Class 10

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Microsoft Publishers-I Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Choose an application used to design and produce attractive advertising and promotional material.
(a) Document
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Publication
(d) Presentation
Answer:
(c) Publication

Question 2
Publisher enables us to produce quick publications by using:
(a) Manual
(b) Wizards
(c) Customize
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Wizards

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Question 3
To open the Microsoft publisher by keyboard, what we need to type in search bar?
(a) WordPad
(b) Notepad
(c) Access
(d) Publisher
Answer:
(d) Publisher

Question 4
Each tab is divided into:
(a) Groups
(b) Status Bar
(c) Menus
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Groups

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Question 5
After creating publication, save the publication by clicking on save option in:
(a) Groups
(b) Home
(c) Insert
(d) View
Answer:
(a) Groups

Question 6
Close the publication by clicking button in File menu.
(a) Open
(b) New
(c) Print
(d) Close
Answer:
(d) Close

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

2. Fill In The Blanks

1. We can also add the objects to the blank Layout like ………….. word art, and auto shapes etc.
Answer:
Text, Pictures

2. The handles centered on the lines of the box will stretch the object ………… and …………. .
Answer:
Vertically and Horizontally

3. We can …………. and …………… on the handles to resize our frame.
Answer:
Click and Drag

4. To view additional features within each group, click the dialog box launcher (arrow) at the bottom of each ……………..
Answer:
Right Comer, Group

5. When we click on a small circles appear around the edge of ……………. the frame. These are called
Answer:
Frame , Handles.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

3. True or False

1. A Template is a tool used in Publisher to help us easily create basic publication.
Answer:
True

2. Most publications are divided into several different areas called frames.
Answer:
True

3. The comer handles will resize the object proportionally.
Answer:
True

4. Before exiting Publisher, we should not close all the publications.
Answer:
False

5. We cannot add items to the quick access toolbar by click on any item.
Answer:
False

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Extension used to save a publication is?
Answer:
.pub

Question 2.
To move objects which cursor is used?
Answer:
Crosshairs

Question 3.
Online Templates are available in?
Answer:
Office.com

Question 4.
List of our recently used Publisher files are in?
Answer:
Recent

Question 5.
AZX The text is arranged around the object by using which option?
Answer:
Wrap text

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Publisher?
Answer:
Publisher is an application software which is used to create publication for professional and personal use. It is a product of Microsoft company. It is one of the major software of Desktop Publishing.

Question 2.
Write the steps for Moving Objects in publisher.
Answer:
Following are the steps to Move Object in Publisher:
1. Click on the Object.
2. Place the cursor on solid line so that you see cross hairs.
3. Click and Drag the Object to desired location.

Question 3.
Define Templates?
Answer:
Template is a set of Predefined design styles that can be used to create a publication of document. It can be customized as per our needs.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How to create a publication using blank layout in publisher?
Answer:
We can create new Publication by following methods:

  • By using blank layout.
  • By using installed templates.
  • By using online templates.

Creating a publication using Blank Layout:
Following are there steps to start with a blank publication-

  • Click the File menu, and then click New.
  • Under Available Templates, click a blank publication template, and then click Create.
  • You can create a publication with our own specifications in Publication. You can also add the objects to the blank layout like text,picture, word art, and auto shapes etc.
  • After creating publication, save the publication by clicking on save option in File menu.
  • The Save As dialog box appears, type a name for our publication, select the folder in which we want to save it, and then click save button.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Question 2.
How to add text using text box and write the steps for editing text in publisher?
Answer:
Adding Text in Publication. Following steps are used to add text in publication:

  • From the Home or Insert Tab, select Draw Text Box.
  • Place the cursor on the page where we want to draw a text box.
  • Click and drag the cursor across the page to the desired size. The size of the text box can be changed after we have drawn it.
  • When we let go of the left click on the mouse, we are brought to the format tab which gives us more options for the text box.
  • Type the text in text box.

Editing Text in MS Publisher:
1. Highlight the text we want to edit.
2. If we are not brought to the Text Box Tools Format Tab, then select it.
3. Text Group Options :

  • Text Fit. Defines how the text will fit in the text box : Best Fit, Shrink Text on Overflow, Grow Text Box to Fit, Do Not Auto-Fit.
  • Text Direction. Changes direction to horizontal or vertical.
  • Hyphenation. Changes hyphenation behavior of selected text.

4. Font Group Options. Style Font Size, Bold, Italics, Underline, Text Spacing, & Color.
5. Alignment Group Options. Text Box Alignment, Columns, Margins.
6. Effects Group Options. Shadow, Outline, Engrave, Emboss.

Question 3.
How to Print your Publication? Write their steps.
Answer:
There are two basic ways to print your publication :
First one is to click on the print icon on toolbar. This will print one copy of our publication with the default print options.

1. Click on the File menu and click Print.
2. When the print window appears, select the desired number of copies.
3.Choose any other print settings:

  • All Pages, Selection, Current Page, or Custom Range
  • Manually enter page numbers we want to print
  • How many pages print per sheet of paper
  • Paper Size .
  • 1-sided or 2-sided printing.

4. Click Print.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Microsoft Publishers-I Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A pre defined design is called?
(a) Publication
(b) ClipArt
(c) Design
(d) Template
Answer:
(d) Template

Question 2.
Publications include:
(a) Advertising Material
(b) Promotional Material
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both of these

Fill in the Blanks

1. Publisher is used to ………….. , …………… and ……………. publication.
Answer:
Design, Promotional, Advertising

2. …………. area is the blank area of the publisher window.
Answer:
Publication

3. ………….. is the small window on the left side of Publisher Window.
Answer:
Task Pane

4. Various invitation card types all displayed in ………………… .
Answer:
Preview Gallery

5. The advertising and promotional material is called ……………… .
Answer:
Publications.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Select True/False

1. Publisher is used to print document.
Answer:
True

2. The status bar is present at the bottom of the publisher window.
Answer:
True

3. The personal information is filled in personal information dialog box.
Answer:
True

4. The publications of publisher are saved with extension .ppt.
Answer:
False

5. Before existing publisher, it is not necessary to close all the publications.
Answer:
True.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Very Short Answer Type Question

Question 1
What is Publisher?
Answer:
Publisher is an application that is used to. design and produce advertisement and promotional materials.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the steps to open the Publisher.
Answer:
The following are the steps to open publisher:
1. Click on start button.
2. Select MS Publisher from the program.
3. Click OK.

Question 2.
Write the name of component of Publisher Window.
Answer:
On the start menu, point to all programs, point to microsoft office, and then click Micro soft office publisher. The Microsoft publisher window will appear.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Question 3.
What are the two ways of creating a Publication?
Answer:
The following are the two ways of creating a publication:
1. By Wizards
2. By Using blank layout.

Question 4.
Write the steps to Save Publication.
Answer:
The following are the steps to save of publication :
(i) On the File Menu, Click Save. The Save As dialog box appears. The default name of the publication is Publication 1.
(ii) Select the folder in which you want to save the application, type name in the File Name box and then click Save.
The publication is save in the selected folder with a pub extension.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the difference between word and publisher.
Answer:

Word Publisher
1. Word is an example of Word Processing Software 1. Publisher is an example of DTP software
2. Word Document has extension .doc 2. Publisher document has extension of .pub
3. Word is mostly used of common typing purpose 3. Publisher is used for designing professional objects.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Question 2.
Explain the components of Publisher Window.
Answer:
Components of publisher window:
There are three most important components that we should remember as we work within Publisher 2010. These are:
PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I 1
1. Quick Access Toolbar:
The quick access toolbar is a customizable toolbar that contains commands that we may want to use. We can place the quick access toolbar above or below the ribbon. To change the location of the quick access toolbar, click on the arrow at the end of the toolbar and click Show below the Ribbon. We can also add items to the quick access toolbar, simply click on any item and if will be added to our toolbar.

2. Ribbon:
The ribbon is the panel at the top portion of the document it has six tabs: Home, Insert, Page Design, Mailings, Review, and View. Each tab is divided into groups

3. File Window:
When we click on the File menu, we are brought to the Info screen. It looks like that our document is gone, but it is not. As we click on the options in the File menu, the screen will change accordingly.

  • Save: Save the file as a 2010 file.
  • Save As: Allows you to choose a different file type (i.e. PDF, Word).
  • Open: Browse to a Publisher file.
  • Close: Closes the file but keeps Publisher running.
  • Info: Edit Business information, use Design Checker, and set Commercial Print Information.
  • Recent: List of our recently used Publisher files.
  • New: New Publication Screen.
  • Print: Print Options.
  • Save & Send: Options for saving e mailing the file.
  • Help: Microsoft Help.
  • Options: Set default options.
  • Exit: Closes Publisher (file and program).

Question 3.
How to create a publication using blank layout?
Answer:
Creating a publication using blank layout:
Following are the steps to start with a blank publication:
1. Click the File menu, and then click New.

2. Under Available Templates, click a blank publication template, and then click Create.

3. Now, we can create a publication with our own specifications in publication. We can also add the objects to the blank layout like text, picture, word art, and auto shapes etc.

4. After creating publication, save the publication by clicking on save option in File menu. The Save As dialog box appears, type a name for bur publication, select the folder in which you want to save it, and then click save button. The publication is saved with a .pub extension.

5. Close the publication by clicking close button in File menu. A dialog box appears, if we want to save the changes, then click yes button, otherwise click no. Before exiting Publisher, we should close all the publications, then Click Exit in File menu or click cross button on title bar.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Question 4.
How you can load MS Publishers?
Answer:
Microsoft Publisher:
Microsoft Publisher is differing from Microsoft Word in that the emphasis is placed on page layout and design rather than text composition and proofing. Microsoft Publisher is a business desktop publishing program that enables users to easily create professional-looking marketing materials.

The Microsoft Publisher offers more design options with over 2,000 professionally designed publication templates and hundreds of design elements for users to mix and match within their publications. A flexible wizard model allows users to work the way they want, and automated design expertise helps them achieve professional results without design expertise. Stronger office integration and a complete print-to-web publishing solution enable users to deliver professional looking results.

Question 5.
What are the steps to save Publication in MS Publisher?
Answer:
There are two basic ways to save our publication. First one is to Point and click on the save icon on our toolbar.

Follow these step:

  • Click on the File menu and Save As.
  • When the Save As Dialogue Box appears Click Browse and find the location on computer where we want the file saved.
  • Type the name of our publication in the File Name field.
  • Click on the Save button.

Question 6.
Write the steps to modify a page design.
Answer:
Page Design:
1. Click the tab Page Design if needed, to change templates, adjust page margins, apply ruler guides, or apply built-in color schemes to the chosen template.

2. We can use the Built-in Ruler Guide templates to help in aligning text boxes, pictures, or other objects. To apply a Built-in Ruler Guide template click on the command Guides in the group Layout, and then choose a template.

3. To add a vertical or horizontal ruler guide repeat the above step, then click on Add Vertical or Horizontal Ruler Guide.

4. To add additional guides, move the mouse pointer over the vertical or horizontal ruler, drag the guide in the desired direction when the pointer changes to a two headed arrow.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Question 7.
Write the steps of Creating a Publication with Templates.
Answer:
Creating a publication with Templates:
We can create a publication in Publisher by using template.
Available Publication Types : Publisher 2010 allows us:
1. To apply built-in templates.
2. To apply our own custom templates.
3. To search from a variety of templates available on Office.com. Office.com provides a wide selection of popular Publisher templates, including newsletters and flyers.

To find and apply a template in Publisher 2010, dp the following:
1. On the File tab, click New.
2. Under Available Templates, do one of the following:

  • To use a template that we already have installed, click My Templates, click the template that we want, and then click Create
  • To use one of the pre-built templates installed in Publisher, under Most Popular or More Templates, click the category that we want, click the template that we want, and then click Create.
  • To find and apply a template on Office.com, under Most Popular or More Templates, click the category that we want, click the template that we want, and then click Download.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 20-25 words:

Question 1.
What were the orders given by Guru Ji to the Sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji instructed the Sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama to consider Banda Bahadur as their leader in their struggle against the Mughals.

Question 2.
Why did Banda Bahadur come to Punjab from the South?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji had appointed Banda Bahadur as the leader of the Sikhs in Punjab. Hence, he came to Punjab from Deccan to undertake military action against the tyrannical Mughals.

Question 3.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Samana?
Answer:
Sayyid Jalaludin, the executioner of Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji, lived in Samana. The other two executioners of two young Sahibzadas, namely, Jalad Shasal Beg and Jalad Bhagal Beg were also inhabitants of Samana. Due to this reason, Banda Bahadur attacked Samana.

Question 4.
What was the reason for attacking Bhuna village by Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
A contingent of Mughal soldiers guarding a Mughal treasury was camping at village Bhuna. Banda Bahadur needed money for his military campaigns. Hence, he attacked the village Bhuna.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 5.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Sadhaura?
Answer:
Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhaura to punish its ruler Usman Khan. Usman Khan was notorious for commiting atrocities on the Hindus. Usman Khan had also killed Buddhu Shah for having supported Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the battle of Bhangani.

Question 6.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Chapparchiri and Sirhind?
Or
What was the reason for attacking Sirhind by Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in the Punjab. He had also bricked alive the two young Sahibzadas in a wall at Sirhind. That was why Banda Bahadur attacked Sirhind and Chapparchiri.

Question 7.
What was the cause of the battle of Rahon?
Answer:
The Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab had risen in arms against Faujdar Shamas Khan. The Sikhs had removed the Mughal officers by force and replaced them by Sikh officers. As a result, the battle of Rahon was fought between the Sikhs and the Mughals.

Question 8.
Wazir Khan was the Subedar of which place? Where did he fight against Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
Wazir Khan was appointed as the Subedar of Sirhind by the Mughals. He fought a battle with Banda Bahadur at Chapparchirri.

Question 9.
Write about the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was arrested along with about one thousand Sikh soldiers in 1715 and taken to Delhi. There, the Mughal tormentors plucked out his flesh with hot iron rods. In this manner, Banda Bahadur was martyred.

Question 10.
When and between whom third battle of Panipat fought?
Answer:
Third battle of Panipat was fought in 1761 between Ahmad Shah Abdali and Marathas. ,

Question 11.
How was the Karorsinghia Misl named?
Answer:
The founder of Karorsinghia Misl was Karor Singh. His Misl was named as Karorsinghia Misl after his name.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 12.
Who was Sada Kaur?
Answer:
Sada Kaur was the mother-in-law of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. She belonged to the Kanhaiya Misl. She was a woman of extraordinary courage and ability.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Describe the meeting of Banda Bahadur and Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
Answer:
The original name of Banda Bahadur was Madho Dass. His childhood name was Lakshman Dass. He was a Bairagi. In 1708, Guru Gobind Singh Ji visited South India. There, Madho Dass happened to meet’Guru Gobind Singh Ji. He was so much impressed by the graceful personality of Guru Sahib that he immediately adopted Guru Sahib as his Guru. Guru Sahib baptized him a Sikh and renamed him Gurbaksh Singh. Guru Sahib sent him to the Punjab* to lead the Sikhs. He became popular as Banda Bahadur in Punjab.

Question 2.
Write a note on the conquest of Samana by Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur attacked Samana on October 26, 1709. The cause of the attack on Samana was that the executioner who had martyred Guru Teg Bahadur Ji and bricked the two young Sahibzadas in a wall at Sirhind belonged to Samana. The fight continued in the streets of Samana for many hours. It is said that the Sikhs killed nearly ten thousand Muslims. They also razed to the ground numerous buildings. The families of the executioners were completely liquidated. Banda Bahadur looted a large amount of money from Samana.

