PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB The State Government Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
How many Chambers a State Legislative Assembly has? Give their names.
Answer:
In many states of India, the State Legislatures have one House. Some State Legislatures have two Houses. Where the State Legislature has two Houses, these are Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad. Where there is only one House, the name of the House is Vidhan Sabha pr Legislative Assembly.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions concerning State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
(a) The qualifications to become its member.
Answer:
Essential qualifications for a person to become the member of the Legislative Assembly or the Vidhan Sabha. Following are the essential qualifications for a person to become the member of the Vidhan Sabha :

  • He must be a citizen of India.
  • He must have completed 25 years of age.
  • He must not be either an insolvent or a bankrupt or of unsound fnind.
  • He must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the State Government.

(b) The maximum and minimum number of its members as per the Constitution.
Answer:
Number of Members. The number of members of the Vidhan Sabha is fixed by the Parliament on the basis of the population of the state concerned. It can have a maximum membership of 500 and a minimum of 60 persons.

(c) Mention the stages, an ordinary bill has to pass through.
Answer:
Stages of an ordinary bill. An ordinary bill, before becoming an act, has to pass through the following stages; At the first stage, the bill is introduced in the House and its first reading is done. At the second stage, a general discussion on each clause of the bill takes place. At the third stage, the debate is confined to the acceptance or rejection of the bill.

(d) The minimum age required to become the member of the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
Minimum age limit for the member of the Vidhan Sabha.
The minimum age limit for contesting election to the Vidhan Sabha is 25 years.

(e) How is the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly elected?
Answer:
Election of the Speaker. The Speaker presides over the meetings of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and maintains discipline and decorum in the House. He is elected by the House from amongst its own members.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
Answer the following questions concerning Legislative Council of a state :
(а) How many members can be there of the Legislative Council?
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Vidhan Parishad. The Vidhan Parishad is the upper House of the State Legislature. The maximum strength of this House is fixed at one-third of the membership of the Vidhan Sabha and a minimum of 40 members.

(b) Mention the term of the members of Legislative Council.
Answer:
Term of the members of Legislative Council.
The Legislative Council is a permanent house. The term of members is six years but one-third of its members retire after every two years.

(c) Mention the term of the members of Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The term of the members of Legislative Assembly is 5 years but the Assembly can be dismissed by the President by using Article 356 even before the completion of its term.

(d) Name four states where the Lagislative Council Exists.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh have Legislative Councils. It means these states have bicameral legislature.

Question 4.
Enumerate the four powers of the State Legislature.
Answer:
Following are the main powers of the State Legislature :

  • To exercise control over the Council of Ministers.
  • To pass the budget, and to impose, reduce or repeal taxes.
  • To make laws on the subjects included in the State List and the Concurrent List.
  • To punish those who violate the discipline of the House.

Question 5.
Do your state has bicameral legislatuse?
Answer:
Punjab has a unicameral legislature called Vidhan Sabha. Punjab has no Second Chamber or Vidhan Parishad.

Question 6.
How is the Governor of a State appointed?
Answer:
The Governor is the constitutional head of a state. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.

Question 7.
Who and how is a Chief Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor. He appoints a person who is the leader of the majority party in the State Vidhan Sabha.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 8.
Examine the role of the Governor during President’s rule in a state.
Answer:
If the President is satisfied either on the recommendation of the Governor or otherwise that the government cannot be carried on in a State in accordance with the Constitution, he declares constitutional emergency in the state. The Governor can dismiss the Council of Ministers and dissolve the Vidhan Sabha. He becomes the real head of the State.

Question 9.
Mention the term of the office of the Governor.
Answer:
The term of the Governor is five years. But before the expiry of this term, he can be removed from his office by the President. The President can ask him to hold this office even after five years of his term.

Question 10.
Name the three lists under which powers between union and states are distributed.
Answer:
There are three lists under which powers are divided between union government and state governments :

  • Union List. It contains 97 subjects on which only union government can make laws.
  • State List. This list contains 66 subjects on which state government can make laws.
  • Concurrent List. This list contains 47 subjects on which both union government and state governments can make laws. But in case of clash of laws, central law prevails.

Question 11.
What do you understand by Lok Adalats?
Answer:
Lok Adalats haye been set up in the country with a view to providing speedy and cheap justice to the poor. The first Lok Adalat held its session at Delhi on Oct. 6, 1985. It decided 150 cases in a single day.

Question 12.
When and who appoints Finance Commission?
Answer:
The president of India appoints the Finance Commission at the end of every fifth year or earlier, as the deemed necessary by him/her.

II. Answer the following questions in short :

Question 1.
Briefly describe the administrative powers of the Governor.
Or
Explain three powers of the Governor
Answer:
Following are the executive powers of the Governor of a state :

  • All executive actions of the State are taken in his name.
  • It is his responsibility to maintain law and order in the State. There is a provision for a Council of Ministers to assist hini in this work.
  • He appoints the Chief Minister, and on his advice, other ministers of his Council of Ministers.
  • He makes high appointments like those of the Advocate General, Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission, etc.
  • He is also consulted by the President in matters relating to the appointment of the judges for the High Court of his State.

Question 2.
Examine the process of appointment of the Council of Ministers in a state.
Answer:
The Constitution of India establishes Parliamentary form of government at the State level and at the Centre. The Governor, therefore, is a nominal head of the State. There is a provision for a Council of Ministers to assist him. The Council of Ministers is the real executive of the State. The Governor appoints a person as the Chief Minister who is the leader of the majority party in the Legislative Assembly. He also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. The Governor can neither delete nor add any new name to the list, given to him by the Chief Minister.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
Explain the discretionary powers of a Governor.
Answer:
The Governor has some powers which he can use on his own discretion. These are called his discretionary powers.

The Governor can exercise these powers in the following cases :

  • When no party holds a clear majority in the State Vidhan Sabha, he shall exercise his discretion in the appointment of the Chief Minister.
  • In the event of the failure of the constitutional machinery in the state, he may recommend the imposition of the President’s rule in his state.
  • To safeguard the interests of the Scheduled Castes and Tribes in his state.
  • To reserve any bill passed by the state legislature for the approval of the President.
  • The Governor can dismiss the ministry if he is convinced that it has lost the majority support.

Question 4.
How a declaration of the breakdown of constitutional machinery affects the State Government?
Answer:

  • The President can use all the powers or any of the executive powers of the state.
  • The powers taken over by him shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him. These powers are generally exercised by the state Governor.
  • He can suspend or dissolve the legislative assembly of the state.
  • The Parliament can make laws on any subject on the State list for that State.
  • The Parliament passes the annual budget of the state.
  • The Council of Ministers of the state is dismissed.

Question 5.
Distinguish between the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
There are the following differences between the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers :

  • The Council of Ministers consists of about 60 ministers, whereas the Cabinet has only 15-20 members.
  • The Cabinet is the inner part of the Council of Minister. That is why, it is commonly termed as wheel within a wheel.
  • The Cabinet formulates all the policies of the state whereas the Council of Ministers does not take part in policy making.
  • The meetings of the Cabinet are held once or twice a week but the meetings of the Council of Ministers are very rarely held.

Question 6.
Examine the four main functions of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
Following are the four main functions of the Council of Ministers :

  1. Formulation of Policies. The first important function of the Council of Ministers of a state is the formulation of the policies on the basis of which the administration of the state is to be conducted.
  2. Administration. The Council of Ministers is the real executive of the state. Each minister is made incharge of a department and it is his responsibility to run the administration of the department smoothly.
  3. Legislative functions. It is the Council of Ministers that decides the time of summoning and prorougation of the legislature. The Governor’s address is prepared by the council. Majority of the bills are introduced in the legislature by the Council of Ministers.
  4. Financial functions. It is the Council of Ministers which prepares the budget and decides the financial policy of the state. It decides which new taxes are to be imposed. It also decides which taxes are to be increased or decreased.

Question 7.
How a money bill becomes an Act in a State Legislature?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced by a minister only in the Vidhan Sabha. In a State, which has bicameral legislature, the money bill, after being passed by the Vidhan Sabha, is sent to the Vidhan Parishad. The Vidhan Parishad can keep pending the money bill for 14 days. After this, it sends the bill to Vidhan Sabha with or without its suggestions. The Vidhan Sabha has power to reject or accept these suggestions. Then the bill passed by the Vidhan Sabha is sent to the Governor for approval. The bill, after getting the assent of the Governor, becomes an act.

Question 8.
Explain the original jurisdiction or administrative powers of a High Court.
Answer:
Some cases can be brought before the High Court directly. This is called the original jurisdiction of the High Court. The High Court has original jurisdictions in the following cases :

  1. Any case regarding the fundamental rights can be brought directly to the High Court. The High Court is empowered to issue five kinds of writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
  2. The State High Courts like the Supreme Court can strike down any law passed by the State Legislature or the Parliament or any order of the executive if it violates any provision of the Constitution.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 9.
Describe the Appellate jurisdiction of a High Court.
Answer:

  • The High Court can hear appeals against the decision of the lower courts in most of the revenue and criminal cases.
  • The High Court can hear appeals in criminal cases in which the accused has been sentenced to four years imprisonment by the Sessions Judge. The Sessions Judge of a district court can award death sentence in criminal cases. But such a sentence is subject to the confirmation of the High Court.

Question 10.
‘A High Court is a Court of Record’. How?
Answer:
According to Article 251, every State High Court is a Court of Record, and as such its decisions are recorded and the courts subordinate to it accept these decisions as judicial precedents.

Question 11.
Examine the organization and main functions of the Lok Adalats.
Answer:
Lok Adalats. The Lok Adalats have been set up in the country with a view to providing speedy and cheap justice to the poor. Justice P.N. Bhagwati is regarded as its founder. The first Lok Adalat held its session at Delhi in October 6, 1985 and settled many cases in a single day. Our courts have heavy work-load. Lakhs of cases are pending. The system provides the simplest way to file a petition for a poor citizen in the Lok Adalat through a simple letter written on a postcard. In 1987, these Lok Adalats got legal recognition.

Question 12.
Describe briefly the relations between the Union and States on one of the following :
(a) Legislative Relations
(b) Administrative Relations
(c) Financial Relations.
Answer:
(а) Legislative Relations. The union legislature can make laws on the subjects given in the Union list and Concurrent list while the State Legislature can make laws on the State list and the Concurrent list. Only the Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List as well as the Concurrent List during the declaration of emergency in the State (Art. 356).

(b) Administrative Relations. The administrative powers of the State shall be so exercised that they do not come into conflict with executive powers of the Centre. The Union government can issue instructions to the States for that purpose if it thinks it necessary. The executive powers of the union government shall also extend to the giving of directions to a state regarding the construction and maintenance .of the means of communication declared to be of national and military importance.

(c) Financial Relations. The sources of income are divided between the Centre and the States. The important sources of income of the Central Government are such as

  • Customs and export duties.
  • Income tax.
  • Estate duty.
  • Interstate trade tax.

Sources of Income of the States are such as :

  • Land revenue
  • House tax
  • Taxes on succession to agricultural land
  • V.A. tax.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide The State Government Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Where is Punjab High Court located?
Answer:
Punjab High Court is located at Chandigarh.

Question 2.
How many States and Union Territories are there in the Indian Republic?
Answer:
There are twenty-eight States and eight Union Territories in India.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
On what basis have the states been classified?
Answer:
In India, the states have been organised on a linguistic basis.

Question 4.
What is called a Union Territory?
Answer:
An administrative unit the administration of which is under the Union Government.

Question 5.
On which lists of subjects can the State Government make laws?
Answer:
The State Legislature can make laws on the subjects in the State list and Concurrent list.

Question 6.
In which House can a money bill be introduced?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced only in the Vidhan Sabha.

Question 7.
Who is the real head of a State Government?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is the real head of a State Government.

Question 8.
Mention two qualifications for the office of the Governor.
Answer:
He must be a citizen of India and must have completed 35 years of age.

Question 9.
Write any one executive power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Governor is the executive head of the State.

Question 10.
Mention any one legislative function of the Governor.
Answer:
He summons, adjourns and prorogues the State Legislature.

Question 11.
Mention any one financial power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Budget of the State is presented to the Legislative Assembly in his name.

Question 12.
Write any one judicial power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Governor is consulted by the President in the appointment of the judges of the High Court.

Question 13.
How many minimum sessions of the State Legislature must be held in a year?
Answer:
The State Legislature must hold at least two sessions in a year.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 14.
Who is the chipf adviser of the Governor?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is the chief adviser of the Governor.

Question 15.
Write any one power of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
The Chief Minister prepares a list of the ministers and sends it to the Governor for approval.

Question 18.
What is the number of members of the Punjab Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
The Punjab Legislative Assembly consists of 117 members.

Question 17.
Who can appoint the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor is appointed by the President of India.

Question 18.
Who appoints the Chief Minister?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.

Question 19.
What is the tenure of the Governor?
Answer:
The tenure of the Governor is five years.

Question 20.
What is tenure of Legislative Council?
Answer:
Legislative Council is a permanent body. Its one-third members retire by rotation after every two years and these members can be re-elected. The tenure of each member is six years.

Question 21.
What is the name of the Governor of the Punjab?
Answer:
V.P. Singh Bednore.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
There are _________ States in India.
Answer:
28

Question 2.
There are _________ Union Territories in India.
Answer:
8

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
In Punjab there is _________ Legislature.
Answer:
unicameral

Question 4.
The _________ is the Chief advisor of the Governor.
Answer:
Chief Minister

Question 5.
The Governor is appointed by the _________
Answer:
President

Question 6.
The tenure of the Governor is _________
Answer:
five

Question 7.
The Chief Minister is appointed by the _________
Answer:
Governor

Question 8.
The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the _________
Answer:
President

Question 9.
The strength of the Punjab Legislative Assembly is _________
Answer:
117

Question 10.
The Judges of the High Court retire at the age of _________ years.
Answer:
sixty-two

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 11.
The constitutional head of the state is _________
Answer:
Governor

Question 12.
The Legislative Council is a _________ House.
Answer:
Permanent

Question 13.
The tenure of the Legislative Assembly is _________ years.
Answer:
five.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The Governor of a state is :
(a) Head of Govt.
(b) Head of the State
(c) Head of the Union Territory
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Head of the State

Question 2.
Two Houses of the State Legislature are :
(а) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) Legislative Council and Lok Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council
(d) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(c) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council

Question 3.
Who is the constitutional head of the state?
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(a) Governor

Question 4.
The term of office of the Governor is :
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 6 years.
Answer:
(b) 5 years

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 5.
The tenure of the Legistative Assembly in normal time is :
(a) 4 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years.
Answer:
(d) 5 years.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the composition of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
Answer:
The Vidhan Sabha consists of the members directly elected by the people of the State on the basis of adult franchise. According to the Constitution, its maximum membership shall not exceed 500 and shall not be below 60. A citizen having attained the age of 25 years is eligible to be elected to this house. The tenure of the Vidhan Sabha is five years. This house has a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker to conduct its meetings. The House elects them from among its members.

Question 2.
How is the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) organised?
Answer:
The membership of the Vidhan Parishad cannot exceed one-third of the membership of the Vidhan Sabha with a minimum of 40 members. Its members are elected or nominated as under:

  • 1/3rd members are elected by the Vidhan Sabha from amongst persons who are not its members.
  • 1/3rd members are elected by the local bodies of the state.
  • 1/12th of members are elected by persons of at least three years’ standing as teachers in educational institutions not lower in standard than that of a secondary school.
  • 1/12th of members are elected by the university graduates of at least three years’ standing in the state.
  • 1/6th members are nominated by the Governor from amongst persons possessing special knowledge and experience in the fields of arts, literature, science, etc.

Question 3.
Describe the position of the Governor as a representative of the Central Government.
Answer:
The Governor of an Indian State is the head of the State but he is the representative of the Centre also. The following facts prove it :

  1. He acts as a link between Central Government and the State Government. He can reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President.
  2. If the Governor feels that administration of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, he can recommend to the President to declare emergency arising due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state. In that case, the President may impose President’s Rule in that state.
  3. The State Vidhan Sabha and the Council of Ministers may be suspended or dissolved. During the emergency the Governor acts as a representative of the Central Government. He runs the administration with the help of an Advisory Council.

Question 4.
Mention the grounds on the basis of which the Governor can recommend President’s rule in the state.
Answer:
The Governor can recommend to the President for the imposition of President’s rule in his state if he is satisfied that :

  1. the constitutional machinery has broken down in the state; and
  2. the ruling party has lost the support of the majority of legislators.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the ‘Union Territories’.
Answer:
There are, at present, eight Union Territories apart from the 2S States. Since the area and population covered by them is small, so these are not given the status of a full-fledged state. The administration of the Union Territories is under the control of the President acting through a Lt. Governor or a Chief Commissioner. The Parliament may constitute, for every such territory, a Council of Advisors to the Chief Commissioner which may partly be elected and partly nominated.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 6.
List out three similarities in the organisation of Central and the State Governments.
Answer:
The following are three similarities with regard to the organisation of Central and State Governments :

  1. The Constitution’ establishes the parliamentary form of government both at the Centre and in the units.
  2. Both at the Centre and in the States there exists’ independent impartial judicial system with a single hierarchy of coy^s to administer justice on, both the Union and the State laws.
  3. The legislature of the Centre is bicameral and so it is in many states such as Bihar, Tamilnadu, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh.

Question 7.
List out three dissimilarities in the organisation of the Centre and State Governments.
Answer:
The following are the three dissimilarities with regard to the organisation of Central and State Governments :

  1. The head of the state at the centre is an elected President; but the Governor, the head of the state, is nominated.
  2. The central legislature is bicameral but most of the states have unicameral legislatures.
  3. There is no office like that of the Vice-President in the States.

Question 8.
Give four non-legislative functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
The following are the non-legislative functions of the State Legislature :

  1. The State Legislature exercises control over the finances of the State.
  2. The Legislature’deliberates on the no-confidence motion against the Government.
  3. The elected members of the State Legislature elect the members of Rajya Sabha.
  4. Each of the Houses of the Legislature elects its own Chairman and Deputy Chairman.

Question 9.
Mention three major legislative functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The following are the legislative functions of the Governor :

  1. He summons, adjourns and prorogues the State Legislature.
  2. All bills passed by the legislature are sent to him for his approval.
  3. He can issue ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 10.
Mention three major executive functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The following are the executive functions of the Governor :

  1. He appoints the Chief Minister and on his advice the other ministers.
  2. He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the Chairman and the members of the Public Service Commission and other officials of the State.
  3. The Chief Minister informs the Governor about all decisions of the Council of Ministers and supplies him information relating to the administration of the State.

Question 11.
Mention the four major functions of the State Governments.
Answer:
The State Governments perform the following functions :

  1. The most important function of each State Government is to maintain law and order in its State.
  2. It is also the function of the State Government to provide the citizens with basic amenities of life.
  3. It provides educational facilities to its citizens.
  4. The Government is also expected to look after the economic welfare of the citizens by undertaking development programmes.

Question 12.
Explain three powers of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Following are the powers of the Chief Minister :

  1. Appointment of the Minister*. The Chief Minister prepares a list of his Ministers and sends it to the Governor.
  2. Distribution of Portfolios. The Chief Minister distributes the portfolios among the ministers.
  3. Removal of Ministers. He can ask a minister to resign. If that minister refuses to resign, the Chief Minister can ask the Governor to remove him from the Cabinet.
  4. Head of the Council of Ministers. The Chief Minister calls the meetings of the Council of Ministers and presides over the meetings.

