Class 8 – Page 3 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament – Structure, Role and Importance

October 17, 2024October 16, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 27 Parliament – Structure, Role and Importance Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 27 Parliament – Structure, Role and Importance

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Parliament – Structure, Role and Importance Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The total number of members in the Lok Sabha is _________
Answer:
545

Question 2.
The total number of members in the Rajya Sabha is _________
Answer:
250

Question 3.
_________ members are elected for the Lok Sabha from Punjab.
Answer:
13

Question 4.
_________ years of age is necessary to become the President of India.
Answer:
35

Question 5.
Parliamental form of government is also known as _________ government.
Answer:
Democratic

Question 6.
The Finance Bill can only be presented in the _________
Answer:
Lok Sabha.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗) :

Question 1.
1/3rd of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every two years.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
There is a deep relationship between the executive and the judiciary in parliament Form of Government.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
Prime Minister is National Head in a Parliamentary Form of Government.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
The laws enacted by the Parliament are supreme.
Answer:
(✓)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
How many members can be nominated for the Rajya Sabha by the President?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 2
(D) 10.
Answer:
(B) 12.

Question 2.
How many members are elected for the Rajya Sabha from the Punjab?
(A) 11
(B) 13
(C) 7
(D) 2.
Answer:
(C) 7.

Question 3.
Who resolves the differences between both the Houses of Parliament?
(A) Speaker
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Vice President.
Answer:
(C) President.

IV. Answer the following questions in not more than 15 words :

Question 1.
Write the word meaning of the Parliament.
Answer:
Word Parliament is an English word which has been taken from a French word ‘Parler’. Its meaning is to have conversation. In this way Parliament is an institution where people sit and communicate with each other to national and international issues.

Question 2.
Why is the government responsible to the’Parliament?
Answer:
Government is responsible towards Parliament for all of its functions and activities. Government can remain on its post until it has the m’ajority in the Parliament (legislative). If it looses the majority and comes in minority in Parliament then it has to resign immediately.

Question 3.
How is law formed in the Parliament?
Answer:
Simple bill can be introduced in any house of the Parliament. When this bill is passed by both the houses then it is sent to the President for his sanction on that bill. That bill becomes the law after the signature of the President.

Question 4.
How is the government formed after the Lok Sabha elections?
Answer:
Whichever political party wins majority in the elections of Lok Sabha, makes the government. If any single party is unable to win majority in the elections then coalition government comes into existence.

Question 5.
Write the main features of the Parliamentary government.
Answer:

Parliamentary government is considered as the supreme type of government.
Features of both responsibility and stability exist in the Parliamentary system.
Parliamentary government can be changed at any time. That’s why it cannot become despotic.
In actual sense, Democracy is established by the Parliamentary government.

Question 6.
What is meant by hung parliament?
Answer:
When single political party does not get a complete majority in the Lok Sabha elections, then the Hung parliament comes into being.

V. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
Why has only the parliamentary form of government been implemented in India?
Answer:
The parliamentary system in India was implemented due to following reasons :
1. Knowledge of people about the parliamentary system: Indian people are very much familiar with a parliamentary system. It is known as the best government. The constitutional government in India was established through the acts of 1861, 1892, 1919 and 1935.

2. Support by members of the Constituent assembly: Framers of the Indian Constitution also supported the parliamentary rule. The Chairman of Drafting Committee of the constitution, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said that this system consists features of both responsibility and stability. That’s why it is the best type of government.

Question 2.
Discuss the role uf the President and the Prime Minister in a Parlimentary form of government.
Answer:
The President is the constitutional head of the country. But he is the head only by name. It cannot use his legal, executive and judicial powers by his will. Actually all of his powers are used by the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

Role of the Prime Minister in Parliamentary system is very important. He is the actual head of the government. All the powers of government are used by the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers. All the ministers run the government according to the policies of the Prime Minister.

Question 3.
Write the responsible factors for the fall of the position of Parliament.
Answer:

Indian Parliament passes up to 10 laws in a day without debate which, causes a serious threat to its credibility.
From 1989 till 2014, no party was able to get clear majority in the Lok Sabha which leads to advent of the coalition government. Such government cannot run properly.
Absence of members, decline of the committee system, rively amongst members are a few reasons for its decline.

Question 4.
Give necessary suggestions for the improvement of the position of parliament.
Answer:

First of all people must give clear mendate in favour of a single party in the Lok Sabha elections so that it can form a government of its own.
Committee system in the Parliament should be strengthened to enhance the credibility of the Parliament.
All the issues and bills must be debated in the Parliament so that people must come to know about their pros and cons.
Rivalry between members should be discouraged to increase the credibility of the Parliament.

Question 5.
Write the composition of Indian Parliament.
Answer:
There are two houses of Parliament : Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Lok Sabha is known as Lower House and Rajya Sabha is known as Upper House. Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected through the process of Universal Adult Franchise. Its two members are nominated by the President. 238 members of Rajya Sabha out of 250 are elected by states and Union Territories. Rest of the 12 members are nominated by the President.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Parliament – Structure, Role and Importance Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The Indian Parliament is :
(a) Unicameral
(b) Three Houses
(c) Bicameral
(d) Four Houses.
Answer:
(c) Bicameral.

Question 2.
The Lower House of the Indian Parliament is known as :
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) Council of States.
Answer:
(b) Lok Sabha.

Question 3.
The Upper House of the Indian Parliament is known as :
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Legislative Council
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha.

Question 4.
The tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha is :
(a) 5 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 3 years.
Answer:
(c) 6 years.

Question 5.
The tenure of the Lok Sabha in normal time is :
(a) 6 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 3 years.
Answer:
(b) 5 years.

Question 6.
How many present members are there in Rajya Sabha?
(a) 545
(b) 552
(c) 541
(d) 550.
Answer:
(a) 545.

Question 7.
How many total members of Rajya Sabha are there?
(a) 235
(b) 245
(c) 250
(d) 255.
Answer:
(c) 250.

Question 8.
Who was the first President of India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sardar Patel.
Answer:
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 9.
Who makes laws for the country?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Parliament
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) State Assembly.
Answer:
(b) Parliament.

Question 10.
Kuldeep Kaur lives in Ludhiana. She has been married in Patiala. Now she want to get her vote prepared in Patiala. For this purpose, which officer she should meet?
(a) Bank Manager
(b) Head of the Police Station?
(c) B.L.O.
(d) Sarpanch.
Answer:
(c) B.L.O.

Question 11.
Yashvardhan got his new vote. He went to cast his vote with great excitement. His younger brother wants to know the name of the machine by which he casted his vote. Which of the following machines he will name :
(a) A.T.M.
(b) E.V.M.
(c) E.C.G.
(d) L.P.G.
Answer:
(b) E.V.M.

Fill In The Blanks :

Question 1.
Total members of Lok Sabha are _________
Answer:
552

Question 2.
Total members of Rajya Sabha are _________
Answer:
250

Question 3.
_________ members of Lok Sabha are elected from Punjab,
Answer:
13

Question 4.
Age of _________ years is must to get elected as the Indian President.
Answer:
35

Question 5.
Parliamentary government is also known as _________ government.
Answer:
responsible

Question 6.
Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Lok Sabha

Question 7.
Present members of Lok Sabha are _________
Answer:
545.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer:

Question 1.
1/3rd members of Rajya Sabha retire after every 2 years.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
There is a great relation of Legislature and Executive m Parliamentary form of Government.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
In Parliamentary form of Government, Prime Minister is the nominal head.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
Laws made by the Parliament are supreme.
Answer:
(✓)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Legislature	(i) Lok Sabha
2. Lawmaking body in India	(ii) Rajya Sabha
3. House of People	(iii) Parliament
4. Permanent House	(iv) An organ of Government

Answer:

A	B
1. Legislature	(iv) An organ of Government
2. Lawmaking body in India	(iii) Parliament
3. House of People	(i) Lok Sabha
4. Permanent House	(ii) Rajya Sabha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What type of Democratic administrative system exists in India?
Or
What is the feature of indirect democratic administrative system?
Answer:
Indirect democratic system is implemented in India. Government is run by the elected representatives of the people in this type of system. They are answerable to the public for the acts done by them.

Question 2.
How many members of Lok Sabha are elected from the Punjab?
Answer:
13 members of Lok Sabha are elected from the Punjab.

Question 3.
How can you say that Rajya Sabha is a permanent house?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved completely. One third of its members retire exactly after every two years and they are replaced by newly elected members. In this way this house remains active all the times.

Question 4.
Which three forms (parts) of government are there?
Answer:

Legislative
Executive and
Judiciary.

Question 5.
When did the President calls for joint session of both the houses of Parliament?
Answer:
Sometimes disagreement occurs in both the houses on any bill. In this case, President calls the joint session of both the houses so that disagreement could be removed.

Question 6.
How Parliament keeps control over the Government?
Answer:

By asking questions from the ministers
Non-confidence motion
Confidence motion
Adjournment motion.

Question 7.
What is the need of strengthening the Parliament?
Answer:
There is a need of strengthening the Parliament so that laws of better quality could be framed. There is also a need of strengthening the Parliament to strengthen the position of Parliament.

Question 8.
Consider that the Indian Government has passed a bill regarding railway. Who will sign it in the end to make this bill a law?
Answer:
The President.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the position of Prime Minister according to the Constitution? Why his position is dwingling in present time?
Answer:
The Position of Prime Minister is the most important in the country according to the Constitution. He is the leader of Lok Sabha and Council of Ministers. All the policies and laws of the country have been made according to the advice given by him. He selects all the ministers for his Council of Ministers. No minister can remain on his post against his wish. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar has equated his position with the President of U.S.A.

But at present time, single political party (BJP) has got majority in the elections of Lok Sabha. Before 2014 Hung Parliament was existed. During that time the Position of the Prime Minister was dwindling.

Question 2.
Who were Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru? What were their views about Strong Central Government?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India and Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India. They both were great leaders.

Views of Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was in favour of giving more powers to the post of the President. He wanted to strengthen the Centre because India got freedom after such a long time.

Views of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. Pandit Nehru was also in favour of strengthening the centre. He wanted to give more powers to Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

Question 3.
“Indian Parliament was a very strong institution at certain times. But now it is loosing its importance.” Clarify the statement.
Answer:
The Parliament is the supreme institution of making laws in the country. It was a very strong institution at the times of Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, Lai Bahadur Shastri and Indira Gandhi. But now it is loosing its importance day by day. Just within one day, it passes many bills. Members hardly communicate with each other on any bill. The method of giving actual form to law has been changed.

The given ahead factors are responsible for loosing importance of the Parliament :

Making of Hung Parliament.
Politics of Stubbornness.
Absence of members in the house.
Reducing number of meetings of house.
Weakening of committee system.
Doubt over the impartiality of the Speaker.

Question 4.
Write about the role of the President and the Prime Minister in Parliamentary system of government.
Answer:
Two types of executive are there in Parliamentary system—formal executive and the real executive. The President is the Constitutional head of country. He has been given the legal, executive and judicial powers. But it cannot use his powers with his wish because he is the formal head.

All of his powers are used by the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers because they belong to real executive the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers are appointed by the President. Generally the leader of the majority party in Lok Sabha is appointed as the Prime Minister. But present age is of coalition government and that’s why it is very important to take decision regarding appointment of the Prime Minister.

Question 5.
Write about the position of the Parliament.
Answer:
The Parliament in Parliamentary government is considered as the supreme institution.

Supreme laws for the country are made by Parliament.
The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers are appointed out of the members of the Parliament.
Members of Parliament control the executive by asking questions and by non-confidence motion.
The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers can remain on their posts while Parliament have faith in them or they have majority in the Parliament.
Members of Parliament take part in the election of the President.

Question 6.
Explain the position of the Parliament.
Answer:
The Parliament in a Parliamentary system is the supreme. Executive (government) is responsible towards the Parliament for its functions and activities. The Parliament controls the government in different ways like—asking questions to ministers, zero hour, no-confidence motion, adjournment motion, etc.

Question 7.
Write ahout meaning and composition of Parliament.
Answer:
The word ‘Parliament’ is an English word. This English word has been taken from a French word ‘Parler’ whose meaning is to have conversation. In this way Parliament is that institution where people sit and communicate with each other on national and international issues.

Establishment. There are two houses of Parliament—Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
1. Lok Sabha. Lok Sabha is the house of the people. It is known as the lower house. At present, 545 members of Lok Sabha are there. Out of these, 543 members are directly elected by all the adults of the country. Rest of the members are nominated by the President. Seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes are reserved in Lok Sabha. It is a temporary house which can be dissolved by the President, according to the Constitution.

2. Rajya Sabha. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by elected members of Legislative Assemblies of states and union territories. It has a total of 250 members out of which 238 members are elected by states and union territories. Rest of the 12 members are nominated by the President. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house. It cannot be dissolved completely. But one third of the total members of Rajya Sabha retires after every two years. New members are elected after their retirement.

Question 8.
Write important points about Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

There is a lot of difference in actual executive and formal executive in it.
Executive and legislative are greatly related in it.
Executive is responsible towards legislative.
Government runs under the leadership of Prime Minister.
Term of executive is indefinite.
Opposition party is legally sanctioned.

Question 9.
Write meaning and composition of the executive and legislative assembly.
Answer:
Meaning. Legislature and executive are two parts of Parliamentary government. Legislative is that part of government which makes the law. Function of executive is to implement the laws made by the legislative.

Organization. There are two houses of Legislative—Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Lok Sabha is known as Lower House and it is a temporary house. Contrary to it Rajya Sabha is known as Upper House and it is a permanent house. There are 545 members of Lok Sabha and the members of Rajya Sabha are 250.

The President, Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers are included in executive. The President is the head of executive only by name but actual excutive is Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

All the powers of the President are used by Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers. They are appointed from the legislature. The President is elected indirectly.