Question 3.
Write about the battle of Chapparchiri (Sirhind).
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhind Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in Punjab. Secondly, the two young Sahibzadas were bricked alive in a wall on his orders. Banda Bahadur determined to avenge the heinous crimes committed by Wazir Khan. When Banda Bahadur marched towards Sirhind, many people rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, who was an employee of Sirhind administration, also joined the invading Sikh army along with his thousand soldiers. However, later he deserted the Sikh army. On the other side, Wazir Khan had twenty thousand soldiers at his disposal. On May 22, 1710, a fierce battle took place at Chapparchirri, a place 16 kilometres away from Sirhind. Wazir Khan was slain in the battle. The enemy army became the victim of the swords of Sikhs in large numbers. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. The nose of Sucha Nand was pierced and he was paraded in the town.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 4.
Describe the battle of Gurdas Nangal.
Answer:
The Mughals were highly infuriated by the continuous victories of Banda Bahadur. Finally, in 1715, a large Mughal army attacked Banda’s army. Abdus Samad Khan was in command of that army. The Sikhs fought the Mughal army doggedly. However, they were forced to move to Haveli of Duni Chand at Gurdas Nangal, a place 6 kilometres west of Gurdaspur City. They again entrenched themselves in the mansion (haveli) of Bhai Duni Chand. In order to strengthen the defence of the Haveli, they dug out a moat around the building and filled it with water. In April 1715, the Mughal army landed near the haveli of Duni Chand and besieged it. The Sikhs put up a stiff resistance. The siege continued for eight months during which all the food supplies within the haveli were finished. Thus, compelled by the circumstances, the Sikhs accepted the defeat. Banda Bahadur and his about 1000 soldiers were arrested and taken to Lahore.

Question 5.
Which was the First Misl? Describe it.
Answer:
The Faizalpuria Misl was the first Misl which came into existence. The founder of this Misl was Nawab Kapur Singh. He had first occupied a village Faizalpur near Amritsar and named it Singhpur. It was, therefore, also called the Singpuria Misl.

In 1753, Nawab Kapur Singh died and his nephew Khushal Singh became the chief of the Faizalpuria Misl. By that time, the influence and dominance of the Sikhs had increased and Faizalpuria Misl extended its sway over a wide area. In 1796, Buddh Singh, son of Khushal Singh, became the chief of the Faizalpuria Misl. He was a brave and capable chief just like his father. In 1819, Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexecFFaizalpuria Misl to his kingdom.

Answer the following questions in 100-120 words:

Question 1.
Describe the early conquests of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was a great military commander of his times. The strongest weapons of Banda Bahadur were his intrepidity and the blessings of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. He had come to Delhi on the instructions of Guru Sahib. He sent the Hukamnama of Guru Gobind Singh Ji to the Sikhs of Malwa, Doaba and Majha. Soon after, thousands of Sikhs rallied under his flag. After organising the army with the help of those Sikhs, Banda Bahadur marched towards Punjab to take military action against the tyranny and oppression of the Mughals.

1. Attack on Sonipat. After leaving Delhi for Punjab, he first attacked Sonipat. At that time, only 500 Sikhs had joined him. However, the Faujdar of Sonipat had no courage to face the Sikh army on learning about the stories of their valour. He ran away from the town along with his soldiers.

2. Looting of Royal treasury at Bhuna (Kaithal). After Sonepat, Banda Bahadur reached Kaithal. He received a report that some soldiers were camping at a nearby village Bhuna with the land revenue collections. Banda Bahadur, who was in need of money for his military campaigns, attacked village Bhuna. The Faujdar of Kaithal came forward to fight a battle with him but was badly defeated. Banda Bahadur acquired all the money.

3. Victory of Samana. After Bhuna, Banda Bahadur marched towards Samana. Sayyid Jalaludin, the executioner of Guru Teg Bahadur, lived there. The executioners of two young Sahibzadas, (Sahibzadas Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh) namely, Jalad Shasal Beg and Baghal Beg were also inhabitants of Samana. Banda Bahadur attacked Samana on November 26, 1709 and punished them. The fight continued for many hours in the streets of Samana. The Sikh soldiers razed to the ground the imposing buildings of Samana and put nearly ten thousand Muslims to sword. The families of Sayyid Jalaludin, Shasal Beg and Baghal Beg were killed. Banda Bahadur acquired a large booty during the attack. He appointed Bhai Fateh Singh as the administrator of Samana.

4. Victory of Ghurram. One week after the victory of Samana, Banda Bahadur attacked Ghurram. The Pathans of Ghurram offered resistance to the Sikh army. However, they saved their lives by running away. The Sikh army looted a lot of money from Ghurram.

5. Attack on Kapuri. From Ghurram, Banda Bahadur reached Kapuri. The ruler of Kapuri, Qutbudirt was notorious for inflicting atrocities on the Hindus. Banda Bahadur defeated him and put him to death! Banda Bahadur burned down his haveli.

6. Victory of Sadhaura (Qatalgarhi). The ruler of Sadhaura, Usman Khan, was notorious for committing atrocities on the Hindus. He had killed Buddhu Shah for having supported Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the victory of Bhangani. Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhora. After defeating Usman Khan, the Sikhs ravaged Sadhora,, town. Some of the Muslims took shelter in the haveli of Buddhu Shah. The Sikh army chopped off their heads. As a result, the place came to be ’known as Quatalgarhi.

7. Victory of Mukhalispur. After Sadhora, Banda Bahadur invaded Mukhalispur and easily occupied it. He changed the name of the fort to Lohgarh. Later, Banda Bahadur made Lohgarh as his capital.

8. Victory of Chapparchirri and Sirhind: The main target of the military expedition of Banda Bahadur was Sirhind where Subedar Wazir Khan lived, who had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in the Punjab and afterwards also. He was also responsible for the martyrdom of two young Sahibzadas. That was why Banda Bahadur wanted to take revenge upon him. When Banda Bahadur approached Sirhind, thousands of Sikhs rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, an employee of Sirhind administration, also joined the invading Sikh army with his one thousand soldiers. Wazir Khan also came forward with his 2000 soldiers. A fierce battle was fought at Chapparchirri (near Sirhind) on 22 May, 1710 A.D. between the two armies. However, some of the Sikhs indulged in looting only and deserted the army during the course of the battle. The nephew of Sucha Nand also ran away from the field. At such a crucial juncture, Banda Bahadur charged forward and encouraged the loyal Sikhs. Finally, he killed Wazir Khan. A large number of Mughal soldiers were slain by the Sikhs. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. The nose of Sucha Nand was pierced and he was paraded in the town.

9. Attack on Saharanpur and Jalalabad: In the meantime, Banda Bahadur got report that Jalal Khan, the governor of Jalalabad, was committing atrocities on his Hindu subjects. Therefore, he invaded Jalalabad. On his way, he occupied Saharanpur also. However, Banda Bahadur returned without conquering Jalalabad because of heavy rains and he had received an urgent message from the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab to come to their help.

10. Control over Jalandhar Doab: The continuous victories of Banda Bahadur had infused a new spirit of courage among the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab. The Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab had risen in revolt against the Faujdar Shams Khan. Shams Khan sent a huge army against the Sikhs after declaring Jihad. Banda Bahadur arrived at the right time to assist the Sikhs in their revolt. A fierce battle took place between the Sikhs and Muslims at Rahon. The Sikhs emerged victorious. In this way, the regions of Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur came under the control of the Sikhs.

11. Control over Amritsar, Batala, Kalanaur and Pathankot: Encouraged by the victories of Bapda Bahadur, nearly 8000 Sikhs revolted against their Muslim rulers. Soon they took in their possession the region of Amritsar, Batala, Kalanaur and Pathankot.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 2.
Describe the battles between Bahadur Shah and Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur spread awe and fear amoag the Mughal rulers of Punjab. When the Mughal Emperor received the report about actual condition in the Punjab, he got infuriated. The emperor, therefore, directed all his attention towards Punjab. On June 27, 1710, he left Ajmer for Punjab.

The emperor also directed the Subedars of Delhi, Avadh, and Nizams and Faujdars of Muradabad and Allahabad to come along with their armies to Punjab.
1. Battle of Eminabad: Bahadur Shah, Feroze Khan Mewati and Mahabat Khan in command of a large army marched against Banda Bahadur and his Sikh army. Bhai Binod Singh and Ram Singh engaged the Mughal army in a battle on October 26, 1710 at Eminabad, a place between Banesar and Tarawari. At one time, the Sikh army pushed back Mahabat Khan. But as the number of Mughal soldiers was quite large, the Sikhs were defeated. The Sikhs were highly insulted. The dead bodies of the Sikhs were hanged on the trees on the roadsides. Bahadur Shah appointed Feroze Khan Mewati as the Faujdar of Sirhind.

2. Battle of Sadhaura: When Banda Bahadur learnt about the defeat of Sikh army, he immediately marched against the enemy. At that time, the Mughal army was camping at Sadhaura. The Mughal army was trying to seek some better place for camping. On December 4, 1710 a Mughal contingent left Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur exploited the opportunity to attack the remaining army at Sadhaura. He inflicted heavy losses on the Mughals. However, by the evening, the search party of the Mughal army returned. As a result, the Sikh army was forced to discontinue the attack and move back to the fort of Lohgarh.

3. Battle of Lohgarh: By this time, Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah himself took over the command to act against Banda Bahadur. He directed his commander Munim Khan to move towards the fort of Lohgarh with an order to gauge the actual strength of the Sikh army. Munim Khan overstepped the instructions of the Emperor and attacked Lohgarh on December 10, 1710 A.D. The other Mughal commanders were forced to join him in this expedition. The Sikhs gave them a tough fight. However, the Sikhs faced hardships because of the scarcity of the provisions. They were not fully prepared to fight a battle. In such a situation, one of the Sikhs, namely Gulab Singh wore the dress of Banda Bahadur and took over the command of the fort in place of Banda Bahadur. It helped Banda Bahadur to leave Lohgarh safely and he reached Nahan along with his Sikhs on December 11, 1710. Munim Khan stormed the fort of Lohgarh and captured it. Gulab Singh was killed. However, Bahadur Shah felt frustrated when he found that he was not able to capture Banda Bahadur. Hence, the Emperor sent his army under Hamid Khan after Banda Bahadur towards Nahan. The Emperor himself marched through Sadhaura, Badowal, Ropar, Hoshiarpur, Kalanaur, etc. and reached Lahpre.

4. The activities of Banda Bahadur in the Hilly Regions: Banda Bahadur sent a message to the Sikhs living in the hilly regions to join him. Very soon, a large number of Sikhs gathered at Kiratpur.

  1. First of all, Banda Bahadur issued a directive ^o the old enemy of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, named Bhim Chand of Bilaspur to accept his suzerainty. When Bhim Chand refused to follow his command, Banda Bahadur attacked Bilaspur. A fierce battle took place. Bhim Chand and his 1300 soldiers were killed in the battle. It was one of the glorious victories of the Sikhs.
  2. The rest of the hilly chiefs were terrified by the victory of Banda Bahadur. Some of them even presented gifts and recognised his suzerainty. Raja Siddha Sen of Mandi even openly announced that he was a follower of the Sikh Gurus.
  3. From Mandi, Banda Bahadur marched towards Kullu. The ruler of Kullu, Raja Man Singh was able to trap Banda Bahadur by a trick. However, Banda Bahadur soon set himself free.
  4. From Kullu, Banda Bahadur marched towards the kingdom of Chamba. The Raja of Chamba, Raja Udai Singh welcomed him and even married a girl from his family to Banda Bahadur. A son was born to Banda Bahadur in 1711, who was named Ajay Singh.
  5. Battle of Baihrampur: Next, Banda Bahadur marched from the hills of Raipur and Baihrampur and came down to the plains. There, he was again attacked by Faujdar of Jammu, Baizd Khan Khaishgi. A battle was fought on June 4, 1711, near Baihrampur. Bhai Bhag Singh and Bhai Fateh Singh displayed their skills with great courage and won the battle for the Sikhs.

After the victory of Baihrampur, Banda Bahadur attacked Raipur, Kalanaur, and Batala and occupied those towns. But, he soon lost those territories. Banda Bahadur again took shelter in the mountains. But Bahadur Shah and his army failed to destroy Banda Bahadur’s power and the Sikh army.

Question 3.
Describe the battles fought by Banda Bahadur in the Ganga-Yamuna region.
Answer:
A wave of enthusiasm spread among the common people because of continuous victories won by Banda Bahadur. The people became hopeful that Banda Bahadur would free them from the tyranny of the Mughals. So many Hindus and Muslims started embracing Sikh religion. The inhabitants of Muslim villages like Unarasa were converted to Sikh religion.

The Faujdar of Jalalabad did not tolerate it. He imprisoned many Sikhs of that village. Banda Bahadur, on getting this report, set out towards Unarasa to get the Sikhs released.
1. Attack on Saharanpur: The Sikhs attacked Saharanpur after crossing the river Yamuna. The Faujdar of Saharanpur ran away to Delhi on the arrival of Sikhs. His subordinates tried to resist the attacks of the Sikhs but were badly defeated. The Sikh army occupied a major portion of Saharanpur. They changed the name of Saharanpur to Bhagnagar.

2. Battle of Bihat: After Saharanpur, Banda Bahadur marched towards Bihat. The Pirzadas of Bihat were commiting atrocities on the Hindus. They used to slaughter cows at public places. Banda Bahadur put many Pirzadas to sword. It is said that only one Pirzada escaped the sword of Banda Bahadur because at that time he was away to Bulandshahr.

3. Attack on Ambeta: After Bihat, Banda Bahadur attacked Ambeta. The Afghans (Pathans) of Ambeta were very rich. They did not oppose the Sikh army. The Sikh army acquired a lot of money from them.

4. Attack on Nanota: The Sikhs attacked Nanota on July 21,1710. The Sheikhzadas of Nanota were experts in archery. They gave a tough fight to the Sikh army. The fight spread over to the streets and market of the town. Finally, the Sikh army won the victory and three hundred Sheikhzadas were killed.

5. Attack on Unarasa: After the victory of Nanota, Banda Bahadur turned to Jalalabad and Unarasa, which were his main targets. Banda Bahadur sent the message through his representative to Jalal Khan to ask him to immediately release the imprisoned Sikhs and quietly accept the suzerainty of Banda Bahadur. Jalal Khan refused to accept the orders of Banda Bahadur. He even insulted the representative of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur now stormed Unarasa. A fierce battle took place and the Sikhs won it. Jalal Khan and his nephews Jamal Khan and Pir Khan were killed.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Activity:

Question 1.
Show the places of battles fought by Bandu BaIiadurIhempofPunjab.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word:

Question 1.
What did Madho Dass call himself after conifng under the influence of Guru Gobind Singh Ji?
Answer:
Madho Dass called himself a Dass (a humble servent) or Banda (a reliable follower of Guru Sahib).

Question 2.
Write one important victory won by the Sikhs under the leadership of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Victory of Sirhind.

Question 3.
Why did the Sikhs lose the battle of Gurdas Nangal?
Answer:
The Sikhs ran short of food supplies during the long siege of haveli of Bhai Duni Chand.

Question 4.
Write one important feature of the victories of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
The victories of Banda Bahadur united the Sikhs in the bond of unity and showed them the path of independence.

Question 5.
Write any one cause of the failure of Banda Bahadur in establishing a more permanent rule of the Sikhs in Punjab.
Answer:
(1) Banda Bahadur had become unpopular among the Sikhs.

Question 6.
In which two groups (Dais) did Nawab Kapur Singh divide the Khalsa soldiers in 1734?
Answer:
In 1734, Nawab Kapur Singh divided the Sikh soldiers into two groups, Buddha Dal and Tarun Dal.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 7.
What is the meaning of the word Misl?
Or
How did the word Misl originate?
Answer:
The Misl is an Arabic word, which means all are equals.

Question 8.
How many Sikh Misls were there?
Answer:
There were twelve Sikh Misls in the Punjab.

Question 9.
Write the name of the founder of the Ahluwalia Misl.
Answer:
Jassa Singh Ahluwalia.

Question 10.
Which Misl was founded by Sardar Charhat Singh?
Answer:
Sukherchakia.

Question 11.
Who was the founder of Karorsinghia Misl?
Answer:
Karor Singh.

Question 12.
When and where Banda was executed by the Mughal ruler?
Answer:
In June 1716 at Delhi.

Question 13.
Who was Wazir Khan?
Answer:
Governor of Sirhind.

Question 14.
What was the name of Banda Bahadur’s son?
Answer:
Ajay Singh.

