Class 7

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200) Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which rulers of Cholas dynasty again emerged as Cholas Kingdom?
Answer:
Vijayalaya was the first ruler of the Chola kingdom who won Tanjore from the Pallavas and made it as his capital. Prantaka-I was also a powerful Chola ruler who defeated a Pandya ruler. Rajraja–I was the greatest and the most powerful ruler of the Chola kingdom. Rajendra Chola expanded the Chola kingdom by defeating the rulers of Pandya, Chera and Srilanka and conquered their territories.

Question 2.
Which rulers were defeated by Rajraja-I and he captured their territories?
Answer:
Rajraja-I defeated the rulers of Chera, Pandya and Srilanka and captured their territories.

Question 3.
Write about the important conquests of Rajendra Chola.
Answer:
Rajendra Chola (1014 to 1044 A.D.): Rajendra was an ambitious king. He continued his father’s policy and fought many campaigns in the peninsula. But out of all his campaigns two were very bold and daring. One was when his armies marched up the east coast of India, through Orissa, and up to the Ganga. The second was Rajendra’s daring naval campaign. It took place in South-East Asia. This compaign proved a great help to the traders of his kingdom. It also increased the revenue of the Cholas. In south east Asia he achieved important victory over Andeman Nikobar, Malaya, Sumatra and Jawa.

Question 4.
Which languages were developed during the Chola reign?
Answer:
Under Chola kings, education and literature field were developed greatly. They patronized Grammar, Philosophy, Art, Science and Astronomy. The medium of education was Sanskrit and Tamil.

In this period, the religious literature was written in south India. Kamban wrote Ramayana in Tamil. Many inscriptions were written both in Sanskrit and Tamil language. Many of the poets wrote epic in Tamil language. The poet named Nanniah wrote many basic scriptures. The poets Pampa, Ponna and Ranna are the most famous trinity of poets of this time.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 5.
Which religion was very famous during the Chola reign?
Answer:
In the medieval India, Hinduism was the most famous religion during the Chola reign. Lord Vishnu and Lord Shiva worshipped by the people. Buddhism and Jainism also existed during this era. Many other religious movements started during this period. Lingayata sect was founded by Basava. Shankracharya preached the advaita philosophy. Madhava and Ramanuja were the other religious teachers of Bhakti movement.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Pallava rulers made _______ their capital.
Answer:
Kanchi

Question 2.
Marco Polo visited the _______ kingdom.
Answer:
Pandya

Question 3.
Rajendra Chola took the title of _______
Answer:
Gangai Koudachola

Question 4.
Women were held great ______ during the Cholas reign.
Answer:
honour

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 5.
Nanniah and Tikkana Telugu scholars translated the ______ into Telugu.
Answer:
Mahabharata.

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A B
1. Basava (i) Advaita Philosophy
2. Shankracharya (ii) Lingayata Sect
3. Ramanuja (iii) Bhakti Movement
4. Madhava (iv) Bhakti Movement

Answer:

A B
1. Basava (ii) Lingayata Sect
2. Shankracharya (i) Advaita Philosophy
3. Ramanuja (iv) Bhakti Movement
4. Madhava (iii) Bhakti Movement

IV. Write True or False for each statement.

Question 1.
Kamban translated the Ramayana into Tamil Language.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The Cholas rulers had a powerful Army.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Mahenderavarman built a new town called Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Chola kingdom was divided into provinces.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 5.
Madurai was the capital of Chola Rulers.
Answer:
True.

V. Activities:

Question 1.
Locate the extent of Pallavs, Pandyas and Cholas kingdoms on the outline map of India.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Paste the pictures of Abu, Khujraho, Mahabalipuram, Kanchi and Tanjore in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200) Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of these was the powerful state of South India?
(a) Pallavas
(b) Pandyas
(c) Cheras
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
______ was the main ruler of Pallava dynasty?
(a) Mahendra Varman I
(b) Prantaka
(c) Raj Raja
(d) Rajendra.
Answer:
(a) Mahendra Varman I.

Question 3.
Chola dynasty was established by ______
(a) Dantidurga
(b) Vijayalaya
(c) Rajendra Chola
(d) Raj Raja I.
Answer:
(b) Vijayalaya.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 4.
(a) Sabha
(b) Mahasabha
(c) Ur
(d) Village Assembly.
Answer:
(c) Ur.

Question 5.
(a) Ur
(b) Sabha
(c) Mahasabha
(d) Mandalam.
Answer:
(b) Sabha.

Question 6.
The chola provinces were known as
(a) Mandalams
(b) Sabha
(c) Valanadus
(d) Ur.
Answer:
(a) Mandalams.

Question 7.
Mandalams were divided into
(a) Sabha
(b) Valanadus
(c) Ur
(d) Mahasabha.
Answer:
(b) Valanadus.

Question 8.
Which of these was the function of village assemblies?
(a) To take care of roads
(b) To provide justice
(c) Temple Maintenance
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 9.
______ defeated the rulers of Chera, Pandya and Sri Lanka and captured their territories.
(a) Rajendra I
(b) Raj Raja I
(c) Prantaka
(d) Mahendra Varman I.
Answer:
(b) Raj Raja I.

Question 10.
Who wrote Ramayana in Tamil?
(a) Kamban
(b) Tulsidas
(c) Kanchi
(d) Rajendra I.
Answer:
(a) Kamban.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name three powerful states of South India during the medieval period.
Answer:
Pallavas, Pandyas, Cholas.

Question 2.
Give brief description of Pandyas Kingdom.
Answer:
Pandya Kingdom was established in southern parts of Tamil Nadu. The capital of Pandyas was known as Madurai or Madura. It was an important centre of education. Marco Polo visited this state and gave a detailed description of this state. During 14th century, Pandyas kingdom declined.

Question 3.
When did Pallavas become powerful? Give a brief description of their successes.
Answer:
The Pallavas became powerful rulers during 5th and 6th century after the decline of Satavahanas. Mahendra Varman I and Narasimhavarman I were two main rulers of Pallava dynasty. They greatly expanded their state and made Kanchi their capital.

They patronized art and architecture. They built shore temple and chariot temple of Mahabalipuram. They built Kailashnath Temple in Kanchi. In the 9th century Pallavas were defeated by Cholas.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 4.
Describe in brief the establishment and decline of the state of Cholas.
Answer:
The Cholas were very powerful state in South India. There rulers were as ahead :

  1. Vijayalaya: He established the Chola dynasty. He won Tanjore from Pallavas, and made it its capital. He ruled from 846 A.D. to 871 A.D.
  2. Prantak I: He was a powerful ruler of Chola state. He sat on the throne in 907 A.D. and ruled upto 955 A.D. He defeated Pandya ruler, controlled the capital Madurai and got the designation Madurai Konda. After this, in the battle of Takolam he was defeated by Krishna III, the Rashtrakuta ruler.

Question 5.
After Prantak I which two rulers made the Chola Kingdom powerful again?
Answer:
Raj Raja I and Rajendra Chola again brought Chola Kingdom into existence and made it a great power of South India.

Question 6.
Give two administrative successes of Raj Raja I.
Answer:

  1. He created a modern Navy.
  2. He was a follower of Shaiv religion but was tolerent towards other religions.

Question 7.
How did the Chola Kingdom decline?
Answer:
The inheritors of Rajendra Chola were always fighting with their neighbouring states. So as a result they became powerless and ultimately declined

Question 8.
Comment on south Indian society from 700 A.D. to 1200 A.D.
Answer:
In south Indian society, the aristocratic class, Brahmins and traders had a pride of place. The different classes of society cooperated with each other for the fulfilment of common objectives. Women had a respectable position in society. They were given high education. The farmers and labourers were related to the working class. They were very poor and led a difficult life.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 9.
Give the main features of religion in south India during 700 A.D. to 1200 A.D.?
Answer:

  1. Hinduism: It was very popular: The Hindu gods such as Lord Vishnu and Lord Shiva were generally worshipped.
  2. Buddhism and Jainism: These two religions were also in existence.
  3. Religious movements: Many religious movements came in existence :
    (i) Basava established Lingayata Movement.
    (ii) Shankaracharaya propagated advaita Movement.
    (iii) Ramanuja and Madhava were other great preachers of Bhakti movement. They emphasised on the worship of one God. They gave the sermon that the single, most important means of salvation is loving God with a pure heart. They were against the discrimination based on caste and creed. People were greatly impressed by their teachings.

Question 10.
Write the story of rise and fall of Chola Kingdom.
Answer:
The Chola Kingdom was the most famous state of south India. They ruled for about 400 years. Their states included modern Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.

The following were the important kings of Chola dynasty :
1. Vijayalya: He established the Chola dynasty. He won Tanjore from Pallavas, and made it its capital. He ruled from 846 A.D. to 871 A.D.

2. Prantak I: He was a powerful ruler of Chola state. He sat on the throne in 907 A.D. and ruled upto 955 A.D. He defeated Pandya ruler, controlled the capital Madurai and got the title of Madurai Konda. After this, in the battle of Takolam he was defeated by Krishna III, who was the Rashtrakuta ruler.

3. Raj Raja I: He was a brilliant general. He campaigned in many directions. He attacked the kingdom of the Pandyas and of the Cheras as well as parts of Mysore. He also campaigned northwards in the Deccan and the region of Vengi. But he was not able to control them for any length of time.

4. Rajendra Chola: Rajendra was an ambitious king. He continued his father’s policy and fought many campaigns in the peninsula. But out of ah his campaigns two were very bold and daring. One was when his armies marched up the east coast of India, through Orissa, and up to the Ganga. The second was Rajendra’s daring naval campaign. It took place in South-East Asia. This compaign proved a great help to the traders of his kingdom. It also increased the revenue of the Cholas. In south-east Asia he achieved important victory over Andeman Nikobar, Malaya, Sumatra and Jawa.

5. Decline of Cholas: The successors of Rajendra I spent much time and effort and money on fighting wars with the other kingdoms of the peninsula. Some of these wars were not successful. By the end of the thirteenth century, the Chola kingdom was declined.

Question 11.
What were the main features of Chola Rulers?
Answer:
The Chola government was headed by a powerful king who acted on the advice of his council of ministers or Purohita. The kingdom was divided into Mandalams and Valanadus, the villages were ruled by elected assemblies called Urs. The revenue of the Chola kingdom came from two sources—taxes on land and taxes on trade.

The main features of the Chola Government and administration were as follows :

  1. The Central Administration: The king was at the head of the central administration. He was the most powerful person.
  2. Provincial Administration: The whole kingdom was divided into six provinces called mandalam. Each mandalam was under the charge of a governor.
  3. The Village Administration: The administration in villages was carried out by villagers themselves. They elected a village council called ‘Ur’ or Sabha.
  4. Taxes: The government revenue came from three sources—taxes on land and the produce of the land and taxes on trade.
  5. Public Works: Chola rulers spent most of their income from taxes on public works such as building of roads and construction of tanks for storing water and for building temples.

Question 12.
What do you know about the Chola art and architecture?
Answer:
The Cholas were great builders. They were great patrons of art and architecture. The Brihadeswara Temple at Tanjore is a fine specimen of the Chola architecture. The Chola temples were known for their unique features. The gateway to the temples is called ‘Gopuram’. It is beautifully carved and the walls are decorated with scenes depicting gods and goddess. The ‘Shikhara’ was built over the central shrine. It is a spiral-like structure. Raj Raja I build the Raj Rajeshwar temple of Tanjore. It is made in Dravidian style.

Rajendra Chola built a city named Gangai Kond Cholapuram and made it his capital. Many life-size sculptures of bronze have been made in Chola art. The Natraja sculpture of Tanjore are the best examples.

Question 13.
Describe the military achievements of Raj Raja I.
Answer:
Raj Raja I (985-1016 A.D.). He was a brilliant general. He campaigned in many directions. He attacked the kingdom of the Pandyas and of the Cheras as well as parts of Mysore. He also campaigned northwards in the Deccan and the region of Vengi. But he was not able to control them for any length of time.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 14.
Briefly describe the architectural and literary achievements of the Cholas.
Answer:
The Chola kings were great lovers of sculpture. There was great development of sculpture art under their administration.

Chola kings took keen interest in building temples; They donated money and land whole-heartedly for the building and maintenance of temples. The royal temples built by Chola kings were very magnificent. Thus we can say that Chola government has a great contribution in the building of the temples. These temples were centres of education. Raj Raja I built the Raj Rajeshwar temple of Tanjor. It is made in Dravadian style. Rajendra Chola built a city named Gangaikonda Cholapuram and made it his capital. Many lifesize sculptures of bronze have been made in Chola art. The Natraja sculpture of Tanjore are the best examples.

Question 15.
What do you know about the Chola administration?
Answer:
The Chola government was headed by a powerful king who acted on the advice of his council of ministers or Purohita. The kingdom was divided into Mandalams and Valanadus, the villages were ruled by elected assemblies called Urs. The revenue of the Chola kingdom came from two sources—taxes on land and taxes on trade.

The main features of the Chola Government and administration were as follows :

  1. The Central Administration: The king was at the head of the central administration. He was the most powerful person.
  2. Provincial Administration: The whole kingdom was divided into six provinces called rriandalam. Each mandalam was under the charge of a governor.
  3. The Village Administration: The administration in villages was carried out by villagers themselves. They elected a village council called ‘Ur’ or Sabha.
  4. Taxes: The government revenue came from three sources-taxes on land and the produce of the land and taxes on trade.
  5. Public Works: Chola rulers spent most of their income from taxes on public works such as building of roads and construction of tanks for storing water and for building temples.

Question 16.
Which type of agrarian was developed in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
1. The Chola kings gave special attention to the development of agriculture. They cleaned the forests with the help of nomadic tribes and created cultivable lands. As a result, there was a great expansion of the Zamindari system.

2. They paid special attention to the irrigation systems. The water from the Kaveri river was especially used. Where it was not possible to transfer river water, there they constructed ponds. They even established a pond committee to distribute water to agriculture farms.

3. They would never charge land revenue if there were floods or droughts in their state. They even gave loans to farmers during emergencies.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 4 Heat Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Heat

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Heat Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 37)

Question 1.
The normal temperature of our body is ……………… .
Answer:
The normal temperature of our body is 37°C.

Question 2.
The clinical thermometer can measure temperature above 45°C. (T/F)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 39)

Question 1.
Thermometer should be held from its bulb.(T/F)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
The thermometer should not touch the ………………. of the beaker.
Answer:
The thermometer should not touch the bottom or sides of the beaker.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 40)

Question 1.
The handle of cooking vessels are good conductor of heat. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
The handle of electric iron is good conductor of heat. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 42)

Question 1.
The ventilators in the rooms are used to expell cold air. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
The liquids are always heated from the bottom. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 44)

Question 1.
We wear light coloured clothes in winter. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
Dark coloured clothes absorbs less heat. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Heat Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The hotness of an object is a measured by its …………………….
Answer:
Temperature

(ii) The mode of heat transfer without any medium is called ………………….. .
Answer:
Radiation

(iii) Air is ………………….. conductor of heat.
Answer:
bad

(iv) The normal temperature of the human body is ……………………. °C.
Answer:
37°C

2. Write True or False:

(i) Metals are insulators of heat.
Answer:
False

(ii) Sea breeze arises due to conduction.
Answer:
False

(iii) We get heat from the sun by radiation.
Answer:
True

(iv) Wool is good conductor of heat.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

(v) Range of clinical thermometer is 35° C to 42°C.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Land breeze blows during

2. Sea breeze blows during

3. We prefer light coloured clothes in

4. We prefer dark coloured clothes in

 (a) winter

(b) night

(c) daytime

(d) summer

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Land breeze blows during

2. Sea breeze blows during

3. We prefer light coloured clothes in

4. We prefer dark coloured clothes in

 (c) daytime

(b) night

(d) summer

(a) winter

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Temperature of human body is:
(a) 100°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 37° C
(d) 98°C.
Answer:
(c) 37° C.

Question (ii)
Which is bad conductor of heat ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Iron
(c) Copper
(d) Wood.
Answer:
(d) Wood.

Question (iii)
One litre of water at 30°C is mixed with one litre of water at 50°C. Then temperature of mixture will be :
(a) 80°C
(b) More than 50°C but less than 80°C’
(c) 20°C
(d) Between 30°C and 50°C
Answer:
(d) Between 30°C and 50°C.

Question (iv)
A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end:
(a) becomes cold by the process of conduction.
(b) becomes cold by the process of convection.
(c) becomes cold by the process of radiation.
(d) does not become cold.
Answer:
(d) does not become cold.

