Class 12

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Physics Book Solutions Chapter 13 Nuclei Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 13 Nuclei

PSEB 12th Class Physics Guide Nuclei Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
(a) Two stable isotopes of lithium ₃⁶Li and ₃⁷Li have respective
abundances of 7.5% and 92.5%. These isotopes have masses 6.01512 u and 7.01600 u, respectively. Find the atomic mass of lithium.
Boron has two stable isotopes, ₅¹⁰B and ₅¹¹B. Their respective masses are 10.01294 u and 11.00931 u, and the atomic mass of boron is 10.811 u. Find the abundances of ₅¹⁰B and ₅¹¹B.
Answer:
(a) Mass of ₃⁶Li lithium isotope, m₁ = 6.01512 u
Mass of ₃⁷Li lithium isotope, m₂ = 7.01600 u
Abundance of ₃⁶Li, n₁ = 7.5%
Abundance of ₃⁷Li, n₂ = 92.5%
The atomic mass of lithium atom is given as
m = \(\frac{m_{1} n_{1}+m_{2} n_{2}}{n_{1}+n_{2}}\)
= \(\frac{6.01512 \times 7.5+7.01600 \times 92.5}{7.5+92.5}\) = 6.940934 u
Mass of boron isotope ₅¹⁰B, m₁=10.01294 u
Mass of boron isotope ₅¹¹B, m₂ = 11.00931 u
Abundance of ₅¹⁰B,n₁ = x%
Abundance of ₅¹¹B, n₂ = (100 – x)%

Atomic mass of boron, m = 10.811 u.
The atomic mass of boron atom is given as
m = \(\frac{m_{1} n_{1}+m_{2} n_{2}}{n_{1}+n_{2}}\)
10.811 = \(\frac{10.01294 \times x+11.00931 \times(100-x)}{x+100-x}\)
1081.11 = 10.01294 x + 1100.931 – 11.00931 x
∴ x = \(\frac{19.821}{0.99637}\) = 19.89%
And 100 – x = 100 -19.89 = 80.11%
Hence, the abundance of ₅¹⁰B is 19.89% and that of ₅¹¹B is 80.11%.

Question 2.
The three stable isotopes of neon: ₁₀²⁰Ne, ₁₀²¹Ne and ₁₀²²Ne have respective abundances of 90.51%, 0.27%, and 9.22%. The atomic masses of the three isotopes are 19.99 u, 20.99 u, and 21.99 u, respectively. Obtain the average atomic mass of neon.
Answer:
Atomic mass of ₁₀²⁰Ne,m₁ = 19.99%u
Abundance of ₁₀²⁰Ne,n₁ = 90.51%
Atomic mass of ₁₀²¹Ne, m₂ = 20.99u
Abundance of ₁₀²¹Ne,n₂ = 0.27%
Atomic mass of ₁₀²²Ne,m₃ = 21.99u
Abundance of ₁₀²²Ne,n₃ = 9.22%
m = \(\frac{m_{1} n_{1}+m_{2} n_{2}+m_{3} n_{3}}{n_{1}+n_{2}+n_{3}} \)
= \(\frac{19.99 \times 90.51+20.99 \times 0.27+21.99 \times 9.22}{90.51+0.27+9.22}\)
= 20.1771 u

Question 3.
Obtain the binding energy (in MeV) of a nitrogen nucleus (₇¹⁴ N), given m (₇¹⁴ N) = 14.00307 u.
Answer:
Atomic mass of (₇N¹⁴) nitrogen, m = 14.00307 u
A nucleus of ₇N¹⁴ nitrogen contains 7 protons and 7 neutrons.
Hence, the mass defect of this nucleus, Δ m = 7 m_H +7m_n -m
where, Mass of a proton, m_H = 1.007825 u (∵ m_p = m_H)
Mass of a neutron, m_n = 1.008665 u
∴ Δm = 7 x 1.007825 + 7 x 1.008665 -14.00307
= 7.054775 + 7.06055 -14.00307
= 0.112255 u
But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c²

Δm = 0.112255 x 931.5 MeV/c²
Hence, the binding energy of the nucleus is given as
E_b = Δ mc² .
where, c = speed of light
∴ E_b = 0.112255 x 93.15 \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{MeV}}{\mathrm{c}^{2}}\right)\) x c²
= 104.565532 MeV
Hence, the binding energy of a nitrogen nucleus is 104.565532 MeV.

Question 4.
Obtain the binding energy of the nuclei _56²⁶Fe and _83²⁰⁹Bi in units of MeV from the following data : m (_56²⁶Fe) = 55.934939 u, m (_83²⁰⁹Bi) = 208.980388 u
Answer:
Atomic mass of _56²⁶Fe, m₁ = 55.934939 u
_56²⁶Fe nucleus has 26 protons and (56 -26) = 30 neutrons
Hence, the mass defect of the nucleus, Δ m = 26 x m_H +30 x m_n – m₁
where, mass of a proton, m_H = 1.007825 u
Mass of a neutron, m_n = 1.008665 u
∴Δm = 26 x 1.007825 + 30 x 1.008665 – 55.934939
= 26.20345 + 30.25995 – 55.934939
= 0.528461 u
But 1u = 931.5 MeV/c²
∴ Δm = 0.528461×931.5 MeV/c²

The binding energy of this nucleus is given as
E_b1 = Δmc²
Where, c = speed of light
∴ E_b1 = 0.528461 x 931.5 \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{MeV}}{\mathrm{c}^{2}}\right)\) x c²
= 492.26 MeV
Average binding energy per nucleon = \(\frac{492.26}{56}\) = 8.79 MeV

Atomic mass of _83²⁰⁹Bi, m₂ = 208.980388 u
_83²⁰⁹Bi nucleus has 83 protons and (209 -83) 126 neutrons.
Hence, the mass defect of this nucleus is given as
Δm’ = 83 x m_H +126 x m_n -m₂
where, mass of a proton, m_H = 1.007825 u
Mass of a neutron, m_n = 1.008665 u
∴Δm’ = 83 x 1.007825 +126 x 1.008665 – 208.980388
= 83.649475 + 127.091790 – 208.980388
= 1.760877 u

But 1u = 931.5 MeV/c²
∴Δm’=1.760877×931.5 MeV/c²
Hence, the binding energy of this nucleus is given as
Eb₂ =Δ m’c²
∴ Eb₂ =1.760877 x 931.5 \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{MeV}}{\mathrm{c}^{2}}\right)\) x c²
= 1640.26 MeV
Average binding energy per nucleon = \(\frac{1640.26}{209}\) =7.848 MeV.

Question 5.
A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g. Calculate the nuclear energy that would be required to separate all the neutrons and protons from each other. For simplicity assume that the coin is entirely made of _29⁶³Cu atoms (of mass 62.92960 u).
Answer:
Mass of the copper coin, m’ = 3 g
Atomic mass of 29 Cu⁶³ atom, m = 62.92960 u
The total number of 29Cu⁶³ atoms in the coin, N = \(\frac{N_{A} \times m^{\prime}}{\text { Mass number }}\)
where, NA = Avogadro’s number = 6.023 x 1023 atoms/g
Mass number =63 g
∴N = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 3}{63}\) = 2.868 x 10²² atoms

29Cu⁶³ nucleus has 29 protons and (63 -29)34 neutrons
∴ Mass defect of this nucleus, Δ m’ = 29 x m_H +34 x m_n -m
where, mass of a proton, m_H = 1.007825 u
Mass of a neutron, m_n = 1.008665 u
∴Δ m’ = 29 x 1.007825 + 34 x 1.008665 – 62.92960
= 29.226925 + 34.29461 – 62.92960 = 0.591935 u

Mass defect of all the atoms present in the coin,
Δm = 0.591935 x 2.868 x 10²²
= 1.69766958 x 10²² u
But 1 u = 931.5MeV/c²
∴ Δm =1.69766958 x 10²² x 931.5MeV/c²

Hence, the binding energy of the nuclei of the coin is given as
E_b = Δmc²
E_b = 1.69766958 x 10²² x 93.15 \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{MeV}}{\mathrm{c}^{2}}\right)\) x c²
= 1.581 x 10²⁵ MeV
But 1 MeV =1.6 x 10^-13 J
E_b= 1.581 x 10²⁵ x 1.6x 10^-13
= 2.53026 x 10¹² J
This much energy is required to separate all the neutrons and protons from the given coin.

Question 6.
Write nuclear reaction equations for
(i) α-decay of _88²²⁶Ra
(ii) α-decay of \(\frac{242}{94}\) Pu
(iii) β^– – decay of _15³²P
(iv) β^– -decay of _83²¹⁰Bi
(y) β⁺ -decay of _6¹¹C
(vi) β⁺ -decay of _43⁹⁷ Tc
(vii) Electron capture of _54¹²⁰ Xe
Answer:

Question 7.
A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T years. How long will it take the activity to reduce to (a) 3.125% (b) 1% of its original value?
Answer:
Half-life of the radioactive isotope = T years
Original amount of the radioactive isotope = N₀
(a) After decay, the amount of the radioactive isotope = N
It is given that only 3.125% of N₀ remains after decay. Hence, we can write
\(\frac{N}{N_{0}}\) = 3.125% = \(\frac{3.125}{100}=\frac{1}{32}\)
But \(\frac{N}{N_{0}}=e^{-\lambda t}\)
where, λ = Decay constant t = Time

Hence, the isotope will take about 5T years to reduce to 3.125% of its original value.

(b) After decay, the amount of the radioactive isotope = N
It is given that only 1% of N₀ remains after decay. Hence, we can write

Hence, the isotope will take about 6.645 T years to reduce to 1% of its original value.

Question 8.
The normal activity of living carbon-containing matter is found to be about 15 decays per minute for every gram of carbon. This activity arises from the small proportion of radioactive _6¹⁴C present with the stable carbon isotope _6¹⁴C. When the organism is dead, its interaction with the atmosphere (which maintains the above equilibrium activity) ceases and its activity begins to drop. From the known half-life (5730 years) of _6¹²C, and the measured activity, the age of the specimen can be approximately estimated. This is the principle of dating _6¹²C used in archaeology. Suppose a specimen from Mohenjodaro gives an activity of 9 decays per minute per gram of carbon. Estimate the approximate age of the Indus-Valley civilization.
Answer:
Decay rate of living carbon-containing matter, R = 15 decays/min
Let N be the number of radioactive atoms present in a normal carbon-containing matter.
Half-life of _6¹²C, T_1/2 = 5730 years
The decay rate of the specimen obtained from the Mohenjodaro site
R’ = 9 decays/min
Let N be the number of radioactive atoms present in the specimen during the Mohenjodaro period.
Therefore, we can relate the decay constant, λ and time, t as

Hence, the approximate age of the Indus-Valley civilization is 4223.5 years.