Question 10.
Explain the role of the Parliament in the making of laws.
Answer:
The Parliament is the supreme institution of making laws in our country. Laws made by it are supreme. It makes laws of both-general and related to the money of the country. A simple bill is introduced in any house of the Parliament. Bill is passed by both the houses. For this, the bill has to go through many stages. The passed bill is being sent to the President for his approval. That bill becomes law after the approval of the President.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

October 17, 2024October 16, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_______ Fundamental Rights has been included in the Constitution of India.
Answer:
six

Question 2.
The Fundamental Rights are included in Article of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
14-32

Question 3.
Article 25 of Constitution prohibits _______
Answer:
discrimination

Question 4.
The first fundamental right is _______
Answer:
Right to Equality

Question 5.
Freedom of Press has been given under _______
Answer:
Right to Freedom.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗):

Question 1.
We all are equal before the Constitution.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
There is no relation between Right and the Duty.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Judiciary is the defender of the fundamental rights.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Right to education is a fundamental right.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
Admission can be denied in a government institution on the basis of Religion, Caste and Colour.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
From which class is the right to free and compulsory Education Implemented.
(A) Fifth
(B) Eight
(C) Tenth
(D) Eleventh.
Answer:
(A) Fifth.

Question 2.
Under which right to the selling of man prohibited.
(A) Right to provision of Constitution
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right against Exploitation
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(C) Right against exploitation.

Question 3.
Since when is the Right to Education has been implemented in India.
(A) August 4, 2009
(B) December, 2002
(C) 1st April, 2010
(D) 1st April, 2009.
Answer:
(C) 1st April; 2010.

Question 4.
Under which Article of the Constitution does the Right to Education fall 0?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 21-A
(C) Article 20
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(B) Article 21-A.

IV. Answer the following questions in not more than 15 words :

Question 1.
What is meant by rights?
Answer:
Rights are the facilities given to us by society. In simple words, rights are those conditions of social life which are necessary for all-round development of an individual. Rights are sanctioned by state and society.

Question 2.
Write the meaning of Primary Right.
Answer:
Primary rights are the rights which are required by all the citizens of a country to live a happy and better life. There are very much necessary for all round development of an individual.

Question 3.
Write two duties connected with any two rights.
Answer:

To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. Cultural and educational right.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

Question 4.
What is meant by the Right to the Provision of the Constitution?
Or
What is meant by right against Exploitation?
Answer:
This right says that if any one, even government, tries to take away one’s fundamental rights then he can approach the court to take back his right. In this case court will direct the authorities to guarantee his rights.

Question 5.
By which rule has the untouchability been done away with?
Answer:
Untouchability has been done away with Article 17 of the Constitution.

V. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
Write a short note on the Right to Education.
Answer:
Right to Education has been given to all the citizens. An Article 21A has been added in the Fundamental rights. Now every child has been given the right to get free and compulsory education between the age group of 6 to 14. An act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2009 to provide free and compulsory education for the children in the age group of 6-14 years. This law is implemented in 2010.

Question 2.
Why fundamental rights are included in the Constitution?
Answer:
Some rights are necessary for the physical, mental, moral and cultural development of the person. All-round development of the person is not possible without these. They are known as Fundamental Rights. These rights are included in the Constitution to give guarantee of these rights of the citizens. Not only this but these rights are given the security through the Right of Constitutional Remedies. If state or any person violates these rights, the victim can take shelter of the court.

Question 3.
‘Right and Duties are the sheep of the coin flock’. How?
Answer:
Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin. Both these supplement each other. Right without duties and duties without rights are meaningless. Therefore, it is usually said that the rights of a citizen are duties of the others. If we enjoy our rights but do not perform our duties, it will mean that we are denying the rights to other citizens. For example, a citizen has the right to defend his life, therefore, it is his duty that he should not harm others. Therefore it is very clear that rights and duties are closely related.

Question 4.
Explain the Right against Exploitation.
Or
What is meant by right against exploitation?
Answer:
Poor people, women and children, in our society, are being exploited from the ages. So to remove this thing, a system of rights against exploitation has been kept in the Constitution.

According to this :

Trade of humans and taking work without paying salary has been highly restricted. Violater of this rule can be punished by law.
Children of age of less than 14 years cannot be employed in factories, mines or in risky jobs. Actually they cannot be used in any such work which could create obstacle in their development.

Question 5.
How can be defend the Fundamental Right?
Answer:
Right of religious freedom has been implemented in our Constitution in following way :

Every one has the right to adopt any religion, to propagate his religion and to worship his religion.
People are free to Jstablish religious and welfare institutions, and can run their administration.
No citizen will be forced to pay such tax whose objective will be propaganda of any specific religion.
Students in educational institutions will not be forced to take education of any particular religion.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
In which part of the Indian Constitution, the fundamental rights are given?
(a) Part-III
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-V
(d) Part-VI.
Answer:
(a) Part-III.

Question 2.
Under which articles the fundamental rights are given?
(a) 13-36
(b) 12-36
(c) 14-32
(d) 14-40.
Answer:
(c) 14-32

Question 3.
Originally how many fundamental rights were give in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight.
Answer:
(c) Seven.

Question 4.
Presently how many fundamental rights are given to the Indian citizens?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight.
Answer:
(b) Six.

Question 5.
Which right is given under Articles 14-18?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Cultural and Educational Right.
Answer:
(a) Right to Equality.

Question 6.
Which right is given under Articles 14-18?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Freedom.
Answer:
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 7.
In which part of the Constitution, the Directive principle of State Policy are given?
(a) Part-III
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-V
(d) Part-VI.
Answer:
(b) Part-IV.

Question 8.
In which part of the Constitution, Fundamental Duties are given?
(a) Part-IV A
(b) Part-V A
(c) Part-VI A
(d) Part VII A.
Answer:
(a) Part-IV A.

Question 9.
This right was given in 2002 through 86th constitutional Amendment. An Act was passed in 2009 to implement it. It was implement in April 2010. Which of the following is this right? (From Board M.Q.P.)
(a) Right to Information
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to Life
(d) Right to Equality.
Answer:
(a) Right to Information.

Question 10.
Jaiveer takes work from his employee Ravi at his tailoring shop from 8 a.m. to 8 p.m. which right of Ravi is violated.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Educational Right
(d) Right to Freedom of Religion.
Answer:
(b) Right against Exploitation.

Question 11.
Raminder works in a tailoring shop. He works from 8 a.m. to 9 p.m. but he does not get enough money. Which of his following right is violated?
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Freedom.
Answer:
(a) Right against Exploitation.

Question 12.
When Indian Constitution was made, citizens were given seven fundamental rights but now they are six in number. Which one of the following rights people do not enjoy right now?
(a) Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Property
(d) Right to Information.
Answer:
(c) Right to Property.

Question 13.
Ram Singh was arrested by the police without any reason. Which of his following right is violated?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right Against Exploitation
(d) Right to Life.
Answer:
(b) Right to Freedom.

Question 14.
This was added in the Constitution in 1978 through 44th Constitutional Amendment:
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Powers of President
(d) Powers of Prime Minister.
Answer:
(b) Fundamental Duties.

Question 15.
If any one’s rights are violated then with which right, his rights can be given back?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right to Religious Freedom.
Answer:
(b)Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_______ fundamental rights were added in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
seven

Question 2.
Fundamental Rights are given from _______ to _______ articles of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
14, 32

Question 3.
Article 25 of gives us _______
Answer:
Right to freedom of religion

Question 4.
First fundamental right is _______
Answer:
Right to equality

Question 5.
Freedom of Press is given under _______
Answer:
Right to Freedom.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) answer:

Question 1.
Everyone is equal in front of law.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
There is no relation of rights and the duties.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Judiciary protects fundamental rights.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Right to education is a fundamental right.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
Anyone can be denied admission in educational institution on the basis of caste, colour, race, gender etc.
Answer:
(✗)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Rights	(i) Given in the Constitution
2. Fundamental Rights	(ii) Demands of Humans
3. Right to Freedom	(iii) To go to Judiciary
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies	(iv) To Express Opinion

Answer:

A	B
1. Rights	(ii) Demands of Humans
2. Fundamental Rights	(i) Given in the Constitution
3. Right to Freedom	(iv) To Express Opinion
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies	(iii) To go to Judiciary

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In which articles of the Indian Constitution, Fundamental Rights are included? On what basis they are included?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are given from Article 14 to 32 of the Indian Constitution. These rights are included in the Indian Constitution on the basis of the Constitution of United States of America.

Question 2.
What is meant by Human Rights?
Answer:
Those rights are known as human rights which make the human life a better one. These rights help the person to live a respectful life.

Question 3.
What is Right of Equality?
Answer:
Right of Equality is a very important fundamental right. According to it, all citizens are equal in front of law. There shall be no discrimination with any citizen on the basis of his wealth, colotir, caste, creed, religion, race, etc.

Question 4.
Which duty is associated with the right of religion?
Answer:
We should not criticise any religion or religious place to maintain our right of religion. Our duty is to give respect to every religion.

Question 5.
What has been written in Articles 15 and 25 of the Constitution to maintain the right of equality?
Answer:

According to Article 15 of the Constitution, there shall be no discrimination with any citizen on the basis of religion, caste, sex and race.
According to Article 25 of the Constitution, discrimination with any person on the basis of religion is prohibited.

Question 6.
What is the literal meaning of fundamental rights?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are those rights of citizens which are given in the Constitution of the country. They are given security through constitutional remedies. These rights are necessary for all-round development of a person.

Question 7.
How many fundamental rights are there in our Constitution?
Answer:
Six Fundamental Rights are given in the Constitution.

Question 8.
What is the relationship between rights and duties?
Answer:
Rights and duties are closely related to each other. They are the two sides of a same coin. One man’s right is other man’s duty. Actually rights are meaningless without duties.

Question 9.
Mention duties associated with any of the two rights.
Answer:

Every one is equal before the law. So it is our duty not to discriminate with any one.
We have the right of freedom of different types. The duty which is associated with this right is that we should take care about freedom of others.

Question 10.
What do you mean by right of the Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:
According to the right of Constitutional Remedies, fundamental rights of any person cannot be snatched by the state. If fundamental rights of any person are violated then that person can take the help of the court to get back his rights.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain cultural and educational rights and duties associated with it.
Answer:
Citizens have the right to secure their language, script and the culture. No citizen can be restricted, on the basis of language or race, to take admission ih those educational institutions which are running with the help of government aid.

So it is our duty to respect this right. We should not restrict any one to take admission in government’s educational institution. In fact, we should respect all the scripts, cultures, languages and religions. No discrimination shall be made while giving financial aid to any institution.

Question 2.
Explain any four Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens.
Answer:

Right of Freedom: Indian citizens are free to move anywhere, to express their views and to adopt any occupation.
Religious Freedom: Indian citizens are free to adopt any religion and to leave any religion. They can establish and run their religious institutions as well.
Right of Education: Indian citizens are given the right to read any language and to secure their culture and script.
Right of Equality: All the citizens are given the right of equality. Every type of discrimination has been eliminated. Any person can achieve higher post with the help of his ability.

Question 3.
Mention the Fundamental Rights incorporated in our Constitution.
Answer:
The following Fundamental Rights are incorporated in the Constitution :

Right of Equality
Right of Freedom
Right against Exploitation
Right of Religious Freedom
Cultural and Educational Right
Right of Constitutional Remedies.

Scope of Right of Education became wider through a constitutional amendment in Dec. 2002.

Question 4.
Does our country still discriminate on the basis of caste, creed, colour or religion?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has eliminated every type of discrimination, on the basis of religion, colour, caste, creed, etc from our society. But actually it has not been able to eliminate this discrimination from our society. Even today people of higher castes and classes hate other castes and classes. People of lower castes are badly treated by people of higher castes. So, it is necessary to take some special steps. People should be told about the laws made against such discrimination. These laws should be strictly implemented.

Question 5.
Why is it that till today our society discriminates against people on the basis of caste, colour, creed, or religion? How can we remove this from our society?
Answer:
It is right that people in our society are still discriminated against on the basis of caste, colour, or religion. It is so because this thing is going on for ages and our minds are set in a way that we don’t want change in this aspect. We always talk about equality but practically we don’t do anything to remove discrimination. If we move into the interiors of the country this process is continually going on. This process could be removed by making strict laws, changing our mindsets, and making people aware of their rights. If this could be done then discrimination can be removed from our society.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light

October 17, 2024October 16, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 16 Light Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 16 Light

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Light Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Suppose you are in a dark room. Can you see objects in the room ? Can you see objects outside the room ? Explain.
Answer:
No, we cannot see anything in dark. As no light is falling on the objects in the room and they are not emitting any light on their own. So, nothing is visible inside the dark room.
Objects outside the room can be seen, if either there is light outside the room or objects are emitting their own light.

Question 2.
Differentiate between regular and diffused reflection. Does diffused reflection mean the failure of the laws of reflection ?
Answer:
Differences between regular reflection and diffused reflection:

Regular reflection	Diffused reflection
1. It occurs on a smooth, plane surface.	1. It occurs on a rough, irregular surface.
2. Reflected rays are parallel to one another.	2. Reflected rays are unparallel to each other.

Diffused reflection is not failure of laws of reflection. It is only due to irregularities on the reflecting surface.

Question 3.
Mention against each of the following whether regular or diffused reflection will take place when a beam of light strikes. Justify your answer in each case.
[a] Polished wooden table
[b] Chalk powder
[c] Cardboard surface
[d] Marble floor with water spread over it.
[e] Mirror
[f] Piece of paper.
Answer:
(a) Polished wooden table. Regular reflection, as wooden table has smooth polished surface.
(b) Chalk powder. Diffused reflection due to rough surface of chalk powder.
(c) Cardboard surface. Diffused reflection because cardboard has small irregularities on its surface.
(d) Marble floor with water spread over it. Regular reflection as water gives a smooth surface.
(e) Mirror. Regular reflection due to smooth surface.
(f) Piece of paper. Regular reflection if paper is fine and diffused reflection if paper is coarse.

Question 4.
State the laws of reflection.
Answer:
Laws of reflection.

Angle of incidence (∠i) = Angle of reflection ( ∠r).
Incident ray, reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.

Question 5.
Describe an activity to show that the incident ray, the reflected ray, normal, the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
Experiment.
Take a white sheet, spread it on a table. Draw a line MM on it. Place a plane mirror vertically on this line. Now throw light on a comb in this ways that a parallel light rays fall on the mirror. Adjust it in such a way that a beautiful pattern of incident and reflected rays is formed. Now mark points A, B, C on incident ray and points D, E, F on its corresponding reflected ray. Switch off the torch and remove the mirror. Join the points and extend line to mirror. ABC will meet MM at O and DEF will all also be meeting at O. OA is incident ray and OF is reflected ray. Draw ON ⊥ MM .
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 1
Measure the angle of incidence ∠AON and the angle of reflection ∠FON which would found to be equal. Incident ray, reflected ray and normal, all lie in one plane of paper.