Question 15.
Who was the founder of the Phulkian Misl?
Answer:
Chaudhri Phul Singh, a Sandhu Jat.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 16.
Who was the most powerful ruler of the Phulkian Misl?
Answer:
Baba Ala Singh.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Guru Gobind Singh Ji sent Banda Bahadur to the _________ to lead the Sikhs in their struggle against the ___________
Answer:
Punjab, Mughals

Question 2.
The third Battle of Panipat was fought in between the _________ and_________
Answer:
1761, Marathas and Ahmed Shah Abdali

Question 3.
Jasa Singh Ahluwalia was the founder of the ________ Misl.
Answer:
Ahluwalia

Question 4.
Banda Bahadur attacked Sirhind and Chapparchiri to punish the Subedar of
Answer:
Wazir Khan, Sirhind

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 5.
The Phulkian Misl was founded by Chaudhri
Answer:
Phul Singh.

True or False:

Question 1.
Banda was defeated in his battle with Wazir Khan, Subedar of Sirhind.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Banda was executed at Lahore.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
There were twelve Sikh Misls in the Punjab.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The original name of Banda Bahadur was Madho Das.
Answer:
True

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 5.
The Sukherchakya Misl was founded by Sardar Charat Singh.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
A long dark period in the Sikh history followed the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
True

Match the following:

Question 1.

(A)

(B)
1. Nawab Kapoor Singh (a) Bhangi Misi
2. Banda Bahadur (b) Ramgarhiya Misi
(c) Chapparchiri
(d) Faizalpuria Misi

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about any four main military achievements of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
The brief description of the main military achievements of Banda Bahadur is as follows:
1. Looting of Samana and Kapuri. Banda Bahadur made his first attack on Samana and looted it badly. Then, he stormed Kapuri. He also ravaged the town of Kapuri.

2. Attack on Sadhaura. The ruler of Sadhaura was ill-treating the Hindu inhabitants of Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhaura to punish its ruler Usman Khan. He massacred the Muslims in such a large number that the place came to be known as Qatalgarhi.

3. Victory over Sirhind. The two young Sahibzadas of Guru Gobind Singh Ji were bricked alive in a wall at Sirhind. Banda Bahadur massacred the Muslims of Sirhind to avenge the heinous crime. The Subedar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan, was also killed in the battle.

4. Conquest of Jalandhar Doab. The’icontinuous victories of Banda Bahadur encouraged the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab to rise against the Mughal subedar. They revolted against its Faujdar Shamas Khan and sought the help of Banda Bahadur. A fierce battle took place between the Sikhs and the Muslims at Rahon. The Sikhs won the battle of Rahon and occupied the region bf Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur and his Sikh soldiers were made prisoners at Gurdas Nangal. They were taken first to Lahore and then to Delhi. Banda Bahadur was paraded in the market places of Delhi and publicly insulted. Finally on June 9, 1716, the Mughal government passed the orders for the execution of Banda Bahadur. He was badly tortured before his execution. His son was cut into pieces before his eyes. His flesh was plucked out with red-iron rods. In this manner, Banda Bahadur was martyred. About 740 of his followers were also executed at Delhi.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 3.
Give four reasons because of which Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent Sikh kingdom.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent Sikh kingdom in Punjab due to the following causes:

  1. Kingly Life Style of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur had adopted the kingly life style and abandoned the ways of saints. It reduced the respect of Banda Bahadur among the Sikhs.
  2. Merciless and Brutal Massacres. According to Lala Daulat Ram, Banda Bahadur indulged in very brutal general massacres without sparing any Hindu or Muslim while on his Punjab expeditions. He lost the support of the Sikhs and Hindus due to large scale mindless killings.
  3. Powerful Mughal Empire. The Mughal Empire had yet not lost its vitality. Therefore, Banda Bahadur and his few thousand Sikhs could not fight against the Mughal Empire for long.
  4. Limited Resources of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent kingdom due to his limited resources. The Sikhs did not have enough resources to finish the power of the Mughal Empire.

Question 4.
Who was the founder of the Ahluwralia Misl? How did he expand the power of the Ahluwalia Misl?
Answer:
The founder of Ahluwalia Misl was Jassa Singh Ahluwalia.

  1. Jassa Singh successfully opposed the oppression of Mir Mannu (the Subedar of Lahore) from 1748 to 1753.
  2. In 1761, Jassa Singh attacked Lahore and defeated its Subedar Khwaja Obed. The Sikhs occupied Lahore.
  3. In 1762, Ahmed Shah Abdali attacked Punjab. Jassa Singh was defeated at Kup. However, Jassa Singh re-established himself. In 1763, the Sikhs under the leadership of Jassa Singh looted Kasur and Sirhind.
  4. In 1764, Jassa Singh invaded Delhi and looted it.

Question 5.
What was the position of Marathas on the eve of the rise of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Ahmed Shah Abdali had defeated Marathas in the third battle of Panipat in 1761 and thrown them out of Punjab. However, by the end of the 18th century, they had again extended their sway in the,North India.

Daulat Rao Sindhia, the Maratha chief had established his control over Delhi. He started attacking the region of Satluj and Yamuna Doab. However, his advance was checked by the British, a new power on the political scene of India.

Question 6.
Describe the position of the East India Company on the eve of the rise of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Warren Hastings was the Governor-General of the British Empire under the East India Company from 1772 to 1785. He checked the Marathas from extending their sway over Punjab by involving them in military engagements. However, the succeeding Governors-General, especially Cornwallis (1786 to 1793) and John Shore (1793 to 1798) an acting Governor-General) did not try to extend the territories of the British Empire under East India Company. In 1798, Lord Wellesley became the Governor-General. He was a soldier by training. He entered into subsidiary alliances with Hyderabad, Mysore, Carnatic, Tanjore, Awadh, etc. He also fought against the Marathas. The, Marathas were therefore not able to give attention to the Punjab. In 1803, the East India Company occupied Delhi after defeating Daulat Rao Scindia and brought it under the control of the British Empire.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the following Misls:
1. Phulkian,
2. Dalewalia,
3. Nishanwalia,
4. Karorsinghia, and
5. Shahid Misl.
Answer:
A brief description of the history of the above Misls is as follows:
1. Phulkian Misl:
A Sandhu Jat Chaudhari Phul Singh laid the foundation of the Phulkian Misl. The most powerful ruler of this Misl, however, was Baba Ala Singh. Baba Ala Singh had conquered the territories around Barnala in the beginning. In 1762. Ahmed Shah Abdali appointed him Nawab of Malwa region. In 1764, Baba Ala Singh defeated the Subedar of Sirhind Zain Khan. Abdali honoured Baba Ala Singh by awarding him with a kettledrum (Nagra) and Flag in 1765. Baba Ala Singh died in 1765. After the death of Baba Ala Singh, Amar Singh took over the reins of Phulkian Misl. He annexed the area of Bhatinda, Rohtak, and Hansi to the territories of his Misl. Ahmed Shah Abdali awarded him the title Raja-i-Rajanan. After the death of Amar Singh, his son Sahib Singh became the chief of the Phulkian Misl. He was a weak ruler. Finally, by a treaty in 1809, the East India Company made Phulkian Misl a protectorate of the British Empire.

2. Dalewalia Misl:
Gulab Singh established the Dalewalia Misl. He was an inhabitant of a village Dalewal which was situated on the banks of river Ravi. Thus, the Misl was called Dalewal Misl. The most popular and powerful chief of this Misl was Tara Singh Gheba. He kept an army of 7500 soldiers. He was a very wealthy chief. As long as he was alive,
Maharaja Ranjit Singh maintained friendly relations with him. The day, Tara Singh died, Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexed this Misl into his Empire. The wife of Tara Singh protested strongly against his action but was not able to achieve anything.

3. Nishanwalia Misl:
Sangat Singh and Mohar Singh founded the Nishanwalia Misl. They used to carry the banner of Khalsa (Nishan) during their eariler years. Therefore, this Misl was called Nishanwalia Misl. The territory of this Misl was Ambala and Shahabad. It was not politically much important Misl.

4. Karorsinghia Misl:
Karor Singh founded this Misl. The most popular chief of this Misl was Baghel Singh. Baghel Singh had conquered the territories of Banga, Nawanshahar, etc. The main centre of the activities of this Misl was 20 miles away from Karnal, the place where the Misl shifted its activities. Baghel Singh had an army of 12000 soldiers. After the death of Subedar Zain Khan of Sirhind, Baghel Singh had tried to extend the territories of his Misl towards the north of Satluj. Jodh Singh succeeded Baghel Singh. Jodh Singh had conquered some territory in the Malwa region and annexed it to his Misl. Finally, a major portion of the territory of this Misl became part of the Kalsia kingdom and Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexed the rest of its territory.

5. Shahid or Nihang Misl:
Sudha Singh, a Granthi of Damdama Sahib, laid the foundation of this Misl. Sudha Singh died while fighting the Muslim rulers. Hence, this Misl was called Shahid Misl. After him, the Misl was headed by Baba Deep Singh, Karam Singh, Gurbaksh Singh, etc. successively. Most of the members of this Misl were Akalis or Nihangs. Therefore, this Misl was also called Nihang Misl. About 2000 soldiers of this Misl were Nihangs. This Misl had been helping the other Misls during their times of need and crisis.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

PSEB 10th Class Science Guide Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be :
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 10.
Answer:
(d) 10.

Question 2.
A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime- water milky. The solution contains:
(a) NaCl
(b) HCl
(c) LiCl
(d) KC1.
Answer:
(b) HCl

Question 3.
10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise it will be :
(a) 4 mL
(b) 8 mL
(c) 12 mL
(d) 16 mL.
Answer:
(d) 16 mL.

Question 4.
Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic
(b) Analgesic
(c) Antacid
(d) Antiseptic.
Answer:
(c) Antacid

Question 5.
Write word equations and then balance equations for the reaction taking place when :
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules
Answer:
Zinc granules + Dilute sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + Hydrogen
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 4

(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon
Answer:
Magnesium ribbon + Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 5

(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder
Answer:
Aluminium powder + Dilute sulphuric acid → Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 6

(d) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with iron filings.
Answer:
Iron filings + Dilute sulphuric acid → Iron (II) sulphate + Hydrogen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 7

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 6.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
Answer:
Fix two nails on a cork and place it in a 100 ml beaker. Connect these nails to a 6 volt battery through a bulb and switch as shown in the figure.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 8
Aqueous solution of alcohol or glucose does not conduct electricity

Pour some aqueous solution of alcohol or aqueous solution of glucose in the beaker so that nails dip in it. Switch on the current. The bulb does not glow indicating that alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in aqueous solution and hence
do not produce H+ ions although they (aq)
contain hydrogen.

Question 7.
Why does not distilled water conduct electricity, whereas rainwater does?
Answer:

  • Distilled water does not conduct electricity because it contains no ions.
  • Rainwater contains ions due to dissolved salts, hence it conducts electric current.

Question 8.
Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Answer:
This is because in the absence of water, acids do not dissociate to give hydrogen ions > H+(aq)

Question 9.
Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is :
(a) neutral?
(b) strongly alkaline?
(c) strongly acidic?
(d) weakly acidic?
(e) weakly alkaline?
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration.

Solution pH Nature of Solution
A 4 Weakly acidic
B 1 Strongly acidic
C 11 Strongly alkaline
D 7 Neutral
E 9 Weakly alkaline

The increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration is :
11 < 9 < 7 < 4 < 1 (pH values).

Question 10.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube B. Amount and concentration taken for both the acids are same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Answer:
Fizzing occurs more vigorous in test tube A as compared to in test tube B. This is because concentration of hydrogen ion, It is more in test tube A than in test tube B, as hydrochloric acid a strong acid and acetic acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid.

Question 11.
Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Its pH will decrease due to the production of lactic acid which is acidic in nature.

Question 12.
A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
Answer:
So that the milk is not spoiled readily and medium remains basic.

(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Answer:
Because the lactic acid produced during curding reacts with baking soda.

Question 13.
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?
Answer:
This is because in presence of moisture, plaster of Paris sets to give a hard mass.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 9

Question 14.
What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples.
Answer:
The interaction of an acid with a base to form salt and water is called neutralisation reaction.

Examples :
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 10

Question 15.
Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Answer:
(a) Uses of washing soda :

  1. It is used in the manufacture of glass and soap.
  2. It is used in the manufacture of borax.

(b) Uses of baking soda :

  1. It is used in soda-acid fire extinguisher.
  2. It is used for making baking powder.

Science Guide for Class 10 PSEB Acids, Bases and Salts InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
Answer:
Dip red litmus paper in solution repeatedly in each tube.
(a) The tube in which the red litmus paper turns purple contains distilled water.
(b) The tube in which red litmus paper turns blue contains basic solution.
(c) The tube in which red litmus paper remains red contains acidic solution.

Question 2.
Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Answer:
Curd and other sour substances contain acids which react with the metal surface of brass and copper vessels to produce toxic compounds which are unfit for consumption.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 3.
Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
Answer:
When an acid reacts with metal, generally hydrogen is produced.
e.g. Mg + 2 HCl(Dil) → MgCl2 + H2 ↑

Pass this gas (H2) through soap solution. The soap bubbles filled with the gas will rise up. If a burning splinter is brought near the gas, the bubble will burn with a ‘pop’ sound.

Question 4.
Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
CO2 extinguishes a burning candle.

Question 5.
Why do HCl, HNO3 etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Answer:
HCl, HNO3 etc undergo dissociation in water to give Hydrogen ions, H+(aq) ions and show acidic characteristics. There are compounds like alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in water to give hydrogen ions, H+(aq) ions. Hence, they don’t show acidic properties.

Question 6.
Why does an aqueous solution of acid conduct electricity?
Answer:
The aqueous solution of an acid contains ions such as hydrogen ions, H+(aq) and other anions. Hence it conducts electricity.

Question 7.
Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour on the dry litmus paper?
Answer:
This is because dry HCl gas is a covalent compound and it does not undergo dissociation to give hydrogen ions, H+(aq) and hence no change in colour of dry litmus paper.

Question 8.
While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
Answer:
The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is an exothermic process. This is because if water is added to concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns. The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating.

Question 9.
How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
Answer:
The concentration of hydronium ions decreases when a solution of an acid is diluted.

Question 10.
How is the concentration of hydroxide ions [OH–] affected when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
When excess of base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide, the concentration of OH ions increases.

Question 11.
You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?
Answer:
In solution A, [H+(aq)] = 10-6 M, pH < 7
In solution B, [H+(aq)] = 10-8 M. pH > 7

∴ Then the solution A has more hydrogen ion concentration.
Solution A is acidic.
Solution B is basic.

Question 12.
What effect does the concentration of H+(aq) ions have on the nature of the solution?
Answer:

  • If [H+] < 10-7 M, it is basic solution.
  • If [H+] >10-7 M, it is an acidic solution.
  • If [H+] = 10-7 M, it is a neutral aqueous solution.

Question 13.
Do basic solutions also have H+(aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
Answer:
Basic solutions also contain H+(aq) ions. But in basic solutions :
[H+(aq)] < 10-7 M
and [OH–] > 10-7 M
Since [OH–(aq)] is more than [H+(aq)], hence these are basic solutions.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 14.
Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his Helds with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate)?
Answer:
If the pH of the soil is less than 7, i.e. it is acidic, the farmer will treat the soil with quick lime, slaked lime, chalk.

Question 15.
What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?
Answer:
Bleaching powder.

Question 16.
Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Answer:
Dry slaked lime.

Question 17.
Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
Answer:
Washing soda.

Question 18.
What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the equation of the reaction involved.
Answer:
It decomposes to give sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide gas (which is colourless, odourless and turns lime water milky).
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

Question 19.
Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules.

Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Write about the history of Yoga.
Answer:
History:
The history of Yoga is indeed very old. Nothing can be said firmly about the origin of Yoga. Only it can be said that Yoga was originated in India. The available evidences show that history of Yoga is related to Indus Valley Civilization. At that time people used to do Yoga. On the basis of secondary sources it can be concluded that Yoga was originated approximately in 3000 B.C. in India. The first book on Yoga was written by Patanjali in 147 B.C. Infact, Yoga is derived from a Sanskriti word “Yuj” which means union of soul.

