of Bibi Fatima, daughter of Prophet Mohammad?
Answer:
Sayyids.

Question 71.
Who did justice related work?
Answer:
Qazi.

Question 72.
Who were at the lowest level in Muslim Society?
Answer:
Slaves.

Question 73.
What were Hindus considered before Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
Jimmy.

Question 74.
Name the religious tax imposed on Hindus.
Answer:
Jaziya.

Question 75.
Among whom the social evil of Sati prevailed?
Answer:
Among Hindus.

Question 76.
What was the name of elongated headgear which the Muslim Amirs wore?
Answer:
Cheera.

Question 77.
Why did Daulat Khan send his son Dilawar Khan to the Sultan of Delhi?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi had thought that the Sultan of Delhi would punish him severely.

Question 78.
Why did Daulat Khan Lodhi invite Babur to attack India?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi wanted to establish his own independent rule over Punjab.

Question 79.
Why did Daulat Khan Lodhi turn against Babur?
Answer:
Babur did not appoint him the ruler of the whole of the Punjab after his victory.

Question 80.
Where did Daulat Khan fight Babur?
Answer:
Daulat Khan fought a battle with Babur at Malout but was defeated.

Question 81.
Write down the words in which Guru Nanak Dev Ji described the political condition of the Punjab of early 16th century.
Answer:
The king was like a lion, judicial officers were dogs.

Question 82.
Why did Babur conquer Punjab?
Answer:
He wanted to occupy the throne of Delhi after conquering Punjab.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in brief the concept of God of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:

God is One. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that there is one God. He was not different for different people and thus could not be divided. He gave the message of one Supreme Formless or Supreme Onkar.
God is Formless and Self-Created. Guru Nanak Dev Ji preached that Supreme God is Formless, without attributes and absolute. The Supreme God has attributes, which cannot be explained in words. Guru Sahib further teaches that God is Self-Created and not bound by the laws of time. Hence, He cannot be presented in the form of an idol and worshipped.
God is Omnipotent and Omnipresent. Guru Nanak Dev Ji explained that God is Omnipotent and Omnipresent. He existed everywhere. He cannot be confined within the four walls of a temple or mosque.
God is Supreme. According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, God is Supreme. He is incomparable. It is impossible to measure the depth of His grace and greatness.
God is Compassionate (Kind). Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that God is compassionate. He attends to his true seekers whenever they need Him.

Question 2.
Which places did Guru Nanak Dev Ji visit during his Second Udasi (travel)?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji passed through Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur and finally reached the present Himachal Pradesh. There, Guru Sahib visited Bilaspur, Mandi, Suket, JawalaJi, Kangra, Kulu, Spiti, etc. and made many people his followers. Guru Sahib then visited Tibet, Kailash Mountain and Amarnath Cave in Kashmir. After that, Guru Sahib also visited Hassan Abdal and Sialkot. From there, Guru Sahib came back to Sultanpur Lodhi.

Question 3.
Describe the Sacred Thread ceremony of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji had not yet completed his early education when it was decided to perform the sacred thread ceremony for Guru Nanak Dev Ji by his parents. A day was fixed for the ceremony as an auspicious day. All the relatives and Brahmins were invited. Pandit Hardyal recited the hymns (mantras) and asked Guru Nanak Dev Ji to sit before him and wear the sacred thread. Guru Nanak Dev Ji refused to wear the thread. Guru Sahib said that he did not need any such thread for his physical body but a permanent thread for his soul. Guru Sahib further stated that he needed such a thread that was not made of cotton yarn but of the yarn of right virtues.

Question 4.
What professions did Guru Nanak Dev Ji adopt in his early life?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji had started showing disinterest in his education and worldly affairs at a very young age. His father engaged him in cattle grazing to divert his interest to worldly affairs. While on cattle-grazing rounds, he remained engrossed in deep meditation and his cattle strayed into fields of the other people. Troubled by the complaints of neighbouring farmers, his father decided to put him in business. He gave him twenty rupees to start some business but Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent all the money in feeding the saints and wanderers. This incident of his life is popular as ‘Sachha Sauda’ or the Pious Deal.

Question 5.
Write about the places Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited during his first Udasi (travel).
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited the following places during his first Udasi :

Guru Sahib went from Sultanpur Lodhi to Sayyidpur where Guru Sahib made Bhai Lalo his follower.
Then Guru Sahib visited Talumba, Kurukshetra and Panipat. Guru Sahib gave the message of doing right deeds to the people of those areas.
From Panipat, Guru Sahib reached Haridwar via Delhi. Guru Sahib preached against superstitions at those places.
Then Guru Sahib visited Kedarnath, Badrinath, Gorakhmatta, Benaras, Patna, Hajipur, Dhubri, Kamrup (Assam), Shillong, Dacca, Jaganath Puri and a number of places in South India. Finally, Guru Sahib came back from Pakpattan to Sultanpur Lodhi via Dipalpur.

Question 6.
Write about the important places visited by Guru Nanak Dev Ji during the third Udasi (travel).
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji started his third Udasi from Pakpattan. He visited the following places during this Udasi :

Multan,
Mecca,
Madina,
Baghdad,
Tehran,
Qandhar,
Peshawar,
Hassan Abdal and
Gujarat.

Question 7.
Give details of the time spent by Guru Nanak Dev Ji at Kartarpur.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji laid the foundation of a new city on the banks of river Ravi in 1521. The city was called “Kartarpur” which means ‘a city of God’. Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent the last eighteen years of his life along with his family members at Kartarpur (now in Pakistan.)

Guru Ji’s work at Kartarpur.

During his stay at Kartarpur, Guru Nanak Dev Ji composed *Var Malhar’, War Majha’, War Assa’, ‘Japji Sahib’, ‘Patti’, ‘Onkar’, etc.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji started the practices of Sangat and Pangat at Kartarpur in a systematic manner. During a session of ‘Sangat’, the followers of the Guru (Sikhs) sat together and meditated and recited hymns of the Guru. In the session of a ‘Pangat’ all the followers of the Guru sat together and partook their meals from a common kitchen (langar). This practice is also called Langar system.
When Guru Nanak Dev Ji prepared himself for the final journey of his life, he appointed his most devoted follower, Bhai Lehna as his successor to Guru-gaddi. Bhai Lehna as Guru Angad Dev Ji became the second Guru of the Sikh religion.

Question 8.
Write on the Udasis (travels) of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji undertook travels to spread his divine message. Those travels are called the Udasis. It is said that Guru Nanak Dev Ji travelled from Kailash mountains in the north to Rameshwaram in the south and from Pakpattan in the west to Assam in the east. Guru Sahib also visited places outside India such as Sri Lanka, Mecca, Medina, and Baghdad. Guru Sahib spent twenty years of his life in Udasis. On his long tours, Guru Nanak Dev Ji came across many people of different religions and faiths. Those people had different rites and customs. Guru Nanak Dev Ji showed them the true religious path.

Question 9.
What is the social significance of the message given by Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
The message of Guru Nanak Dev Ji had great social significance. His message is for all. Every man and woman can easily follow and understand his teachings. There is no place for caste system or discrimination on religious basis. His teachings gave a setback to the caste system and developed the feeling of brotherhood among the people. Guru Sahib always identified himself with the common man. Therefore, Guru Sahib strongly condemned the oppression, injustice, and corruption of contemporary society. Consequently, his teachings removed many evils of the society.

Question 10.
Describe in brief the main teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji taught us :

There is one God. He is omnipresent and omnipotent.
The caste distinctions are meaningless. The rich, poor, Brahmans, Shudras, all are equal.
The right conduct makes a man great.
God should be worshipped with a pure mind.
Guru Sahib gives much importance to True Guru. Guru Nanak Dev Ji regarded the Guru essential for the realisation of God. According to him,‘True Guru acts as a guide in the attainment of the true name of God. Guru is the ladder which enables a man to reach the true goal of his life.”
One should always earn one’s living by right means.
The status of a woman is high. She gives birth to great men. All the women are worthy of highest respect.

Question 11.
Describe the religious policy of Sikandar Lodhi.
Answer:
According to Muslim historians, Sikandar Lodhi was an intelligent ruler, who believed in welfare of his subjects and impartial justice. However, Dr. Indu Bhushan Banerjee strongly opposes this view. According to him, he did justice only to the Muslim section of his subjects. He was a highly oppressive ruler and adopted the policy of intolerance in case of his Hindu subjects. He demolished numerous temples and forcibly converted many Hindus to Muslim faith. Millions of Hindus became victims of his atrocities.

Question 12.
Describe the administration of Sikander Lodhi.
Answer:
Sikander Lodhi was a powerful ruler. He centralized his administration and kept all the nobles and feudal lords under his strict control. He appointed Daulat Khan Lodhi as Nazim of Punjab. The boundaries of Punjab extended from Bhera to Sirhind at that time. Dipalpur was an important Suba of the Punjab province. However, Dipalpur was under nominal control of Lodhi Emperor.

Sikandar Lodhi worked for public welfare and considered it his main duty to solve the problems of his subjects. Unfortunately, he adopted this policy only in case of his Muslim subjects. But he did not treat Hindus well.

Question 13.
Describe the revolts during the rule of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
The following two major revolts took place against the rule of Ibrahim Lodhi.
1. The Revolt of Afghans (Pathans). Ibrahim Lodhi tried to discipline the freedom loving Afghan tribesmen. The Afghans did not tolerate it. They, therefore, rose in revolt under the leadership of Alam Khan, an uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi. Ibrahim Lodhi failed to crush their revolt.

2. Revolt in Punjab. Daulat Khan Lodhi was the governor of Punjab. He was also an uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi. He was annoyed by the stiff, obstinate and suspicious attitude of the Emperor Ibrahim Lodhi. As a result, Daulat Khan Lodhi decided to free himself from the control of the Emperor and started conspiring against him. He invited Babur, the ruler of Kabul, to invade India to achieve his own aim.

Question 14.
Why did Dilawar Khan Lodhi go to Delhi? How did Ibrahim Lodhi treat him?
Answer:
Dilawar Khan visited Delhi to meet Ibrahim Lodhi and to clarify his position regarding his relations with his father Daulat Khan. Ibrahim Lodhi threatened Dilawar Khan. He told Dilawar Khan that he would severely punish his father Daulat Khan for conspiring against him. Dilawar Khan was shown horrifying scenes of torture, which were inflicted on the rebels and afterwards, even he was imprisoned by the Sultan. Somehow, Dilawar Khan managed to escape from the prison of Ibrahim Lodhi. On reaching Lahore, he told his father Daulat Khan all the facts; the treatment meted out to him and happenings at Delhi. Daulat Khan got the message and also came to know the real intentions of Ibrahim Lodhi and decided to cross swords with him.

Question 15.
Describe the Sayyidpur attack of Babur.
Answer:
Babur marched towards Sayyidpur (Emnabad) after occupying Sialkot. A large army stationed at Sayyidpur offered a stiff resistance to the cavalry of Babur. However, Babur won the battle. The defeated army was mercilessly killed. The people of Sayyidpur were also subjected to cruelties. Many of them were made slaves. Guru Nanak Dev Ji described the cruel deeds of Babur in his ‘Babur Vani’.

Question 16.
Write about Babur’s invasion of India in 1524 A.D.
Answer:
In 1524, Babur attacked India for the fourth time. Alam Khan, the real uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi, appealed to Babur to help him in occupying the throne of Delhi. Even the governor of Punjab, Daulat Khan Lodhi, another relative of Ibrahim Lodhi, had sought the help of Babur against Ibrahim Lodhi. Consequently, Babur, passing through Bhera reached Lahore. On reaching Lahore, Babur learnt that Daulat Khan had been driven out of Lahore by the army of Delhi before his arrival.

Babur immediately took revenge of the defeat of Daulat Khan by the army of Delhi.,In the meantime, misunderstanding developed between Daulat Khan Lodhi and Babur at Dipalpur. Daulat Khan was expecting that Babur would appoint him as the governor of Punjab after his victory. But Babur gave him only the territories of Jalandhar and Sultanpur. The disappointed Daulat Khan was infuriated. He ran away to hilly areas in order to raise an army to take revenge of his insult at the hands of Babur. However, the situation took a new turn when Babur entrusted Dipalpur to Alam Khan Lodhi and left for Kabul to strengthen his army and make more preparations for another invasion of India.

Question 17.
What efforts were made by Alam Khan to conquer Punjab?
Answer:
Babur entrusted the charge of Dipalpur to Alam Khan Lodhi at the end of his fourth expedition before returning to Kabul. Later, Alam Khan Lodhi planned to grab the whole of Punjab. However, his dream was shattered when Daulat Khan defeated him and turned him out of Punjab. Alam Khan Lodhi again went to seek protection of Babur. He signed a treaty with Babur. According to the terms of the treaty, Alam Khan Lodhi promised Babur to help him to occupy the throne of Delhi. Alam Khan assured Babur that after occupying Punjab, he would accept the suzerainty of Babur over Punjab. However, Alam Khan failed in his plans. Ultimately, Alam Khan helped Daulat Khan against Ibrahim Lodhi. This time again he failed to achieve his goal and all his plans to grab Punjab were ruined.

Question 18.
Describe the strategy of war between the army of Ibrahim Lodhi and of Babur at Panipat.
Answer:
The strength of the army of Ibrahim Lodhi on the battleground of Panipat was one lakh soldiers. It was divided into four sections :

Advance Wing
Centre Wing
Left Wing and
Right Wing.

There were 500 elephants also in his army.
Babur had arranged 700 carts before his army. The wheels of those carts were tied to each other with leather, leaving gaps between the pairs of carts. The artillery was arranged behind those carts. Behind the cannons, the front and the central wings, the army was stationed. The Left and Right Talughmas (invading platoons, which adopted guerilla technique of war) flanked the main army. At the back of such a layout stood the cavalry, ready to charge the enemy.