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks in the following.
(a) A person 1 m in front of a mirror seems to be ……………….. m away from his image.
(b) If you touch your ………………….. ear with right hand in front of a plane mirror it will be seen that your right ear is touched with ……………… .
(c) The size of pupil becomes …………………. when you in dim light.
(d) Night birds have ………………. cones than rods in their eyes.
Answer:
(a) 2m
(b) Right, Left
(c) large
(d) more.

Choose the correct option in the Questions 7-8.

Question 7.
Angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection
(a) Always
(b) Sometimes
(c) Under special conditions
(d) Never.
Answer:
(a) Always.

Question 8.
Image formed by a plane mirror is
(a) virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged.
(b) virtual, behind the mirror and of same size as the object.
(c) real at the surface of mirror and enlarged.
(d) real, behind the mirror and of same size as the object.
Answer:
(b) Virtual, behind the mirror and of same size as the object.

Question 9.
Describe the construction of a Kaleiodeoscope.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 2
Construction of a Kaleiodeoscope. It is a toy to form many images by multiple reflections. A Kaleiodeoscope is made up of three strips of plane mirrors inclined at angles of 60° enclosed in a tube. One end of tube has a ground glass plate with a clear glass plate on its inner side. A metallic ring separates the two plates and the space is filled with coloured pieces of glass or broken bangles. A cardboard with a hole in the centre is fixed on the other end of the tube.

Question 10.
Draw a labelled sketch of the human eye.
Answer:
Labelled diagram to show different parts of human eye.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 3

Question 11.
Gurmit wanted to perform activity 16.8 using a laser torch. Her teacher advised her not do so. Can you explain the basis of the teacher’s advice ?
Answer:
Laser torch has very sharp beams of light which can destroy the pupil or retina of the eye.

Question 12.
Explain how can you take care of your eyes.
Answer:
Care of eyes.
Eyes are the most precious gifts of nature. So we should take full care of our eyes by taking atleast following precautions.

We should wash our eyes daily with clean water.
We should not read or work in very bright or dim light.
We should not read in a running vehicle.
We should not rub our eyes.
We should use sunglasses on hot summer day.
We should not look directly at the sun. Also we should not look at the sun during solar eclipse.
We should eat vitamin A rich food for healthy, clear eyes.

Question 13.
What is the angle of incidence of a ray if the reflected ray is at an angle of 90° to the incident ray ?
Solution:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 4
If ∠i = angle of incidence
∠r = angle of reflection
∠i + ∠r = 90 (given)
But ∠i = ∠r
(According to laws of reflection)
∴ ∠i + ∠i = 90°
2 ∠i = 90
∠r = ∠i – 45°

Question 14.
How many images of a candle will be formed if it placed between two parallel mirrors separated by 40 cm ?
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 5
When mirrors are separated by 40 cm and are parallel to each other so that the angle between the mirrors is 0° which is not sulj-multiple of 360°. Then theoretically, the number of images formed would be infinite, but as a considerable amount of light is lost due to reflections so only a limited number of images are seen which is shown in figure.

Question 15.
Two mirrors meet at right angles. A ray of light is incident on one at an angle of 30° as shown is figure. Draw the reflected ray from the second mirror.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 6
Solution:

Question 16.
Bhoojo stands at A just on the side of a plane mirror as shown in figure. Can he see himself in the mirror ? Also can he see image of objects situated at P, Q and R ?
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 8
Solution:
Bhoojo cannot see his image in the mirror as he is standing outside the edge of mirror. He can see the images of P and Q easily but not the image of R.

Question 17.
(a) Find out the position of image of an object situated at A in plane mirror.
(b) Can Paheli at B see this image ?
(c) Can Bhoojo at C see this image ?
(d) When Paheli moves from B to C where does the image of A move ?
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 10
Answer:

(a) The image of A in the mirror will be as far behind as the object in front of the mirror.
(b) Yes, Paheli can see the image.
(c) Yes, Bhoojo can see this image.
(d) When Paheli moved from B to C, the image of A will not move forward.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Light Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The plane and polished surface that returns light falling on it in the same direction or any other direction is called:
(a) Lens
(b) Prisom
(c) Mirror
(d) Kaleidoscope.
Answer:
(c) Mirror.

Question 2.
How many colours are present in white sunlight ?
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 3.
Answer:
(c) 7.

Question 3.
What is the most convenient distance for reading by a normal eye ?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 20 cm.
Answer:
(b) 25 cm.

Question 4.
When you see in dim light the size of your pupil becomes:
(a) Small
(b) Large
(c) Neither small nor large
(b) Very small.
Answer:
(b) Large.

Question 5.
The Phenomena of splitting of light into its constituent colours is called:
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Dispersion
(b) Combination.
Answer:
(c) Dispersion.

Question 6.
The eye lenses focuses:
(a) On Cornea
(b) On Retina
(c) On Iris
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) On Retina.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Can any one see in the dark ?
Answer:
No.

Question 2.
It is what that helps us to see objects ?
Answer:
Light.

Question 3.
Name any two Luminous bodies.
Answer:

Sun
Electric bulb.

Question 4.
Is moon a luminous or a non-luminous body ?
Answer:
Non-luminous.

Question 5.
Where is a reflection seen ?
Answer:
In mirror.

Question 6.
Which surface can act as a mirror ?
Answer:
Any polished and smooth surface.

Question 7.
If you are standing in front of a mirror and observing your own image what is the relation between the distance of the object and the image from the mirror ?
Answer:
Distance of object from the mirror = Distance of image from the mirror.

Question 8.
What is the angle of reflection, when a ray of light is incident normally on a plane mirror ?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 9.
Name two objects which split white light into many colours.
Answer:
Water bubbles, surface of CD, prism.

Question 10.
Name the seven colours of light.
Answer:
Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet.

Question 11.
Give one example of dispersion of light in nature.
Answer:
A rainbow.

Question 12.
Is focal length of eye lens fixed ? If not, why ?
Answer:
No. Eye lens has variable focal length. Focal length of Eye lens varies due to action of ciliary muscles.

Question 13.
What is the function of sclerotic in human eye ?
Answer:
Sclerotic provides a solid shape to the eye and protects it from external injuries.

Question 14.
What is the function of ciliary muscles in human eye ?
Answer:
Eye lens is held in its position by ciliary muscles. Ciliary muscles help the eye lens to change its focal length by adjusting its curvature.

Question 15.
What is the function of rods on the retina ?
Answer:
Rods are sensitive to intensity of light. The more the intensity of light, more are they excited.

Question 16.
What are cones ?
Answer:
Cones on retina are sensitive to different colours. If cones are absent or insufficient, the person is colour blind.

Question 17.
What is basic cause of colour blindness ?
Answer:
It is due to absence or insufficient number of cones on the retina. Seeing sun or towards it during solar eclipse may cause colour blindness.

Question 18.
Why cats and bats are able to see at night ?
Answer:
They have very large number of rods on retina. Hence, they are able to see even a small quantity of light.

Question 19.
At what rate the images pass one after the other on a cinema screen ?
Answer:
25 or more per second.

Question 20.
What type of photosensitive cells are present on the retina of the eye ?
Answer:
Cones and rods.

Question 21.
Name one device that can be used by short statured person to see over the head of a crowd.
Answer:
Periscope.

Question 22.
Find out the letters of English alphabet or any another language known to you in which the image formed in a plane mirror appears exactly like the letter itself.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 12

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are luminous and non-luminous bodies ? Give examples.
Answer:
Luminous Bodies.
Those objects which emit their own light, are called luminous bodies e.g. sun, stars, burning fire, radium etc.

Non-luminous Bodies.
Those objects which do not emit light of their own but shine due to other luminous bodies, are called Non-Luminous bodies. They are visible only, when light falls on them.
e.g. Moon, earth and other planets, things in a room.

Question 2.
How do we see objects ?
Answer:
When light from a light source falls on any object, it is scattered by it. The scattered light enters our eyes to form the image of the object and the object is, thus, seen.

Question 3.
Give the conditions necessary for seeing an object.
Answer:
Conditions for Seeing Objects. To see an object, the following three conditions are required to be satisfied:

Source of light to make object visible
The object
Eye sight.

Question 4.
What is a virtual image ? Give one situation where a virtual image is formed.
Answer:
Virtual image.
An image, which cannot be obtained on a screen, is called a virtual image. Virtual image is formed when reflected rays do not actually meet at a point.
Image formed in a plane mirror is always virtual.

Question 5.
What do you understand by lateral inversion ?
Answer:
Lateral Inversion.
In a plane mirror, the right side of the object becomes left side of the image and the left side of the object becomes right side of the image. That is the image is sideways inverted. This phenomenon, is called lateral inversion.

Question 6.
State the laws of reflection of light.
Answer:
Laws of reflection.
The reflection at the smooth surface is found to obey the following two laws, called the laws of reflection.

The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
i.e., ∠i – ∠r.
The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.

Question 7.
What is diffused reflection and regular reflection ?
Answer:
Diffused Reflection.
It takes place when the surface is not smooth or polished e.g., wall, paper. The rays reflected from an uneven surface are not parallel but scattered in all directions and such reflection is called diffused reflection.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 13
Regular Reflection.
It takes place when a beam of light falls on a smooth and polished surface, e.g., a mirror. The reflected rays from an even surface form a clear image.

Question 8.
What do you understand by reflection of light ?
Answer:
Reflection of light.
When a ray of light falls on a mirror, or polished surface, it is sent back in a particular direction obeying certain laws of reflection. This phenomenon is known as reflection of light.

Question 9.
Define the following:
1. Reflected Ray
2. Angle of reflection.
Answer:
1. Reflected Ray. A streak of light, starting from the mirror, is called reflected ray.

2. Angle of reflection. The angle made by the reflected ray with the normal at the point of incidence is called angle of reflection. It is represented by r.

Question 10.
If incident ray strikes the mirror at 90°, what will be the angle of reflection ?
Answer:
If incident ray strikes the mirror normally, then after reflection, the ray will come back along the same path. As the angle of incidence is zero, so angle of reflection will also be zero.

Question 11.
Define the term ‘Dispersion of light.’
Answer:
Dispersion of Light.
When a beam of light passes through a prism, the white light splits into seven colours. This phenomenon of splitting of white light into its constituent colours by a prism is known as dispersion of light.

Question 12.
While passing through a prism, why does the white light split into seven colours.
Answer:
The rays of different colours pass smoothly through air but when passing through a prism they have to change the speed according to the angle of prism. Different colours have different wave lengths and thus, they choose different paths. So, the spectrum is seen.

Question 13.
What is myopia ?
Answer:
Myopia.
The focal length of the eyes of some people is very small. Therefore, the image of distant object is not formed on their retina but it is formed at a point in front of the retina. In other words, they cannot see distant objects. This defect of vision is called Myopia or short sightedness.

Question 14.
What is hypermetropia ?
Answer:
Hypermetropia.
When people grow old, the muscles of the eyes lose their strength to control the curvature of the lens. As a result, the image of nearby objects is not formed at the retina, but it is formed behind the retina. So these people cannot see nearby objects clearly. This defect of vision is called Hypermetropia or Farsightedness.

Question 15.
Explain in short perception of colour.
Answer:
Perception of colour.
Human eye contains large number of rods and cones which are sensitive to light. Rods respond to the intensity of light and cones respond to the colour of the light. If cone cells are absent in the eye then such a person is colour blind. With the help of cones cells one can perceive colour. This is called perception of colour.

Question 16.
The following picture shows the reflection of light:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Light 14
(A) Name the ray AO
(B) Name the ray OB
(C) Find the value of angle x
Answer:
(A) Name of ray AO = Incident7 ray
(B) Name the ray OB = Reflected ray
(C) Value of angle x = 30° because angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between a real image and a virtual image.
Answer:
Differences between a real image and a virtual image.

Real Image	Virtual Image
1. The real image is formed when the rays of light actually meet after reflection.	1. The image formed is virtual when the rays of light don’t meet after reflection.
2. Real image can be obtained on the screen.	2. Virtual images cannot be obtained on the screen.
3. Real image is always inverted.	3. Virtual image is always erect.

Question 2.
State the characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror.
Answer:
Characteristics of the image formed in a plane mirror.

The image is as far behind the plane mirror, as the object is in front of it.
The image is laterally (sideways) inverted.
The image is of the same size as that of the object.
The image formed in a plane mirror is virtual, erect and of the same size as the object.
The image formed in a plane mirror cannot be obtained on the screen.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

October 17, 2024October 16, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 9 Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one to two words:

Question 1.
After land cost, the next highest investment by fanners is in which form?
Answer:
In the form of farm machinery.

Question 2.
Who is considered as head of farm machinery?
Answer:
Tractor.

Question 3.
Name any three machines that are driven by tractors.
Answer:
Cultivation, disc harrow, seed drill.

Question 4.
Which are those machines where the source of power is part of the machine?
Answer:
Tractor, engine, motor etc.

Question 5.
When the tractor should be over-hauled?
Answer:
After using it for 4000 hours.

Question 6.
In which gear the tractor should be stored?
Answer:
Neutral gear.

Question 7.
After proper cleaning of battery terminal of a tractor, it should be coated with which material?
Answer:
With Petroleum jelly.

Question 8.
After proper cleaning and removal of seed and fertilizer from seed sowing machinery, what should be coated to its components?
Answer:
Grease or lubricating oil.

Question 9.
What should be done to protect soil working tools of tillage machinery from rust?
Answer:
These should be coated with grease or lubricating oil.

Question 10.
Why the spray pump should be operated empty after using it?
Answer:
This helps in draining the water from spray lines.

(B) Answer in One to Two Sentences:

Question 1.
What are the basic categories in which farm machinery can be divided?
Answer:
There are three categories of farm machinery-prime movers (power source); like, tracfor etc., engine operator equipments; like, disc harrow etc., self propelled machine like, combine harvester etc.