Question 13.
Describe the position of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Position of the Chief Minister, In fact, the Chief Minister is the most important and powerful authority in the State. There is no field of the State administration which is not under the control of the Chief Minister. A minister remains in office so long as he continues to enjoy the confidence of the Chief Minister. He is the pivot around which the whole administration of the state revolves.

Question 14.
Discuss the administrative powers of the High Court.
Answer:
Following are the administrative powers of the High Court:

  • It exercises the power of superintendence and control over all the subordinate courts.
  • It makes rules and regulations for the transaction of business of the subordinate courts.
  • It frames rules for the promotion of the judges.

Question 15.
Write a note on the District Courts.
Answer:
For the convenience of judicial administration, a state is divided into districts. There are subordinate courts in every district which are under, the control of the District and Sessions Judge. The District and Sessions Judge is appointed by the State Governor in consultation with the High Court. A person to be eligible for appointment to the post of District and Sessions Judge should be an advocate of at least 7 years’ standing or should have served in the central or state government. The High Court exercises control over the district courts.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 16.
What are the unitary features of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has created a very strong Centre. There are three Lists : Central List, State List and Concurrent List, distributing the powers between the Centre and the States. The Central Government has a large number of powers. It has co-equal powers with the States to legislate on the Concurrent List and in the event of any difference between the Centre and the State, on any law, the central law prevails. The residuary powers are also with the Centre.

During the emergency the Centre gets powers to legislate even on State List. Yet another implication of the declaration of emergency in the country is that the federal structure turns into unitary one, thus making the Centre all powerful.

Question 17.
How have the powers of government been divided between the Union and the States?
Answer:
Powers of the government have clearly been divided between the onion and the states. There are three different lists of the Subjects:

  1. The Union List. There are 97 subjects in the Union list. Only Union Government can make laws on these subjects. The main subjects, are Railways, Post and Telegraph, Coinage and Currency, Defence, and Foreign Affairs.
  2. The State List. There are 66 subjects in this list. The state governments make laws on them. The main subjects are law and order, police, agriculture, irrigation, and public works.
  3. The Concurrent List. There are 47 subjects on the concurrent list such as Family Planning, Marriage and Divorce, control over press, Education etc. In this list are those subjects on which both the Centre and the States can make laws. But if the two laws are contradictory, the law made by the Centre prevails.

Question 18.
Discuss the relationship between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The Governor is the executive head of the State. He is the nominal head of the State. He is to act on the advice of the State Council of Ministers. The Governor cannot act according to his discretion while appointing the Chief Minister and other members of the Council of Ministers. Only the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly is appointed the Chief Minister by him. However, if no party gets clear majority, he is at liberty to appoint the Chief Minister. Other ministers are appointed by him on the advice of the Chief Minister. He distributes portfolios among the ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. But under certain circumstances, he becomes the real head of the state. He acts as the agent of the centre in the state in times of Constitutional Emergency. He also enjoys certain discretionary powers.

Question 19.
What are the powers of the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor has many legislative, executive, financial and judicial powers.

  • He organises the Council of Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister,
  • He appoints members of the State Public Service Commission,
  • The bills passed by the State Legislature are sent to him for assent.
  • Before the start of every financial year, he causes to be laid through the Finance Minister annual Budget before the Legislature,
  • He advises the President about’ the appointment of the judges of the High Court,
  • He can reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President. He can send report to the President with regard to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the State.

Question 20.
Describe the powers of State Legislature.
Answer:
1. Legislative Powers. It can legislate on all subjects included in the state list and concurrent list as well. If its legislation on some subjects of the concurrent list is contrary to the parliamentary law then it becomes null and void to the extent it is contrary to that.

2. Financial Powers. It has complete control over the financial affairs of the state. The finance minister presents the state budget before the legislative assembly every year. To impose or reduce or abolish all taxes is within its executive powers.

3. Executive Powers. The. council of ministers headed by Chief Minister is the real executive and it is directly and collectively responsible to the legislative assembly.

4. Miscellaneous functions,

  • Members of the legislative assembly participate in the election of the President and the Vice President of India.
  • The legislative assembly elects its own Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
  • It can create a contingency fund of the State which is controlled by the (Governor.
  • It can suspend its own members if they disrupt the proceedings of the House.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 21.
Explain the original jurisdiction and powers regarding*the fundamental rights of the High Court.
Answer:
Some cases can directly be brought to a High Court. They are cases relating to fundamental rights, wills, divorce, marriages, contempt of court etc. Election disputes can also be heard by the High Court. The High Courts of Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai can hear civil cases of a value exceeding Rs. 20,00Q or more.

In case regarding fundamental rights, the High Court can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
The High Court can declare unconstitutional any law passed by the State Legislature or any executive order of a State Government which it finds violative of any of the provisions of the Constitution. Laws declared unconstitutional by a High Court cannot be enforced.

Question 22.
How is a money bill passed in a State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced in a State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha). After a bill is passed by it, the bill is sent to Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) which can delay it for 14 days only.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How many species of rodents are there in Punjab?
Answer:
8 types.

Question 2.
In which area of Punjab Indian bush rat is found?
Answer:
Dry and sandy areas.

Question 3.
How much damage is caused to germinating winter maize by rodents?
Answer:
10.7%.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
At how many locations poison bait should be placed in one acre?
Answer:
At 40 locations at the rate of 10 grams of bait at a point

Question 5.
Name the two reodent eating beneficial birds.
Answer:
Owl and eagle.

Question 6.
Name the bird causing maximum damage to crops. Or Which is the most harmful bird in agriculture?
Answer:
Parrot (Rose ringed parakeet)

Question 7.
How much should be the height of scare crow from the crop?
Answer:
One metre more than the height of crop.

Question 8.
Name any one chemical used for killing rodents.
Answer:
Zinc phosphide.

Question 9.
Where does lapwing make its nest?
Answer:
On the ground.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 10.
What does Hoopoe eat its diet?
Answer:
Insects.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Why we need to protect the agricultural products from harmful animals?
Answer:
Development in the agriculture field can be maintained if agriculture produce is stored properly and protected from harmful animals, birds etc. It is necessary to protect the produce from the pests.

Question 2.
Describe the method of pre-baiting for rodents.
Answer:
To trap more rodents it becomes necessary to prebait the rodents. For this purpose place bait in each cage consisting of 10 to 15 gram pearl millet, sorghum or cracked wheat, which contains two per cent of powdered sugar and two ppr cent of groundnut or sunflower oil, for 2-3 days.

Question 3.
How to reduce the ill effect of Bromadiolone in human being?
Answer:
Effect of bromadiolone can be reduced by using vitamin K as antidote. Use this vitamin under the supervision of ajdoctor.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
How the anti rat campaign can help in eradication of rats at village level? .
Answer:
It is of no use to eradicate rats in a smaller area. Because rats will come again from the neighbouring field or area. To get best results there should be rat killing campaign at village level. Under this campaign rodents are killed collectively in whole of the village at all the locations e.g. in orchards, in cultivated, uncultivated, forestry land etc.

Question 5.
What do you mean by scarecrow? What is its role in crop protection?
Answer:
Take a small pitcher, draw human face on it using colour. This pitcher is made to hang on the sticks fixed vertically in the fields. Put on human clothes on this structure. This is known as scarecrow. Birds consider this structure as human being and do not come to the field.

Question 6.
How the oil seed crop can be protected from parakeet damage?
Answer:
Parrot has little communal association with crows. Therefore to keep the parrots away from the fields, hang 1-2 dead crows/their dumies at sites of frequent bird damage. This way we can protect oilseed crops from parrots.

Question 7.
Why the crop should not be sown at the place having dense trees?
Answer:
Birds have their nests on the trees. If maize and sunflower crops are sown near such sites where birds come and go very easily and very frequently then birds can easily damage the crop. Therefore, crop should not be sown near the places having dense trees.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 8.
How the beneficial birds help farmers in protecting the crops?
Answer:
Rats are the prey for owls, hawks, falcon, eagles etc. Birds like drongos, blue joy, cattle egret, lapwings etc. are insects eating birds. These eat many of the harmful insects from the fields.

Question 9.
How do you identify the Cattle Egret?
Answer:
It is a white coloured bird and its beak is yellow. This bird is seen preying on insects behind the tractor or oxen during ploughing.

Question 10.
What do you know about the precautions to be taken during use of poisonous bait?
Answer:
Precautions while-using poisonous baits:

  • Use a stick or Khurpa for mixing the ingredients of bait while preparing. Otherwise use rubber gloves. Protect eyes, nose and mouth from the bait;
  • Keep rodenticides and poisonous bait away from the reach of children and domestic animals.
  • Never prepare baits in household utensils.
  • Use polythene bags for carrying baits and after use bury these bags under the earth.
  • Killed rats along with baits should be buried deep under the earth.
  • Zinc phosphide is very poisonous for humans. In case of accidental ingestion induce vomitting by inserting fingers in the mouth upto throat and rash to doctor.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
How many types of rodents are there in Punjab? Describe the rodent species found in various areas of Punjab.
Answer:
In Punjab there are 8 species of rats and mice. Indian gerbil, Indian bush rat, Indian mole rat, soft furred field rat, short tailed mole rat, house mouse, brown spiny mouse, field mouse. The Indian mole rat can damage sugarcane and rice-wheat at the time of germinating. Indian mole rat is found mostly in bet area whereas Indian gerbil and Indian bush rat are found in Kandi region (district Hoshiarpur)

Question 2.
Describe the two methods of preparation of poisonous bait.
Answer:
1. 2% zinc phosphide bait:
Take 1 kg of bajra or sorghum or cracked wheat with 20 gram of vegetable oil (sunflower or groundnut oil), and 25 gram of zinc phosphide. Mix all these materials thoroughly. Always prepare fresh bait and never add water to this bait.

2. 0.005% Bromadiolone bait:
Take 20 gram of vegetable oil, (sunflower or groundnut oil), 20 gram powdered sugar and 20 gram bromadiolone powder and 1 kg of cracked wheat or any other cereal flour. Mix this material properly, bait is ready for use.

Question 3.
How to manage rodents by integrated management methods?
Answer:
Using only one method to control rats is not very effective. Rats multiply themselves quickly by giving birth to offsprings. Therefore, use more than one method to kill rats. Rats coming out from flooded burrows should be killed using sticks. After sowing of a crop use chemical methods to kill rats. After pre-baiting also put some gas tablets in the burrows. After zinc phosphide if needed use bromadiolone.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
Describe the traditional methods used for protection of crops from birds.
Answer:

  • Sow Dhaincha and Bajra near the costly crops to save the crops from birds. Birds like to eat bajra and dhaincha. Birds prefer these crops as their feed and main crop is saved.
  • Do not sow crops like sunflower near the places where birds usually visit e.g. near the electricity wires and near the dense trees.
  • To save maize and sunflower from Parrots, sow these crops at least in two-three acres of area. Parrots do not go inside the crop and does not harm the crop to large extent.

Question 5.
Describe the mechanical method of protecting crop from birds.
Answer:
1. Making explosions: Make false gun shots at different time intervals to scare the birds.

2. Using scarecrow:
Take a small pitcher, draw human face on it using colour. This pitcher is made to hang on the sticks fixed vertically in the fields. Put on human clothes on this structure. This is known as scarecrow. Birds consider this structure as human being and do not come to the field.

3. Hanging dead crows:
Parrot has little communal association with crows. Therefore, to keep the parrots away from the fields, hang 1-2 dead crows/their dumies at sites of frequent bird damage. This way we protect oilseed crops from parrots.

4. Using rope-crackers:
Tie fire crackers on a rope at 6-8 inch distance. Ignite the lower end of the rope. Explosions caused by fire crackers at different intervals scare the birds and the birds fly away. Fix the rope in the centre at the time of germination and at the boundaries of the field at the time of maturity.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Friendly birds are:
(a) Lapwing
(b) Blue Joy
(c) Drongo
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 2.
Rats eaten by an owl in a day.
(a) 4-5
(b) 8-10
(c) 1-2
(d) All.
Answers:
(a) 4-5

Question 3.
Where does red mattled lapwing (tatihri) make its nest?
(a) on ground
(b) on trees
(c) in water
(d) None.
Answers:
(a) on ground

Question 4.
Chemical used to kill rats is:
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium chloride
(c) Zinc phosphide
(d) All.
Answers:
(c) Zinc phosphide

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 5.
How many types of birds are found in Punjab?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 300
(d) 50.
Answers:
(c) 300

Question 6.
Which bird makes its nest in the cavities of the trees?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-wattled lapwing
(c) Cattle egret
(d) House sparrow.
Answers:
(a) Hoopoe

Question 7.
Which bird makes its nest on ground?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-watded Lapwing
(c) Cattle Egret
(d) Blue Joy.
Answers:
(b) Red-watded Lapwing

Question 8.
Which bird makes its nest in groups on the top of the trees?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-wattled lapwing
(c) Cattle egret
(d) Owl.
Answers:
(c) Cattle egret

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 9.
How much damage is caused to sprouting wheat by rodents?
(a) 2.9%
(b) 10.7%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 1.1%.
Answers:
(a) 2.9%

True False:

1. Blue Joy has insects as its main diet.
Answers:
True

2. Eight type of rodents and mice are found in the fields of Punjab.
Answers:
True

3. Rose-ringed parakeet is most harmful bird in the field of agriculture.
Answers:
True

4. Zinc Phoshide is used to kill cats.
Answers:
True

5. Owl, Falcon are friendly birds for a farmer.
Answers:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Fill in the blanks:

1. Scare crow should be atleast ………………… higher than the crop.
Answers:
one metre

2. For trapping rodents place ………………….. traps per acre in the field.
Answers:
16

3. ………………………….. percent of total bird species in India are useful to agriculture.
Answers:
3. 98

4. ………………………. bird has a yellow beak.
Answers:
Cattle egret.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where does rats live?
Answer:
Rats live in Burrows.

Question 2.
Which species of rats are found in areas of sugarcane and wheat rice and bet areas?
Answer:
Indian mole rat.

Question 3.
Which rat is found in Kandi region?
Answer:
Gerbil rat.

Question 4.
Which rats are found in Kandi region?
Answer:
Indian Bush rats.

Question 5.
How much damage is done by rats at the time of sprouting and maturity?
Answer:
At the time of sprouting is 2.9%. At the time of maturity is 4.5%.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 6.
How much damage is done to peas by rats at the time of maturity?
Answer:
1.1%.

Question 7.
How much damage is done by rats in bet area at the time of maturity of wheat?
Answer:
25%.

Question 8.
How will you kill rats which are coming out of flooded burrows?
Answer:
Kill with sticks.

Question 9.
How many traps per acre should be placed for trapping rats?
Answer:
16 traps.

Question 10.
After how many days cages should be used again for trapping rats?
Answer:
After 30 days.

Question 11.
For how much area one kg of zinc phosphide bait be used?
Answer:
2.5 acre.

Question 12.
What is natural method to control rats?
Answer:
Rats are the prey for owls, kites, hawks, falcons, eagles, snakes, cats, mongooses, jackals, etc.

Question 13.
How many species of birds are found in Punjab?
Answer:
300 species.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 14.
What is the worth in Rs. of rice which are eaten by doves, Pigeons and weaving bird?
Answer:
Worth rupees 2 crore.

Question 15.
After how many days should the direction, clothes and location of the scarecrow be changed?
Answer:
After ten days.

Question 16.
How many rats are eaten by an owl?
Answer:
4-5 rats in a day.

Question 17.
For how many times a single pair of house sparrow feeds its chick?
Answer:
250 times.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What should we do to save birds around us?
Answer:

  • We should plant conventional trees like, Banyan, Peepal, Kikkar, Tahli, Toot etc. around our living area.
  • We should provide place for nests by placing wooden or earthen pots wherever possible.

Question 2.
Write about Neelkanth.
Answer:
It has pale blue abdomen and breast is rufous brown. It is of the size of blue rock pigeon. It feeds on insects. Its nest is in the cavities of the trees.

Question 3.
Write about Red-wattled Lapwing.
Answer:
Its head, bieast and neck are black in colour. It is bronze brown from above and white from below. It feeds on insects and snails. It makes its nest on ground.

Question 4.
How are the crops protected by using scarecrows (Darna)?
Answer:
See in above questions.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give chemical methods of killing rodents (rats).
Answer:
See above question.

Question 2.
Give mechanical methods to protect crops from rats.
Answer:
Following mechanical methods are used:

  • Killing rats-After harvesting, at the time of Rauni rats come out from the flooded burrows which are killed by sticks.
  • Using cage/traps-See above questions.
  • Using bait-See above questions.

Question 3.
How traps and cages can be used to protect crop from rodents?
Answer:
Kill the trapped rats by drowning in water and the interval between two trapping in the same location should not be less than 30 days. P.A.U. has developed double chambered multi-catch trap with tunnel type entrance. Many rats can be trapped at a time. Place 16 traps for an acre at runways and activity sites of rats in the fields, also place traps in homes, poultry farms, godowns, stores etc. Place one trap for 4 to 8 square metre along the walls, comers of rooms, grain storing places and behind the boxes.

In cold stores wrap the traps in newspapers before placing. For catching rats pre-baiting is done. For this purpose put in each cage/trap bait consisting of 10 to 15 grams of bajra or sorghum or cracked wheat, which contains 2% of powdered sugar and 2% of groundnut or sunflower oil. This should be done for 2-3 days. Thus by using traps crops can be saved from damage by rats.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
Why we should not kill birds useful for crops?
Answer:
Useful birds include insectivorous and rodentivorous birds. They feed insects to their young ones. Predatory birds; like, owl, eagle, falcons etc. eat rats and mice. An owl can eat 4-5 rats a day. These birds help the farmers by killing insects and rodents. We should not kill such useful birds.

Question 5.
What do you know about the precautions to be taken during the uses of poison bait?
Answer:

  • Poison bait should be kept away from the reach of children, domestic animals, pets and birds.
  • Save the mouth, eyes and skin from the poison b&t.
  • Never use household utensils for the preparation of poison bait.
  • Use polythene bags for storage and carrying these poison baits. Bury them after use.
  • Collect and burry the left over poison bait and the dead rats aways from the field.

Question 6.
How will you identify the woodpecker?
Answer:
It has a long beak, which has a little bend. It has lines on its feathers, body and tail of white and black colour. It has cockscomb also.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Certified Seed Production Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Write names of two Mexican wheat varieties which were introduced in India in sixties.
Answer:
Lerma Roso, Sonora-64.

Question 2.
Write name of machine which is used for cleaning of seed.
Answer:
Seed grader.

Question 3.
Write name of two recently recommended varieties of wheat.
Answer:
W.H. 1105, PBW 621.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 4.
How many tags are stitched on a bag of certified seed?
Answer:
Two – green and blue.

Question 5.
What is the colour of tag which is used to label foundation seed?
Answer:
White tag.

Question 6.
Write full form of T.L.
Answer:
Truthfully Labelled.

Question 7.
In which year seed act was passed?
Answer:
In the year 1966.

Question 8.
What is the minimum germination per cent of certified wheat seed?
Answer:
Not less than 85%.

Question 9.
Give minimum purity of certified seeds of rice.
Answer:
98%.

Question 10.
Write one important yield contributary hereditary trait of cotton plant.
Answer:
Number of cotton bolls, average weight of cotton bolls.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the objectives of seed act? When was this regulated?
Answer:
The objective of seed act was to provide right pedigree seeds at lower cost to the farmers. This act was enacted in year 1966.

Question 2.
List two important hereditary and yield contributory traits of cotton plant.
Answer:
Heredity qualities of cotton crop are – number of cotton bolls, average weight Of cotton bolls, number of branches bearing fruit etc.