Question 19.
Write a note on the Amirs and Sardars.
Answer:
The Amirs and high-ranking commanders belonged to the upper section of the Muslim society. They were given ranks and titles. The commanders were paid in the form of land grants called ‘Iqtas’ from where they collected land revenue. They were free to spend land revenue as they liked.

The commanders always remained involved in wars. They were engaged in making plans to free themselves from the control of the Delhi ruler in one way or the other. They did not look after the local administration, which was a part of their official duty. They spent their wealth on a life of luxury and debauchery. They lived in big mansions with many wives. They had many male and female slaves.

Question 20.
Write about the religious leaders of the Muslims.
Answer:
There were two sections of Muslim high clergy,

Ulemas: They belonged to religious class of the Muslim society. They were authorities on Arabic and religious literature,
Sayyids: Apart from the Ulemas, there was a class of Sayyids in the Muslim religious society. They claimed themselves to be the descendants of Bibi Fatima, the daughter of Prophet Muhammad.

Both the Sayyids and the Ulemas had a thorough knowledge of the law governing the Muslim society.

Question 21.
Describe the condition of slaves and other low classes in the society.
Answer:

The lowest class in the Muslim society included persons like weavers, potters, labourers, slaves and eunuchs. The prisoners of war were made slaves. They were also exported to other countries.
The eunuch slaves were employed to serve the royal ladies in the harems.
The women slaves were like an object of amusement for satisfying the whims of the Amirs and high ranking commanders. Such women received shelter, food and clothing in return. Their condition of life depended upon the mercy of their owners.

Question 22.
What were the food habits of the Muslims?
Answer:
The food habits of Upper Section of Muslim Society. The upper section of Muslim society included Amirs, high ranking commanders, Sayyids, Sheikhs, priests and Qazis. They enjoyed delicious food, spices and chillies in excess. The ‘Pulao’ and ‘Korrma’ were their most favourite delicacies. Among sweets and desserts, they liked puddings of ground flour (Halwa) and syrups (sharbats). It was a normal habit with the members of the upper class to take drugs.

The Food of Common Muslims. The common Muslims were non-vegetarian. The baked cakes of wheat (chappati) and roasted meat were their staple diet. The cooked food was also available in the bazaars. Most of the Muslim artisans loved to take mashed curd (lassi) along with their meals.

Question 23.
Write about the dress of the Muslims.
Answer:

The Upper Class Muslims wore costly and gaudy dresses. Their clothes were made of silk and fine cotton. The Amirs wore elongated headgear (Paggadi). They called their headgear ‘Cheera’.
The Dress of the Slaves of the Nobles. They wore girdle (special cloth) covering abdomen. They kept a handkerchief and wore red sleepers. They wore ordinary headgears.
The Muslim Clergy. They wore cotton clothes. They wore headgears of seven yards long cloth. The Sufis wore loose gowns.
The Common Muslims. They wore shirts and pyjamas. They also wore shoes and socks.
The Muslim women. A Muslim woman wore shirt, ghaggra and narrow pyjama.

Question 24.
Describe the position of women in the Muslim society.
Answer:
A description of condition of the Muslim women in the sixteenth century is given below :

They did not enjoy a respectable position in the Muslim society.
The women belonging to high class lived in highly protected environment of harems. The slaves and concubines were provided to serve them.
The Pardah system was rigorously observed. However, this system was not strictly observed in the rural areas.
The women of the families of the common people working in the houses of upper class people lived in separate portions of the houses. Their portion was called Janan Khanna. They could come out of their dwelling houses only in Pardah.

Question 25.
Write about the caste system prevalent before Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
The Hindu society was divided into different castes or classes before the times of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. The main castes were: Brahman, Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudra.

Apart from these main castes, there were numerous sub-castes.

Brahmans. The Brahmans had become totally negligent of their duties and responsibilities towards the society and worked for their personal interests. They indulged in flattery of the ruling class to serve their own interests. They also had great influence on the common man. The common people were trapped in numerous superstitions due to the influence of Brahmans.
Kshatriyas and Vaishyas. The condition of the Kshatriyas and the Vaishyas was comparatively better.
Shudras. The condition of Shudras was very miserable. They were hated and treated as untouchables. There was no harmony between the upper castes and the lower castes in the Hindu society.

Question 26.
Discuss the political condition of Punjab of early sixteenth century.
Or
Describe the political condition of Punjab before Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
In the early sixteenth century, the condition of the Punjab was very deplorable. It was called Lahore province and was a part of the Delhi Empire in those days. The Sultans of Delhi (Behlol Lodhi to Ibrahim Lodhi 1451 to 1526) were despots. Anarchy spread in Punjab under their rule. The whole atmosphere was poisoned with conspiracies. There was naked dance of lawlessness in the whole of Punjab. The ruling class was busy in merry-making. The government officials were corrupt and openly neglected their duties. There was no hope of getting justice in such a situation. Guru Nanak Dev Ji said that justice had taken wings. Bhai Gurdas had also described the corruption and maladministration of this period.

Question 27.
What was the cause of struggle between Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi and Daulat Khan Lodhi in the beginning of the sixteenth century? What steps did Ibrahim Lodhi take to check Daulat Khan Lodhi?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi was the governor of Punjab during the reign of Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi. In name, he was subordinate to Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi but he was virtually acting as an independent ruler of Punjab. He won over Alam Khan Lodhi, the uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi, to his side through secret negotiations, wherein he assured Alam Khan Lodhi his help in acquiring the throne of Delhi. When Ibrahim Lodhi learnt about this secret plot, he summoned Daulat Khan Lodhi to Delhi. Daulat Khan sent his son Dilawar Khan Lodhi in his place to clarify his position. When Dilawar Khan Lodhi arrived in Delhi, Ibrahim Khan Lodhi imprisoned him. Somehow, Dilawar Khan managed to escape from the prison and reached back Lahore to join his father. Daulat Khan Lodhi invited Babur to invade India in order to take revenge upon Ibrahim Lodhi for his act.

Question 28.
Describe the struggle between Babur and Daulat Khan Lodhi.
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi invited Babur to invade India. Daulat Khan expected that Babur would appoint him the governor of Punjab after his victory. However, Babur gave him the territory of Jalandhar and Sultanpur only. As a result, he raised the banner of revolt against Babur. It soon led to a battle between them in which Daulat Khan and his son Ghazi Khan were defeated. After that, Babur returned to Kabul after entrusting his Indian possessions to Alam Khan. The moment Babur turned his back, Daulat Khan chased out Alam Khan, who at that time, represented Babur in Punjab, and declared himself the ruler of Punjab instead. Alam Khan visited Babur at Kabul and invited him to invade India. Babur again invaded India for the fifth time in 1525 and imprisoned Daulat Khan. Daulat Khan was later pardoned but he died soon after.

Question 29.
Describe the struggle between Babur, the King of Kabul, and Ibrahim Lodhi, Sultan of Delhi.
Or
Describe the first battle of Panipat. What was the significance of this battle in the history of Punjab?
Answer:
Babur marched towards Delhi after defeating Daulat Khan Lodhi. Ibrahim Lodhi also left Delhi with an army of one lakh soldiers to cross swords with Babur. They fought the battle at Panipat on April 21, 1526. Ibrahim Lodhi, the Sultan of Delhi, was defeated and killed in the battle. Babur, the Padshah of Kabul, reached Delhi with his victorious army and unfurled his flag of victory over Delhi. With that Delhi Sultanate came to an end and the rule of the Mughal dynasty began. Hence, the battle of Panipat decided the fate of Punjab and also of whole of India.

Question 30.
Describe the condition of the Hindu society of the sixteenth century Punjab.
Answer:
The condition of Hindu society in the sixteenth century Punjab was very miserable. Every Hindu was treated with suspicion. They were not appointed on high jobs in the government. The Jaziya and Toll tax (which were imposed only on non-Muslims) were forcibly collected from them. The government had imposed numerous restrictions on Hindu customs, traditions, festivals and dress. They were subjected to torture and humiliation to compel them to embrace Islam. Sikander Lodhi killed a Brahmin named ‘Bodhan’ because he had resisted conversion to Islam. It is also a part of local oral history that once Sikander Lodhi had planned to kill all the Hindus who had assembled at Kurukshetra in a religious fair. However, he refrained from executing his plans due to the fear of mass revolt of the Hindus against him.

Question 31.
Describe the various classes of sixteenth-century Muslim society.
Answer:
The Muslim society of the sixteenth century in Punjab was divided into following three classes :
1. Upper class. The Afghan Amirs, Sheikhs, Qazis, Ulemas or religious leaders, and powerful feudal lords, etc. were included in this class. The ministers of the sultans and high ranking civil and military officers also belonged to this section of the Muslim Society. This section led a life of luxury and merry-making.

2. Middle class. The low ranking Qazis, soldiers, middle-ranking government officials, traders etc. were members of this class. They enjoyed more freedom under the Sultanate rule as compared to other lower sections of the society and also a position of respect in the Muslim society.

3. Lower class. The slaves, the domestic servants, artisans and eunuchs were included in this class. There were female slaves also. Their life was miserable.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Throw light on the childhood of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Birth and Parentage. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born on April 15, 1469. Mehta Kalu Ram was his father and Mata Tripta, his mother. His father belonged to Bedi caste of the Kshatriyas. Mehta Kalu Ram was a Patwari under Jagirdar Rai Bular of Talwandi. The name of the only sister of Guru Nanak Dev Ji was Bibi Nanaki who was elder to Guru Sahib.

His Childhood and Education. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was kind at heart since his childhood. Guru Sahib was easily moved by the pains and sorrows of the poor and downtrodden. Guru Sahib was sent to the school of Pandit Gopal at the age of seven. Guru Sahib learnt the Devanagri script and arithmetic within two years. Guru Sahib was sent to the school of Pandit Brij Lai to learn Sanskrit. Guru Sahib surprised Pandit Brij Lai with the right explanation of the word ‘OM’. According to the Sikh traditions, Guru Nanak Dev Ji had learnt Persian and Arabic from Maulvi Qutubudin.

The Ceremony of Sacred Thread. During the years of his early education, the parents of Guru Nanak Dev Ji decided to perform his sacred thread ceremony. All the relatives were invited on the occasion. After making preparations for the ceremony, Pandit Hardyal asked Guru Nanak Dev Ji to wear the cotton thread as the sacred thread. Guru Nanak Dev Ji refused to follow his instructions. Guru Sahib asked Pandit Ji to provide him with a thread not of cotton yarn but a thread which was made of right virtues.

Adopted Different Occupations. The father of Guru Nanak Dev Ji persuaded him to graze cattle in >order to divert his attention from spiritual activities to worldly activities. While on his cattle-grazing rounds, Guru Nanak Dev Ji usually lost himself in deep meditation and his unattended cattle used to destroy the fields of the other farmers. Troubled by the complaints of the neighbouring farmers, his father decided to engage him in business. He gave him twenty rtipees to start some business but Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent the entire amount on feeding the hungry saints and wanderers. This incident of his life is popular as ‘Sacha Sauda’.

Marriage. Mehta Kalu Ram became depressed on watching the other worldly nature of his son. He married Guru Sahib to Bibi Sulakhani, daughter of Mulraj of Batala from a Kashtriya clan. At the time of his marriage, Guru Nanak Dev Ji was fourteen years old. Bhai Sri Chand and Bhai Lakshmi Chand were born to them. Mehta Kalu Ram sent Guru Nanak Dev Ji to Sultanpur Lodhi to adopt some regular profession. Guru Nanak Dev Ji got employment in a storehouse of Faujdar Daulat Khan on the recommendation of his brother-in-law, Shri Jai Ram. Guru Sahib started helping the saints open-heartedly at the storehouse. A complaint was lodged with Daulat Khan against him. However, when the records of the store were verified, every account was found in perfect order. It brought him great respect and admiration for his honesty.

Enlightenment. Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited the bank of river Kali Bein every morning to take a bath. Guru Sahib used to meditate every day at the time of bath. One morning, Guru Sahib went to take bath as usual, but disappeared for three days. During those days, Guru Sahib remained engaged in deep meditation and received the divine knowledge. Guru Sahib attained enlightenment and came to understand the mysteries of life. Guru Sahib was thirty years of age at that time.

Soon after, Guru Sahib started spreading the divine knowledge. His teachings were quite simple which attracted numerous people and they became his followers.

Question 2.
Describe the time period spent by Guru Nanak Dev Ji at Sultanpur Lodhi.
Answer:
Sometime between 1486-87, the father of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, Mehta Kalu Ram sent Guru Sahib to Sultanpur Lodhi with a hope to divert his attention to worldly affairs. Guru Sahib started staying with Shri Jai Ram, his brother-in-law, and the husband of his sister Bibi Nanaki.

Job with Lodhi Khana. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was well-versed in Persian language and arithmetic. Guru Sahib joined as Bhandari (the store accountant) in Lodhi Khana (storehouse), of a Faujdar under Daulat Khan Lodhi on the recommendation of Shri Jai Ram. Guru Sahib worked very honestly and sincerely. However, a complaint was lodged against him that he was distributing the store-goods among the saints and wanderers without keeping any record. When the records were verified everything was found in perfect order.

The Life of a Householder and Meditation. Guru Nanak Dev Ji also brought his family to Sultanpur Lodhi after sometime. Guru Sahib started living a simple and pure family life. It was his routine that Guru Sahib visited the river Kali Bein on the outskirts of the town to take bath and to meditate on the name of God. He gave a part of his earnings in charity to the needy.