Question 2.
After how many hours, the tractor should be serviced?
Answer:
Servicing of the tractor should be done after 10 hours, 50 hours, 125 hours, 250 hours, 500 hours and 1000 hours. Tractor should be got overhauled from a good workshop after using it for 4000 hours.

Question 3.
What should be done to protect tyres if tractor is to be stored for long term?
Answer:
Jack up the tractor and put it on the wooden blocks and also reduce air pressure in the tyres.

Question 4.
What should be done to protect battery if tractor is to be stored for long term?
Answer:
If tractor is to be stored for long time period then batteries should be disconnected and removed from the tractor but these should be charged occasionally.

Question 5.
What point should be kept in mind for maintenance of exhaust pipe and crank case breather?
Answer:
If mouth of the exhaust pipe and crank case breather is open, cover it with a cloth. This prevents entry of moisture in it.

Question 6.
During season, what should be done for maintenance of axle bearings?
Answer:
During season, after every 4-6 hours of working, lubricate the axle and bushes with oil or grease. If ball bearings are fitted then lubricate them after 3-4 days with grease.

Question 7.
Why it is important to clean the seed and fertilizer box of a seed drill daily?
Answer:
Fertilizers are chemicals which can damage or corrode these boxes if not cleaned on daily basis.

Question 8.
Why farmer should properly dean grain tank, conveyor, straw walkers and sieves in combine harvesters?
Answer:
If grain tanks, conveyor straw walkers and sieves in combine harvesters are not cleaned properly, rodents make home there and can damage the electric circuits, pipes etc. and thus damage the machinery heavily.

Question 9.
What should be done to protect combine harvester from rust?
Answer:
Moisture is the reason of rusting. Therefore, combine should be stored under a shed and cover it with a plastic sheet. Paint those parts where paint has taken off.

Question 10.
What should be done to avoid contact of machine with soil during storage?
Answer:
Answer: Wash or clean the machines or equipments to dry these. Coat them with grease and oil to prevent from rusting.

Question 1.
Why there is a need for the maintenance of farm machinery?
Answer:
To get more yield and income from agricultural produce, farm machinery plays an important role. After the cost of land, next highest investment is in farm machinery. If proper maintenance is not done for such costly machines, then we may not be able to get full benefit from the machines. Proper maintenance adds to the working life of farm machines. Repair of damaged machines cost more. Machines should be maintained at the end of the season so that we get a ready machine at the beginning of next season.

Question 2.
Which points should be kept in mind regarding maintenance of tractors?
Answer:

Wash and clean tractor and store it under shed.
If there is some sort of leakage from pipes or some repair is required, get it done. Mobile oil should be filled up-to the marked level.
All points where greasing is to be done should be washed with diesel. Remove the old grease and fill the new grease.
Use hot water to wash the terminals of battery and coat them with petroleum jelly. If tractor is to be stored for a long time remove the battery but keep on charging it from time to time.
To keep the tractor ready for any work, it should be started and operated once or twice in a month.
For long term storage Jack up the tractor and put it on wooden blocks, reduce the air pressure in tyres.
Park the tractor in switched off position, in the neutral gear and by applying parking brakes.
Cover the exhaust pipe and crank breather using a cloth to prevent the entry of moisture in it.
Air cleaner should be cleaned time to time.

Question 3.
Why repair of machinery should be done before its storage?
Answer:
Machine should be got repaired at the end of the season and before storing it. So that we get a ready machine at the beginning of next season, time is also saved. By the end of season we know about the condition of the machine, we know the parts of the machine which are creating problems, therefore machine should be taken care of, make replacement of the parts which are not working properly or are causing trouble. One can forget these things after long time i.e. at the beginning of new season. Therefore repair of machinery should be done before its storage.

Question 4.
Which points should be kept in mind for maintenance of battery?
Answer:
Tractor should be started and operated once or twice in a month. Clean the terminals of the battery with hot water and coat the terminals with petroleum jelly. If tractor in to be stored for long time duration remove the battery and keep on charging it time to time.

Question 5.
Which points should be kept in mind regarding maintenance of combine harvesters?
Answer:
Maintenance of combine harvester is similar to the maintenance of tractor. Following points should be kept in mind regarding maintenance of combine harvester.

(i) Clean properly grain tanks, conveyor, straw walkers and sieves in combine harvesters. There should be not dirt, straw, grains, chaff etc. in these otherwise rodent start living there and can damage electric circuits and pipes etc.

(ii) Moisture is the reason of rusting. Therefore, combine should be stored under a shed and cover it with a plastic sheet. Paint those parts where paint has taken off.

(iii) Machine should be got repaired at the end of the season and before storing.it. So that we get a ready machine at the beginning of next season, time is also saved. By the end of season we know about the condition of the machine, we know the parts of the machine which are creating problems, therefore machine should be taken care of, make replacement of the parts which is are not working properly or causing trouble. One can forget these things after long time i.e. at the beginning of new season. Therefore repair of machinery should be done before its storage.

(iv) Remove all the belts and put identification marks and store at a safe place.

(v) Chains should be cleaned with diesel and coat it with thin layer of grease.

(vi) Rubbing parts should be applied with lubricating oils. Eill grease in the greasing points.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Care and Maintenance of Farm Machinery Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the name of machine used for fodder chopping and cutting?
Answer:
Toka.

Question 2.
What is disc harrow in local language?
Answer:
Tavijan.

Question 3.
What is the name of the machine used for sowing seeds?
Answer:
Seed drill machine.

Question 4.
What should be the air pressure in the tyres of a tractor?
Answer:
In front tyres 24-26 pounds and in rear tyre 12-18 pounds.

Question 5.
What should be used to clean the spray pump after it is used?
Answer:
The spray pump should be cleaned with fresh water.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of a diesel engine?
Answer:
It is a small machine. It is used to run tubewell, to run fodder chopping toka, etc. Its operating cost is less than tractor when less power is required diesel engine is used.

Question 2.
Why should the seed drill machines be not parked in sunlight?
Answer:
Sun heat may damage the rubber pipes and gears.

Question 3.
What should be done to reduce the slip of the tractor?
Answer:
Air pressure in the rear tyres should be lowered.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is the importance of the maintenance of farm machinery and equipment?
Answer:
Nowadays farms machinery is used for doing nearly all agricultural activities e.g. sowing, harvesting, hoeing, etc. Farm machinery is very costly and sometimes farmers have to get loans. Therefore, it becomes necessary to maintain and take care of the machines.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 25 Importance and Principles of Secularism

October 17, 2024October 16, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 25 Importance and Principles of Secularism Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 25 Importance and Principles of Secularism

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Importance and Principles of Secularism Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Preamble of Constitution is also known as __________
Answer:
essence of the constitution

Question 2.
The Rights are included in the constitution of India from Article to ________________
Answer:
12,35

Question 3.
The word was added to the Preamble of the constitution by Amendment.
Answer:
equality, fraternity

Question 4.
To treat all religions equal is _______________
Answer:
secularism.

II. Put a tick against the Rights (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗):

Question 1.
The Preamble begins with the word we, the people of India.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
The word equality has not been included in the preamble.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Discrimination can be made on the basis of Religion, Caste, Sex, Race.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
The Right to vote gives Political Justice.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
The preamble appears at the end of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
In which part of the constitution of India are the fundamental Rights included:
(A) Part-I
(B) Part-II
(C) Part-III
(D) Part-IV.
Answer:
(C) Part-III.

Question 2.
Where are the rules for Ideals are included :
(A) In the Books of Law
(B) In the Preamble
(C) In the Constitution of India
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(C) In the Constitution of India.

Question 3.
Which Article of the Constitution of India provides six kinds of freedom to the citizens :
(A) Article 18
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 17.
Answer:
(B) Article 14.

IV. Answer the following questions in not more than 15 words :

Question 1.
Give the meaning of Secularism.
Answer:
There is no religion of the government in the secular state. All religions are equal in the eyes of the state. All the citizens of the country have the right to propagate their religion and to obey their religion in their own way. State does not discriminate with any one on the basis of religion.

Question 2.
Give an example of secularism.
Answer:
Different Presidents of India belong to different religions. In the same way people of different religions are there on higher posts in the country such as Prime Minister etc.

Question 3.
What is meant by including of rights in the Constiutiton?
Answer:
Some fundamental aims and ideals of the Constitution are given in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. They are known as ideals of the Constitution. These ideals determine the form of the country.

Question 4.
How have the Ideals included in the preamble been achieved?
Answer:
Ideals of the Constitution are implemented by giving them a legal form. For example, untouchability has been declared illegal to achieve ideal of equality.

Question 5.
What is Preamble?
Answer:
Preamble of the Constitution is given in the beginning of the Constitution. Preamble is that document in which main objective and basic goals of the Constitution are given. It is the key of views of Law makers.

V. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
What do you mean by justice? How has this ideal been implemented?
Answer:
The meaning of justice is that all the citizens of India should be given social, economic and political justice. That’s why it is necessary that every one should be given equal opportunities. So to achieve this aim, according to the Third Schedule of Constitution, discrimination on the basis of religion, race, colour, etc. is prohibited. All the citizens are also given equality of opportunity through fundamental rights. This equality is the guarantee of economic, social and political justice. Person will be punished who will try to break the related laws.

Question 2.
What is the Importance of Preamble of the Constitution?
Answer:
The Preamble is given in the beginning of the Constitution. Actually it contains all the ideals incorporated in the Constitution. Preamble is essence of the Constitution and if any one wants to know anything about the Constitution, then he needs to look into the preamble first. Moreover, few ideals are given in the Constitution which reflect the working and functioning of the government.

Question 3.
What is meant by National Unity and Integration?
Answer:
Meaning of National Unity and Integrity is that whole of India is a nation. People of all the classes, castes and religions of country form one nation. None of the unit of country is separate from it. Our Constitution makers were in favour of national unity. This goal is included in Preamble of the Constitution through 42nd constitutional amendment. Many laws have been made to achieve this goal. If any one tries to break these laws then he is given severe punishment. But some anti-social elements are trying to disintegrate the country. Some foreign powers are trying to do so. We should strictly deal with these elements and powers. We are hopeful that we could be able to achieve our objective. ”

Question 4.
What is meant by Social, Economic and Political Justice?
Answer:
The Social Justice says that there will be no discrimination with any one on the basis of caste, colour, race, gender etc. Economic justice provides equal opportunities to everyone to earn livelihood and equal pay for equal work, political justice provides many political rights to all the citizens like right to vote, right to contest elections, right to hold public offices, right to form political parties, right to criticise government etc. In this way, every type of justice is provided to all the citizens of country.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Importance and Principles of Secularism Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which article of the Indian Constitution does abolish untouchability?
(a) Article 17
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 18
(d) Article 16.
Answer:
(a) Article 17.

Question 2.
Which amendment of the Constitution added the word ‘Secular’ in the Preamble?
(a) 44th Amendment
(b) 52nd Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 74th Amendment.
Answer:
(c) 42nd Amendment.

Question 3.
Which of the following rights aims at making India a Secular State?
(a) Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Freedom.
Answer:
(a) Right to Freedom of Religion.

Question 4.
Under which articles right to equality is given?
(a) 14-18
(b) 19-22
(c) 23-24
(d) 25-28
Answer:
(a) 14-18.

Question 5.
Under which articles Directive Principles of state policy is given?
(a) 12-35
(b) 36-51
(c) 1-13
(d) 52-151
Answer:
(b) 36-51.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Preamble is also known as __________ of the Constitution.
Answer:
essence

Question 2.
Fundamental Rights are given from to articles of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
14, 32

Question 3.
__________ and words were added in the Preamble through 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
Answer:
Socialist, secular

Question 4.
It is our __________ to consider all the religions equal.
Answer:
duty.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
The Preamble starts with ‘We the People of India’.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Word equality is not added in the preamble.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Anyone can be discriminated on the basis of Caste, Colour, Sex, Race, Gender etc.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
Right to vote give us political justice.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
Preamble is written at the end of the Constitution.
Answer:
(✗)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Beginning of the Constitution	(i) Form of equality
2. An ideal of the Constitution	(ii) Preamble
3. End of Untouchability	(iii) Equal justice

Answer:

A	B
1. Beginning of the Constitution	(ii) Preamble
2. An ideal of the Constitution	(iii) Equal justice
3. End of Untouchability	(iii) Equal justice

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
On which ideology the constitutions of China, United States of America and India are based?
Answer:
The Constitution of China is based on the Communist ideology and the Constitution of United States of America is based upon the Capitalist ideology. But the Indian Constitution is not based on any specific ideology.

Question 2.
What were the evil consequences of religious fundamentalism in India during the British rule? Give two consequences.
Answer:

Communal riots, on the basis of religion, broke out in the country which led to loss of lakhs of lives.
Division of India took place in 1947 A.D.

Question 3.
What is the first goal (objective) of the Indian Constitution? Have we achieved this goal?
Answer:
First goal of the Indian Constitution was to achieve internal and external freedom. We have achieved this goal because now we are not the slave of any foreign power. Today whole of the power lies in the hands of the people. We are also free in the foreign matters as well.

Question 4.
Explain the goal of independence of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Freedom of expression, belief, etc. is given in the Preamble of the Constitution. Freedom has been given security in the form of fundamental rights. Citizens can take the help of Judiciary to get these rights.

Question 5.
Why we are not been able to achieve the goals of Constitution? Give two reasons.
Answer:

Even today, the people struggle with each other on the basis of caste, religion, race and region.
Some states are trying to be separated from the country.

Question 6.
Write down in brief the importance of Secularism.
Answer:
Secularism is an important ideal of state. People of all religions, in this type of country, can live with peace and harmony with each other. It can maintain unity and integrity of the country. Secularism become more important in the multi-religious country like India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the goal of ‘Fraternity’ of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The main aim of the goal of Fraternity given in the Indian Constitution is to develop the sense of brotherhood among its citizens. People of different castes, colours and religions live over here in India. It is necessary to develop sense of brotherhood or fraternity among the people to maintain unity and integrity of the country. Communal harmony is necessary to maintain social harmony. That’s why discriminations on the basis of religion, colour, caste, race, sex has been eliminated through different schedules of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Why have these principles been included in the Constitution?
Answer:
The Constitution determines the relation between the form of administration of the country, citizens and state. Some ideals are determined to make state a welfare state and to establish good relations with other countries. That’s why it is necessary that social and religious fraternity of the country could be maintained, all the classes could be given justice and unity and integrity of the country should remain intact. That’s why some goals are fixed to achieve this objective. These are known as the goals of Constitution because just after achieving these goals, India can be made an ideal state.