Nowadays, Yoga has become very popular throughout the world. The present age can be said the age of stress, tension, and anxiety. So, most of the persons have not been leading a happy and fruitful! life. In western countries, Yoga has become a way of life. It has a vital significance in the life of human beings.

Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 2.
Which important points should be kept in mind while doing yogasanas.
Answer:
Latest information about Yoga:

  • The ground should be even for doing Yogic exercises. Yogic asanas should be performed on a ‘dari’ or blanket on the ground.
  • The place for Yogic asanas should be peaceful, airy and clean.
  • Breathing should be normal, and mind should be at peace while doing Yog Asanas.
  • Yog Asanas should be performed with concentration of mind at least four hours after taking meals.
  • The exercises should be done slowly and with ease, and the pace of the exercises should be increased slowly.
  • The Yogic practice should be done under the care of an expert.
  • One should get relaxed by Shavasana in between two Yogic Asanas.
  • The body should be covered with minimum clothes such as loin cloth, nickar, banyan etc. and balanced food should be taken.

The following exercises have been included in the syllabus prescribed by the Board. Daily practice of these exercises helps a layman keep good health:

  • Tarasana
  • Ardh Chandrasana
  • Bhujangasana
  • Shalabhasana
  • Dhanurasana
  • Ardhmatseyendrasana
  • Paschimotanasana
  • Padmasana
  • Sawastikasana
  • Sarvanagasana
  • Matasyasana
  • Halasana
  • Yog Mudra
  • Mayurasana
  • Uddiyana
  • Pamayamanulom vilom
  • Surya Namaskar
  • Sharasana.

Some of the important asanas out of the above-mentioned asanas are described ahead in detail, and others have been described in brief:
1. Tar Asana:
In this asana the trunk is pulled upwards while in the standing position. The position of tar asana is like the Tar tree.
Technique of the Tar Asana-
Stand up, join the heels and toes of both the feet and lift the arms straight upward. Let the fingers of one hand cross those of the other hand. The wrists should be upward and the sight in front. Breathe in fully. Raise the heels and put the whole body weight on toes. Pull the body upwards. After sometime, breathe out and lower the body. Repeat this action 10-15 times.
Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Advantages of Tar Asana:

  • It reduces obesity of the body.
  • It raises the stature.
  • It removes constipation.
  • It prevents the diseases of the intestines.
  • It serves to cleanse the bowels if it is done after taking cold water everyday.

2. Ardh-chandra Asana:
It involves the same action as is in Tar Asana. In it, the body is bent to side said, and the other side of the trunk is pulled.

3. Bhujangasana: In this asana, one lies down straight and loosens the trunk.

Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 3.
What are the benefits of Bhujang asana.
Answer:
Technique of Bhujang asana:
It is also called Sarapasana. In it, the position of the body is like that a serpent. In order to perform this asana, lie down on the belly on the ground. Place both hands near the shoulders. Make the legs hard slowly and with the help of wrists raise the chest so much that the body gets completely straightened. Pull in the toes and hang the head slowly backwards. Return gradually to the former position. Repeat this asana 3-5 times.

Advantages:

  • Bhujangasana stimulates (increases) the digestive power.
  • It helps in getting rid of the diseases of liver and spleen.
  • It strengthens the muscles and the vertebral column.
  • It removes constipation.
  • It helps in making the bulging- out belly go in.
  • It strengthens lungs.
    Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2

1. Shalabh Asana: In this asana, one lies prostrate and the thigh spreads backward.

2. Ardh Masteyendr Asana: In this asana, in sitting position, the trunk is pushed towards the sides.

3. Dhanur Asana: In this asana, one lies prostrate, pulls up the legs and tries to catch dr catches the knee with the help of both hands.

Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 4.
What is the difference between Dhanur Asana and Paschimottan Asana?
Answer:
Technique of Dhanur Asana:
In this asana the position of the body is like that of a bow. In order to perform this Asana, lie over the belly on the ground, keep the knees bent backwards. Hold the feet near the ankles with the help of both the hands. Breathe in deeply and raise the chest upwards as much as possible. Now make the feet hard so that the body acquires the shape of a bow. Try to remain in this position as long as possible. Breathe out, keep the body loose and return to the former position. Repeat this asana 3-4 times.
Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 3
Dhanur Asana:
Advantages:

  • It reduces the obesity (fatness) of the body.
  • It increases the power of digestion.
  • It helps in getting rid of rheumatism and urinary diseases.
  • It strengthens the stomach and intestine.
  • It also strengthens the vertebral column. Muscles become strong and flexible.

1. Paschimottan Asana: In this asana, one holds the thumbs of the feet with fingers and sits in such a way that the trunk goes towards one side.

Position of Paschimottan Asana: In this asana, the whole body is stretched and bent.

Technique of Paschimottan Asana:
Spread both the legs forward and sit on the ground. Hold the thumbs of the feet with both the hands. Breathe out slowly. Try to touch the knees. Breathe in slowly, raise the head upwards and returns to the former position. This asana should be performed 10-15 times.
Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 4
Advantages:

  • This asana provides strength to the thighs.
  • It cleanses the blood vessels.
  • It helps in getting rid of the various types of diseases of the belly.
  • It lessens the excessive fat of the body.
  • It removes gas trouble.

2. Padam Asana: In this asana, one sits squatting.
Position of Padam Asana: The position of this asana is that of a lotus.
Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 5
Technique of Padam Asana:
After having sat in squat position, place your right foot on the left thigh in such a way that the heel of the right foot touches the hip bone of the left thigh. After this, lift up the left foot and in the same way place it on the thigh of the right foot. The vertebral column should be perfectly straight. Stretch the arms on the knees. It becomes very easy to do this asana after a few days practice.

Advantages:

  • This asana stimulates the digestive system.
  • It is very useful for increasing the concentration of mind.
  • Backache disappears.
  • One does not become a victim of the diseases of heart and belly.
  • It removes urinary troubles.

3. Svastik Asana: In this asana, one places the loose thighs in between the lower legs.

4. Sarvang Asana: In this asana, one stands on one’s shoulders.
Technique of Sarvang Asana: In this asana, the position of the body is like that of Ardh-hal-asana. In order to do this asana, straighten the body and lie on the ground over the back. Place both the hands along the thighs. Lift the feet once and resting the back with the help of wrists, let the elbows rest on the ground. Keep the whole body straight. Let the body weight fall on the shoulders and the neck.
Let the chin touch the neck.

After having remained in this position for sometime, return gradually to the former position. In the initial stage, do the asana for a minute or two. Then the duration of the asana should be increased from 5 to 7 minutes. The persons who cannot do Sheershasana for some reason should do Sarvang Asana.
Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 6
5. Halasana:
Position-
In doing this asana one lies in the supine position.
Technique:

  • Raise both legs and keep head away and lift both feet and bring both legs behind the head.
  • Touch the thumb of your feet of the ground.
  • Maintain the position as you can.
  • Bring your feet at the same place from where you have started to left.
    Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 7

Advantages:

  • Hal Asana is very useful for every men and women of every age.
  • It is the best asana for the person of heart disease or a person who is suffering from high or low blood pressure.
  • It regulates the circulation of blood.
  • Removes fat of the body slim the waist and belly.
  • It provides flexibility to the backbone.
  • It make the body beautiful.
  • The face starts glittering like the sun.
  • It prevents skin diseases and removes constipation.

6. Garur Asana:
The position of Garur Asana in standing on both feet.
Techniques:

  • While standing straight, lift the left leg and encircle the other leg.
  • Left thigh will come over right thigh. The part of the lower leg will cover right side of the lower leg.
  • Put the body weight on one foot.
  • Encircle left arm to the right arm and left. Both palm and come to the position of Namaskar.
  • Then bend the left leg and bring the body in sitting position. In this way all nerves of the body will get stretched.
  • Again straighten up the body and come to the position of Attention.
  • Now change you legs and hands and repeat the same. Garur asana should be performed on each leg from one minute to five minutes.
    Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 8

Advantages of Garur Asana:

  • It strengthens all parts of the body.
  • Body becomes healthy.
  • It prevents the diseases of Hernia.
  • Legs become strong.
  • One feels fresh and light.
  • Circulation of blood increases.
  • Man remains healthy and away from so many diseases.

7. Searsh Asana:
Position: Bring your head down and keep legs upward.
Technique:

  • Put blanket or towel on the floor and sit down on your knees.
  • The fingers of both hands should be tightly interlocked put both hands on blanket.
  • Put your head between both hands in such a any that thumb of the hand may press back part of your head.
  • Bring both legs inside and put your thumb and legs straight upward.
  • Lift the feet gradually. Firstly straight one leg and another.
  • Try to keep your body in a straight line.
  • Put your body weight on head and both arms equally.
  • You can take help of the wall or your team-mates.
    Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 9

Advantages:

  • Increases appetite.
  • Make a person slim.
  • Live and spleen become more active.
  • It removes all diseases concerning primary track.
  • Piles are cured.
  • By doing regular parctice of Searsh Asana, mental diseases are cured.

Precautions:

  • When eyes become red, Asana should be stopped.
  • On feeling giddiness don’t do Searsh Asana.
  • Searsh Asana should sbe stopped while feeling too much air in the ears.
  • This asana should not be performed when inhalation becomes difficult.
  • When body do not bear the weight.
  • On shivering arms and legs.
  • While feeling uneasiness, Searsh Asana may not be performed.
  • Searsh Asana should be performed all alone.
  • Take assistance when you feel necessity.
  • Searsh Asana can be performed from one minute to five minutes. More time would be harmful.

8. Vajur Asana:
Position Sitting on legs while keeping his feet behind.
Technique:

  • Put on knees under your hip and sit down while facing the feet upper side.
  • The thumb of the feet should touch each other.
  • Both the knees may touch each other back and waist must be in a straight line.
  • Put both hands on the both thigh.
  • Breathing may be long.
  • Vajur Asana may be performed daily from three minutes to twenty minutes.

Advantages:

  • Body becomes more active.
  • Removes the fats of the body.
  • Body becomes healthy.
  • Muscles get strengthened.
  • It helps to get rid to Night fall. Vajur Asana
  • It removes the pain of feet and legs.
  • Mind becomes cool.
  • Person becomes care free.
  • It cures diabetes.
  • It improves digestion.

9. Yog Mudra:
In Yog Mudra, one sits in the position of Padamasana, bends the trunk and rests the head on the ground.

10. Mayur Asana:
In this asana, the body is balanced on the elbows in the horizontal position. The palms are placed on the ground.

Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

11. Uddiyan:
In this asana, one keeps the feet separate, stands and bends the trunk forward. The hands are placed on things. Then one breathes out and copies breathing in, below the ribs.

12. Pranayam :
Anulom Vilom- In this asana, one sits down breathes in for a fixed time, holds the breath with the help of chin and breathes out.
Advantages: This asana cleanses the blood, nerve and mind.

13. Surya Namaskar:
Surya Namaskar has sixteen components but the sun having sixteen phases appears at the time of total annihilation of the universe. Normally, only twelve components of its are practised.

Advantages:
It is the best Yogic exercise. It yields the benefits of asana, mudra and pranayam. The body of the one who practises Surya Namaskar glitters like the sun. It prevents skin diseases. It removes constipation. The spinal cord and waist become flexible. The pregnant women and patients of hernia should not practice it.

14. Shav Asana.
In this asana, one lies down prostrate and loosens the body. In order to perform this asana, lie down straight on the ground over the back and loosen all the parts of the body completely. Gradually, breathe in deeply. The distance between the feet should be 1.5 ft. Keep the wrists of the hands away from the body, facing the sky. Close your eyes, introspect and think as if the body were getting loose. Feel that the body is in a position of rest. This asana should be performed for 3-5 minutes. It should be performed at the start and end of every asana.

Importance:

  • Shavasana helps in getting rid of high blood pressure and mental tension.
  • It keeps the heart and the brain fresh.
  • It removes the fatigue in the body.

Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman  Game Rules.

Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Mention the wrestling weight categories of men, Women and junior.
Answer:
AGE GROUP:
Above 20 Years-

Senior Men Senior Women
First Group 48-54 K.G. 41-46 KG.
Second Group 58 KG. 51 KG.
Third Group 63 K.G. 56 KG.
Fourth Group 69 K.G. 62 KG.
Fifth Group 76 K.G. 68 KG.
Sixth Group 85 K.G. 68-75’KG.
Seventh Group 97 K.G.
Eighth Group 97-130 K.G.

Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

From 17 years to 20 years old:

Junior Boys Junior Girls
First Group 46-49 KG. 40-43 KG.
Second Group 52 KG. 46 KG.
Third Group 56 KG. 50 KG.
Fourth Group 60 KG. 54 KG.
Fifth Group 65 K.G. 58 KG.
Sixth Group 70 KG. 63 KG.
Seventh Group 76 KG. 68 KG.
Eighth Group 83 KG. 68-75 KG.
Ninth Group 90 KG.
Tenth Group 90-115 KG.

From 15 years to 16 years:

Sub Junior Boys Sub Junior Girls
First Group 39-42 K.G. 36-38 KG.
Second Group 45 KG. 40 KG.
Third Group 48 K.G. 43 KG.
Fourth Group 52 K.G. 46 KG.
Fifth Group 57 KG. 49 KG.
Sixth Group 63 KG. 52 KG.
Seventh Group 69 KG 56 KG.
Eighth Group 76 KG. 60 KG.
Ninth Group 83 KG. 65 KG.
Tenth Group 83-95 KG. 65-75 KG.

From 13 years to 14 years old:

Sub Junior Boys Sub Junior Girls
First Group 29-32 KG. 20-30 KG.
Second Group 35 KG. 32 KG.
Third Group 38 KG. 34 KG.
Fourth Group 42 KG. 37 KG.
Fifth Group 48 KG. 40 KG.
Sixth Group 54 KG. 44 KG.
Seventh Group 58 KG. 48 KG.
Eighth Group 66 KG. 52 KG.
Ninth Group 71 KG 57 KG.
Tenth Group 71-85 KG 57-62 KG.

Every participants will take part according to his own body weight.

Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 2.
Discuss the rules of weighing and pairing of competitors.
Answer:
Rules for Weighing and Pairing of Competitors:
Weighing of the Competitors-

  • Weighing of competitors shall begin two to four hours before the wrestling competition begins.
  • The competitors shall be weighed without clothes. They shall be medically examined by a doctor before they are weighed. The doctor will remove any player suffering from any contagious disease.
    Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
  • Each contestant can participate in wrestling with a player belonging to his weight-group.
  • The competitors should be in a perfect physical condition. Their nails should be well pared. They shall be checked at the time of medical examination.
  • Weighing shall start at least two hours before the competition and must conclude an hour before the first wrestling bout.
  • Before the completion of weighing, a contestant may stand any time on the weighing machine for recording his weight, but he should not be out of turn.

Pairing-off by drawing lots:
In each bout all the players shall be included by draw of lots. Those contestants whose lots follow one after the other shall wrestle in the first round. If the wrestler bears odd numbers, the wrestler who scores more marks shall enter the bye of the next round without marking the penalty. The “right to bye can be got only by lot. In making pairs for the second round, the topmost name of the list is paired with the second next to him but this is done in case they have not wrestled before. If, while making pairs, two contestants figure together in the same place, they shall wrestle with each other in the first round.

Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 3.
What type of dress should a wrestler wear? Mention the duration of wrestling bout.
Answer:
Costume of wrestlers, Mat, Start and Duration of Wrestling.
Stoppage of Wrestling Bout, End of Bout-
Dress:
The wrestlers shall enter the arena in a one-piece jersey, banian or ‘jangia’ (red or blue) beneath which they shall wear a jock strap. They will wear costumes which fit their body very well, and is not loose. They will wear sports shoes firmly closing the anklets. The use of light knee guards is allowed. A contestant shall be closely shaved or with a beard of many months growth.

The contestants cannot use oil or any other greasy substance on their bodies. Their bodies should not be wet with perspiration. The use of rings, bracelets, shoes with buttons and any other such thing which may harm or hurt a player is prohibited. Every contestant should have his own handkerchief.