Question 3.
Define foundation seed.
Answer:
Certified seeds are produced from foundation seeds and foundation seeds shall be the progeny of breeder seeds.

Question 4.
Write full name of agency which certifies the quality of seed.
Answer:
Punjab State Seed Certification Authority has the authority to certify seeds.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 5.
List three important yield contributory traits of wheat plant.
Answer:
Some of the yield contributory traits of wheat plants are – number of branches per plant, number of grains per ear, weight of grains, length of ear etc.

Question 6.
Who produces breeder seed?
Answer:
The agency which has researched and discovered the variety, produces nuclear seeds and then produces breeder seed from nuclear seed.

Question 7.
List three parameters of physical quality of seeds. .
Answer:
Physical appearance qualities – colour of seed, shape, weight etc.

Question 8.
Define a certified seed.
Answer:
Those seeds which are produced according to the standards set by Punjab State Seed Certification Agency and also under their supervision are called certified seeds.

Question 9.
What is the importance of isolation distance in seed production?
Answer:
The crop which is used for seed production should be separated from the same crop species by some minimum distance. This way seed quality and standard can be maintained and affect of other crop can be avoided.

Question 10.
Why removal of off types from a seed crop is so important?
Answer:
The seed we get is of high quality and is free from mechanical mixing.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Differentiate hereditary traits from phenotype or physical quality traits.
Answer:
Physical quality traits:
Colour of seed, shape, weight, free from breakage, free from garbage, free from weeds and free from other seeds etc. are some of qualities which a high quality seed should have.

Hereditary traits:
These are the qualities which cannot be seen externally. These are the hidden qualities, which are carried on from one crop to the other crop. These are called genetic traits. Different plants have different genetic qualities. The difference we see in different varieties of the same crop are due to genetic qualities.

Question 2.
List three important field standards in seed production.
Answer:

  • Isolation of seed.crop from other crops.
  • Number of off-plants in the seed crop.
  • Number of diseased plants in the seed crop.

Question 3.
Explain seed standards for a certified seed production.
Answer:
There are two types of standards which are to be followed to produce certified seeds:
(1) Standards to be followed for the seed crop in the field.
(2) Standards of the seed.

(1) Standards to be followed for the seed crop in the field:

  • Isolation of seed crop from other crops.
  • Number of off-plants in the seed crop.
  • Number of diseased plants in the seed crop.

(2) Standards of the seed:
By testing the seed in the laboratory we can check the standards. These standards are like:

  • seed germination
  • physical purity of seed.
  • number of diseased seeds
  • number of seeds of weeds in the seeds, seeds of other crops.
  • moisture per cent in seed.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 4.
Explain procedure for certified seed production on commercial scale.
Answer:
1. One should get proper and full knowledge and information about seed production and Marketing (sound knowledge and required expertise). Such a training can be obtained from P.A.U. Ludhiana, Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK), department of agriculture, Punjab State Seed Certification Authority, PUNSEED etc.

2. Choosing crop whose seed is to be produced, Make a proper plan for necessary infrastructure required for seed production and marketing etc.

3. To establish a firm and get seed licence from the department of agriculture.

4. Some of the basic requirements are seed grading machine for cleaning of seed threshing floor, store, bag closer machine, bags for packing seeds.

5. We can get foundation seed from director seeds, P.A.U. Ludhiana. Bill for seed should be in the name of firm or company and it is necessary.

6. Get the crop as recommended from the foundation seed and get registered the crop with department of Punjab State Seed Certification Authority.

7. Keep on removing by pulling out the plants which are off-type plants, diseased plants, weed plants. The above mentioned department supervise/observe the crop for two-three times.

8. Harvest the crop, clean it and pack it properly. Do all these activities under the supervision of PSSCA. Put on proper tags on the seed bags.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 5.
List important points for starting seed production enterprise.
Answer:
Following points should followed for starting seed production enterprise:

  • Choose a crop that will give good returns and is easy to produce the seeds of this crop or not.
  • Choose the crop suited to the area and which can be cultivated by you.
  • Choose the crop whose seed is consumed in large quantity, e.g. wheat.
  • Become registered farmer with PUNSEED.
  • Whichever seeds you want to produce, gain sound knowledge and expertise to produce such seeds.
  • One can earn good profit by producing hybrid seeds, but it needs hardwork, proper training and patience.
  • Basic infrastructure is required which is a costly affair. Basic infrastructure consists of store, threshing floor, seed grader and other machines.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Certified Seed Production Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Categories of seeds are:
(a) Primary
(b) Breeder
(c) Foundation and certified
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 2.
Which colour tag is put on the foundation seed bag?
(a) White
(b) Blue
(c) Red
(d) Yellow.
Answers:
(a) White

Question 3.
Which colour tag is put on the bag of breeder seeds?
(a) Golden
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue.
Answers:
(a) Golden

Question 4.
New varieties of wheats which are disease free:
(a) WH1105
(b) PBW621
(c) HD3086
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 5.
Which colour tag by Government is put on the certified seed bag?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) None.
Answers:
(a) Blue

Question 6.
Which colour tag is put on bag of breeder seeds?
(a) Golden
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue.
Answers:
(b) White

Question 7.
How many tags are put on the bag of certified seeds?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 4.
Answers:
(a) 2

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 8.
What should be the minimum purity of certified seeds of paddy?
(a) 98%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 13%.
Answers:
(a) 98%

True False:

1. Hereditary traits are determined by genetic factors.
Answers:
True

2. PBW 621 is a variety of wheat.
Answers:
True

3. Bags with certified seeds bear two tags.
Answers:
True

4. Lerma Roso is a Mexican wheat variety.
Answers:
True

5. Certified seeds of rice must have minimum 98% purity.
Answers:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Fill in the blanks:

1. Number of tillers per plant is a trait for wheat.
Answers:
hereditary

2. Certification tags shall be of colour for foundation seed.
Answers:
white

3. The credit of green revolution goes to wheat varieties.
Answers:
Mexican

4. Bag containing seed bears a golden tag.
Answers:
breeder.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When were the Mexican wheat verities cultivated for first time?
Answer:
In 1965-66. .

Question 2.
From where was green revolution started?
Answer:
From the cultivation of semi dwarf Mexican wheat varieties.

Question 3.
Write hereditary qualities of corn.
Answer:
Length and circumference of com cob, average number of grains in the com cob, average weight of 1000 grains, time for maturity etc.

Question 4.
Write about germination of certified seeds of rice.
Answer:
Germination should not be less than 80%.

Question 5.
Which tag is attached on bag of certified seed by government?
Answer:
Blue coloured tag.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did the farmers experience good quality seeds?
Answer:
Nearly 50 years ago when they cultivated the Mexican Semidwarf varieties of wheat and the yield was double than the previous years.

Question 2.
What is seed?
Answer:
Some grains or some other vegetative parts of a plant e.g. roots, stem cuttings, bulbs, sukers etc. which can be used to grow new plants. These all are considered as seeds.

Question 3.
Give properties of certified seeds.
Answer:
Certified seeds have following qualities. These seeds should be of

  • definite purity
  • free from diseases and seeds of weeds
  • definite germination.

Question 4.
Write possible qualities of certified seeds of wheat.
Answer:

  • Germination – pot less than 85% .
  • Purity – not less than 98%
  • Moisture content – not more than 12%.

Question 5.
What information we get from green tag fixed on bags of certified seeds?
Answer:
Green Tag has the following information about the seed germination, purity, diseases and other standards.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 6.
Where is the head office of Punjab State See Certification Agency and where is the zonal office?
Answer:
Head office is at SCO 837-838 Sec. 22 A, Chandigarh and regional offices at Ludhiana, Jalandhar, Kotkpura.

Question 7.
What is the process to reach the certified seed?
Answer:
We get breeder seed from the nuclear seed, foundation seed from breeder seed then certified seed from the foundation seed.

Question 8.
What are the various tags attached to different seed bags?
Answer:
Yellow tag on breeder seed, White tag on foundation seed, Blue tag on certified seed.

Question 9.
How many types of seeds are there according to Seed act?
Answer:
There are four types of seeds – Nuclear seeds, Breeder seeds, Foundation seeds, Certified seeds.

Question 10.
What do you know about T.L. seed?
Answer:
If seed is not certified but otherwise it conforms to all seed and field standards it is called T.L. (truthfully labelled) seed. Such seeds should have standards like – hereditary purity, germination, moisture content as per the standards etc.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about possibilities of profit and risk in the enterprise of seed production.
Answer:
The enterprise of certified seeds production is profitable. Such seeds have more selling price than the other seeds. But there is some initial cost involved e.g. cost of foundation seed, certification fees, cost to remove off-type plants, seed grading, packaging of seed, attaching tag, sealing and storing of seeds. During 2014-2015, minimum support price of one quintal of wheat was Rs. 1450. But certified seed of wheat was sold at a price of Rs. 2000-2500 per quintal. This way enterprise of seed production of certified and hybrid seed is very profitable.

There is also a fear of loss in this business also, as in other businesses. Some times the seed remains unsold and it can fail in laboratory test also. But the possibility of unsold seed is very less because already there is huge demand of seed in the market, which is not being fulfilled. So, this business is very profitable.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 2.
What do you mean by certified seed? Write three features of certified seeds.
Answer:
See in the above questions.

Question 3.
Which four parameters are examined in the seed test laboratory while examining seeds?
Answer:
By testing the seed in the laboratory we can check the standards. These standards are like:

  • seed germination
  • physical purity of seed.
  • a number of diseased seeds
  • number of seeds of weeds in the seeds, seeds of other crops.
  • moisture percent in the seed.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Agro Based Industries Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Which crops can be dried and powdered at domestic level?
Answer:
Turmeric, Chillies etc.

Question 2.
From where the training on agro based industries can be obtained?
Answer:
Punjab Agriculture University, Ludhiana, Krishi Vigyan Kendras.

Question 3.
Name any two machines installed in agro processing complex.
Answer:
Mini rice mill, small flour mill, grinder, oil expeller, cotton ginning machine.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 4.
List the items in which mentha oil is used. What are the uses of peppermint (Mentha) oil?
Answer:
Medicines, perfumes, cosmetics etc.

Question 5.
How much Jaggery can be made from one quintal of sugarcane?
Answer:
10-12 kg.

Question 6.
What is the percentage of post-harvest losses in grains?
Answer:
10%.

Question 7.
What is the pre requisite for starting any agro based industry?
Answer:
Basic training.

Question 8.
How much powder can be made from one quintal of raw turmeric? Or How much turmeric powder can be produced during processing from 100 kg raw turmeric?
Answer:
15-20 kg.

Question 9.
How water and oil are separated during mentha processing?
Answer:
With the help of separator.

Question 10.
Name any two rural agro-based industries.
Answer:
Turmeric processing plant, Mentha procesing unit, Juggery manufacturing.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What type of agro based industry can be set at cooperative level?
Answer:
A huge investment is (nearly 30 lakhs Rupees) is needed to set up dehydration and freezing plant for the processing of fruits and vegetables. Such units can be established at cooperative level and initial investment at individual level is reduced to large extent.

Question 2.
Why post harvest loss is taking place in our country?
Answer:
There is lack of sources for processing and storage, therefore post harvest losses are taking place.

Question 3.
What should be done to reduce the post harvest losses?
Answer:
We should process the agriculture produce to stop the damage of grains.

Question 4.
How agro based industries can be helpful in enhancing income of the fanners?
Answer:
Farmers can get more income by processing and selling of the agricultural produce at small scale. Farmer can also increase his income by adopting the occupations like – poultry farming, dairy farming etc.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 5.
Discuss the method for processing mentha.
Answer:
For extracting oil from mentha, mentha processing plant is established. Mentha crop is dried in open sun to reduce the moisture content. It is taken in an,air tight tanks in which steam is passed at pressure. Oil gets heated up and gets mixed with steam. Oil and steam mixture is removed from the tank and is cooled down quickly and oil and water are collected in another tank. This tank is known as separator. Oil is lighter than water and floats on the surface of water. It is decantated and collecte in plastic containers which are then sealed.

Question 6.
Describe the machine developed by PAU, Ludhiana for processing of turmeric.
Answer:
Punjab Agricultural University has developed a machine which is used for washing and polishing of turmeric. This machine can wash 2.5 -3.0 quintal turmeric in an hour and then can polish it also.

Question 7.
What are the technical operations related with jaggery manufacturing?
Answer:
Sugarcane is crushed using cane crusher. Juice so obtained is heated and concentrated to get jaggery.

Question 8.
Discuss any three machines used in agro processing complexes.
Answer:
Agro processing complexes can have machines like minirice mill, oil expel’ler, cotton gining machine etc. which are used to process paddy, oil seeds, cotton etc.

Question 9.
Why can’t the freezing plants for fruits and vegetables be installed at farmers’ level?
Answer:
A huge investment nearly Rs. 30 lakh is required to set up this unit. Therefore, it cannot be established at farmer’s level.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 10.
Which agricultural produces can be used at home after drying? Or Write the name of four agricultural products which are used dried at domestic travel.
Answer:
Fenugreek, corriander, mint, chillies etc. can be used at homes after drying.

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Discuss the advantages of setting up of agro processing complexes in Punjab.
Answer:
Generally, there is damage of 10% grains after harvesting and in case of fruits and vegetables this damage and loss is upto 30 – 40%. If processing units are established at village level then such losses can be minimized. Farmers can get more income. Unemployed youth can get work and we can get fresh and high quality eatables. Due to availability of employment and earning, the migration towards cities is also reduced.

Question 2.
What type of machinery can be installed in a small agro processing complex and which crops will be processed?
Answer:
A small agro processing complex can have following machines.

  • mini rice mill
  • oil expeller
  • small flour mill
  • grinder
  • pulse cleaner and grader
  • cotton ginning machine
  • small feed mill
  • mini dal mill

These machines are used for processing pulses, cereals, oil seeds, spices, paddy, cotton etc. .

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 3.
What should be done to stop the migration of people from rural to urban areas?
Answer:
People migrate towards cities due to non availability of employment and income per family is also not up to the mark instead it is very low. If more opportunities are made available and sources of income are also generated then this will help in stopping the migration towards the cities. Therefore encouragement should be given to agriculture based enterprises.

Youth in rural areas can set their own small processing units. Some other agriculture based enterprises like dairy farming, fish farming, poultry farming, mushroom cultivation, honey production, bee keeping etc. can be adopted. By self-marketing of the processed products, one can get more returns.

Question 4.
What should be the policy for capital intensive agro processing industry?
Answer:
There are some agro processing plants which have very high initial cost. For example, the cost to establish dehydration and freezing plant for fruits and vegetables is nearly Rs. 30 lakh. Such a plant cannot be set up. at an individual level. Such a unit should be established at cooperative level by group of farmers. This way one plant can be used by various farmers and they can process their produce and can market them.

Question 5.
Discuss the various operations involved in turmeric processing. Or How turmeric powder is prepared from raw tarmeric?
Answer:
For processing, all the turmeric, rhizomes are washed properly to remove soil sticking to it etc. For this purpose P.A.U. has developed a machine which can wash and polish turmeric. This machine can wash and polish simultaneously nearly 2.5 – 3.0 quintal turmeric per hour. After this step (i.e. washing etc.) turmeric is boiled so that fingers become soft and their colour becomes uniform.

If boiling is done in open container it takes an hour but if boiled in pressure cooker it takes 20 minutes. After boiling, turmeric fingers are dried in sun so that moisture content is less than 10%. It takes nearly 15 days if strong sunlight is available. Now top layer of turmeric is removed by polishing. Then it is grounded in the grinder (hammer mill). This way 100 kg fresh turmeric gives 15-20 kg. powdered turmeric.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Agro Based Industries Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
……………… kg turmeric powder can be obtained from 100 kg of fresh turmeric.
(a) 25-30
(b) 15-20
(c) 5-10
(d) 45-50.
Answer:
(b) 15-20

Question 2.
……………..kg Gud can be prepared from one quintal sugarcane.
(a) 21-22
(b) 30-35
(c) 10-12
(d) 18-20.
Answer:
(c) 10-12

Question 3.
After harvesting, there is nearly …………. loss in Crops.
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 50%.
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 4.
Mentha oil is used in
(a) medicines
(b) perfumes
(c) cosmetics
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 5.
After harvesting loss in fruits and vegetables in:
(a) 15-20%
(b) 20-30%
(c) 30-40%
(d) 10-15%.
Answer:
(c) 30-40%

Question 6.
How much jaggery (Gud) can be prepared from 100 kg sugarcane?
(a) 10-12 kg
(b) 40-45 kg
(c) 60-70 kg
(d) 30-35 kg.
Answer:
(a) 10-12 kg

Question 7.
What name of Punjabi magazine published by Punjab Agricultural university every month?
(a) Changi kheti
(b) Modem kheti
(c) Kheti niya
(d) Krishi jagran.
Answer:
(a) Changi kheti

Question 8.
From which crop is raw material for textile industry obtained?
(a) wheat
(b) cotton
(c) sugarcane
(d) mustard.
Answer:
(b) cotton

Question 9.
Which machine is used for oil extraction from oil seeds?
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Flour mill
(c) Seed grader
(d) Grinder.
Answer:
(a) Oil expeller

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 10.
Which machine is used for cleaning of seed
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Flour mill
(c) Seed grader
(d) Grinder.
Answer:
(c) Seed grader

True False:

1. Post harvest losses in grains are approximately 10%.
Answer:
True

2. Mentha is a weed.
Answer:
False

3. We can get 15-20 kg of turmeric powder from 100 kg of fresh turmeric.
Answer:
True

4. We can get 30-40 kg of Jaggery from one quintal sugarcane.
Answer:
False

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Fill in the blanks:

1. Post harvest losses in fruits and vegetables is …………….. .
Answer:
30-40 %

2. ……………. is used to dry vegetables.
Answer:
Solar dryer

3. During Mentha processing, oil and water are separated with the help of …………. .
Answer:
Separator

4. Mentha processing plant is used to extract oil from ……………. crop.
Answer:
Mentha.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give one reason of unemployment.
Answer:
Limited number of jobs.

Question 2.
How much damage/loss occur to the vegetables and fruits after harvesting?
Answer:
30 – 40%.

Question 3.
How much is the cost for setting up of agro-processing complexes?
Answer:
5 to 20 lakh Rupees.

Question 4.
How many days are required to dry turmeric fingers after boiling?
Answer:
In strong sunlight 15 days.

Question 5.
What is use of turmeric?
Answer:
Medicines, cosmetics and as dye in cotton clothes.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 6.
What is used for drying vegetables?
Answer:
Solar drier.

Question 7.
Name monthly magazine related to agriculture?
Answer:
‘Changi Kheti’.

Question 8.
How many Krishi Vigyan Kendras are under P.A.U.?
Answer:
17.

Question 9.
Write the name of four agricultural related co-occupations.
Answer:
Cattle rearing (Cows, goats, sheep etc), Poultry fanning, Honey bee rearing, fish rearing, Dairy farm, etc.

Question 10.
What is the use of flour mill (atta chakki)?
Answer:
Used to grind wheat, maize seeds to get flour.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is there any financial help available by government or other organisation for establishing agriculture based enterprises?
Answer:
Government as well as many other organisations provide financial help and training to establish agriculture based occupations.

Question 2.
What is the cost of establishment of agro-processing unit and how much is the income from this unit?
Answer:
Cost for setting up these machines is from Rs. 5 to 20 lakh and one can get an income of Rs. 10 thousand to 50 thousand per month.