Question 9.
Obtain the amount of _27⁶⁰Co necessary to provide a radioactive source of 8.0 mCi strength.
The half-life of _27⁶⁰Co is 5.3 years.
Answer:
The strength of the radioactive source is given as
\(\frac{d N}{d t}\) = 8.0 mCi
= 8 x 10^-3 x 3.7 x 10¹⁰
= 29.6 x 10⁷ decay/s
where, N = Required number of atoms
Half-life of _27⁶⁰Co, T_1/2 = 5.3 years
= 5.3 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60
= 1.67 x 10⁸ s
For decay constant λ, we have the rate of decay as \(\frac{d N}{d t}\) =λN
Where λ = \(\frac{0.693}{T_{1 / 2}}=\frac{0.693}{1.67 \times 10^{8}} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}\)
∴ N = \(\frac{1}{\lambda} \frac{d N}{d t} \)
= \(\frac{\frac{29.6 \times 10^{7}}{0.693}}{1.67 \times 10^{8}}\) = 7.133 x 10¹⁶ atoms
For ₂₇Co⁶⁰
Mass of 6.023 x 10²³ (Avogadro’s number) atoms = 60 g
∴ Mass of 7.133 x 10¹⁶ atoms = \(\frac{60 \times 7.133 \times 10^{16}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\) = 7.106 x 10^-6g
Hence, the amount of ₂₇Co⁶⁰ necessary for the purpose is 7.106 x 10^-6g.

Question 10.
The half-life of _38⁹⁰Sr is 28 years. What is the disintegration rate of 15 mg of this isotope?
Answer;
Half-life of _38⁹⁰Sr, t_1/2 = 28 years
= 28 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60
= 8.83 x 10⁸s
Mass of the isotope, m = 15 mg
90 g of _38⁹⁰Sr atom contains 6.023 x 10²³ (Avogadro’s number) atoms.
Therefore 15 mg of _38⁹⁰ Sr contains \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 15 \times 10^{-3}}{90}\)
i. e.,1.0038 x 10²⁰ number of atoms
Rate of disintegration, = \(\frac{d N}{d t}=\lambda N\)
where, λ = Decay constant = \(\frac{0.693}{8.83 \times 10^{8}} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}\)
∴ \(\frac{d N}{d t}=\frac{0.693 \times 1.0038 \times 10^{20}}{8.83 \times 10^{8}}\)
= 7.878 x 10¹⁰ atoms/s
Hence, the disintegration rate of 15 mg of the given isotope is 7.878 x 10¹⁰ atoms/s.

Question 11.
Obtain approximately the ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold isotope _79¹⁹⁷Au and the silver isotope _47¹⁰⁷Ag.
Answer:
Nuclear radius of the gold isotope _79¹⁹⁷Au = R_Au
Nuclear radius of the silver isotope _47¹⁰⁷Ag =R_Ag
Mass number of gold, A_AU = 197
Mass number of silver, A_Ag =107
The ratio of the radii of the two nuclei is related with their mass numbers as
\(\frac{R_{\mathrm{Au}}}{R_{\mathrm{Ag}}}=\left(\frac{A_{\mathrm{Au}}}{A_{\mathrm{Ag}}}\right)^{1 / 3}\)
= \(=\left(\frac{197}{107}\right)^{1 / 3}\) = 1.2256
Hence, the ratio of the nuclear radii’of the gold and silver isotopes is about 1.23.

Question 12.
Find the Q- value and the kinetic energy of the emitted α-particle in the a-decay of
(a) _88²²⁶ Ra and (b) _86²²⁰ Rn.
Given m (_88²²⁶Ra) = 226.02540u, m (_86²²²Rn) = 222.01750u,
m(_86²²⁶Rn) = 220.01137 u, (_84²¹⁶Po) = 216.00189 u.
Answer:
(a) Alpha particle decay of _88²²⁶Ra emits a helium nucleus. As a result, its
mass number reduces to (226 – 4) 222 and its atomic number reduces to (88 – 2) 86.
This is shown in the following nuclear reaction
_88²²⁶Ra → _86²²²Rn+ _2⁴He

Q-value of emitted α-particle
= (Sum of initial mass – Sum of final mass) c²
where c = speed of light It is given that
m (_88²²⁶Ra) =226.02540 u
m (_86²²²Rn) = 222.01750 u
m (_2⁴He) = 4.002603 u
Q-value =[226.02540 – (222.01750 + 4.002603)] u c²
= 0.005297 u c²
But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c²
∴ Q = 0.005297 x 931.5 ≈ 4.94 MeV
I Mass number after decay
Kinetic energy of the α -particle = \(\left(\frac{\text { Mass number after decay }}{\text { Mass number before decay }}\right)\) x Q
=\(\frac{222}{226}\) x 4.94=4.85MeV ,

(b) Alpha particle decay of (_86²²²Rn)
_86²²²Rn + _84²¹⁶Po + _2⁴He
It is given that
Mass of (_86²²⁰Rn) = 220.01137 u
Mass of (_84²¹⁶P0) = 216.00189 u
∴ Q-value =[220.01137 – (216.00189 + 4.002603)] x 931.5 ≈ 641 MeV
Kinetic energy of the α -particle = \(\left(\frac{220-4}{220}\right)\) x 6.41 = 6.29 MeV

Question 13.
The radionuclide ¹¹C decays according to _6¹¹C → _5¹¹B + e⁺ + v: T_1/2 = 20.3 min
The maximum energy of the emitted positron is 0.960 MeV. Given the mass values.
m (_6¹¹C) = 11.011434 u and (_5¹¹B) = 11.009305 u,
calculate Q and compare it with the maximum energy of the positron emitted.
Answer:
Mass difference Δm = m_N(_6¹¹C) – {m_N(_5¹¹B) + m_e}
where, m_N denotes that masses of atomic nuclei.
If we take the masses of atoms, then we have to add 6m_e for ¹¹C and 5m_e
for ¹¹B, then Mass difference
= m(_6¹¹C -6m_e) -{m(_5¹¹B – 5m_e + m_e)}
= {m(¹¹C)-m(_6¹¹B)-2m_e}
= 11.011434 -11.009305 – 2 x 0.000548
= 0.001033 u
Q = 0.001033 x 931.5 MeV
= 0.962 MeV
This energy is nearly the same as energy carried by positron (0.960 MeV). The reason is that the daughter nucleus is too heavy as compared to e⁺ and v, so it carries negligible kinetic energy. Total kinetic energy is shared by positron and neutrino; here energy carried by neutrino (E_v) is minimum so that energy carried by positron (E_e) is maximum (practically, E_e ≈ Q).

Question 14.
The nucleus _10²³Ne decays by β^– emission. Write down the β decay equation and determine the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted. Given that: m (_10²³Ne) = 22.994466 u m (_11²³Na) = 22.089770 u
Answer:
In β^– emission, the number of protons increases by 1, and one electron and an antineutrino are emitted from the parent nucleus. β^– emission of the nucleus _10²³Ne
_10²³Ne → _11²³Na +e^–+\(\bar{v}\) +Q
It is given that
Atomic mass m of (_10²³Ne) = 22.994466 u
Atomic mass m of (_11²³ Na) = 22.089770 u
Mass of an electron, m_e = 0.000548 u
Q-value of the given reaction is given as
Q = [m(_10²³Ne)-{m(_11²³Na) + m_e}]c²
There are 10 electrons in _10²³Ne and 11 electrons in _11²³Na.
Hence, the mass of the electron is cancelled in the Q-value equation.
∴ Q = [22.994466 -22.089770] c²
= 0.004696 uc²
But 1 u = 981.5 MeV/c²
∴ Q = 0.004696 uc² x 931.5 = 4.374 MeV
The daughter nucleus is too fifeavy as compared to e^– and \(\bar{v}\).
Hence, it carries negligible energy. The kinetic energy of the antineutrino is nearly zero.
Hence, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is almost equal to the Q-value, i. e., 4.374 MeV.

Question 15.
The Q value of a nuclear reaction A + b → C + d is defined by Q = [m_A + m_b -m_c -m_d]c²
where the masses refer to the respective nuclei. Determine from the given data the Q-value of the following reactions and state whether the reactions are exothermic or endothermic.
(i) _1¹H + _1³H → _1²H + _1²H
(ii) _6¹² C + _6¹² C → _10²⁰Ne + ₂He
Atomic masses are given to be
m (₁₂H) = 2.014102 u
m(_1³H) = 3.016049 u
m(_6¹²C) = 12.000000 u
m(_10²⁰Ne) = 19.992439 u
Answer:
(i) The given nuclear reaction is
_1¹H + _1³H → _1²H + _1²H
It is given that
Atomic mass m of (_1¹H) = 1.007825 u
Atomic mass m of (_1³H) = 3.016049 u
Atomic mass m of (_1²H) = 2.014102 u

According to the question, the Q-value of the reaction can be written as
Q = [m (_1¹H) + m (_1³H) -2m (_1²H)] c²
= [1.007825 + 3.016049 – 2 x 2.014102] c²
Q = (-0.00433 c²)u
But 1 u = 931.5MeV/c²
∴ Q = -0.00433 x 931.5 = -4.0334 MeV
The negative Q-value of the reaction shows that the reaction is endothermic.

(ii) The given nuclear reaction is
_12⁶C + _12⁶C → _10²⁰Ne + _2⁴He
It is given that
Atomic mass m of (_12⁶C) = 12.0 u
Atomic mass m of (_10²⁰Ne) = 19.992439 u
Atomic mass m of (_2⁴He) = 4.002603 u
The Q-value of this reaction is given as
Q = [2m (_12⁶C) – m (_10²⁰Ne) – m (_2⁴He)] c²
= [2 x 12.0 -19.992439 – 4.002603] c²
= (0.004958 c²) u
But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c²
Q = 0.004958 x 931.5 = 4.618377 MeV
The positive Q-value of the reaction shows that the reaction is exothermic.

Question 16.
Suppose, we think of fission of a _26⁵⁶Fe nucleus into two equal fragments, _13²⁸Al. Is the fission energetically possible? Argue by working out Q of the process. Given m (_26⁵⁶Fe) = 55.93494 u and m(_13²⁸Al) = 27.98191 u.
Answer:
The fission of _26⁵⁶Fe can be given as
_26⁵⁶ Fe →2 _13²⁸Al
It is given that
Atomic mass m of (_26⁵⁶Fe) = 55.93494 u
Atomic mass m of (_13²⁸Al) = 27.98191 u
The Q-value of this nuclear reaction is given as
Q = [m (_26⁵⁶Fe) -2m (_13²⁸Al)] c²
= [55.93494 – 2 x 27.98191] c²
= (-0.02888 c²) u
Butl u = 931.5 MeV/c2
∴ Q =-0.02888 x 931.5 =-26.902 MeV
The Q-value of the fission is negative. Therefore, the fission is not possible energetically. For an energetically-possible fission reaction, the Q-value must be positive.