Question (v)
Land breeze is:
(a) cool air from land to sea
(b) cool air from sea to land
(c) hot air from land to sea
(d) hot air from sea to land.
Answer:
(a) cool air from land to sea.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question (i)
State the condition which determine the direction of flow of heat.
Answer:
When two objects are in contact with each other, the heat is transmitted from the object at higher temperature to the object at a lower temperature.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question (ii)
What is clinical thermometer ? Write its range.
Answer:
Clinical thermometer. Clinical thermometer is a device by which a human body temperature is measured. It is also called Medical thermometer’s range in from 35°C to 42°C.

Question (iii)
What is the use of kink in a clinical thermometer ?
Answer:
Medical thermometer has a kink (bend) just above the bulb, the function of which is to prevent the mercury level from falling because of its weight. If kink is not present there then the mercury level will drop so that the human temperature will not be measured accurately.

Question (iv)
What is Lab thermometer ? Write its range.
Answer:
Lab Thermometer. An instrument used to measure the temperature of objects other than human beings (or living things) is called Lab thermometer. The range of lab thermometer is usually 10°C to 110°C.

Question (v)
Why do we prefer dark clothes in winters and light one in summers ?
Answer:
Darker fabrics absorb more heat than light coloured fabrics. So in winter we wear dark coloured clothes to keep our body warm by absorbing more heat, whereas light coloured clothes absorb lesser amount of heat and are also good reflector so our body does not get much heat.

Question (vi)
Why do we wear woollen clothes in winters ?
Answer:
Air is trapped in the wool fibres. Since air is a bad conductor of heat, so it does not allow heat to be transmitted to the cold environment outside. That is why we feel warm in winter by wearing woollen clothes.

6. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What are the various modes of heat transfer ? Explain.
Answer:
There are three modes of heat transfer :
1. conduction.
2. convection,
3. radiation.

1. Conduction.
It is that method of heat transfer in which heat is transmitted from the hotter end to the colder end of the object without the actual movement of the heated partilces. Solids are heated by this method.

2. Convection.
It is the process of heat transfer due to the actual movement of the heated particles of liquid or gas. Liquids and gases are heated by this method.

3. Radiation.
It is the process in which heat is transmitted directly from the ource of heat or hot object to a cold object without medium in between them. In other words no medium is required for heat radiation

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question (ii)
Explain the formation of sea breeze and land breeze in coastal areas ?
Answer:
Sea breeze.
During day time the ground is heated by the heat of the sun, which causes the ground air to heat up, roll and rise. Cold air from the ocean begins to rush towards the ground to take it’s place. The warm air from the land moves towards the sea to complete the cycle. The wind that blows from the ocean to the land is called the sea breeze.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 1
Land breeze.
Due to higher heat absorption capacity the water cools down more slowly than the land, so cool air from the land starts rushing from the land towards the sea at night. This is called land breeze.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 2

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Heat Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The degree of hotness of an object is determined by its …………………
Answer:
temperature

(ii) Temperature of boiling water cannot be measured by a ………………. thermometer.
Answer:
clinical

(iii) Temperature is measured in degree ……………… .
Answer:
Celsius

(iv) A cold steel spoon is dipped in a cup of hot milk. It transfers heat to its other end by
the process of ………………..
Answer:
conduction

(v) Clothes of …………………. colours absorb more heat than light coloured clothes.
Answer:
dark

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Medical thermometer

(ii) Black coloured objects

(iii) Woollen clothes

(iv) Transfer of heat

(v) Light coloured clothes

 (a) From high temperature to low temperature

(b) In winter

(c) In summer

(d) Better absorbent and radiator

(e) To measure the temperature of human beings.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Medical thermometer

(ii) Black coloured objects

(iii) Woollen clothes

(iv) Transfer of heat

(v) Light coloured clothes

 (e) To measure the temperature of human beings

(d) Better absorbent and radiator

(b) In winter

(a) From high temperature to low temperature

(c) In summer

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
We can measure temperature with clinical thermometer
(a) From 30°C to 42°C
(b) From 35°C to 42°C
(c) From 35°C to 45°C
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) From 35°C to 42°C.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question (ii)
The reliable measure of heat of an object is :
(a) The heat of that object
(b) The degree of hotness or coldness of that object
(c) The physical touch
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) The degree of hotness or coldness of that object.

Question (iii)
The range of laboratory thermometer is :
(a) -10°C to 100°C
(b) 35°C to 42°C
(c) -10°C to 110°C
(d) 94°F to 108°F.
Answer:
(c) ~10°C to 110°C.

Question (iv)
Heat from sun reaches us by the process of :
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) radiation.

Question (v)
Heat is transferred in liquids and gases by :
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) convection.

Question (vi)
Clinical thermometer is filled with :
(a) Water
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Air.
Answer:
(c) Mercury.

Question (vii)
What kind of clothes do we wear in summer ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silky
(d) Wool.
(c) Jute
Answer:
(a) Cotton.

4. State True or False:

(i) We wear both light and dark clothes in summer.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

(ii) In coastal areas, the wind blowing from the sea towards the coast at night is called land breeze.
Answer:
False

(iii) Woollen garments provide warmth in winter as wool fibres traps in air.
Answer:
True

(iv) Heat transfer between liquids and gases is by convection method.
Answer:
True

(v) The thermometer should be washed with lukewarm water before use to measure temperature.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is temperature ?
Answer:
Temperature. The degree of hotness or coolness of an object is its temperature.

Question 2.
What is thermometer ?
Answer:
Thermometer. It is a device used to measure the temperature of an object.

Question 3.
Name two types of thermometers.
Answer:

  1. Clinical thermometer and
  2. Laboratory thermometer.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question 4.
Which metal is used in thermometers ?
Answer:
Mercury (Hg).

Question 5.
Which scales are used to measure temperatures ?
Answer:
Two scales are mainly used which are (i) Celsius scale and (ii) Fahemheit scale.

Question 6.
What is range of clinical thermometer ?
Answer:
35°C to 42°C.

Question 7.
Why is a thermometer jerked before taking temperature of a person ?
Answer:
To bring the mercury level below 35°C.

Question 8.
What is normal body temperature of healthy person ?
Answer:
37°C.

Question 9.
Name the thermometer used for noting weather temperature.
Answer:
Maximum-Minimum thermometer.

Question 10.
What is range of laboratory thermometer ?
Answer:
-10°C to 110°C.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question 11.
Which solution is used to wash thermometer before and after use ?
Answer:
Antiseptic solution.

Question 12.
How are laboratory thermometers read ?
Answer:
In vertically upright position.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When cold milk is added to hot tea, how does the heat transfer take place ?
Answer:
When cold milk is added to hot tea. the two come in contact with each other. The transfer of heat energy takes place from hot molecules of tea to cold molecules of milk by the process called convection.

Question 2.
What are the main conditions necessary for the flow of heat ?
Answer:
Conditions for the flow of heat. The following are three conditions responsible for the flow of heat from one place to another or from one body to another body :

  1. The two substances should be in contact with each other.
  2. The temperature of both the substances should be different.
  3. The heat flows from hot to cooler substance.

Question 3.
If a spoon is held over fire, it becomes hot after sometime. Describe the process of heating up.
Answer:
We know that in a solid the molecules are packed close together. When one end of the spoon is held over the fire, the molecules of material of spoon absorb the heat energy and begin to vibrate rapidly. These molecules handover heat energy to the neighbouring molecules, in turn, cause their neighbouring molecules to vibrate. This process continues along the length of the spoon and energy is transferred from the hotter part to the colder part. After sometime, the other end of the spoon also becomes hot.

Question 4.
Why is it preferred to wear bright clothes in summer and dark clothes in winter ?
Answer:
Dark coloured clothes are good absorbers of heat as compared to white clothes. The dark coloured clothes absorb the heat falling on them and become wanner. So we feel warm in winter by wearing these clothes. On the other hand, white clothes reflect heat coming from the sun. That is why, we prefer to wear bright clothes in summer and dark clothes in winter.

Question 5.
Define conduction. Why the handles of cooking utensils are made of insulators ?
Answer:
Conduction. The mode of transfer of heat in which heat is transferred from one particle to another without the actual motion of the particles, is called conduction.
The handles of cooking utensils are made up of insulating materials because they do not allow heat to flow through them. So heat cannot reach our body and thus our hand is prevented from burning.

Question 6.
Define radiation.
Answer:
Radiation. The process of transfer of heat from one body to another without heating the intervening medium, is called radiation. No medium is needed for the transference of heat by this process.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question 7.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:
Differences between heat and temperature.
TABLE

Question 8.
What is convection ? Give two practical applications of convection of heat.
Answer:
Convection.
The process of transference of heat in which heated gas or a liquid particles actually move from one place to another, is called convection. All the liquids and gases are heated by the method of convection.

Practical applications :

  • When a stove is lighted, the air in contact with the hot stove becomes warm. On being heated, it expands and becomes lighter. As a result, it rises upwards and the cool air from its surrounding comes to take its place.
  • The ventilation of ordinary buildings is due to convection.

Question 9.
As soon as the tube is removed from the source of heat, the level of liquid drops. How is this avoided in the thermometer that doctors use ?
Answer:
It is seen that the level of liquid fails in a narrow-tube (capillary tube) when it is removed from the source of heat. But when the doctor’s thermometer is removed from the source of heat, the level of mercury does not fall by itself. It is because a kink is provided in the tube of clinical thermometer which prevents mercury from falling down due to its own weight.

Question 10.
Discuss why wearing more layers of clothing during winter keeps us warm than wearing just one thick piece of clothing.
Answer:
Different layers of clothing trap air inside them. Air is a poor conductor of heat so it prevents the flow of heat from our body to the cold surrounding and keeps us warm.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an experiment to show that black bodies are good absorbers and good raidators.
Answer:
Experiment. Take two tin cans of the same size. Paint one of them black and other white from outside. Pour equal amount of water in each can. Now place them in the sun for about an hour. When we touch water in the tin cans we find that the water in the black tin has become warmer than that in the other tin. Since the size of the tins is the same, this shows that black body has absorbed more heat radiations than the other one.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 3
You can also do the reverse experiment by taking equal amount of hot water in each can. Leave the cans in a shady place for 10 minutes and record the temperature of each can. You would find the water in the dark had cooled down more. Thus, we conclude that black bodies are good absorbers and also good radiators of heat.

Question 2.
Give an experiment to show the transfer of heat by conduction.
Answer:
Experiment. Take a flat aluminium rod. Fix some iron nails on this rod with the help of molten wax. Clamp this rod in a stand as shown in the figure.
Heat one end of the rod with the help of spirit lamp. The iron nails drop one by one, starting from the hot end. It shows that heat is transferred slowly from one end of the rod to the other end by conduction.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 4
Conduction of heat takes place from the hot part of the object to its colder parts; or from one hot object to a colder object, happens only if:

  1. the two parts are in contact, and
  2. their temperatures are different.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200) Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which type of caste system was prevalent in society during the medieval period?
Answer:
In the early medieval period, caste system was very strong. The whole society was divided into four castes. These were – Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas and Shudras. Brahahmins performed religious ceremonies, so they had a place of respect in the society. Kashtriyas became warriors and administrators and participated in wars. Vaishyas traded and did agricultural tasks but the condition of Shudras in society was not good. Rajputs were proud of their high caste.

Question 2.
Which period is called as ‘Rajput Period’?
Answer:
The period between the eighth century and the thirteenth century is known as the ‘Rajput Period’ because many Rajput states were established in North India during this era.

Question 3.
Why Mahmud Ghaznavi invaded India?
Answer:
Mahmud Ghaznavi wanted to make Ghazni the most powerful kingdom in the region. That is why he wanted a lot of money to organise large army. Therefore, he invaded India to raise money seventeen times from 1001-1025 A.D.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 4.
Why Muhammad Ghori invaded India?
Answer:
Muhammad Ghori was the ruler of Gaur Kingdom in Afghanistan. He wanted to build up an empire in India. So in 1175 A.D. he invaded Multan and captured it.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Mihir Bhoj was a powerful ruler of the ______ dynasty.
Answer:
Pratihara

Question 2.
Devpal built a temple of ______ at Bodh Gaya.
Answer:
Mahabodhi

Question 3.
Rashtrakuta rulers were the patrons of ______
Answer:
art, education.

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A B
1. Gurjara Pratiharas rulers (i) Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand
2. Palas rulers (ii) Rajasthan and Gujarat
3. Rashtrakuta rulers (iii) Deccan

Answer:

A B
1. Gurjara Pratiharas rulers (ii) Rajasthan and Gujarat
2. Palas rulers (i) Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand
3. Rashtrakuta rulers (iii) Deccan

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200) Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which Kingdom ruled over Rajasthan and Gujarat?
(a) Gurjara Pratiharas
(b) Palas
(c) Cheras
(d) Rashtrakutas.
Answer:
(a) Gurjara Pratiharas.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 2.
Who was the most famous ruler of Chauhan dynasty?
(a) Prithviraj Chauhan
(b) Jai Chauhan
(c) Malik Raj Chauhan
(d) Harshavardhana
Answer:
(a) Prithviraj Chauhan.

Question 3.
Who founded the Rashtrakuta dynasty?
(a) Harshavardhana
(b) Dantidurga
(c) Jaipal
(d) Gopala.
Answer:
(b) Dantidurga.

Question 4.
Who defeated Prithviraj Chauhan in the second battle of Terain?
(a) Mahmud Ghaznavi
(b)Qutb-ud-din Aibak
(c) Mohammad Ghori
(d) Iltutmish
Answer:
(c) Mohammad Ghori.

Question 5.
Who attacked India 17 times?
(a) Mohammad Ghori
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Qutb-ud-din-Aibak
Answer:
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi

Question 6.
Which of these dynasties fought to gain control of Kanauj?
(a) Gurjara Pratiharas
(b) Palas
(c) Rashtrakutas
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 7.
The period between 8th century and 13th century is known as
(a) Rajput period
(b) Sultnate period
(c) Mughal period
(d) Medieval period.
Answer:
(a) Rajput period.

Question 8.
______ was the most powerful ruler of Gurjana pratihara dynasty.
(a) Mihirbhoj
(b) Gopala
(c) Dantidurga
(d) Dhruva.
Answer:
(a) Mihirbhoj.

Question 9.
Dharampala was a famous ruler of dynasty.
(a) Gurjara Pratihara
(b) Pala
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Chera.
Answer:
(b) Pala.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 10.
Rashtrakutas ruled in ______ region.
(a) North
(b) South
(c) Deccan
(d) Eastern.
Answer:
(c) Deccan.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the names of three north and south Indian states in the early medieval period.
Answer:

  • North Indian states-Gurjara-Pratiharas, Palas and Rajputs.
  • South Indian states- Pallav, Pandaya and Cholas.

Question 2.
Where did Gurjar a Pratiharas rule?
Answer:
In some parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Question 2A.
Which three dynasties were involved in the triple struggle?
Answer:
Three dynasties involved in the triple struggle for Kanauj were the Rashtrakutas, the Gurjara-Pratiharas and the Palas.

Question 3.
Who was the most powerful ruler of Gurjara/ Pratihara dynasty? Write his ruling period.
Answer:
It was Mihirbhqj who ruled from 836 A.D. to 885 A.D

Question 4.
How did Gurjara/Pratihara dynasty come to an end?
Answer:
The last ruler Rajpal accepted the subordination of Mahmud Ghaznavi in 1018-19 A.D. So he was killed at the hands of Rajputs. In this way, the dynasty came to an end.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 5.
Describe briefly Mahendrapal – the Gurjara/Pratihara ruler.
Answer:
Mahendrapal was the son of Mihirbhoj. He ruled from 885 to 910 A.D. He was a lover of art and literature.

Question 6.
Where did Pala rulers rule? Who established this dynasty?
Answer:
The Pala rulers ruled over modern Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand. This dynasty was established by Gopal in 750 A.D.

Question 7.
Write two successes of Palas rulers.
Answer:

  1. Architecture, painting, education and literature were greatly developed.
  2. They followed Buddhism but were tolerant towards other religions.

Question 8.
Write one education related success of Pala ruler Dharampala.
Answer:
Dharampala established Vikkramshila Vihar, which later on became a great university.

Question 9.
Where did Rashtrakutas rule?
Answer:
Rashtrakutas ruled in Deccan region. It included the northern region between Krishna river and Tungbhadra river.

Question 10.
Name the famous rulers of Rashtrakuta dynasty.
Answer:
Dantidurg, Krishna I, Govind II, Dhruva, Govind III, Amoghvarsha and Krishna III were famous rulers of Rashtrakuta dynasty.