Enlightenment. It is recorded in Janam Sakhis, that one morning, as per his routine, Guru Sahib want to take bath in the river Kali Bein. But Guru Sahib disappeared for the next three days. A rumour spread in the town that he had been drowned in the river. All his relatives and well-wishers started worrying about his well-being. However, Guru Nanak Dev Ji had spent those days in deep meditation and on attainment of enlightenment. Guru Sahib had planned to spread the divine knowledge during those days.

After three days, Guru Nanak Dev Ji again returned to Sultanpur Lodhi and kept a mystic silence for some days. When Guru Sahib was persuaded to speak, he uttered his first divine message, “Na Ko Hindu Na Ko Musalman”. Faujdar Daulat Khan, Qazi, and Brahmins sought the explanation of his message. Guru Nanak Dev Ji taught them that the Hindus as well as the Muslims had forgotten the true tenets of their religions. He said that there was no difference in being a Hindu or Muslim. All were equal before God. Thus, Guru Sahib started preaching his divine teachings with the message of brotherhood and humanity. In order to preach his divine message, Guru Sahib resigned from his worldly job and started his travels.

Question 3.
Describe the Udasis (Travels) of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
After attaining enlightenment, Guru Nanak Dev Ji decided to spread the divine message for the spiritual benefit of humanity. Guru Sahib resigned his job and started his journey dressed as a fakir. Guru Nanak Dev Ji wanted to spread the divine message for which he travelled far and wide. Guru Sahib visited the east, west, north and south of India and blessed the people with his sweet voice and simple teachings. It took him twenty years to complete the whole journey. The historians of the Sikh history call the travels of Guru Nanak Dev Ji as the ‘Udasis’ of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Aims of the Udasis. The main aim of Guru Nanak Dev Ji to undertake the Udasis was to show the true divine path to misguided humanity. Apart from that, Guru Sahib also aimed at popularising the mode of meditation on God’s Name in order to realise Him. Guru Sahib also aimed at discouraging the irrational rites, customs and superstitions.

The Udasis (Travels or Tours) of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. A brief account of his travels divided into three journeys may be studied as under :
1. First Udasi. Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited the following places on his first journey.
(а) Guru Nanak Dev Ji went from Sultanpur Lodhi to Sayyidpur where he made Bhai Lalo his follower.
(b) Afterwards, Guru Sahib went to Talumba (where the cunning Sajjan lived), Kurukshetra, .and Panipat. Guru Sahib encouraged the people to do good deeds.
(c) Guru Nanak Dev Ji went to Haridwar from Panipat via Delhi. Guru Sahib criticized superstitions and useless ceremonies.
(d) Next, Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited Kedarnath, Badrinath, Benaras,
Gorakhmatta, Patna, Hajipur, Dhubri, Kamrup, Shillong, Dacca and South India. Finally, he came back to Sultanpur Lodhi from Pakpattan via Dipalpur.

2. Second Udasi. Guru Nanak Dev Ji passed through Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur and finally reached the present Himachal Pradesh. There he visited Bilaspur, Mandi, Suket, JawalaJi, Kangra, Kullu, Spiti etc. and made many people his followers. Guru Sahib then visited Tibet, Kailash Mountains and Amarnath cave in Kashmir. After that, Guru Sahib also visited Hassan Abdal and Sialkot. From there, Guru Sahib came back to Sultanpur Lodhi.

3. Third Udasi. Guru Nanak Dev Ji started his third Udasi from Pakpattan finally and reached Sayyidpur. During this journey,

Guru Sahib visited the following places :

Multan
Mecca
Madina
Baghdad
Tehran
Qandhar
Peshawar
Hassan Abdal and
Gujarat.

Question 4.
Explain in detail the concept of God according to Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
The core of the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji is the praise of God (Nirankar). A simple description of the views of Guru Nanak Dev Ji on God is as follows :
1. There is One God. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message of “Ek Onkar” which means One Supreme God. It was the core of all his teachings. It was the gist of his teachings or Mool Mantar. The gist of all his divine preaching on the idea of God is represented in his main saying (Mool Mantar). Guru Sahib told that there is one God and He cannot be divided. This message had social and religious importance for the contemporary world. The Muslims prayed to God accepting Prophet Muhammad as His prophet. The Hindus worshipped numerous gods and goddesses by accepting each of them as Supreme form. In his teachings, Guru Sahib strongly denied the concept of the incarnation of Supreme God. On that account, Guru Sahib did not accept Ram, Krishna, Buddha, and Muhammad as the incarnations of Supreme God.

2. God is Formless and Self-Created. Guru Nanak Dev Ji declared that God is Formless. He does not have any shape or form (Nirguna) but there are different attributes of God also (Saguna). Hence, the exact perception of God remains beyond the reach of words. God is Self Created, not by time (Altai Purakh), eternal and timeless (Akal Murat). Hence, it will not help, if Supreme God is worshipped only in the form of an idol created out of the perception of a common man. Guru Sahib rightly claimed that an ignorant man did not have the capacity to perceive the real God and neither had the ability to perceive and represent the Supreme God in the form of an idol or a symbol.

3. God is Omnipresent and Omnipotent. According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, God is omnipresent and omnipotent. Guru Sahib said that He is present everywhere. He cannot be confined within the four walls of a temple or mosque. One of his couplets when translated, elaborates thus, “Why to seek one that was created and dies. Seek the only one, who is eternal.”

The being, which is created, will die. The being, which is created, is bound by time. It has a beginning. The thing, which has a beginning, has an end also. However, the Supreme God is Self-Created, that is, he was not created and thus will not end with time. He is Akal Murat, that is not bound by time (start and end) and thus timeless (permanent).

4. God is Compassionate (Kind). Guru Nanak Dev Ji said that God is very kind. He helps whenever He is sought. He lives in the hearts of his believers. To Guru Nanak Dev Ji, God was personal and merciful. He helped them who had faith in Him in time of trouble and difficulty.

5. God is Supreme and Great. Guru Nanak Dev Ji declared that God is Supreme and Great. It was beyond the capabilities of human beings to understand his Supreme Existence. Only God knows what actually He is. Thus Guru Nanak Dev Ji said, . ‘He, The Great, knows, what can be known on being great.’ ‘A’rtoi sfS1′ tyufHf WJ TF<? W( I’ Many people had tried to explain the greatness of God but none had been successful in revealing His greatness in words.

6. Importance of his edicts (Hukam). The teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji were full of praise of “Hukam” (rules ordained by God) of God. According to Guru Sahib , every event in the universe takes place as ordained by God (Hukam). Guru Sahib suggested that humanity should accept the sweet will of God as revealed in His Hukam.

Question 5.
Describe the role of Guru Nanak Dev Ji as a teacher and the founder of the Sikh religion.
Answer:
(A) As a Great Teacher :
1. Preacher of Truth. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was a great teacher of humanity. Guru Sahib attained enlightenment in the thirtieth year of his life. Guru Sahib travelled widely to spread his message. Guru Sahib spread the gospel of Truth in every nook and corner of the Punjab. Everywhere, people were impressed by his personality and message. Guru Nanak Dev Ji taught to abandon the materialistic desires, selfishness, and greediness and enjoined upon his followers to lead a pious life. Guru Sahib taught those principles which he himself practised in his personal life.

2. A Guru for the Whole Humanity. The teachings of Guru Sahib were not meant for any particular community, place, or nation, rather they are for the whole world. Prof. K.S. Narang opines that his message was not just for one period of time. It is eternal. Guru Sahih’s teachings were so rational and complete that even modern rationalists cannot find any shortcomings in them. The main aim of his teachings was the welfare of the whole humanity. It was only with the spirit of the welfare of the whole humanity that Guru Sahib undertook hard journey to Burma, China, Tibet, Arabia, etc.

(B) As the founder of Sikh Religion: Guru Nanak Dev Ji founded the Sikh religion. There are some fundamental principles of Sikh religion which are found only in Sikhism but not in Hinduism or Islam. Fpr example, Guru Nanak Dev Ji started the institutions of Sangat and Pangat which were the important features of the new faith. Secondly, Guru Nanak Dev Ji did not appoint his son as successor to Guru-gaddi but gave it to his devotee Bhai Lehna. By this act, the Guru tradition became very significant and the Sikh religion was founded. The Sikh religion continued to develop during the period of next nine Gurus and the Sikh religion established itself as a full-fledged religion.

Question 6.
Describe the political condition of Punjab before Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
The political condition of the Punjab was very miserable before the times of Guru Nanak Dev Ji (i.e. in the beginning of the 16th century). Punjab was known as the Lahore Province (Suba) in those days and formed part of the Delhi Empire. However, the glory of the Delhi Empire had declined by that time. As a result, the Punjab administration was weak and inefficient.

The brief description of the political condition of Punjab in the beginning of the 16th century was as under :
1. Despotic Rule. In the beginning of 16th century, Punjab was ruled by despotic rulers. All the Delhi Sultans of this period from Behlol Lodhi to Ibrahim Lodhi, were despots. They believed in the doctrine of Divine Right of the King and considered themselves as the representatives of God on the earth. All the powers of the Empire were concentrated in their hands. How can one expect that rights of common man were safe during the rule of such despots?

2. Political Anarchy: The country had been reduced to an arena of intrigues during the reign of the Lodhis. The last years of the reign of Sikandar Lodhi witnessed revolts all over the Empire. During the reign of Ibrahim Lodhi, there were frequent revolts in his kingdom. All his commanders and courtiers were busy in conspiring against him. The provincial governors were either trying to establish their independent kingdoms or joining the camps of contenders to the throne of Delhi. Such a state of anarchy worsened the condition of Punjab. It was a historic fact that no ruler could effectively rule Delhi without his control over the Punjab. Hence, all the Subedars were watching the situation in Punjab keenly. The governor of Punjab, Daulat Khan Lodhi, was making every effort to establish his independent control over Punjab. A spirit of revolt was rising among the people of Punjab due to the selfish policies of the incapable rulers.

3. Lawlessness: In the beginning of the 16th century, there was complete lawlessness in the Punjab. The ruling class was busy in merry-making. The government officers were corrupt. There was no hope for any one to get justice in such a situation. The condition of the period is also reflected in the sayings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. Guru Sahib Ji said that justice had taken wings. Guru Sahib Ji further revealed that there was not a single man who would do job without taking bribe. The ruler himself sought gratification to deliver justice. Sikandar Lodhi tried to deliver justice but he adopted this approach only for his Muslim subjects.

4. Wars: The Punjab was reduced to a battleground. Every ambitious noble was making efforts to establish his control over Punjab so that he could occupy the throne of Delhi. The intrigues and ambitions of military conynanders, Subedars, and courtiers led to numerous clashes. During the period, a tussle between Daulat Khan Lodhi and Ibrahim Lodhi continued for a long time. Babur invaded the Punjab five times during 1519-1526 A.D.

Question 7.
Describe Babur’s conquest of Punjab.
Answer:
The victory of Babur over Punjab was the outcome of the first battle of Panipat. It was fought in 1526 A.D. between Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi, the Sultan of Delhi. Babur won this battle and occupied Punjab.

Babur’s invasion. Babur left Kabul for India in November 1525, with his twelve thousand soldiers. He defeated Daulat Khan Lodhi at Lahore on his march towards Delhi. The Sultan of Delhi, Ibrahim Lodhi proceeded towards north-west along with an army of one lakh soldiers against Babur. His army was divided into four wings, namely, the advance guard, central division, right wing and left wing. There were five hundred elephants in his army. The rival armies stood face to face in the battlefield of Panipat.

Beginning of the Battle. There were no attack from either side for eight days. Ultimately, on April 21, 1526, the army of Ibrahim attacked Babur’s forces. Babur started his attack by continuously firing his cannons. It was a new situation and experience for the Delhi army. Immediately afterwards, the right and left Talugma wings of Babur’s army attacked Delhi army. It was followed by a strong charge of the middle wing of Babur’s army consisting of cavalry on the centre of Delhi army. In this manner, Delhi army was encircled from all sides. They could move neither forward nor retreat. The elephants of Ibrahim’s army were terrified and injured by the gunshots. They trampled their own soldiers of Delhi army under their feet. Within no time, the ground of Panipat was flooded with corpses of the killed soldiers. By the end of the noon, on the same day, the battle was over. The dead body of Ibrahim was found lying among numerous corpses of Rajput soldiers who were bodyguards of the dead Sultan. This battle completed the occupation of Punjab by Babur.

Question 8.
Describe in brief the intrigues of Daulat Khan Lodhi in Punjab.
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi was the son of Tatar Khan. Sikander Lodhi had appointed his reliable and near relative Tatar Khan as the governor of Punjab because of the sensitive situation in Punjab Province. After the death of Tatar Khan, his son Daulat Khan was appointed as governor of Punjab. During the lifetime of Sikander Lodhi, Daulat Khan remained loyal to Delhi Sultan but after the death of the Sultan, he started conspiring against the Delhi Sultanate with an aim to establish his independent control oyer Punjab.

1. Intrigues against Ibrahim Lodhi. Ibrahim Lodhi learnt about the plots of Daulat Khan Lodhi against him. He summoned Daulat Khan Lodhi to Delhi to clarify his position. But the Sultan Daulat Khan was guilty. Hence, he sent Dilawar Khan, his son, in his place to Delhi to represent him. Ibrahim Lodhi threatened Dilawar Khan. He tried to convey him the message that he could severely punish those who dared to conspire against him. Afterwards, he imprisoned Dilawar Khan. Somehow, Dilawar Khan managed to escape from the prison.^On reaching Lahore, he told Dault Khan about all the happenings.