Question 17.
The fission properties of _94²³⁹Pu are very similar to those of _94²³⁹U. The average energy released per fission is 180 MeV. How much energy, in MeV, is released if all the atoms in 1 kg of pure _94²³⁹Pu undergo fission?
Answer:
Average energy released per fission of _94²³⁹Pu, E_av = 180 MeV
Amount of pure 94Pu²³⁹, m = 1 kg = 1000 g
N_A = Avogadro number = 6.023 x 10²³
Mass number of _94²³⁹Pu = 239 g

1 mole of ₉₄Pu²³⁹ contains N_A atoms
∴ 1 kg of 94Pu²³⁹ contains \(\left(\frac{N_{A}}{\text { Mass number }} \times m\right)\) atoms
= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{239} \times 1000\) = 2.52 x 10²⁴ atoms
∴ Total energy released during the fission of 1 kg of _94²³⁹ Pu is calculated as
E = E_av x 2.52 x10²⁴
= 180 x 2.52 x 10²⁴
= 4.536 x 10²⁶ MeV
Hence, 4.536 x10²⁶ MeV is released if all the atoms in 1 kg of pure ₉₄Pu²³⁹ undergo fission.

Question 18.
A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel in 5.00 y. How much _92²³⁵U did it contain initially? Assume that the reactor operates 80% of the time, that all the energy generated arises from the fission of _92²³⁵U, and that this nuclide is consumed only by the fission process.
Answer:
Half-life of the fuel of the fission reactor, t_1/2 =5 years.
= 5 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 s
We know that in the fission of 1 g of _92²³⁵ U nucleus, the energy released is equal to 200 MeV.
1 mole, i. e., 235 g of _92²³⁵ U contains 6.023 x 10²³ atoms.
∴ 1 g of _92²³⁵ U= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{235} \) atoms

The total energy generated per gram of _92²³⁵U is calculated as
E= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{235} \times 200 \mathrm{MeV} / \mathrm{g}\)
= \(\frac{200 \times 6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 10^{6}}{235}\)
= 8.20 x 10¹⁰ J/g
The reactor operates only 80% of the time.

Hence, the amount of _92²³⁵ U consumed in 5 years by the 1000 MW fission
reactor is calculated as
= \(\frac{5 \times 80 \times 60 \times 60 \times 365 \times 24 \times 1000 \times 10^{6}}{100 \times 8.20 \times 10^{10}} \mathrm{~g}\)
≈1538 kg
∴ Initial amount of _92²³⁵U = 2 x 1538 = 3076 kg.

Question 19.
How long can an electric lamp of 100 W be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg of deuterium? Take the fusion reaction as The given fusion reaction is _1²H + _1²H → _2³He+n +3.27 MeV
Answer:
The given fusion reaction is
_1²H + _1²H → _2³He+n +3.27 MeV
Amount of deuterium, m = 2 kg
1 mole, i.e., 2 g of deuterium contains 6.023 x 10²³ atoms.
∴ 2.0 kg of deuterium contains = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{2} \times 2000\)
= 6.023 x 10 ²⁶ atoms

It can be inferred from the given reaction that ‘when two atoms of deuterium fuse, 3.27 MeV energy is released. ” ‘
∴ Total energy per nucleus released in the fusion reaction
E = \(\frac{3.27}{2} \times 6,023 \times 10^{26} \mathrm{MeV}\)
= \(\frac{3.27}{2} \times 6.023 \times 10^{26} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 10^{6}\)
= 1.576 x 10¹⁴ J
Power of the electric lamp, P = 100 W = 100 J/s
Hence, the energy consumed by the lamp per second = 100 J
The total time for which the electric lamp will glow is calculated as \(\frac{1.576 \times 10^{14}}{100 \times 60 \times 60 \times 24 \times 365}\)
≈ 4.9 x 10⁴ years

Question 20.
Calculate the height of the potential harrier for a head-on collision of two deuterons. (Hint: The height of the potential barrier is given by the Coulomb repulsion between the two deuterons when they just touch each other. Assume that they can be taken as hard spheres of radius 2.0 fm).
Answer:
When two deuterons collide head-on, the distance between their centres, d is given as Radius of 1st deuteron + Radius of 2 nd deuteron
Radius of a deuteron nucleus = 2 fm =2 x 10^-15 m
∴ d = 2x 10^-15 +2 x 10^-15
=4 x 10^-15 m
Charge on a deuteron nucleus = Charge on an electron = e =1.6 x 10^-19C
Potential energy of the two-deuteron system
V = \(\frac{e^{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d} \)
where, \(\varepsilon_{0}\) = permittivity of free space


= 360 keV
Hence, the height of the potential barrier of the two-deuteron system is 360 keV.

Question 21.
From the relation R = R₀A^1/3, where R₀ is a constant and A is the mass number of a nucleus, show that the nuclear matter density is nearly constant (i. e., independent of A).
Answer:
We have the expression for nuclear radius as
R=R₀A^1/3
where, R0 = Constant.
Nuclear matter density, ρ = \(\frac{\text { Mass of the nucleus }}{\text { Volume of the nucleus }}\)
Let m be the average mass of the nucleus.
Hence, mass of the nucleus = mA

Hence, the nuclear matter density is independent; of A. It is nearly constant.

Question 22.
For the β⁺ (positron) emission from a nucleus, there is another competing process known as electron capture (electron from an inner orbit, say, the K-shell, is captured by the nucleus, and a neutrino is emitted.)
e⁺ + _A^Z X → _z-1^AY+ u
Show that if β⁺ emission is energetically allowed, electron capture is necessarily allowed but not vice-Versa.
Answer:
Let the amount of energy released during the electron capture process be Q₁.
The nuclear reaction can be written as
e⁺ + _A^Z X → _z-1Y+ v+ Q₁ …………..(1)
Let the amount of energy released during the positron capture process be Q₂.
The nuclear reaction can be written as
e⁺ + _A^Z X → _z-1Y+e⁺+ v+ Q₂ ……………………..(2)
m_N (_z^AX) = Nuclear mass of _z^A X
m_N (_z-1^AY) = Nuclear mass of ^z-1AY
m(_ZAX) = Atomic mass of _Z^A X
m (_z-1^A Y) = Atomic mass of _z-1^AY
m_e = Mass of an electron
c = Speed of light
Q-value of the electron capture reaction is given as


It can be inferred that if Q₂ > 0, then Q₁ > 0; Also, if Q₁> 0, it does not necessarily mean that Q₂ > 0.
In other words, this means that if β⁺ emission is energetically allowed, then the electron capture process is necessarily allowed, but not vice-versa. This is because the Q-value must be positive for an energetically-allowed nuclear reaction.

Additional Exercises

Question 23.
In a periodic table the average atomic mass of magnesium is given as 24.312 u. The average value is based on their relative natural abundance on earth. The three isotopes and their masses are _12²⁴ Mg (23.98504 u), _12²⁵Mg (24.98584 u) and _12²⁶Mg (25.98259 u). The natural abundance of _12²⁴Mg is 78.99% by mass. Calculate the abundances of other two isotopes.
Answer:
Average atomic mass of magnesium, m = 24.312 u
Mass of magnesium _12²⁴Mg isotope, m₁ = 23.98504 u
Mass of magnesium _12²⁵Mg isotope, m₂ = 24.98584 u
Mass of magnesium _12²⁶ Mg isotope, m₃ = 25.98259 u
Abundance of _12²⁴Mg, n₁ = 78.99%
Abundance of _12²⁵Mg, n₂ = x%
Hence, abundance of _12²⁶ Mg, n₃ = 100 – x- 78.99% = (21.01 – x)%

We have the relation for the average atomic mass as
m = \(\frac{m_{1} n_{1}+m_{2} n_{2}+m_{3} n_{3}}{n_{1}+n_{2}+n_{3}}\)
243.12 = \(\frac{23.98504 \times 78.99+24.98584 \times x+25.98259 \times(21.01-x)}{100}\)
2431.2 = 1894.5783096 + 24.98584x + 545.8942159- 25.98259 x
0.99675x =9.2725255
∴ x ≈ 9.3%
and 21.01-x =11.71%
Hence, the abundance of _12²⁵Mg is 9.3% and that of _12²⁶ Mg is 11.71%.

Question 24.
The neutron separation energy is defined as the energy required to remove a neutron from the nucleus.
Obtain the neutron separation energies of the nuclei _20⁴¹Ca and _13²⁷Al from
the following data:
m(_20⁴⁰Ca) = 39-962591u
m (_20⁴¹ Ca) = 40.962278 u
m (_26¹³Al) = 25.986895 u
m (_27¹³Al) = 26.981541 u
Answer:
For _20⁴¹Ca : Separation energy = 8.363007 MeV
For _27¹³ A1: Separation energy = 13.059 MeV
(_on¹) is removed from a _20⁴¹Ca.

Thus, the corresponding nuclear reaction can be written as
_20⁴¹Ca → _20⁴⁰Ca + _0¹n
It is given that
m(_20⁴⁰Ca) = 39.962591 u
m(_20⁴¹Ca )= 40.962278 u
m(_on¹) = 1.008665 u
The mass defect of this reaction is given as
Δm = m(_20⁴⁰Ca) + (_0¹n )-m(_20⁴¹Ca)
= 39.962591 +1.008665 – 40.962278
= 0.008978 u

But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c²
∴ Δm = 0.008978×931.5 MeV/c²
Hence, the energy required for neutron removal is calculated as
E = Δmc²
= 0.008978 x 931.5 = 8.363007 MeV
For _13²⁷ Al, the neutron removal reaction can be written as
_13²⁷Al → _13²⁶ Al + _0¹n
It is given that
m (_13²⁷Al) = 26.981541 u
m (_13²⁶ Al) = 25.986895 u
The mass defect of this reaction is given as
Δm = m (_13²⁶ Al) + m (_0¹n) – m (_13²⁷ Al)
= 25.986895 +1.008665 – 26.981541
= 0.014019 u

But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2
∴ Δm = 0.014019 x 931.5 MeV/c²
Hence, the energy required for neutron removal is calculated as
E = Δmc²
= 0.014019 x 931.5 = 13.059 MeV

Question 25.
A source contains two phosphorous radio nudides _15³²P (TM_1/2 =14.3d)
and _15³³P (T_1/2 =253d). Initially, 10% of the
decays come from _15³³P. How long one must wait until 90% do so?
Answer:
Let radionuclide be represented as P₁ (T_1/2 =14.3 days) and
P₂(T_1/2 = 25.3 days).
Initial decay is 90% from P₁ and 10% from P₂. With the passage of rime,
amount of P₁ will decrease faster than that of P₂.