Question 3.
Give uses of turmeric (in food).
Answer:
Turmeric is used to prepare various vegetables curries, to give taste, colour and flavour to the food items and it is also used for preparing food and chatnies at large scale.

Question 4.
Which things can be dried in solar drier?
Answer:
Fenugreek leaves, corriander, chilli, garlic etc. and some medicinal plants can be dried.

Question 5.
Write down the names of four agro based industries which can be started at the village level.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about processing of turmeric.
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 2.
Write about processing of mentha?
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 3.
Write the name of any ten agriculture based enterprises.
Answer:

  • Poultry farming
  • Dairy farming
  • Honey production
  • Mushroom cultivation
  • Fish farming
  • Jaggery manufacturing
  • Drying of vegetables and their packaging
  • Agro-processing complex
  • Turmeric processing unit
  • Mentha processing plant.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Indian Democracy at Work Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you understand by democracy?
Answer:
According to Lincoln, “Democracy is the government of the people, for the people and by the people.” In other words, democracy means that form of government in which people rule themselves either directly or indirectly.

Question 2.
Explain Etymological meaning of democracy.
Answer:
The word ‘Democracy’ has been derived from two Greek words, ‘Demos’ and ‘Kratos’. Demo means “The people’ and Kratos means ‘The power’. Democracy, in this way, is a form of government in which the ruling power is vested in the hands of the people.

Question 3.
Describe the one main condition for the success of democracy.
Answer:
Main condition necessary for the success of democracy is :

  • Educated and good citizens.
  • Free and impartial press and judiciary.
  • Well-organised political parties.
  • Co-operation and toleration among the citizens. (Any. one)

Question 4.
How many types of election systems are there in the world?
Answer:
There are two types of methods of elections: (i) Direct election (ii) Indirect election. In the direct election, the citizens themselves elect the members of the Legislature. In the indirect election, the representatives of the citizens elect the members of the Legislature.

Question 5.
What do you mean by public opinion?
Answer:
Public opinion means the opinion of people on a’particular matter of public interest. People’s voice is the voice of God. A government that ignores the public opinion cannot be stable.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 6.
When and under whom the Indian National Congress was formed?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885. It was founded by an English officer named Mr. AO. Hume. Its first session was presided over by Mr. Womesh Chandra Banerji (W.C. Banerji).

Question 7.
When and under whom the Shiromani Akali Dal was formed?
Answer:
The Shiromani Akali Dal was established in 1920 A.D. to bring about reforms in the Sikh Gurudwaras. It was formed under the twin leadership of Master Tara Singh and Sardar Kharak Singh.

Question 8.
Why is India a Secular State?
Answer:
India is a Secular State because India has no state religion.

Question 9.
Describe the ideological base of Shiromani Akali Dal.
Answer:

  • To bring about the reforms in the Gurudwaras and their management.
  • To maintain belief among the Sikhs that their Panth is independent.
  • To end poverty and hunger.
  • To make economic set-up more just.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on National Political Parties of India.
Answer:
There are seven National Political Parties—Indian National Congress, Bhartiya Janata Party, Communist Party of India, Marxist Communist Party of India, Bahujan Smaj Party, National Congress Party, Trinmool Congress Party.

Question 11.
Explain ideology of Indian National Congress.
Answer:

  • Promotion of Secularism and Socialism
  • Non-alignment
  • Reforms in industrial field
  • Modernisation of agriculture.

Question 12.
Describe the ideological base of the Bhartiya Janata Party.
Answer:

  1. The party has pledged itself to defend the unity and integrity of India.
  2. The party stands? for positive Secularism.

Question 13.
Explain the ideology of the Communist Party of India (Marxist).
Answer:
This party believes in the ideology of Karl Marx and Lenin. Its aims is to uplift the working class and make it the ruling class.

II. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the main features of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
Following are the main important features of the Indian democracy :

  1. The Indian Constitution provides for a democratic set-up in the country. Its preamble describes the importance of democracy.
  2. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Equality to all citizens. This right is similar to the principle of democratic equality.
  3. Freedom is the main principle of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Freedom to all the citizens of India.
  4. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution lays stress on promoting fraternity among all citizens.
  5. The Indian Constitution provides for adult franchise in India which is the soul of democracy.
  6. The Constitution also provides for joint electoral system which ensures equality to the people of all castes, religions and races.
  7. Political rights are the demands of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants political rights to all Indians without any kind of discrimination.
  8. Independence of Judiciary, Secularism and Republican system have strengthened the foundations of democracy.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
Explain briefly the electoral process in India.
Answer:
In India election procedure is as follows :

  1. Constituencies. The first important task in the process of election is the delimitation of the constituencies.
  2. Election Notification. The process of election begins with the notification of election. For the elections of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, notification is issued by the President.
  3. Filing of the Nomination Papers. The Election Commission fixes a last date for filing the nomination papers.
  4. Scrutiny of Nomination Papers. On the fixed date, nomination papers are scrutinised by the. Returning Officer and the names of the eligible candidates are announced.
  5. Election Campaign. With the announcement of election, political parties and independent candidates start election propaganda and try to influence the voters.
  6. Polling. On the day of the polling, holiday is declared so that each voter can cast his vote.
  7. Counting of votes and declaration of result. On the fixed date, EVMs are opened in the presence of the representatives of the candidates and votes are counted. A candidate getting the highest number of votes is declared elected. Every candidate is expected to submit the details of his expenses in the election, within 45 days after the election is over.

Question 3.
Name the main means of formation and expression of the Public Opinion.
Answer:
The main means of formation and expression of the public opinion are given below :

  1. Public Meetings. Public meetings stimulate and create public interest in great political, social and economic questions through speeches delivered by men in the domain of public life.
  2. Educational Institutions. It is in the schools, colleges and universities that the life of the would be citizens is moulded.
  3. Role of Newspapers. Newspaper is a very important source of formulating public opinion.
  4. Television. Television moulds public opinion by broadcasting news and comments. It makes the people politically conscious.
  5. Press. Public opinion is formed by newspapers, by presenting news and views on matters of public importance of national and international character.
  6. Political Parties. Political parties help to create public interest without which there can be no public opinion.

Question 4.
Describe the role and importance of Public Opinion.
Answer:
The role of the public opinion in democracy is very important. Public welfare is the basis of public opinion. It always reminds the government of its duties. The fact is that public opinion is the soul of democracy. The source of power of a democratic government is public opinion. The public opinion is the foundation which makes a government stable. The Government always tries its best to mould the public opinion in its favour. The Government implements its policies keeping in view the will and directions of the public opinion. The Government, which ignores the public opinion, becomes dictatorial and puts democracy into danger. Such a government loses the confidence of the people. As a result, it faces a defeat in the elections. That is why the Government tries not to go against the public opinion.

Write a short note on the following :

Question 1.
Main objectives of Shiromani Akali Dal.
Answer:
1. Main objectives of Shiromani Akali Dal. (Pb. 2016 I) The Shiromani Akali Dal was founded in 1920. A constitution of the party was approved in the meeting of its executive on September 2, 1974. According to it, the following are the objectives of the Akali Dal:

  • To bring about reforms in the Gurudwaras and look after them properly.
  • To maintain belief among the Sikhs that their Panth is independent.
  • To end poverty and hunger. To make economic set up more just and to reduce economic inequality between the rich and the poor.
  • To put an end to illiteracy, untouchability and discrimination.
  • To make arrangements for public health and security.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
Emergence/Formation of Bhartiya Janata Party.
Answer:
Emergence/Formation of Bhartiya Janata Party.
The Bhartiya Janata Party was organised on April 6, 1980. Today, this party is very active in Indian politics.

Following is the description of its policies and programmes :

  1. The B.J.P. believes that centre-state relations should be improved and it favours the implementation of the main recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.
  2. For free and fair elections, the B.J.P. will update and adopt the Goswami Committee Report.
  3. The B. J.P. will appoint a Lok Pal to entertain complaints of corruption against anybody holding public office including the Prime Minister.
  4. For better Local self-government at the village level, the B. J.P. will make changes in the Constitution and further strengthen the Panchayati Raj system.
  5. The B.J.P. will set up regional councils for Kashmir, Jammu and Laddakh.
  6. The B.J.P. will set up a National Security Council.

Question 3.
Foreign Policy of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Foreign Policy of Indian National Congress. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885. Even today this party is very active in Indian politics.

Following is the description of the policies and programmes of this party :

  • Firm faith in secularism and democracy.
  • To promote socialism along with economic liberalism.
  • To give the status of industry to agriculture. To grant loans to the farmers at low rates of interest.
  • To exempt the industry from licence system and end “the inspector Raj”. To encourage foreign investment.
  • To provide jobs to the unemployed. To improve the economic condition of the working class, to give financial aid to the backward and weak classes to raise their standard of living.
  • To improve the condition of the minorities and the women.
  • To frame foreign policy based on Non-alignment.

Question 4.
Formation of Communist Party of India.
Answer:
Formation of Communist Party of India. In the beginning of the 20th century, a group of redical youth within Indian National Congress was not satisfied with its policies. Russian Revolution inspired under the leadership of inspired Indian Youth for attaining independence through revolution. These disgruntled youth formed many Marxist organisations and assembled at Kanpur 1924 under the leadership of Manvinder Nath Rai. this led to the formation of the Communist Party of India.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 5.
Role of the Opposition.
Answer:
Role of the Opposition. (Pb. 2003 D) In a democratic country like India opposition performs many functions and the most important ones are as follow:

  1. Criticism of the Government. One of the most important functions of the opposition is to criticise the Government. The opposition points out the drawbacks in the laws, policies, plans and programmes of the government.
  2. Suggestions to Government. The opposition not only criticises the policies of the Government but also gives suggestions and proposals to remove its drawbacks.
  3. Alternative Programmes. The opposition provides drafts of alternative laws, policies, plans and programmes to ensure the social, economic and cultural welfare of the people.
  4. The opposition plays an important role in the working of democratic set-up. It makes democracy real and effective. It exposes the lapses of the government before the people.
  5. The opposition parties safeguard the interests and liberties of the people by checking the despotism of the government.
  6. The opposition provides a ready alternative government.

Question 6.
Essential condition for the success of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
An essential condition for the success of Indian Democracy.

  1. A democratic society is necessary for the success of a democracy or democratic country in which there must be political equality.
  2. There has to be earth presence of equal and open thinking in society and it is very much necessary for the success of democracy.
  3. Economic equality must be provided. It means that everyone should be provided equal opportunities for development. It is a guarantee of the success of democracy.
  4. Educated citizens must be there. Democracy is a system that involves a continues and active movement of the people in the political process. That’s why it is essential that literary should be widespread.

Question 7.
Main Principles of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
Main Principles of Indian Democracy;
Following are the main important. features of the Indian democracy:

  1. The Indian Constitution provides for a democratic set-up in the country. Its preamble describes the importance of democracy.
  2. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Equality to all citizens. This right is similar t.o the principle of democratic equality.
  3. Freedom is the main principle of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Freedom to all the citizens of india.
  4. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution lays stress on promoting fraternity among all citizens.
  5. The Indian Constitution provides for adult franchise in India which is the soul of democracy.
  6. The Constitution also provides, for joint electoral system which ensures equality to the people of all castes, religions and races.
  7. Political rights are the demands of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants political rights to nil Indians without any kind of discrimination.
  8. Independence of Judiciary, Secularism and Republican system have strengthened the foundations of democracy.

Question 8.
Indian Democracy at work.
Answer:
Indian Democracy at work. Indian democracy is working quite successfully. India is having indirect democracy in which decisions are taken by the elected representatives of the people. Democracy is completely dependent upon elections and free and fair elections are held India by an independent Election Commission. All the political parties are free to work in society to create public opinion in their favour. Many political parties exist in India which give great contribution in making Indian democracy a great success. So, we can say that Indian democracy is successfully working.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Indian Democracy at Work Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Why are modern democracies indirect or representative?
Answer:
Because modern states are large in size, having a large area with huge population.

Question 2.
What is an election manifesto?
Answer:
It is a document which tells the programme, principles, objectives and promises of a party or a candidate.

Question 3.
Why are election symbols allotted to political parties in India?
Answer:
To facilitate uneducated voters to instantly recognise the party of their choice.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Secret Ballot?
Answer:
The Secret Ballot system means the casting of vote by a voter remains a secret process.

Question 5.
How are the representatives of people kept under check in democracy?
Answer:
The representatives who do not work well can be removed through election.

Question 6.
What is meant by ‘Rule of Law’?
Answer:
By Rule of Law we mean that the government rules according to the law of the land.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of Communalism?
Answer:
Communalism is an ideology which emphasizes the separate identity of a religious group in relation to other groups.

Question 8.
What is the importance of democracy in the modern age?
Answer:
The people get all opportunities of making progress only in a democracy.

Question 9.
Describe any one obstacle in the way of public opinion.
Answer:
Illiteracy. An illiterate person cannot form a sound.public opinion.

Question 10.
How does cinema express the public opinion?
Answer:
Films throw light on the failures and achievements of the government.

Question 11.
Give any one point showing the importance of political parties.
Answer:
A political party, after winning the elections, comes to power and forms the government.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 12.
How are the ideas of democracy and citizenship interlinked with each other?
Answer:
The success of democracy depends on enlightened, honest and vigilant citizens.

Question 13.
Write any one essential condition for the free expression of public opinion.
Answer:
Press and other means of communication should be free and impartial.

Question 14.
Name any one agency through which public opinion is usually expressed.
Answer:
Newspapers or the Press.

Question 15.
After coming to power, the government cannot ignore the public opinion. Why?
Answer:
It is pushed out of power in the next elections.

Question 16.
What is meant by Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The adult franchise means the right of voting is granted to all the adults.

Question 17.
What is the importance of free and impartial elections in democracy?
Answer:
The people elect the representatives of their own choice.

Question 18.
What is an election process?
Answer:
The process by which the citizens cast their votes and elect their representatives.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 19.
What do you mean by the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The right of voting granted to ail the adults

Question 20.
Mention one feature of an election manifesto.
Answer:
It tells the voters about the policies, of the political parties.

Question 21.
Describe any one technique of an election campaign.
Answer:
Political parties arrange public meetings and processions to win over the voters in their favour.

Question 22.
Mention three functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:

  1. Conducting the elections
  2. Counting of votes
  3. Declaring the results of elections.

Question 23.
What is a political party?
Answer:
It is group of citizens having common views on public questions and is organised as a political unit to obtain control of the government.

Question 24.
What do you understand by single-party system?
Answer:
A single party system is that system where only one party functions in the whole of the state.

Question 25.
What do you understand by two party system?
Answer:
Where there are two major political parties in a country.

Question 26.
What do you understand by Multi-Party system?
Answer:
When there are more than two well-organised political parties in a country.

Question 27.
What is a regional party?
Answer:
A party that is organised in a particular region or a state is called a regional party.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 28.
Mention any one difference between a regional party and a national party.
Answer:
A national party has influence all over the country whereas the influence of a regional party is limited to a particular region or a state.

Question 29.
Describe any one function of the opposition party in a democracy.
Answer:
It points out the faults of the government.

Question 30.
What do you mean by proportional representation?
Answer:
It is an electoral device designed to ensure representation of all sections of public opinion in proportion to their voting strength.

Question 31.
What is meant by election symbol?
Answer:
In elections, a special symbol is allotted to every candidate. It is called an election symbol.

Question 32.
What do you mean by simple majority system?
Answer:
A candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rivals is declared elected.

Question 33.
What kind of Democratic Government is in India? (Pb. 2002A)
Answer:
Parliamentary form of government.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Democracy is of two types direct and _________
Answer:
indirect

Question 2.
_________ is a key for the success of democracy.
Answer:
Enlightened citizens

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 3.
India has a _________ government.
Answer:
democratic

Question 4.
Equality and liberty are the basic principles of _________
Answer:
democracy

Question 5.
In India all adult citizens who have attained the age of _________ have been given right to vote.
Answer:
18

Question 6.
An important pillar of Indian democracy is an independent _________
Answer:
judiciary

Question 7.
Political fights are heart and soul of _________
Answer:
democracy

Question 8.
Public meetings are important means for formation of _________
Answer:
public opinion

Question 9.
Indian National Congress was established in _________
Answer:
1885

Question 10.
Bhartiya Janata Party was established in _________
Answer:
1980.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
(d) In India the losing parties accept the verdict.
Answer:
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
The Communist Party of India was formally founded in the year :
(a) 1924
(b) 1885
(c) 1925
(d) 1906.
Answer:
(a) 1924

Question 3.
Bharatiya Janata Party was founded in :
(a) 1952
(b) 1977
(c) 1980
(d) 1984.
Answer:
(c) 1980

Question 4.
Which of the following is a National Party?
(a) Akali Dal
(b) Janata Party
(c) National Conference
(d) Indian National Congress.
Answer:
(d) Indian National Congress.

Question 5.
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by :
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Governor.
Answer:
(b) President

Question 6.
Which of the following is a regional political party?
(а) Shiromani Akali Dal
(b) National Democratic Alliance
(c) Communist Party of India
(d) Indian National Congress.
Answer:
(а) Shiromani Akali Dal

Question 7.
Which of the following is responsible for conducting free and fair elections?
(a) Parliament
(b) Election Commission
(c) President
(d) Speaker.
Answer:
(b) Election Commission

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by democracy in modern times?
Answer:
Modem age is an age of democracy. By democracy we mean the government in which the supreme power of the state is vested in the people. The people directly or indirectly take part in the administrative affairs of the state. The representatives of people make and implement laws keeping in view the welfare of the people. The public can unseat a representative in case he does not work upto their expectations. In fact, democracy is a government of the people, for the people and by the people.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
What do you mean by the principle of Political Equality?
Answer:
By political equality, we mean that all the people should enjoy equal democratic rights. According to this principle, we must not classify the citizens under different categories. So it is clear that political equality means equality before law. All the citizens should hold their positions according to their capability and efficiency. There should be no discrimination on the-basis of caste, colour and creed.

Question 3.
Differentiate between direct and indirect democracy.
Answer:
Democracy can be classified into two categories :

  1. Direct Democracy.
  2. Indirect Democracy.

1. Direct Democracy. In direct democracy, all the citizens of the state directly participate in the administrative affairs of the state. Every citizen takes part in the making and implementation of laws and levying taxes, in deciding the policy of the government and all other important affairs of the state. Even the representatives could be asked to resign if they did not work to their satisfaction.

2. Indirect Democracy. Under indirect democracy, the citizens do not take direct part in the state affairs. They, on the other hand, elect their representatives who run the government on their behalf.

Question 4.
How is the public opinion formed? How can it be expressed?
Answer:
It is the age of democracy and public opinion is the backbone of democracy. A strong public opinion is not formed by itself. Political parties, rulers, leaders, press etc. contribute to its formation.

The following means are used in the formation and expression of public opinion :

  1. The political leaders put their views before the. people in public meetings and assemblies. They explain the policy of their party. Thus people come to know about the various problems and their solutions. This helps in the formation and expression of public opinion.
  2. The press is the main instrument of formation and expression of public opinion. Through the press, the people can express their opinions freely.
  3. The radio, television, literature, cinema, educational institutions and religious institutions all help in the formation and expression of public opinion.

Question 5.
Explain the hurdles in the way of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy for its successful working demands awakened citizens, high calibers, good character leaders with a sense of responsibility and keen interest in the success of democracy. Social conditions are political and economic equality; co-operative and tolerant citizens, well organised political parties, independent judiciary and free press. Absence of these essential conditions is the main hurdle in the way of democracy.