Question 11.
Name some main successes of Rashtrakuta rulers.
Answer:

  • They fought with Chalukayas and Pallavas in south India.
  • King Dhruva of Rashtrakuta dynasty defeated Pratihara ruler Vatsaraj of Kanauj.
  • Rashtrakuta rulers were patrons of art and education.
  • King Amoghvarsha was a good poet.
  • Krishna I built a Kailash Temple in Ellora.
  • Rashtrakutas established trade relationships with other countries.
  • They gave patronage to other religions also along with Hindu religion.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 12.
What do you mean by Rajput period?
Answer:
After the death of Harshvardhana, India was divided into many small states. Most of these states were under the occupation of Rajputs. The Rajputs fought with each other. So these Rajput kingdoms formed, dissolved and formed again. Thus from 8th century till 13th century it was mainly Rajputs who ruled over India. So this “period is called the Rajput period.

Question 13.
Comment briefly on the following :
1. Mihirbhoj
Answer:
Mihirbhoj: Mihirbhoj I (836 – 885 A.D.) was the famous ruler from Gurjara/ Pratihara dynasty. The Arab traveller Suleman has referred him as a brave warrior and efficient administrator. He got back lost areas from Pala dynasty. He was the worshipper of Lord Vishnu. He inherited the designation of ‘Adi Varah’.

2. Dharampala
Answer:
Dharampala: Dharampala (770-810 A.D.) was a famous ruler of Pala dynasty. The Arab trevellor Suleman writes that his military power was far more than his detractors. He fought against Pratiharas and Rashtrakutas. He was also an education lover. He established the famous boddh temple of Vikramshila which later on became a higher learning centre.

3. Devpal
Answer:
Devpal: Devpal was son of Dharampala who ruled from 81V to 850 A.D. He is known as the most powerful of Pala rulers. He won Assam and Orissa. He fought against Pratiharas also and earned a place of pride for Pala state.

4. Amoghvarsha
Answer:
Amoghvarsha: Amoghvarsha (814-878 A.D.) was a ruler of Rashtrakut dynasty. He ruled for 64 years. He is famous for his scholorship. He wrote a scripture called ‘Kavi Raj Marg’. This is the very first epic of Kannad literature.

5. Prithviraj Chauhan.
Answer:
Prithviraj Chauhan: He was the most famous and greatest ruler of Chauhan dynasty. He ruled from 1179 to 1192 A.D. He had Delhi and Ajmer under his control. He defeated the Chandel king Mahoba and also took under his control some other castles. He even fought against Chalukaya king Bhim II. In 1192 he was defeated by Mohammad Ghori.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Tripartite struggle?
Answer:
It refers to the struggle which took place among Rashtrakutas, Pratiharas and Palas to control Kanauj. Kanauj was a famous city of north India. It was strategically very important in north India. It means that the king who controlled Kanauj could control the fertile plain of the Ganges. So many battles were fought for its control. The Rashtrakutas, Pratihars and Palas—all these dynasties controlled Kanauj one by one. Modern historians call this struggle as tripartite struggle.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 15.
Write about two famous Rajput dynasties.
Answer:

  1. Pratihara Dynasty: The kings of this dynasty ruled over Kanauj and its surrounding areas. The first great ruler of this dynasty was ‘Nagabhatta I’.Mihirbhoj I was another famous ruler of this dynasty.
  2. Chauhan Dynasty: This dynasty ruled over Ajmer in Rajasthan. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was a famous king of this dynasty. He fought twice with Mohammad Ghori.

Question 16.
Who was Mahmud Ghaznavi? Why did he invade India?
Answer:
Mahmud Ghaznavi (999 – 1030 A.D.) was the son of Ghazni state ruler Subakatgin. He invaded India 17 times. The main objective of his invasions was to plunder money from India.

Question 17.
Who was Mohammad Ghori? What was his objective of coming to India?
Answer:
Shahabud-din, popularly known in history as Muhammad Ghori, was the younger brother of Ghias-ud-din, the ruler of Gaur, a small principality in Afghanistan.

Mohammad Ghori’s Aims in India

  1. Mohammad Ghori’s aim was not just to plunder the wealth of India but also to establish a Muslim rule over this country.
  2. He was more political and a better statesman than his predecessor. It was he who clearly perceived the rotton condition of India and thought of founding a permanent empire in this land.
  3. His main aim was the conquest of India and he was quite successful in achieving it. He never lost courage and continued his efforts ceaselessly and ultimately all his efforts in founding the Muslim Empire in India were fully rewarded.
  4. Muhammad Ghori’s conquest of India was real and permanent. The territories that he conquered were seldom lost to Islam as was the case with his predecessor, Mahmud Ghaznavi

Question 18.
What was the difference between the invasions of Mahmud Ghaznavi and Mohammad Ghori?
Answer:
The following were the points of difference :

Mahmud Ghaznavi Mohammad Ghori
1. He wanted to plunder the Indian wealth. 1. He wanted to establish Muslim state in north India.
2. He remain victorious in all his invasions. 2. He was once defeated in his invasions.
3. India lost much wealth by his invasions. 3. Muslim state was established by his invasions.

Question 19.
What was the importance of Kanauj? Name the kingdoms which wanted to occupy Kanauj.
Answer:
Many of the campaigns in northern India were fought over the city of Kanauj. This had been the capital of Harasha and remained an important city. It was thought that whoever will capture Kanauj could control the Ganga valley. Three major kingdoms were involved in this struggle. They occupied Kanauj in turn. The three kingdoms were those of the Rashtrakutas, the Gurjara-Pratiharas and the Palas.

Question 20.
Write a note about the origin of Rajputs.
Answer:
The Rajputs have a long and interesting history. Where they came from and who they were, remains something of a mystery. Historians think that some of them belonged to certain Central Asian tribes. The Rajputs always insisted that they were of the Kshatriya caste. Their kings ordered family histories to be written which connected them with either the sun-family (surya-vamsha) or the moon-family (chandra-vamsha) of ancient Indian kings.

According to Colonel Todd, the famous historian, Rajputs are the offspring of middle Asian tribes and came to live in India after the ‘Huna invasion’. Similarly Vedvyas and Gauri Shankar Ojha think that Rajputs are the offspring of ancient Kshatriyas. Another idea is of Chand Bardai, who wrrites in his book ‘Prithivi Raj Raso’, that Rajputs originated from ‘AgnikuF.

Question 21.
Who were the Chauhans? Write a brief note about them.
Answer:
Chauhans are also known as ‘Chahamans’. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was the most powerful king. He ruled from 1179 A.D. to 1192 A.D. He was a brave warrior. He defeated the Chandel king and snatched many areas. He defeated Mohammad Ghori in the first battle of Tarain in 1191 A.D. But in the very next year (1192 A.D. ), he was defeated by Mohammad Ghori in the second battle of Tarain and was killed. Thus the Chauhan dynasty came to an end in Delhi. Chand Bardai has described the successes of Prithvi Raj Chauhan in ‘Prithivi Raj Raso’.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 22.
Write in brief about the main invasions of Mahmud Ghaznavi.
Answer:
Mahmud was the ruler of Ghazni. He wanted to make Ghazni a big and powerful kingdom. India was extremely rich. So he planned to attack India in order to bring back wealth and thus build a larger army to conquer Central Asia.

The description of his main invasions is as follow :
1. Invasion on Jaipal (1001 A.D.). He invaded Jaipal the Hindu royal ruler of Punjab. Jaipal was defeated and imprisoned. It is said that Mahmud got 2.5 lac gold coins from Jaipal and set him free. Jaipal could not tolerate this insult and put himself to fire.

2. Battle with Anandpal (1008 A.D.). Anandpal was the son of Jaipal. He fought Mahmud Ghaznavi by combining the armies of Ujjain, Gwalior, Kalinjar, Delhi and Ajmer. The battle near Peshwar was terrible but Mahmud emerged victoriously and after that he plundered Punjab.

3. Invasion of Nagarkot (1009 A.D.). He invaded Nagarkot (Kangra) and looted gold and silver from Kangra temples.

4. Invasion on Thanesar (1014 A.D.). Again Ghaznavi plundered the big temples of Thanesar by invading this place.

5. Invasion on Mathura and Kanauj (1018-1019 A.D.). In 1018 A.D., Mahmud reached Mathura but before that he plundered the temples on the way to Mathura and set these on fire. When he reached Mathura, he demolished the temples there also. From Mathura he reached Kanauj. The ruler of Kanauj surrendered and Mahmud plundered and demolished the temples there.

6. Invasion on Kalinjar (1021 A.D.). The ruler of Kalinjar Vidyadhar had a big army but still he could not face Mahmud and ran away from the battlefield.

7. Invasion on the temple of Somnath (1025 A.D.)—Mahmud Ghaznavi attacked the temple of Somnath in Kathiawar in Gujarat. This temple was famous for its unlimited resources. Besides it was considered the holiest temple of the Hindus. Mahmud plundered and demolished this temple and took hundreds of tons of gold and silver and diamonds to his country. It was the biggest victory of Mahmud for which he was honoured by the Caliph. In 1030 A.D. Mahmud died.

Question 23.
Give an account of the important invasions of Muhammad Ghori.
Answer:
Mohammad Ghori was ruler of Gaur Kingdom in Afghanistan. He sat oh – the throne in 1173 A.D. He decided to invade India after becoming the king. He attacked’ and occupied Multan in 1175 A.D.

His other main invasions are as follows :
1. Invasion of Gujarat. In 1178 A.D. Ghori attacked Gujarat. The ruler of Gujarat faced Mohammad Ghori and badly defeated him.

2. First war of Tarain. Mohammad Ghori wanted to established a Muslim state iri India, so he attacked Delhi in 1191 A.D. Delhi had Prithvi Raj Chauhan as the king who was brave heart king. The two armies faced each other in terrible battle and Mohammad Ghori was defeated badly.

3. Second battle of Tarain. To take revenge of his defeat Mohammad Ghori again attacked India in 1192 A.D. This time Raja Jaichand, the king of Kanauj also sided with him. Under Prithvi Raj Chauhan’s leadership, Rajputs fought very bravely. But in the end it was victory for Mohammad Ghori and Delhi and Ajmer came under Mohammad Ghori’s possession.

4. Battle with Jai Chand. In 1194 A.D., Ghori defeated Raja Jai Chand and won the state of Kanauj.

5. Other Victories. During this time, Mohammad Ghori’s General Mohammad-bin- Bhakhtiar-Khalji controlled Bengal and Bihar. Another General Qutub-ud-Din Aibak won the state of Gujarat.
Thus in a short time Mohammad Ghori controlled the whole of the north India. He is considered to be the real establisher of Turk Empire in India. He died in 1206 A.D.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 24.
Write brief notes on :
1. Economy,
Answer:
Economy: The main profession was agriculture. India indulged in international trade also. From India valuable stones, spices, silk and cotton textiles, Chandan (sandalwood) and coconut, etc. were exported to foreign countries. From central and western Asia, dates, wine, and horses were imported to India.

2. Religion.
Answer:
Religion: Mainly Jainism, Buddhism, and Hinduism were prevalent. But Rajputs were the followers of Hinduism. So during their ruling period, Hinduism developed considerably. In north India, there were two sects of Hindu religion—Shaivs and Vaishnavs. People would worship Lord Vishnu and Shri Shiv and Shri Shakti. They would also worship the ten Avatars of Lord Vishnu. In this period, in North and South India, Bhakti Movement became very popular. Sri Guru Nanak Devji, Ramanuj Ji, and Madhavji emphasized one God’s worship. They gave the sermon that if you want to attain salvation pray to God with a pure heart. They were against the caste system.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 75)

Question 1.
Name the instrument used to measure relative humidity.
Answer:
Wet Bulb and Dry-bulb thermometers.

Question2.
Which instrument is used to measure rainfall?
Answer:
Rain gauge.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question3.
Name the source you used to collect weather reports ?
Answer:
Weather data was obtained from the North Meteorological Department’s laboratory.

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) …………………. of a place may change during a day.
Answer:
Temperature

(ii) The areas of Earth near North Pole and the South Pole are called ……………….. .
Answer:
Polar Region

(iii) The amount of water vapours present in air is called ……………… .
Answer:
Humidity

(iv) ……………….. is the coldest desert on earth.
Answer:
Antarctic

(v) Indian hot desert or Thar Desert spread over states of ………………… and ……………….. .
Answer:
Rajasthan and Gujarat.

2. State True or False:

(i) Reindeer is the main animal of tropical forest.
Answer:
False

(ii) Weather and climate both terms have same meaning.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(iii) Camel stores fat in its hump which is consumed during the days it does not get food.
Answer:
True

(iv) Whale is the largest animal.
Answer:
True.

3. Match the Columns ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) It insulates its body and keeps the polar beer warm (a) Land breeze
(ii) This instrument is used to measure humidity in air (b) Hot and dry.
(iii) Imaginary lines on the earth parallel to the equator (c) Fat layer under the skin
(iv) Cood air that blows during day towards coastal area (d) Dry and wet bulb thermometer.
(v) The climate of Rajasthan is (e) Latitude.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) It insulates its body and keeps the polar beer warm (c) Fat layer under the skin
(ii) This instrument is used to measure humidity in air (d) Dry and wet bulb thermometer.
(iii) Imaginary lines on the earth parallel to the equator (e) Latitude.
(iv) Cood air that blows during day towards coastal area (a) Land breeze
(v) The climate of Rajasthan is (b) Hot and dry.

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Weather of a place is affected by:
(a) Wind
(b) Temperature
(c) Humidity
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (ii)
Climate of coastal areas is:
(a) Hot to dry
(b) Moderate
(c) Cold and dry
(d) Extreme cold
Answer:
(c) Cold and dry.

Question (iii)
The coldest desert on earth is:
(a) Arabian desert
(b) Sahara desert
(c) Thar desert
(d) Ladakh
Answer:
(b) Sahara desert.

Question (iv)
Arctic region lies at:
(a) 23°
(b) 23°
(c) 0°
(d) 85° N to 90°S
Answer:
(d) 85° N to 90°S.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name any two factors that affect the weather of a place.
Answer:
Factors affecting the weather of a place are:

  1. Sun,
  2. Wind,
  3. Water / Rain/ Moisture,
  4. Temperature,
  5. Distance from sea or ocean.

Question (ii)
Define climate.
Answer:
Climate. An average of 25 to 30 years of weather conditions in a place is called climate.

Question (iii)
What is sand dune ?
Answer:
Sand dune. When the wind blows, the sand flies from one place to another. When the wind stops blowing, the sand falls in one place and collects to form low hill structures. These are called sand dunes. They are usually found in desert areas.

Question (iv)
What is a polar region ?
Answer:
Polar Region. The region near the North Pole and the South Pole of the Earth is called the Polar Region. The north snow is centred on these poles. The in the north it is located at Arctic Ocean and in the south it is located at the Antarctic Continent. It is very cold in these areas all the time.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How does sea breeze occur ?
Answer:
The earth heats up faster than water during the day. The air near the bottom of the earth gets warmer and lighter and rises upwards. The air above the sea compared to the air above the earth is cold and heavy. So the wind blows toward the earth. The cool breeze that blows from the ocean to the earth during the day is called sea breeze.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 1

Question (ii)
Write three adaptations found in aquatic animals.
Answer:
Adaptations found in aquatic organisms:

  1. Streamlined body which helps in swimming.
  2. Gills, they can take oxygen in the water.
  3. The presence of fins helps in swimming.

Question (iii)
What is green house effect ?
Answer:
Green house Effect. Infrared and ultraviolet radiation are present in sunlight. The ozone layer of the atmosphere absorbs the ultraviolet radiation but the infrared radiation reaches the earth. Some of these radiations are reflected and absorbed by carbon dioxide. Because the infrared rays have heat, the absorbed radiations heat up the atmosphere. This effect of carbon dioxide is called the green house effect.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question (iv)
Write two effects of climate change.
Answer:
Effects of climate change:
1. Global warming. Deforestation and combustion of fossil fuels increase the percentage of carbon dioxide in the air. Carbon dioxide gas acts like a glass house and absorbs infrared radiation from sunlight, which raises the temperature. Due to this the green house effect is increasing.

2. As a result, glaciers are melting. Glacier melting alarm for aquatic life. Melting ice raises sea levels, endangering many coastal cities.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How is camel adapted to survive in hot desert ? Explain.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 2
The adaptation of the camel to live in the desert:
The camel’s physique and habits have made it adaptable to the hot and dry climate of the desert.
The following adjustments are found in the camel:

  1. Its feet are flat to walk on the sand.
  2. Its nose is covered with nasal membranes so that sand does not enter the nose.
  3. It drinks a lot of water when available. This water spreads to the tissues of the body, which helps the camel to stay without water for many days.
  4. It accumulates fat in its mouth. When food is not available to it, it uses this fat.
  5. Very little water immerses through the urine.
  6. Its long legs keep it high above the hot sand.