As rate of disintegration ∝ N or mass M. Initial ratio of P₁ to P₂ is 9: 1. Let mass of P₁ be 9x and that of P₂ be x. Let after t days mass of P₁ become y and that of P₂ become 9y.
Using half-life formula, \(\frac{M}{M_{0}}=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n}\) , where n is number of half lives,
n = \(\frac{t}{T_{1}}\)
\( \frac{y}{9 x}=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n_{i}}\) ……………………. (1)
Where, n₁ = \(\frac{t}{T_{2}}\)
\(\frac{9 y}{x}=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n_{2}}\) …………………………… (2)
On dividing eq.(1) by eq(2), we get

log 1- log 81 = t\(\left(\frac{1}{T_{1}}-\frac{1}{T_{2}}\right)\) \((\log 1-\log 2)\)

Question 26.
Under certain circumstances, a nucleus can decay by emitting a particle more massive than an a-particle. Consider the following decay processes:
_88²²³Ra → _82²⁰⁹Pb+ _6¹⁴C
_88²²³Ra → _86²¹⁹Rn + _2⁴He
Calculate the Q-values for these decays and determine that both are energetically allowed.
Answer:
Take a _6¹⁴C emission nuclear reaction
_88²²³Ra → _82²⁰⁹Pb+ _6¹⁴C
We know that
Mass of _88²²³Ra, m₁ = 223.01850 u
Mass of _82²⁰⁹ Pb, m₂ = 208.98107 u
Mass of _6¹⁴C, m₃ = 14.00324 u
Hence, the Q-value of the reaction is given as
Q = (m₁-m₂-m₃‘)c²
= (223.01850 -208.98107-14.00324)c²
= (0.03419 c²)u
But 1u = 931.5 MeV/c²
∴ Q = 0.03419 x 931.5 = 31.848 MeV

Hence, the Q-value of the nuclear reaction is 31.848 MeV. Since the value is positive, the reaction is energetically allowed.
Now take a _2⁴He emission nuclear reaction
_88²²³Ra → _86²¹⁹Rn + _2⁴He
We know that
Mass of _88²²³Ra, m₁ = 223.01850
Mass of _86²¹⁹Rn, m₂ = 219.00948
Mass of _2⁴He, m₃ = 4.00260
Q-value of this nuclear reaction is given as
Q = (m₁-m₂-m₃)c²
= (223.01850 -219.00948-4.00260)c²
= (0.00642 c²)u
= 0.00642 x 931.5 = 5.98 MeV
Hence, the Q value of the second nuclear reaction is 5.98 MeV. Since the value is positive, the reaction is energetically allowed.

Question 27.
Consider the fission of _92²³⁸U by fast neutrons. In one fission event, no neutrons are emitted and the final end products, after the beta decay of the primary fragments, are _58¹⁴⁰Ce and _44⁹⁹Ru.
Calculate Q for this fission process. The relevant atomic and particle masses are .
m = ( _92²³⁸U) = 238.05079 u
m = ( _58¹⁴⁰Ce) = 139.90543 u
m = ( _44⁹⁹Ru) = 98.90594 u
Answer:
In the fission of _92²³⁸U, 10β^– particles decay from the parent nucleus. The nuclear reaction can be written as
_92²³⁸U +_0¹n → _58¹⁴⁰Ce+_44⁹⁹Ru+10_-1⁰e

It is given that
Mass of a nucleus, m₁(_92²³⁸U) = 238.05079 u
Mass of a nucleus, m₂(_58¹⁴⁰Ce) = 139.90543 u
Mass of a nucleus,m₃ (_44⁹⁹Ru) = 98.90543 u
Mass of a neutron,m₄ (_0¹n) = 1.008665 u
Q-value of the above equation,
Q = [m'(_92²³⁸U) + m(_0¹n) – m'(_58¹⁴⁰Ce) – m'(_44⁹⁹Ru) -10 m_e]c²
Where, m’ represents the corresponding atomic masses of the nuclei,
m'(_92²³⁸U) = m1 – 92 m_e
m’ (_58¹⁴⁰Ce) = m₂ – 58m_e
m’ (_44⁹⁹Ru) = m₂ – 44 m_e
m(_0¹n) = m₄

But 1u = 931.5 MeV/c²
∴ Q = 0.247995 x 931.5 = 231.007 MeV
Hence, the Q-value of the fission process is 231.007 MeV.

Question 28.
Consider the D-T reaction (deuterium-tritium fusion)
_1²H +H _1³ →_2⁴He + n
(a) Calculate the energy released in MeV in this reaction from the data
m (_1²H) = 2.014102 u
m(H _1³) = 3.016049 u

(b) Consider the radius of both deuterium and tritium to be approximately 2.0 fm. What is the kinetic energy needed to overcome the coulomb repulsion between the two nuclei? To what temperature must the gas be heated to initiate the reaction? (Hint: Kinetic energy required for one fusion event = average thermal kinetic energy available with the interacting particles =2(3kT/2);k = Boltzman’s constant, T = absolute temperature.)
Answer:
(a) Take the D-T nuclear reaction :
_1²H +H _1³ →_2⁴He + n
It is given that
Mass of _1²H, m₁ = 2.014102 u
Mass of H _1³, m₂ = 3.016049 u
Mass of _2⁴He, m₃ = 4.002603 u
Mass of _0¹n, m₄ = 1.008665 u
Q-value of the given D-T reaction is
Q = [m₁ + m₂ – m₃ – m₄]c²
= [2.014102 + 3.016049 – 4.002603 -1.008665]c²
= [0.018883 c²]u
But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c²
∴ Q = 0.018883 x 931.5 = 17.59 MeV

(b) Radius of deuterium and tritium, r ≈ 2.0 fm = 2 x 10^-15 m
Distance between the two nuclei at the moment when they touch each other,
d = r + r = 4 x 10^-15 m
Charge on the deuterium nucleus = e
Charge on the tritium nucleus = e
Hence, the repulsive potential energy between the two nuclei is given as
V = \(\frac{e^{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}(d)}\)
Where, \(\varepsilon_{0}\) = Permittivity of free space

Hence, 5.76 x 10^-14 J or 360 key of kinetic energy (KE) is needed to overcome the Coulomb repulsion between the two nuclei.
However, it is given that
K.E = 2 x \(\frac{3}{2}\) kt
where, k = Boltzmann constant = 1.38 x 10^-23 m² kg s^-2 K^-1
T = Temperature required for triggering the reaction
T = \(\frac{K E}{3 K}\)
= \(\frac{5.76 \times 10^{-14}}{3 \times 1.38 \times 10^{-23}}\)
= 1.39 x 10⁹ K
Hence, the gas must be heated to a temperature of1.39 x 10⁹ K to initiate the reaction.

Question 29.
Obtain the maximum kinetic energy of β-particles, and the radiation frequencies of y decays in the decay scheme shown in Fig. 13.6. You are given that

It can be observed from the given γ-decay diagram that γ₁ decays from 1.088 MeV
energy level to the O’MeV energy level.
Hence, the energy corresponding to γ₁-decay is given as
E₁ =1.088-0 =1.088 MeV
hv₁ = 1.088 x 1.6 x 10^-19 x 10⁶
where, h = Planck’s constant = 6.63 x 10^-34 Js
v₁ = frequency of radiation radiated by γ₁ -decay.
∴ v₁ = \(\frac{E_{1}}{h}\)
= \(\frac{1.088 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 10^{6}}{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}\)
= 2.637 x 10²⁰ Hz
It can be observed from the given γ-decay diagram that γ₂ decays from 0.412 MeV energy level to the 0 MeV energy level.
Hence, the energy corresponding to γ₂-decay is given as :
E₂ =0.412-0 =0.412 MeV
hv₂ = 0.412 x 1.6 x 10^-19 x 10⁶ J
where, v₂ = frequency of radiation radiated by γ₂-decay

It can be observed from the given γ-decay diagram that γ₂ decays from the 1.088 MeV energy level to the 0.412 MeV energy level.
Hence, the energy corresponding to γ₃ -decay is given as
E₃ =1.088- 0.412 = 0.676 MeV
hv₃ = 0.676 x 1.6 x 10 ^-19 J

where, v₃ = frequency of radiation radiated by γ₃-decay
∴ v₃ = \(\frac{E_{3}}{h}=\frac{0.676 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 10^{6}}{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}\)
= 1.639 x 10²⁰ Hz
Mass of m (_79¹⁹⁸ Au) = 197.968233 u
Mass of m (_80¹⁹⁸Hg) = 197.966760 u
1 u = 931.5 MeV/c²
Energy of the highest level is given as
E =[ (_79¹⁹⁸ Au) – m (_80¹⁹⁸Hg)]
= 197.968233 -197.966760
= 0.001473 u
= 0.001473 x 931.5 = 1.3720995 MeV
β₁ decays from the 1.3720995 MeV level to the 1.088 MeV level
Maximum kinetic energy of the β₁ particle = 1.3720995 – 1.088
= 0.2840995 MeV
β₂ decays from the 1.3720995.MeV level to the 0.412 MeV level ,
∴ Maximum kinetic energy of the β₂ particle = 1.3720995-0.412
= 0.9600995 MeV

Questions 30.
Calculate and compare the energy released by
(a) fusion of 1.0 kg of hydrogen deep within Sun and
(b) the fission of 1.0 kg of _92²³⁵U in a fission reactor.
Answer:
(a) Amount of hydrogen, m = 1 kg = 1000 g
1 mole, i. e, 1 g of hydrogen (_1¹H) contains 6.023 x 10²³ atoms.
∴ 1000 g of _1¹H contains 6.023 x 10²³ x 1000 atoms.
Within the sun, four _1¹H nuclei combine and form one _2⁴He nucleus. In this process 26 MeV of energy is released.
Hence, the energy released from the fusion of 1 kg _1¹H is
E₁ = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 26 \times 10^{3}}{4}\)
= 39.1495 x 10²⁶MeV

(b) Amount of _92²³⁵U = 1 kg = 1000 g
1 mole, i. e., 235 g of _92²³⁵U contains 6.023 x 10²³ atoms.
∴1000 g of _92²³⁵U contains \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 1000}{235}\)atoms
It is known that the amount of energy released in the fission of one atom of _92²³⁵U is 200 MeV.
Hence, energy released from the fission of 1 kg of _92²³⁵U is
E₂ = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 1000 \times 200}{235}\)
= 5.106 x 10²⁶ MeV
∴ \(\frac{E_{1}}{E_{2}}=\frac{39.1495 \times 10^{26}}{5.106 \times 10^{26}}\) = 7.67 ≈ 8
Therefore, the energy released in the fusion of 1 kg of hydrogen is nearly 8 times the energy released in the fission of 1 kg of uranium.

Question 31.
Suppose India had a target of producing by 2020 AD, 200,000 MW of electric power, ten percent of which was to be obtained from nuclear power plants. Suppose we are given that, on an average, the efficiency of utilization (i. e., conversion to electric energy) of thermal energy produced in a reactor was 25%. How much amount of fissionable uranium would our country need per year by 2020? Take the heat energy per fission of ²³⁵U to be about 200 MeV.
Answer:
Amount of electric power to be generated, P = 2 x10⁵ MW
10% of this amount has to be obtained from nuclear power plants.
P₁ = \(\frac{10}{100}\) x 2 x 10⁵
∴ Amount of nuclear power,
= 2 x 10⁴ MW
= 2x 104 x 10⁶ J/s
= 2 x 1010 x 60 x 60 x 24 x 365 J/y
Heat energy released per fission of a ²³⁵ U nucleus, E = 200 MeV
Efficiency of a reactor = 25%
Hence, the amount of energy converted into the electrical energy per fission is calculated as
\(\frac{25}{100} \times 200=50 \mathrm{MeV}=50 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 10^{6}=8 \times 10^{-12} \mathrm{~J} \)
Number of atoms required for fission per year
\(\frac{2 \times 10^{10} \times 60 \times 60 \times 24 \times 365}{8 \times 10^{-12}}\) = 78840 x 10²⁴ atoms
1 mole, i. e., 235 g of U²³⁵ contains 6.023 x 10²³ atoms.
∴ Mass of 6.023 x 10²³ atoms of U²³⁵ = 235 g = 235 x 10^-3 kg
∴ Mass of 78840×10²⁴ atoms of U²³⁵ = \(\frac{235 \times 10^{-3}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}} \times 78840 \times 10^{24}\)
= 3.076 x10⁴ kg
Hence, the mass of uranium needed per year is 3.076 x 10⁴ kg.