Question 3.
Why secularism has been included in our Constitution?
Answer:
The main reason for including the goal of secularism in the Indian Constitution is the Indian occupation by the British. India remained the slave of the Britishers for around 200 years. The British tried to divide the country on a religious basis so that economic prosperity should not come in the country. Sometimes our country became the victim of Naxalite ideology. In this way atmosphere of religious fundamentalism occurred in the country and it led to the division of the country. Even religious riots occurred in the country. So it was necessary to make the state secular. That’s why the goal of secularism is included in the Indian Constitution.

Question 4.
Give in detail the meaning of the word Secularism.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is based upon the idea of secularism. A secular state is a that state which is completely impartial in religious matters. This type of state does not have its own religion and all religions are equal for it. All the citizens have the right to religious freedom and they are free to adopt any religion or to propagate their religion. No citizen is discriminated against on the basis of religion.

Question 5.
What do you mean by equality? Which equalities are included in the Constitution?
Answer:
The meaning of Equality is that all the citizens of the country are equal irrespective of their religion, colour, or caste. The following equalities are given in the Constitution:

All the citizens are equal before the law.
Untouchability has been declared illegal so that social equality could be determined.
All the titles, except military and educational titles, have been abolished.
No religion, caste, race, or class is given special rights.
Judiciary has been given special rights to ensure equality in the country.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

October 17, 2024October 16, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Pollution of Air and Water Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
What are the different ways in which water gets contaminated?
Answer:
There are many different ways in which water gets contaminated such as :

By washing, bathing or other household activities.
By sewage
By toxic chemicals thrown by industries.
By silt.
By garbage and dead bodies dumped in water resources.
By fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides etc.
By deposition of minerals or metals in the river bed.

Question 2.
At an individual level, how can you help reduce air pollution?
Answer:
Steps taken to reduce air pollution at an individual level.

Automobile use is to be reduced and is maintained properly. Unleaded petrol or diesel must be used.
Burning of leaves, tyres etc. must be stopped.
Plant trees or vegetation around the residential areas.
Use of public transport.

Question 3.
Clear, transparent water is always fit for drinking. Comment.
Answer:
It is not a correct statement. Clear, transparent water may appear clean, but it is not pure. It may contain dissolved impurities and many microorganisms. These microorganisms may be carriers of diseases. So, water fit for drinking is clean, clear, transparent, odourless, devoid of germs and dissolved impurities. Best way to get pure water is boiling. Boiling kills the germs and boiled water can be used for drinking purposes.

Question 4.
You are a member of the municipal body of your town. Make a list of measures that would help your town to ensure the supply of clean water to all its residents.
Answer:
List of measures to obtain clean water.

Industrial waste must be treated before throwing into water resources.
Sewage must be treated by physical and chemical methods before dumping in water resources.

Question 5.
Explain the differences between pure air and polluted air.
Answer:
Differences between Pure air and Polluted air.

Pure air	Polluted air
1. The air is clear and transparent.	1. The air is dirty and translucent.
2. No smoke and dust particles can be seen.	2. Smoke and dust particles are in high amounts.
3. No odour is there.	3. It may have foul smell.
4. Microorganisms are absent.	4. Microorganisms are present.

Question 6.
Explain circumstances leading to acid rain. How does acid rain affect us?
Answer:
Acid Rain. When NO₂, N₂O, SO₂ and SO₃ produced from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and by smelting of non-ferrous metals combine with water to form HNO₃, H₂SO₃ and H₂SO₄ and fall down in the form of rain, it is called acid rain. It destroys crops, wild plants, steel rail tracks and electrical equipment. It causes irritation of eyes, nose and throat.

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
[а] Carbon dioxide
[b] Sulphur dioxide
[c] Methane
[d] Nitrogen.
Answer:
[d] Nitrogen.

Question 8.
Describe the ‘Green House Effect’ in your own words.
Answer:
Green House Effect. Carbon dioxide is present in the atmosphere in very small proportion. It helps in photosynthesis process. It is also absorbed by oceans to form carbonate rocks. It also produces greenhouse effect. The heating of the earth due to trapped radiations is called greenhouse effect. Our sun emits light consisting of ultraviolet and infrared radiations. Ultraviolet radiations are absorbed by ozone layer, but infrared radiations pass through the atmosphere and reaches the surface of the earth.

Some of the rays are reflected back. The carbon dioxide absorbs these reflected rays. Since infrared radiations have a heating effect, the atmosphere gets heated up. There are four gases which can trap the infrared radiations. These are carbon dioxide (CO₂), water vapour (H₂O), ozone (O₃) and methane (CH₄). Out of these four, carbon dioxide is uniformly distributed in the atmosphere so it contributes mainly towards the greenhouse effect. The name greenhouse is derived from glasshouse in which green plants are kept.

Question 9.
Prepare a brief speech on global warming. You have to make in your class.
Answer:
Global Warming. Global warming as the name suggests is the increase in temperature of the globe i.e. the average temperature of the atmosphere has increased. Few gases like CO₂, methane, ozone are responsible for it.

The quantity of these gases is increasing day by day in the atmosphere. If this is not checked in time, the temperature will have a big rise and there will be hazards all around us. Such as, glaciers will melt, lower area will get submerged in water, rainfall will be affected, sea level will rise affecting production of crops, forests, etc and it will also affect the lifestyle of living organisms. So special and immediate measures are to be taken to stop global warming.

Question 10.
Describe the threat to the beauty of the Taj Mahal.
Answer:
Taj Mahal is one of the seven wonders of the world. It is a white building made up of white marbles. The monument is being threatened by air pollution. The area surrounding Taj is congested with many harmful gases such as Sulphur dioxide, Nitrogen oxides etc.

This is being emitted by burning of fossil fuels by industries established around the Taj. These gases dissolve in rainwater to form acid rain. This acid rain falls on marble, react with it and dissolves and tarnishes it. If no steps are taken to minimise the fall of acid rain, one day marble monument will remain no more and all the marble will get damaged.

Question 11.
Why does the increased level of nutrients in the water? effect the survival of aquatic organisms?
Answer:
With increased quantities of nutrients (nitrates, phosphates etc.) the algae flourish in the water. When this algae die, decomposers decompose it, using oxygen present in water. Thus, there is decrease in oxygen level in water, which affect the survival of aquatic organisms.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Pollution of Air and Water Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Ankush noticed that air pollution has increased in the market due to vehicles. Which gas is emitted by vehicles in a large quantity that causes air pollution?
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

Question 2.
Which of the following is greenhouse gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(a) Carbon dioxide.

Question 3.
The source of air pollution is:
(a) Burning forests
(b) Gas emitted by automobiles
(c) Smoke of burning wood
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 4.
Which of the gas present in air contains 78%?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Argon.
Answer:
(b) Nitrogen.

Question 5.
Which fuel is being used in vehicles in big cities like Delhi?
(a) L.P.G.
(b) Biogas
(c) C.N.G.
(d) Natural gas.
Answer:
(c) C.N.G.

Question 6.
Which diseases are caused due to polluted water?
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Jaundice
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 7.
The cause of diseases related to respiration in children is :
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Water vapour
(d) Smog
Answer:
(d) Smog.

Question 8.
The ordinary chemical method to purify the water is :
(a) Boiling
(b) Filtering
(c) Chlorination
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Chlorination

Question 9.
When was Ganga cleanliness planning started?
(a) In 1965
(b) In 1975
(c) In 1995
(d) In 1985.
Answer:
(d) In 1985.

Question 10.
Which gas reduces the capacity of absorption of oxygen in blood?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Oxygen.
Answer:
(b) Carbon monoxide

Question 11.
What is the percentage of population which does not get the required water?
(a) 40%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 15%
Answer:
(c) 25%

Question 12.
Which of the following is not greenhouse gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Methane
(d) Nitrogen.
Answer:
(d) Nitrogen.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who is responsible for deterioration of quality of atmosphere?
Answer:
Man and his activities.

Question 2.
What conditions of environment are lacking these days?
Answer:
Clear sky, fresh air, clean water etc.

Question 3.
What is composition of air?
Answer:
Composition of Air. Air is mixture of gases containing 78% nitrogen, 21% of oxygen and 1% of other gases such as carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, water vapour, argon, ozone, methane etc.

Question 4.
Which is the main air pollutant?
Answer:
Smoke.

Question 5.
What are the main causes of smoke?
Answer:
Causes of smoke :

Automobiles
Burning of fuels

Question 6.
Name natural air pollutants.
Answer:
Smoke, dust.

Question 7.
Which disease is caused by air pollution?
Answer:
Respiratory problems.

Question 8.
Which gases are released by vehicles?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, smoke etc.

Question 9.
Which gas reduces the capacity of the blood to carry oxygen?
Answer:
Carbon monoxide.

Question 10.
What is smog?
Answer:
Smog. Smog is made up of smoke and fog.

Question 11.
Name some Breathing/Respiratory Problems.
Answer:
Respiratory problems- Asthma, Cough, Wheezing in children etc.

Question 12.
Which chemicals are used in refrigerators, air conditioners, perfumes etc?
Answer:
Chloro-fluoro carbons.

Question 13.
What is ill effect of chloro-fluoro carbons?
Answer:
Chloro-fluoro carbons (CFCs) damage the ozone layer.

Question 14.
Why is ozone layer important?
Answer:
It protects the earth from UV radiation of the sun.

Question 15.
What is the source of suspended solid particles in air?
Answer:
Sources of solid particles in air:

Burning of petrol, diesel in automobiles,
Industrial processes such as steelmaking and mining
Power plants.

Question 16.
What is the effect of suspended particles in air?
Answer:
They reduce the visibility.

Question 17.
Which industries are responsible for acid rain around Taj in Agra?
Answer:
Rubber processing, Automobile, Chemical, Mathura oil refinery.

Question 18.
Which are acid gases?
Answer:
Acid-gases. Sulphur dioxide, Sulphur trioxide, Nitrous oxide.

Question 19.
Name two clean fuels.
Answer:
LPG and CNG.

Question 20.
Which gas has tendency to trap sun radiations and warm the atmosphere?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 21.
Name some greenhouse gases.
Answer:
Green House gases. Methane, ozone, water vapours, nitrous oxide, carbon dioxide.

Question 22.
Which protocol has been signed to minimize greenhouse effect?
Answer:
The Kyoto protocol.

Question 23.
Name few alternate fuels.
Answer:
Alternate fuels. Solar energy, Hydropower, Wind energy.

Question 24.
When is Van Mahotsav celebrated in India?
Answer:
In the month of July of every year.

Question 25.
How should dry leaves be disposed?
Answer:
Dry leaves must be put in compost pit to obtain compost.

Question 26.
Which characteristics of water can get changed?
Answer:
Smell, colour and acidity.

Question 27.
Name few water pollutants.
Answer:
Water pollutants. Sewage, toxic chemicals, silt; insecticides, weedicides etc.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples of air pollutants.
Answer:
Examples of air pollutants:

Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen.
Radioactive fallout.

Question 2.
What are the major sources of air pollution?
Answer:
The major sources of air pollution are as follows :

Industries. Paper and pulp industries, steel plants, petroleum refineries and chemical plants.
Automobiles
Smoke.

Question 3.
What is sewage?
Answer:
Sewage. The release of huge quantities of municipal and domestic wastes is called sewage. They contain certain organic wastes, toxic substances, which damage biological activities.

Question 4.
Why is the sewage water called polluted water?
Answer:
Sewage water contains human urine and faeces, cloth washings and industrial wastes. This water is totally unfit for drinking, washing and for other purposes. It lacks oxygen. It gives foul smell. It can lead to spread of water-borne diseases. Hence, the sewage water is called polluted water.

Question 5.
How should air pollution be controlled?
Answer:
Steps to control air pollution :

Combustible solid wastes should tie burnt in incinerators.
Automobiles must be either made to eliminate the use of gasoline and diesel oil or complete combustion is obtained in the engine so that harmful products are not emitted.
Excessive and undesirable burning of vegetation should be stopped.

Question 6.
How can pollution of river water be controlled?
Answer:
Pollution of river water can be controlled by :

Mechanical and chemical treatment of sewage at its origin and then allowing the clean, harmless effluents (industrial waste) to flow into the river.
Shifting of present chemical factories and banning the construction of new factories on the river banks.

Question 7.
In what way chloro-fluoro carbons are harmful?
Answer:
Chloro-fluoro carbons deplete the ozone layer in the atmosphere which protects earthly organisms from harmful ultraviolet radiations.

Question 8.
How does carbon monoxide act on humans?
Answer:
Haemoglobin of the blood absorbs carbon monoxide. This in turn reduces oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. The non-availability of sufficient oxygen to the tissues results in death.

Question 9.
Which metals are harmful for health?
Answer:
Lead, Arsenic, Mercury.

Question 10.
Depict the important pollutants of air.
Answer:
Air pollutants.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water 1

Question 11.
Write the harmful effects of greenhouse effect.
Answer:
Harmful effects of Greenhouse effect. The greenhouse effect will increase the temperature of earth’s surface. It will make the life of men and animals uncomfortable. The scientists have estimated that the sea level will rise by 100 m if the global temperature rises by 3-6°C due to greenhouse effect. If it happens, the coastal regions and many islands will be submerged causing great damage.

Question 12.
Why is Ganga river more polluted at Kanpur?
Answer:
At Kanpur, the amount of water and flow is comparatively less and slow. Near about 5000 industries of Kanpur discharge toxic chemicals into the river. People bath, wash clothes, defecate, throw garbage, flowers, worship material and polythene bags in the river.

Question 13.
How is ozone layer help to us?
Answer:
Ozone layer of atmosphere is very important for all living organisms. It absorbs the harmful ultraviolet rays radiated from the sun which otherwise can give rise to fatal diseases like skin cancer in humans. These rays are also harmful for crops.