Mat:
The mat at all international matches should be 9 metres in circle (with a radius of 4.50 m.), and from its other ring a ring of 50 cms. is drawn. This place is marked with red colour. It should be fixed on a platform, 1.10. metre in height. The ends of the mat should have red or blue comers, and there should be a circle of 1 metre in the middle.

Start Of Wrestling Bout And Its Duration:

  • The duration of each bout is of 6 minutes. It is divided into two periods of 3 minutes each. A rest of 1 minute is given after the first three minute bout.
  • The bout shall continue until a player falls down, otherwise it shall continue for 6 minutes.
  • If a player does not»enter the mat after five minutes of call, he shall be considered defeated and turned out of the competition.
  • The wrestling bout shall start, interrupt or end on the whistle of the referee.

End of the Bout-
The end of the bout is indicated by the ringing of gong by the time keeper. The referee, too, blows his whittle as a signal for the end of the bout. If the referee does not hear the gong, the Mat chairman interferes immediately and get the bout closed. No act is considered valid in between the sound of gong and the referee’s whistle.

The two contestants stand on either side of referee to receive, the decision. The Mat chairman declares the winner by raising the winner’s colour. Thereafter, the winner’s arm is raised by the referee. If there is a tie, the arms of both players are raised. No contestant shall loosen the straps of his dress before the decision is given.

Question 4.
What are the foul holds in wrestling ?
Answer:
Foul-holds:
The following fouls are taken into consideration-

  • Pulling of hair, ears, dress, private organs, etc.
  • Twisting of fingers, grasping of the throat and other holds which may be life-endangering.
  • Holding in such a manner as may put the opponent’s life in danger, or may hurt any of his body part, or cause him pain so that the opponent helplessly leaves the bout.
  • Treading on the feet of the rival.
  • Touching the face of the opponent (from the eye-brows to the chin).
  • Grasping the opponent by throat.
  • Lifting the rival when he is in bridge position, and then throwing him on the mat.
  • Breaking the bridge by giving a push from the head.
  • Twisting the opponent’s arm at above 90° angle.
  • Grasping the opponent’s head with both hands.
  • Thrusting the elbow or knee into the abdomen or stomach of the rival.
  • Turning the opponent’s arm to the back the pressing it.
  • Grasping the opponent’s head in any manner.
  • Applying leg-scissors on the body or head.
  • Holding on to the mat.
  • Talking to each other and making dangerous assault.
  • Cautions:

Precautions may be taken in the following conditions :
(a) Permanent obstacles
(b) Foul holds
(c) Indiscipline at the time of bout
(d) Breach of rules-

  • These precautions shall be taken into account along with other fouls of the bout.
  • A player may be declared defeated after he has been warned, thrice.
  • A player, in case of major offence, may be removed from the bout.

Obstacles:

  1. Lying in abdomen position.
  2. Going out of the mat knowingly.
  3. Holding of both the hands of the opponent so that he may not play.
  4. A player may be given warning if he goes out of the mat.

Stoppage of Bout:
A bout may be suspended for five minutes at the most because of a bleeding nose, headlong fall or any acceptable reason. This obstacle in one or two bouts may be of maximum 5 minutes for each contestant.

Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 5.
Describe the officials for the conduct of wrestling. How is victory or defeat decided in wrestling ?
Answer:
Score:
(a) One Point:

  • to a player who throws a rival on the mat and maintains control over him,
  • to that player who rises from beneath and maintains his hold on his opponent,
  • to a player who makes a good grasp and does not allow his opponent’s head and shoulder to touch the mat,
  • for one precaution the opponent gets one point.

Two Points:

  • to that player who keeps good hold on his opponent and maintains his hold on him for some time
  • to that player whose opponent immediately falls or falteringly falls.
    Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

(c) Three Points:

  • to a player who keeps his opponent in danger (when shoulders make an angle of less than 90° from the mat) for five seconds,
  • bridge position for three seconds or fall takes five seconds.

Decision.
When there is a difference of less than one point in or the score of the opposite players, the match ends in a draw. Again, if no contestant scores any point, or the points are equal, the match ends in a draw. If the difference is more than one point, a player 1 with more points is declared the winner.

Fall:

  • For full fall it is sufficient if the shoulder of the wrestler touches that mat.
  • The fall shall be considered if the referee raises no objection.
  • For proper fall on the edge of the mat the head and shoulders of the contestant shall touch the limits of mat.

Winning by Points:
If there is no foul within six minutes, the decision is made by points. The player scoring higher points shall be the winner.
Rules for Final-

  • The final match is played among three wrestlers.
  • The players who have scored 6 penalty marks cannot take part in the final match.
  • When the three players with less than 6 penalty marks reach the final, the points scored by them are nullified.
  • If those players have already competed, the former penalty marks are counted in the final.
  • The penalty marks of the contestants in the final must be kept in view.
  • If each of the three contestants has already scored 6 points, they will forfeit their points as mentioned above.
  • If the three contestants of the final have already scored 6 points each, he shall be awarded the third position and the remaining two shall wrestle for first position.
  • The player who scores minimum penalty point in the last three bouts shall be the winner.
  • If the penalty points of the finalists are equal, the decision is made keeping in views the following:
    • The victory scored on points.
    • The number of points being equal.
    • The number of fouls.
    • In case of tie, the player with minimum warnings is declared the winner.
    • If there is still a tie, both the players are declared equal.

Officials:
There are three officials in all types of wrestling matches:

  • Mat Chairman
  • Referee
  • Judge

No official can be changed during the wrestling.

Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Important Information about the Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game

  • Shape of the mat of wrestling = Round
  • Size of mat = 4.50 m Radius
  • Colour of Round = Red
  • Height of Mats from platform = 1.10 meter
  • Colour of the Corner = Red and Blue
  • Duration of Bout = 6 minutes, 2-2-2 minutes (three half)
  • Total weight for men = 9
  • Total weight for women = 7
  • Total weight for Junior = 10
  • Officials for wrestling= One mat chairman,Two referees, Three Judges
  • Rest after bout =30 seconds
  • Undisturb area around the mat = 1.50 meter
  • The player who is to play in a wrestling competition should be perfectly healthy. He should not be suffering
    from any infectious disease.
  • The competitors of wrestling should have well-pared nails. They
  • The duration of this game is 6 minutes.
  • It is a foul to pull the hair, flesh, ear or private organs of an opposing player in a game of wrestling.
  • By raising the colour of the winning team the Head of the match declares the winner.
  • The player who has been warned thrice by the referee is considered defeated.
  • The competitor cannot wear iron bracelet or ring, etc.
  • The player who competes in wrestling should have a cut beard or have a fresh shave.
  • No official conducting the game can be changed during the play.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Operating Systems Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
An operating system is a:
(a) Terminal
(b) Software
(c) Storage system
(d) Processor
Answer:
(b) Software

Question 2.
The process of running multiple applications at the same time is known as:
(a) Multi-application
(b) Multi processing
(c) Multi programming
(d) Multi timing
Answer:
(c) Multi programming

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 3.
It enables us to access internet securely and prevent unauthorized applications and people from accessing our PC:
(a) Anti-Virus
(b) Security
(c) Firewall
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Firewall

Question 4.
The time taken by the system to respond to an input and display of required updated information is:
(a) Response time
(b) Access time
(c) Output time
(d) Total time
Answer:
(a) Response time

Question 5.
Remote access to servers is possible from different locations in:
(a) Batch Processing System
(b) Time Sharing System
(c) Network Operating System
(d) Distributed system
Answer:
(c) Network Operating System

2. Fill In The Blanks

1. A …………………. represents a collection of related
Answer:
Pile, Information.

2. ………….. system use multiple processors to serve ………… multiple real-time applications and multiple users.
Answer:
Distributed, Central

3. …………..is the process of preventing and detecting ……….. use of our computer.
Answer:
Computer Security, Unauthorized

4. …………. provide access to accounts arid enable us to perform various activities linked with account like shopping, emailing, online transactions etc.
Answer:
Passwords, Online

5. …………. are used when there are time requirements on the operation of a processor or the flow of data.
Answer:
Real Time Systems, Rigid.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

3. True or False

1. The time taken by the system to respond to an input and display of required updated information is termed as the response time.
Answer:
True

2. Anti-virus software alone is enough to be secure from Internet Security threats.
Answer:
False

3. An Operating System cannot manage the communication between user and device drivers.
Answer:
False

4. Linux source code is freely available and it is community based development project.
Answer:
True

5. The OS manages all kinds of resources using schedulers.
Answer:
True

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 6 Operating Systems

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
An interface between computer user and computer hardware is called?
Answer:
Operating System

Question 2.
What hides the peculiarities of specific hardware devices from the users?
Answer:
Drivers

Question 3.
A mechanism or a way to control the access of programs, processes, or users to the resources defined by a computer system is called?
Answer:
Protection

Question 4.
The process of preventing and detecting unauthorized use of our computer is called?
Answer:
Computer Security

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is an operating system?
Answer:
Operating system is an interface between user and computer. It communicates whatever the user says to the hardware of computer.

Question 2.
List type of operating systems.
Answer:
Different types of operating system are:

  • Batch processing operating system.
  • Time sharing operating system.
  • Network operating system.
  • Real time operating system.
  • Distributed operating system.

Question 3.
Explain real time operating system.
Answer:
A real-time system is defined as a data processing system in which the time interval required to process and respond to inputs is so small that it controls the environment. In this type of operating system, the response time is very less as compared to online processing.
Real-time systems are used when there are rigid time requirements on the operation of a processor or the flow of data. A real-time operating system must have well-defined, fixed time constraints, otherwise the system will fail.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 4.
What are the functions of operating system? Make a list.
Answer:
Following are the functions of operating system:

  • It provides programs an environment to execute.
  • It provides users the services to execute the programs in a convenient manner.

Following are a few common services provided by an operating system:

  • Program execution
  • I/O operations
  • File System manipulation
  • Communication
  • Error Detection
  • Resource Allocation
  • Protection.

Question 5.
What do you mean by computer security?
Answer:
Computer security is the process of preventing and detecting unauthorized use of our computer. Prevention measures help us to stop unauthorized users (hackers) from accessing any part of our computer system. Detection helps us to determine whether or not someone attempted to break into our system, if they were successful, and what they may have done.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain functions of operating system
Answer:
Following are the functions of operating system:
1. Program Execution:
Operating systems handle many kinds of activities from user programs to system programs like printer spooler, name servers, file server, etc. Each of these activities is encapsulated as a process.

2. I/O Operation:
An I/O subsystem comprises of I/O devices and their corresponding driver software. Drivers hide the peculiarities of specific hardware devices from the users. An Operating System manages the communication between user and device drivers.

3. File System Manipulation:
A file system is normally organized into directories for easy navigation and usage. These directories may contain files and other directions. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to file management:

  • Program needs to read a file or write a file.
  • The operating system gives the permission to the program for operation on file.
  • Permission varies from read-only, read-write, denied and so on.
  • Operating system provides an interface to the user to create/delete files.
  • Operating system provides an interface to the user to create/delete directories.
  • Operating system provides an interface to create the backup of file system,

4. Communication:
In case of distributed systems which are a collection of processors that do not share memory, peripheral devices, or a clock, the operating system manages communications between all the processes. Multiple processes communicate with one another through communication lines in the network. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to communication:

  • Two processes often require data to be transferred between them.
  • Both the processes can be on one computer or on different computers, but are connected through a computer network.
  • Communication may be implemented by two methods, either by Shared Memory or by Message Passing.

5. Error Detection:
An error may occur in CPU, in I/O devices or in the memory hardware. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to error detection:
1. The OS constantly checks for possible errors.
2. The OS takes an appropriate action to ensure correct and consistent computing.

6. Resource Management.
In case of multi-user or multi-tasking environment, resources such as main memory, CPU cycles and files storage are to be allocated to each user or job. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to resource management:

  • It acts like a resource manager. The OS manages all kinds of resources using schedulers.
  • CPU scheduling algorithms are used for better utilization of CPU.

7. Protection:
Protection refers to a mechanism or a way to control the access of programs, processes, or users to the resources defined by a computer system. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to protection:

  • The OS ensures that all access to system resources is controlled.
  • The OS ensures that external I/O devices are protected from invalid access attempts.
  • The OS provides authentication features for each user by means of passwords.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 2.
What are the basic features of Linux?
Answer:
The basic features of Linux operating system are:
1. Portable:
Portability means software can works on different types of hardware in same way. Linux kernel and application programs supports their installation on any kind of hardware platform.

2. Open Source:
Linux source code is freely available and it is community based development project. Multiple teams work in collaboration to enhance the capability of Linux operating system and it is continuously evolving.

3. Multi-User:
Linux is a multiuser system means multiple users can access system resources like memory/ram/application programs at same time.

4. Multiprogramming: Linux is a multiprogramming system means multiple applications can run at same time.

5. Hierarchical File System:
Linux provides a standard file structure in which system files/user files are arranged. Files and directories are arranged in tree structure form.

6. Shell:
Linux provides a special interpreter program which can be used to execute commands of the operating system. It can be used to do various types of operations, call application programs, etc.

7. Security:
Linux provides user security using authentication features like password protection/controlled access to specific files/encryption of data.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Operating Systems Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which one is function of operating system related to program management?
a) Execution
(b) Controt
(c) Loading
(d) All of above.
Answer:
(d) All of above.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 2.
Main function of shared memory is:
(a) to use primary memory efficently
(b) to do intra process communication
(c) to do inter process communication
(d) none of above
Answer:

Question 3.
Memory protection is normally done by:
(a) the processor and the associated hardware
(b) the operating system
(c) the compiler
(d) the user program
Answer:
(a) the processor and the associated hardware

Question 4.
Which of the following operating system does not implement the multitasking truly?
(a) Windows 98
(b) Windows NT
(c) Windows XP
(d) MS DOS
Answer:
(d) MS DOS

Question 5.
What are the functions of operating system?
(a) Memory management
(b) Process management
(c) Device management
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Fill in the Blanks

1. Operating system is …………. software.
Answer:
System

2. Memory management is function of ……………
Answer:
Operating System

3. File management is function of ……………
Answer:
Operating System.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

True or False

1. Operating system in application software.
Answer:
False

2. Windows is uni-tasking operating system.
Answer:
False

3. Unix is not an operating system.
Answer:
False

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the function which deals with hardware.
Answer:
Device management.

Question 2.
Name the most important system software
Answer:
Operating system.

Question 3.
Name the most famous operating system.
Answer:
MS Windows.

Question 4.
Name the most secured operating system proven.
Answer:
UNIX.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain advantages of time sharing operating system.
Answer:
Following are advantages of time sharing operating system.
1. Immediates response is available.
2. It is best suitable operating system for system who need quick response.

Question 2.
Explain disadvantages of time Sharing Operating System.
Answer:
Following are disadvantages of time sharing operating system.
1. It is not suitbale for long tasks
2. Important job may be completed in long time.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain distributed operating system in detail.
Answer:
Distributed Operating System:
Distributed systems use multiple central processors to serve multiple real-time applications and multiple users. Data processing jobs are distributed among the processors accordingly.The processors communicate with one another through various communication lines (such as high-speed buses or telephone lines). These are referred as loosely coupled systems or distributed systems. Processors in a distributed system may vary in size and function. These processors are referred as sites, nodes, computers, and so on. The advantages of distributed systems are as follows:

  • With resource sharing facility, a user at one site may be able to use the resources available at another.
  • Speedup the exchange of data with one another via electronic mail.
  • If one site fails in a distributed system, the remaining sites can potentially continue operating.
  • Better service to the customers.
  • Reduction of the load on the host computer.
  • Reduction of delays in data processing.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 2.
Discuss network operating system along with its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Network Operating System:
A Network Operating System runs on a server arid provides the server the capability to manage data, users, groups, security, applications, and other networking functions. The primary purpose of the network operating system is to allow shared file and printer access among multiple computers in a network, typically a local area network (LAN), a private network or to other networks.
Examples of network operating systems include Microsoft Windows Server 2003, Microsoft Windows Server 2008, UNIX, Linux, Mac OS X, Novell NetWare and BSD.