Daulat Khan was quick to realise the danger of facing a real conflict with Ibrahim Lodhi. Therefore, first of all, he immediately declared himself as an independent ruler of Punjab. Further, in order to strengthen his position, he sought the help of Babur, the ruler of Kabul, and sent his son Dilawar Khan to him for negotiations. Dilawar Khan assured Babur of the full support of his father. Babur was desirous of becoming the ruler of India. He had earlier invaded India a couple of times with the same aim. Hence, he found his dream of ruling India becoming true, when he received the offer of Daulat Khan.

He marched towards India with full strength and easily occupied Lahore. However, when he proceeded further, he faced a strong opposition of the Afghan leaders. He ordered his army to indulge in loot and plunder at Lahore. Soon after, Dipalpur and Jalandhar were also looted. After conquering Punjab, Babur made Daulat Khan the Subedar of Jalandhar and entrusted the rest of Punjab to Alam Khan Lodhi, who was also made a representative or Vakil of Babur in India.

2. Daulat Khan’s Revolt against Babur. Daulat Khan had expected that Babur would declare him an independent ruler of Punjab. He was shocked and infuriated when Babur declared him the Subedar of Jalandhar only. He raised the banner of revolt against Babur along with his son Ghazi Khan. Babur easily crushed his revolt. Daulat Khan escaped to the hills of Shivaliks to save his life. When Babur left India, Daulat Khan came down from the Shivalik hills. He occupied a major portion of Punjab after defeating the armies of Alam Khan and Ibrahim Lodhi.

3. Defeat of Daulat Khan and his death. Babur was keeping an eye on the activities of Daulat Khan Lodhi. When he learnt that Daulat Khan had occupied Punjab again, he left Kabul in November 1525 to invade India. On reaching Lahore, he learnt that Daulat Khan Lodhi was camping at Malout near Hoshiarpur. Hence, Babur immediately attacked Malout. Daulat Khan was not able to resist the attack and lost the battle. He was imprisoned and sent to Bhera but he died before reaching there.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Source Based Questions and Answers

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
We require a number of goods and services in our daily life. For example, we need food to satisfy our hunger, clothes to cover our body, houses for shelter, vehicles for transportation, television or radio for our entertainment, services of a doctor for treatment etc. These goods and services are called ‘means’ to satisfy our wants. When one of our wants is satisfied, there are other new wants that need to be satisfied. So our wants are unlimited and the means to satisfy these unlimited wants are limited and scarce. Man has to decide how to satisfy his maximum wants with available limited and scarce resources.
(а) What do you mean by Economics?
Answer:
Economics is a science concerned with the allocation of scarce means of resources in such a manner that consumers can maximize their satisfaction, producers can maximize their profits and society can maximize its social welfare.

(b) State the basic concepts of Economics.
Answer:
Following are the basic concepts of economics :

Goods. Goods are those visible things that satisfy human wants. Otherwise speaking, anything capable of satisfying a want is called a good. For example, radio, fan, mobile phone etc. are goods.
Services. In economics, besides goods, services such as teaching by teacher, treatment given by a doctor etc. also satisfy human wants. They don’t have physical existence.
Utility. Wants satisfying power of a good is called utility. In other words, utility is the ability of a good to satisfy a want.
Price. Price can be defined as the value of goods and services which can be expressed in terms of money.
Wealth. All those goods and services for which we have to pay a price for their consumption are called wealth.

Question 2.
In ordinary sense ‘Labour’ means any type of physical or mental work done for any purpose. But in economics ‘Labour’ means all human efforts, physical as well as mental, done for the sake of monetary gain. If a student plays a game for pleasure or a mother looks after her child out of affection, then these activities are not considered as labour because they have not done the work with the objective of earning money. But when a cricketer coach or a football coach gives coaching to players or a nurse attends to a child in hospital, such efforts are called ‘labour’ because these have been done to gain monetary remuneration.
(а) What is labour? State its features.
Answer:
Labour means all humans efforts, physical as well as mental, done for the sake of monetary gain.

Features:

It is the only active factor of production.
Supply of labour can be increased or decreased.
In India, labour is available in abundance.
Labour can be bought or sold.
Labour is mobile.

(b) Who will provide labour for farming?
Answer:
In the village, some families are small. Farmers, along with their families, use to cultivate their own fields. Thus, they themselves provide the labour required for farming. Besides this, some landless families work as labourers in the fields of big landlords to earn their living. Some farmers with very small landholdings have to give up their land to big landlords for the repayment of their loans taken from the big landlords. These farmers become landless and have to work in the fields of big farmers. In this way, big landlords and farmers with average landholdings engage labour for the work in the field.

Question 3.
Capital means all those man-made goods which are used in further production of goods. It is the produced means of production or in other words, it is used as an input in producing other goods. A building is not capital if it is used for private housing. But it is called capital if it is used for productive purpose. For example, a factory building, which is used for producing various goo^p is a capital. Money kept in the bank as deposits is capital because the bank lends the .money to producers who use it as capital although the depositor also gets interest on it. A T.V. set used in the reception of a company is capital but when used in a residential house is not capital.
(a) What is Capital? State its features.
Answer:
Capital means all those man-made goods which are used in further production of goods.

Features :

It is a man-made factor.
It is a secondary factor of production.
It is transferrable.
Capital involves depreciation.

(b) State need of capital in farming.
Answer:
Much money is needed to implement the modern farming methods, for instance: to buy seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, machine equipment etc. for agriculture.

Large and medium scale farmers earn more as compared to the small scale farmers. So these farmers, out of their own savings from farming, arrange for the capital needed in farming. Small scale farmers have to take loans on high rates of interest from the large scale farmers or the village moneylenders or the traders. Sometimes, they have to mortgage their houses or small landholdings to repay the loans. If they are unable to repay the loans, their property is seized. Government has opened special institutions such as RRBs, Cooperative Societies, Lands Development Bank and NABARD to provide capital to the farmers. To fulfil the need of capital, farmers have to take loans from these institutions.

Question 4.
Efforts made by a nation, an organization or any individual to raise their incomes are known as resources. Some resources like air, minerals, soil, water etc. are natural. These are used to satisfy human needs and are called ‘natural resources. The size of the population of a country along with its efficiency, educational qualities, productivity etc. is known as ‘human resources. Human resources is the most important resource because it makes the natural resources more useful. A country with highly educated and trained people can efficiently increase its productivity. Most of the developing and backward countries of the world are economically backward not because they lack natural resources but due to lack of quality in human resources.
(a) What is human capital formation?
Answer:
A country’s working population, with their existing productive skills and ability, contribute to the creation of the Gross National Product. This is referred to as human resources. So when investment in the form of education, training and medical care is made in human resources, human capital is formed which adds to the country’s Gross National Product which leads to the economic development of a country. Investment in human capital in the form of education and training yields higher incomes earned because of higher productivity by the more educated and better-trained people.

(b) Why is investment in human resources essential?
Answer:
Human Capital is superior to other resources like land and physical capital which are not useful at their own. Human resources can make use of land and capital. So, a large population is not a liability. It can be turned into a productive asset by investment in human capital. For example, by spending on education and health for all, training of industrial and agriculture workers in the use of modern technology etc. development of a country can be increased.

Question 4.
Unemployment refers to a situation in which people are willing to work at the current wages but cannot find work. The workforce population includes people from 15 years to 59 years. So, whenever a country’s unemployment is determined, persons who are not able to work, for example, patient, old people, small children, students etc. are not included. According to Statistics and Programme Implementation Department of Government of India’s National Sample Survey Report, the state of Kerala has the highest rate of unemployment and the states of Rajasthan and Gujarat have the lowest rate of unemployment.
(а) State the types of unemployment.
Answer:
There are many types of unemployment. We have unemployment in rural and urban areas, though the nature of unemployment differs in both areas. In case of rural areas there is seasonal and disguised unemployment. Urban areas have educated unemployment.

Seasonal unemployment means when people find jobs during some months and during remaining months they are unemployed. In the agriculture sector people remain employed during the sowing and harvesting season but after this for nearly 5 to 7 months they remain unemployed.

Disguised unemployment means more people are engaged in a particular work than required. Even if some men are relieved from work the total productivity will not decline.

In case of urban areas the rapidly increasing number of schools and colleges lead to educated unemployment as the job opportunities have not increased at the same rate.

(b) State the effects of unemployment.
Answer:
Unemployment leads to the wastage of manpower resources. Unemployed people become a liability for society rather than an asset. Unemployment increases poverty. There is a feeling of hopelessness and despair among the youth as they are unable to financially support their family. The dependency of the unemployed on the working population adversely affects the quality of life of a society. There is a general decline in its health status and rising withdrawal from the school system. An increase in unemployment is an indicator of a weak economy. So unemployment is a serious problem because unemployed people have become a liability on society.

Question 6.
Poverty is a situation in which a person is unable to get minimum basic necessities of life, like food, clothing, shelter, education and health facilities. Man struggles to fulfil these minimum basic needs. If the minimum basic needs are not fulfilled then there is loss of health and efficiency among those living in poverty in the country.
(a) State the measures of poverty.
Answer:
Poverty has two measurements

Relative Poverty. The economic conditions of different regions of countries is compared under relative poverty. Per capita income and national income are the two indicators of relative poverty.
Absolute Poverty. It refers to income and consumption levels in a country. If the daily intake of calories by a person is less than the required calories (2000-2500) per day then the person is absolutely poor.

(b) State the meaning of the poverty line.
Answer:
Poverty line is the method to measure the minimum income required to satisfy the basic needs of life. It represents the capacity to satisfy the minimum level of human needs. People living below the poverty fine are considered poor.

Question 7.
The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas, though the calorie needs vary depending on age, sex and the type of work that a person does. Due to the hard work done by the people living in rural areas, they require more calories than the urban people.
(a) What are the indicators of poverty?
Answer:
Keeping in view the different aspects of poverty, social scientists are trying to use a variety of indicators to measure poverty. Usually, the indicators used to measure poverty are related to the levels of income and consumption. But social scientists have also included social indicators like illiteracy level, malnutrition, lack of access to health care, lack of job opportunities, and lack of safe drinking water. Social exclusion can be a cause as well as consequences of poverty. Sometimes people under social exclusion are deprived of equal opportunities.

(b) What are the income levels of measuring poverty line in India?
Answer:
(a) Lack of feeling of security in the backward classes is yet another indicator on which the analysis of poverty is based.
(b) On the basis of 2011-12 data, people below the consumption expenditure of? 816 per person per month in rural areas and? 1000 in urban areas are called poor.

Question 8.
Poor segment of the society needs food security at all times as the low purchasing power of the poor people does not allow them to buy food as per their requirements. There is a need for food security due to continuous and rapid growth in population. Besides this, during natural calamities like drought etc. production of food grain decreases because Indian agriculture mostly depends upon the monsoon. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas due to which prices go up. Many people are unable to buy food at high prices. If this situation continues for a long period, it may cause a situation of stravation.
(а) What is food security? What are its dimensions.
Answer:
Simply speaking food security means accessibility and affordability of food to all the people at all times.

Following are the main dimensions :

Availability of food means there should be food production within the country.
Accessibility of food means that sufficient quantity of food should be within the reach of people.
Affordability of food means that a person has enough money to buy sufficient food. Sufficient stocks of food should be maintained by the government to meet the shortage of food during natural calamities like drought, floods etc.

(b) Who are food insecure?
Answer:
There is a large segment of people who suffer from food and nutritional insecurity in India but the following people are more food insecure than others :

The landless people who depend on others for their food supplies.
Traditional artisans who provide traditional services.
Petty self-employed workers and destitutes including beggars.
In urban areas, the food insecure persons are those who are employed in all paid occupation and casual labour market. These workers are largely engaged in seasonal activities and are paid very low wages that just ensure their bare survival.
After a natural calamity people migrating from the affected areas are the most food-insecure people.
Malnutrition prevails more among women and children and they constitute a significant segment of the population affected by food insecurity.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Welcome Life Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

Welcome Life Guide for Class 9 PSEB Critical Thinking InText Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No. 7

Question 1.
What are your hobby and favorite task?
Answer:
I love to play and watch cricket.

Question 2.
What do you do to fulfill your task?
Answer:

Whenever I get a chance, I like to play cricket.
Whenever any match is telecasted on television, I watch it and try to gain something by watching the match.

Question 3.
Do you face any problems while performing your hobby?
Answer:
Yes, I face many problems while performing my hobby.

Question 4.
Does your hobby affect your study?
Answer:
No, I give equal time to my study and hobby and do not let my hobby affect my study.

Question 5.
Have you ever discussed with your teacher about hobbies?
Answer:
Yes, they know my hobby and always motivate me to perform better.

Question 6.
Do you sometimes face some problems while performing your hobby because of which you have left it mid-way? How do you feel at that time?
Answer:
During exams, I cannot play 6r watch cricket. I feel sad at that time. But I prepare hard for my exams and get good marks.

Question 7.
How do you, feel after completing your favorite task, or do you feel satisfied enough?
Answer:
Whenever my favorite task is completed, I feel satisfied.

Textbook Page No. 9

Activity

Question 1.
Write a few lines about the student in your class, who is liked by all the teachers.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
By comparing yourself with that person, write down about his character traits that you would like to instill in yourself.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 3.
Write a few lines on anything productive you have done.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Textbook Page No. 11

Question 1.
Which is your favorite T.V. channel?
Answer:
NDTV News.

Question 2.
Which is your favorite T.V. Show?
Answer:
Prime Time is my favorite show.

Question 3.
Do you like comedy genre movies or action movies?
Answer:
Comedy movies.

Question 4.
Do you listen to the news?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 5.
Do you read the newspaper?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 6.
Which things do you prefer reading from the newspaper?
Answer:
Daily News, Games news.