Question (ii)
Name various factors that affect the climate of a place. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 3
Factors affecting the climate of a place:

  1. Distance from sea level
  2. Direction of mountains
  3. Distance from the equator
  4. Height from the sea.

1. Distance from the sea level.
The climate of the places near the sea is pleasant. During the day the temperature of the earth is higher while the water of the ocean warms up relatively late. The wind blows from the bottom of the ocean towards the earth, which is called sea breeze. The earth cools faster than water at night. So the air above the oceans is hot and light and the air above is moving towards the ocean. The cold breeze that blows toward the sea at night is called the land breeze.

2. The direction or latitude of the mountains.
The shape of the earth is not completely spherical. It is slightly raised near the equator. As a result, the sun’s rays are directed closer to the equator. The latitude of the equator is 0° and it is higher towards the pole. The longitude of the North Pole is 90° N and the longitude of the South Pole is 90°S. The climate near the equator is hot and humid all year round. As the longitude increases, the climate cools down.

Question (iii)
Write various adaptations found in Polar beer.
Answer:
Adaptations in Polar bear. The following adaptations are found in polar bears:

  1. Its fur is white to camouflage with snow capped areas.
  2. Its long hairs protect it from extreme cold of cold climate.
  3. A thick layer of fat deposit under the skin helps to keep it warm.
  4. Its feet are so shaped that it can run easily on snow.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The average weather taken over a long time in called ……………. .
Answer:
climate

(ii) A place receives very little rainfall and the temperature is high throughout the year;
the climate of that place will be …………… and …………….. .
Answer:
Hot, dry

(iii) The two regions with extreme climatic conditions are ……………… and ………….. .
Answer:
Polar, Tropical Rain forests

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(iv) The maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in ……………..
Answer:
Afternoon

(v) ………………. is used to measure rain.
Answer:
Rain gauge

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) The coldest desert on earth (a) Moisture
(ii) The amount of water vapours in the air (b) Deforestation and burning of fossil fuels
(iii) Thar desert (c) Antarctica
(iv) Global warming (d) Rajasthan.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) The coldest desert on earth (c) Antarctica
(ii) The amount of water vapours in the air (a) Moisture
(iii) Thar desert (d) Rajasthan
(iv) Global warming (b) Deforestation and burning of fossil fuels.

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
What is the cause of change in weather?
(a) Moon
(b) Planet
(c) Satellite
(d) Sun.
Answer:
(d) Sun.

Question (ii)
Indicate the type of climate in Jammu and Kashmir.
(a) Hot and wet
(b) Hot and dry
(c) Moderately hot and moderately wet
(d) Wet.
Answer:
(c) Moderately hot and moderately wet.

Question (iii)
Indicate the type of climate in Kerala:
(a) Hot and dry
(b) Hot and wet
(c) Wet
(d) Moderately hot and moderately wet.
Answer:
(a) Hot and dry.

Question (iv)
From where do we get daily weather report ?
(a) Television
(b) Radio
(c) Newspaper
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question (v)
When is the minimum temperature likely to occur in a day ?
(a) Evening
(b) Early morning
(c) Noon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Early morning

Question (vi)
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in:
(a) When the sun rises
(b) In mid noon
(e) Afternoon
(d) When the sun sets.
Answer:
(e) Afternoon.

4. State True or False:

(i) All changes in weather are due to the sun.
Answer:
True

(ii) The highest temperature of the day is in the evening.
Answer:
False

(iii) Different places have the same temperature.
Answer:
False

(iv) Polar areas are located near the Poles.
Answer:
True

(v) Penguins live in the plains.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(vi) Days in winter are shorter in length.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From where do we get daily weather reports ?
Answer:
We get weather report from Television, Radio and Newspapers.

Question 2.
Which factors are responsible for weather ?
Answer:
Temperature, Humidity and Rainfall.

Question 3.
What is humidity ?
Answer:
Humidity. It is the measure of quantity of moistures present in the atmospheric air.

Question 4.
Which department is responsible for preparing weather reports ?
Answer:
Meterological Department of the Government.

Question 5.
Which instrument is used to measure rain fall ?
Answer:
Rain gauge.

Question 6.
Do maximum and minimum temperature remain constant over a week ?
Answer:
No.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question 7.
Where from do we get heat and light on the earth ?
Answer:
We get heat and light from sun.

Question 8.
What happens to the energy emitted by sun ?
Answer:
It is absorbed and reflected by the earth’s surface.

Question 9.
Climate is average weather report of a place taken over a long period. How long this period is ?
Answer:
About 25 years.

Question 10.
Which type of climate is found in Kerala ?
Answer:
Hot and wet.

Question 11.
What is typical desert climate ?
Answer:
Hot and dry.

Question 12.
Which part of India is wet ?
Answer:
North-East.

Question 13.
Why is adaptation by animals necessary ?
Answer:
For survival of animals.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the elements that determine the weather of a place.
Answer:
Elements of Weather:
Temperature, Humidity, Wind-speed, Rainfall.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question 2.
When are the maximum and minimum temperature likely to occur during the day?
Answer:
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in the afternoon while the minimum temperature occurs in the early morning.

Question 3.
What is rain gauge ?
Answer:
Rain gauge. It is an instrument used to measure rainfall. It consists of a .measuring cylinder and a funnel on the top to collect rainwater.

Question 4.
Define weather ?
Answer:
Weather. The day-to day condition of atmosphere at a place with respect to temperature, humidity, wind speed etc. is called weather.

Question 5.
The tropical rainforest has a large population of animals. Explain, why it is so ?
Answer:
Tropical rainforests have hospitable climatic conditions; so it has a large population of animals. The climate in this region is hot and humid. It lies around the equator and has minimum temperature a little higher than 15°C, length of days and night are generally equal and these places recieve a lot of rainfall. So all these conditions are preferable for a large number of population.

Question 6.
What is cold desert region ? How does polar bear adapt the condition to survive in this region.
Answer:
Those region/area where temperature may fall below-20°C and rocks are stony and have little vegetation are called cold deserts. In India cold desert lies between Ladakh region in north to Lahaul and spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh. To survive in cold desert, Yak has following adapations:

  1. Body is covered by long hair or fur.
  2. The colour of fur is generally black to absorb more and more heat.
  3. Its feet have sharp toes which help it to climb in uneven paths.
  4. A layer of fat is deposited under its skin. It helps yak to survive in extreme cold during winters.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the condition of tropical rainforests ? What type of animals are living in such rain forest ? Write down the main characteristics of these animals.
Answer:
Tropical rainforest. The area near or around the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is called the tropical area. The climate in these areas is hot and humid. Here even in winter the temperature is 15°C and in summer the temperature reaches 40°C. The tropical region receives rainfall throughout the year. The most prominent places in the tropical region are the tropical rainforests that form canopies over the area. Elephants, tigers, leopards, snakes, birds, and insects are the animals found in the rain forest.

Main Characteristics of animals found in the rain forest:

  • Creeping, snakes, lizards, monitors can easily crawl in dense forests.
  • Strong body. A strong body is required to pass through dense forests. So Elephants, gorillas, tigers, leopards, etc. have powerful bodies.
  • Special Senses. Many tropical animals have sharp eyesight, sharp hearing and some animals have skin color similar to surroundings for camouflage.
  • Strong tail
  • Loud voice
  • Sharp eyes
  • Fruit diet
  • Long and big beaks.

Question 2.
Discuss the human activities responsible for climate change.
Answer:
Human activities responsible for climate change are as follows:

  • Population Growth. Consumption of fossil fuels is increasing due to population growth and changes in living standards.
  • Deforestation. Large-scale deforestation is done to meet the needs of the growing population such as houses, buildings, industries, roads, etc.
  • Excavation of mines. Excavation of blind mines has increased floods.
  • Global warming. Due to excessive cutting of trees and burning of fossil fuels the percentage of carbon dioxide increases.
  • This carbon dioxide gas absorbs infrared radiation from sunlight, resulting in a rise in temperature. As a result, the greenhouse effect continues to grow, and as a result, glaciers are melting.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by human capacity?
Answer:
Physical capacity is required not only in games but in every field of life to perform the work. Physical capacity is the quality of the body by which a person can do his daily work without any difficulty, in other words, a person’s capacity to do maximum physical work is called human capacity. Physical capacity is to be related to the person who does a lot of physical work. People who do not know the meaning of physical capacity.

They think that physical strength is required only by the farmers, labours, etc. who do heavy physical work and perform hard duties. Besides this physical capacity is considered with players. Who has to win the medal in games. The level of physical capacity is different in every person. The capacity is different from one another. It depends upon the profession and the work they are doing.

A person who perform hardwork is possessing more capacity then a person who do not perform any work. A person who works in a shop are the one who is clerk has less physical capacity as compare to a sports person. In the same way a football and a kabaddi player as in both the games player do hard work in different way. A person’s physical quantity depends upon different qualities. The physical capacity will increase as much as you work hard.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Question 2.
Write the name of parts of human capacity.
Answer:
Human capacity are as follows :

  • Speed
  • Strength
  • Endurance
  • Flexibility
  • Co-ordination.

Question 3.
What do you understand by speed?
Answer:
The first quality of physical capacity is speed. The ability to do a work in minimum time is called speed. Speed is a very important quality of a physical capacity that has an important role in every game. That player is considered a good player who possesses a great speed. Even in general work, the person who owns the quality of doing a work faster, completes his work earlier than others.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Question 4.
What do you mean by co-ordination? What is the importance of co-ordination for a player?
Answer:
Co-ordination is also a quality of physical capacity. Co-ordination means the relation between mind and the body. The body receives the message sent by the mind and complete the soon no work is possible without the co-ordination of mind and body.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Question 5.
Write in detail about the importance of human capacity.
Answer:

  • The body of a person having physical capacity remains beautiful and stout. His body has good growth and development.
  • Physical systems become able to work properly due to physical capacity, our muscles become able to do heavy work and we can do more work.
  • A person has good control on his body with his physical capacity. There is improvement in co-ordination of his brain and muscles.
  • There is less scope of heart and lung diseases e.g. blood pressure, heart attack, breathing problems, asthama etc. to the person with physical capacity.

Question 6.
What do you mean by exercise? What are the advantages of exercise?
Answer:
Walking, Running, Throwing and Climbing are the basic skills of human being. He uses all the skills in his routine life and perform exercise. Sometime forceful and brisk activities are done to improve these skills. These activities are known as exercise. The objectives of exercise to improve the circulation of blood. It has a great relationship between health and exercise. There are many advantages of exercise which are given below:

  • Muscle becomes strong and flexible.
  • Lungs contract and expand during exercise.
  • CO2 is exhaled in more quantity due to quick contraction and expansion of lungs and more of O2 is inhaled in the body. The blood is purified by this process.
  • Heart becomes healthy. There is increase in the capacity of heart and arteries become strong.
  • Digestive system of a person become more stronger with exercise.
  • Exercise remove the formitive of the body and one gets reduff joint problems.
  • New cell and new blood is produce in body. White blood cells increased and body become strong.
  • Ageing is delayed mental and physical health remain good.
  • By doing exercise health remain good and he away from evil thoughts.
  • Extra fat of the body is burned and his body become healthy, active and stout.
  • Heat is produced in the body while doing exercise and prespiration is caused impurities expell out from the body and skin becomes clear after that body become healthy.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Write the quality of Physical capacity.
(A)Speed
(B) Strength
(C) Courage and flexibility
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 2.
Advantage of Excercise:
(A) Muscle becomes strong
(B) Digestive system becomes strong
(C) Ageing is delayed
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 3.
Write more advantage of Exercise.
(A) Blood remain pure
(B) Heart becomes healthy
(C) White cells in the body increases
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What happens when we walk, jump, run?
Answer:
Exercise.

Question 2.
Which organ exhaled the CO2 from our body?
Answer:
Lungs.

Question 3.
How physical capacity is build?
Answer:
Regular exercise and taking balanced diet.

Question 4.
How our muscles become stronger & flexible?
Answer:
By doing exercise.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Question 5.
What happen by prespiration?
Answer:
Waste products are expelled out from our body.

Question 6.
What is physical capacity?
Answer:
It is the ability of a person which enable him to perform his work smoothly.

Question 7.
Write the name of quality of physical capacity.
Answer:
Speed, Coordination, Endurance, Strength and Flexibility.

Question 8.
Write the importance of physical energy?
Answer:

  • It makes our body healthy & attractive.
  • With the help of physical energy he overcome the control of energy.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the effect of exercise on all parts of the body?
Answer:

  • Body becomes strong & more work is performed.
  • Digestive system work properly.
  • We feel more hungry.

Question 2.
Write any three advantages of exercise
Answer:

  • It removes the illness.
  • While doing exercise precipiration is cause and impurities of the body are expelled.
  • Age of the person is increased.

Question 3.
Write the effect of exercise on lungs.
Answer:

  • Lungs contract & expand during exercise.
  • CO2 is exhaled in more quantity.
  • More of O2 is inhaled by the body.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Capacity and Advantages of Exercises

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the achievement of sports person in field of sports?
Answer:
The sports person are creating new record in the fields of sports. Bring loral to their own country. Sports are limited for recreation & intest earlier. But now there are earing lot of money in sports for this very reason they work very harding improve their physical capacity. To won the medal in Olympic are breaking record in other sports. They become star in sports and become very rich by earning money from this sports. Every person intend to create a world record in the field of sports. For this very reason they have to work hard and pay special method of training modem equipment of sports. Experience coach develops all the qualities of a person in a sports. In this way, the sports person prepare himself for the demand of sports market. If is lacking in the physical energy he cannot compete with his opponents.

Question 2.
Write the qualities of physical energy.
Answer:
1. Speed
2. Strength
3. Endurance
4. Flexibility
5. Coordination.

1. Speed:
The first quality of physical capacity is speed. The ability to do a work in minimum time is called speed. Speed is very important quality of physical capacity that has an important role in every game. The player is considered a good player who possesses a great speed.

2. Strength:
The energy produced by the muscles of the body is called strength. It is required to complete any work. Every light or heavy work requires physical capacity to complete it. A strong person can do any light or heavy work easily.

3. Endurance:
The capacity to do work for a long period is called endurance. It is an important part of physical strength that helps a person to continue his work even in the state of fatigue. The long term activities cannot be completed without this quality.

4. Flexibility:
Any player’s performance in the game depends upon the body’s flexibility. It directs relate to the joints of the body. The more the person bends his joints, the more flexibility he owns.

5. Coordination:
It is also an important physical capacity like others. It means the relation between wind and the body. There will be no mistakes if the body receives the messages sent by wind and completes it soon.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 1 Human Body

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Human Body Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you know about the human body?
Answer:
The human body is made up of muscles, bones, and many other small and large organs of the body like- heart, lungs, liver, kidneys, etc. When we see the kabaddi players before participating in-game and they warm up and enter into the sports field. Their attractive body is much impressed to us and we attend to be fit like kabaddi players. The players have to face many difficulties to build their bodies. It is very essential to be fit and have an attractive look. The player’s body fitness depends on its strength and power. Their achievement in sports depends on their fitness and strength to make them healthy. A sportsman must have knowledge of his body if the sportsman knows all parts of the body. He will be able to perform in sports well. If he does not know the various parts of the body and their working then he may get hurt while doing exercise and he may not be able to develop his body fitness.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

Question 2.
In which categories can a human body be divided to understand or knowledge it?
Answer:

  • Body Posture
  • Body Function.

Question 3.
How many bones are there in a human body?
Answer:
The human body has 206 bones of different shapes and sizes which make the frame of the body by joining together.

Question 4.
What are the main organs of blood-circulation system?
Answer:
Heart, Arteries, veins and tissues are the main organs of the blood circulation system.

Question 5.
What do you know about sensory organs?
Answer:
Sensory organs are:
eyes, ears, tongue, nose, skin. We get knowledge about our surrounding and the changes of environment through them. We can see any object with our eyes. We can smell any thing with our nose. We can hear any thing with our ears. Tongue tells about different kind of tastes of eatables. Skin makes us to feel the touch of anything and realization of summer and winter.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

Question 6.
What is the importance of excretory system in human body?
Answer:
The food we take eat only a small part of it is retained in our body and the rest of it is excreted from the body in the form of waste material when we work the energy is consumed and the result of many waste material are produce in the body. The waste material are necessary to excrete from out body. If these waste material are remain in our body may causes many diseases. Excretory system expell out the waste product out of the body. The skin and the kidney are the main part of the system. They expell the waste product in the form of urine and sweat.

Question 7.
What are the main functions of human body?
Answer:
1. Protection:
Our body consist of many soft organs like : heart, lungs and brain, which are pretected by the skeleton system like : bones of our skull protect our brain and bones of our rib cage protect our lungs and heart also.

2. Shape:
The body structure gives shape to our body. If this body structure is not present then shape of our body is irregular.

3. Movement:
All movements are possible due to the body posture. The muscles are attached to the frame of the body. The contraction and expansion of muscles causes movement in the bones and this result body to do the movement.