The advantages of network operating systems are as follows:

  • Centralized servers are highly stable.
  • Security is server managed.
  • Upgrades to new technologies and hardware can be easily integrated into the system.
  • Remote access to servers is possible from different locations and types of systems

The disadvantages of network operating systems are as follows:

  • High cost of buying and running a server.
  • Dependency on a central location(server) for most operations.
  • Regular maintenance and updates are required.

Multi Programming:
Multi Programming Operating System is the name given to the interleaved execution of two or more different and independent programs by the same computer. Interleaving of programs mean chain of programs that are either in running phase, ready or blocked phase. It is an efficient way to improve the system performance.

Multi programming approach permits more than one job to utilize the CPU time at any moment by applying the scheduling techniques like first come first serve, shortest job first etc . The more the number of programs requesting for system resources, resource utilization would be better. The operating system picks up any of the programs as scheduled and starts execution.

An OS does the following activities related to multiprogramming.

  • The operating system keeps several jobs in memory at a time.
  • This set of jobs is a subset of the jobs kept in the job pool.
  • The operating system picks and begins to execute one of the jobs in the memory.
  • Multiprogramming operating systems monitor the state of all active programs and system resources using
  • memory management programs to ensure that the CPU is never idle, unless there are no jobs to process.

Advantages:

  • High and efficient CPU utilization.
  • User feels that many programs are allotted CPU almost simultaneously.

Disadvantages:

  • CPU scheduling is required.
  • To accommodate many jobs in memory, memory management is required.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Question 3.
Discuss Real Time Operating System in detail.
Answer:
Time Sharing:
A real-time system is defined as a data processing system in which the time interval required to process and respond to inputs is so small that it controls the environment. The time taken by the system to respond to an input and display of required updated information is termed as the response time.

So in this method, the response time is very less as compared to online processing. Real-time systems are used when there are rigid time requirements on the operation of a processor or the flow of data. A real-time operating system must have well-defined, fixed time constraints, otherwise the system will fail.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Mention four basic principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the four main principles of India’s foreign policy :

  1. Faith in the policy of non-alignment
  2. Faith in the principles of Panchsheel,
  3. Full faith in the U.N.
  4. Opposition to colonialism and imperialism.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Panchsheel?
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, P.M. of China formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence for the nations of the world. These five principles are calledTanchsheel. The main objective of Panchsheel is to maintain world peace by promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means making decisions independently on the basis of merit to solve international problems. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Question 4.
Describe one basic reason which created bad blood between India and the United State of America.
Answer:
India has refused to join military pacts set up by America.

Question 5.
What is the Atomic Policy of India?
Answer:
To use the atomic energy for constructive and peaceful purposes.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Enumerate the number of permanent members and non-permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
The Security Council has 15 members. Out of them five are permanent members. The remaining ten are temporary members. Each temporary member is elected for a term of 2 years by the General Assembly. The five permanent members are: U.S.A., Russia, Great Britain, France and China.

Question 7.
When the UN came into existence and how many were its original members?
Answer:
The United Nations was founded on October 24, 1945. It had 51 original (founder) members.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Disarmament?
Answer:
Disarmament means destruction or reduction of arms. The term implies voluntary destruction of arms and the creation of world without arms.

Question 9.
Describe the basic cause of tension and stagnation of relations between India and China.
Answer:
The border dispute is the main cause of tension between India and China. This tension became intense when China attacked India in 1962.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the main principles of Indian foreign policy.
Or
Write down three principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the main principles of Indian Foreign Policy :

  1. Non-alignment. It is the basic principle of India’s foreign policy. India was the first country that initiated the policy of Noii-alignment.
  2. Opposition to Imperialism. India has always opposed imperialism and colonialism.
  3. Opposition to the policy of Caste, ColoSr and Discrimination etc. India has always raised voice against the policy of Caste, Colour and Discrimination.
  4. Faith in the United Nations. India is a founder member of the United Nations and has full faith in the aims and principles of the United Nations.
  5. Panchsheel. Panchsheel is an important principle of Indian foreign policy.
  6. Friendly Relations with other States. India is always ready to have friendly relations with other States of the world.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on Panchsheel.
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, the Prime Minister of China held a meeting in Delhi. They formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence between the nations of the world. These principles are called Panchsheel.

Following are these principles:

  1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
  2. Non-aggression. In other words, the disputes among the nations should be settled by negotiations.
  3. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other states.
  4. To endeavour to achieve mutual gains and co-operation.
  5. To adhere to the policy of peaceful co-existence among different nations Live and let live. If these principles are respected, there can be no danger of any deadly war in the world.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 3.
Describe the meaning of the’^bficy of Non-alignment and reasons for its adoption by India.
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc and having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means taking decisions independently on the basis of merit while solving international problems. Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Reasons. At the time of our independence, there were two power blocs in the world: the American bloc and the Russian bloc. ‘There existed tension between the two blocs. Thus there was a cold war between them. Newly^^.d countries could reduce this tension and make progress with the aid of both, tfiesel.two.blocs. So they did not join any bloc and formed their own group. Pandit Jawaharl, ejiru based India’s foreign policy on the principle of Non-alignment.

Question 4.
Describe the organisation and functions of the General Assembly, Security Council and International, Court of Justice.
Answer:
General Assembly. It is made up of all the member nations of the U.N.O. each of whom has one vote. However, each member state can send five representatives to attend its meetings. The Assembly takes decisions on ordinary matters by a simple majority. It passes the annual budget of U.N.O.

Security Council: It is made up of 15 members out of Ayhqm five are permanent members. The remaining ten members are elected for a term of two years by the General Assembly.

The Security Council is entrusted with the task of preserving world peace. It tries to settle disputes between the different nations in a just and fair manner.

International Court of Justice:
It is called “The World Court”. The Court hears and decides, disputes arising between states according to International Law. It also gives advice to the General Assembly on legal matters.

Question 5.
Describe the role of India in the United Nations.
Answer:
India is one of the 51 founder members of the United Nations. From the very beginning, the Indian leaders have been keeping a firm faith in this great institution. It has been playing an important role in the functioning of the United Nations.

  1. India stood for anti-colonialism. India along with other members got the resolution passed against imperialism and colonialism in 1950.
  2. Admission of New States. India tried her best for the admission of Communist China and Bangladesh. ,
  3. Cooperation in ending wars in other Countries. India supported the peace efforts of the United Nations to put an end to the wars in Egypt, Congo, Korea and Indo-China.
  4. Against Racial Discrimination. India, with the cooperation of the United Nations, raised a strong voice against the policy of racial discrimination followed by the imperialist government in South Africa.
  5. Human Rights. With the cooperation of the United Nations, India raised a strong voice of protest against the countries.which violated the human rights.
  6. Support of Disarmament. India have so supported disarmament for lessening the possibility of wars.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Describe the main reasons which Abated tension and hostility between India and Pakistan.
Or
Write a short note on the Indo-Pak relationship and their main dispute.
Answer:
India has made every effort to establish friendly relations with Pakistan but the tension and hatred between the two countries has never ended. The two countries had border disputes, river water distribution disputes and had to make settlement of evacuee property. The dispute about the sharing of river waters between the two countries was settled with the help of the World Bank^ through the Indus Water Treaty in 1960. The settlement of border disputes and the prql^em of evacuee property have been solved to a great extent. But the Kashmir problem is the bone of contention between the two countries.

Question 7.
Discuss briefly Indo-American relations.
Answer:
India and U.S.A. are the two largest democracies in the world. During 1947-2001 the relations between the two countries were marked by two opposite features. On one side, there was a spirit of co-operation and friendship between the two countries. But on the other, their relations were strained and conflicting. There has been, however, a marked improvement in the relations between the two countries since 2000 A.D. Both these countries are fighting against terrorism

The U.S.A. had begun to give massive military aid to Pakistan. This was strongly opposed by India. The lowest point in the Indo-US relations came in 1971 when India signed the Treaty of peace, friendship and co-operation with the USSR. India’s peaceful nuclear explosion on May 18, 1974, at Pokhran was strongly criticised by the US leaders and the people. There has been a marked improvement in the relations between America and India since 2001 A.D. The President of the U.S.A. Barack Obama visited India in January 2015.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Describe one cause of tension between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan has been claiming Kashmir since independence whereas it is an integral part of India.

Question 2.
Describe one positive aspect of Indo-Pak relationship.
Answer:
On 17th Feb., 1999, India and Pakistan signed a formal agreement for launching the Delhi-Lahore Bus Service.

Question 3.
Give the names of the founder countries of the Non-alignment Movement.
Answer:
India, Yugoslavia and Egypt.

Question 4.
Mention any one object of the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
To maintain international peace and security.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 5.
Mention one important function of the Security Council.
Answer:
To help in maintaining international peace and security.

Question 6.
Throw light on any ope aspect of India’s policy of Non-alignment.
Answer:
Not to join any of the power blocs.

Question 7.
Mention any one cause for the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation was established to maintain peace in the world.

Question 8.
Give one example of the work done by the U.N. for world peace.
Answer:
In 1949, it made the Dutch forces to vacate Indonesia.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Human Rights?
Answer:
Human Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can be his best self.

Question 10.
Why is disarmament necessary? Give one reason.
Answer:
To save humanity from total destrubtidh.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 11.
What was Marshall Plan of America?
Answer:
The Marshall Plan was a big programme of American aid-to the European nations to rebuild their war shattered economies.

Question 12.
Why were SEATO and Baghdad pacts prepared by the U.S.A.?
Answer:
To check spread of communism.

Question 13.
What is India’s Atomic or Nuclear Policy?
Answer:
India wants to make’ the use of atomic energy.for constructive and peaceful purposes.

Question 14.
What is meant by atomic weapons?
Answer:
The weapons which are exploded by the use of atomic or nuclear energy are called atomic weapons.

Question 15.
Which powers colonised Africa?
Answer:
The continent of Africa was colonised by Britain, France, Italy, Portugal and Belgium.

Question 16.
When was Bangla Desh created?
Answer:
In 1971.

Question 17.
Write down the names of two permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
England and U.S.A.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 18.
What is meant by policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but to have friendly relations with all countries.

Question 19.
Write down the names of two organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
1. General Assembly and
2. Security Council.

Question 20.
Enumerate the number of non-permanent members of Security Council of UNO.
Answer:10.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
There are ____________ organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
six

Question 2.
United Nations was established on ___________
Answer:
24th October, 1945

Question 3.
Originally United Nations consisted of ___________ members.
Answer:
51

Question 4.
Pt. ___________ is rightly acknowledged as the chief architect of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 5.
The train characteristic of India’s foreign policy is ___________
Answer:
Non-alignment,

Question 6.
India has full faith in the ___________ of United Nations.
Answer:
principles

Question 7.
At present United Nations consists of ____________ members.
Answer:
193

Question 8.
The word ‘Panchsheel’ stands for principles.
Answer:
five

Question 9.
___________ is a major issue of conflict between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Kashmir

Question 10.
There are ___________ permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
five.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
China made a sudden attack on India in:
(a) August 1962
(b) September 1962
(c) October 1962
(d) September 1965.
Answer:
(c) October 1962

Question 2.
The Principles of Panchsheel were signed between the Heads of the Govt. of:
(a) India and China
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and Japan
(d) Inia and Nepal.
Answer:
(a) India and China

Question 3.
The architect of Non-alignment is:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Dr. Rajinder Praad
(c) Atal Behari Vajpaye
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 4.
India became a member of U.N. in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1960.
Answer:
(a) 1945

Question 5.
Which organ of United Nations has all the member states as Its members?
(a) Security Council
(b) General Assembly
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) Economic and Social Council.
Answer:
(b) General Assembly

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Bangladesh was established in:
(a) 1965
(b) 1972
(c) 1971
(d) 1970.
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 7.
International Court of Justice has _________________ Judges.
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 22
(d) 20.
Answer:
(a) 15

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a basic principle of India’s foreign policy?
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Friendly relations with other states
(c) Faith in United Nations
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.
Answer:
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.

Question 9.
Who was the first woman president of the U.N. General Assembly?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit
(d) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur.
Answer:
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a permament member of U.N. Security Council?
(a) India
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Russia
(d) England.
Answer:
(a) India

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are security and defence so important for India today?
Answer:
It was easier to defend the frontiers of India in ancient times. The Himalayas served as the sentinal in the north. The ocean protected us in the south. But now the high Himalayas and the deep oceans have lost their importance as the protectors of the country. Due to the progress of science and technology, the mountains ánd the seas are no longer barriers to check the enemy. So it has become very important for India to defend her borders. Secondly, our relations with some of our neighbours are not very friendly. We have to defend ourselves against them. So India’s need for defence and security is greater these days.

Question 2.
Write the names of any four organs of the United Nations. Explain one important function of each organ.
Answer:
Following are the four main organs of the United Nations.

  1. General Assembly,
  2. Security Council,
  3. Economic and Social Council and
  4. International Court of Justice.

Question 3.
Give some suggestions to Improve the relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
The relations between India and Pakistan can be improved by promoting common interests of both the countries.

The following steps should be taken in this direction:

  • Trade relations between both the countries should be strengthened.
  • Efforts should be made to improve cultural and educational relations between the two countries.
  • There should be friendly sports matches between the teams of the two countries.

Question 4.
When was the United Nations established? Mention its aims.
Answer:
The United Nations was established, on 24th October 1945. The number of its founder members was 51. But now about 209 countries of the world are its members. India is one of its founder members.

Following are its aims :

  • To settle the disputes between the states through peaceful means.
  • To promote friendly relations among the member states.
  • To find solutions to social and economic problems of the world.
  • To protect and uphold the freedom and rights of man.
  • To maintain world peace.
  • To strive hard to achieve these objects.

Question 5.
Write the full names of ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO. Write the functions of any two of these organisations.
Answer:
ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO are specialized agencies of the United Nations.
1. ILO: Its full name is International Labour Organisation.
Its functions are as under :

  • It tries to improve the living and. working conditions of the labourers.
  • To fix minimum wages and hours of work for the workers.

2. UNESCO: Its full name is United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation. Its main function is to promote educational, scientific and cultural co-operation among the member nations of the world.

3. FAO: Its full name is Food and Agricultural Organisation. Its main function is to
formulate schemes to increase agricultural production and consider the food situation of all the nations. . ,

4. WHO: Its full name is World Health Organisation. Its main function is to protect the health of people and to eradicate diseases.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Write a short note on the following :
(i) SAARC
(ii) Veto Power.
Answer:
(i) SAARC: Its full name is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. It is an organisation of developing countries of South Asia. Its members are—India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Maldives. Some similarities are found in the cultural and economic problems of these countries. The representatives of these countries sit together to solve their problems and promote mutual cooperation.

(ii) Veto Power: The permanent members of the Security Council possess Veto power. These members are United States, Britain, China, France and Russia. For all effective decisions of this body, the unanimity of these five big powers is compulsory. This implies that these big powers have a veto on all important decisions of the council and anyone of these five powers can prevent it from taking any action against any country.

Question 7.
Mention some positive aspects of Indo-China relationship.
Answer:

  1. Both the countries have agreed to solve their border dispute through a special committee consisting of officials from the both sides.
  2. Both the countries have agreed to extend economic co-operation to each other. There is a considerable increase in the trade between the two countries.
  3. In 1988, the then Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi, visited China. The Chinese Prisident visited India in December 1991 and again in 2014. The way for the restoration of friendly relations between the two countries became clear. Since then many good-will missions have’been exchanged between the two countries.

Question 8.
Write down six features of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:

  • To make efforts for security and peace in the world.
  • To support the movements for self-determination in the colonies.
  • To oppose racialism.
  • Settlement of international disputes by peaceful methods.
  • To co-operate with U.N.O. and its Specialized Agencies.
  • To support the Non-Alignment movement and to remain away from the military blocs.

Question 9.
Write a short note on United N&tibns’ Security Council.
Answer:
The United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. The UNSC was formed in 1945 following World War II to address the failings of the previoifs international organisation i.e. the League of Nations to maintain world peace. The Security Council consists of 15 members. Soviet Union (Russia), United Kingdom, France, China and United States of America are its five permanent members. These countries can veto any resolution. There are 10 non-permanent members elected on regional basis to serve for a term of two years. The Council held its first session on 17th January, 1946.