Question 7.
Can you listen to your favorite songs in front of your parents?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 8.
Do you play video games on your phone?
Answer:
No.

Question 9.
Do you lie to your parents by telling them that you have to do the homework?
Answer:
No.

Question 10.
Do you start using tik-tok, PUBG, Instagram after doing your homework from your phone?
Answer:
No.

Question 11.
For how much time do you use social media every day?
(a) Less than 30 minutes / 45 minutes
(b) One hour
(c) One to two hours
(d) More than two hours.
Answer:
(a) Less than 30 minutes / 45 minutes.

Question 12.
At what time do you use social media?
(a) After waking up in the morning
(b) While going to school
(c) While eating
(d) At night
Answer:
(d) At night

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Guide Critical Thinking Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. In Which stage of life, we live in the world of dreams?
(a) Childhood
(b) Young age
(c) Old age
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Childhood.

2. Hobbies make us …………………
(a) Lazy
(b) Strong
(c) Weak
(d) Cartoonist
Answer:
(b) Strong

3. We can fulfill our dreams with
(a) determination
(b) concentration of mind
(c) hard work
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

4. What do hobbies give us?
(a) Livelihood
(b) change in personality
(c) Patience and contentment
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

5. Walt Disney had a hobby of making ………. in his childhood.
(a) food
(b) cartoon
(c) bridge
(d) building
Answer:
(b) cartoon

6. Which of these thinkings is positive?
(a) Good thinking
(b) positive
(c) Hardworking habit
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

7. Which of these is a negative feeling?
(a) Unenthusiastic
(b) Fear
(c) Avoid learning
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

8. The modernization of ………….. has made the whole world our home.
(a) Media
(b) Thinking
(c) Transport
(d) No one
Answer:
(a) Media.

Fill in the Blanks:

1. …………….. have an important place in our lives.
Answer:
Books

2. In ………….. we live in the world of dreams.
Answer:
childhood

3. Because of ……………… the world has shrunk to a great extent.
Answer:
media

4. We must not waste the valuable ………………..
Answer:
time

5. We must not adopt ………….. by discarding books.
Answer:
media

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (x) Statement:

1. Books provide us with valuable information.
Answer:
✓

2. We can get good results from the media.
Answer:
✓

3. Books are of no importance in life.
Answer:
x

4. We must use media wisely.
Answer:
✓

5. We must have negative thinking.
Answer:
x

Match the Following:

(A)	(B)
Right Thinking	World of Dreams
Fear of Failure	Positive Thinking
Internet	Negative Thinking
Books	Media
Childhood	Information

Answer:

(A)	(B)
Right Thinking	Positive Thinking
Fear of Failure	Negative Thinking
Internet	Media
Books	Information
Childhood	World of Dreams

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
At what age of life, we live in the world of dreams?
Answer:
In childhood, we live in the world of dreams.

Question 2.
What hobbies make us?
Answer:
Hobbies make us strong, create a good personality and help us to have a better understanding of life.

Question 3.
What is the benefit of determination and concentration?
Answer:
Determination and concentration help us to fulfill our dreams.

Question 4.
What hobby did Walt Disney have in his childhood?
Answer:
Walt Disney had a hobby of making cartoons in his childhood.

Question 5.
How did Walt Disney use his free time?
Answer:
In his spare time, he pursued his hobby which made him a famous cartoonist.

Question 6.
How can we achieve higher goals?
Answer:
We can achieve higher goals with positive comparisons.

Question 7.
What happened with a comparison full of jealousy?
Answer:
It hurts us.

Question 8.
What is the advantage of positive comparison?
Answer:
It develops positive thinking in us.

Question 9.
What is the disadvantage of negative comparison?
Answer:
Negative comparison hurts us.

Question 10.
Why do we feel the whole of the world is our home?
Answer:
Due to the modernization of media, we feel the whole of the world is our home.

Question 11.
What is the advantage of proper use of media?
Answer:
We get good information and become modern.

Question 12.
Should we give up books?
Answer:
No, we should always have books with us.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by critical thinking?
Answer:
While living in society, we think and observe a lot many things. While doing this we face many things or events and make an opinion about them. But when we are making opinions about anything, we must think that is it possible on the basis of reason. If not, we must change over opinion. In this, the opinion or thinking made on the basis of reason is known as critical thinking.

Question 2.
What hobbies and preferences make us?
Answer:
Every Individual has his hobbies and preferences and we do a lot of many efforts to fulfill these hobbies. When we make many efforts to fulfill our hobbies, it makes us man with strong determination. This determination helps us to fulfill our dreams. Many times, those hobbies help us to earn our livelihood. Adopting any hobby shape our personality and instills many traits such as patience and contentment.

Question 3.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of positive and negative comparisons?
Answer:
Comparison is of two types-positive and negative. We do positive comparisons with anyone, we try to learn and move forward to achieve great success in life. But if the comparison is negative then we will feel jealous and will hurt ourselves. Negative comparison leads us on the way to pessimism. We must save ourselves from negative comparisons.

Question 4.
Show through a picture the advantages of Positive Comparison.
Answer:

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking Img 1

Question 5.
Show through a picture the disadvantages of Negative comparison.
Answer:

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking Img 2

Question 6.
How can we teach each other good or constructive?
Answer:
Our thinking is our greatest asset. It is the thinking what we have. If we are not satisfied with it, we do not adopt positive thinking. We always think about the which we don’t have. It creates jealousy among us and stops all-around development as well. We must leave such negative thinking and adopt positive thinking. We must learn good from others and must teach and learn constructive behavior.

Question 7.
How can we create a happy and healthy society?
Answer:
In the present modern times, the whole world has become like a village. The world has become much smaller due to the modernization of media. But we must use media wisely. We must make our thinking critical and try to find answers to the questions moving around us. With this, we can live a happy and healthy life. If everyone will live a happy and healthy life, we can definitely create a happy and healthy society.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the story of birds given in the chapter.
Answer:
There lived a Crow in a forest and he was completely satisfied. One day, after looking at a Swan, he started thinking that how fair and the white swan is and he is so black. That’s why no one likes him. Crow discusses the same with the Swan. Then swan tells him that he also thought about the same and when he looked at a parrot, he believes the parrot is the happiest bird in creation. Then the crow approached the parrot. They told crow that he also thought the same but when he met peacock, he changed his mind. Then crow approached the peacock and told him about his beauty. The crow told the peacock that how lucky he is. People keep his feathers at home. After listening to this, the peacock becomes sad and told crow that he also thought the same but his beauty has become a hurdle in the way of his freedom. He is kept in the zoo. I could be happy if I will be a free bird. This story tells us that whatever a person has, must remain satisfied with that.

Question 2.
What do we learn from this chapter?
Answer:

An individual must have critical thinking and must fight a battle to fulfill your dreams.
Individuals have their hobbies and likings and make them strong and determinant. Many times, they become a source of livelihood for us.
If we compare ourselves with anyone, this comparison must be constructive and positive. With positive comparison, we can achieve great heights but with a negative attitude, only jealousy will be there.
We must be satisfied with the things we have. We must not think about what we don’t have and we must not even think about it. That’s why we must have a positive attitude towards life.
No two individuals are the same. There must be some difference between them. We must learn from these differences to move forward.
The modernization of media has made the world smaller. But we must use media wisely to create a happy and healthy society.
We must continue using books for entertainment along with media.

Source-Based Question:

Question 1.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow :
Dear students, after going through the question stated above you will be able to know that your hobbies or your favorite task not only make you feel more comfortable, happy, and content but also give you the courage, hope, and ability to pursue your dreams. This enthusiasm and mindfulness show you the right path and way to pursue your dreams. Dear students, your hobby not only makes you feel happier but can also become a reason for your success in the future, remember with the right guidance and hard work, you can become a perfectionist in your career. Maybe your hobbies will become your career in. this competitive world. Pursuing your hobby with sheer determination not only fill you with contentment, but also improve your personality, and helps you have a better understanding of life, instills good personality traits such as patience and contentment. Students you have all heard about Walt Disney. He was fond of making cartoons during childhood by polishing his talent with hard work, he, later on, became one of the greatest cartoonists in the world.

1. What do hobbies and likings give us?
Answer:
Hobbies and likings give us peace of mind and make us a person with great determination.

2. What is the advantage of determination and concentration of mind?
Answer:
Determination and concentration of mind lead us on the way to fulfilling our dreams.

3. If we connect hobby with skill, What will happen?
Answer:
If we connect hobbies with skills, it becomes a source of livelihood for us.

4. Who was Walt Disney?
Answer:
Walt Disney was a famous cartoonist of the world.

5. How do hobbies and likings affect our personality?
Answer:
Hobbies and likings shape our personality and instill good personality traits in us such as patience and contentment.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

October 8, 2024October 7, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Dairy Farming Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1 -2 words:

Question 1.
Give the number of cows and buffaloes in Punjab.
Answer:
17 lakh cows and 50 lakh buffaloes.

Question 2.
Give the name of the best cow breed.
Answer:
Sahiwal is the best Indian milk breed.

Question 3.
How much milk is required for a healthy person daily?
Answer:
250 gram.

Question 4.
How much milk is produced by Red Sindhi?
Answer:
1800 kg per lactation.

Question 5.
What is the optimum dry-off period of a pregnant cow?
Answer:
60 days before the expected date of calving.

Question 6.
Give daily green fodder requirement for 400 kg heavy cow or buffalo?
Answer:
35 kg green fodder.

Question 7.
At what age bodyweight of heifer is 300 kg?
Answer:
At the age of 18 months.

Question 8.
What is the average lactation milk yield of Murrah buffalo?
Answer:
Average 1700-1800 kg.

Question 9.
Where one should contact for dairy farming training?
Answer:
Deputy Director (Dairy Development), Krishi Vigyan Kendra of concerned District, GADVASU Ludhiana.

Question 10.
Name the buffalo breeds in Punjab.
Answer:
Murrah, Nili Ravi.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Give characteristics of the Sahiwal breed.
Answer:
Characteristics of Sahiwal breed :

Characteristics	Details
Native	It belongs to Montgomery (Pakistan)
Body size	Body size medium to large
Colour	Light red to red color
Bullocks	Lethargic and slow in work
Milk yield	Average lactation milk yield in 1800 kg
Fat in milk	5%

Question 2.
What do you know about Holstein Friesian Breed?
Answer:
Characteristics of Holstein Friesian :

Characteristics	Details
Native	Holland, now available in almost all countries.
Colour	Black-white or red.
Body size	These are the heaviest animals giving highest milk yield. Long body with large udder.
Average lactation milk yield	5500-6500 kg.
Fat in milk	3.5-4%.

Question 3.
How a best cow can be selected?
Answer:

305 days lactation milk yield should be 4000 kg.
Peak yield should be 19-20 kg.
First time calving age should be 30 months.
Service period should be 2-4 months.
Dry off period before calving should be 2 months.

Question 4.
Give management aspect of cow after calving.
Answer:
Animal should be offered one bucket of warm water with 50 gm of common salt after calving. Give the following twice for 4 days-cooked ground wheat dalia in 54 kg jaggery. Milk the cow within 2 hours of calving. High yielder cow should not be milked completely for the first 2-3 days after calving.

Question 5.
Give the characteristics of a good floor in animal shed.
Answer:
An animal requires 5-7 feet (150-210 cm) long and 4 feet (120 cm) wide space for standing. There should be proper slope from manger towards gutter for effective drainage of water. Floor should be pucca made of bricks and cement but it should be non- slippery. There should Jbe corrugations in the floor. If there is open space it should be brick laden.

Question 6.
What is a concentrate ?
Answer:
Concentrate is a mixture. It consists of cereals, oil seed cakes and other biproducts of cereals. It provides energy and protein to the animals. These can be prepared in two ways. One is leguminous fodder consists of berseem, lucerne, cowpeas, which contain 13-15% of protein. The other contains 16-18% protein which is prepared from non-leguminous fodder e.g. maize, oats, bajra etc.

Question 7.
How cow dung should be managed ?
Answer:
Remove the cow dung daily and take it away from the shed to put it in a pit. The pit should be of the size 20 x 14 x 4 feet. Start filling it from one side and cover the filled part with soil. This prevents wastage of nutrients from the dung. Use well rotten prepared farm yard manure for the fields.

Question 8.
How milk utensils can be cleaned ?
Answer:
Wash the utensils 2-3 times with fresh water. Disinfect the utensils using suitable chemicals. Steaming for 2-3 minutes also disinfects the utensils. Sodium and Calcium hypochloride can also be used for disinfection. Wash the utensils with fresh water again to remove any traces of chemicals left in the utentsils after disinfection.

Question 9.
Give detail of management of calves.
Answer:
Calf should be cleaned using a clean dry cloth. Naval cord should be cut after keeping 4 inches using sterlized scissor. Till the sheding off of the Naval cord, it should be dressed with tincture of Iodine or Dettol for 2-3 times everyday. Feed the calf within 2 hours of birth on colostrum. In case its mother is dead, feed the calf with warm mixture of one litre cow milk, 5 ml castor oil, 5 ml cod liver oil and one egg. Feeding of calf starter should be started when it is 15 days of age and then start feeding on succulent green fodder daily.

Question 10.
Give precautions during milking.
Answer:

Milking should be done in a separate room.
Milking should be done in a clean and calm place.
Wash the teats with Dettol or potassium permanganate before milking.
Milking should be done by full hand method and avoid the use of thumb for milking.

Question 1.
Write a note oir management of dairy animals.
Answer:
1. Space Requirement: There is a need of 120-140 square feet space for every adult animal. Out of which 42 sQuestion feet should be covered and 85 sQuestion feet should be open.