Question 14.
Explain the ozone layer.
Answer:
Ozone layer. The ozone gas found in the stratosphere of atmosphere is known as ozone layer. It protects us from ultraviolet rays of the sun. A poisonous substance chlorofluorocarbon is used in refrigerators and air conditioners which attenuates the ozone layer. This is known as depletion of ozone layer.

Question 15.
Which types of problems can arise with an increase in global warming? Write about three problems.
Answer:
Global warming can create following problems.

Summers will become more hot and dry and winters will be damp and colder.
Glaciers will melt down due to increase in global warming and level of sea will rise by two feet.
Water supplies would become disrupted and droughts would be more common.

Question 16.
How the industries located on the bank of Ganga river contribute to pollute it?
Answer:
There ae established industries in very big number in the cities and towns located on the bank of Ganga river. Only in Kanpur, there are more than 5000 industrial units which are adding fertilizers, detergents, poisonous waste of leather and paint industries, sewage, insecticides and garbage etc. in Ganga Paper factories, sugar mills and other chemical factories are polluting the water of Ganga by discharging their wastes in huge amount.

Question 17.
What instructions are issued by government for industries to maintain the cleanliness of holy rivers like Ganga?
Answer:
Oil refineries, textile and sugar mills, paper factories and chemical factories discharging their industries wastes directly into the rivers. As a result, the water of rivers is becoming poisonous. To check it government have passed regulations. According to these regulations, industries are to treat the waste produced for discharging it into water, but quite often the rules are not followed.

Question 18.
How can you help to reduce air pollution. Suggest any two measures.
Answer:
Steps to control air pollution

Combustible solid wastes should be burnt in incinerators.
Automobiles must be either made to eliminate the use of gasoline and diesel oil or complete combustion is obtained in the engine so that harmful products are not emitted.

Question 19.
List sources of noise pollution in your surroundings. Explain how noise pollution is harmful for human beings.
Answer:
Sources of noise pollution :

Sounds of vehicles.
Loudspeakers.
Working Machines.
Bursting of crackers.
Desert coolers.
Radios and televisions at high volumes.
Kitchen appliances.
Hawkers.

Harmful effects of noise pollution :

Lack of sleep.
Hypertension.
Anxiety.
Partial deafness.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What steps would you suggest for minimising the air pollution around you?
Answer:
The air pollution can be minimised by the following steps :

Using alternative sources of energy, that are non-polluting such as solar energy, wind energy etc.
Using lead-free fuels, such as Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for running cars, buses, trucks etc. The vehicles must be regularly checked for pollution.
Setting factories away from residential areas and their chimneys must have filters.
Planting more and more trees, as they purify air.
Not using bags made of plastic, instead using cloth and jute bags.
Recycling materials, such as paper, metal etc.
Avoiding burning of dried leaves, tree branches, paper, garbage etc. as the smoke released causes pollution.
Saving electricity as it would amount to burning of less fossil fuels.
Reducing the use of aerosols (i.e. particles of solid, or liquid matter) that can remain suspended in air from a few minutes to many months depending on particle size and weights, such as perfumes, deodorants etc.
Avoiding smoking and encouraging others also to do the same.

Question 2.
Describe the role of sewage as water pollutant.
Answer:
Sewage can be classified into domestic sewage and industrial wastes. Domestic sewage is one of the most primary sources of water pollution. The industrial wastes also play major role in the pollution of water.
Sewage pollutes rivers, lakes and even oceans. Polluted waters are contaminated with infectious agents for cholera, typhoid, dysentery, jaundice and skin diseases.

In sewage water, there is depletion of oxygen, because the same is required for degradation of sewage. Reduced availability of oxygen causes suffocation and kills many aquatic animals especially fishes. Polluted water becomes unfit for drinking and cooking. The poisonous substances which get dissolved in water, make it unsuitable for aquatic life. It is unfit for agricultural operations also. Scum and sludge get collected and make the water unfit for boating and other recreational purposes.

Question 3.
Write a short note on air pollution.
Answer:
Air Pollution. Air is never found pure due to natural and man-made pollution. An undesirable change in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of air is called air pollution. The substances which pollute the air are called air pollutants. The common air pollutants are carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and suspended particulate matter.

The air pollution is caused by natural processes and human activities. Air pollution has very adverse effects on human beings. It affects raw materials, industrial processes, living conditions and cultural assets like historical monuments. It is posing main dangers to our lives.

Question 4.
Define acidic gases. Give examples. Can you observe its effects on newly constructed buildings made of marble?
Answer:
The gases which combine with water to form acids are called acidic gases.
Example: Sulphur dioxide (SO₂), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂). Effects on buildings made of marble.

The acidic gases (SO₂ and NO₂) react with water present in the air and get converted to acids :
2SO₂ + O₂ + 2H₂O → 2H₂SO₄ Sulphuric acid
4NO₂ + O₂ + 2H₂O → 4HNO₃ Nitric acid

The acids come down to earth with rainwater. The rain containing acids is called acid rain. The acid damages the marble stone (CaCO₃) by dissolving it.
CaCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + CO₂↑ + H₂O
CaCO₃ + 2HNO₃ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + CO₂ ↑+ H₂O Marble stone
Therefore, acidic gases damage the buildings made of marble.

Question 5.
Explain ozone depletion.
Answer:
Ozone Depletion:
Ozone layer acts as protector of life on earth. Due to human activities, CFCs produced by man depletes the ozone layer, more ultraviolet radiations reach the surface of earth. It is termed ozone depletion.

Effects of ozone depletion.

UV radiation strikes the earth and these radiations cause skin cancer and damage to eye.
These ultraviolet radiations damage the defence (immune) system of the body.
It may lead to variations in global rainfall.
It causes ecological disturbances such as floods, shortage of food etc.

Question 6.
Describe the sources of water pollution.
Answer:
Sources of water pollution:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water 2

Following are the sources of water pollution-
1. Domestic effluent. In this case, wastewater is discharged into public sewerage system such as-

Human and animal excreta
Plenty of organic matter in the form of food residue
Detergents
A large number of bacteria.

2. Industrial effluent. Industries usually discharge wastewater into ponds, lakes, and rivers. Industrial wastewater contains heavy metals as mercury, lead, copper, arsenic, and cadmium.

3. Pesticides and fertilizers. The surface water runoff from the field with inorganic fertilizers, pesticides, insecticides, bring heavy loads of pollutants into natural water bodies. Pesticides like DDT are non-biodegradable.

4. Waste Heat. Waste heat is a rise in the temperature of water by human activity. Thermal power plants, refineries, etc. discharge hot water into nearly lakes, sea, etc. The sudden rise in the temperature of the water has very harmful effects on aquatic organisms, such as fish and algae.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 24 Constitution and Law

October 17, 2024October 16, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 24 Constitution and Law Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 24 Constitution and Law

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Constitution and Law Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The constitution of India was implemented on ___________
Answer:
26 Jan. 1950

Question 2.
___________ was the first President of India.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
The law against Dowry was enacted in ___________
Answer:
1961 A.D.

Question 4.
The Constitution of India was prepared in ___________ years months and days.
Answer:
2,11,18

Question 5.
The main cause of foeticide is ___________custom.
Answer:
dowry.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗) answer:

Question 1.
Gandhiji broke the salt law at Dandi.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
The Judiciary does not protected the constitution.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
The rule of law runs through India.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
To oppose bad laws is the feature of Democracy.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
Laws are Indefinite rules.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
When was the Indian Constitution Implement?
(A) Nov. 26, 1949
(B) Jan. 26, 1950
(C) Jan. 26, 1930
(D) Jan. 26, 1949.
Answer:
(B) Jan. 26, 1950.

Question 2.
Who was the Chairman of the constitution draft committee?
(A) Dr. Rajinder Prasad
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru.
Answer:
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 3.
Who is the highest of the following in India?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Judiciary
(D) Constitution.
Answer:
(D) Constitution.

Question 4.
State the number of draft committee members.
(A) 11
(B) 18
(C) 7
(D) 2.
Answer:
(C) 7.

IV. Answer the following questions In not more than 15 words :

Question 1.
What do you mean by Constitution?
Or
Write the meaning of the term Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution is a legal document through which administration of the country is being run. Central and state governments run their administration according to the Constitution. The Constitution is above of all the laws of the country.

Question 2.
Why was Constitution implemented on 26th January, 1950?
Answer:
Our Constitution was implemented on 26th January, 1950 because of the historical importance of this date. On 26th January, 1930, first independence day of the country was celebrated.

Question 3.
Write the word meaning of Law.
Answer:
Law is an English word. The word “Law’ came out of Tutonic word ‘Lag’ whose meaning is definite. In this way the meaning of law is definite rule.

Question 4.
What is the importance of Law?
Answer:
Law is helpful in maintaining system of any institution or the country. No institution can run in a proper way without the laws. School also has its own laws (rules) with which discipline is maintained in the school.

Question 5.
What do you mean by the impartial Judiciary?
Answer:
The meaning of impartiality of the judiciary is that it works independently without the pressure of executive or legislative. Judiciary in India also has been made impartial. If any institution does not work according to the Constitution, judiciary can declare it unconstitutional.

Question 6.
Which were the movements started by Mahatma Gandhi?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhiji started Non-Cooperation Movement in 1921, Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930 and Quit India Movement in 1942 A.D.

Question 7.
What do you understand by “Boycott of Liquor”?
Or
What is meant by the prohibition of Liquor?
Answer:
The meaning of Boycott of Liquor is restriction of making whisky by state, sale of whisky and drinking of whisky.

V. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
What do you mean by the. supremacy of the Constitution?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is considered as the highest document.

Persons being appointed in all the important offices of the country are asked to take the oath of the Constitution.
All government and non-government institutions work according to the Constitution.
Judiciary has been made independent and impartial. It has been given a number of rights for the security of the Constitution. Out of these, one right is related to” security and explanation of the Constitution.
A democratic structure has been established in the country according to the Constitution. Citizens are given a number of rights. One of these important rights is the right to criticise the government.

Question 2.
How was the Constitution of India formed?
Answer:
On the 29th of August, 1947, a seven member committee was formed to form the Indian Constitution. This committee studied the Constitutions of many countries. It took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to complete the Indian Constitution. It was passed by the Constituent Assembly on 29th November, 1949 but was implemented in the country on 26th January, 1950 due to the historical importance of this date.

Question 3.
How has the judiciary been made Impartial in India?
Answer:
Judiciary has been made the independent and unbiased for the security of Constitution. Judiciary determines that the Constitution should be obeyed. If any institution does not work according to the Constitution then it can be declared as unconstitutional. Judiciary has the right to review the laws. It means that if any law made by legislative is against the spirit of the Constitution, it can be dismissed by the Judiciary. In the same way if any work implemented by executive is against the Constitution then it can be declared as unconstitutional.

Question 4.
Why did Gandhi violate the British laws?
Answer:
The British government used to make laws for the country before our independence. The main aim of these laws was to meet the interests of the British government. Indian interests were hardly cared by these laws. For example, British government passed an act in 1919 A.D. called Rowlatt Act according to which government was free to arrest any person just on the basis of doubt. Salt law was also against Indians. It was necessary to break such laws. That’s why Gandhiji broke those laws.

Question 5.
What is meant by prohibition and why should it be put into practice?
Answer:
Meaning of boycotting of liquor is the legal prohibition of making whisky, sale of whisky and drinking of whisky.

Drinking whisky or alcohol is a social evil. According to one survey, every fourth person of the country is alcoholic. Daily 25 crore rupees are being spent on whisky. Not only this it leads to loss of money, loss of health and loss of time. Alcohol takes the person towards moral degradation. That’s why it is necessary to implement the policy of Complete Prohibition.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Constitution and Law Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Indian Constitution was framed by :
(a) Indian Parliament
(b) Dr. Ambedkar British
(c) Constituent Assembly
(d) Parliament.
Answer:
(c) Constituent Assembly.

Question 2.
The Indian Constitution was enforced on :
(a) 9th December 1950
(b) 15th August 1947
(c) 26th Nov. 1949
(d) 26th January, 1950.
Answer:
(d) 26th January, 1950.

Question 3.
Aims of the Constitution are mentioned in the :
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Preamble

Question 4.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajinder Prasad
(d) K.M. Munshi.
Answer:
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 5.
Which of the following right is available under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 6.
At present Indian citizen enjoys :
(a) Seven Fundamental Rights
(b) Eight Fundamental Rights
(c) Six Fundamental Rights
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Six Fundamental Rights.

Question 7.
Who was elected as the first president of India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 8.
Which of these movements was started by Gandhiji?
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 9.
When was Dowry Prohibition Act passed?
(a) 1960
(b) 1961
(c) 1962
(d) 1963.
Answer:
(b) 1961.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Indian Constitution come into force on ___________
Answer:
26 January 1950

Question 2.
___________ was the first President of India.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
Dowry Prohibition Act was passed in A.D.
Answer:
1961

Question 4.
Indian Constitution was made in around ___________ years.
Answer:
Three

Question 5.
Major reason of foeticide is ___________
Answer:
Dowry.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer:

Question 1.
Gandhi Ji broke Salt Law at Dandi.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Judiciary never protects the country.
Answer:
(✗).

Question 3.
Rule of law is there in India.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Elimination of wrong laws is a basic aspect of democratic government.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
Laws are indefinite rules.
Answer:
(✗).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Constitution	(i) Judiciary
2. Protection of Constitution	(ii) 31 Dec. 1929
3. Completion of Constitution	(iii) Legal Document
4. Declaration of Poorna Swaraj	(iv) 26 Nov. 1949

Answer:

A	B
1. Constitution	(iii) Legal Document
2. Protection of Constitution	(i) Judiciary
3. Completion of Constitution	(iv) 26 Nov. 1949
4. Declaration of Poorna Swaraj	(ii) 31 Dec. 1929

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did India become independent?
Answer:
India became independent on 15th August 1947.

Question 2.
Who framed the Constitution of India? Who was its chairman?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly whose chairman was Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 3.
When was the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly framed? Who was its Chairman?
Answer:
The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly was framed on 29th August 1947. Its chairman was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 4.
Who was the first President of India? In which meeting of Constituent Assembly he was elected as President?
Answer:
The first President of India was Dr. Rajendra Prasad. He was elected as the President in the last meeting of Constituent Assembly on 25th January 1950.