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Physics Book Solutions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

PSEB 12th Class Physics Guide Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two charges 5 × 10^-8 C and -3 × 10^-8 C are located 16 cm apart. At what point(s) on the line joining the two charges is the electric potential zero? Take the potential at infinity to be zero.
Answer:
There are two charges,
q ₁ = 5 × 10^-8 C
q₂ = -3 × 10^-8 C
Distance between the two charges, d =16 cm = 0.16 m
Consider a point P on the line joining the two charges, as shown in the given figure

r = Distance of point P from charge q₁
Let the electric potential (V) at point P be zero. r.
Potential at point P is the sum of potentials caused by charges q₁ and q₂ respectively.

∴ r = 0.1m = 10 cm
Therefore, the potential is zero at a distance of 10 cm from the positive charge between the charges.

Suppose point P is outside the system of two charges at a distance s from the negative charge, where potential is zero, as shown in the following figure:

For this arrangement, potential is given by,

∴ s = 0.4 m = 40 cm
Therefore, the potential is zero at a distance of 40 cm from the positive charge outside the system of charges.

Question 2.
A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge 5 μC at each of its vertices. Calculate the potential at the centre of the hexagon.
Answer:
The given figure shows six equal amount of charges q, at the vertices of a regular hexagon.

where, charge, q = 5μC = 5 × 10^-6C
Side of the hexagon,
l = AB = BC = CD = DE = EF = FA = 10 cm
Distance of each vertex from centre, O, d = 10 cm = 0.1 m
Electric potential at point O,
V = \(\frac{6 \times q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d}\)
∴ \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) = 9 × 10⁹NC^-2m^-2
∴ V = \(\frac{6 \times 9 \times 10^{9} \times 5 \times 10^{-6}}{0.1}\) = 2.7 × 10⁶ V
Therefore, the potential at the centre of the hexagon is 2.7 × 10⁶ V.

Question 3.
Two charges 2 μC and -2μC are placed at points A and B 6 cm apart.
(a) Identify an equipotential surface of the system.
(b) What is the direction of the electric field at every point on this surface?
Answer:
(a) Here, two charges 2 μC and -2μC are situated at points A and B.
∴ AB = 6 cm = 0.06 m

For the given system of two charges, the equipotential surface is a plane normal to the line joining points A and B. The plane passes through the mid point C of the line AB. The potential at C is

Thus potential at all points lying on this plane is equal and is zero, so it is an equipotential surface.

(b) We know that the electric field always acts from +ve to -ve charge, thus here the electric field acts from point A (having +ve charge) to point B (having -ve charge) and is normal to the equipotential surface.

Question 4.
A spherical conductor of radius 12 cm has a charge of 1.6 x 10^-7 C distributed uniformly on its surface. What is the electric field
(a) inside the sphere
(b) just outside the sphere
(c) at a point 18 cm from the centre of the sphere?
Answer:
Radius of the spherical conductor, r = 12cm = 0.12m
Charge is uniformly distributed over the conductor, q = 1.6 x 10^-7C
(a) Electric field inside a spherical conductor is zero. This is because if there is field inside the conductor, then charges will move to neutralize it.

(b) Electric field E just outside the conductor is given by the relation,
E = \(\frac{q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r^{2}}\)
\(=\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-7} \times 9 \times 10^{5}}{(0.12)^{2}}[latex] = 10⁵ NC ^-1
(0.12) 2
Therefore, the electric field just outside the sphere is 10⁵ NC^-1

(c) Electric field at a point 18 m from the centre of the sphere = E₁
Distance of the point from the centre, d=18cm = 0.18m
E₁ = [latex]\frac{q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-7}}{\left(18 \times 10^{-2}\right)^{2}}\)
= 4.4 × 10⁴ N/C
Therefore, the electric field at a point 18 cm from the centre of the sphere is 4.4 × 10⁴N/C.

Question 5.
A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8 pF (1 pF = 10^-2 F). What will be the capacitance if the distance between the plates is reduced by half, and the space between them is filled with a substance of dielectric constant 6?
Answer:
Capacitance between the parallel plates of the capacitor, C = 8 pF
Initially, distance between the parallel plates was d and it was filled with air. Dielectric constant of air, k = 1
Capacitance, C is given by the formula,
C = \(\frac{k \varepsilon_{0} A}{d}[latex]
= [latex]\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\) …………… (1)

If distance between the plates is reduced to half, then new distance,
d’ = \(\frac{d}{2}\)
Dielectric constant of the substance filled in between the plates, k’ Hence, capacitance of the capacitor becomes
C’ = \(\frac{k^{\prime} \varepsilon_{0} A}{d^{\prime}}=\frac{6 \varepsilon_{0}^{*} A}{\frac{d}{2}}\) …………….. (2)
Taking ratios of equations (1) and (2), we obtain
C’ = 2 × 6C
= 12C
= 12 × 8 = 96 pF
Therefore, the capacitance between the plates is 96 pF.

Question 6.
Three capacitors each of capacitance 9 pF are connected in series.
(a) What is the total capacitance of the combination?
(b) What is the potential difference across each capacitor if the combination is connected to a 120 V supply?
Answer:
(a) Given C₁ = C₂ = C₃ = 9 pF
When capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance Cs is given by
\(\frac{1}{C_{S}}=\frac{1}{C_{1}}+\frac{1}{C_{2}}+\frac{1}{C_{3}}=\frac{1}{9}+\frac{1}{9}+\frac{1}{9}=\frac{3}{9}=\frac{1}{3}\)
C_S 3PF

(b) In series charge on each capacitor remains the same, so charge on each capacitor.
q = C_SV = (3 × 10^-12 F) × (120 V)
= 3.6 × 10^-10 coulomb
Potential difference across each capacitor, q 3.6 × 10^-10
V = \(\frac{q}{C_{1}}=\frac{3.6 \times 10^{-10}}{9 \times 10^{-12}}\) = 40V

Question 7.
Three capacitors of capacitances 2 pF, 3 pF and 4pF are connected in parallel
(a) What is the total capacitance of the combination?
(b) Determine the charge on each capacitor if the combination is connected to a 100 V supply.
Answer:
C₁ = 2 pF, C₂ = 3 pF, C₃ = 4 pF
(a) Total capacitance when connected in parallel,
C_p = C₁ + C₂ + C₃ = 2 + 3 + 4 = 9 pF,

(b) In parallel, the potential difference across each capacitor remains the same, i.e.,
V = 100 V.
Charge on C₁ = 2 pF,
q₁ = C₁V = 2 × 10^-12 × 100
= 2 × 10 ^-10C

Charge on C₂ = 3pF,
q₂ = C₂V = 3 × 10^-10 × 100
= 3 × 10^-10 C

Charge on C₃ = 4 pF,
q₃ = C₃V = 4 × 10^-12 × 100
= 4 × 10^-10C

Question 8.
In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, each plate has an area of 6 × 10^-3 m² and the distance between the plates is 3 mm. Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor. If this capacitor is connected to a 100 V supply, what is the charge on each plate of the capacitor?
Answer:
Area of each plate of the parallel plate capacitor, A = 6 10^-3m²
Distance between the plates, d = 3 mm = 3 × 10^-3 m
Supply voltage, V = 100 V
Capacitance C of a parallel plate capacitor is given by,
C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\)
where, ε₀ = 8.854 × 10^-12 N^-1m^-2C^-2
C = \(\frac{8.854 \times 10^{-12} \times 6 \times 10^{-3}}{3 \times 10^{-3}}\)
= 17.71 × 10^-12F
= 17.71 pF or 18 pF

Potential V is related with the charge q and capacitance C as
V = \(\frac{q}{C}\)
∴ q = VC = 100 × 17.71 × 10^-12
= 1.771 × 10⁹C
Therefore, capacitance of the capacitor is 17.71 pF and charge on each plate is 1.771 × 10^-9 C.

Question 9.
Explain what would happen if in the capacitor given in Exercise 2.8, a 3 mm thick mica sheet (of dielectric constant = 6) were inserted between the plates,
(a) while the voltage supply remained connected.
(b) after the supply was disconnected.
Answer:
(a) Here C₀ = Capacitance of the capacitor with air as medium = 18 pF
d = distance between the plates = 3 × 10^-3 m
t = thickness of mica sheet = 3 × 10^-3 m = d
K = dielectric constant of the mica sheet = 6

As the mica sheet completely fills the space between the plates, thus the capacitance of the capacitor (C) is given by
C =KC₀ = 6 × 18 × 10^-12 F
= 108 × 10^-12 F = 108 pF
Thus the capacitance of the capacitor increases by K times on inserting the mica sheet.
Potential difference across this capacitor, V = 100 V
∴ Charge q’ on the capacitor with mica sheet as medium is given by
q’ = CV= 108 × 10^-12 × 100
= 108 × 10^-8 C
Now clearly q’ = KC₀V = Kq = 6 × 1.8 × 10^-9
= 1.08 × 10^-8C

Clearly charge becomes K times the charge on the plates with air as medium, i.e., charge on the plates increases when supply remains connected and mica sheet is inserted.

(b) Here, capacitance of capacitor with mica as medium C = KC₀ 108 × 10^-12F
When supply is disconnected, i. e., mV = 0,
The potential difference across on the plates of the reduces by K times.
i.e., V’ = \(\frac{100}{6}\) 16.67V
C-becomes 6 times.
Thus if qi be the charge on its plates after disconnecting the supply,
Then q₁ = CV’ = KC₀ × \(\frac{100}{6}\)
= 6 × 18 × 10^-12 × \(\frac{100}{6}\)
= 18 × 10^-10C
q₀ = 1.8 × 10^-9C =1.8 nC
i.e., the charge on the capacitor with mica as medium remains same as with air medium.