Question 10.
What is the contribution of India to promote world peace?
Answer:
Following the policy of Non-Alignment, Indi%has always condemned colonialism and imperialism.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 11.
Enumerate six main organs of the U. N. O.
Answer:
Following are the names of the chief organs of the U. N. 0.:

  • The General Assembly.
  • The Security Council.
  • Economic and Social Council.
  • The Trusteeship Council.
  • The Secretariat.
  • International Court of Justice.

Question 12.
Name five permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
Following are the names of five permanent members of the Security Council of the U.N. – United States of America, Great Britain, Russia, China, and France.

Question 13.
Briefly explain the International Court of Justice.
Answer:
There is a total of fifteen judges in the International Court of Justice. Its headquarter is the Hague in Holland. Its main task is to settle the disputes between the U.N.O.’s member countries.

Question 14.
Write down a note on Secretary-General of the U. N.O.
Answer:
The head of the Secretariate of U.N.O. is called Secretary-General. He is appointed by the U. N. Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council for five years. Now Antonio Guterres is Secretary-General of UNO.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do we write balanced chemical equations?
Answer:
To understand the method to write balanced chemical equation, let us take an example.
Zinc + Sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + hydrogen This equation can be written as below
Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2

Check the number of atoms on both sides of the arrow.

Element No. of atoms in reactants (LHS) No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Zn 1 1
H 2 2
S 1 1
0 4 4

In the equation, number of atoms are same on the both sides of the arrow, thus it is balanced chemical equation.
Now let us try to balance the following chemical equation
Fe + H2O → Fe3O4 + H2

Step I: Make a list of atoms of different elements in the unbalanced equation

Element No. of atoms in reactants (LHS) No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Fe 1 3
H 2 2
0 1 4

Step II: Choose a compound with maximum number of atoms for balancing whether it is reactant or product. Choose an element with maximum number of atoms in the choosen compound. On this basis we choose Fe3O4 and in it we choose the element oxygen. On the right, there are four atoms of oxygen and on the left only one.

To balance, oxygen atom

Atoms of oxygen In reactants In product
(i) initially 1 (In H2O) 4 (In Fe3O4)
(iii) after balancing 1 × 4 4

To equalize the number of atoms, we can not change the formulae of elements and compounds taking part in the reaction e.g. to balance oxygen atoms we can put coefficient ‘4’ and can write 4H20 but we cannot write H204 or (H2O)4 or (H2O4).

A partially balanced equation will be
Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + H2
(Partially balanced equation)

Step III: Fe and H are still unbalanced. Choose any one and move ahead. To balance hydrogen atoms, on left side, make number at atoms of hydrogen ‘4’.

Atoms of hydrogen In reactants In product
Initially 8 (4 In H2O) 2 (In H2)
After balancing 8 2 × 4

Now equation becomes
Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

Step IV: Check the above equation and choose third element which still is unbalanced. We will find that only iron is the element, which remains to be balanced.

To balance Fe we take 3 atoms of Fe on the left side.
3Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

Step V: At the end, let us count the number ofatoms of elements on both sides of the equation
3 Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2 (Balanced equation)

Number of atoms of every element on both sides of the equation are equal. Therefore this equation is now balanced. This method of balancing chemical equations is known as hit and trial method because we use smallest integral coefficient to balance the equation.

Step VI: To write the symbols for physical states. There is no information given about the physical state in the above balanced equation.
To make chemical equation more informative, write the physical states with the reactants and products. To represent the states of solid, liquid, gas, aqueous of the reactants and products we write (s), (l), (g) and (aq) respectively with them. When reactant or product is present in the form of solution in water then word (aq) is written.

Thus, balanced equation will be
3Fe(s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
when (g) is used with water, then it means that water is used in the form of steam in the reaction. Usually, physical state is not mentioned in the chemical equation until it is very necessary.

Sometimes the conditions of the reaction like temperature, pressure, catalyst etc. are shown over or under the arrow e.g.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Question 2.
Give types of chemical reactions with examples.
Answer:
The various types of chemical reactions are :
1. Combination reactions: In these reactions two or more than two reactants combine to form a single product. Such reactions are known as combination reactions.

Example: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydoxide (slaked lime) and a lot of heat is evolved.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2
In this reaction calcium oxide and water combine to give single product calcium hydroxide.

2. Dissociation or Decomposition reactions: In these reactions single reactant breaks into two or more than two new substances. Such reactions are called dissociation reactions.

Examples of dissociation reaction :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

3. Displacement reactions: When an element displaces another element from a compound, then it is called displacement reaction.

Examples:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

4. Double displacement reactions. In such a reaction two different atoms or group of atoms exchange themselves with each other.

Example :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 6

Question 3.
Briefly describe oxidation and reduction with suitable examples.
Answer:
Oxidation. Oxidation of a substance takes place in a reaction when there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen in it and opposite to it reduction takes places when there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Example: A black coating of copper (II) oxide is seen on copper powder. Why this black substance is formed?
This copper oxide is formed due to combination of copper with oxygen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 7
If on this heated substance hydrogen gas is allowed to flow, this black coloured coating changes into brown colour because in these circumstances reverse reaction takes place and copper is again obtained.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 8
When there is gain of oxygen in a substance in a reaction we say oxidation of the substance has taken place and when there is loss of oxygen we say reduction of the substance has taken place.

There is loss of oxygen in copper (II) oxide, therefore it gets reduced. There is gain of oxygen in hydrogen, therefore it is oxidized. Thus, in a reaction one of the reactant is oxidized and other reactant is reduced. Such type of reactions are called reduction-oxidation reactions or redox reactions.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 9

Other examples of redox reaction are :

  • ZnO + C → Zn + CO
  • MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
  • In this reaction carbon is oxidized to become CO and ZnO is reduced to Zn.
  • In this reaction HCl is oxidized to Cl2 and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2.

Question 4.
Balance the following chemical equations.
(i) H2 + N2 → NH3
Answer:
3H2 + N2 → 2NHg

(ii) BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → AlCl3 + BaSO4
Answer:
3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)2 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4

(iii) H2S + O2 → SO2 + H2O
Answer:
2H2S + 3O2 → 2SO2 + 2H2O

(iv) KBr + BaI2 → KI +BaBr2
Answer:
2KBr + BaI2 → 2KI + BaBr2

(v) Al + CuCl2 → AlCl3 + Cu
Answer:
2Al + 3CuCl2 → 2AlCl3 + 3Cu

(vi) AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 +Ag
Answer:
2AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag

(vii) Al (OH)3 → Al2O3 + H2O
Answer:
2Al(OH)3 → Al2O3 + 3H2O

(viii) NH3 + CuO → Cu + N2 + H2O
Answer:
2NH3 + 3CuO → Cu + N2 + 3H2O

(ix) KClO3 → KCl + O2
Answer:
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2

(x) BaCl2 + K2SO4 → 2BaSO4 + KCl
Answer:
BaCl2 + K2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2KCl.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples from our daily life to show that chemical changes do take place in our daily life.
Answer:

  1. Fermentation of grapes take place.
  2. Our body digests the food.
  3. In summer, if milk is left in the room, we can see a change in it as it becomes sour.

Question 2.
Differentiate between balanced and skeletal chemical equation.
Answer:
Balanced equation. If number of atoms of each element are same before and after the reaction, then such a reaction is balanced chemical reaction.

Skeletal chemical equation. When number of atoms of each element before and after the reaction are not same then such a chemical equation is called skeletal Chemical equation.

Question 3.
What are the necessary requirements while writing a chemical equation?
Answer:
These are :

  • It represents a true chemical change.
  • It should be balanced.
  • It should represent physical states of the reactants and products.
  • It should indicate the necessary conditions required for the reaction to occur.
  • It should represent heat changes during reactions.

Question 4.
Give one example each of balanced and skeletal equation.
Answer:
2KCl + O2 → 2 KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
This is example of balanced equation.
Zn + AgNO3(aq) → Zn (NO3)2 + Ag
This is example of skeletal equation.

Question 5.
Give chemical formula for slaked lime and one use of it.
Answer:
Chemical formula -Ca(OH)2. Solution of slaked lime is used for white washing the buildings.

Question 6.
Why there is a shine on the walls after two-three days of white washing?
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with carbon dioxide present in the air and form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. After 2-3 days of white wash, calcium carbonate is formed due to which there is a shine on the walls.

Question 7.
Give chemical formula of marble and give reaction to show bow it is formed?
Answer:
Marble is also known as calcium carbonate.
Its chemical formula is CaCO3 Reaction to show its formation
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 10

Question 8.
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
How oxidation and reduction in the above reaction is taking place? What is the name of such reaction?
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 11
Such a reaction is called redox reaction.

Question 9.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 12
Complete the above reaction and tell the colour of the product.
Answer:
Above reaction is :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 13
colour of PbO is yellow.

Question 10.
Give colours of following solutions.
1. FeSO4
Answer:
FeSO4 → green

2. CuS04
Answer:
CuSO4 → blue

Question 11.
What is rusting? What is the chemical formula of rust. What is its loss?
Answer:
New articles made up of iron are shiny but after some time a reddish brown coating is seen on their surface. Usually it is called rusting of iron.

Chemical formula of rust – Fe2O3.H2O (Hydrated iron (III) oxide)
It is powdery substance that gets removed from the surface and due to this iron articles are getting damaged.

Question 12.
Fats are oils containing foods, when kept for long time then what change take place in them? What is name of this process?
Answer:
Fats and oils containing foods, when kept for long time, results in the change of their taste and smell. This process is named as rancidity.

Question 13.
How can we stop rancidity?
Answer:

  • To slower down the rate of oxidation, antioxidants are added to food items.
  • By keeping food items in air tight containers.
  • By flushing nitrogen gas in packets of chips so as to stop the oxidation of chips.

Question 14.
Zinc metal can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. But copper metal can not displace zinc from the solution of Zinc sulphate. Give reason.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. Copper is less reactive than zinc thus copper can not displace zinc from zinc sulphate solution.

Question 15.
What happens when zinc rod is placed in copper sulphate solution? Give chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It wall displace copper from solution of copper sulphate and zinc sulphate is formed. Blue colour of the solution of copper sulphate change to white slowly.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 14

Question 16.
What is lime mitigation? Why there is sound of shuun-shuun in this process? Give chemical equation representing the reaction.
Answer:
When quick lime is mixed with water, it changes to slaked lime. This is lime mitigation. This is a exothermic reaction and heat is evolved due to which there is sound of shuun-shuun is produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 15

Question 17.
Write names of the substances which got reduced and oxidized.
1. SO2 + 3H2S → 2H3O + 3S
Answer:
In SO2, S is reduced and in H2S, S is oxidized.

2. 2Al + 3HCl → 2AlCl2 + 3H2
Answer:
Aluminium is reduced and chlorine is oxidized.

3. 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and sulphur is reduced.

4. Zn + 2AgNOa → An (NO3)2 + 3Ag
Answer:
Zinc is oxidised and silver is reduced.

5. H2 + CuO → Cu + H2O.
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and copper is reduced.

Question 18.
What does a complete chemical equation represent and why is it necessary to balance a chemical equation?
Answer:
A complete chemical equation represents reactants, products and their physical state in a symbolic form.
A chemical equation is balanced so that number of atoms of every element in reactants and products becomes equal. Therefore it is necessary to balance the chemical equation.

Question 19.
What type of reactions are combustion of coal and formation of water? Represent by chemical equation.
Answer:
1. Combustion of Coal:
C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

2. Formation of water from H2 and O2 :
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)

Question 20.
How is dissociation reaction different from combination reaction?
Answer:
In a combination reaction two or more than two substance combine to give a single new substance where as in dissociation reaction a single substance breaks or dissociates into two or more than two new substances.

Question 21.
Give two examples of dissociation reaction.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 16

Question 22.
What is the difference between oxidation and reduction?
Answer:
In reaction, some substance gain or loose oxygen and hydrogen. If there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen from a substance then it is called oxidation. Loss of oxygen and gain of hydrogen is called reduction.

Question 23.
Give two examples of corrosion.
Answer:
Examples of corrosion are :

  1. black coating on silver
  2. green coating on copper.

Question 24.
Which type of reaction is shown in figure given below and define it.
Answer:
Displacement Reaction. It is a reaction in which more active element (metal or non-metal) displaces less active element (metal or non-metal) from its solution of its compound.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 17

Question 25.
What is shown in the figure given ahead? Also indicate 1 and 2 in the figure .
Answer:
The figure represents electro-lysis of water :

  1. Oxygen gas
  2. Hydrogen gas

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 18

Question 26.
The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the following questions:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 19
(i) Identify the type of chemical reaction.
Answer:
Photochemical decomposition

(ii) Write the chemical equations.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 20

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do we get on the combustion of magnesium ribbon?
Answer:
We get a white powder of Magnesium oxide.

Question 2.
What is law of conservation of mass?
Answer:
In any chemical reaction, mass can neither be created nor destroyed.

Question 3.
Define balanced chemical equation.
Answer:
If number of atoms of each element before and after the chemical reaction are equal, then such a chemical reaction is balanced equation.

Question 4.
Give one example of balanced equation.
Answer:
3 Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2.

Question 5.
If (g) is written with water, then what does it represent?
Answer:
Water is in the form of vapour or steam.

Question 6.
Sometimes we show the conditions of a reaction like pressure, temperature, catalyst etc. where do we write it.
Answer:
Above and below the arrow.

Question 7.
How does a new substance form in a chemical reaction?
Answer:
By breaking and making of bonds between atoms.

Question 8.
Define combination reaction.
Answer:
A reaction in which two or more than two reactants combine to give single product is called combination reaction.

Question 9.
What is the use of slaked lime?
Answer:
For whitewashing the buildings.

Question 10.
Write chemical formula for Marble.
Answer:
CaCO3.

Question 11.
What do we get on the combustion of natural gas?
Answer:
CO2, H2O and energy.

Question 12.
Write formula for ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
FeSO4.7H2O.

Question 13.
What is formed of grey colour from silver chloride in sun light?
Answer:
Silver metal.

Question 14.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 21
Where is above reaction used?
Answer:
Black and white photography.

Question 15.
Why after some time shining iron articles become dull?
Answer:
Due to rust.

Question 16.
What is the colour of rust coating on iron?
Answer:
Brown colour.

Question 17.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
When a metal comes in contact with moisture, acid etc. it gets corroded and the process is called corrosion.

Question 18.
What is the colour of coating on silver due to corrosion?
Answer:
Black coating.

Question 19.
What is the colour of coating on copper due to corrosion?
Answer:
Green coating.

Question 20.
Due to which process, there is a change in smell and taste of food items which contain fat and oils?
Answer:
This change is due to oxidation and is called rancidity.

Question 21.
What do the manufacturer of chips flush in the packets of chips to prevent oxidation?
Answer:
Nitrogen gas.

Question 22.
What is the colour of coating of copper(II) oxide?
Answer:
Black colour.

Question 23.
What is other name of oxidation-reduction reaction.
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Question 24.
When does oxidation of substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is gain of O2 or loss of H2.

Question 25.
When does reduction of a substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is loss of O2 or gain of H2.

Question 26.
White coloured silver chloride change to which colour in sunlight?
Answer:
In grey colour.

Question 27.
Give one example of endothermic reaction.
Answer:
3AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)

Question 28.
In w hat calcium carbonate dissociate when heat is given to it?
Answer:
Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

Question 29.
Write chemical formula for slaked lime.
Answer:
Ca(OH)2.

Question 30.
What is special there in potato, rice and bread?
Answer:
Carbohydrate.

Question 31.
What do we get on the decomposition of carbohydrate?
Answer:
Glucose.

Question 32.
Write the reaction for combination of natural gas?
Answer:
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + energy.

Question 33.
What type of reaction is combination of coal and formation of water from H2 and O2?
Answer:
Combination reaction.

Question 34.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 22
What is A in above reaction.
Answer:
Chlorophyll.

Question 35.
What is skeletal chemical equation?
Answer:
If in a chemical reaction, number of atoms of each element on left hand side is not equal to number of atoms of each element on right hand side such a reaction is called skeletal chemical equation.

Question 36.
What are products?
Answer:
In a chemical reaction new substances are formed which are known as products.