Question 5.
Which steps are taken to make Judiciary independent and impartial?
Answer:
Appointment of judges, their salary, perks and term are kept separate from other bureaucrats.

Question 6.
Give two things included in the Civil Disobedience and Non-Cooperation Movements.
Answer:

Not to use things made by the British government.
Not to wear clothes made by them.

Question 7.
Where and how was the salt law broken?
Answer:
Salt law was broken at Dandi (Gujarat) under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. Salt made by the British government was destroyed by them and Gandhiji ordered to make salt themselves from the seawater.

Question 8.
Which state governments passed the laws related to complete prohibition? Were they proved fruitful?
Answer:
Complete Prohibition Laws were passed by governments of Gujarat, Haryana, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh. But they were not proved fruitful.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the formation and implementation of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
After the independence, one Constituent Assembly was formed. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected its permanent chairman. This committee was sovereign in its hands.

Formation of Drafting Committee and making of the Constitution. One committee of seven members was formed on 29th August, 1947 to give definite form to the Constitution. It’s chairman was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. This Drafting Committee studied the Constitutions of different countries and collectecLmany facts from the Constitutions of other countries. Total 11 meetings of the Constituent Assembly were held. The work of making of the Constitution was completed on 26 Nov., 1949. It took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to make our Constitution. The Constitution was implemented on 26th Jan. 1950. Last meeting of Constituent Assembly took place on 25th Jan. 1950 in which Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the first President, of India.

Question 2.
Why and how Dowry System was banned?
Answer:
The custom of dowry was a curse on our society. This was one of the biggest problems for poor classes right from the ages. Poor people used to take loan to give dowry to their girls. It led to lower status of females in society. That’s why people started to encourage female foeticide. It led to decline in sex-ratio in society. That’s why government was forced to make a law to restrict dowry system and this law was made in 1961. According to this law, giving or taking dowry is an offence.

Question 3.
What do you mean by the Constitution and Law?
Answer:
Constitution. The Constitution is a fundamental and legal document which enjoys the highest place in the country. It is a set of those rules according to which administration of the country is being run. All the government and non-government institutions work according to the Constitution.

Law. Law is that rule which maintains peace and order in the country. Laws are being formed by central and state legislatures. It is necessary for all the citizens of the country to obey the laws of the country. Punishment can be given in case of breaking the laws.

Question 4.
What is the meaning and importance of Law?
Answer:
Meaning. Law is an English word. The word ‘Law’ came out of the Teutonic word ‘Lag” whose meaning is definite. In this way, the meaning of the word ‘Law’ is any definite rule.

Importance of Law: Laws are of great importance in social life. They regulate our social life. Our social life cannot run in a proper way without these laws. For example, if rules (laws) will not be implemented in the school then indiscipline will not prevail in the school. In this way, if criminals will not be controlled by laws then insecurity will prevail in the social life of the society.

Question 5.
List the rights of citizens in a criticism.
Answer:
Rights given to citizens by the Constitution are known as basic rights or fundamental rights. They are six in number and are listed as follows:

Right to Equality.
Right to Freedom.
Right against Exploitation.
Right to Religious Freedom.
Cultural and Educational Rights.
Right to Constitutional Remedies.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 Awareness about Narcotics

October 16, 2024October 15, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 8 Awareness about Narcotics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Physical Education Chapter 8 Awareness about Narcotics

Physical Education Guide for Class 8 PSEB Awareness about Narcotics Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the effects of the use of narcotics?
Answer:
Nowadays drugs have become a great problem in our society. The drugs effect the body and mind adversely and ruins the family and social life of the person. Narcotic drugs effect our body systems adversely and cause severe diseases such as blood pressure, diabetes and cancer. The drug-addicted person loses control over his behaviour. Out of anxiety, the person may even Quarrel with his friends and relatives. As a result, his friends and relatives start avoiding him. A drug addict can no more enjoy his social life as he loses his character and is unable to maintain a healthy relation with the members of the society.

Question 2.
What are the reasons of the increasing trends of drug addiction?
Answer:
Students are attracted towards drug abuse due to bad company, movies and songs. Students get inspired by the heroes in the movies picturised as taking drugs because they consider it to be cool, but they are unaware of the fact that drugs can prove to be fatal. Broken marriage or divorce of mother and father can attract their children towards drug addiction. This may, as a result, spoil the family life and may even push the children towards serious drug addiction. Sometimes, parents themselves spoil their children with drugs because they themselves are addicted.

A child spends most of his time with friends and playmates, away from the family members. Therefore, the influence of friends or peer groups is natural. If one of the friends is a drug addict, it will effect the whole group. Sometimes, a case of show-off or boasting may persuade a child to do costly drugs. Due to modem technology and vogue, a child may happen to take drugs.

Question 3.
What are the harmful effects of narcotics?
Answer:
Drugs have become a great problem in the society now a days. Drugs effect the users body by weakening the digestive system, immune system, circulatory system, respiratory system, metabolism, nervous system, etc. The persistent use of drugs may cause many severe diseases such as hypertension, numbness, diabetes, jaundice, cancer, etc. The risk of heart related diseases also increase, hands start shaking, the person suffers mental imbalance as well.

Use of narcotic drugs effects the behaviour of the person very badly. He loses control over his senses and Quarrels with people without any genuine reason. The drug addict remains irritated all the time as the narcotics severely effect all the systems of his body. People of the society avoid him which further adds to his irritation.

Question 4.
What are the measures to get rid of drug addiction?
Answer:
It is very difficult to make a person Quit using drugs. However, addicted person must be prepared mently and physically, to give up narcotics by the following manner:

1. Motivation:
The school teachers, parents, friends and team mates play an important role to motivate the children to avoid narcotics. They should aware the person of the ill effects of narcotics. Only friendly and sympathetical behaviour can work well in these cases. He can prepare himself to give up drugs with the counselling of the psychologist.

2. Yog Asana:
Yog Asanas play an important role to motivate the addicted person to avoid using drugs as yoga is a gift from the Indian culture. Now-a-days popular all over the world, yoga is very useful to relieve mental and physical stress. The Asanas are very good to prevent the mental and physical diseases and drug addiction as well.

3. Role of family:
The role of family plays an important role to make the person drug-free. Drug addicted person must be treated with love and affection. In this way, needful corporation from his family, friend and relatives can help the person Quit the abuse of drugs.

4. Sports Entertainment:
Sports help the children to be physically and mentally fit and make best use of free time. In this way the attention gets diverted from the bad company and the children may be free from bad habits like drug addiction.

5. Organising Seminars:
It is very needful that the school and colleges should organise seminars on the harmful effects of the drugs abuse. They should make the students aware about the harmful effects of smoking, drinking alcohol, doing other harmfuL drugs, etc. In these seminars, experts should be invited to spread awareness.

6. Family Attitude:
Parents and teachers should have sympathetic and friendly attitude towards the children. So they may share the problems and feelings with their parents and teachers. In this way, they can keep the children away from drug addiction.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Guide Awareness about Narcotics Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Mention the bad effects of drug:
(A) Men become very weak.
(B) Fall victms to many diseases.
(C) Digestive and Muscular system become weak.
(D) Above all.
Answers:
(A) Men become very weak.
(B) Fall victms to many diseases.
(C) Digestive and Muscular system become weak.
(D) Above all.

Question 2.
Write the causes of increasing intoxicants:
(A) Social causes
(B) Effects of technology
(C) Family causes
(D) Above all.
Answers:
(D) Above all.

Question 3.
Mention ways to prevent intoxicants:
(A) Prerena
(B) To organise seminar.
(C) Psychological effect
(D) Above all.
Answers:
(A) Prerena
(B) To organise seminar.
(C) Psychological effect

Question 4.
Name any four drugs:
(A) Wine
(B) Tabacco
(C) Afeem and Ganja
(D) Above all.
Answers:
(D) Above all.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are narcotics?
Answer:
Narcotics are the drugs which make a person lose his mental and physical balance.

Question 2.
Write the changes in a person after taking narcotic drugs.
Answer:
There are many kinds of changes that can be seen like ill-behaviour and lose in senses.

Question 3.
Write the effects of using narcotic drugs.
Answer:
The drugs effect the social & economic status of the person. The abuse of drugs also spoils his family life because the person may cheat the trust of the family members.

Question 4.
Write any two effects of narcotic abuse.
Answer:

Unhealthy social life.
Breaking of relations with family and relatives.

Question 5.
Write any two harmful effects of narcotics.
Answer:

Effects the numerous systems of the body.
Adverse effects on behaviour.

Question 6.
Write any two measures to get rid of drug addiction..
Answer:
1. Motivation: The parents, school teachers and elders of the family play an important role to motivate the children to avoid narcotics.

2. Psychological Method: If it seems difficult, then the person should be prepared to give up drugs with the counselling of a psychologist.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are Narcotics?
Answer:
Narcotics are the drugs which spoil the life of the user and the person becomes isolated. He gets ignored by his relatives.

Question 2.
Write the reasons of increasing trend of drug addictions.
Answer:
1. Sometime children start comparing their economic life with that of their friends. Therefore, they try to boast by taking costly drugs.
2. Effect of Technology: Technology has made our life very comfortable. The child gets attracted to the drugs available on the internet and thereafter starts abusing them.

Question 3.
Write the bad effects of drugs.
Answer:
The drugs effect the body and mind of the user. Nobody wants his friendship and he loses his character and the relationship with the society becomes unhealthy.

Question 4.
Write the effects of harmful narcotics.
Answer:

The use of drugs cannot compete the role of society and rules of the games.
By hook or by crook the person intends to maintain his own status in the society and in the playing ground.

Question 5.
What is the harmful effect of narcotics?
Answer:
Narcotic drugs weaken the human body and effects the mind also. The behaviour of the person seems out of control. This effects his personal and social life.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 7 Yoga

October 16, 2024October 15, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 7 Yoga Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Physical Education Chapter 7 Yoga

Physical Education Guide for Class 8 PSEB Yoga Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the philosophy of yoga?
Answer:
Philosophy of yoga is based on the soul of a person who is a part of God himself. Today man has forgotten God and as a result he has lost his actual power gifted to him by God. That is why he is not able to do his duties well. As a result of it he fails in every walk of life and his mind gets distracted. He is unable to solve his problem and feels weak physically, mentally, spiritually and emotionally. So his life becomes full of worries and sorrows.

The philosophy of yoga shows the right path to the people. Yoga always motivates to follow non violence. We should not be the “diverted” human beings. Yoga philosophy accepts ‘non-violence’ as a big religion.

Question 2.
What do you know about the goal of yoga?
Answer:
Goal of yoga is to connect one’s soul to God by strengthening him physically, mentally, emotionally and spiritually. In other words, it is the liberation of the soul from worldly suffering or problems. Yoga prepares a person to face all the problems of life with determination so that he may not distract from his path.

Question 3.
What are the objectives of yoga education?
Answer:
1. To achieve higher level of consciousness:
Through meditation and other spiritual practices our soul can be connected to the eternal power. In this way, by elevating the consciousness to higher level, an individual gets enlightenment.

2. To infuse moral values:
Yoga asanas helps the person to meditate and as a result of meditation, person feels inner calm and peace which leads to religious faith, values, ethics, principles and morals.

3. To achieve emotional stability:
Yoga exercise makes the person capable of overcoming one’s emotions. Hence it helps in maintaining balance of mind. Therefore, yoga has been proved as a boon to the worried and stressed people. Yoga relaxes them and makes them able to control their emotions in the critical conditions so that they can lead a happy and contented life.

4. To achieve good health:
Yoga asanas are like physical exercises but when performed properly and regularly one’s body becomes strong, healthy and fit. Different asanas work very well to keep the different organs of the body fit and healthy because it increases the immunity of the body.

5. To achieve mental strength:
Yoga exercises not only strengthen a person physically but it makes him meditate so that his mind becomes stable and the person becomes mentally strong. It develops self confidence and because of self confidence he does not lose his heart even in the most difficult situations. He faces them bravely and becomes capable to solve the entire problem in no time.

Question 4.
What do you know about Ashtang yoga?
Answer:
Ashtang Yoga has 8 components and therefore it is called “Ashtang”.
According to Rishi PatanjaU, there are eight stages or components of Yoga. They are as follows-

Yama (Forbearance)
Niyama (Observance)
Asana (Posture)
Pranayama (Regulation of breathing)
Pratyahara (Abstraction)
Dharana (Concentration)
Dhyana (Meditation)
Samadhi (Trance)

The first five components or stages out of the above-mentioned eight stages are connected with external Yogic exercises, and the remaining three are related to internal Yogic exercises. All these stages have been further divided as follows:

1. Yama (Forbearance):
It has the following five components-

Ahimsa (Non-violence)
Satya (Truth)
Astey (Conquest of the senses of mind) id) Aprigraha (Non-receiving)
Brahmacharya (Celibacy).

2. Niyama (Observance):
This, too has the following five stages or components-

Shauch (Obeying the call of nature)
Tapa (Penance)
Santosh (Contentment)
Savadhyaye (Self-study)
Ishwar Paridhan (God-consciousness).

3. Asana (Posture):
The number of Asana is as much as the number of birds. Asanas should be performed according to the capacity of the body. They should be done -by exhaling air through breathing, stopping breath and re-breathing.

4. Pranayama (Regulation of breathing):
Pranayama is a part of meditation. It has the following three parts-

Purak (Inhalation)
Rechak (Exhalation)
Kumbhak (Holding of Breath). Holding breath and exhalation are called Pranayama (Regulation of breathing).

5. Pratyahara (Abstraction): Pratyahara means detachment of mind from all the worldly pleasures and comforts.

6. Dharana (Concentration): Dharana means exercising control over our organs. But it is very difficult to practise it.

7. Dhyana (Meditation):
When a person gains control over mind the state of dhyana sets in this state, body and mind become like the flow of the river in which the currents of water have no effect at all.

8. Samadhi (Trance):
It is the state of mind which starts with dharana, dhyana and finally samadhi. All these states have deep connection among them.