Question 6.
How can obstacles in the way of democracy be removed? Give any two remedies.
Answer:
The obstacles in the way of democracy can be removed in the following two ways :

  1. Spread of Education. Only educated and able citizens can make democracy successful. So education should be wide-spread. All citizens should be educated. Primary education should be made free and compulsory.
  2. Free and Honest Press. A sound public opinion is the backbone of democracy. Press (newspapers) is an effective instrument of public opinion. So it is very necessary to have an honest and free press for the success of democracy. The press should not be controlled either by the government or big industrialists.

Question 7.
Why are modern democracies indirect?
Answer:
Modern states are very large. The number of citizens runs into crores. It is not possible for them to run the government of a country directly. They cannot even assemble at one place. Moreover, we need an organised body, and not a crowd for running the government. The voters elect their representatives to the legislatures or other offices. The number of elected representatives is not very large. This can run the government smoothly and efficiently. That is why, modern democracies are indirect.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 8.
What is the importance of Representation in Democracy?
Answer:
In the modern age, democratic governments are representative governments. It means all depends upon the representation. Modern states have grown in size and population, making it impossible for the people to participate in the affairs of the state. Thus, the system of representation helps them in electing their representatives to run the government. Moreover, the government can know the views of the people and their difficulties and this helps the government in framing right policies to run the administration. Thus the government functions according to the will of the people through their representatives. Thus we see that representation in democracy has great importance.

Question 9.
What is meant, by the responsible government?
Answer:
By responsible government, we mean the governments which were established after the revolutions in England and France. These governments could not be despotic. They had to function according to the law of the land. They were quite different from the democratic governments of today. In modern democratic age, all adults have the right to vote. The government is directly responsible to the legislature and indirectly to the people. But at that time, all the people did not participate in the elections of responsible governments. Such governments were elected by a small number of people.

Question 10.
What is an election manifesto? What are its benefits?
Answer:
An election manifesto is a document which tells the voters about the programme, principles, objectives and promises for which the party stands. An election manifesto is an important document of a political party.

It has the following benefits :

  1. The people judge the political parties by their election manifestoes.
  2. The people are able to form opinion about the aims and objects of the political parties and exercise their franchise accordingly.
  3. The voters are able to know the differences between the different political parties through the election manifestoes.
  4. The political party which comesout successful at the polls tries to implement the programmes published in its election manifesto. If it does not do so, the people can put pressure on it to act according to its manifesto.

Question 11.
Explain simple majority system.
Answer:
In simple majority system, the candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rival/rivals is declared elected. In this system, the elected candidate may or may not get the majority of votes. According to democratic rules, a candidate must be a representative of majority (more than 50%) votes. But sometimes an elected candidate gets less than 50% votes but is still declared elected. Such a candidate cannot be called a real representative of the people. Sometimes a political party getting majority votes sits in opposition in the Legislature and the other party representing minority votes comes to power.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 12.
What is the importance of adult franchise?
Answer:
The universal adult franchise means the right of voting granted to every adult— male or female, without any discrimination. A person above a certain age is called an adult. In India a person of 18 years is an adult. In India every person above 18 years enjoys the right to vote. This right is given to every man and woman without distinction of caste, religion, property or education. In a democracy, people rule themselves or the government is run through their chosen representatives. So universal adult franchise becomes very important. It provides an opportunity to the largest number of people to take part in the functioning of the government.

Question 13.
What is the importance of election campaign?
Answer:
Election campaign has great importance in democracy. Through election campaign, people come to know; the different problems of the country. Political parties try to mould the public opinion in their favour. The opposition parties tell the people about their policies and programmes. They throw light on the wrong policies of the government. They promise that after coming to power, they will do everything for the welfare of the public. Similarly, the ruling party presents before the public its achievements and further plans. All these points make it clear that election campaign has great importance.

Question 14.
Does the electorate have real control over its representatives?
Answer:
In a democracy, people elect their representatives. The electorate has real control over their representatives. The representatives have fear in their minds that the electorate will turn against them and push them out of power if they do nothing for the welfare of the electorate. It is thus clear the electorate has control over their representatives. In some countries, the electorate is entitled to recall their representatives if they do not work upto its expectations.

Question 15.
Why have the political parties so much importance in democracy?
Answer:
Political parties have a special role in democracy. They perform the following functions :

  1. Political parties set their programmes. During elections they prepare their manifestoes and present them before the people. Through them, people come to know the national problems and then form their own opinions.
  2. Political parties help in the formulation of the public opinion.
  3. They contest elections.
  4. The party that secures a majority in the election, forms the government.
  5. The party with minority membership forms the opposition.
  6. The political parties give political education and training to the people.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 16.
What is the importance of elections in democracy? What role do political parties play in elections?
Answer:
Elections are very important in a democracy :

  1. Through the elections, the people choose their representatives to the legislature central or state.
  2. The elections give stability to the government.
  3. People control the government through elections and stop it from becoming despotic.
  4. People change their governments through the elections.

Political parties play a very important role in the elections :

  • They put political problems before the people.
  • They suggest to the people various ways of solving these problems.
  • They give political education to the people;
  • They make people aware of their rights.

Question 17.
Mention the defects of the ‘simple majority’ election system.
Answer:
The representative are generally elected by simple majority. In this system, the candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rivals is declared elected.

There are many defects in this system:

  • The elected representative is not always the choice of the majority. He is generally elected by a minority,
  • The majority party in the legislature represents only minority votes,
  • All parties do not get representation according to the number of their votes,
  • A large number of votes go waste. They do not elect any representative at all.

Question 18.
What is the importance of Secret Ballot System?
Answer:
The Secret Ballot System has great importance in the election process. The following points make it clear :

  • The system of Secret Ballot ensures just and impartial election.
  • The voters are free from outside pulls and pressures in casting their votes.
  • No outside force or fear can influence the voter to cast his vote under the system of Secret Ballot.
  • This system brings the desired result without creating any ill-feeling.

Question 19.
What is the importance of the opposition in democracy?
Or
What are the functions of an opposition party?
Answer:
In a democracy, an opposition party is a great blessing for the people. It has an important role to play :

  • A strong opposition does not allow the government to become despotic. It points out the faults of the government.
  • It brings the people’s grievances to the notice of the government.
  • It brings to the notice of the people the wrong deeds of the government.
  • It provides alternative government to the country.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 20.
What are the advantages of the two-party system (bi-party system)?
Answer:
The two-party system or the bi-party system is the best type of party system. It helps in the smooth functioning of a democratic government.

This system has the following advantages :

  1. Both the parties have clear manifestoes, programmes and policies. The electors are able to make up their mind in the exercise of their franchise much before the date of the election.
  2. It also provides stability to the government. The party which gets the absolute majority, forms the government. The other party acts as an opposition party.
  3. Under the two-party system, the government is able to implement long-term measures of reforms and development.
  4. The opposition party keeps the government alert. It exposes the acts of omission .and commission of the government.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Lawn Tennis Game Rules.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question. 1.
Write about the history of Lawn Tennis?
Answer:
History of Lawn Tennis:
Originating from the old indoor game of Real Tennis, its proper name is Lawn Tennis. Although the only major tournament in the world still to use grass courts today is that held at Wimbledon. Lawn Tennis has its roots in France but the game was brought to England. The first championship was held at Wimbledom in 1877 and the first International Championship was held in U.S.A. in 1881 in Australia 1905 and in France 1925. In Modern Olympic which was originated in 1896. Tennis was an official game but it was withdrawn from the Olympic after 1924 but was again included in 1988.

International Tennis Federation (ITF) came into existence in 1977. The game is played in so many forms as men and women singles men and women doubles and mixed double. First time Lawn Tennis was included in Asian Games in 1958. Today it is most interesting game played both at amateur and professional levels. Tennis is a racket game in which the player of one team sends the ball oyer net to the opponent area so that opponent is unable to return the ball. In this way points are scored by the player which won the games set and match. Our player named Leander Paes had won Olympic singles in 1996 at Atlanta.

Latest Rules of Lawn Tennis:

  • The length of the Lawn tennis court is 78 feet (28.77 m.) and its width is 27 feet (8.23 m).
  • The height of the net is 3 feet (0.91 m.), and the maximum diameter of the cord or metal cable which suspends the net is 1/3 (0.8 cm).
  • The diameter of posts is 6″ (15 cms.), and the distance of the centre of the post outside the court on each side is 3 ft. (0.91 m).
  • The diameter of the Lawn tennis ball is 2 (6.34 cms.), and its weight is 2 ounces (56.7 gm.) The bounce of the ball when dropped from a height of 100″ (254 cms.) is 53″ (1.35 m).
  • The maximum number of sets in a game for men is 5, and for women is 3.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question. 2.
Write about the court of the Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
Lawn Tennis Court:
The tennis court shall be rectangular. It shall be 78′ (23.77 m.) in length and 27′ (8.23 m.) width. It should be divided across the middle by a net suspended from a cord or metal cable. The diameter of this cord should be 1/3 (0.8 cm.), the ends of which shall be attached to or pass over the tops of two evenly pointed posts. These posts should be 3’66” (1.07 m.) in height and not more than 6 inches (15 cm.) square or 6 inches (15 cm.) in diameter, the centre of which shall be 3’ (0.91 m.) outside the court on each side.

The net should be tightly and fully extended so that it fills the space between the two posts fully, and should be so small mesh as to prevent the ball passing through. The height of the net shall be 3′ (0.914 m.) at the centre, and it shall be tautly held down by a strap not more than 2″ (5 cm.) wide and white in colour. A band shall cover the cord and the top of the net for not less than 2 inches (5 cm.) and inches (6.3 cm.) deep on each side. Its colour should be white. There should be no advertisement on the net, strap, band or single sticks.

The lines surrounding the ends and sides of the court shall respectively be called the Base fines and the side-lines. On each side of the net, at a distance of 0.21 feet (6.00 cm.) from it and parallel’to it, service-fines shall be drawn. The space on each side of the .net between the service-line and the side-line shall be divided into two equal parts called the service courts by the centre service-fine. This service fine shall be 2 inches (5 cm.) in width, drawn half-way between and parallel to the side lines.

Each base-line shall be bisected by a centre-service fine which is 4 inches (10 cm.) in length and 2 inches (5 cm.) in width, and is called centre mark. Except the base-lines, all lines should be minimum 1″ (2.5 cm.) and maximum 2″ (5 cm.) in length. The base line may be four inches (10 cm.) in width. All measurements should be made to the outside of the fines.

The permanent fixtures of the court shall include not only the net; posts, single sticks, cord or metal cable, strap and band but also the back and side stops, the fixed stands, movable seats and chairs. All other fixtures around and above the court and the Umpire, Net- cord, Foot-fault Judge, Linesmen and Ball Boys shall be in their proper places.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question. 3.
Write about the ball of the Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
The Lawn-tennis Ball:
The ball should have a uniform outer surface. It shall be white or yellow in colour. The diameter of the ball shall be minimum 2 1/2” (5.35 cm.) and maximum 2 5/8” (6.67 cm.). Its weight should be more than 2 ounces (56.7 gm.) and not less than 2 1/16 ounces (58.8 gm.). It should have a bounce of more than 53 inches (135 cm.) and less than 58 inches (147 cm.) when dropped from a height of 100” (254 cm.) upon a concrete base.
Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
The ball should have a forward deformation of more than 220 inches (.956 cm.) and less than .290 of an inch (.74 cm.), and a return deformation of more than .350 of an inch (.89 cm.) and less than .425 of an inch (1.08 cm.) at 18 pounds (8.165 kg.) load. The two deformation figures shall be the averages of three individual readings along three axes of the ball and no two individual readings shall differ by more than 0.30 of an inch (.80 cm.) in each case.

Players:
The players shall stand on opposite sides of the net. The players who delivers the ball first is called the server, and the other will be called the receiver. The choice of ends and the right to be Server or Receiver in the first game is decided by the toss. The toss winning players may choose his end or may ask the other player to choose. If a player decides to choose the end, the other player has the right to choose to be the Server or the Receiver.

Service:
The service shall be delivered in the following manner : Before delivering the service, the Server shall stand with both feet at rest behind (that is, farther from the net than the base-line). This place shall be within the imaginary continuation of the Centre Mark and the side-line. Then the Server shall project the ball by hand into the air and before it hits the ground, strike it with his racket, and the delivery shall be considered to have been completed at the moment of the impact of the racket and the ball. A player with the use of one arm may utilize his racket for protection or defence.

The Server, throughout the delivery of the service, shall-

  • not change his position by walking or running.
  • not touch, with either foot, any area other than that behind the base-line within the imaginary extension of the centre mark and side-line.
    Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2

1. In delivering the service, the Server shall stand behind the right and the left courts turn by turn. He shall start from the right in every game. If the service is delivered from a wrong half of the court and is undetected, the play resulting from such wrong service shall stand, but the inaccuracy of station shall be corrected immediately after it is detected.

2. The ball served should pass over the net and hit the ground in the Service Court which is diagonally opposite, before the Receiver returns it. If the ball touches any other line of the court, the Service shall not be considered.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

General Rules of Lawn Tennis:
1. The tennis player shall not serve until the other player or receiver is ready. If the receiver attempts to return, he is deemed to be ready.

2. The service is a let if the ball served touches the net, strap or band, or touches the receiver or anything he wears or carries. It shall be let if it is delivered when the receiver is not ready.

3. At the end of the first game the receiver shall become server, and the server shall become the receiver. This will continue alternately in all the games of a match.

4. The server wins the point if the ball served is not a let, and touches the receiver or anything he wears or carries before it hits the ground.

5. If a player knowingly does something which, in the opinion of the Umpire, hinders his opponent in making a stroke, the Umpire shall award the point to the opponent and in case such an act of player is involuntary, the Umpire shall order the point to be replayed.

6. If the ball in play touches a permanent fixture other than the net, posts, single sticks, cord or metal cable, strap or band after it has hit the ground, the player who struck it wins the point. But if the ball touches such an object before it hits the ground, the point is awarded to the opponent.

7. If a player wins his first point, his score is 15, on winning the second point, the score is 30; and on winning the third point, his score rises to 40. The player who gets 40 points wins the set of game. But in case both the players win 3 points each, the score is called deuce, and the next point won by a player is scored advantage for that player. If the same player (with advantage) wins the next point, he wins the game. If the other player wins the point, the score is again called deuce; and so on, until a player wins two points following the score at deuce.

8. When a player wins first six games, he wins a set, except that he must win by a margin of two games over his rival, and if necessary, a set is extended until this margin is achieved. The players shall change ends at the end of the first and third game and at the end of each set provided the total number of games in each set is not even, and in which case the change is made at the end of first game of the next set.

9. The maximum number of sets in a match for men is 5 and for women 3.

10. The game shall continue from the start to the conclusion, provided that after the third set, or when moment participate, after the second set, a player can take rest. But the duration of rest is from 10 to 15 minutes. When it is essential, the Umpire may suspend the play for such a period as he may deem necessary.

11. In case the play is suspended, and is not be resumed until a later day rest may be taken by a player after the third set or after the second set in case of women players. In case the play is postponed to a later day, the completion of an unfinished set shall be considered as one set. These provisions should be properly explained. The play should, however, never be suspended, delayed or interfered with for the purpose of enabling a player regain his strength.

12. The Umpire shall be the sole judge of such suspension of the game, and after living due warning to the offender who causes such suspension, may disqualify him.

13. In changing ends, a maximum of one minute should elapse from the close of the previous game till the players are ready for the start of the next game.

The Doubles Game
The Court:
For the Doubles Game, the court shall be 36 feet (10.97 m) in width, that is, it shall be wider by 4 1/2 feet (1.47 m) on each side that meant for the Singles game. Those portions of the singles side-lines which lie between the two services lines are called the Service Side-Lines. In other respects, the Court shall be similar to the one described in the court for the Singles game. However, the portions of the singles side lines between the base-line and service-line on each side of the net may be omitted, if so desired.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 4.
Write down any five rules of Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
General Rules:
1. The order of serving shall be decided at the start of each set in the following manner:
(а) The pair who are to serve in the first game of each set shall decide who shall, do so, while the opposing pair shall decide similarly in the second game.
(b) The partner of the player who served in the first game shall serve in the third game, the partner of the player who served in the second game shall serve in the fourth game, and so on in the same order in all the subsequent games of a set.

2. The order of receiving the service shall be decided at the start of each set as mentioned below:

(i) The pair who are to receive the service in the first game shall decide as to which partner shall receive the first service, and that partner shall continue to receive the first service in every odd game throughout the set.
(ii) The rival pair shall decide which partner shall receive the first service in the second game and that partner will continue to receive the first service in every even game throughout the set. Partners shall receive the service alternately throughout each game.

3. If a partner serves out of his/her turn, the partner who should have served shall serve as soon as the mistake is found out. In such case, all points scored, and any faults served before such discovery, shall be considered. If a game is completed before such discovery, the order of service does not change.

4. In case the order of receiving the service is changed by the receivers during a game, it shall remain unchanged until the end of the game in which the mistake is detected. But the partners shall resume their original order of receiving the service in the next game of the set in which they are the receivers.

5. The ball shall be struck alternately by one or other player of the opposing pairs. In case a player touches the ball in play with his racket against the above said rule, his opponents shall get the point.

Important Information about the Lawn Tennis Game

  • Length of Tennis court = 78’ or 26, 77” Metre
  • Breadth of court = 27’ or 8.23 Metre
  • Height of the net = 3’6” or 1.07 Metre
  • Diametre of iron tar (cable) = 1/4 inch
  • Diametre of Poles = 6 inch or 15 cm
  • Distance of poles from centre = 3’ or 90 cm
  • Weight of Tennis ball = 2 ounces (56.7 – 60.24 grns)
  • Distance of Tennis Poles = 2 1/2; inches
  • Bounch of ball after throwing it from the height of 100 feet = 53 inches
  • Number of sets for men = 5 sets
  • Number of sets for women 3 sets
  • Colour of Tennis ball = White or yellow.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

PSEB 10th Class Science Guide Chemical Reactions and Equations Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?
2PbO(s) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CO2(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised.
(d) Lead oxide is being reduced.
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all.
Answer
(i) (a) and (b)

Question 2.
Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe
The above reaction is an example of a
(a) combination reaction.
(b) double displacement reaction.
(c) decomposition reaction.
(d) displacement reaction.
Answer:
(d) displacement reaction.

Question 3.
What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings?
Tick the correct answer.
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(c) No reaction takes place.
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.

Question 4.
What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical equations be balanced?
Answer:
Balanced chemical equation. It is a chemical equation in which number of atoms of each element are equal on both sides of the equation.

The chemical equation should be balanced because law of conservation of mass holds good i.e., the total mass of the reactants must be equal to the total mass of the products.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 5.
Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them :
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
Answer:
3H2 (g) + N2 → 2NH3 (g)

(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
Answer:
2H2S (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2H2O (l) + 2SO2 (g)

(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate.
Answer:
3BaCl2 + A12(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 (aq) + 3BaSO4 (s)↓

(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Answer:
2K (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2KOH (aq) + H2 (g)

Question 6.
Balance the following chemical equations :
(a) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
Answer:
2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O

(b) NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O
Answer:
2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O

(c) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
Answer:
NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3

(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + HCl
Answer:
BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl

Question 7.
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions :
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate + Water
Answer:
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O

(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver.
Answer:
Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag

(c) Aluminium + Copper chloride → Aluminium chloride + Copper.
Answer:
2Al + 3CuCl2 → 2AlCl3 + 3Cu

(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride.
Answer:
BaCl2 + K2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2KCl

Question 8.
Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction and identify the type of reaction in each case.
(a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) → Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium bromide (s)
Answer:
2KBr (aq) + Bal2 (aq) → 2KI (aq) + BaBr2 (aq) — Double displacement reaction

(b) Zinc carbonate (s) → Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g)
Answer:
ZnCO3 (s) → ZnO (s) + CO2 (g) — Decomposition reaction

(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (g) → Hydrogen chloride (g)
Answer:
H2(g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl(g) — Combination reaction

(d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) → Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
Answer:(a)
Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g) — Displacement reaction

Question 9.
What is meant by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
Or
Differentiate between exothermic and endothermic reactions.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction. It is a chemical reaction in which heat energy is given out.
e.g. C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 + Heat energy
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) + Heat energy

Endothermic reaction : It is a chemical reaction in which heat energy is absorbed,
e.g. N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO (g) — Heat energy
C (S) + H2O (g) → CO + H2 (g) — Heat energy.