Question 37.
What are reactants?
Answer:
Those substances which take part in a chemical reaction and undergo chemical changes are called reactants.

Question 38.
What is reduction reaction?
Answer:
It is a reaction in which there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Question 39.
What is oxidation reaction?
Answer:
It is reaction in which there is loss of hydrogen or gain of oxygen.

Question 40.
If in a reaction one reactant is reduced and other is oxidised, what is name of such a reaction?
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The chemical reaction given below represents :
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) →
BaSO4(s) + 2 NaCl(aq)
(A) Decomposition reaction
(B) Displacement reaction
(C) Combination reaction
(D) Double diplacement reaction.
Answer:
(D) Double displacement reaction

Question 2.
The chemical reaction in which heat energy is given out is called:
(A) Exothermic reaction
(B) Endothermic reaction
(C) Polymerisation reaction
(D) All.
Answer:
(A) Exothermic reaction

Question 3.
During electrolysis, hydrogen and oxygen are produced in the ratio by volume :
(A) 2:1
(B) 1:1
(C) 2:2
(D) 4:1.
Answer:
(A) 2: 1.

Question 4.
The chemical formula of rust is:
(A) Fe2O3
(B) FeCO3
(C) Fe2O3 .xH2O
(D) FeCO3 xH2O.
Answer:
(C) Fe2O3 .xH2O

Question 5.
Which is an example of a decomposition reaction?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 23
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 24

Question 6.
Redox reaction involves:
(A) Oxidation
(B) Reduction
(C) Both oxidation and reduction
(D) None.
Answer:
(C) Both oxidation and reduction

Question 7.
In a packet of chips oxygen is replaced by gas:
(A) CO2
(B) SO2
(C) N2
(D) O3.
Answer:
(C) N2

Question 8.
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
What type of chemical reaction is shown by the above equation?
(A) Combination reaction
(B) Dissociation reaction
(C) Displacement reaction
(D) Double displacement reaction.
Answer:
(C) Displacement reaction.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Complete the following chemical equation.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 25
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 26

Question 2.
Respiration is an ________ reaction.
Answer:
Respiration is an exothermic reaction.

Question 3.
Rusting of iron is a ________ reaction.
Answer:
Rusting iron is a redox reaction.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Plant Clinic Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
In which year plant clinic was established at Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana?
Answer:
In 1993.

Question 2.
How many plant clinics have been established by Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana in Punjab?
Answer:
Plant clinics are running at 18 Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKS) in various districts and four at regional research stations Abohar, Bathinda and Gurdaspur and Department of Fruit science, PAU, Ludhiana.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 3.
Where is plant clinic located at PAU?
Answer:
PAU clock tower, located near gate no. 1 at PAU campus.

Question 4.
Name any two instruments/tool being used in the plant at clinics?
Answer:
Computer, Microscope, scissors, knife etc.

Question 5.
Name the principle based on which the exact quantity of pesticides is calculated to control insect pests on different crops.
Answer:
Economic threshold level.

Question 6.
Name the instrument with the help of which one can observe the pictures on slides.
Answer:
Projector.

Question 7.
Name the tool used to observe the small disease specimens under field conditions.
Answer:
Microscope.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 8.
Name any two chemicals used for preservation of diseased plant specimens.
Answer:
Formalin, acetic acid.

Question 9.
Mention the email address of plant clinic located at Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana.
Answer:
[email protected].

Question 10.
Mention the telephone number of plant clinic situated at PAU, Ludhiana.
Answer:
0161-240-1960 with extension 417. Mobile number: 9463048181.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What is plant clinic?
Answer:
Plant clinic is a place where diagnosis and remedial measures for diseased plants, nutrient deficiency, insect attack etc. are provided to the farmers.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of Plant Clinic?
Answer:

  • Diagnosis and remedial measures for plants are provided.
  • Various experts are available at all times in the plant clinic for quick redressal of day to day problems faced by farmers.
  • Farmers can get solutions to their problems through email, mobile phone, whatsapp.

Question 3.
How plant clinic differ from human hospitals?
Answer:
In human hospitals, diseases of human beings are identified and treated. Whereas in plant clinic besides treating diseased plants, training and education to identify diseased plants is also given.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
Mention the disiciplines / subjects used for the identification of plant specimens.
Answer:
In these clinics attack of disease, nutrient deficiency, insect attack and other reasons which are harming plants are studied. Disciplines which are used to identify plant, specimen etc. at plant clinic are plant pathology, entomology, soil sciences, agronomy etc.

Question 5.
Enlist the equipments being used in plant clinic.
Answer:
Following equipments are required at plant clinic:
Microscope, magnifying lenses, chemicals, incubator, scissors, knife, computer, photo camera, projector, books, etc.

Question 6.
What is the importance of microscope in plant clinic?
Answer:
Plant is dissected to see the symptoms of disease by using microscope. Actual colour, small identification marks etc. are also seen by using microscope.

Question 7.
What do you understand from the term “Economic Threshold Level”?
Answer:
To protect plants from diseases and insects, fertilizers and insecticides should be used after properly calculating the required dose of these. When number of insects increased upto a specific number or affect a specified number of plants of the crop. Spray of pesticide should start after this level has reached. This way crop as well as farmers will get some benefit. This is known as economic threshold level.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 8.
Comment on the use of computer in plant clinic.
Answer:
Some specimens cannot be preserved either wet or dry. Such samples are scanned and stored in computer. These can be used when needed.

Question 9.
How incubator is useful in diagnosis of microorganisms in plants?
Answer:
Media after inoculation with pathogen is placed in incubator which is set at appropriate temperature and proper moisture is provided for the proper growth of pathogen. This is used for identification of other organisms also.

Question 10.
Enlist the chemicals required for the preservation of plant specimen in glass jars.
Answer:
For this work formalin, alcohol etc. is used.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Describe the mobile diagnosis-cum-exhibition van.
Answer:
To make the reach of plant clinics upto the villages, plant clinics have mobile diagnostics cum exhibition van. This van has the facilities in it for diagnosis and for exhibition. It has various equipments in it and it has the facility to show movies of technical know how to farmers, Agricultural experts provide remedies at the spot after testing and knowing their problems. Farmers are gaining a lot from this van.

Question 2.
What is the use of camera and Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) projector in plant clinic?
Answer:
Camera is used to take photographs of diseased plants. These photographs and slides are kept safe in the plant clinic. These are shown to the students for further reference. Scientists can also take help from these photos. Projector is used to see these slides. It can show enlarged view of photos and slides.

Question 3.
Define PAU doots and KMAS service of plant clinic.
Answer:
PAU doots is a new service introduced by clinic plants in which some farmers are enrolled as ‘PAU doots’ who are given the responsibility to disseminate the agriculture technology: These doots disseminate the information, which they get regularly through mobile messages and emails, to the fellow farmers using public address system.

KMAS is Kisan Mobile Advisory Service which is provided by Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) to the farmers for adopting advanced and new agricultural practices at their field. Messages are sent to the fellow farmers for spreading the technology related information.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
What is touch screen Kisok and farmer service centre?
Answer:
Plant clinic has a computerized touch screen Kisok which is called information booth. It pictorially explains the production and protection technology of rabi and Kharif crops from sowing till harvesting. Plant clinic was made a part of Farmer Service Centre (FSC) in 1999 and now it is known as agricultural technology information centre. Various types of problem of allied activities related to agriculture are taken. This is very helpful centre for the farmer.

Question 5.
Describe the services provided by plant clinic to the farmers. Or What are the advantages of plant clinic?
Answer:

  • In Plant Clinic identification of deficiency of nutritional elements in plants is done and also identification of harmful insects is also done.
  • After identifying the symptoms of the diseased plarfts brought from the fields, methods to prevent diseases are suggested on the spot.
  • In Plant Clinic training is given to identify the symptoms of diseases and insects.
  • Training is given to calculate the required amount of fertilizers and insecticides etc. to be applied to the crop so that unnecessary expenditure can be avoided.
  • Training is also given about the economic threshold of main insects of different crops. This helps in knowing exact amount of fertilizers and insecticides to be used or applied.
  • Training for using different types of spray pumps and other agriculture implements is also given.
  • Students are shown various types of diseased plants and are trained to treat such plants. This help in reducing the expenditure of the fanners.
  • Photographs of various types of implements, fertilizers, pumps, plant sample, seed and other items used for studying plants are kept at the plant clinic.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Plant Clinic Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Name of chemical used for preservation of diseased plant specimens.
(a) Formalin
(b) Gulocose
(c) Sodium bromide
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Formalin

Question 2.
In which year plant clinic was established in. PAU?
(a) 2010
(b) 1993
(c) 1980
(d) 1955.
Answer:
(b) 1993

Question 3.
Which tool is tised to diagnose micro organisms in plants?
(a) microscope
(b) incubation
(c) Projector
(d) All.
Answer:
(b) incubation

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
In how many Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) are plant clinics working?
(a) 1
(b) 27
(c) 18
(d) 22.
Answer:
(c) 18

Question 5.
What is the e-mail address of plant clinic of Punjab Agriculture University?
(a) www.gadvasu.in
(b) www.pddb.in
(c) [email protected]
(d) www.pau.edu.
Answer:
(c) [email protected]

Question 6.
Mention the landline telephone number of plant clinic situated at Punjab Agricultural University.
(a) 0161-2401960 Extension-417
(b) 94630-48181
(c) [email protected]
(d) www.pau.edu.
Answer:
(a) 0161-2401960 Extension-417

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

True False:

1. PAU established Central Plant Clinic at Ludhiana in 1993.
Answer:
True

2. Various types of equipments and apparatus are required in the plant clinic.
Answer:
True

3. No chemicals are required in plant clinic.
Answer:
False

4. e-mail address of plant clinic at Punjab Agricultural University is [email protected].
Answer:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Fill in the blanks:

1. To see various symptoms of disease, we use ………….. .
Answer:
microscope

2. One of the chemical used to preserve fresh symptoms of various plants is …………. .
Answer:
formaldehyde

3. Computer, ………… are important part of plant clinic.
Answer:
scanners

4. Plants are dissected using knife, ……………..etc.
Answer:
scissors.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give one reason due to which yield is reduced.
Answer:
Deficiency of nutrients, diseases, attack of insects.

Question 2.
Which instrument is used to see the symptoms of diseases?
Answer:
Microscope.

Question 3.
What is used for disection of plants?
Answer:
Knife, scissors etc.

Question 4.
Which equipment is used to observe micro organisms?
Answer:
Incubator.

Question 5.
At which mobile number one can contact plant clinic?
Answer:
9463048181.

Question 6.
Which type of van is used by plant clinic at PAU for giving technical knowledge to villagers?
Answer:
Mobile diagnostic cum exhibition van.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 7.
Write name of any one chemical which is used in plant clinic?
Answer:
Formalin.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the need of knife in the plant clinic?
Answer:
Knife is used to dissect the plant so that it can be viewed under the microscope.

Question 2.
What is the use of magnifying lens in plant clinic?
Answer:
This is used Ip see small parts of plants, insects and other smaller organism and to identify them.

Question 3.
Which service has been started by plant clinic so as to reach the villagers?
Answer:
PAU doot and KMAS service has been started. Farmers can register their email and mobile number with the plant clinic to” get benefits.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by economic threshold? Describe in detail.
Answer:
Before applying insecticides, their exact amount required for the particular crop is first calculated. This way plants can get maximum benefit and expenditure is also minimum. Many problems are created if insecticides f are used in excess of what is required or if these are unnecessarily used. e.g. insects become resistant to the use of insecticides, these become habitual rather than dying, friendly insects are also killed, the insects which were not harmful earlier may start harming the crop, whole of the environment gets polluted.

Every year the same insect does not attack the crop to the same extent. On one year the attack is intense on the other year it may be moderate or mild. Therefore, one should take proper care while using these drags. Insecticides should be used only when the number of insects reach a particular level for a given crop. This way plant get more benefit and expenditure is also lowered.

Number of insects should not be allowed to increase from the specified value and do not allow these to damage the crop. Farmers should not get monetary loss due to unnecessary use of drugs. Sometime the signs of attack are counted and not the number of insects e.g. Stemborer in rice. Its attacked sites are counted and not actual number of insects.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 2.
Criticise the future of economic clinics.
Answer:
This is a competition age. Therefore, farmers should not allow the nutrient deficiencies to occur in their crops and also should take proper measures to protect the crop from diseases. This way he can earn more profit. The agriculture is now not limited only to state or country but has extended to international level. Produce has to be exported to other countries.

If produce is of good quality one can earn more profit. Help from plant clinic can be taken to maintain the proper quality of the crop. Nutrient deficiencies can be checked and proper fertilizers can be used to overcome the deficiencies. Amount of insecticide or fertilizers to be used can be calculated and expenditure on these poisons can be reduced. Unnecessary use of these poisons also harm the whole of environment Therefore, plant clinics have an important role to play in future.

Question 3.
Which facilities are available at plant clinic?
Answer:

  • Farmers are given technical knowledge at plant clinics.
  • Diagonsis of diseases is done, their symptoms are noted. Damage of crop by insects is also estimated.
  • Soil and water testing facility is also available.
  • Farmers can contact plant clinic through telephone, e-mail and whats app and can get solution to their problems.
  • Plant clinic has a diagnostic cum exhibition mobile van, which is used to reach villagers and films are shown to farmers having technical information.
  • PAU has started PAU messengers and KMAS service. Farmers can register their phone no. and e-mail with the plant clinic.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
Explain the need of plant clinic by telling its history.
Answer:
For the last few years there is an increase in number of students from cities who are seeking admission in higher education courses related to agriculture. These students do not have much of practical knowledge about agriculture works and when they go to the field work after getting higher education degrees, they face so many practical problems.

First plant disease clinic was set up by PAU Ludhiana in 1978 and later on PAU Ludhiana established central plant clinic in 1993. In different districts there are 18 agriculture science centres, where plant clinics are also running. These clinics have proved very useful for the students. Because of this principle farmers are getting knowledge and information about the nutritional deficiencies in their crops and protection against diseases, thus they are earning more profit.

Question 5.
What is plant clinic? What is the use of computer in plant clinic?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Marching Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Marching Game Rules.

Marching Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
What is marching?
Answer:
Marching:
1. Attention:
It is very important position. The ankle of the feet should be in line, making the 30° angle should be straight along with body, chest should be normal. Both the arms are attached with side of the body and finger should be little close.

2. The neck should be straight by looking ahead the body. Weight should be on both feet and respiration should be normal.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Stand at Ease:
Stand at ease position move left foot toward, left side at the distance 12″. The weight of the body should be on both legs and drag both the hands behind. His body and right hand would be under the left hand. The thumb of right hand should be under left hand. At ease position, both the hand should be stretched keeping the finger stretched.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2
Right Dress:
On the command of right dress, all students move ahead with right foot and get the position at the distance of 15″, but a student standing at right will remain standing, student in a first row raise right hand, left shoulders and move towards left. The fingers load others, students would stand to his right hand and other would follow, they would keep at the distance of 30″.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 3
Left Dress: On getting command left dress, all movement will be followed by left hand.

Left Turn:
In this exercise, student will stand in attention position and counting two. On counting one, student will turn left side at the 90° and on left toe and right finger will raise upward after this exercise. On counting two, will raise a foot 6″ and meet with other foot.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 4
Right Turn:
This exercise is performed on counting two as it is done on left turn. In the same way right ankle or left foot is done.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 5
About Turn:
On command of about turn, student will turn back from the right side at the degree of 180°, while taking turn left, foot will be raise and turn on right foot. The body weight should be parallel on both feet on counting two, student will turn left foot and will remain in attention position.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 6
Quick March:
On command quick march, student will take left foot ahead. This foot will drag near the earth keeping knee straight, in this same way, right foot will be followed. The finger of hand will close, this exercise is performed after taking right foot ahead and repeat again and again. The hand position with be contrast to it. This exercise will be continue on counting one and two.

Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Halt:
The command of halt is given, when right foot is the cross to the left foot. As command is given to students, as soon as will touch the left foot to the earth. Right leg will come to the parallel, and they will stand. Their both hands will be together and student will remain in attention position.