4. Mineral Store House:
The bones of our body act as a mineral store house. In bones they decay great quantity of calcium and phosphorus
stored in our body, which causes growth and development in human being. We should take a balanced diet in our food. If any of these elements is not sufficient in our body, the bones use to supply these.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Human Body Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In which categories can a human body be divided to understand or knowledge of:
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five.
Answer:
(A) Two

Question 2.
How many bones are there in human?
(A) 206
(B) 220
(C) 300
(D) 250.
Answer:
(A) 206

Question 3.
Main functions of human body :
(A) Protection
(B) Shape
(C) Movement
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
Organs of Blood Circulation :
(A) Heart
(B) Arteries
(C) Veins
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

Question 5.
Main system of Body.
(A) Muscular System
(B) Circulatory System
(C) Respiratory System
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which material is used to make the human body?
Answer:
Muscles, Bones and some small and big orgAnswer:

Question 2.
Write the three body orgAnswer:
Answer:
Heart
Lungs
kidneys

Question 3.
Who protect our soft organs?
Answer:
Bones and ribs.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

Question 4.
Which body organ is protected by the skull?
Answer:
It protects the brain.

Question 5.
Who provide shape to our body?
Answer:
Skeletal system provide shape to our body.

Question 6.
What happen if bones are not present in our body?
Answer:
It becomes big flash of skin.

Question 7.
How we get the movements to our body?
Answer:
Muscles create the movements in our body.

Question 8.
Who stored the minerals?
Answer:
Bones stored the minerals in our body.

Question 9.
Which are the important systems in our body?
Answer:
Circulatory system, Respiratory system.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

Question 10.
Which system help us in running and walking?
Answer: Muscular System.

Question 11.
Write the main organs of respiratory system.
Answer:
Nose, Wind pipe, Lungs.

Question 12.
Which system provides energy to our body?
Answer:
Digestive System.

Question 13.
Write the main organs of excretory system.
Answer:
Skin and Kidneys.

Question 14.
Write the function of the nervous system.
Answer:
Messages of Brain provides to the body organs and activities of body organs provide to brain.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What steps should be taken by a sportsman to make our body beautiful and attractive?
Answer:
They should work hard to make his body fit and fine.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

Question 2.
What did the sportsman knows for their progress?
Answer:
Players should know the various parts of the body, their work and efficiency of the body.

Question 3.
Which mineral is stored in bones?
Answer:
Calcium and Phosphorus.

Question 4.
From which we get the energy?
Answer:
We get the energy from our food. The food we intake after so many chemical changes we get the energy. The digestive system tells us how the food is absorbed and how we can get the energy from it.

Question 5.
How the human body was?
Answer:
Human body is like a machine and different system like its parts. To run the machine properly all parts should be work together. If any system of our body is disturbed. The effect can be effect on the whole body and a man can suffer. It is important to get the knowledge about our body to keep healthy.

Question 6.
What is the difference between veins and arteries?
Answer:
The arteries carries the pure blood from heart to all organs. Veins carries impure blood from body organs to heart.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why we should have the knowledge about different body organs?
Answer:
Our body system consist of many system and they combine to do different works. It is important that all the system work properly. If any of the system stops working properly then our body is effected and causes many problems.
1. Muscular System:
By this system we know about muscles. Due to muscles we are able to run, walk etc. Our body also works properly due to these muscles.

2. Circulatory System:
The blood keeps circulating in our body continuously the main organs of this system is heart, arteries, veins and tissues. The heart always remains beating and through the veins circulate the blood to the whole body. We can see blue arteries on the upper parts of our hands which takes blood towards the heart.

3. Respiratory System (Breathing System):
To our human body oxygen always require to live. We take O2 through breathing and exhale CO2. Nose, wind pipes and lungs are the main parts of this organ.

4. Digestive System:
We need energy to work. This energy is derived from food. The food we intake becomes very useful to our body after chemical process. We come to know how the food is digested and how the energy produced by it.

5. Excretory System:
The food we eat, only a small part of it is retained in our body and at rest of it is excreted from body in the shape of waste materials. In the similar way, when we work, the energy is consumed as a result many waste materials are produced in the form of sweat and urine.

6. Sense Organs:
Eyes, nose, ears, tongue and skin are the main parts of this system. We get knowledge about our surrounding and the change of environment through them.

7. Nervous System:
Brain controls all the activities of human body. There is a net of nervous system spread in the whole body that send message of’brain to different parts of the body and vice versa.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 Human Body

Question 2.
Write the advantages of different body systems?
Answer:
All the body systems are vital for body but the blood circulation and breathing system among are very important. Any one system of these two, if stops working even for a short while, a man can die. Continuous flow of blood and O2 in the body is very necessary to keep and human being alive. Human body is like a machine and different system of the body are like its parts. To make the machine run properly, it is important that all its parts should work properly. If any system of our body is disrupted, its effect can be felt on the whole body and the main becomes ill.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 7 The Medieval India

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 7 The Medieval India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 7 The Medieval India

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Medieval India Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer these questions :

Question 1.
What were the terms used for Indian subcontinent in the history of India?
Answer:
Two names:
Hindustan and
Bharatvarsha.

Question 2.
In how many parts Indian history is divided by the historians?
Answer:
The historians divided Indian history into three parts i.e. Ancient, Medieval and Modern.

Question 3.
How many types are sources of Indian history?
Answer:
There are two historical sources of Indian history :
1. Archaeological sources: These include ancient monuments, temples, inscriptions, coins, utensils, weapons, ornaments and pictures.
(a) Ancient monuments and buildings: In these, buildings, temples, mosques and castles are included. In temples, there are Khujraho, Bhubneshwar, Konark, etc. In Mosques, Jama Masjid and Moti Masjid come and in castles, Jiasalmer and Jaipur are the main castles.
(b) Inscriptions: These tell us about the main events, kings, dynasties, their administration period, art etc.
(c) Coins: We have extracted many coins belonging to the medieval period. These give us’information of historical events and important personalities. Some coins even throw light on the economic condition of this period.
(d) Paintings: With paintings, we came to know about the art of this period,

2. Literary sources: It includes autobiographies, biographies, chronicles, the description of kings and dynasties, other documents, etc. The autobiographies of Jahangir and Babar give us information of different administrators. The documents throw light on the treaties entered into by rulers.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 7 The Medieval India

Question 4.
How are accounts of foreign travellers an important source of history?
Answer:
Many Muslim and European travellers travelled to India during the Medieval period. They wrote their accounts on India.

  • Iban-batuta wrote ‘Rihla’ which gives us information about the administration of Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq.
  • Al-Beruni’s India related account is also very important.
  • Abdul Razzaq travelled to Vijaynagara and wrote about’the situation there.
  • Similarly, the European travellers wrote many accounts about their journeys to India which throw light on India.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The century is considered as century of change.
Answer:
18th

Question 2.
The Chinese used the term _________ for India.
Answer:
Tien Chu

Question 3.
Monuments, inscriptions and coins are _________ sources while autobiographies and biographies are sources.
Answer:
Archaeological, Literary

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 7 The Medieval India

Question 4.
Tansen was a famous _________
Answer:
musician.

III. True or False:

Question 1.
The medieval period was divided into two parts—Early medieval period and Later medieval period.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Many social customs and traditions were not came in existence.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
During the medieval period many special reforms performed for the development of trade and commerce.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
During the medieval period there was not a lot of interaction between Hindus and Muslims.
Answer:
False.

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
Show the extent of Afghanistan, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, India and Bangladesh on the outline map of Indian subcontinent.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of the MBD Map Master.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 7 The Medieval India

Question 2.
Paste the pictures of four main monuments of medieval India in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Medieval India Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of these is a source of Indian history?
(a) Monuments
(b) Inscriptions
(c) Chronicles
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
Who wrote Rihia?
(a) Abdul Razzaq
(b) Iban-Battuta
(C) Al-Beruni
(d) Francois Bernier.
Answer:
(b) Iban-Battuta.

Question 3.
Who among the following travelled Vijayanagara?
(a) Abdul Razzaq
(b) Al-Beruni
(c) Iban- Battuta
(d) Francois Bernier.
Answer:
(a) Abdul Razzaq.

Question 4.
Which of these is a part of Indian history?
(a) Ancient
(b) Medieval
(e) Modern
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 7 The Medieval India

Question 5.
Who among the following is known as intrisic traveller?
(a) Abdul Razzaq
(b) Francois Bernier
(c) Iban-Battuta
(d) Al-Beruni.
Answer:
(c) Iban-Battuta.

Question 6.
The period between 8th and 18th centilry is called
(a) Ancient period
(b) Medieval period
(c) Modern period
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Medieval period.

Question 7.
India was called Aryavarta in _________ period.
(a) Modern
(b) Medieval
(c) Vedic
(d) Mid way.
Answer:
(c) Vedic.

Question 8.
Term ‘Tien Chu’ is used for which country in Chinese?
(a) Punjab
(b) India
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Burma.
Answer:
(b) India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In how many ages can the history of a country be divided?
Answer:
Three ages: Ancient Period, Medieval Period and Modern Period.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 7 The Medieval India

Question 2.
What do you mean by the Medieval period?
Answer:
The period between ancient period and modern period is known as the medieval period.

Question 3.
Which period is called the medieval period in India?
Answer:
The period between 8th century and 18th century.

Question 4.
Why is the 8th century called a century of transformation?
Answer:
The 8th century is called a century of transformation because many social, political, economic, cultural and religious changes took place in this century.

Question 5.
In which period has India been named ‘Aryavarta’? What is its literal meaning?
Answer:
India has been named Aryavarta during Vedic period. Its literal meaning is country of the Aryans;

Question 6.
What are the two parts in which medieval period can be sub-divided?
Answer:

  1. From 8th century to 13th century: This period is called an early medieval period.
  2. From 13th century to 18th century: This period is called later medieval period.

Question 7.
Name the famous musician of Akbar’s court.
Answer:
Tansen.

Question 8.
What were the different names given to India in different periods?
Answer:

  • During Vedic period it was called ‘Aryavarta’.
  • During the period of Mahabharata and Ramayana, its name was ‘Bharatvarsha’.
  • Iranians called it ‘Hindu’ and Greeks called it ‘Indus’.
  • Bible refers India as ‘Hoddu’.
  • When Buddhism was adopted in China, Chinese called it Tien-Chu.
  • After the India travels of Hieun-tsang, it was called ‘Yin-Tu’.

Question 9.
When is considered the end of Medieval period in India?
Answer:
The decline of Mughal Empire and rise of the British Empire is considered as the end of Medieval period. It happened in the middle of eighteenth century.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 7 The Medieval India

Question 10.
“Music is an important source for getting historical information”. Describe.
Answer:
There is no doubt that music is an important source of historical information, about the Mughal period. The Mughal rulers except Aurangzeb were music lovers. So, there was great development of music during this period. Akbar had given a patronage to many musicians in his court. Tansen was the most famous musician. The Hindu and the Muslim culture got mixed with the help of the medium of music during this period.

Question 11.
Which countries comprised the Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
Six countries:

  1. Pakistan
  2. Afghanistan
  3. Nepal
  4. Bhutan
  5. Bangladesh and
  6. India.

Question 12.
Discuss the broad historical trends during the medieval period.
Answer:
Following were the main trends:

  1. During this period, Muslims came to India. They started mixing up with Hindus and as a result, a combined culture developed.
  2. Many languages came into existence which we speak even today. Hindi and Urdu were the main languages.
  3. Many social traditions and religious beliefs took root in this period.
  4. During this period, India established deep mutual relations with the outside world. Trade relations with other countries were established. Customs and traditions of other cultures were adopted.
  5. In India, the Bhakti Movement and Sufi movement were propagated. Thus, Hindus and Muslims had the chance of understanding each other’s religious principles.
  6. Trade and commerce were very much developed.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Fibre to Fabric Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 24)

Question 1.
Name any two natural fibres obtained from plants.
Answer:
Natural Fibres obtained from Plants : (1) Cotton, (2) Bamboo.

Question 2.
Name any two natural fibres obtained from animals.
Answer:
Natural fibres obtained from animals : (1) wool, (2) silk.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Question 3.
Name any three animals which provide us wool.
Answer:
Animals that provide wool : (1) sheep, (2) yak, (3) goat.

Question 4.
Why do some animals have a thick coat of hairs ?
Answer:
The hair of some animals is dense because the wool-giving sheep that are found in cold regions have a dense coat of hair over their body, so that they can keep their body warm in winter. Hair traps a lot of air. This air is a poor conductor of heat and prevents the body heat to escape to the surrounding environment and thus keeps the sheep warm.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 29)

Question 1.
What difference in smell you notice on burning silk thread, thread and wool ?
Answer:
The process of burning of silk gives a smell like burning of meat. When cotton thread bums, it gives smell like burning of paper but the burning of wool gives strong smell like burning of hair.

Question 2.
What type of ash is formed in the above activity ?
Answer:
The ash left after burning of cotton thread is of grey colour. The burning of silk thread and woollen thread produces ash like hollow bead of black colour.

Question 3.
Does the smell of burning of silk thread is same as the smell of burning woollen thread ?
Answer:
No. The smell of burning of silk thread is just like burning of hair while the smell of burning of wool thread is like cooking meat.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Fibre to Fabric Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Wool is obtained from the …………….. of sheep, goat and yak.
Answer:
hairs

(ii) Long hair on the body protect animals from ………………
Answer:
cold

(iii) Removal of fleece from the skin of animal is called ………………
Answer:
shearing

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

(iv) Rearing of silkworm is called ………………….
Answer:
sericulture

(v) The process of unwinding the filaments from the boiled cocoons, is called ………….. .
Answer:
reeling

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Scouring

2. Sericulture

3. Protein

4. Mulberry leaves

5. Lohi

 (a) Food of silkworm

(b) Sheeps found in Rajasthan and Punjab

(c) Silk fibre made up of

(d) Rearing of silkworms

(e) Cleaning sheared fleece

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Scouring

2. Sericulture

3. Protein

4. Mulberry leaves

5. Lohi

 (e) Cleaning sheared fleece

(d) Rearing of silkworms

(c) Silk fibre made up of

(a) Food of silkworm

(b) Sheep found in Rajasthan and Punjab

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The fibre which is not produced by animals:
(a) Angora Wool
(b) Wool
(c) Jute
(d) Silk
Answer:
(c) Jute.

Question (ii)
Wool is commonly obtained from:
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Yak
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Sheep.

Question (iii)
Washing of sheared hair is called:
(a) Scouring
(b) Sorting
(c) Shearing
(d) Dyeing
Answer:
(a) Scouring.

Question (iv)
Wool is chemically:
(a) Fat
(b) Protein
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Fat.

Question (v)
The animal that does not yield wool is:
(a) Alpaca
(b) Woolly dog
(c) Camel
(d) Goat
Answer:
(b) Woolly dog.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

4. Write True or False:

(i) Air is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer:
True

(ii) Air trapped in long hair does not allow body heat to escape from body.
Answer:
True

(iii) In Tibet and Ladakh, wool is obtained from yak.
Answer:
False

(iv) Rearing of silk moths is called apiculture.
Answer:
True

(v) The cover around the body of caterpillar is called cocoon.
Answer:
False

(vi) Tassar silk and moonga silk are produced by silk moth who have been feeding on non-mulberry trees.
Answer:
False

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Names any two plant fibres and animal fibres.
Answer:
Fibres obtained from plants : (1) Husk fibre, (2) Cotton.
Fibres obtained from animals : (1) Wool, (2) Silk.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Question (ii)
What is sericulture ?
Answer:
Sericulture. Cultivation of silkworms to obtain silk is called sericulture.

Question (iii)
Name the common animals who yield fleece.
Answer:
(1) Yak, (2) Sheep, (3) Camel (4) Goat

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What do you understand by Angora and Kashmere wool ?
Answer:
North Angora wool. It is obtained from goats found in mountainous places like Jammu and Kashmir.
Kashmere Wool. Kashmere wool is woven into pashmina shawls.

Question (ii)
Write the states where the following breeds of sheep are found : Lohi, Bakharwal, Nali and Marwari.
Answer:

Types of Sheep State where they are found
Lohi Punjab, Rajasthan
Bakharwal Jammu, Kashmir
Nali Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
Marwari Gujarat

Question (iii)
Write all the steps involved in processing fibres into wool.
Answer:
The Different Stages of Rise to the North

  1. Shearing or cutting
  2. Scouring
  3. Sorting
  4. Combing
  5. Dyeing
  6. Spinning or weaving.

Question (iv)
Why do some animals have a thick coat of hair ?
Answer:
The hair of some animals is dense because the wool-giving sheep that are found in cold regions have a dense coat of hair over their body, so that they can keep their body warm in winter.
Hair traps a lot of air. This air is a poor conductor of heat and prevents the body heat from circulating in the external environment which keeps the sheep warm.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Question (v)
How is silkmoth reared ?
Answer:
Rearing of Silkworm. The female silkworm lays hundreds of eggs at a time. These eggs are carefully collected on cloth strips or paper and kept in healthy conditions, at suitable heat and humidity conditions. The eggs are kept warm to a suitable temperature to allow the larvae to hatch. The larvae, called caterpillars or silkworms, are housed on mulberry leaves.