Question 10.
Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction? Explain.
Answer:
During respiration oxidation of glucose occurs which produces heat energy.

Question 11.
Why are decomposition reactions called opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
During decomposition a single substance breaks down into two or more substances which is just the reverse of combination reaction.

Examples for decomposition reactions are :
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Question 12.
Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or electricity.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2
Here electrical energy is supplied to bring about the reaction.

Question 13.
What is the difference between the displacement and double displacement reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
Displacement reaction: In this reaction a more active element displaces less active element from solution of its compound. Examples:
Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s) ↓
Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s) ↓

Double displacement reaction: The reaction in which there is an exchange of ions between two reactants is called a double displacement reaction.
AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) AgCl (s) ↓ + NaNO3 (aq)
BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) BaSO4 (s) ↓ + 2NaCl (aq)

Question 14.
In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involved displacement by copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Answer:
Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag ↓

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 15.
What do you mean by precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.
Answer:
Precipitation reaction. A reaction in which an insoluble product or precipitate is produced is called precipitation reaction.
AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (s) ↓ + NaNO3 (aq)
BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) → BaSO4 (s) ↓ + 2NaCl (aq)

Question 16.
Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with two examples each :
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction.
Answer:
(a) Oxidation: A chemical reaction in which a substance gains oxygen or loses hydrogen is called oxidation.
Examples
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

(b) Reduction: A chemical reaction in which a substance loses oxygen or gains hydrogen is called reduction.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

Question 17.
A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
Answer:
The element X is copper.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5
Therefore the black coloured compound formed is copper (II) oxide (CuO).

Question 18.
Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
Answer:
The iron articles can be protected from rusting by applying paint on them so that the iron surface does not come in contact with air (or oxygen) and moisture which causes rusting.

Question 19.
Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
Answer:
This is because food items are prevented from oxidation by oxygen or air.

Question 20.
Explain the following terms with one example each :
(a) Corrosion
Answer:
Corrosion: The slow eating up of metals by the action of air and moisture on their surfaces is called corrosion. For example, iron undergoes corrosion or rusting in the presence of moist air.

(b) Rancidity.
Answer:
Rancidity: When fats and oils or food containing oils and fats get oxidised with air or oxygen, their smells and tastes change, This process is called rancidity. For example, the packet containing potato chips is flushed with nitrogen gas to avoid rancidity.

Science Guide for Class 10 PSEB Chemical Reactions and Equations InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
Answer:
Magnesium ribbon should be cleaned before burning to remove the protective layer of basic magnesium carbonate from its surface.

Question 2.
Write the balanced equation for the following chemical reactions.
(i) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
Answer:
H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl

(ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium Sulphate → Barium Sulphate + Aluminium Chloride
Answer:
3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 3BaSO4 + 2AlCl3

(iii) Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Answer:
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2

Question 3.
Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions.
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble sulphate and the solution of sodium chloride.
Answer:
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce sodium chloride and water.
Answer:
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 4.
A solution of substance “X’ is used for white washing.
(i) Name the substance X’and write its formula.
Answer:
X is calcium oxide (quick lime) and its formula is CaO.

(ii) Write the reaction of the substance X named in (i) above with water.
Answer:
CaO (s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq)

Question 5.
Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test tubes in activity 1.7 double of the amount collected in the other? Name this gas.
Answer:
When electric current is passed through acidulated water, the reaction taking place is
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 6
Therefore hydrogen and oxygen produced are in the ratio 2 : 1 by volume. Hence volume of gas collected in one test tube is double the volume of gas collected in the other tube and this gas is hydrogen.

Question 6.
Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change, when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Answer:
This is because iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
Therefore, the concentration of copper sulphate solution decreases and blue colour of solution gradually fades away.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 7
The concentration of copper sulphate solution decreases as ferrous sulphate is produced.

Question 7.
Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one given in the activity 1.10 given in textbook
Answer:
NaCl (aq) + AgNO3(ag) → NaNO3(aq) +AgCl(s) ↓

Question 8.
Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions :
(i) 4Na(s) + O2(g) → 2Na2O (s)
(ii) CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(l)
Answer:

Substance oxidised Substance reduced
1. Na(s) H2
2. H2 CuO(s)

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Physical Education Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why Olympic Games are called Olympic?
Answer:
Olympic games were started in village Olympia. That is why it is known as Olympic.

Question 2.
When Ancient Olympics started?
Answer:
It was started in 776 in Greece.

Question 3.
What prizes were given to the winner of the Ancient Olympics?
Answer:
The roots of tree from the Goddess of Jess Temple were given.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 4.
Write any two rules of Ancient Olympic.
Answer:

  • Participants must be citizens of Greece.
  • Professional players cannot take part in Ancient Olympic.

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Modern Olympic games?
Answer:
Baron De Coubertin.

Question 6.
When and where modern Olympic games were started?
Answer:
It was started in 1896 in Athens.

Question 7.
Write any two rules of Modern Olympic games.
Answer:

  • There is no bar to participate in Olympic of caste and creed.
  • Professional players cannot take part in Olympic.

Question 8.
Who has originated Asian Game?
Answer:
It was started with the effort of Maharaja Yadvinder Singh of Patiala and Mr. G.D. Sondhi.

Question 9.
When and where Asian Games were started?
Answer:
It was started in 1951 at New Delhi.

Question 10.
After how many years Olympic games were held?
Answer:
After every four years.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 11.
Where were the fifth Asian games held?
Answer:
It was held in 1966 in Jakarta (Indonesia).

Question 12.
In which Olympic Mr. Milkha Singh got 4th position in 400 metres race?
Answer:
1960 (Rome Olympic) Mr. Milkha Singh got fourth position in 400 meters race.

Question 13.
In which year India participated in Olympic First Time?
Answer:
In 1920 Olympic Games.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 14.
Which Indian player won gold medal in 2008 Beijing Olympic Games?
Answer:
Mr. Abhinav Bindrg, won the gold medal in the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.

Question 15.
When and where did the Indian Hockey team won Gold Medal for the first time?
Answer:
In 1928 India Hockey team won Gold Medals at Amsterdam.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the founder of Modern Olympic Games? What do you know about him?
Answer:
Modern Olympic Games:
In 1859, the Olympic games were brought to life with the efforts of James. Only the Greeks could take part in these games. These games were held four times, but could not get much success. But the attention of the whole world was drawn towards these games, and the efforts began to make the games successful.
PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games 1
In 1893, a conference of all nations was convened with the sole aim of reviving the Olympic games. In June, 6, 1894, another conference was convened in Paris. It was unanimously resolved that these games would be conducted every four year in some country of the world. Baron de Coubertin made a great contribution in the revival of Olympic games. With his efforts the Olympic games were a new in the Greek city of Athens in 1896.

Question 2.
Discuss the rules for the competition of Modern Olympics.
Answer:
Entries and Rules For Olympic Games. In order to participate in the Olympic games, a player, whether man or woman, of age-group must be Amateur. All entries in the games are routed through National Olympic Committee. National Sports Committees select players to represent their respective countries, and send their names to the International Olympic Committee.

International Olympic Committee:
In order to organize Olympic games a committee was named International Olympic Committee was formed. It had one representative of each country in the world. Its head office is located in Compague Mon Zeps Lausanne (Switzerland). For this committee, one President, two Vice Presidents and members of the Executive are elected. This committee decides the time and venue of the Olympic games to be held every four years.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 3.
Discuss the various events which have been included in Modern Olympic games. Discuss the opening and closing ceremonies of Olympic games.Answer:
Olympic Programme:
Whichever event is to be included in the Olympic games is recognized first by the International Olympic Committee two years before the start of the games.This event must be played by at least 25 countries. With the inclusion of more games, new programmes and events came into being. The following events have been included in the Modern Olympic games :

  • Athletics
  • Football
  • Basketball
  • Hockey
  • Boxing
  • Volleyball
  • Weight-lifting
  • Cycling
  • Gymnastics
  • Handball
  • Swimming and Diving
  • Roving
  • Canoeing
  • Fencing.
  • Judo
  • Wrestling
  • Equestrain
  • Water polo
  • Shooting
  • Archery
  • Yachting
  • Pentathlon.

Opening and Closing Ceremonies of Olympic Games:
The opening ceremony of the Olympic games is very impressive. The torch which is kept burning with sunrays in Olympia is brought to that city where the Olympic games are to be held. The King, President or Prime Minister of that place announces the opening of the games . It is followed by the March Past by the athletes and oath-taking ceremony. The Olympic flag unfurled and pigeons and balloons are released.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 4.
When and where the Modern Olympic were held?
Answer:
List of Olympic Games held so far:

Second 1954 Manila Phillipines
Third 1958 Tokyo Japan
Fourth 1962 Bangkok Thailand
Fifth 1966 Jakarta Indonesia
Sixth 1970 Bangkok Thailand
Seventh 1974 Tehran Iran
Eighth 1978 Bangkok Thailand
Ninth 1982 New Delhi India
Tenth 1986 Seoul South Korea
Eleventh 1990 Beijing China
Twelfth 1994 Hiroshima Japan
Thirteenth 1998 Bangkok Thailand
Fourteenth 2002 Passan S.Korea
Fifteenth 2006 Doha Quatar
Sixteenth 2010 Goingz China
Seventeenth 2014 To be held S. Korea

The 1906 Olympic games were organised to mark the 10th anniversary of the Games. These were not held after a period of 4 years as usual:
At the time of holding ancient Olympic Games battle between the countries used to be stopped. But it is a matter of pity and shame that the Olympic Games stated for 1910 and then for 1914 were stopped because of the First World War and then the Second World War, and lovers of games could not participate in these games.

Moreover, in 1980 many countries did not participate in Olympic Games held in Moscow (U.S.S.R.) on political considerations. A large number of players who had put in their best efforts in their preparation had to face disappointment when their countries boycotted these games held in Moscow.

The world remained in tension as to what might happen in the Games which were held in Barcelona in 1992. In the Olympic Games of 1972 held in Munich, some players were attacked on narrow consideration of colour forgetting the true spirit of the Olympics. Many players were killed, and the whole world was plunged in sorrow and shame.

The founder of the modern Olympic games Baron de Coubertin might not have even imagined of this tragic fate which the Games met. It would be indeed fortunate if we could continue the Olympic Games in the spirit with which they were revived. History changes, and new incidents happened giving new turns to history. One is afraid if such tragic incidents would bring the Olympic Games to the same point when another Baron de Coubertin had to make efforts to revive them.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 5.
What do you know about Olympic Oath?
Answer:
Olympic Oath:
Olympic oath taking ceremony was started in 1920 in Antwerp. In the Charter of Olympic Games 63 it has been mentioned that an outstanding sportsperson of the host country would take oath by holding comer of the flag by one hand, and raising other hand upward swear as :
“We swear that we will take part in the Olympic Games in loyal competition respecting the regulations which govern them and with the desire to participate in the true spirit of sportsmanship for the honour of our country and glory of sports.”

Question 6.
What is the importance of Olympic Flag and Olympic Motto? What type of prizes are awarded to the winners of Modern Olympics?
Answer:
Olympic Flag:
Olympic flag was first hoisted in the city of Antwerp of Belgium in Olympic games. It was of white colour. It contains five connected circles of different colours (Red, Green, Yellow, Blue and Black). These are like the English alphabet W. It represents five continents i.e. Europe, America, Asia, Africa and Australia. The motto of Olympic games was shown by three words Citius, Altius and Fortius.
PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games 2

Olympic Awards – Certificates are awarded to persons who are placed in first three positions:

  • First Position – Gold Medal
  • Second Position – Silver Medal
  • Third Position – Bronze Medal

In addition to this a medal was awarded to an employee who helps in organising Olympic games.

Olympic Motto:
The Olympic Motto consists of three Latin words Citius, Altius and Fortius. The modern interpretation of this motto is Faster, Higher, Stronger. This represents the athletic games of running faster, jumping higher and throwing more strongly.

Question 7.
Which prizes were won by the Indian players in the 2008 Olympic games? Write the name of players and their games.
Answer:
The 2008 Beijng Olympic Indian won these medals:

Name Medal Sports
Abhinav Bindra Gold Shooting
Sushil Kumar Bronze Wrestling
Vijander Kumar Bronze Boxing

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 8.
Write the contribution of Indian in 2012 Olympic.
Answer:
2012 Olympic games were held, at London. In this games Indian performed very well and won six medals as under :

Medal Name Sports
Silver Sushil Kumar Wrestling
Silver Vijay Kumar Shooting
Bronze Mary Kom Boxing
Bronze Gagan Narang Shooting
Bronze Yogeshwar Dutt Wrestling
Bronze Saina Nehwal Badminton

2016 Olympic games were held of Rio (Brazil) in this game India won two medal as under:

Medal Name Sports
Silver P.V.Sindhu Badminton
Bronze Shakshi Malik Wrestling

Question 9.
When and where Asian Games were started? What is the contribution of India in organizing the Asian Games?
Answer:
Asian Games:
Brief History. The Asian Games were born on Feburary 13, 1949 when representatives of Afghanistan, Burma, India, Pakistan and Phillipines signed the Constitution at Patiala house, New Delhi and thus became the founder-members of Asian Games Federation. The representatives adopted “Ever Ownard as the motto of the games.” However behind that date lies a long period of gestation on the part of the member countries plus the efforts of late Sh. G.D. Sondhi, a former member of International Olympic Committee, President of Amateur Athletics Federation of India and the prime mover behind the founding of the western Asiatic Games.

The inspiration for the Asian Games can be traced back to these fore manners. The Far Eastern Games were held periodically between Japan-China and Phillipines in the first three decades of the century. The Olympic games in which the Asian countries were taking increasing interest, and Western Asiatic Games (for countries east of Suez and west of Singapore), which were held in 1934, but were discontinued with the start of World War II, gave rise to Asian Games.

These two types of sports festival had the idea of bringing together the youth of Asia on the field of sports. This idea was dormant until March, 1947, when the Asian Relation Conference called by Pt. Nehru in New Delhi, presented an opportunity to bring to the notice of the countries attending that conference, the proposal for Asian Games.

Mr. Sondhi raised the question of the Asian Games project with some assembled representatives attending the Asia Relation Conference and also approached Mr. Nehru who readily offered his support for the idea. During the London Olympics in 1948 the plan way again put before a gathering of Asian representatives and the First Asian Games were initially set to take place in 1950. After several postponements, the first Games were finally held in New Delhi March 1951. Since then Asian games have been held regularly four years interval.

The cavelcade of Asian Games went forward as follows :

Second 1954 Manila Phillipines
Third 1958 Tokyo Japan
Fourth 1962 Bangkok Thailand
Fifth 1966 Jakarta Indonesia
Sixth 1970 Bangkok Thailand
Seventh 1974 Tehran Iran
Eighth 1978 Bangkok Thailand
Ninth 1982 New Delhi India
Tenth 1986 Seoul South Korea
Eleventh 1990 Beijing China
Twelfth 1994 Hiroshima Japan
Thirteenth 1998 Bangkok Thailand
Fourteenth 2002 Passan S.Korea
Fifteenth 2006 Doha Quatar
Sixteenth 2010 Goingz China
Seventeenth 2014 To be held S. Korea

Member Contries:

  • Afghanistan
  • Behrain
  • Burma
  • China
  • Hongkong
  • India
  • Indonesia
  • Iran
  • Iraq
  • Israel
  • Japan
  • Republic of Khemer
  • Democratic Republic of Korea
  • Republic of a Korea
  • Kuwait
  • Laos
  • Malaysia
  • Republic of Mangolia
  • Nepal
  • Pakistan
  • Phillipines
  • Saudi Arabia
  • Singapore
  • Sri Lanka
  • Thailand
  • Republic of Vietnam

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the History of Ancient Olympics. (OR) When and where the Ancient Olympic Games started ? Why are these known as Olympic Games ?
Answer:
History:
The Ancient Olympic Games came into existence in the Greek city of Olympia in 776 A.D. The credit for starting these games is given to Ifitus and Claustheius. The games began on full moon night in the months of August and September. The first winner of the Olympic games was Corbus. These games were organised after a year. They got banned in 394 A.D. on the orders of Roman Emperor Theodosius. The Olympic city was situated on the bank of Elfis river. It was the sacred city of Elis state. These games acquired special status in 1100 A.D., and began to be taken care of like a temple. With the beginning of the Olympic games, all battles in Greece used to be stopped. Nobody with weapons could enter Olympia. These games are related to Greek God Zeus.

Sports :
The Ancient Olympic games used to begin with race. It used to be 100 yards. In 724 A.D. the distance of the race was increased to 400 yards. In the 15th Olympic games the distance of the race was increased to 3 miles. In the 18th Olympic games Pentathlon was started. It included five games-long jump, 200-yard race, javelin throw and wrestling. In 25th Olympic games, chariot race was introduced, and in 30th Olympics, boxing, water- sports, wrestling pekprium and some other games were introduced. At first women were not allowed to participate in games, but then they were allowed to do so.

Rewards :
The winners of the games were amply rewarded. They were taken to the temple of Zeus and were presented the leaves and branches of olive tree. People would sing in their praises. The games were named after these winners. The companions of these winners would bring them home in the accompaniment of instrumental music. The country would take pride in her winners, and all Greeks would pray for good luck to all participants of these games.

End :
With the passage of time these games became more and more popular, and other countries also began to take part in these games. After the victory of Greece by Romans, these games had a severe setback. Some professionals began to take part in these games, thus giving rise to many evils in the games. On the orders of Roman Emperor Theodosius in 394 A.D., these games came to an end. In 395 A.D., the statue of the Greek god Zeus was also broken. The Olympic city got deserted. Roman Emperor Theodosius also destroyed stadiums. For some time even the relics of Olympic games and Olympic city disappeared.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 2.
What were the rules for competition in Ancient Olympics ?
Answer:
Rules of Ancient Olympics. It was extremely essential to follow the following rules to take part in Olympic games :

  • All players participating in the games ought to be Greeks.
  • It was essential for a player to take up training for 10 months under the care of somebody before taking part in these games.
  • No professional could participate in the games.
  • In the initial stage, women were neither allowed to witness, nor participate in these games.
  • The players had to take oath to participate in the games properly.
  • The players should not have any criminal charge.
  • The first and last days of games were fixed for religious ceremonies and sacrifices.

Sports:
In the beginning, only one game was included in the Olympics, but more games were slowly introduced. First of all the race used to be of 100 yards. In 724 A.D. at the 14th Olympic games 400 yards race was introduced. At the 18th Olympic games Pentathlon was started. It include long jump, Javelin throw, 200 yards race, discus throw and wrestling. In 23rd and 25th Olympics, 3 miles race was introduced. In 28th Olympics, chariot race, and in 30th Olympics, water sports were included. These games used to last for there to five days. At first women were not allowed to take part in games, but they were allowed to do so later on.