2. Floor and Drainage: An animal requires 5-7 feet (150-210 cm) long and 4 feet (120 cm) wide space for standing. There should be proper slope from manger towards gutter for effective drainage of water. Floor should be pucca made of bricks and cement but it should be non-slippery. There should be corrugations Tn the floor. If there is open space it should be brick laden. ’

3. Walls: There should be wall all around the shed.

4. Roof: There should be roof at a height of 10 feet. It can be made from brick and wooden battons. Roof can be covered with plastic sheets to avoid leakage during rains. ‘

5. Water Manger: Water manger height should be 2 feet for adult animals and 1 feet for young calves.

6. Silo pit. It is a pit for silage making: It should be near chaff cutter at higher elevation than ground level to prevent rain water entering into it.

7. Management of Cow Dung: Cow dung should be removed from the shed on daily basis and fill it in a pit. Cover the pit with solid after filling it with cow dung.

8. Disinfecting shed: Disinfect the shed by using 4% phenyl solution. Wash the walls and floor where phenyl was sprayed after six hours with water.

9. Summer and Winter Management: Plant trees around the shed and give bath to animals for 3-4 times in a day in summer. Install fans and cooler in the shed.

Keep animals under the roof in winter and give more energetic ration during winter.

Question 2.
Give important tips for feeding of dairy animals.
Answer:

Feed them according to their need and only that much which is necessary.
Feed should be given at proper time, concentrate should be given to them before milking or during milking in equal quantity.
There should be no sudden change in concentrate.
Feed, if it is grains it should be in the form of dalia.
Give chopped fodder of Napier bajra, Bajra, Maize etc.
One kg dry fodder can replace 5-6 kg of fresh green fodder. Good quality green fodder can save concentrate.
Excess feeding can result in bloat and indigestion.
Mix some amount of chopped wheat straw in lush green legume or green fodder to avoid bloat and indigestion.
Feed silage after milking otherwise a bad smell will appear in the milk.

Question 3.
Write a note on management of fresh milk.
Answer:
1. Handling of fresh milk. Take out the milk from the milk parlour immediately after milking to avoid mixing of smell of the shed in the milk. Also remove the animals from the milk parlour so that it may remain clean. Strain the milk using iron or plastic sieve or muslin cloth. This is done to remove any unwanted material like hairs, dust, insects, straw or fodder particles from the milk. After every straining, wash the sieve and disinfect it with suitable substance. This will decrease bacterial load in the milk. And milk can be preserved for a long time.

2. Cold Storage. Store the milk below 5°C to prevent the growth of bacteria. If milk is not stored at such temperature, it will clot and is of no use. Milk should reach the milk collection centre with in 2-3 hours of milking.

Question 4.
Write a note on disbudding of calves.
Answer:
Disbudding gives a beautiful look to the animal. This also avoids hurting during any fight between two animals. Animals need
less space if disbudded and can be kept in loose housing system. Disbudding should be done at the age of 15-20 days and 7-10 days in case of cow calves and buffalo calves respectively. Disbudding is done with red hot iron method. Apply antiseptic cream on the wound till complete healing.

Question 5.
Give details about purchase of a dairy animal.
Answer:
Before purchasing a dairy animal it should be milked regularly for three times. It should have a wedge shaped body from top, front and hind side, its skin should be thin. Udder must shrink after milking and there should be no hard lumps present in the udder. Purchase animal after second or third lactation. It is better if it has female calf.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the age of good quality breed of buffalo for first lactation?
Answer:
36-40 months.

Question 2.
What is the gap between two lactation for a good breed buffalo?
Answer:
15-16 months.

Question 3.
What is average lactation milk yield in case of Hariana breed?
Answer:
1000 kg.

Question 4.
What is the average lactation milk yield in case of Tharparkar breed?
Answer:
1400 kg.

Question 5.
Within how many hours cow should be milked after calving?
Answer:
Within 2 hours.

Question 6.
How much extra concentrate should be given to milch animals which is less than five years of age?
Answer:
0.5 to 1.0 kg.

Question 7.
How much should-be the height of the water manger for young chives?
Answer:
1 to 1.5 feet.

Question 8.
Write native place of Nili Ravi?
Answer:
Montgomeri (Pakistan).

Question 9.
How much is the 305 days lactation milk yield?
Answer:
It is 2500 kg for buffalo and 4000 kg for cow.

Question 10.
What should be the age of buffalo at first lactation?
Answer:
36 months.

Question 11.
What should be the age of cow at first lactation?
Answer:
30 months.

Question 12.
Which breed of cow is used for cross breeding?
Answer:
Jersey.

Question 13.
After how many milkings a dairy animal should be purchased?
Answer:
After 3 regular milkings.

Question 14.
Write about size of horns and udder of Sahiwal.
Answer:
Horns are short and udder is large.

Question 15.
How much is average lactation milk yield and fat per cent for Hariana breed?
Answer:
Average lactation milk yield is 1000 kg and fat is 4%.

Question 16.
How much is average lactation milk yield and fat per cent for Sahiwal?
Answer:
1800 kg., fat 5%.

Question 17.
Where does Red Sindhi belong?
Answer:
Sindh (Pakistan)

Question 18.
Name the cow breed which belongs to Kutch (Gujarat)?
Answer:
Tharparkar.

Question 19.
Write about average lactation milk yield dhd fat for Holstein-Friesian breed.
Answer:
5500-6500 kg., fat 3.5-4%.

Question 20.
Where does Jersey breed of cow belong?
Answer:
Jersey in England.

Question 21.
Write about average lactation milk yield and fat for Jersey.
Answer:
3000-5000, fat 5%.

Question 22.
In dairy animals 8% energy requirement is met from what?
Answer:
Carbohydrates.

Question 23.
When should disbudding be done in buffalo calves?
Answer:
At the age of 7-10 days.

Question 24.
When should disbudding be done in cow calves?
Answer:
At the age of 15-20 days.

Question 25.
Vaccination is done in calves to prevent which diseases?
Answer:
Foot and mouth diseases, hemorrhagic septicemia etc.

Question 26.
How much time is required to complete milking?
Answer:
For one animal it is 6-8 minutes.

Question 27.
What should be the direction of cow shed?
Answer:
East-West.

Question 28.
How much space is required by adult animal.
Answer:
120-140 square feet.

Question 29.
What is average lactation milk yield in case of buffalo in India?
Answer:
500 kg.

Question 30.
What is average lactation milk yield in case of buffalo in Punjab?
Answer:
1500 kg.

Question 31.
What is average lactation milk yield for Murrah and fat% in milk?
Answer:
1700-1800 kg, 7% fat.

Question 32.
How much milk yield is obtained from dairy animals annually?
Answer:
94 lakh tonnes.

Question 33.
How much per capita milk is produced in Punjab?
Answer:
937 gram per capita per day.

Question 34.
How much milk is produced by indigenous breeds of cows?
Answer:
The average lactation milk yield is 1000 to 1800 kg.

Question 35.
What is fat percent in milk produced by Hariana, Sahiwal and Red Sindhi breeds?
Answer:
Hariana-4%, Sahiwal-5%, Red Sindhi-5%.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What could be done to increase milk production?
Answer:
This can be done by increasing the number of milk giving animals and by making them able to produce more milk. For producing high milk yielding animals, cross breeding is done and exotic bulls are used.

Question 2.
For economical farming, write qualities which dairy animals should have?
Answer:

Quality parameter	Cow	Buffalo
Lactation milk yield for 305 days in kg	4000	2500
Peak yield in kg	19—20	12—13
Age at first calving in months	30	36
Any off period before calving in months	2	2

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write details about an exotic breed of cow (Jersey)?
Answer:

Characteristics	Details
Native place	England (Jersey)
Colour	brown to brownish red colour
Body	short statured
Average milk yield	3000-5000 kg
Fat	5%

Question 2.
Write about two breeds of buffaloes found in Punjab.
Answer:

Murrah: It basically belongs to Rohtak (Hariana). Its horns ’ are curled. Its colour is black. Switch of tail may be black. Its neck and head are slim, udder is large and teats are long. Its weight may be 430 kg. Average lactation milk yield is 1700-1800 kg with 7% fat.
Nili Ravi: This breed belongs originally to Montgomery (Pakistan). It is of black colour but forehead is white. Its legs are white under knees, tail is white also. It is known as Panj-Kaliani. It is medium statured breed with short horns which are curled and it also has blue eyes. Average lactation milk yield is 1600-1800 kg.

Question 3.
Write characteristics of indigeneous breeds of cows.
Answer:

Characteristics	Hariana	Red Sindh	Tharparkar
Native	Rohtak, Hisar, Karnal, Gurgaon in Hariana	Sindh (Pakistan)	Sindh (Pakistan) Kutch (Gujarat), Jodhpur, Jaisimer in Rajasthan
Size and Colour	White to light grey, medium size with long legs, compact body, tight skin	medium size, dark red, corn- pact body, short legs, loose skin	medium size white or greyish colour compact body, short legs, large udder
Males	good and strong	Medium size	helpful in farming, strong
Average milk yield	1000 kg	1800 kg	1400 kg
Fat	4%	5%	–

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Dairy Farming Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Gap between two lactations for a good breed buffalo is :
(a) 15-16 month
(b) 24-25 month
(c) 4-5 month
(d) 6-7 month
Answer:
(a) 15-16 month

2. Native place of Jersey breed is :
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) England
(d) Sindh
Answer:
(c) England

3. First time calving age should be :
(a) 30 month
(b) 10 month
(c) 50 month
(d) 100 month
Answer:
(a) 30 month

4. Daily green fodder requirement for 400 kg heavy cow or buffalo is :
(a) 50 kg
(b) 400 kg
(c) 35 kg
(d) 100 kg
Answer:
(c) 35 kg

5. Milk requirement for a healthy person on daily basis is :
(a) 250 gram
(b) 500 gram
(c) 100 gram
(d) 700 gram
Answer:
(a) 250 gram

True/False:

1. Nearly 70% population in Punjab lives in villages.
Answer:
True

2. Dual purpose breeds are Tharparkar and Hariana.
Answer:
True

3. Indigeneous breeds of cows have average lactation milk yield varying from 1000 kg to 1700 kg.
Answer:
False

4. There are 17 lakh cbws and 10 lakh buffaloes in Punjab.
Answer:
False

5. Holstein-Friesian is highest milk giving exotic breed of cow.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Feed milk to calf and avoid …………….
Answer:
sucking

2. Milking should be complete in ……………. with full hand method.
Answer:
6-8 minutes

3. Preserve the milk at 5°C. It prevents the growth of …………….
Answer:
bacteria

4. Average lactation milk yield of Indian breeds of buffalo is ……………. at National level.
Answer:
500 kg

5. Clean the milk ……………. properly.
Answer:
containers

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

October 7, 2024October 6, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
As per Rigveda name of Punjab was:
(a) Harappa
(b) Sapt Sindhu
(c) Panchnand
(d) Pentapotamia.
Answer:
(b) Sapt Sindhu.

Question 2.
Chinese traveller:
(a) Chanakya
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Hieun Tsang
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Hieun Tsang.

Question 3.
When was the Punjab annexed to the British Empire?
(a) 1849 AD.
(b) 1887 A.D.
(c) 1889 A.D.
(d) 1901 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1849 A.D.

Question 4.
Which doab is the least fertile among these?
(a) Chaj
(b) Sind Sagar
(c) Rachna
(d) Bari Doab.
Answer:
(b) Sind Sagar.

Question 5.
The name of region between Ghaggar and Yamuna is :
(a) Malwa
(b) Bangar
(c) Majha
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Bangar.

Question 6.
The Malwa region lies between which two rivers?
(a) Sutlej and Yamuna
(b) Sutlej and Ghaggar
(c) Ghaggar and Yamuna
(d) Sutlej and Beas.
Answer:
(b) Sutlej and Ghaggar.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
________ civilization flourished in Punjab.
Answer:
Harappa.

Question 2.
Penta means ________ and Potamia means
Answer:
five, rivers.

Question 3.
Punjab can be divided into ________ parts.
Answer:
three.

Question 4.
________ region is located between the rivers of Chenab and Jehlum.
Answer:
Chaj Doab.

Question 5.
The founder of Sikh Religion was ________
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Question 6.
Punjab was reorganised in ________ on the basis of language.
Answer:
1 November, 1966.

Question 7.
The height of Mount Everest is metre.
Answer:
8848.

III. Match the following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Rigveda	(a) Sub mountainous Area
2. Sulaiman	(b) North-Western Mountains
3. Bangar	(c) Tsekai
4. Shivalik	(d) Sapt Sindhu
5. Hieun Tsang	(e) Ghaggar and Yamuna.

Answer:

A	B
1. Rigveda	(d) Sapt Sindhu
2. Sulaiman	(b) North-Western Mountains
3. Bangar	(e) Ghaggar and Yamuna.
4. Shivalik	(a) Sub mountainous Area
5. Hieun Tsang	(c) Tsekai

IV. Differentiate between the following :

Question 1.
Malwa and Bangar
Answer:
Malwa: The area spread between Sutlej and Ghaggar rivers is called Malwa. Major cities of this region are Ludhiana, Patiala, Nabha, Sangrur, Faridkot, Bhatinda, Fazilka etc.

Bangar: This region is situated between Ghaggar and Yamuna rivers. Its major cities are Ambala, Panipat, Kurukshetra, Jind, Rohtak, Karnal, Gurugram etc. In this region, there is one historical area where many decisive wars were fought.

Question 2.
West Punjab and East Punjab
Answer:
West Punjab and East Punjab : In 1947, at the time of Independence, Punjab was divided into two parts- West Punjab and East Punjab. Western side of Punjab was Muslim dominated area and become a part of newly made country Pakistan. East Punjab became a part of India. In 1947, 13 districts went over to Pakistan and rest 16 districts remained in Indian Punjab.