They eat these leaves day and night and increase in size considerably. Then these are kept in clean bamboo trays with fresh mulberry leaves. After 25-30 days, they stop eating and the caterpillars are moved to bamboo chambers to make cocoons. So the twigs are placed in a tray, with which the cocoons clrng. Caterpillar or silkworms form cocoons in which silkworm develop.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Write all the steps in processing silk from cocoons.
Answer:
The process of making silk from the cocoon. The cocoon has a continuous growth of insect inside it. Silk thread is obtained from the cocoon of the silkworm. Silk threads are used to make silk fabrics. These soft silk threads can be as strong as steel wires. There are many types of silkworms that look different from each other.

The different textures (rough, soft, shiny etc.) of silks like tusser silk, mooga silk, consa silk etc. are obtained from different types of insect cocoons. The most common silkworm is the mulberry silkworm. The silk obtained from this worm is very soft, shiny and flexible. It can be painted in beautiful colours. Sericulture or rearing of silkworms is a very old occupation in India. India produces a lot of silk commercially.

Question (ii)
Draw a labeled diagram and explain the life cycle silkmoth.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric 1
Life Cycle of Silkmoth. The life cycle of the silkworm is summarized in the following steps:
Step 1. The female silkworm lays eggs on the leaves of mulberry.

Step 2. The eggs give birth to larvae that take on an insect-like structure over the next two weeks called a caterpillar or silkworm.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Fibre to Fabric Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The wool is obtained from the …………….. of sheep, goat and yak.
Answer:
skin

(ii) Long hair on the body of animals protect them from ……………… .
Answer:
cold

(iii) The process of yielding wool from the skin of animal is known as ………………….. .
Answer:
shearing

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

(iv) Rearing silk worm is called ………………. .
Answer:
sericulture

(v) The process of removing threads from the boiled cocoon is called ………………….. .
Answer:
reeling.

2. Match the Column I with Column II:

Column I Column II
1. Scouring

2. Mulberry leaves

3. Yak Cocoon

 (a)  Yields silk fibres

(b)  Wool yielding animal

(c)  Food of silk worm.

(d)  Reeling

(e)  Cleaning sheared skin.

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Scouring

2. Mulberry leaves

3. Yak

4. Cocoon

 (e) Cleaning sheared skin.

(c) Food of silk worm.

(b) Wool yielding animal

(a) Yields silk fibres.

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
We get from yak:
(a) silk
(b) cotton
(c) wool
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) wool.

Question (ii)
For making Pashmina shawls, wool is obtained from:
(a) Yak
(b) Camel
(c) Sheep
(d) Angora goat.
Answer:
(d) Angora goat.

Question (iii)
In South America wool is obtained:
(a) Llama and Angora goat
(b) Llama and yak
(c) Sheep and Llama
(d) Llama and Alpaca.
Answer:
(d) Llama and Alpaca.

Question (iv)
Bakharwal breed of sheep is found:
(a) In Punjab
(b) In Rajasthan
(c) In Haryana
(d) In Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:
(d) In Jammu and Kashmir.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Question (v)
The sheep’s hair are mostly cut in:
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Both Summer & Winter
(d) Neither very hot or cold season.
Answer:
(a) Summer.

Question (vi)
Process of taking out silk yarn from cocoons:
(a) Rearing silk worms
(b) Sericulture
(c) Reeling
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Reeling.

Question (vii)
Lohi breed of sheep is found in:
(a) Punjab and Rajasthan
(b) Punjab and Himachal
(c) Punjab and Gujarat
(d) Punjab and Jammu.
Answer:
(a) Punjab and Rajasthan.

4. State True or False:

(i) Pashmina Shawl is made from llama and alpaca wool.
Answer:
True

(ii) Wool is chemically a carbohydrate.
Answer:
False

(iii) Warm silk is obtained from leaf-eating insects.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

(iv) The wool obtained from the Marwari sheep (breed of Gujarat) is very soft.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do hair help animals to keep them warm ?
Answer:
Hair trap a lot of air. As air is bad conductor of heat so it does not allow heat of the body to go to the surroundings and therefore, keeps the animal warm.

Question 2.
From where wool is derived ?
Answer:
Hairy skin of animals.

Question 3.
Name wool yielding animals.
Answer:
Yak, Sheep, Goat, Lama, Alpaca.

Question 4.
What is pashmina ?
Answer:
Pashmina is soft wool obtained from Kashmiri goat.

Question 5.
In which part of India is Yak wool commonly seen ?
Answer:
Tibet and Ladakh.

Question 6.
Which animal is commonly reared for wool ?
Answer:
Sheep.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Question 7.
What is called woollen thread ?
Answer:
Fiber.

Question 8.
In winter, which food is given to sheep ?
Answer:
Leaves, grains, dry fodder.

Question 9.
Which instrument is used for shearing ?
Answer:
Machine similar to those used by barbers.

Question 10.
In which season, fleece is sheared off ?
Answer:
Summer or hot season.

Question 11.
Name some Indian breed of sheep.
Answer:
Lohi, Rampur bushair, Nali, Marwari, Bakharwal, Patanwad.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down the different steps for obtaining wool from sheep.
Answer:
Steps for obtaining wool
Shearing, scouring, sorting, drying, dyeing, spinning and weaving.

Question 2.
In which part of India, sheep are reared for wool ?
Answer:
Hills in Kashmir, Himachal, Uttranchal, Arunachal, Sikkim and plains of Haryana. Punjab, Rajasthan and Gujrat.

Question 3.
Why does shearing not hurt the sheep ?
Answer:
Hair grow on uppermost layer of the skin, which consists of dead cells. So sheep do not feel pain of the time of shearing.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Question 4.
Why is fleece scoured ?
Answer:
Fleece is scoured to remove dirt, grease and dust from it. This process is known as scouring

Question 5.
What happens when silk fibre and artificial silk thread is burned ?
Answer:
Burning of silk fibres produces no smell and no residue is left behind.
While burning of artificial silk thread produces pungent smell and a fluffy residue formed.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in brief the process of obtaining silk ?
Answer:
Silk is obtained from silk moth which are reared and their cocoons are collected to get silk fibre. The process involves two steps:
(i) Rearing silk worms.
(ii) Processing silk.

(i) Rearing silk worms. The eggs layed by female silk moth are stored carefully on strips of cloth or paper and kept under hygienic conditions and suitable temperature and humidity.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric 2
Sometimes eggs are warmed to hatch larvae and these larvae are fed on fresh leaves of mulberry tree. These larvae called caterpillars or silkworms eat day and night to grow into enormous sizes.

These larvae are kept in clean bamboo trays along with freshly chopped mulberry leaves. After 20 to 25 days, the caterpillass or silkworms stop eating and move to a tiny chamber of bamboo tray to spin cocoons. Inside cocoon, develops the silk moth.

(ii) Processing silk. A pile of cocoons is collected and kept under the sun. or boiled or exposed to steam to separate out the silk fibres. These silk fibres are reeled and then spun into silk threads which are woven to give silk cloth.

Question 2.
Describe in brief the steps involved in obtaining wool from sheep.
Answer:
Processing of silk involves the following steps:
(i) Boiling. First cocoons are first boiled in hot water then treated in ovens to kill larvae inside. If in case of larvae a not killed, they are allowed to grow. They will break the cocoon and thereby reducing the length of the silk fibre. The hot water softens the silk gum to the unwinding silk fibre as one continuous thread.

(ii) Reeling. It is the process of taking out the thread from the cocoon. Reeling is done with the help of special machines.

(iii) Throwing. In this step raw silk is twisted to produce thrown silk. It prevents the silk from splittings into individual fibres.

(iv) Deying. Thrown silk is then dyed for making coloured fabrics. Dyed Silk fibres are spun into silk threads, which are waven into silk clothes.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB India in the Eighteenth Century Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Name any four regional powers which rose in the 18th century.
Answer:
South Indian Powers. Marathas, Nizam of Hyderabad, Hyder Ali, and Tipu Sultan from Mysore.
North Indian powers. Bengal, Avadh, Bundelkhand, Mathura, Punjab.

Question 2.
Give an account of the rise of Avadh in the 18th century.
Answer:
Saadat Khan. He was the founder of the free state of Avadh. He became the Subedar of Avadh in 1722 A.D. under the Mughal emperor Muhammad Shah. He improved the economic conditions of the state. He gave special attention to agriculture. In 1739 A.D. he died.

Safdarjung: After the death of Saadat Khan, Safdarjung became the king. In 1754 A.D., he won the areas of Rohelkhand. In 1775 A.D. he died.

Shujauddaula and Asaf-ud-Daulah. After this, Shujauddaula and Asaf-ud-Daulah became the rulers of Avadh. The English Governor-General Warren Hastings compelled Asaf-ud-Daulah to enter into treaty of Faizabad. He even compelled Asaf-ud-Daulah to increase the amount payable to the English army. In 1797 A.D. Asaf-ud-Daulah died.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 3.
How did the Sikhs rise to power in the 18th century?
Answer:
In the 18th century, there was a long struggle between Mughals and the Sikhs. This struggle made the Sikhs very powerful.
Sikhs Under Shri Guru Gobind Singh Ji. The Mughals were very cruel towards Sikhs. Shri Guru Gobind Singh Ji decided to make Sikhs brave warriors. So, to fulfil this objective he founded ‘Khalsa Panth’ in 1699 A.D. After this, there were many battles between the Sikhs and the Muslims. These include the first and second battles of Anandpur Sahib, the battles of Chamkaur Sahib and Khidrana. In the battle of Chamkaur Sahib, two elder sons of Guruji Sahibzada Ajit Singh and Sahibzada Jujhar Singh became martyrs. In 1705 A.D., Guruji defeated Mughals in the battle of Khidrana/Muktsar. In 1708 A.D., Guruji left for his heavenly abode. Before this, he gave the leadership of Sikhs to Banda Bahadur.

Sikhs Under Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur started his victories in 1709 A.D. from Kaithal. After this, he won Samana, Kapuri and Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur decided to take revenge of the martyrdom of sons of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji. So, he won Jalalabad, Karnal, Panipat, Amritsar, Gurdaspur, Kalanaur and Pathankot. In this way he established the Sikh’s state in Punjab. He made Lohgarh his capital. In 1715 A.D., the Mughals captured Banda Bahadur and his companions. They were sent to Delhi where on 19th June, 1716, they were put to death.

Cruelty on Sikhs by Punjab Governors
1. The Mughal emperor Farrukhsiyar appointed Abdus Samad Khan the governor of Punjab in 1716 A.D. He killed numerous Sikhs during his administration period. So, Mughal emperor gave him the designation of the ‘Sword of the State’.

2. In 1726 A.D., the son of Abdus Samad Khan, Zakaria Khan was appointed the Punjab Governor. He adopted a strong policy to crush the Sikhs. He killed Sikhs in great number. In his administration personalities like Bhai Mani Singh, Mehtab Singh, Bhai Taru Singh and Haqiqat Rai were put to death. But he didn’t succeed in crushing the Sikhs.

3. In 1745 A.D., the son of Zakaria Khan, Yahiya Khan became the governor of Punjab. He also continued with the crushing policy. He attacked the Sikhs in Kahnowal (Gurdaspur). During this attack, seven thousand Sikhs were killed and 3000. Sikhs were made prisoners. This incident is known as ‘First Holocaust’.

4. In 1748 A.D., Mir Mannu became the governor of Punjab. He also killed Sikhs in great number. But still the Sikhs organised themselves as a powerful identity.

The invasion of Ahmad Shah Abdali and the establishment of an independent Sikh state in Punjab. Ahmad Shah Abdali was the ruler of Afghanistan. He attacked the Punjab eight times. In 1765, the Sikhs captured Lahore and declared themselves free. But because of lack of some leaders they organised themselves into small groups. These groups were called ‘Misls’. These were 12 in number. Every Misl had a chief, but at the end of 18th century the chief of Shukarchakiya Misl Maharaja Ranjit Singh organised the Misls and established a free state in Punjab.

Question 4.
How did Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan make Mysore powerful?
Answer:
Hyder Ali. Hyder Ali became the ruler of Mysore in 1761 A.D. He made the administration of Mysore very efficient. He respected all the religions. He appointed many Hindus on high posts. He fought many battles with Marathas, Nizam of Hyderabad, rulers of Karnataka and with the English. There were two battles between English and Hyder Ali known as Anglo-Mysore battles. In the first, Anglo-Mysore battle Hyder Ali defeated the English very badly. In 1780 A.D., there was second battle. The battle was continuing when he died. –

Tipu Sultan. After the death of Hyder Ah, his son Tipu Sultan became the ruler of Mysore. He was also a capable ruler like his father. He was also known as the Tiger of Mysore’. He was a great patriot. He wanted to end the tyrannical rule of the English. So, he modernized his army. In 1799 A.D., in the fourth battle of Mysore with the English, he was killed.

Question 5.
Discuss the role of Shivaji in establishing the Maratha Empire.
Answer:
Shivaji was a great patriot. He wanted to establish a free Hindu state by finishing the tyrannical Mughal rule.
Initial Victories .

  1. The first victory was of the^Toran Fort (1646 A.D.). In 1648 he occupied Sinhgarh, Purandhar, and Konkan forts.
  2. He killed Jawli chief Chand Rao and occupied Jawli also.
  3. The increasing power of Shivaji made the Sultan of Bijapur a worried person. So, he sent his general Afzal Khan to kill Shivaji. Afzal Khan wanted to kill Shivaji but he himself was killed attempting this. At last, Shivaji and the Sultan of Bijapur entered into a treaty.

Battle with Mughals. Now Shivaji started attacking the Mughal-occupied areas. Aurangzeb sent his maternal uncle Shaista Khan to control Shivaji but he made him run away from Pune. Now, Aurangzeb sent Raja Jai Singh and Prince Muazzam. Jai Singh snatched many forts from Shivaji and compelled him to enter into a treaty. Shivaji reached Agra where he was imprisoned, but he ran away and reached successfully to Maharashtra. In 1674, he attained the title of ‘Chhatrapati’. He continued his battles with Mughals and won the areas of Jinji, Vellore and Tanjore. In 1680, he died.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Muhammad Shah ruled from ________
Answer:
1719 A.D. to 1748 A.D.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 2.
Murshid Quli Khan was the ________ of Bengal and Orissa.
Answer:
Subedar

Question 3.
Hyder Ali was the ruler of ________
Answer:
Mysore

Question 4.
Saadat Khan became the Subedar of Avadh in ________ AD.
Answer:
1722

Question 5.
Shivaji was the founder of ________ empire.
Answer:
Maratha

Question 6.
Gokul was the leader of ________
Answer:
Jats

Question 7.
Banda Singh Bahadur‘s original name was
Answer:
Lachhman Das.

III. Write True or False for each statement:

Question 1.
Farrukhsiyar became the ruler of Delhi.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 2.
Murshid Quli Khan was the Subedar of Avadh.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Nizam-ul-Mulk founded the state of Hyderabad.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Shivaji was succeeded by his brother Raja Ram.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Balaji Rao became third Peshwa in 1740 A.D.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Badhan Singh was the successor of Gokul.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 7.
Banda Singh Bahadur established a Sikh state in Punjab.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column A Column B
1. Bahadur Shah A. died in 1739 A.D.
2. Shuja-ud-din B. on 20 April 1627.
3. Hyder Ah C. died in 1712 A.D.
4. Tipu Sultan was known D. as the Tiger of Mysore.
5. Shivaji was born E. died in 1782 A.D.
6. Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji F. was on 22 Dec. 1666 A.D.
7. Khalsa Panth G. was founded on 13 April 1699 A.D.

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Bahadur Shah C. died in 1712 A.D.
2. Shuja ud din A. died in 1739 A.D.
3. Hyder Ah E. died in 1782 A.D.
4. Tipu Sultan was known D. as the Tiger of Mysore.
5. Shivaji was born B. on 20 April 1627.
6. Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji F. was on 22 Dec. 1666 A.D.
7. Khalsa Panth G. was founded on 13 April 1699 A.D.

V. Activity :

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, mark the extents of kingdoms that declared themselves independent during the Mughal empire in the 18th century.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of Indian Map.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide India in the Eighteenth Century Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When was the third battle of Panipat fought?
(a) 1750 A.D.
(b) 1755 A.D.
(c) 1761 A.D.
(d) 1766 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1761 A.D.