The science of yoga is a valuable contribution of India to the world. Yoga is gaining popularity at home and abroad. All the doctors and teachers of physical education acknowledge its utility. Yoga exercises are completely scientific in nature and in accordance with the stucture of the body.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Guide Yoga Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is yoga?
(A) Aided
(B) To meet God with Atama
(C) Ahimsa
(D) Above all.
Answers:
(A) Aided
(B) To meet God with Atama
(C) Ahimsa

Question 2.
Objective of Yoga:
(A) Control on Emotion
(B) Healthful living
(C) Mentally strong
(D) All above.
Answers:
(D) All above.

Question 3.
How many parts are there in Ashtang Yoga?
(A) Four
(B) Six
(C) Seven
(D) Eight.
Answers:
(D) Eight.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question I.
When should we take bath after doing asana?
Answer:
After half an hour.

Question 2.
What type of floor is required to perform asana?
Answer:
Levelled floor.

Question 3.
What type of dress should we put on while doing asanas?
Answer:
Dress should be loose and minimum.

Question 4.
What asana should be done to remove Constipation?
Answer:
We should do the Tar and Sarvang asana.

Question 5.
What asana should be done to remove obesity?
Answer:
Hal asana and Dhanur asana.

Question 6.
Which asana should be done to remove obesity and abdominal disease?
Answer:
Pashchimotan and Bhujang asana should be done to remove obesity and abdominal disease.

Question 7.
Which is the oldest method of Indian exercises?
Answer:
Yoga Asana.

Question 8.
How much time Sheersh Asana may be performed daily?
Answer:
2 minutes only.

Question 9.
Name the asana which prevents Hernia and Urinary diseases.
Answer:
Chakra Asana.

Question 10.
Mention any two advantages of Sheersh Asana.
Answer:

Increases the learning power.
Removes the fat of the body.

Question 11.
Mention any two advantages of Vazur Asana.
Answer:

It cures night fall.
It also cures diabetes.

Question 12.
Mention any two advantages of Padam Asana.
Answer:

Cures the pain of waist.
Passing out of urine becomes normal.

Question 13.
Describe any two advantages of Bhvijang Asana.
Answer:

Removes constipation.
Albumin disease is cured.

Question 14.
Mention any two advantages of Dhanur Asana.
Answer:

Arthritis is cured.
Menstruation and Venereal diseases of women are cured.

Question 15.
Which is the means of uniting soul with God?
Answer:
Yoga.

Question 16.
Which is the best asana for mental concentration?
Answer:
Padam Asana.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Yoga is the means of uniting soul with God.” How? Or What is yoga?
Answer:
“Yoga can be defined as science of healthy and better living physically, mentally, intellectually and spiritually.” Thus, Yoga is the union of soul with God. The medium of this sweet and happy union is body. The union of soul and God takes place by means of healthy and strong body, and we can have a vision of the Almighty God. Yoga makes body strong and healthy. As such, it is the only means of the union of soul and God.

God is the embodiment of other-worldly qualities, actions and knowledge. He is all pervading like the sky. The mutual relation between the living being and God is a must. Yoga is helpful in strengthening these bonds or connections. Man’s aim is to enjoy all the comforts of the world and to make the living soul one with God so that he may get rid of the cycles of births and rebirths and attain salvation.

Question 2.
Yoga is becoming very popular in foreign countries. Why?
Answer:
Yoga is an ancient knowledge of India. Yogic science is very important in human life. All over the world doctors and physical education teachers accept the importance of this ancient knowledge. Yoga Asanas are based on scientific knowledge and useful for persons of all ages. Yoga contributes in the complete development of man.

Question 3.
Write any five points which one should bear in mind while doing Asanas.
Answer:
1. Yoga Asanas should be performed in the morning after the practitioner eases himself. It is better to perform Yoga Asanas after having a bath. After taking bath body feels light and flexible and Asanas get performed very easily. Asanas can, of course, be done on empty stomach in the evening, too.

2. The place of Asanas should be clean and peaceful. It is desirable if Asanas are performed in a green park or garden.

3. The place where Asanas are to be performed should be even. Asanas should be performed on a mat so that one’s concentration is not disturbed by gravitational pull of the earth or by anything else.

4. One should not indulge in talks while performing Asanas. One should concentrate on one’s breathing and on the organ on which pressure is felt. The more one gets concentrated the more shall Be the benefit of the Asanas performed. Perform Shavasana before doing other Asanas to make body, mind and breath calm and poised.

5. Yogic exercises are slow and non-aggressive. They should never be performed with jerks. Each Asana should be performed slowly by making the body alert and tense. Then the body should be kept in a relaxed state after some time. The second Asana should be performed when breathing becomes normal.

Question 4.
What is the importance of Shav Asana?
Answer:
This asana should be performed for 3-5 minutes. It should be performed at the start and end of every asana.
Importance:

Shavasana helps in getting rid of high blood pressure and mental tension.
It keeps the heart and the brain fresh.
It removes the fatigue of the body.

Question 5.
Describe the advantages of Yoga Asanas.
Answer:
1. Man’s basic faculties of body and mind develop by means of Yoga. Lungs get enough air through the exercise of pranayama, as a result of which they get exercised and energised, and get rid of many ailments.

2. Man’s body remains completely healthy through Yoga. Dhoti and Basti help in cleaning liver and intestines respectively. Clean body, we know, always remains healthy.

3. Body gets strengthened with Yoga.

4. By doing Yogic Asanas the organs of body become flexible. For example, Hal-Asana and Dhanush-Asana help in increasing the flexibility of the backbone.

5. All body systems begin to function properly with Yogic exercises.

6. Yogic exercises keep human body in good and correct posture, as a result of which man’s personality improves. For example, by doing Brikh-Asana, knees do not strike, and by doing Padam-Asana”, one’s belly does not protrude and shoulders do not develop hump.

7. Mental discipline develops by doing Yoga. By doing Yama and Niyanfa, one is enabled to exercise control on one’s undesirable emotions and vices.

8. Many ailments get removed by performing Yoga Asanas correctly. Vajar-Asana and Mastainder-Asana help in the removal of diabetes. Similarly, Pranayama keeps the lungs free from ailments.

9. Yoga Asanas help in removing physical and mental fatigue. Shavasana helps in the removal of tiredness.

10. Man’s intelligence and memory increase as a result of performing Yoga Asanas. Shirash-Asana proves to be very useful in this respect.

11. Yogic exercises develop a sort of rhythm in man’s body.

12. Yogic Asanas are the best means of attaining peace and balance of mind.

Question 6.
Describe the Technique of Shav Asana.
Answer:
Shav Asana. In this asana, one lies down prostrate and loosens the body. In order to perform this asana, lie down straight on the ground over the back and loosen all the parts of the body completely. Gradually, breathe in deeply. The distance between the feet should be 1.5 ft.
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 7 Yoga 1
Keep the wrists of the hands away from the body, facing the sky. Close your eyes, introspect and think as if the body were getting loose. Feel that the body is in a position of rest.

Question 7.
Which asanas are useful for reducing Fatness/Obesity and the trouble of the stomach?
Answer:

Tar Asana
Shirsh Asana
Padam Asana
Paschimotan Asana
Bhujang Asana
Chakra Asana
Dhanush Asana.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Organic Farming

October 16, 2024October 15, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 8 Organic Farming Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 8 Organic Farming

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Organic Farming Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in One to Two words:

Question 1.
According to the organic farming concept should we feed the soil or plant?
Answer:
Feed the soil, not the plant.

Question 2.
Where is National Centre for Organic Fanning situated?
Answer:
In Ghaziabad.

Question 3.
Shallow rooted crops should be rotated with which type of crops?
Answer:
Deep rooted crops.

Question 4.
Is burning of crop residues allowed or not in organic fanning?
Answer:
Burning of crop residue is not allowed.

Question 5.
Can Bt crops be grown in organic fanning?
Answer:
No, Bt crops can not be grown.

Question 6.
Which types of crops are grown as intercrops in organic fanning?
Answer:
Leguminous crops.

Question 7.
Name any one bio-fungicide.
Answer:
Trichoderma.

Question 8.
Name any one bio-insecticide.
Answer:
At trichogramma.

Question 9.
Name the website from where information on organic farming can be obtained.
Answer:
www.apeda.gov.in.

Question 10.
In which year India formulated standards for organic farming?
Answer:
In year 2004.

(B) Answer in One to Two sentences:

Question 1.
Which type of crops should be rotated in field under organic farming?
Answer:
Rotate deep roots crops with shallow rooted crops and legumes with non legumes.

Question 2.
What are the causes of increasing demand of organic products?
Answer:
People have become aware about the adverse effects of modem agricultural practices. Purchasing capacity of the people have also increased. This has led to the increasing demand for organic food products.

Question 3.
Which countries are die major markets for organic products?
Answer:
Countries which are major markets for organic products are America, Japan and European union.

Question 4.
Define organic fanning.
Answer:
Organic farming is a system of farming in which agricultural production is done without harming or damaging natural resources like soil, water and air and also without using chemical fertilizers, herbicides, fungicides and insecticides.

Question 5.
Define organic standards.
Answer:
Organic standards are certain minimum requirements which must be met for organic food production. In India these standards were formulated in year 2004. Which are acceptable by other countries.

Question 6.
Which areas in India are more suitable for organic fanning?
Answer:
Areas which are organic by default or are nearly organic and where rainfall is 68%, organic farming should be promoted in such areas.

Question 7.
Which organic products have higher demand in world food market?
Answer:
There is a huge demand of tea, basmati rice, vegetables, fruits, pulses etc. which are grown by adopting organic farming practices, in the world organic food market.

Question 8.
Which countries have higher demand for organic products?
Answer:
Organic products are in higher demand in countries like, Japan, America, European Union.

Question 9.
What are the organic standards for use of seed in organic fanning?
Answer:
Seed should be taken from organic crop but if such seeds are not available then use untreated conventional seeds.

Question 10.
How weeds can be managed in organic maize?
Answer:
Cow pea is sown in maize rows as inter crop and it is harvested after 35-40 days of sowing. This practice controls weeds in maize and green fodder is also obtained.

Question 1.
Why there is need to go in for organic farming?
Answer:
Our country became self-sufficient in grains due to green revolution. But excessive use of fertilizers, pesticides, fungicides etc. have deteriorated natural resources like soil, air and water to large extent. Due to adopting wheat-rice crop cycle for many years, area under traditional crops like pulses and oil seed crops have decreased.

We forgot the basic principle of rotation of shallow rooted crop with deep rooted crops and of N legumes with non-legumes. Unnecessarily and untimely application of urea reached deep into the soil with the rain water. Pesticide residues have appeared in food products, milk etc. People have become aware about the adverse effects of modem agricultural practices. Purchasing capacity of the people have also increased. This has led to the increasing demand for organic products. To meet this demand organic farming is in need.

Question 2.
How soil fertility is maintained under organic farming?
Answer:
In organic farming, agricultural production is done by maintaining natural balance and without harming natural resources. Soil fertility is maintained by doing following things:

Chemical fertilizers, pesticides, fungicides are completely prohibited.
Cultivation of leguminous crops is must in the crop rotation cycle.
Burning of crop residue is not allowed.
Contaminated water like sewage water can not be used for irrigation.
Use beneficial insects and birds for protecting crops against insects and pests.
Genetically modified crops are not allowed.

Question 3.
How insect-pests and diseases are controlled in organic farming?
Answer:
In organic farming chemical fertilizers, insecticides, fungicides etc. are totally prohibited. In this practice insects and diseases are controlled by natural methods. Beneficial insects and birds are used for controlling , pests and insects. Extract of neem and bio-pesticides (Bt trichogramma) are used to control pests and insects. Bio fungicides like trichoderma etc.can be used for disease management. Mixed cropping like wheat and ’ gram help in fighting against diseases and insects and pests.

Question 4.
What is organic certification and who does provide the certification?
Answer:
If organic products are to be sold in market or if these are to be exported to other countries then organic certification is must. Certification guarantees that the organic product is produced as per the organic standards. Government of India has authorized 24 certification agencies.

A farmer has to register his farm with any one of the agencies. Inspectors of the agency visit the farms and check the compliance of organic standards by the farmer. After satisfaction, agency certifies the produce as organic. One can get more information about organic standards and certification at the site www.apeda.gov. in.

Question 5.
What are the advantages of organic farming?
Answer:
Advantages of organic farming are:

Fertility of the soil increases.
Production cost is reduced.
Organic produce is sold at higher price.
This is sustainable agricultural practice.
It helps in increasing employment.
Poisonous residue is not found in environment and food items.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Organic Farming Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is hoeing done in organic farming?
Answer:
Manually by hands, wheel hoe or by tractor.

Question 2.
Which crops are sown as inter crops in organic farming.
Answer:
Legumes.

Question 3.
To meet nutritional requirement of crops in organic farming which non-edible cake is used?
Answer:
Castor cake.

Question 4.
How many certification agencies have been authorized to do organic certification in India?
Answer:
24 agencies

Question 5.
How much food grains are required by 2020?
Answer:
276 million ton food grains.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two advantages of organic farming.
Answer:

Fertility of the soil is maintained and is increased.
More income from organic produce.

Question 2.
Cultivation of which crops is reduced due to green revolution.
Answer:
Area under the cultivation of the traditional crops like pulses and oil seed crops is reduced due to wheat rice crop cycle which helped in bringing green revolution.

Question 3.
Which organic produce is in demand in world market and which countries provide market for these products?
Answer:
Basmati rice, vegetables, fruits, tea, pulses and cotton are in demand in Japan, America and European Union.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write a note on production of organic crops.
Answer:
Agricultural practices to be followed for the production of organic crops are the same as for conventional crops e.g. seeds, varieties, method, of sowing etc. In organic farming chemicals like, pesticides, weedicides, fungicides etc. are prohibited. Weed control management is done by crop rotation or by some agricultural methods.

In maize rows cowpea is sown which helps in controlling weeds and also provide green fodder. In turmeric fields rice straw mulching is done to control weeds. Legumes help in maintaining the fertility of the soil by fixing nitrogen of the atmosphere in the soil. Nutritional requirements of the crops are met with by using farm yard manure, compost, vermicompost etc. Insects and pests are controlled by beneficial insects and birds and also by using biopesticides like, extract v of neem. Mixed farming system also helps in managing insects and diseases.