Question 3.
Pass and Doab
Answer:
(a) Pass. A pass is a gap or break in high, rugged terrain such as a mountain ridge. Through these, mountain can be crossed.
(b) Doab. The territory between two rivers is known as the Doab. Plains of Punjab are made up of Five Doabs.

Question 4.
Himalayas and Sub-mountainous region
Answer:
(a) Himalayas. The Himalaya means Him + Alaya i,e. Land of Ices The mountains of Himalaya are in series in Punjab. According to height, these mountains are divided into three parts, The Greater Himalayas, the Middle Himalayas and the Outer Himalayas.

(b) Sub-Mountainous Region (Terai Region). In the south of Pir Panjal range of Himalayas, there situated the foothills of Shivalik and Kasauli mountains. This region is known as Terai area of Punjab or sub-mountainous region. The average height of such mountains is 1000-3000 feet.

Question 5.
Chaj Doab and Bist Jalandhar Doab.
Answer:
(a) Chaj Doab. The region between rivers Chenab and Jehlum is called Chaj Doab. Major cities of this region are Gujarat, Bhera and Shahpur.

(6) Bist Jalandhar Doab. The area situated between rivers Beas and Sutlej is Bist Jalandhar Doab. Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur are the famous cities of this Doab.

V. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by the word ‘Punjab’?
Answer:
The word Punjab is a combination of two Persian words-Punj and Aab. The meaning of Punj is five and Aab is rivers. So, its literal meaning is the land of five rivers.

Question 2.
What name Greeks had given to Punjab?
Answer:
The Greeks called Punjab as Pentapotamia in which penta means five and potamia means rivers. So, it is the land of five rivers.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Sapt Sindhu?
Answer:
During the Vedic age, Punjab was called Sapt Sindhu because it was the land of seven rivers.

Question 4.
Punjab was divided into which two parts in 1947?
Answer:
In 1947, Punjab was divided into Western and Eastern parts. Western side went over to Pakistan and Eastern side remained in India.

Question 5.
Name any two passes located in North-West boundary of Punjab.
Answer:
Khyber pass, Kurram, Tochi etc. are the passes located in North-West boundary of Punjab.

Question 6.
When and in how many parts was Punjab divided on the linguistic basis?
Answer:
On 1st November, 1966, Punjab was divided into two states on linguistic basis and these were Punjab and Haryana.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Throw light on the different historical names of Punjab at the different times.
Answer:
The names of Punjab were changed from time to time :

During Rig vedic age, Punjab was called Sapt Sindhu (the land of seven rivers).
In the epics, The Ramayana, Mahabharata and Puranas, the name of Panchnand was mentioned for Punjab.
Greeks gave the name Pentapotamia (Penta-five, potamia-five rivers) to Punjab.
Taki tribe gave Punjab the name Taki province or Taki.
Chinese traveller Hieun Tsang called Punjab as Tseh-Kia.
During the times of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, Punjab was called as Lahore Province.
The Mughal Emperor Akbar gave Punjab this name. Word Punjab is made up of two persian words Punj and Aab. Punj means five and Aab means water.
In 1849 A.D., the British captured it and gave it the name of Punjab Province.
In 1947 A.D., with the division of country, Punjab was divided into western and Eastern Punjab. But in both the countries, it is known with the name of Punjab.

Question 2.
Why is it necessary to study geographical characteristics of Punjab in order to study the history of Punjab?
Answer:
To study the history of any region, it is necessary to study its geographical characteristics. Punjab’s ways of living, eating, habits, wearing habits, nature of people and ideas, to an extent, are affected by its geographical characteristics. Its fertile plains became the Cradle of Civilisation. During hard times, it became the battle field where lakhs of people sacrificed their lives. Many times, its rivers guided the invaders. Its forests are also important. Many a times the victims of Mughal atrocities took shelter in its forests. Its fertile plains motivated many invaders to attack India. In this way, the geographical features of Punjab are very important.

Question 3.
Why is Punjab called the Gateway of India?
Answer:
Due to western branches of Himalaya, Punjab has acted as a gateway of India. It is not so difficult to cross the passes of these mountain ranges. Except Bolan pass, all other passes connect Afghanistan with Punjab. That’s why all the invaders from Aryans till Iranians, attacked India from this side. First of all, they had to struggle with the people of Punjab. They moved forward only after defeating Punjabis. In this way, Punjab played a role of gateway of India.

Question 4.
What were the causes of the spread of Islam in Punjab?
Answer:
The major reason of the spread of Islam in Punjab is that all the invaders first settled in Punjab. They asked the local people to adopt Islam. Muslim rulers commited atrocities on Hindus who stop following Islam. People of other far off regions, who initially adopted Islam, left it and came back to the fold of Hinduism but this was not the case with Punjabi’s because foreigners resided over here. Consequently Islam received great success in Punjab. One of another reason of the spread of Islam in Punjab was that the people were fed up with the complexity of vedic religion, caste system etc.

Question 5.
In what way the physical features of Punjab affected the economic life of people?
Answer:
The physical features of Punjab gave strength ‘to the economic life of the people. From the ages, each year, Himalayan rivers bring new soil and nutrients and spread them all along the plains. Consequently plains of Punjab were considered the most fertile land in the country. Due to fertile land, people had a bumper crop and they became prosperous. These rivers also irrigated its land. The Himalayas rivers are perennial and this become a boon for agriculture. With the help of wood from the forests of the Himalayas, many furniture and sports industries were developed over here. People get many other things from the mountains which helped in the development of industries.

VII. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the geographical characteristics of Punjab.
Answer:
The study of Punjab from geographical point of view is quite interesting. From this point of view, Punjab can be divided into three parts :

The Himalayas and North-West Mountains.
The Sub-Mountains region-Terai region.
The Plains.

1. The Himalayas and North-West Mountains. This physical part of Punjab is given ahead :
(a) The Himalayas. There are a number of Himalayan ranges in Punjab. These ranges can be divided into three parts on the basis of their average height, which are-the Great Himalayas, the Middle Himalayas and the Outer Himalayas.
1. The Great Himalayas. In the east, the mountain ranges of the Great Himalayas reach upto Nepal and Tibet. In its western part, it is again called the Great Himalayas. The Great Himalayas separate the Punjab regions of Lahul-Spiti and district of Kangra from Kashmir. The scenic Kulu Valley and Rohtang Pass are situated in these ranges. These ranges rise from 5851 metres to 6781 metres. These mountain ranges are always covered with snow.

2. The Middle Himalayas. They are popularly known as the Pangi mountain ranges. These ranges start from Rohtang Pass. They separate the Valleys made by the rivers Chenab and Ravi. Their average height is 2155 metres.

3. The Outer Himalayas. The ranges of outer Himalayas run between Chamba and Dharmshala. They reach from Kashmir to Rawalpindi, Jhelum and Gujarat districts. Their average height is 923 metres. These ranges are also know’n as Dhauladhar ranges.

(b) North-West Mountains. The North-West Mountains form the western part of the Himalayas in Punjab. These mountains include the Kirthar and Sulaiman ranges. They have nothigh rising ranges. The most important feature of these ranges is the presence of a number of passes in them. Among these passes, the Khyber Pass is the most important. This pass became a gateway for most of the invaders.

2. The Sub Mountainous region-Terai region. There situated Terai region between the higher ranges of the Himalayas and plains of Punjab. They are also known as Sub-Mountainous regions. Their width is 160 km-320 km and their height is 300-900 metres. Due to the existence of many Valleys, this region seems different from the ranges of Himalaya. Form areas of Sialkot, Kangra, Hoshiarpur, Gurdaspur and Ambala are included in it. Normally it is a mountainous region. That’s why there is quite less production over here. At many places, land has been made ready to cultivate potato, paddy and maize. To live, people have to do quite a lot of hard work. This hard work has made them healthy.

3. The Plains. The plains of Punjab are divided into two regions. The Eastern Plain and the Western Plain. The plains surrounded by Yamuna and Ravi rivers are called the Eastern plains. They are very fertile and densely populated. The plains between Ravi and Indus rivers are called Western plains.

They are less fertile as compared to the Eastern plains.
(a) Five Doabs. The territory between two rivers is called Doab. The plains of Punjab consist of five doabs.

The Sindh Sagar Doab: The region situated between the rivers Indus and Jhelum is called the Sindh Sagar Doab. It is not a very fertile region. Jhelum and Rawalpindi are the important cities of this Doab.
Rachna Doab: This area is situated between the rivers Ravi and Chenab, is quite fertile. The important towns of this Doab are Gujranwala and Shekhupura.
Bist-Jalandhar Doab: This Doab consists of the plains situated between the rivers Beas and Sutlej. Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur are the leading cities of this Doab.
Bari Doab: The territory between the rivers Beas and Ravi is called the Bari Doab. It is also a fertile region. It is popular as Majha as it refers in central location of the area in Punjab. The two most famous cities of Punjab, namely, Amritsar and Lahore, are situated in this Doab.
Chaj Doab: The territory between the Chenab and Jhelum is called Chaj Doab. The important cities of this Doab are Gujarat, Bhera and Shahpur.

(b) Malwa and Bangar. The wide plain situated between the rivers Sutlej and Yamuna is a part of Punjab. The plain can be divided into two parts namely, Malwa and Bangar.
1. Malwa: The area extending from the banks of river Sutlej to the banks of river Yamuna is called Malwa. Ludhiana, Patiala, Nabha, Sangrur, Faridkot, Bhatinda etc. are the prominent cities of Malwa. The area is known in Punjab as Malwa and the people belonging to this area are called Malwais. The area got its name from the name of a republican tribe called Malava, which’ lived here during ancient period of Indian history.

2. Bangar or Haryana: This region extends from river ghaggar to river Yamuna. Ambala, Kurukshetra, Panipat, Rohtak, Karnal, Gurgaon, Faridabad and Hissar are the prominent cities of this area. This area has great historical importance because numerous battles which influenced the course of Indian history were fought here.

Question 2.
Discuss the impact of physical features of Punjab on its political and religious sphere.
Answer:
Punjab is one of the most fertile land. Its ideal location has given its history a distinctive face. Moreover, history of any place takes birth from its geography. Punjab’s history is not an exception.

Its people have achieved great success in political and religious fields.
1. Impact on Political Sphere. The background of the Indian political history was prepared on the lands of Punjab. Almost all the initial invaders entered India from the North-West direction. The brave people of Punjab faced them. Most of the important and decisive wars were fought here. Chandragupta Maurya established first large kingdom in India but its base was prepared at Punjab. First of all, he provoked Punjabi’s against the Greek rule, recruited soldiers and prepared the programme to conquer India. The first Kingdom of Harshvardhana was Thaneshwar (near kurukshetra) and was in Punjab.

2. Impact on Religious Sphere. Many religious movements started in India which are of great importance in the Indian history. Chishti, Suharvardi, Sufi sects etc. originated here which spread in different parts of the country. On this sacred land, Sikhism was originated. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was the founder of Sikhism. After him there came 9 Gurus who gave Sikhism a distinctive indentity. Punjabis gave many sacrifices in the interest of humanity. The Sikh religion flourished rapidly in Punjab.

Question 3.
Discuss the impact of foreign invasion on the people of Punjab.
Answer:
The people of Punjab faced lot many foreign invaders. They also tolerated the people who came with the foreign invaders and settled over here. Due to continuous wars, a feeling of bravery and fearlessness came in them. They never lived at place for a very long time. With the advent of many people from foreign countries, their culture, ways of living, religion, language etc. became the part of Punjab. Many of the traits of the Muslim culture got assimilated in the Punjabi culture.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Punjab was annexed into the British Empire in ______________
(a) 1947 A.E),
(b) 1857 A.D.
(c) 1849 A.D.
(d) 1889 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1849 A.D.

Question 2.
Punjab was divided in two parts on the basis of language in ___________
(a) 1947 A.D.
(b) 1966 A.D.
(c) 1950 A.D.
(d) 1971 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1966 A.D.

Question 3.
________ river acted as a boundary between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and the British.
(a) Sutlej
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Beas.
Answer:
(a) Sutlej.

Question 4.
Presently which river acts a boundary between India and Pakistan?
(a) Ravi
(b) Chenab
(c) Beas
(d) Sutlej.
Answer:
(a) Ravi.

Question 5.
Shah Jaman attacked India (Punjab) in ________
(a) 1811 A.D.
(b) 1798 A.D.
(c) 1757 A.D.
(d) 1794 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1798 A.D.

Question 6.
Who made Delhi as the capital of India?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Curzon.
Answer:
(c) Lord Hardinge.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Punjab was called Sapt Sindhu during period.
Answer:
Vedic

Question 2.
The territory between two rivers is known as the ________
Answer:
Doab

Question 3.
The Mughal Emperor Akbar divided Punjab in ________ provinces.
Answer:
two

Question 4.
Under Maharaja Ranjit Singh, Punjab was called ________ as a province.
Answer:
Lahore

Question 5.
During the Ramayana and Mahabharata age, Punjab was called ________
Answer:
Tsehkia

Question 6.
Alexander attacked India in ________ B. C.
Answer:
326.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is it not correct to use the word Punjab after the partition of India?
Answer:
Before partition, Punjab was a land of five rivers but after independence, three rivers went over to Pakistan and only two (Beas and Sutlej) remained in present Punjab.

Question 2.
What was the impact of Indian partition on Punjab?
Answer:
With the Indian partition, Punjab was divided in two parts.

Question 3.
In how mahy parts, can Punjab be divided from geographical point of view? Name them.
Answer:
From geographical point of view, Punjab can be divided into three parts :

The Himalaya and its North-Eastern mountains,
Sub-Mountainous region,
The plains.