Question 2.
Why was Mughal Empire declined?
(a) Depleted financial and military resources
(b) Increasing power of nobles
(c) Peasant and Zamindari rebellions
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 3.
When did Nadir Shah attack and capture city of Delhi?
(a) 1739 A.D.
(b) 1741 A.D.
(c) 1737 A.D.
(d) 1743 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1739 A.D.

Question 4.
How many times Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded India from 1748 till 1761 A.D.?
(a) Two
(b) Five
(c) Seven
(d) Four.
Answer:
(b) Five.

Question 5.
Which of these groups of nobles was there in Mughal court?
(a) Irani’s
(b) Turani’s
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both a and b.

Question 6.
Which of these emperors was killed by Mughal nobles?
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Farrukh Siyar
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Ahmad Shah.
Answer:
(b) Farrukh Siyar.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who were latter Mughals?
Answer:
The Mughals who ruled after the death of Aurangzeb were called latter Mughals. They were so powerless and incapable that they could not control the far off states of the Mughal Empire.

Question 2.
Write one reason for the rise of independent states in India in 18th century.
Answer:
In 1707, A.D., the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb died and in the period of his weak successors many powers established their independent states.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 3.
How did Murshid Quli Khan increase his power?
Answer:
Murshid Quli Khan increased his power by annexing Bihar and Orissa to his state.

Question 4.
Write the names of two successors of Bengal ruler Murshid Quli Khan.
Answer:
Two successful successors were Shuja-ud-din and Aliwardi Khan.

Question 5.
Where and when did Alivardi Khan rule?
Answer:
Alivardi Khan ruled over Bengal from 1740 to 1756 A.D.

Question 6.
Who established the free state of Hyderabad and when?
Answer:
This state was founded by Nizam-ul-mulq-Asifjah in 1724 A.D.

Question 7.
Write two works of Hyderabad Nizam.
Answer:

  1. He established law and order and brought important improvements in the administration.
  2. He treated Hindus and Muslims equally.

Question 8.
Give any one reason for the decline of Hyderabad state.
Answer:
In 1748 the powerful ruler Nizam Asifjah died. His successors proved incapable and the state declined.

Question 9.
Who was the founder of the independent state of Awadh? What was his designation?
Answer:
The founder was Saadat Khan, he had the designation of Buhran-ul-Mulk.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 10.
Write some important works of Saadat Khan, the independent ruler of Awadh.
Answer:
Saadat Khan introduced a new land policy that greatly benefited the farmers.

Question 11.
Who was the successor of Saadat Khan? (the ruler of Avadh)? Write his one success.
Answer:
The successor of Saadat Khan was his nephew and son-in-law Safadar Jung. He annexed Allahabad to his state.

Question 12.
Write the names of two famous foreign invaders of 18th century. When did they invade India?
Answer:
The two famous foreign invaders were Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali. Nadir Shah invaded India in 1739 A.D. and Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded India five times from 1748 to 1758 A.D.

Question 13.
Which ruler ended the Misl rule in Punjab? To which Misl did he belong?
Answer:
Maharaja Ranjit Singh ended the rule of Misls and established a powerful state of Punjab. He belonged to Shukarchakia Misl.

Question 14.
Write names of two free rulers of Mysore state.
Answer:
Two free rulers were Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan.

Question 15.
Who were Peshwas? Who was the very first Peshwa?
Answer:
The prime minister in Maratha kingdom was called Peshwa. Under Sahuji, Peshwas became the real rulers of the Maratha Kingdom. The very first Peshwa was Balaji Vishwanath.

Question 16.
When did Balaji Vishwanath become Peshwa? Write his one achievement.
Answer:
He became Peshwa in 1713 A.D. He got Shahuji’s mother released from the Mughal custody.

Question 17.
Write two successors of Balaji Vishwanath.
Answer:
Baji Rao I and Balaji Baji Rao.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 18.
Write one weakness of Marathas.
Answer:
The Maratha sardars were jealous of each other. Because of this hatred their state declined.

Question 19.
Write any one success of Baji Rao I?
Answer:
Peshwa Baji Rao I won many states and expanded the Maratha state upto Delhi.

Question 20.
Write the names of Jat leaders who struggled against Mughal&
Answer:
The main Jat leaders were Gokul, Raja Ram and Churaman.

Question 21.
When was Shivaji born?
Answer:
In 1627 A.D.

Question 22.
Who was Shaista Khan?
Answer:
He was the maternal uncle of Aurangzeb. He was a capable army general. Aurangzeb appointed him the Governor of South.

Question 23.
Write about the Treaty of Purandhar.
Answer:
The Treaty of Purandhar took place between Mughal general Raja Jai Singh and Shivaji. According to this treaty, Shivaji had to accept the subordination of the Mughals and gave 23 forts to Mughals.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 24.
What was the name of Bijapur official who was sent against Shivaji?
Answer:
His name was Afzal Khan. He was sent by the Sultan of Bijapur.

Question 25.
When did Shivaji ascend the throne? What designation did he attain?
Answer:
Shivaji sat on the throne in 1674 arid he assumed the designation of ‘Chhatrapati’.

Question 26.
Who was the faujdar of Sirhind at the time of Banda Bahadur and in which battle did Banda Bahadur kill him?
Answer:
At that time Wazir Khan was the faujdar of Sirhind. Banda Bahadur killed him in the battle of Chapparchiri.

Question 27.
How did Shivaji kill Afzal Khan?
Answer:
Afzal Khan wanted to kill Shivaji by fraud. So, he invited Shivaji to meet alone. He also told him that he wanted to enter into a treaty with Shivaji, but Shivaji came to know of his conspiracy. He wore iron cover under his clothes and took a dagger with him. Both of them embraced each other. Afzal Khan tried to put a knife into Shivaji’s stomach but Shivaji quickly put the dagger into his tummy and killed Afzal Khan.

Question 28.
Describe the confrontation of Shivaji with Shaista Khan.
Answer:
The Mughal emperor Aurangzeb wanted to demolish the increasing power of Shivaji. He appointed Shaista Khan, his maternal uncle as the Governor of South. Shaista Khan captured many Maratha forts within 2-3 years and also captured Pune. Shaista Khan had to spend some time in Pune because of rainy season. Shivaji took this opportunity and entered Pune in the form of the marriage party along with 400 soldiers. Towards midnight they attacked the residence of Shaista Khan. In this attack Shaista Khan’s son and his 40 soldiers were killed. With this win Shivaji’s honour increased far and wide.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 29.
Who were the parties in the 3rd battle of Panipat and what were its results?
Answer:
The 3rd battle of Panipat took place between Ahmad Shah Abdali and Marathas in 1761 A.D. Ahmad Shah Abdali emerged victorious.

Question 30.
What was the main reason for 3rd battle of Panipat?
Answer:
Marathas had expanded their empire upto Punjab in North India. The ruler of Afghanisthan, Ahmad Shah Abdali, considered Punjab a part of his ruled area. So, to punish Marathas he fought against them in the battlefield of Panipat.

Question 31.
Write any one reason for the defeat of Marathas in the third battle of Panipat.
Answer:
In the battle, the military system of Marathas was not good. Abdali was a skilled general. He made a strategy because of which the Marathas could not get any help from the South side. So, they were defeated.

Question 32.
Write one result of third battle of Panipat.
Answer:
The Maratha power ended because most of their soldiers and generals were killed.

Question 33.
When did Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao die?
Answer:
He died in 1761 A.D. The main reason behind his death-was the Maratha defeat in the 3rd battle of Panipat.

Question 34.
Describe in brief about the latter Mughals.
Answer:
The incapable successors of Aurangzeb are called latter Mughals. The description is as follows :
1. Bahadur Shah I (1707-1712): He ruled for six years but could not control Marathas and Sikhs. He died in 1712.

2. Jahandar Shah: The son of Bahadur Shah I, Jahandar Shah sat on the throne. He ruled for few months. During his administration the Sayyed brothers Hussain Ali and Abdul became very powerful. They wanted to make Jahandar Shah a puppet. When they couldn’t succeed in their efforts, they killed Jahandar Shah.

3. Farrukhsiyar (1713-1719): After Jahandar’s death his nephew Farrukhsiyar sat on the throne. He was a king in name only. The real authority was in the hands of Sayyed brothers, Hussain Ali and Abdul. In 1719 A.D. the Sayyed brothers killed him also.

4. Muhammed Shah: Mohammed Shah was another famous ruler. He ruled from 1719-1748 A.D. During his period the influnce of Sayyed brothers had decreased. But he did not try to organise his empire. So, the powerful governors of different parts of the country established their independent states.

5. Bahadur Shah Zafar: He was the last Mughal emperor who was thrown out by the English and the Mughal empire ended.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 35.
Describe the rise and fall of Bengal state.
Answer:
Bengal state was a rich state of Mughal empire. Its governor was Murshid Quli Khan. After the death of Aurangzeb, Murshid Quli Khan established a free state in Bengal. The development of Bengal under these rulers is as follows :
1. Murshid Quli Khan: He was the founder of Bengal state. He increased his power by combining Bihar and Orissa between 1714 and 1718 A.D.

2. Other rulers: Other famous rulers were Shuja-ud-din (1727-1739), Sarfaraz (1739) and Alivardi Khan (1740-1756). All these rulers established law and order in the state. They worked for the development of agriculture, trade and industry. Thus, the Bengal state became very rich.

3. Decline of the state: The Bengal rulers worked for the development of the state. But didn’t pay attention to the defence of the state. As a result, the Bengal state declined.

Question 36.
Describe the rise and fall of Hyderabad state.
Or
Describe the main successes of Nizam-ul-Mulk, the ruler of Hyderabad.
Answer:
Hyderabad was a South Indian state under the Mughal Empire. In 1724 A.D., Nizam-ul-Mulk Asifjah founded an independent state. He showed his faithfulness, towards the then Mughal ruler, Mohammed Shah but it was just on the surface.

Successes of Asifjah. Asifjah was a successful ruler. He established law and order in his state. He treated his Hindu subjects well. He made his army strong and defended his state from powerful Marathas. He died in 1748.

Decline of the state : The successors of Asifjalf were weak and incapable. So, they couldn’t preserve their freedom for a long time.

Question 37.
Write a note on Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was born on 27th October 1670 in Poonch sector (Jammu). His real name was Lachhman Das. He came in contact with Guru Gobind Singh Ji in Deccan. He was impressed by Guruji and called himself “Guru ka Baiida”. Guruji gave him the designation of “Bahadur”. Thus, he was called Banda Bahadur. On the order of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, he came to Punjab and led the Sikhs. He took revenge from Governor of Sirhind Wazir Khan because he was responsible for the death of the sons of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. In fact, he tried to win all those places where the rulers had tried to torture Guruji. But in the end, he was caught. On 19th June 1716, he was put to death in Delhi. His martyrdom is written in golden words in the history of Punjab.

Question 38.
Write about the rebellion of Jats and Rajputs during the period of Aurangzeb.
Answer:
The period of Aurangzeb was very disturbed. The main reason for the rebellions was the wrong and cruel policies of Aurangzeb.

  1. The Jats: The Jats turned rebels in 1669 A.D. They killed the Mughal governor. The emperor suppressed them very friendly but the Jats remained uncontrollable.
  2. Rajputs: Aurangzeb made Rajput his detractors because of his orthodox and strict policies. As a result, Aurangzeb had to fight a long battle with the Rajputs of Mewar and Marwar. Veer Durga Das of Marwar damaged the Mughal army by indulging in Guirrella warfare.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 India in the Eighteenth Century

Question 39.
Describe the administrative .system of Marathas (Shivaji).
Answer:
Shivaji had founded a free Maratha state. He founded an efficient administrative system in his state.
The main features were as given ahead:

  • Raja: The chief of the whole administration was Raja. He was called ‘Chhatrapati’. The Raja had many rights. He could do any work as per his sweet will. He has appointed a council of eight ministers (Asthapradhan).
  • Asthapradhan: It was a council of eight ministers. The highest minister of Asthapradhan was known as ‘Peshwa’.
  • Land arrangement: Shivaji made a new land arrangement to give salaries to soldiers as well as other expenses. He got the whole land measured. There were two taxes known as Chauth and Sardeshmukhi. Chauth was charged to defend the people from the Mughals.
  • Judicial system: Shivaji was a justice lover. He established panchayats to deliver justice at the village level.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Physical and Chemical Changes Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 59)

Question 1.
Mention whether the cutting of paper is a reversible or irreversible change.
Answer:
Cutting a paper is not a reversible change because the pieces cannot be reconnected to form the original piece. So this is an irreversible change

Question 2.
Is the cutting of paper a physical or a chemical change?
Answer:
Cutting of paper into pieces changes its shape, but no new material is formed. Therefore, it is a physical change.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 59)

Question 1.
Can you recover chalk from dust?
Answer:
Yes we can get chalk from chalk powder by making a paste of chalk powder. Then giving it a shape of chalk and allowing it to become dry.

Question 2.
Does chalk powder dissolve in water?
Answer:
No, chalk powder is insoluble in water.

Question 3.
What is the nature of above change. Is it physical or chemical?
Answer:
Chalk powder can be made into chalk, meaning you can get the basic substance (chalk powder) from it which has same properties as before but has changed in shape and size. It can be beaten to make chalk powder again. So this is a physical change only.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 60)

Question 1.
Ice melts into water with ……………….. in temperature.
Answer:
Ice melts into water with increase in temperature.

Question 2.
Water changes to ice with …………………. in temperature.
Answer:
Water changes to ice with decrease in temperature.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 61)

Question 1.
What is Evaporation ?
Answer:
Evaporation. This is the process by which a liquid is heated to a certain temperature and get converted into its gaseous form.

Question 2.
Define Condensation.
Answer:
Condensation. This is the process by which the vapours are cooled and converted into a liquid. This process is the opposite of evaporation process.
In the same way if the water vapours are cooled, then they are converted into water (liquid form).

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Question 3.
Water changes into gaseous form with ………………… in temperature.
Answer:
Water changes into gaseous form with increase in temperature.

Question 4.
Water changes from gaseous state to liquid state with ………………. of temperature.
Answer:
Water changes from gaseous state to liquid state with decrease of temperature.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 61)

Question 1.
Which colour do you notice on heating the free end of hacksaw blade ?
Answer:
When heated, the free of the blade becomes red and when it is removed from the fire it is cooled and returns to its original colour.

Question 2.
Is the physical change reversible or irreversible ?
Answer:
Physical change is a reversible change because no new substances having new properties are seen to be formed in the process and on reversing the circumstances it returns to its original state.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 62)

Question 1.
Define a physical change.
Answer:
Physical change. It is a temporary change in which the physical properties of an object change such as change in colour, size, length, etc.

Question 2.
Is a new substance formed during a physical change ?
Answer:
During physical change no new substance with new properties is formed.

Question 3.
Explain any two examples of physical change from your surroundings.
Answer:
Examples of physical change:

  1. Melting of wax,
  2. Melting of ice,
  3. Freezing of water into ice,
  4. Dissolving sugar in water.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 64)

Question 1.
What type of metal oxide is formed on burning of magnesium ribbon ?
Answer:
Magnesium combines with oxygen of the air to form Magnesium ribbons. Magnesium oxide is a basic oxide.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Question 2.
What is the colour of magnesium oxide formed on heating magnesium ?
Answer:
Magnesium ribbon during combustion form white coulred powder of magnesium oxide.

Question 3.
Which paper do you use to check acidic or basic nature of any solution ?
Answer:
To test the nature of magnesium oxide, red litmus paper is used, which turns blue because the solution is basic (alkaline) in nature.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 65)

Question 1.
What is the common name of copper sulphate ?
Answer:
The common name for Copper sulphate is Blue vitriol.

Question 2.
Write the colour and chemical formula of ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
The chemical formula of Iron sulphate is FeSO4 and colour of iron sulphate is green.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 66)

Question 1.
What is the formula of lime water ?
Answer:
Chemical formula of lime water is Ca(OH)2.

Question 2.
How the presence of CO2 gas can be detected ?
Answer:
When Carbon dioxide gas is passed through freshly prepared lime water, then lime water turns milky due to the formation of calcium carbonate.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 1

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 67)

Question 1.
What is a chemical change ?
Answer:
Chemical change. A change in which one or more new substances are formed which differ in structure and properties from the original reacting substances, is called chemical change.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Question 2.
Write two observations to see chemical change.
Answer:

  1. Formation of a substance having new properties.
  2. Change in chemical composition.

Question 3.
What is lime water ?
Answer:
Lime water a solution of Calcium hydroxide.