Question 3.
What do you know about the opening ceremony of Ancient Olympics ?
Answer:
Opening ceremony and conduct of Games:
Before the start of the games, all the players, their father’s and brothers and the coaches used to assemble in a hall. The Chief Judge would utter some words to them, and they used to take the oath that they would not resort to only illegal ways and means in the games, and that they had a training of 10 months prior to the games. Thereafter, the player and some other people would take part in the March Past. When a player came out in sight, his name, his father’s name, and the name of his state were announced so that the spectators would become familiar with him fully. If a spectator had some objection to his participation, he would make it known.

If no objection was raised, it was presumed that nobody had any objection to his participation, he would make it known. If no objection was raised, it was presumed that nobody had any objection to his participation. Thereafter-, the opening of the games was announced. Some distinguished person or the chief judge would address the players, and the games would start immediately thereafter.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 4.
What do you know about the awards of the Ancient Olympic Games ?
Answer:
Awards. Till the 6th Olympic games the winners were given cattle and corn in the form of awards, but this practice came to an end. Then the winners used to be honoured with garlands or crown made of the leaves and branches of olive tree. The players were highly honoured and rewarded, and they used to enjoy high status in society. The award distribution ceremony used to be very impressive. The names of the winners were noted down in the calender, and poems in their praises were composed. The sculptors would make their statues. Gates were erected to honour the winners. Friends used to give them gifts. The Greeks used to honour them in all ways, and look upon these games as a matter of pride and glory.

We can realize the importance of these games from one incident. Once a player, who has earlier won some game, came alongwith his two sons to see them honoured for having won two races in a single day. When the awards were being given, people were so happy and excited that they said that the father had got so much happiness in his life because of his sons that he could not expect more happiness in life, and, it would be better if he simply ceased to be. This incident reveals the people’s extreme love for Olympic games, and their importance in one’s life. During those days people did not participate in these games in expectation of any material or economic reward. They participated in these games for the love of games. They had no temptation.

Question 5.
Write a note on the decline of the Ancient Olympic Games.
Answer:
Decline for the Ancient Olympic Games:

The Olympic games continued for many years with much enthusiasm and zeal, and people in large number used to participate in them. But when people from outside Greece began to take part, the people forgot the spirit of the amateur and turned professionals. These people then made the victory in the games their sole motive.One of the reasons of the decline of these games was the Roman victory over Greece. The decline started because the Romans were not very enthusiastic about these games.

Many evils cropped, up in the games. People began to bribe the judges in order to win. Then some such events came to be included in the Olympics as caused the death of one or the other player everyday. In game like boxing players began to hold iron pieces in their hands which would prove very injurious or fatal, thereby discouraging the honest people from taking part in such games.

In 394 A.D. these games were banned on the orders of the Roman Emperor Theodosius. The contribution of the Greeks in the sprots field was, thus, put to an end. The stadiums and temple where life buzzed with activity turned into ruins, and revealed the decline of the Olympic games. No doubt, everything that takes birth in the world ceases to exist one day as per the law of nature. In accordance with this law, the zeal of the Olympic games got buried under the debris of time, but people continued to have sweet memories of the old days. They continued to talk about these games.

Question 6.
In which country were the 1982 Asian Games were held?
Answer:
In India.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 7.
What place has the Indian player achieved in 2012 Olympic Games?
Answer:
56th.

Question 8.
Which prizes were won by the Indian in the eleventh Asian games?
Answer:
Medals of Indian players in Asian Games Beijing (China), 1990.

Game Gold Silver Bronze Total
Athletics 4 2 6
Boxing 1 1
Hockey 1 1
Kabaddi 1 1
Rowing 4 4
Shooting 1 1
Tennis 1 1
Weight Lifting 2 2 4
Wrestling 1 1 2
Yachting 2 2
Total 1 8 14 23
  • 12th Asian game India won 4 Gold and silver and 15 bronze Medals.
  • Thirteenth Asian games in 1998 and India won 7 Gold, 11 Silver and 17 Bronze Medals.
  • Fourteenth Asian games India get 14 Gold 17^Silver and 33 Bronze Medals. „
  • Seventeenth Asian games were held in incheon South Koren in 2014 in these games won 57 Medals (11 Gold, 10 Silver, 36 Bronze).

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB The Central Government Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Mention the tenure of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The term of the Lok Sabha is five years but the President, on the advice of the Prime Minister, can dissolve it before the expiry of its term. During the emergency, this period can be extended for one year by the Parliament.

Question 2.
What is the maximum number of the members of the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha has been fixed at 550 members. Out of this number, 530 members represent the people of the States of India and 20 members are elected by the voters of the Union Territories. The President can nominate two Anglo- Indians, if he feels that this community has not got adequate representation.

Question 3.
How is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha appointed?
Answer:
The Speaker or Chairman of the Lok Sabha is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves.

Question 4.
What do you mean by a Vote of No-confidence?
Answer:
The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers can continue to be in office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the Lok Sabha. They can be thrown out of office by a vote of no-confidence passed by a majority of members present and voting in the house.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 5.
What is the minimum age required to become a member of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The minimum age limit for a person to become a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 , years and that of the Rajya Sabha is thirty years.

Question 6.
When and how many Anglo-Indians can be nominated by the President in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
If no Anglo-Indian is elected to the Lok Sabha, the President can nominate two members of this community to it.

Question 7.
Enumerate the stages through which an ordinary bill passes to become a law.
Answer:
A bill passes through three stages or readings through both the houses of the parliament separately. If the bill is passed, it is sent to the President for his assent.

Question 8.
How and who elects the members of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The members of the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies. The maximum number of the members of Rajya Sabha can be 250.

Question 9.
Who are included in the electoral college for the election of the President? ,
Answer:
Elected representative of the people are included in the electoral college for the President.

Question 10.
How is the Vice-President of India elected?
Answer:
The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of both the houses of Parliament in a joint sitting by an absolute majority.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 11.
How is the Prime Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is appointed by the President. He appoints that person as the Prime Minister who enjoys a majority in the Lok Sabha.

Question 12.
Explain the organisation of the Union Council of Ministers,
Answer:
The Union Council of Ministers is appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.

Question 13.
Explain each of the following :
(a) Qualification of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Answer:

  1. He must be a citizen of India.
  2. He must have worked as a judge of High Court for a period of not less than five years or must have worked as an advocate in some high courts for a period of not less than ten years. Or he must be an eminent jurist in the view of the President.

(b) Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It is the obligation of the Supreme Court to advise on constitutional as well as other legal matters to any legislature, the Council of Ministers or the President. But it is not binding upon the President or the government to accept the advice given by the Supreme Court.

(c) Supreme Court Act as a Court of Record.
Answer:
Supreme Court Act as a Court of Record. The Supreme Court is a Court of Record. It means that its decisions and Judicial proceedings are recorded and printed. The Courts subordinate to it and the lawyers use them in their pleadings. The decisions given by the Supreme Court are recorded and then used by the Lower Courts to give further Judgements.

II. Answer the following questions in short :

Question 1.
Explain the powers of the Parliament.
Answer:
Following are the main powers of the Parliament :
1. Legislative Powers. The Parliament legislates on the subjects included in the Union List and the Concurrent List. It can also pass laws on the Residuary Subjects. During the emergency, it can also legislate on any and every subject mentioned in the State List.

2. Executive Powers. It can dissolve the cabinet by passing a vote of no-confidence against it. It also exercises control over the executive by asking questions and supplementary ‘questions. The members can table certain other resolutions to suspend the normal proceedings of the Parliament.

3. Financial Powers. The Parliament is the custodian of the Union purse. It passes the budget and authorises all expenditure. No tax can be imposed without its sanction.

4. Constitutional Amendment. All proposals for the constitutional amendments can be initiated only by the Parliament.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 2.
Examine the role or functions of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Speaker is elected by the House from amongst its members. Following are the main functions of the Speaker :

  • He presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha and conducts its business. He generally belongs to the majority party, but he acts in an impartial manner.
  • He maintains discipline in the House. He can suspend a member from the House for his misconduct and indiscipline in the house.
  • He decides whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.
  • If a joint session of both the Houses of the Parliament is summoned by the President to discuss a bill, it is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Question 3.
How a bill becomes an Act in the Indian Parliament?
Answer:
An ordinary bill may be introduced in the either House by any minister or a member of the Parliament. A bill, before becoming an Act, has to pass through the stages given below :

  • First Reading. Only the heading and main clauses of the bill are read out at this stage. No discussion takes place.
  • Second Reading or Stage. The bill is debated-clause by clause and amendments are moved. If the majority of the members vote in its favor, the bill is referred to the select committee.
  • Third Reading or Stage. The debate at this stage is confined only to the matter of the bill. The bill is rejected or accepted by the House.
  • Bill in the Second House. The Bill in the Second House also passes through the same stages as in the First House. If the Bill is also passed by the Second House, it is referred to the President for his assent.
  • Assent of the President. After getting the assent of the President, it becomes a law.

Question 4.
Explain the collective and individual responsibility of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
Principle of Collective Responsibility. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The ministers come into the office and go out of it as a team. The Prime Minister is the captain of this team. He presides over the meetings of the Cabinet or the whole Council of Ministers. They take decisions collectively. After decisions are arrived at, all the members of the Cabinet are equally responsible for it, including those who might have argued against it. If a vote of no-confidence is passed against one Minister in the Lok Sabha, the whole Council of Ministers must resign. The ministers sink and sail together. When any minister is criticised in the Parliament, the other members of the Council of Ministers come to his rescue and support the action and policy of the minister. The ministers are thus responsible to the Parliament both collectively and individually.

Question 5.
How is the Union Cabinet appointed in India?
Answer:
The Cabinet which is a part of the Council of Ministers is appointed by the President of India. In fact, the President has not free hand in the appointment of the Prime Minister or Ministers. He appoints the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as a Prime Minister. The President has no choice in this matter.

The Prime Minister prepares the list of other ministers to be included in the Council of Ministers. He presents this list to the President. The President cannot refuse to approve this list. Sometimes a person who is not a member of the Parliament is appointed a minister. Such a minister must become the member of Parliament within six months of his appointment as a minister.

Question 6.
Examine the position of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
The Prime Minister enjoys vast powers in the constitutional setup of the country. He chooses the Ministers of his team and allots the portfolios to them. In the Cabinet, he is not only the first among the equals, but a moon among the stars. His resignation brings about the fall of the entire Cabinet. He is thus the key stone of the Cabinet arch. Although all the executive authority of the Union is vested in the President, it is invariably exercised by his Council of Ministers and the President is supposed to be a mere constitutional head. To sum up, the Prime Minister is the linchpin of the government.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 7.
Examine the powers of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
‘There is no doubt that the Prime Minister is the pivot of the cabinet. He appoints the ministers. The President appoints the ministers only on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. He allots the portfolios to the ministers. He can reorganise the cabinet to make the administration efficient. He can change the portfolios of the ministers. If the Prime minister resigns, the whole council of ministers is dissolved. He can ask the erring ministers or a minister having a different opinion, to quit. If a minister refuses to resign, he can tender the resignation of his Council of Ministers and reconstitute the ministry. He presides over the meetings of the Cabinet and exercises control over its agenda.

Question 8.
Explain the emergency powers of the President.
Answer:
Following are the emergency powers of the President :
1. National Emergency. If the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India is threatened by war, external aggression or armed rebellion, he may declare a state of emergency for the whole of India or a part of it. (Article 352)

2. Constitutional Emergency. If the President is satisfied either on the recommendation of the Governor or otherwise that the government cannot be carried on in the state in accordance with the constitution, he may declare emergency in that state. (Art.-356) .

3. Financial Emergency. The President may declare financial emergency if he is satisfied that there is a threat to financial stability or credit of the country as a whole or a part thereof. (Art. 360)

Question 9.
Describe the procedure of Impeachment of the President.
Answer:

  1. The process of impeachment of the President may be started in either house of the Parliament.
  2. A prior notice to this effect has to be given to the President duly signed by l/4th of the total number of that house;
  3. A prior notice of 14 days must be served before initiating the impeachment;
  4. Such resolution of charges must be supported by at least 2/3rd of the total membership of that house;
  5. The charges initiated in one house, if are proved after investigation in the other house by 2/3 majority of the total membership of the house, the President shall have to leave the office from the date such a resolution is approved. The President can defend himself personally or through a counsel before both the houses.

Question 10.
Do you think that the Indian President is nominal head of the union executive? If yes, then who is the real executive?
Answer:
From the study of powers of the President in various fields, it seems that he is a very powerful executive head. Besides, he has important legislative, financial and judicial powers. He can declare emergency. He can dissolve the Lok Sabha, can issue ordinances. No bill can become law without his signature.

In actual practice, however, he is the nominal head of the state. He does not exercise these powers himself but on the advice of the Council of Ministers. He declares emergency only on the advice of the Council of Ministers and uses these powers with its aid. He can never become a dictator. His powers closely resemble the powers of the Queen of Britain. He can advise, encourage and warn his ministers. But much depends upon the personality and character of the President. And in this sense, he is no figure head. He is, in fact, a guide who can shape and mould the policy of India both at home and abroad.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 11.
Describe the role of the Vice-President of India.
Answer:
Following are the two important functions of the Vice-President of India :

  1. He is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. When he acts as the President of India or discharges his functions, he shall not preside over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha.
  2. He can officiate as the President for a maximum period of six months in case of death, resignation or removal of the latter till the new President is elected. He discharges the functions of the President when the latter is unable to do so owing to any reason.

Question 12.
Explain briefly the powers of the President of India.
Answer:
Following are the powers of the Indian President :
1. Executive Powers

  • All laws are enforced in the name of the President,
  • He appoints the Prime Minister and other ministers on the basis of the recommendations of the Prime Minister,
  • He can make a declaration of war and peace.
  • It is he who appoints ambassadors to foreign states and receives those coming from other countries.

2. Legislative Powers.

  • No bill becomes an act without his approval,
  • He can dissolve the Lok Sabha before its fixed term on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  • He nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha and two to the Lok Sabha.

3. Financial Powers. No money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the President.

4. Judicial Powers

  • The President can remove the judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court on the basis of the resolution passed by the Parliament with 2/3rd majority of the members present and voting,
  • He can pardon or reprieve the punishment confirmed by the Supreme Court.

5. Emergency Powers: The President can proclaim emergency under certain circumstances,

  • War, external aggression and armed rebellion.
  • Breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State,
  • Financial crisis.

Question 13.
Explain the following :
(a) How an ordinary bill differs from a money bill?
Answer:
Money bill. A money bill relates to the imposing, reducing or repealing of taxes, borrowing of money or authorizing expenditure by the government. It is called a money bill. A money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha by a minister.

Ordinary bill. All the bills other than money bills are called ordinary bills. They are of two types, Public bill and Private bill. Public bill is of universal nature and affects all the residents of the state. Private bill relates to a particular section of the society or some private companies.

(b) Unified concept of Judiciary in India.
Answer:
India has single unified judicial system. The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of Justice in India, immediately below which are the state High Courts, below the High Courts, there are District Courts. All these courts apply the same law code in the decisions of all civil, criminal and constitutional cases. The appeals can be taken to the High Court, against the decision of the District Court. The Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions of High Court.

(c) The power of Judicial Review in India.
Answer:
The power of Judicial Review in India (2014 III). The Supreme Court can exercise the power of judicial review. It can declare any law passed by the Union Parliament or by a State Legislature as unconstitutional if it violates the Constitution.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide The Central Government Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
What is meant by the Indian Parliament?
Answer:
In India, the Union Legislature is called the Parliament or Sansad.

Question 2.
Mention any one essential qualification for the members of Lok Sahha.
Answer:
He must, be a citizen of India.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 3.
Write any one important function of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
He presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha.

Question 4.
What is the difference between a money bill and an ordinary bill?
Answer:
A money bill can originate in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.

Question 5.
Write down one power of the President relating to a bill.
Answer:
No bill can become a law without his assent.

Question 6.
Mention any one method by which the Parliament keeps the executive under control.
Answer:
It can dissolve the cabinet by passing a vote of no-confidence against it.

Question 7.
What is meant by the Parliamentary system?
Answer:
It means a system of government in which all the powers of the state are exercised by the Prime Minister and his ministers.

Question 8.
When can the President declare Financial Emergency?
Answer:
If he is satisfied that there is a threat to financial stability or credit of the country as a whole or a part thereof.

Question 9.
What is the composition of Electoral College which elects the Vice¬President of India?
Answer:
The electoral college which elects the Vice-President includes only the elected members of the Parliament. .

Question 10.
Explain any one function of the Vice-President.
Answer:
He is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Question 11.
How many types of ministers are included in the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers.

Question 12.
What is meant by the Reading of the Bill?
Answer:
The procedure of discusssion of a bill is called the Reading of the Bill.

Question 13.
What is an adjournment motion?
Answer:
To discuss a grave matter of public importance out of turn in the Parliament is called adjournment motion.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 14.
Explain the meaning of Question Hour.
Answer:
The first hour of every sitting in both the houses of the parliament is devoted to asking arid answering questions.

Question 15.
In connection with the Parliament what is a supplementry question?
Answer:
The right of the members to ask some more questions relating to the same matter. Question 16. Mention any two qualifications for the membership of the Rajya Sabha. Answer:He must be a citizen of India and must have completed 30 years of age.

Question 17.
Write any one important function of the Speaker of Lok Sahha.
Answer:
To preside over the meetings of the Lok Sabha.

Question 18.
What is the main function of the Parliament?
Answer:
The main function of the Parliament is to make laws.

Question 19.
What is a Bill?
Answer:
The proposed law is called a Bill.

Question 20.
Who decides whether a bill is an ordinary or money bill?
Answer:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether a Bill is ordinary or money bill.

Question 21.
For how many days can the Rajya Sabha delay a money hill duly passed by the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
A money bill duly passed by the Lok Sabha can be delayed by fourteen days by the Rajya Sabha.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 22.
What should be the minimum age required to become the President of India?
Answer:
35 years.

Question 23.
What is the tenure of the President of India?
Answer:
The tenure of the President is five years.

Question 24.
Write one executive power of the President.
Answer:
The President makes the appointment of the Prime Minister and other Ministers on his advice.

Question 25.
Who is the Supreme Commander of all the three armed forces?
Answer:
The President.

Question 26.
Who can issue an ordinance?
Answer:
The President can issue an ordinance.

Question 27.
Write one legislative power of the President.
Answer:
All bills passed by the Parliament must receive his assent before becoming laws.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 28.
Write any one financial power of the President.
Answer:
The President causes to be laid, before the Parliament the annual: budget.

Question 29.
Write one judicial power qf the president.
Answer:
The President appoints judges of the. Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Question 30.
Who is the real head of the Union Government’?
Answer:
The Prime Minister.

Question 31.
Write one power of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
He chooses the Ministers of his team and allocates portfolios to them.

Question 32.
Which is the highest court of justice in India?
Answer:
The Supreme Court.

Question 33.
How many judges are there in the Supreme Court?
Answer:
At present Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and 33 other Judges.

Question 34.
Mention any one qualification with regard to experience for appointment as a judge in the Supreme Court.
Answer:
He has been for at least 10 years an advocate of a High Court or two or more such courts in succession.

Question 35.
How many jurisdictions are there of the Supreme Court? Which are these?
Answer:

  1. Original
  2. Appellate and
  3. Advisory jurisdiction.

Question 36.
Who is the guardian of our fundamental rights?
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of our fundamental rights.