Question 10.
A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V battery. How much electrostatic energy is stored in the capacitor?
Answer:
Given, C = 12 pF = 12 × 10^-12 F and V = 50 V, U = ?
Using the relation U = \(\frac{1}{2}\) CV², we have
U = \(\frac{1}{2}\)CV² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 12 × 10^-12(50)²
= 1.5 × 10⁸ J

Question 11.
A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lost in the process?
Answer:
Given, C₁ = C₂ = 600 pF = 600 × 10_-12F, V = 200 V, ∆U = ?
Using the relation ∆U = \(\frac{C_{1} C_{2}\left(V_{1}-V_{2}\right)^{2}}{2\left(C_{1}+C_{2}\right)}\) , we get
∆U = \(\frac{600 \times 600 \times 10^{-24}(200-0)^{2}}{2(600+600) \times 10^{-12}}[latex] = 6 × 10^-6 j

Question 12.
A charge of 8 mC is located at the origin. Calculate the work done in taking a small charge of -2 × 10^-9 C from a point P(0, 0, 3 cm) to a point Q (0, 4 cm, 0), viaa point R (0,6 cm, 9 cm). Answer:
Charge located at the origin, q = 8 mC = 8 × 10^-3 C
Magnitude of a small charge, which is taken from a point P to point R to point Q, = -2 × 10^-9 C
All the points are represented in the given figure

Point P is at a distance, d₁ = 3 cm, from the origin along z-axis.
Point Q is at a distance, d₂ = 4 cm, from the origin along y-axis.

Therefore, work done during the process is 1.27 J.

Question 13.
A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices. Determine the potential and electric field due to this charge array at the centre of the cube.
Answer:
Length of the side of a cube = b
Charge at each of its vertices = q
A cube of side b is shown in the following figure:

is the distance between the centre of the cube and one of the eight vertices.

The electric potential (V) at the centre of the cube is due to the presence of eight charges at the vertices.
V = [latex]\frac{8 q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\)
= \(\frac{8 q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}\left(b \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)}\)
= \(\frac{4 q}{\sqrt{3} \pi \varepsilon_{0} b}\)
Therefore, the potential at the centre of the cube is \(\frac{4 q}{\sqrt{3} \pi \varepsilon_{0} b}\)
The electric field at the centre of the cube, due to the eight charges, gets cancelled. This is because the charges are distributed symmetrically with respect to the centre of the cube. Hence, the electric field is zero at the centre.

Question 14.
Two tiny spheres carrying charges 1.5 μC and 2.5 μC are located 30 cm apart. Find the potential and electric field :
(a) at the mid-point of the line joining the two charges, and
(b) at a point 10 cm from this midpoint in a plane normal to the line and passing through the mid-point.
Answer:
Two charges placed at points A and B are represented in the given figure. O is the mid-point of the line joining the two charges.

Magnitude of charge located at A, q₁ = 1.5 μC
Magnitude of charge located at B, q₂ = 2.5 μC
Distance between the two charges, d = 30 cm = 0.3 m

(a) Let V₁ and E₁ are the electric potential and electric field respectively at O.
V₁ = Potential due to charge at A + Potential due to charge at B


Therefore, the potential at mid-point is 2.4 x 10⁵ V and the electric field at mid-point is 4 x 10⁵Vm^-1. The field is directed from the larger charge to the smaller charge.

(b) Consider a point Z such that normal distance OZ =10 cm = 0.1 m, as shown in the following figure:

V₂ and E₂ are the electric potential and electric field respectively at Z. It can be observed from the figure that distance,

θ = cos^-1 (0.5556) = 56.25
∴ 2θ = 112.5°
cos 2θ = -0.38

E = 6.6 × 10⁵ Vm^-1
Therefore, the potential at a point 10 cm (perpendicular to the mid point) is 2.0 × 10⁵ V and electric field is 6.6 × 10⁵ Vm^-1.

Question 15.
A spherical conducting shell of inner radius and r₁outer radius r₂ has a charge Q.
(a) A charge q is placed at the centre of the shell. What is the surface charge density on the inner and outer surfaces of the shell?
(b) Is the electric field inside a cavity (with no charge) zero, even if the shell is not spherical, but has any irregular shape? Explain.
Answer:
(a) Charge placed at the centre of a shell is+q. Hence, a charge of magnitude -q will be induced to the inner surface of the shell. Therefore, total charge on the inner surface of the shell is -q.
Surface charge density at the inner surface of the shell is given by the relation,
σ₁ = \(\frac{\text { Total charge }}{\text { Inner surface area }}=\frac{-q}{4 \pi r_{1}^{2}}\) ……………… (1)

A charge of + q is induced on the outer surface of the shell. A charge of magnitude Q is placed on the outer surface of the shell. Therefore, total charge on the outer surface of the shell is Q + q. Surface charge density at the outer surface of the shell,
σ₂ = \(=\frac{\text { Total charge }}{\text { Outer surface area }}=\frac{Q+q}{4 \pi r^{2}}\) …………… (2)

(b) Yes.
The electric field intensity inside a cavity is zero, even if the shell is not spherical and has any irregular shape. Take a closed loop such that a part of it is inside the cavity along a field line while the rest is inside the conductor. Net work done by the field in carrying a test charge over a closed loop is zero because the field inside the conductor is zero.
Hence, electric field is zero, whatever is the shape.

Question 16.
(a) Show that the normal component of electrostatic field has a discontinuity from one side of a charged surface to another given by
(E₂ – E₁)n̂ = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
where n is a unit vector normal to the surface at a point ando is the surface charge density at that point. (The direction of n is from side 1 to side 2.) Hence show that just outside a conductor, the electric field is σ = n̂ ε₀.

(b) Show that the tangential component of electrostatic field is continuous from one side of a charged surface to another.
[Hint : For (a), use Gauss’s law. For, (b) use the fact that work done by electrostatic field on a closed loop is zero.]
Answer:
(a) Let AB be a charged surface having two sides as marked in the figure.
A cylinder enclosing a small area element ∆ S of the charged surface is the , Gaussian surface.

Let σ = surface charge density
∴ q = charge enclosed by the Gaussian cylinder = σ . ∆ S.
∴ According to Gauss’s Theorem,

where \(\overrightarrow{E_{1}}+\overrightarrow{E_{2}}\) are the electric fields through circular cross-sections of cylinder at II and III respectively.

It is clear from the figure that \(\overrightarrow{E_{1}}\) lies inside the conductor. Also we know that the electric field inside the conductor is zero.
∴ \(\overrightarrow{E_{1}}\) = 0
Thus from eq. (1)
\(\overrightarrow{E_{2}} \cdot \hat{n}=\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}[latex]
or [latex]\left(\overrightarrow{E_{2}} \cdot \hat{n}\right) \cdot \hat{n}=\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}} \hat{n}\)
or \(\overrightarrow{E_{2}}=\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}} \hat{n}\)
or electric field just outside the conductor = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}} \hat{n}\) Hence proved

(b) Let AaBbA be a charged surface in the field of a point charge q lying at origin.
Let \(\overrightarrow{r_{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{r_{B}}\) be its position vectors at points A and B respectively.

Let \(\vec{E}\) be the electric field at point P, thus E cosG is the tangential component of electric field \(\vec{E}\).

Question 17.
A long charged cylinder of linear charged density λ is surrounded by a hollow co-axial conducting cylinder. What is tihe electric field in the space between the two cylinders?
Answer:
Charge density of the long charged cylinder of length L and radius r is λ. Another cylinder of same length surrounds the previous cylinder. The radius of this cylinder is R.
Let £ be the electric field produced in the space between the two cylinders.
Electric flux through the Gaussian surface is given by Gauss’s theorem as,
Φ = E (2πd)L
where d = Distance of a point from the common axis of the cylinders Let q be the total charge on the cylinder.
It can be written as
Φ = E (2πdL) = \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
where, q = Charge on the inner sphere of the outer cylinder, ε₀ = Permittivity of free space
E (2πdL) = \(\frac{\lambda L}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
E = \(\frac{\lambda}{2 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d}\)
Therefore, the electric field in the space between the two cylinders is \(\frac{\lambda}{2 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d}\)

Question 18.
In a hydrogen atom, the electron and proton are bound at a distance of about 0.53 Å.
(a) Estimate the potential energy of the system in eV, taking the zero of the potential energy at infinite separation of the electron from proton.
(b) What is the minimum work required to free the electron, given that its kinetic energy in the orbit is half the magnitude of potential energy obtained in (a)?
(c) What are the answers to (a) and (b) above if the zero of potential energy is taken as 1.06 A separation?
Answer:
The distance between electron-proton of a hydrogen atom, d = 0.53 Å
Charge on an electron,q₁ = -1.6 × 10^-19 C
Charge on a proton, q₂ = +1.6 × 10^-19 C
(a) Potential energy at infinity is zero.
Potential energy of the system,
P.E. = P.E. at ∞ – P.E. at d
= 0 – \(\frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d}\)
∴ P.E 0 = – \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)^{2}}{0.53 \times 10^{-10}}\)
= -43.47 × 10^-19J
Since 1.6 × 10^-19 J = 1eV
∴ P.E. = -43.47 × 10^-19

= \(\frac{-43.47 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = -27.2 eV
Therefore, the potential energy of the system is -27.2 eV.

(b) Kinetic energy is half of the magnitude of potential energy
Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (-27.2) = 13.6 eV
[v K.E. of the system is always +ve]
Total energy = 13.6 – 27.2 = 13.6 eV
Therefore, the minimum work required to free the electron is 13.6 eV.

(c) When zero of potential energy is taken, d₁ = 1.06 A
Potential energy of the system = P.E. at – P.E. at d₁ – P.E. at d
= \(\frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d_{1}}\) -27.2 eV
= \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)^{2}}{1.06 \times 10^{-10}}\) -27.2 eV
= 21.73 × 10^-19 J -27.2 eV
= 13.58 eV- 27.2 eV .
= -13.6 eV

Question 19.
If one of the two electrons of aH₂ molecule is removed, we get a hydrogen molecular ion H₂⁺. In the ground state of an H₂⁺ the two protons are separated by roughly 1.5 Å, and the electron is roughly 1 Å from each proton. Determine the potential energy of the system. Specify your choice of the zero of potential energy.
Answer:
The system of two protons and one electron is represented in the given figure

Charge on proton 1, q₁ = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
Charge on proton 2, q₂ = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
Charge on electron, q₃ = -1.6 × 10^-19 C
Distance between protons 1 and 2, dj = 1.5 × 10^-10 m
Distance between proton 1 and electron, d₂ = 1 × 10^-10 m
Distance between proton 2 and electron, d₃ = 1 × 10^-10 m The potential energy at infinity is zero.
Potential energy of the system,
V = \(\frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d_{1}}\) + \(\frac{q_{2} q_{3}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d_{3}}\) + \(\frac{q_{3} q_{1}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} d_{2}}\)
Substituting \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) = 9 × 10⁹ Nm²C^-2, we obtain

= -30.7 × 10^-19 J
= -19.2 eV
Therefore, the potential energy of the system is -19.2 eV.