Question 4.
What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water ?
Answer:
When carbon dioxide passes through lime water, calcium carbonate is formed due to which its colour becomes milky.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 2

Question 5.
Name the gas evolved when acetic acid (vinegar) reacts with baking soda.
Answer:
When vinegar (Acetic acid) reacts with baking soda, it produces carbon dioxide gas.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 3

Question 6.
What is the colour and formula of copper sulphate ?
Answer:
Colour of Copper sulphate. Blue Chemical formula of Copper sulphate. CuSO4

Question 7.
Name some compounds formed as a result of chemical reactions.
Answer:
Names of some compounds formed as a result of chemical reactions-

  1. Calcium carbonate,
  2. Sodium chloride,
  3. Sodium nitrate,
  4. Copper Sulphate,
  5. Water,
  6. Carbon dioxide,
  7. Magnesium oxide.

Question 8.
In Chapter 5, you neutralised an acid with a base. Is neutralisation a chemical change ?
Answer:
Neutralisation is a chemical change because acids and alkalis combine to form salt and water as products. The composition and properties of salts are different from acid nor alkali, i.e. a new substance with new properties is formed. From this it is clear that neutralisation is a chemical change.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 69)

Question 1.
What is end product in the process of crystallisation ?
Answer:
In the process of crystallization only clear crystals are formed. No new substance having new composition and new properties is formed. So this is a physical change.

Question 2.
When will you stop dissolving copper sulphate powder to hot water ?
Answer:
Continue to dissolve the Copper Sulphate powder in hot water till it is not possible to dissolve more of Copper sulphate. This state is called the saturation state. When more copper sulphate cannot be dissolved, then leave the solution to cool.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Physical and Chemical Changes Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) A changes in which only physical properties of a substance are changed, is a ……………….
change.
Answer:
Physical

(ii) Changes that lead to formation of new substance are called ………………. changes.
Answer:
Chemical Change

(iii) Fossil fuels produce …………………. gas on burning.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

(iv) When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, it turns ……………… .
Answer:
Milky White

(v) ……………….. is the method for the prevention of rusting of iron objects.
Answer:
Coating

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Physical change (a) Galvanization
(ii) Chemical change (b) Formation of a new substance
(iii) Prevention from rusting (c) Mixing of vinegar and Baking Soda
(iv) Evolution of carbon dioxide (d) Reversible change

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Physical change (d) Reversible change
(ii) Chemical change (b) Formation of a new substance
(iii) Prevention from rusting (a) Galvanization
(iv) Evolution of carbon dioxide (c) Mixing of vinegar and Baking Soda

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The example of chemical change is:
(a) erruption of volcano
(b) burning of candle
(c) cooking of food
(d All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (ii)
When acetic acid is mixed with baking soda, the gas evolved is:
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) carbon monoxide
Answer:
(c) carbon dioxide.

Question (iii)
For rusting of iron objects, the essential requirement is:
(a) air (oxygen)
(b) moisture (water)
(c) open surface of object
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (iv)
For prevention of rust, we use:
(a) a coat of oil and grease
(b) a coat of paint
(b) galvanization
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (v)
The chemical formula of Rust is:
(a) Fe2O3
(b) FeCO3
(c) Fe2O3xH2O)
(d) FeCO3.xH2O
Answer:
(c) Fe2O3xH2O).

4. State True or False:

(i) Cutting a log of wood into pieces is a chemical change.
Answer:
True

(ii) Formation of manure from leaves is a physical change.
Answer:
False

(iii) Iron pipes coated with zinc do not get rusted easily.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

(iv) Iron and rust are the same substances.
Answer:
False

(v) Condensation of steam is not a chemical change.
Answer:
True

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is Rust ? Write its chemical formula.
Answer:
Rust.
When iron and items made of iron are exposed to the environment then the objects are attacked both by oxygen (air) and moisture present in the atmosphere. The surface of iron and iron items get covered by a layer of red, brown or orange color substance. This layer is called rust and this process is called corrosion of iron (Rusting of iron).
Chemical formula of rust: Fe2O3xH2O)

Question (ii)
Write the conditions necessary for rusting of iron.
Answer:
Conditions for rusting are:

  1. The open surface of an object made of iron.
  2. Presence of air (oxygen).
  3. Presence of moisture (water).

Question (iii)
Why are iron objects painted frequently ?
Answer:
Iron objects are painted so that the surface is not exposed to air (oxygen) and water in order to prevent the surface of iron from rusting.

Question (iv)
What is galvanization ?
Answer:
Galvanization. The process of depositing a layer of inert metal such as aluminium or zinc on the surface of iron objects, is called Galvanization.

Question (v)
Name two metals which are deposited on the surface of iron objects during the process of galvanization.
Answer:
Metals that are deposited on Iron are:

  1. Chromium and
  2. Nickel.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Question (vi)
Burning of candle is an example of which type of change-physical or chemical change ? Give reasons.
Answer:
Burning of candle is a chemical change because the wich of candle is made up of carbon and hydrogen. Candle flame burns to produce carbon dioxide and water which enters the atmosphere. On the other hand candle wax melts as a result of which its length decreases. Which is a physical change. Therefore it is an example of both physical and a chemical change.

Question (vii)
Why burning of fireworks is harmful ?
Answer:
The explosion of fireworks is a chemical change. Such explosions produce heat, light, noise and toxic gases, which pollute the atmosphere. So the pleasure of exploding fireworks is harmful exercise. The process of obtaining you are, therefore, advised not to use firecrackers.

Question (viii)
What is crystallisation ?
Answer:
Crystallisation.
Pure and large-sized geometrical shape of a substance from saturated solution of a substance is called crystallisation.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Mixing of baking soda and vinegar is a chemical change or a physical change. Discuss.
Answer:
When Vinegar (acetic acid) is mixed with baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) carbon dioxide, sodium acetate and water are formed. The composition and properties of these products are .very different from the reactants vinegar and baking soda, i.e. new substances with new properties are formed. So this reaction is a chemical change.

Question (ii)
Explain how cutting and burning wood are different type of change ?
Answer:
Cutting a piece of wood is a physical change because there is no formation of new substance having new properties.
Burning of wood on the other hand is a chemical change because after burning wood new substances carbondioxide water and ash are formed. We cannot reverse the process to get original substance (wood).

Question (iii)
What will happen when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water ?
Answer:
When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, lime water becomes milky as it becomes Calcium carbonate.

Question (iv)
Why does the colour of copper sulphate (CuSO4) solution change, when an iron nail is dipped into it ? Write chemical equation also.
Answer:
Iron nail dipped here iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution in Copper sulphate solution changes the colour of Copper sulphate solution from blue to green due to the
formation of Iron sulphate.
Chemical Equation:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 4

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Question (v)
Magnesium ribbon is burnt and the ash formed is mixed with water. Now answer the following:
(a) Write equation for the burning of magnesium.
(b) What will happen when the mixture of ash and water is added to (a) blue litmus solution and (b) red litmus solution.
(c) Name the substances formed by mixing ash and water. Is acidic or basic ?
Answer:
(a) 2Mg + O2 > 2MgO (Magnesium oxide)

(b) When blue litmus is added to a solution of magnesium ash and water it does not change in colour. But on adding red litmus, the colour of litmus turns blue. This is because the solution of magnesium oxide is alkaline therefore, turns red litmus to blue.

(c) When Magnesium oxide ash is mixed with water it forms Mg (OH)2 which is alkaline.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What are physical and chemical changes ? Write differences between physical and chemical changes.
Answer:
Physical change.
It is a temporary change in which only the physical properties of a substance change i.e. change in colour, size, length, etc. This is therefore, a physical change. Physical change can be reversed by reversing the conditions. No new substance is formed in such a change.
Examples : Melting of wax, freezing of water into ice, magnetization of iron etc.

Chemical change.
A change in which new substances with one or more new properties are formed is called chemical change.
Examples : Burning of coal or wood, making of yogurt from milk, burning of magnesium ribbon, food spoilage, etc.

Differences between Physical and Chemical changes:

Physical change Chemical change
(i) This is a temporary change. (i) This is a permanent change.
(ii) No new substance is formed in it. (ii) New substances with new properties are formed in it.
(iii) Products can be returned by simple methods. (iii) Products cannot be reversed by ordinary

means.
(iv) No difference in the composition of the substance. (iv) Great difference in the composition of

material.
(v) There is no energy change. (v) There is energy change.

Question (ii)
What do you understand by rusting of iron ? Write the necessary conditions required for rusting of iron objects. How rusting of iron and iron objects can be prevented ?
Answer:
Iron rust.
This is a change in which iron and iron products are attacked when they come in contact with atmospheric air (oxygen) and moisture (water). As a result of this a reddish layer is formed on the surface of iron. This process weakens the strength of iron. This process and is called corrosion. This red dish brown layer formed on iron surface is called rust.

Conditions required for rusting :
(1) The open surface of an iron object.
(2) Presence of air (oxygen)
(3) Presence of moisture (water).

Measures to prevent iron from rusting : By preventing iron objects from coming into contact with oxygen (air) and water, we can prevent or reduce the process of rusting iron.

Iron can be prevented from rusting in the following ways :
(1) Applying a grease or oil coating. Applying a thin layer of grease / oil on the surface of iron products can prevent rusting.

(2) Paint. Corrosion can be prevented by applying a uniform and continuous layer of paint on the surface.

(3) Galvanisation. By depositing a layer of inert metal on the iron surface, the iron surface can be prevented from coming in contact with air and water. This process is called Galvanisation. Metals such as chromium and nickel are commonly used for iron coating.

Question (iii)
Give detail of process of crystallisation of copper sulphate (CuSO4).
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 5
Method of making crystals of Copper Sulphate. Fill a beaker with water add a few drops of sulphuric acid. Heat it on a spirit lamp. When water starts boiling, add Copper sulphate powder slowly in it and keep stirring the solution. When the copper sulphate dissolves, add more copper sulphate powder until it does not dissolve any more powder. It is a saturated solution of Copper sulphate. Now leave this solution to cool. After a while you will see crystals of Copper sulphate formed. Filter it and keep the crystals to dry.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Physical and Chemical Changes Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) When carbondioxide is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to formation of ……………… .
Answer:
Calcium carbonate

(ii) The chemical name of baking soda is …………………
Answer:
Sodium bi-carbonate

(iii) Two methods by which rusting of iron can be prevented are ………………. and …………..
Answer:
Painting, galvanization

(iv) Changes in which only …………………. properties of a substance change are called physical
changes.
Answer:
physical

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

(v) Changes in which new substances are formed are called ………………… changes.
Answer:
chemical

2. Match the Column I with Column II:

Column I Column II
(i) Carbon dioxide (a) Temporary change
(ii) Chemical changes (b) Turns lime water milky
(iii) Burning of magnesium wire in air (c) Evaporation
(iv) Physical change (d) Chemical change
(v) Conversion of water to vapours. (e) Formation of new products

Answer:

Column I Column II
(i) Carbon dioxide (b) Turns lime water milky
(ii) Chemical changes (e) Formation of new products
(iii) Burning of magnesium wire in air (d) Chemical change
(iv) Physical change (a) Temporary change
(v) Conversion of water to vapours. (c) Evaporation

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Rust is:
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Iron
(d) Iron oxide
Answer:
(d) Iron oxide.

Question (ii)
Which of the following is not a physical transformation?
(a) Rusting of iron
(b) Melting of ice
(c) Dissolving sugar in water
(d) Freezing of water
Answer:
(a) Rusting of iron

Question (iii)
…………………. is a physical change.
(a) Rusting of iron
(b) Burning of magnesium ribbon
(c) Switching on light bulb
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Switching on light bulb.

Question (iv)
Whose crystals cannot be obtained?
(a) Sodium Chloride
(b) Copper Sulphate
(c) Carbon
(d) Iron sulphate
Answer:
(c) Carbon.

Question (v)
…………….. is the reaction of acid and alkali.
(a) Mixing
(b) Neutralisation
(c) Galvanization
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Neutralisation.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Question (vi)
The method of zinc coating on iron object is:
(a) Making alloys
(b) Neutralisation
(c) Galvanization
(d) Crystallization
Answer:
(c) Galvanization.

State True or False:

(i) Cutting a log of wood into pieces is a chemical change.
Answer:
False

(ii) Formation of manure from leaves is a physical change.
Answer:
False

(iii) Iron pieces coated with zinc do not get rusted easily.
Answer:
True

(iv) Iron and rust are the same substances.
Answer:
False

(v) Condensation of steam is not a chemical change.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which type of change occurs when a rubber band is stretched ?
Answer:
Physical change.

Question 2.
Give an example of physical change caused due to air.
Answer:
Blowing a balloon.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Question 3.
What happens when a chemical change takes place ?
Answer:
New substance having new properties is formed.

Question 4.
What is rust ?
Answer:
Rust. It is a film of brownish iron oxide formed on iron articles due to moist air of the atmosphere.

Question 5.
What are two conditions necessary for rusting ?
Answer:
Presence of (i) air and (ii) water.

Question 6.
What happens when ash obtained from burning magnesium ribbon is dissolved in water ?
Answer:
Magnesium hydroxide is formed.

Question 7.
What is the nature of magnesium hydroxide ?
Answer:
It is basic in nature.

Question 8.
What is colour of copper sulphate solution ?
Answer:
Blue.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Question 9.
What happens when a nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution ?
Answer:
Blue colour of copper sulphate solution changes to green colour.

Question 10.
Which gas is formed when vinegar is mixed with baking soda ?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide gas.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Classify the following as physical or chemical changes:
(i) Melting of glass.
(ii) Burning of agarbatti.
(iii) Tearing of cloth.
(iv) Formation of seed from flower.
(v) Cooking of food.
(vi) Formation of cloud.
Answer:
Physical changes. Melting of glass, Tearing of cloth, Formation of cloud.
Chemical changes. Burning of agarbatti, Formation of seed from flower, Cooking of food.

Question 2.
Write characteristics of a physical change.
Answer:
Characteristics of a physical change:

  1. The final products are similar to the original substances.
  2. No new substances are formed.
  3. This change is easily reversible.
  4. It is a temporary change.
  5. The energy evolved during this change is very low.
  6. The total mass of reactants as well as products remains same.

Question 3.
Give characteristics of chemical change.
Answer:
Characteristics of chemical change:

  • One or more new substances are formed.
  • It is a permanent change and cannot be reversed easily.
  • Energy change during chemical change is usually large.
  • Total mass of reactants and products remains constant during the change.

Question 4.
Why is burning magnesium ribbon a chemical change ?
Answer:
Burning of Magnesium ribbon. When magnesium ribbon is burned in air, it gives out white bright light and changes into white ash. Since ash (magnesium oxide) is a new substance having different properties. So, burning of magnesium ribbon is a chemical change.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Question 5.
Why dissolving sugar in water is a physical change ?
Answer:
Dissolution of sugar in water. When sugar crystals are stirred in water, a clear solution is obtained. It is a physical change on the following basis:

  1. No new substance is formed.
  2. Sugar can be recovered by the process of crystallization.
  3. The change is not accompained by heat.
  4. Mass of sugar solution is equal to mass of water and sugar crystals.

Question 6.
When baking soda is mixed with lemon juice, bubbles are formed with the evolution of gas. What type of a change is it ? Explain.
Answer:
When baking soda is mixed with lemon juice (a weak acid) then carbondioxide is evolved in the form of bubbles.
This change is an example of a chemical change.

Question 7.
Explain why burning of wood and cutting it into small pieces are considered as two different types of changes.
Answer:
Burning of wood is a chemical change as wood on burning produces gases and ash.
Cutting of wood into its pieces have same physical properties. It is therefore, a physical change.

Question 8.
Explain how painting of an iron gate prevents it from rusting.
Answer:
Prevention of iron gate from rusting by painting. Rusting occurs in the presence of both water and air. If a coat of paint is applied to iron gate, its contact with air is broken and rusting is prevented.

Question 9.
Explain why rusting of iron objects is faster in coastal areas than in deserts.
Answer:
Faster rusting in coastal areas. The presence of humid air in coastal areas increases the rate of rusting. But on the other hand in deserts, air is dry, which inhibits the rate of rusting of iron.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is crystallization? How will you prepare crystals of alum?
Answer:
Crystallization. It is the process of separating a pure substance in the form of crystals having well defined, geometrical shape from its hot saturated solution by cooling. This process is very commonly used to purify solid substances.
To prepare crystals of alum
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes 6
Take some distilled water in a beaker. Go on adding alum powder in installments slowly simultaneously with continuous stirring of the solution with a glass rod. Heat the beaker gently and try to dissolve more alum powder till it stops dissolving more alum powder. Filter the hot saturated solution in a glass beaker and allow it to cool. Observe the solution. Well-defined crystals of alum will be obtained after some time.