Question 37.
What does the term ‘appeal’ mean?
Answer:
When petition against the decision of a lower court is made to a high court, it is called appeal.

Question 38.
Describe one function and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
It decides the cases regarding the fundamental rights.

Question 39.
How can the President remove the judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts?
Answer:
On the basis of a resolution passed by the parliament by a special majority.

Question 40.
How is the Lok Sabha dissolved?
Answer:
Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.

Question 41.
Who presides over the meetings of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Vice-President of India presides over the meetings of Rajya Sabha.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 42.
How are the judges of Supreme Court-appointed?
Or
Who elects (appoints) the Judges of Supreme Court?
Answer:
They are appointed by the President of India.

Question 43.
What is the tenure of the Judges of Supreme Court?
Answer:
The Judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of 65 years.

Question 44.
Who is Public Prosecutor?
Answer:
Public prosecutor is a person appointed by central / state govt, to represent cases on behalf of the state in criminal trials.

Question 45.
How many members can be nominated in the Lok Sabha and Ra\ya Sabha by the President?
Answer:
The President can nominate twelve members to the Rajya Sabha. The President can nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha if no member of the community is elected to the Lok Sabha.

Question 46.
Mention the term of the members of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha is six years. One third members of the Rajya Sabha retire after two years.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The tenure of the Lok Sabha is ___________ years.
Answer:
five

Question 2.
Maximum number of the members of Lok Sabha can be ___________
Answer:
550

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 3.
The Prime Minister is appointed by the ___________
Answer:
President

Question 4.
The term of the members of Rajya Sabha is ___________ years.
Answer:
six

Question 5.
Upper House of the Parliament is known as ___________
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 6.
Lower House of the Parliament is known as ___________
Answer:
Lok Sabha

Question 7.
Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the ___________
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 8.
The Speaker of the Lok-Sabha is elected by the members of the ___________
Answer:
Lok Sabha

Question 9.
No money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the ___________
Answer:
Speaker

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 10.
The highest court of justice is ___________
Answer:
Supreme Court

Question 11.
The tenure of the President is ___________years.
Answer:
five

Question 12.
Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the ___________
Answer:
President.

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The Indian Parliament is:
(a) Unicameral
(b) Three Houses
(c) Bicameral
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Bicameral

Question 2.
The tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 5 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 3 years.
Answer:
(c) 6 years

Question 3.
The term of office of the Indian President is:
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 3 years.
Answer:
(b) 5 years

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 4.
The Judges Qf the Supreme Court retire at the age of:
(a) 62
(b) 58
(c) 60
(d) 65.
Answer:
(d) 65.

Question 5.
The President of India is elected by:
(a) The Electoral College
(b) The Legislative Assemblies
(c) The Parliament
(d) The People.
Answer:
(a) The Electoral College

Question 6.
Who is the guardian of ouí’ fundamental rights?:
(a) President
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(cl) Prime Minister.
Answer:
(b) Supreme Court

Question 7.
Who is the supreme commander of the defence forces?
(a) Defence Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Home Minister
(d) President,
Answer:
(d) President,

Question 8.
The real head of the Union Government is:
(a) The President
(b) Home Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet.
Answer:
(c) Prime Minister

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 9.
The President is:
(a) Head of Govt.
(b) Head of the State
(c) Head of the Union Territory
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Head of the State

Question 10.
Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and :
(a) 13 other Judges
(b) 25 other Judges
(c) 20 other Judges
(d) 33 other Judges.
Answer:
(d) 33 other Judges.

Question 11.
While appointing the Judges of the Supreme Court it is obligatory for the President to consult the :
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Law Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India.
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice of India.

Question 12.
The tenure of the Prime Minister is :
(a) 5 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) Not fixed.
Answer:
(d) Not fixed.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give arguments to prove that there is the Supremacy of the Parliament in the country.
Or
What do you mean by the ‘Supremacy of the Parliament’?
Answer:
By the ‘Supremacy of the Parliament’, we mean that the Parliament is the supreme law-making body. It can enact, amend and repeal any lav/ as and when it likes. It is both an ordinary law-making body as well as a constitutional law-making body.

The Indian Parliament is the creation of the Constitution of India which has specified its powers, etc. in relevant articles. It is the legislative organ of the Union and is comprised of the representatives of the people. It takes part in the election of the President and the Vice-President. It exercises control over the executive who is collectively responsible to it. It can dissolve the Cabinet by withdrawing confidence in it. It keeps complete control over the national finance. The foregoing points prove its supremacy but it is not a sovereign body uncontrolled or having unlimited powers. The Supreme Court can strike down the Acts passed by the Parliament, if they violate the Constitution.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 2.
Make a mention of the mutual relationship between the President and the Prime Minister.
Answer:
The essence of the Parliamentary form of Government is that the chief executive head of the State is a nominal head. All those powers vested in him are exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is the link between the President and the Council of Ministers. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President. The President invariably appoints that person as the Prime Minister who is the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister is the chief advisor of the President and as the present constitutional position stands, it is binding on the President to act on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Question 3.
Write any four powers of the Prime Minister.
Or
Explain three powers of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
Main functions of the Prime Minister are given ahead :

  1. He chooses the ministers of his team and allocates portfolios to them.
  2. He can change the portfolios of the ministers.
  3. He advises the President on different matters of the government.
  4. He formulates all internal and external policies of the government.
  5. Inside the Parliament, he is the chief spokesman of the government.
  6. He supervises the work of administration of different departments.

Question 4.
When can emergency be declared in a state?
Answer:
A state of emergency may be declared in a state by the President. Generally, it is declared on the advice of the Governor of the state.

If the President is satisfied either on the recommendation of the Governor or otherwise that the government cannot be carried on in a State in accordance with the Constitution, he may declare emergency in the State. Initially, the President’s Rule is imposed for a period of six months but it can be extended upto a maximum period of three years. During this emergency, the President can suspend or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly. The President can himself assume all or any of the functions of the State. He may vest all or any of those functions in the Governor or any other executive authority.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 5.
Explain the relations between the Parliament and Judiciary in India.
Answer:
In India, there is a close relation between the Parliament and Judiciary. The Parliament determines the number of judges of the Supreme Court and can also pass a resolution for their removal. Moreover, it can increase or decrease the powers of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court of India is also competent to declare null and void the laws of the Parliament if they violate the Constitution by exercising its power of ‘Judicial Review’.

Question 6.
Mention the procedure of election of the members of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Lok Sabha is the lower chamber of the Parliament. It has 544 members. These members are directly elected by the people. Every Indian citizen (who is 18 years of age) whose name is on the voters’ list can participate in the election to the Lok Sabha. Some seats are reserved for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. The President can nominate two Anglo-Indians if he feels that the community has not received proper representation.

The members of Lok Sabha are elected on the basis of population. Every member represents 10 lakh to 15 lakh of population. The whole country is divided into constituencies. Every state gets representation in proportion to its population.

Question 7.
Who can be elected the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and how?
Answer:
The office of the Presiding Officer of the Lok Sabha (called the Speaker) is of great dignity and authority. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members. After the general elections, when the House assembles, it is presided over by the seniormost member of the House to elect its Presiding Officer. Any member can seek election to this office and one getting majority of votes is elected as the Speaker of the House.

Question 8.
What is meant by Parliament? Tell the names of the two Houses of the Parliament and also their term.
Answer:
The Union Legislature of India is called the Parliament. Constitutionally Parliament consists of the President and two houses-the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The Parliament can make laws on all the subjects of national importance. It is the supreme law making body.

1. Term of the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha is elected for 5 years. But it can be dissolved earlier by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. During the emergency due to external aggression or armed revolt its life can be extended.

2. Term of the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house. But every two years one-third (l/3rd) of its members retire and new ones are elected in their place. Thus every member is elected for a term of six years.

Question 9.
Mention six essential qualifications for the membership of the Parliament.
Answer:
Following are the six essential qualifications for the membership of the Parliament :

  1. He must be a citizen of India.
  2. He must have completed 30 years of age for the Rajya Sabha and 25 years for the Lok Sabha.
  3. He must not hold any office of profit under the state or union government.
  4. He must not be of unsound mind.
  5. He must not be bankrupt.
  6. He must not be an alien or non-citizen.

Question 10.
Mention the basis on which the President can nominate 12 members for the Rajya Sabha and 2 members for Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The President can nominate twelve members to the Rajya Sabha from amongst the persons of eminence having practical experience in literature, science, art and social services. He is also empowered to nominate to the Lok Sabha not more than two members from the Anglo-Indian Community if he feels that it has not got adequate representation.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 11.
Mention three types of legislative and non-legislative powers of the Parliament.
Answer:
Legislative Powers :

  • It can legislate upon all ordinary bills.
  • It also passes the money bills.
  • It approves all the ordinances issued by the President. It can also reject them.

Non-legislative Powers :

  • It accords approval to all emergency proclamations promulgated by the President.
  • Any member of Parliament may ask the government any question to elicit information regarding its policies.
  • It also considers the no-confidence motion initiated against the Cabinet.

Question 12.
Who makes the appointment of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and other judges and with whose consultation?
Answer:

  1. The appointment of the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court is made by the President.
  2. The appointment of the Chief Justice is made in consultation with the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
  3. The appointment of other judges of the Supreme Court is made in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and others whom the President may deem necessary.

Question 13.
Mention the qualifications, tenure, and salary of the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
Qualifications for an appointment :

  • He must be a citizen of India.
  • He has been for at least five years a judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
  • He has been for at least 10 years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
  • He is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.

Tenure :

  • A Judge of a Supreme Court can serve up to the age of 65 years.
  • Salary. The salary of the Chief Justice is Rs. 2,80,000 per month and Rs. 2,50,000 of the other Judges of the Supreme Court.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 The Central Government

Question 14.
Mention those five references from the Constitution which make the Supreme Court independent and impartial.
Answer:

  1. The Directive Principles of State Policy provide that the judiciary be made independent of the control of the executive.
  2. The appointment of Judges is made on the basis of their legal acumen.
  3. The judges are paid decent salaries befitting their position which cannot be altered to their disadvantage.
  4. The procedure for their removal has been made very difficult.
  5. The decisions of the Supreme Court cannot be subjected to criticism by an individual, institution or even Parliament.

Question 15.
Describe the effects of the emergency proclamation on the state administration.
Answer:
According to Article 356 of the Constitution, the President can proclaim an emergency in a state if he is satisfied that the constitutional machinery in a state has broken down. The President declares constitutional emergency in a state only after receiving a report from the Governor. During the emergency, the whole administration of the state comes under the control of the central govt. Such an emergency is declared when the constitutional machinery in a state does not work properly. The Governor of the state is generally asked to run the state administration on behalf of the central government. The Governor can suspend or dissolve the state legislative assembly. He becomes the real ruler of the state.

Question 16.
What do you mean by a Vote of No-confidence?
Answer:
The Constitution grants the Lok Sabha the power of passing a Vote of No-confidence against the Council of Ministers. It means that the Council, of Ministers, is responsible to the Lok Sabha. The members of the Council of Ministers remain in office so long as they enjoy the confidence of the Lok Sabha. If the Lok Sabha passes by a majority of votes, the motion of No-confidence against the Council of Ministers will resign.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Government of every country establishes law and order and peace in the society. This work is done by the Government by making laws, establishing law and order in the society. But Government can not do whatever it wants by passing laws according to its will. The Government of country has to work according to constitutional fundamental laws. So the Constitution is the basic source of framing of country’s administration as well as state administration and it keeps check on misuse of power. It decides the relationship between the organs of the government and its citizens. It checks misuse of power by the Government.
(а) What do you mean by constitution?
Answer:
Constitution is a document of basic laws according to which the government of a country functions.

(b) Write briefly any three objectives described in preamble.
Answer:
The preamble to the constitution throws light on the nature of the Indian administrative system and goals to be achieved by the state. Its objectives are as under:

  • India would be Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic Republic state.
  • Social, economic and political justice to all citizens.
  • Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship to all citizens.
  • Equality of status.
  • Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation.

Question 2.
Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin. Both of these runs side by side. In other words, there is no place for rights without duties. So all countries of world have mentioned fundamental rights along with fundamental duties. In Indian culture, emphasis has been always given to duties instead of rights. In basic constitution, there was no mention of duties of citizens.
In 1976 by 42nd amendment of constitution in chapter IV A, ten duties were added for citizens. In the year 2002, by 86th amendment of constitution, a new duty was also added.
(a) Why and when the fundamental duties of Indian citizens were inserted in the constitution?
Answer:
There was no mention of duties of citizens in the basic constitution.
These were included in the Indian constitution by the 42nd constitutional amendment in 1976.

(b) Write any three duties of Indian Citizens.
Answer:
The following are the fundamental duties of Indian citizens :

  • To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals, National Flag and National Anthem.
  • To Cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
  • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  • To develop the feelings of interalion among citizens for religion, language and territory.
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite nature. –
  • To protect the nation’s environment and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
  • To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  • To safeguard public property and abjure violence.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 3.
Democracy is considered to be the best system. At present many countries of the world have adopted this form of government and it has become very popular. In spite of this, the democratic system is not successful in every country.
For the success of democracy, every citizen should have good character, vigilent and wise, educated, intelligent, responsible and having interest in public matter. There should be good and able leadership, social and economic equality and independent press and judiciary, good political parties and tolerance among the citizens for success of democracy. According to J.S. Mill, “In order to make democracy successful, there, should be intentions to regularise democratic rule in the people and ability to run it, always to be ready for protection of Democracy and there should be intention among the citizens and to protection of rights of the people and to perform the duties is necessary.
(а) What do you mean by Democracy?
Answer:
According to Lincoln, “Democracy is the government of’the people, for the people and by the people”.

(b) Describe three conditions for the success of Democracy.
Answer:
Following are the main conditions necessary for the success of Democracy:

  1. Spread of Education: Government should take the appropriate steps to spread education. Schools should be opened in every village. There should be adequate arrangement of women education and should encourage adult education.
  2. Change in Curriculum: There should be change in syllabus of school and colleges. Children should be aware of political science. There should be democratic meetings in educational institutions where children can get training of election and administration.
  3. Reform in Election Process: There should be such system that elections should be conducted in a single day and their results should also be declared on the same day.
  4. Reform in Judiciary: There should be increase in a number of judges in the country so that cases could be settled as early as possible. There should be an arrangement of advocates for poor people by the government.
  5. Freedom of Press. There should be complete freedom to newspapers and press in the country to express their views.
  6. Economic Development: Government should establish new industry in the country. Government should provide employment opportunities to the citizens. Appropriate steps should be taken in villages for the development of Agriculture.

Question 4.
In order to understand the deep connection between democracy and public opinion, it should be understood that public opinion is the basis of democracy. Today is the age of democracy and Democracy is always for welfare of the people. Besides this, in real sense public opinion is soul of Democratic government. Because, Democratic government gets its whole power from peoplg and holds on this base. This type of government always tries that public opinion should be in their favour and not reverse. So, we can say that public opinion is the soul of social well being government. Besides this, in democracy, in order to run the government, intelligent public opinion is necessary.
(a) What do you mean by public opinion?
Answer:
Public opinion means the opinion of people on a particular matter of public interest.

(b) Describe the role of public opinion (in democracy).
Answer:
Public opinion is the soul of Democracy. Because, democratic government gets its power from public opinion. This type of government always tries its best that the public opinion always remains in its favour. Besides this, democracy is the rule of people. This type of government implements its policies keeping in view the will and directions of the public. It is oftenly observed that the general elections are conducted after long period. As a result of it, public remains untouched with the government and there is possibility of government becoming dictorial which puts democracy in danger. In such a situation, public opinion becomes base of democratic government.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 5.
The Prime Minister is the link between the President and Cabinet. It is his constitutional duty to inform the President about decisions of Council of Ministers. President can get information about any department from Prime Minister. If any minister wants to meet or get advice from President, he can do so only through Prime Minister. In brief, he acts as a middle man between President and Council of Ministers.
Prime Minister is considered to be the leader of Lok S&bha. In every adverse situation, Lok Sabha wants its leadership. Lok Sabha cannot do anything against the will of Prime Minister because, he has support of majority in Lok Sabha. He announces the policies and decisions of government in Lok Sabha. Speaker, with the consent of Prime Minister, decides the programmes of Lok Sabha.
(a) How is the Prime Minister appointed?
Answer:
President appoints the person as the Prime Minister who enjoys a majority in the Lok Sabha.

(b) Examine any three important powers of the Prime Minister.
Answer:

  • There is no doubt that the Prime Minister is the pivot of the Cabinet. He appoints the ministers and also he allots the portfolios to the ministers
  • He can reorganise the Cabinet to make the administration efficient. This means he can replace old ministers with new ministers. He can change the portfolios of the ministers. If the Prime minister resigns, the whole Council of Ministers is dissolved,
  • If any minister refuses to resign, he can dismiss the whole cabinet. While reorganising, he can keep that minister out of Cabinet. Besides this, he presides over the meetings of the Cabinet and decides its date, time and place.

Question 6.
According to the constitution, if Governor reports to the president or president gets this information through dependable source that state government is not running according to the constitution, he can announce President’s rule in that state. After this type of announcement, President can dismiss Cabinet of that state and can dissolve Legislative Assembly or suspend it. Under the President’s rule, Governor is the real head of the state, meaning thereby, he acts as an agent of central government. In the event of the failure of the constitutional machinery, all the executive powers of the state rests with the President and Legislative powers goes to Parliament.
(a) How the Governor of state is appointed?
Answer:
The Governor of state is appointed by the President for the period of five years.

(b) How a declaration of breakdown of constitutional machinery affects the state government?
Answer:
In case of breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state, the President with the consent of Governor can delcare constitutional emergency in the state. It results in dissolution or suspension of Legislative Assembly of that state. The Council of Ministers of the state is also dismissed. President takes the control of state administration in his own hands. It means that state’s administration is run by central government for short time.

Practically, the President transfers actual powers to Governor to run state administration. All powers of Legislature temporarily goes to central government.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 7.
India has made Non-Alignment a basic principle of our foreign policy. When India got freedom, the whole of the world was divided into two blocs, i.e. Russian and Anglo- American blocs. The main framer of India’s foreign policy, Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru felt that India should keep’dwayfrom these two power blocs for India’s development. That is why, Pandit Nehru adopted the policy of Non-Alignment. Non-Alignment means willingly to remain aloof from the competitive power blocs. Not to keep sense of enmity against
any country and decide the international problems according to their quality and to adopt the independent policy. As a result of India’s endeavors, Non-Alignment became powerful movement in the world.
(a) What is India’s Atomic Policy?
Answer:
India is an atomic power country. But our foreign policy is based on peacefulness. That is why base of India’s atomic policy is to achieve peaceful objectives and to develop the nation. India is not in the favour of supressing any neighbouring country with nuclear power. We have made it clear that we would not use nuclear power first even in the situation of war.

(b) Describe the meaning of the policy of Non-Alignment and reasons for its adoption by India.
Answer:
Non-Alignment means to remain aloof from power blocs. It does not mean that we would be mere spectators of International problems but will try to take decision on quality bases. We shall call noble as noble and bad as bad.

Causes to adopt Non-Alignment policy by India. At the time of independence, world was divided into two power blocs i.e. Anglo-American power block and Russian power bloc. The politics of the whole world was revolving around these blocs and there was cold war between them. Then newly independent India could progress by keeping away these power blocs struggle. So Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru based India’s foreign policy on the principle of Non-Alignment.