Question 20.
Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected to each other by a wire. What is the ratio of electric fields at the surfaces of the two spheres? Use the result obtained to explain why charge density on the sharp and pointed ends of a conductor is higher than on its flatter portions.
Answer:
Let a be the radius of a sphere A, Q_A be the charge on the sphere, and C_A be the capacitance of the sphere. Let b be the radius of a sphere B, Q_B be the charge on the sphere, and CB be the capacitance of the sphere. Since the two spheres are connected with a wire, their potential (V) will become equal.
Let E_A be the electric field of sphere A and E_B be the electric field of sphere B. Therefore, their ratio,

Putting the value of eqn. (2) in eqn. (1), we obtain
\(\frac{E_{A}}{E_{B}}=\frac{a b^{2}}{b a^{2}}=\frac{b}{a}\)
Therefore, the ratio of electric fields at the surface is b/a.
A flat portion may be taken as a spherical surface of large radius and a pointed portion may be taken as a spherical surface of small radius.
As ε ∝ \(\frac{l}{\text { radius }}\),
thus pointed portion has larger fields than the flat one. Also we know that
E = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
i.e., E ∝ σ,
thus clearly the surface charge density on the sharp and pointed ends will be large.

Question 21.
Two charges -q and +q are located at points (0, 0, – a) and (0, 0, a), respectively.
(a) What is the electrostatic potential at the points (0, 0, z) and (x, y, 0)?
(b) Obtain the dependence of potential on the distance r of a point from the origin when r/ a >> 1.
(c) How much work is done in moving a small test charge from the point (5, 0, 0) to (-7, 0, 0) along the x-axis? Does the answer change if the path of the test charge between the same points is not along the x-axis?
Answer:
(a) Here -q and + q are situated at points A (0, 0, -a) and B (0, 0, a) respectively.

∴ Dipole length = 2a
If p be the dipole moment of the dipole, then
p = 2aq
Let P₁ (0, 0, z) be the point at which V is to be calculated. It lies on the axial line of the dipole.

Now point P₂ (x, y, O’) lies in XY plane which is normal to the axis of the dipole, i. e., lies on the line parallel to the equitorial line on which potential due to the dipole is zero as given below:

(b) Let r = distance of the point P from the centre (O) of the dipole at which
V is to be calculated. Let ∠POB = θ, i.e., OP makes an angle θ with \(\).
Also let r₁ and r₂ be the distances of the point P from -q and +q respectively. To find r₁ and r₂, draw AC and BD ⊥ arc to OP.

∴ In Δ ACO, OC = a cos θ
and in Δ BDO, OD = a cos θ
Thus, if V₁ and V₂ be the potentials at P due to – q and + q respectively, then total potential V at P is given by
V = V₁ + V₂

Thus,V = \(=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \cdot \frac{p \cos \theta}{r^{2}}\) ………….. (2)
Thus, we see that the dependence of V on r is of \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\) type, i.e.,V ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\).

(c) Let W₁ and W₂ be the work done in moving a test charge q₀ from E(5,0,0) to F(-7, 0,0) in the fields of + q(0, 0, a) and -q(0, 0,-a) respectively.


No, because work done in moving a test charge in an electric field between two points is independent of the path connecting the two point.

Question 22.
Figure 2.34 shows a charge array known as an electric quadrupole. For a point on the axis of the quadrupole, obtain the dependence of potential on r for r/a >> 1, and contrast your results with that due to an electric dipole, and an electric monopole (i. e., a single charge).

Answer:
Four charges of same magnitude are placed at points X, Y, Y and Z respectively, as shown in the following figure:

A point is located at P, which is r distance away from point Y.
The system of charges forms an electric quadrupole.
It can be considered that the system of the electric quadrupole has three charges.
Charge + q placed at point X
Charge -2q placed at point Y
Charge + q placed at point Z
XY = YZ = a
YP = r
PX = r + a
PZ = r – a
Electrostatic potential caused by the system of three charges at point P is given by,

It can be inferred that potential, V ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{3}}\).
However, it is known that for a dipole, V ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\). and, for monopole V ∝ \(\frac{1}{r}\)

Question 23.
An electrical technician requires a capacitance of 2 μF in a circuit across a potential difference of 1 kV. A large number of 1 μF capacitors are available to him each of which can withstand a potential difference of not more than 400 V. Suggest a possible arrangement that requires the minimum number of capacitors.
Answer:
Total required capacitance, C = 2 μF
Potential difference, V = 1 kV = 1000 V
Capacitance of each capacitor, C = 1 μF
Each capacitor can withstand a potential difference, V₁ = 400 V
Suppose a number of capacitors are connected in series and these series circuits are connected in parallel (row) to each other. The potential difference across each row must be 1000 V and potential difference across each capacitor must be 400 V. Hence, number of capacitors in each row is given as
\(\frac{1000}{400}\) = 25 .
Hence, there are three capacitors in each row.
Capacitance of each row = \(\frac{1}{1+1+1}=\frac{1}{3}\) μF
Let there are n rows, each having three capacitors, which are connected in parallel.
Hence, equivalent capacitance of the circuit is given as
\(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\) + ….. + n terms = \(\frac{n}{3}\)
However, capacitance of the circuit is given as 2 μF.
∴ \(\frac{n}{3}\) = 2
n = 6
Hence, 6 rows of three capacitors are present in the circuit. A minimum of 6 × 3, i.e., 18 capacitors are required for the given arrangement.

Question 24.
What is the area of the plates of a 2 F parallel plate capacitor, given that the separation between the plates is 0.5 cm? [You will realize from your answer why ordinary capacitors are in the range of μF or less. However, electrolytic capacitors do have a much larger capacitance (0.1 F) because of very minute separation between the conductors.]
Answer:
Capacitance of a parallel capacitor, C = 2 F
Distance between the two plates, d = 0.5 cm = 0.5 × 10^-2 m
Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by the relation,
C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\)
A = \(\frac{C d}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
Where ε₀ = 8.85 × 10^-12C²N^-1m^-2
∴ A = \(\frac{2 \times 0.5 \times 10^{-2}}{8.85 \times 10^{-12}}\) = 1130 km²
Hence, the area of the plates is too large. To avoid this situation, the capacitance is taken in the range of μF.

Question 25.
Obtain the equivalent capacitance of the network in Fig. 2.35. For a 300 V supply, determine the charge and voltage across each capacitor.

Answer:

Question 26.
he plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area of 90 cm² each and are separated by 2.5 nun. The capacitor is charged by connecting it to a 400 V supply.
(a) How much electrostatic energy is stored by the capacitor?
(b) View this energy as stored in the electrostatic field between the plates, and obtain the energy per unit volume u. Hence arrive at a relation between u and the magnitude of electric field E between the plates.
Answer:
Area of the plates of a parallel plate capacitor,
A = 90 cm² = 90 × 10^-4 m²
Distance between the plates, d = 2.5mm 2.5 × 10^-3 m
Potential difference across the plates, V = 4OO V
Capacitance of the capacitor is given by the relation,
C = \(\)
(a) Electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor is given by the relation,

Hence, the electrostatic energy stored by the capacitor is 2.55 × 10^-6 J

(b) Volume of the given capacitor,
V’= A × d
= 90 × 10^-4 × 2.5 × 10^-3
= 2.25 × 10^-5 m³
Energy stored in the capacitor per unit volume is given by,

Question 27.
A 4 μF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply, and is connected to another uncharged 2 μF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy of the first capacitor is lost in the form of heat and electromagnetic radiation?
Answer:

Question 28.
Show that the force on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor has a magnitude equal to (\(\frac{1}{2}\)) QE, where Q is the charge on the capacitor, and E is the magnitude of electric field between the plates. Explain the origin of the factor \(\frac{1}{2}\).
Answer:
Let F be the force applied to separate the plates of a parallel plate capacitor by a distance of Δx. Hence, work done by the force to do so = FΔx
As a result, the potential energy of the capacitor increases by an amount given as uA Δx.
where, u = Energy density
A = Area of each plate
The work done will be equal to the increase in the potential energy, i. e.,
FΔx = uA Δx

The physical origin of the factor, 1/2 in the force formula lies in the fact that just outside the conductor, field is E and inside it is zero. Hence, it is the averge value, E/2 of the field that contributes to the force.

Question 29.
A spherical capacitor consists of two concentric spherical conductors, held in position by suitable insulating supports (Fig. 2.36). Show that the capacitance of a spherical capacitor is given by
C = \(\frac{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r_{1} r_{2}}{r_{1}-r_{2}}\)
where r ₁and r₂ are the radii of outer and inner spheres, respectively.

Answer:
Radius of the outer shell = r₁
Radius of the inner shell = r₂
The inner surface of the outer shell has charge +Q
The outer surface of the inner shell has induced charge -Q.
Potential difference between the two shells is given by,

Question 30.
A spherical capacitor has an inner sphere of radius 12 cm and an outer sphere of radius 13 cm. The outer sphere is earthed and the inner sphere is given a charge of 2.5 µC. The space between the concentric spheres is filled with a liquid of dielectric constant 32.
(a) Determine the capacitance of the capacitor.
(b) What is the potential of the inner sphere?
(c) Compare the capacitance of this capacitor with that of an isolated sphere of radius 12 cm. Explain why the latter is much smaller.
Answer:
Radius of the inner sphere, r₂ = 12 cm = 0.12m
Radius of the outer sphere, r₁ = 13 cm = 0.13m
Charge on the inner sphere, q = 2.5 µC = 2.5 × 10^-6 C
Dielectric constant of the liquid, ε_r = 32
Capacitance of the capacitor is given by the relation,
C = \(\frac{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{r} r_{1} r_{2}}{r_{1}-r_{2}}\)
C = \(\frac{32 \times 0.12 \times 0.13}{9 \times 10^{9} \times(0.13-0.12)}\)
≈ 5.5 × 10^-9 F
Hence, the capacitance of the capacitor is approximately 5.5 × 10^-9 F.

(b) Potential of the inner sphere is given by,
V = \(\frac{q}{C}=\frac{2.5 \times 10^{-6}}{5.5 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 4.5 × 10²V
Hence, the potential of the inner sphere is 4.5 × 10² V

(c) Radius of an isolated sphere, r = 12cm = 12 × 10^-2m
Capacitance of the sphere is given by the relation,
C’ = 4πε₀r
= 4π × 8.85 × 10^-12 × 12 × 10^-12
= 1.33 × 10^-11F
The capacitance of the isolated sphere is less in comparison to the concentric spheres. This is because the outer sphere of the concentric spheres is earthed. Hence, the potential difference is less and the capacitance is more than the isolated sphere.

Question 31.
Answer carefully:
(a) Two large conducting spheres carrying charges Q₁ and Q₂ are brought close to each other. Is the magnitude of electrostatic force between them exactly given by Q₁Q₂ / πε₀ r², where r is the distance between their centres?
(b) If Coulomb’s law involved 1/r³ dependence (instead of 1/r²), would Gauss’s law be still true?
(c) A small test charge is released at rest at a point in an electrostatic field configuration. Will it travel along the field line passing through that point?
(d) What is the work done by the field of a nucleus in a complete circular orbit of the electron? What if the orbit is elliptical?
(e) We know that electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a charged conductor. Is electric potential also discontinuous there?
(f) What meaning would you give to the capacitance of a single conductor?
(g) Guess a possible reason why water has a much greater dielectric constant (= 80) than say, mica (= 6).
Answer:
(a) The force between two conducting spheres is not exactly given by the expression,Q₁Q₂ / πε₀ r², because there is a non-uniform charge distribution on the spheres.