Question 4.
What type of area would Punjab be had the Himalayas not been there?
Answer:
If the Himalayas had not been there in the north of Punjab,it could have been dry and cold.

Question 5.
What is the meaning of the term ‘Doab’?
Answer:
Territory between two rivers.

Question 6.
What is the area between the rivers Sutlej and the Ghaggar called? What are the inhabitants of this area called?
Answer:
The region between the rivers Sutlej and Ghaggar is known as Malwa and people living in this region are called Malwais.

Question 7.
How was the Doab Bist Jalandhar named? Write the names of any two famous cities of this area.
Answer:

Doab Bist Jalandhar is the region between the rivers Beas and Sutlej. By joining the first letters of the names of the rivers Beas and Sutlej, the word Bist is formed
Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur are the two famous cities of this region.

Question 8.
Why is the Doab Bari called Majha? What are the residents of this area called?
Answer:
The Bari Doab is situated in the central Punjab. The word Majha means inner or the centre and that is why it is called the Majha. The people living in this region are called Majhels or Majahis.

Question 9.
Which Mughal ruler had divided the Punjab into two provinces?
Answer:
The Mughal ruler Akbar divided the Punjab into two provinces.

Question 10.
By what name was the Punjab called during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Punjab was called ‘Lahore Kingdom’ during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

Question 11.
When did the British annex Punjab?
Answer:
The British annexed Punjab in 1849.

Question 12.
When did the division of Punjab take place on linguistic basis?
Answer:
Punjab was divided in two states namely, Punjab and Haryana in 1966 on Linguistic basis.

Question 13.
Name any four major tribes which invaded Punjab after crossing the passes of the north-west ranges of Himalayas.
Answer:
The four main tribes were the Aryans, Sakas, Greeks and Kushans.

Question 14.
In which two parts are the plains of Punjab divided?
Answer:
The plains of Punjab are divided in two parts namely Eastern plains and Western plains.

Question 15.
Which two rivers have remained in the Indian Punjab?
Answer:
Sutlej and Beas.

Question 16.
What was Punjab called during Ramayana and Mahabharata ages?
Answer:
Panchnand

Question 17.
Which Governor-General made Delhi the Capital of India?
Answer:
Lord Hardinge.

Question 18.
Name any two passes situated in the western ranges of the Himalayas. ,
Answer:
Khyber and Tochi.

Question 19.
When did Delhi become the Capital of India?
Answer:
In 1911 A.D.

Question 20.
When did Alexander attack India?
Answer:
In 326 B.C.

Question 21.
When did Shah Zaman attack India (Punjab)?
Answer:
In 1798 A.D.

Question 22.
Which river acted as the boundary between the British and Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
River Sutlej.

Question 23.
Presently, few parts of which river act as a boundary between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
Ravi.

Question 24.
Which was the Capital of Punjab during the times of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Lahore.

Question 25.
Why are the plains of Punjab called Real Punjab? Give any one reason in support of the claim.
Answer:
The plains are fertile and are the main cause of prosperity of Punjab.

Question 26.
Name any four Doabs of the plains of Punjab.
Answer:
Bist Jalandhar Doab, Bari Doab, Rachna Doab and Chaj Doab.

Question 27.
Name the rivers which surround the Malwa region in Punjab?
Answer:
The rivers Sutlej and Ghaggar surround the Malwa region.

Question 28.
Name any four cities of Punjab where decisive historical wars were fought?
Answer:
Terain, Panipat, Peshawar and Thanesar.

Question 29.
What name do we give to Pakistani Punjab?
Answer:
Western Punjab.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any four advantages of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The following are the main four benefits of the Himalayan mountains.

The rivers of Himalayan flow during the whole year. They make the land of the Punjab fertile.
There are dense forests in the Himalayan mountains. These forests provide many herbs and large quantities of wood.
The high snow-covered peaks of the Himalayas protect India from the attacks of foreign invaders from the North.
The Himalayan mountains check the monsoon winds and help in bringing rains.

Question 2.
Write briefly about any three Doabs.
Answer:

The Sindh Sagar Doab. This Doab is the region between the rivers Indus and Jhelum. It is not a fertile region for farming.
The Chaj Doab. This Doab is the region between the rivers Chenab and Jhelum. The important cities of this Doab are Gujarat, Bhera and Shahpur.
The Rachna Doab. It is the region between the rivers Ravi and Chenab, which is a very fertile region. Gujranwala and Shekhupura are the important towns of this Doab.

Question 3.
How did the rivers of Punjab affect the course of its history?
Answer:
The rivers of Punjab always stopped the march of the invaders of India. When the rivers were in flood in the rainy season, they expanded in the vast area and it became impossible to cross them. Undoubtedly, it was the reason that Alexander was held back for many days on the banks of river Jhelum before crossing it, because it was in flood. These rivers proved insurmountable hurdles for many invaders. The rivers of Punjab had also been used as the natural boundaries for administrative purposes. The Mughal rulers divided the areas of the administrative units like Sarkars, Parganas, and Subas by adopting the rivers as the boundaries. The rivers of Punjab had made its land fertile and brought its people wealth and prosperity. Had the rivers not brought the alluvial soil from the high mountains to the plains, Punjab would not have any fertile land.

Question 4.
Give information about the boundaries of Punjab in different periods of Indian history.
Answer:
The boundaries of the Punjab territory varied from time to time throughout its history.

According to the Rig Veda, the boundaries of Punjab included the regions covered by the rivers Indus. Jhelum Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej and Saraswati.
During the Mauryan and Kushan periods, the boundaries of Punjab extended upto the Hindukush mountain ranges and Taxila.
During the Sultanate period (1206-1526), the boundaries of Punjab extended from Lahore to Peshawar. During the Mughal period (1526-1707), the Punjab was diyided into two provinces, namely, Lahore Suba and Multan Suba.
During the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the boundaries of Punjab extended from the river Sutlej to Peshawar.
The British named the territory of Lahore kingdom of Maharaja Dalip Singh (Son of Maharaja Ranjit Singh) as the Punjab after annexing it to the British Indian Empire.
After the partition of India, a major part^f the Punjab was transferred to Pakistan.
On the basis of language, Punjab was divided into three states, namely Punjab, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 5.
How did the Himalayan mountains influence the history of Punjab?
Answer:
The Himalayas influenced the history of Punjab in the following manner :

Punjab-The Gateway of India: Punjab remained the Gateway of India for centuries since ancient times due to the North-Western mountain ranges of the Himalayas. The foreign invaders crossed the passes of these ranges to invade India.
The Problem of the North-West Frontier: The security of North-West Frontier of India had always remained a major problem for the rulers of India. Those rulers, who failed to ensure the security of North-West Frontiers, suffered heavy losses.
Protection against Foreign Invasions: It was impossible to cross the high ranges of the Himalayas from north. Consequently, Punjab remained secure in the north for a long time since nobody could invade from the northern side.
Economic Prosperity: The rivers, originating in the Himalayas, replenished her plains with fertile soil from year to year. Consequently, the plains of Punjab were counted among the most fertile lands of the world.

Question 6.
What role did the Punjab play in the history of India?
Answer:
The Punjab played an important role in the history of India due to its special geographical location. It became the cradle of Indian civilization. The oldest ancient culture (Indus Valley Civilization) flourished in the Punjab. The Aryans made it the centre of their political sway. They composed their sacred books like the Vedas, Puranas, Mahabharata, Ramayana etc, in the Punjab. Punjab was the the Gateway of India. All the invaders during medieval period came to India by passing through Punjab. Hence, people of Punjab had to fight numerous battles to hold back the advancing invaders. Apart from this, Punjab was the birthplace of Hinduism and Sikhism. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave his divine message on this very land. It was here that Guru Gobind Singh Ji created the Khalsa Panth and successfully resisted the Mughal oppression. Banda Singh Bahadur and Maharaja Ranjit Singh hold prominent places in the history of India.

Question 7.
Give a brief description of the geographical division of Punjab keeping in view the history of Punjab.
Answer:
The geographical features of Punjab can be divided into three parts, keeping in view the history of Punjab.

Himalayas and the North-West Mountain ranges.
The Terai region (foothills).
The Plains.

The mighty Himalayas form the boundary of Punjab in the north. The high rising peaks of the Himalayas are always covered With snow. The Himalayas have three ranges which run parallel to one another. There are numerous passes in the North West ranges through which the invaders, traders and religious preachers had been coming to India since ancient times. The second geographical division of Punjab is Terai region. It is sandwiched between the mountains and the plains of Punjab. The population in this region is small. The most important geographical division of Punjab is its plains, which are very fertile. They extend from river Indus in the northwest to river Yamuna in the south-east. It is formed by the soil deposited by the rivers from the Himalayas. It is the cause of the prosperity of Punjab since the ancient times.

Question 8.
How did the geographical features of Punjab influence the history of Punjab?
Answer:
Each geographical feature of Punjab has influenced differently the history of Punjab.

The passes of the North-West Mountain Ranges of Himalayas allowed passage to many invaders. Hence the security of the North-west region remained a major problem for every ruler. On the other hand, the snow capped high rising peaks of the Himalayas in the parts of Punjab provided perfect security from all the possible invaders from the northern side.
The distinctive culture of Punjab is a gift of the Himalayas standing in the North and West of Punjab.
The prosperity and wealth of Punjab had always attracted the greedy invaders. Consequently. Punjab had to face their invasions frequently.
The Terai region provided shelter to the Sikhs during their hard times. The Sikhs saved themselves and courageously faced the oppressive rulers.

Question 9.
Who annexed Punjab to the British Empire and when? Describe the role of the Punjab in the freedom struggle of India.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856), the Governor-General of India, annexed the Punjab to the British Indian Empire in 1849. Punjab made a commendable contribution to the freedom struggle of India. Baba Ram Singh started the Kuka Movement in Punjab. He was the first to oppose the British rule. The people of Punjab began the freedom struggle during the 20th century by starting, Gaddhar Movement, Gurudwara Movement, Babbar Akali Movement, Naujwan Sabha (Martyr Bhagat Singh’s Movement), Akali Movement, Praja Mandal Movement etc. Martyr Bhagat Singh sacrificed his life on the gallows for the sake of his motherland. The heroes of freedom struggle like Madan Lai Dhingra, Kartar Singh Sarabha and Udham Singh laid down their lives for the freedom of India. Ultimately, in 1947, India became free.

Question 10.
Describe the main features of Mountain Valleys (Tilhat) or Terai region (foothills) in Punjab.
Answer:
The Terai region of Punjab is situated below the hills of Himachal Pradesh and of Punjab. This region is 308 to 923 metres high above sea level. It presents a different look from the rest of the Himalayan regions in Punjab because of its meadows and valleys. The areas of Sialkot, Kangra, Hoshiarpur, Gurdaspur and some areas of Ambala district are parts of this region. It is mostly a hilly area. Consequently, the region is not much fertile. The waterborne diseases rapidly spread here during the rainy season. It has a small population. The people of the region are forced to work hard for their livelihood. This hqrd life has made them strong and sturdy.

Question 11.
How far have the plains influenced the history of Punjab?
Answer:

Punjab had always remained a prosperous .state because its plains are fertile. The wealth and prosperity of Punjab always attracted greedy invaders from outside Punjab.
Many historic battles were fought in the plains of Punjab. Peshawar, Kurukshetra, Thanesar, Sirhind, Bhatinda, Bhera, Kari, Terain, Panipat etc. witnessed major decisive battles. The three major decisive battles, the Battles of Panipat took place in Punjab.
The people of Punjab were made to fight numerous battles because of the geographical location of the plains of Punjab. They suffered numerous atrocities at the hands of invaders. For example, Timur was notorious for his inhuman atrocities, which he inflicted on the people of Punjab.
The people of Punjab developed the qualities of bravery and courage due to their involvement in frequent wars which they were made to fight.
The Aryans developed Hinduism in Punjab. During the medieval period, this very land had the honour of being the birthplace of Guru Nanak Dev Ji who gave his spiritual message in a very simple language.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“The Himalayas have deeply influenced the history of Punjab.” Justify this statement with your arguments.
Answer:
The Himalayas stand high like a huge wall on the northern side of Punjab. The Himalayas have deeply influenced the history of Punjab :
1. Punjab: The Gateway of India. The Punjab had remained the Gateway of India for centuries because of the North-West ranges of Himalayas. First of all, the Aryans from Iran crossed the North Western mountain passes and invaded India. They faced strong opposition of the people of Punjab. But they ultimately settled in this region.

2. The Problem of North-West Frontier: The protection of North-West Frontiers had always remained a major problem for the Indian rulers. The Indian rulers were forced to spend a large amount of money for the protection of these frontiers.

3. Protection against the attacks of foreigners: The Northern ranges of the Himalayas are very high and always remain covered with snow. Therefore, Punjab remained safe from the attacks of the foreigners from the northern side.

4. Economic Prosperity: The Punjab has remained a prosperous region due to the Himalayas. The rivers of Himalayas replenished the upper soil of its land. Consequently, Punjab plains were counted among the most fertile regions of the world.

5. The Trade Relations with Foreign Countries: The passes in the North-West ranges served as trade routes to the foreign countries. The merchants from West Asian and Central Asian countries visited India by these trade routes. The Punjabi traders also visited their countries.

6. Distinctive Culture of Punjab. The Persians, Arabs, Turks, Mughals, and Afghans came to India crossing the passes of the North-West Himalayas. Their different languages like Arabic, Persian, Turkish, etc. mixed with Sanskrit-based local languages and dialects. This fusion of different cultures gave birth to the distinctive culture of Punjab which is now full of Indian and foreign features.