(b) Gauss’s law will not be true, if Coulomb’s law involved 1/r³ dependence, instead of 1/r², on r.

(c) Yes, If a small test charge is released at rest at a point in an electrostatic field configuration, then it will travel along the field lines passing through the point, only if the field lines are straight. This is because the field lines give the direction of acceleration and not of velocity.

(d) Whenever the electron completes an orbit, either circular or elliptical, the work done by the field of a nucleus is zero.

(e) No, electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a charged conductor. However, electric potential is continuous.

(f) The capacitance of a single conductor is considered as a parallel plate capacitor with one of its two plates at infinity.

(g) Water has an unsymmetrical space as compared to mica. Since it has a permanent dipole moment, it has a greater dielectric constant than mica.

Question 32.
A cylindrical capacitor has two co-axial cylinders of length 15 cm and radii 1.5 cm and 1.4 cm. The outer cylinder is earthed and the inner cylinder is given a charge of 3.5 μC. Determine the capacitance of the system and the potential of the inner cylinder. Neglect end effects (i. e., bending of field lines at the ends).
Answer:
Length of a co-axial cylinder, l = 15 cm = 0.15 m
Radius of outer cylinder, r₁ = 1.5 cm = 0.015 m
Radius of inner cylinder, r₂ = 1.4 cm = 0.014 m
Charge on the inner cylinder, q = 3.5 μC = 3.5 × 10^-6 C

Capacitance of a co-axial cylinder of radii r₁ and r₂ is given by the relation,

Question 33.
A parallel plate capacitor is to be designed with a voltage rating 1 kV, using a material of dielectric constant 3 and dielectric strength about 10⁷ Vm^-1. (Dielectric strength is the maximum electric field a material can tolerate without breakdown, i. e., without starting to conduct electricity through partial ionisation.) For safety, we should like the field never to exceed, say 10% of the dielectric strength. What minimum area of the plates is required to have a capacitance of 50 pF?
Answer:
Potential rating of the parallel plate capacitor, V = 1 kV = 1000 V
Dielectric constant of the material, ε_r = 3
Dielectric strength = 10⁷ V/m
For safety, the field intensity never exceeds 10% of the dielectric strength.
Hence, electric field intensity, E = 10% of 10⁷ =10⁶V/m
Capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor C = 50 pF = 50 × 10^-12F
Distance between the plates is given by,
d = \(\frac{V}{E}=\frac{1000}{10^{6}}\) = 10^-3 m
Capacitance is given by the relation,
C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{r} A}{d}\)
∴ A = \(\frac{C d}{\varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{r}}\) = \(\frac{50 \times 10^{-12} \times 10^{-3}}{8.85 \times 10^{-12} \times 3}\) ≈ 19cm ²
Hence, the area of each plate is about 19 cm² .

Question 34.
Describe schematically the equipotential surfaces corresponding to
(a) a constant electric field in the z-direction,
(b) a field that uniformly increases in magnitude but remains in a constant (say, z) direction,
(c) a single positive charge at the origin, and
(d) a uniform grid consisting of long equally spaced parallel charged wires in a plane.
Answer:
Equipotential surface is a surface having the same potential at each of its points. In the given cases the equipotential surface are

(a) The planes are parallel to XY plane. For same potential difference, the planes are equidistant.

(b) The planes are parallel to XY plane, but for the same potential difference, the separation between the planes decreases.

(c) Concentric spheres centred at the origin.

(d) A periodically varying shape near the grid which gradually attains the shape of planes parallel to grid at far distances.

Question 35.
In a Van de Graff type generator a spherical metal shell is to be a 15 × 10⁶ V electrode. The dielectric strength of the gas surrounding the electrode is 5 × 10⁷ Vm^-1. What is the minimum radius of the spherical shell required? (You will learn from this exercise why one cannot build an electrostatic generator using a very small shell which requires a small charge to acquire a high potential.)
Answer:

Question 36.
A small sphere of radius r₁and charge q₁ is enclosed by a spherical shell of radius r₂ and charge q₂. Show that if q₁ is positive, charge will necessarily flow from the sphere to the shell (when the two are connected by a wire) no matter what the charge q₂ on the shell is.
Answer:
Here r₁, r₂ are the radii of small sphere and the spherical shell respectively. The shell surrounds the sphere +q₁ is the charge on the sphere +q₂ is the charge on the shell. We know that the electric field
inside a conductor is zero, i.e.,\(\vec{E}\) = 0. Thus according to Gauss’s Theorem

Hence q₂ must reside on the outer surface of the spherical shell.
Now the sphere having +q₁ charge is enclosed inside the spherical shell. So – q₁ charge will be induced on the inside side and +q₁ charge will be induced on the outer surface the spherical shell.

∴ Total charge on the outer surface of the shell = q₂ + q₁.
As the charge always resides on the outer surface, thus charge q₁ from the outer surface of sphere will flow to the other surface of spherical shell when connected with a wire.

Question 37.
Answer the following:
(a) The top of the atmosphere is at about 400 kV with respect to the surface of the earth, corresponding to an electric field that decreases with altitude. Near the surface of the earth, the field is about 100 Vm^-1. Why then do we not get an electric shock as we step out of our house into the open? (Assume the house to be a steel cage so there is no field inside.)

(b) A man fixes outside his house one evening a two metre high insulating slab carrying on its top a large aluminium sheet of area 1 m². Will he get an electric shock if he touches the metal sheet next morning?

(c) The discharging current in the atmosphere due to the small conductivity of air is known to be 1800 A on an average over the globe. Why then does the atmosphere not discharge itself completely in due course and become electrically neutral? In other words, what keeps the atmosphere charged?

(d) What are the forms of energy into which the electrical energy of the atmosphere is dissipated during a lightning? (Hint : The earth has an electric field of about 100 Vm-1 at its surface in the downward direction, corresponding to a surface charge density = -10^-9 Cm^-2. Due to the slight conductivity of the atmosphere up to about 50 km (beyond which it is good conductor), about +1800 C is pumped every second into the earth as a whole. The earth, however, does not get discharged since thunderstorms and lightning occurring continually all over the globe pump an equal amount of negative charge on the earth.)
Answer:
(a) We do not get an electric shock as we step out of our house because the original equipotential surfaces of open air changes, keeping our body and the ground at the same potential.

(b) Yes, the man will get an electric shock if he touches the metal slab next morning. The steady discharging current in the atmosphere charges up the aluminium sheet. As a result, its voltage rises gradually. The raise in the voltage depends on the capacitance of the capacitor formed by the aluminium slab and the ground.

(c) The occurrence of thunderstorms and lightning charges the atmosphere continuously. Hence, even with the presence of discharging current of 1800 A, the atmosphere is not discharged completely. The two opposing currents are in equilibrium and the atmosphere remains electrically neutral.

(d) During lightning and thunderstorm, light energy, heat energy and sound energy are dissipated in the atmosphere.

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Physics Book Solutions Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields

PSEB 12th Class Physics Guide Electric Charges and Fields Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the force between two small charged spheres having charges of 2 × 10^-7 C and 3 × 10^-7 C placed 30 cm apart in air?
Answer:
Charge on the first sphere, q₁ = 2 × 10^-7 C
Charge on the second sphere, q₂ = 3 × 10^-7 C
Distance between the spheres, r = 30 cm = 0.3 m
Electrostatic force between the spheres is given by the relation,
F = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
where, ε₀ = Permittivity of free space
F = \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times 2 \times 10^{-7} \times 3 \times 10^{-7}}{(0.3)^{2}}\)
= 6 × 10^-3 N
Hence, force between the two small charged spheres is 6 × 10^-3 N. The charges are of same nature. Hence, force between them will be repulsive.

Question 2.
The electrostatic force on a small sphere of charge
0.4 μC due to another small sphere of charge -0.8 μC in air is 0.2 N.
(a) What is the distance between the two spheres?
(b) What is the force on the second sphere due to the first?
Answer:
Electrostatic force on the first sphere, F = 0.2 N
Charge on this sphere, q₁ = 0.4 μC = 0.4 × 10^-6C
Charge on the second sphere, q₂ = -0.8 μC = -0.8 × 10^-6C

(a) Electrostatic force between the spheres is given by the relation,
F = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
where, ε₀ = Permittivity of free space
r² = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{F}\)
= \(=\frac{0.4 \times 10^{-6} \times 0.8 \times 10^{-6} \times 9 \times 10^{9}}{0.2}\)
= 16 × 9 × 10^-4 = 144 × 10^-4
= \(\sqrt{144 \times 10^{-4}}\) = 0.12 m
The distance between the two spheres is 0.12 m.

(b) Force on q₂ due to q₁= ?
We know that electrostatic forces always, appear in priors and follow Newton’s 3rd law of motion.
∴ \(\left|\vec{F}_{21}\right|\) = Force on q₂ due to q₁
= 0.2 N and it is attractive in nature
We now that,
F₂₁ = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}^{2}}\)

On substituting the values, we get
F₂₁ = 9 × 10⁹ × \(\frac{\left(0.4 \times 10^{-6}\right) \times\left(0.8 \times 10^{-6}\right)}{(0.12)^{2}}\)
= 0.2 N

Question 3.
Check that the ratio ke² / Gm_em_p is dimensionless. Look up a
table of physical constants and determine the value of this ratio. What does the ratio signify?
Answer:
The given ratio is \(\frac{k e^{2}}{G m_{e} m_{p}}\)
where, G = Gravitational constant
Its unit is Nm²kg^-2.
m_p and m_p = Masses of electron and proton
Their unit is kg.
e = Electric charge Its unit is C.
k = A constant = \(=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\)
Its unit is N m²C^-2.
Therefore, unit of the given ratio
\(\frac{k e^{2}}{G m_{e} m_{p}}\) = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{Nm}^{2} \mathrm{C}^{-2}\right]\left[\mathrm{C}^{-2}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{Nm}^{2} \mathrm{~kg}^{-2}\right][\mathrm{kg}][\mathrm{kg}]}\) = M⁰L⁰T⁰
Hence, the given ratio is dimensionless.
e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N m²kg^-2
m_e = 9.1 × 10^-31 kg
m_p = 1.67 × 10^-27 kg
Hence, the numerical value of the given ratio is
\(\frac{k e^{2}}{G m_{e} m_{p}}\) = \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)^{2}}{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 1.67 \times 10^{-27}}\)
≈ 2.3 × 10³⁹
This is the ratio of electric force to the gravitational force between a proton and an electron, keeping distance between them constant.

Question 4.
(a) Explain the meaning of the statement ‘electric charge of a body is quantised’.
(b) Why can one ignore quantisation of electric charge when dealing with macroscopic i. e., large scale charges?
Answer:
(a) Electric charge of a body is quantised. This means that only integral (1, 2 …………,n) number of electrons can be transferred from one body to the other. Charges are not transferred in fraction. Hence, a body possesses total charge only in integral multiples of electric charge.

(b) In macroscopic or large scale charges, the charges used are huge as compared to the magnitude of electric charge. Hence, quantisation of electric charge is of no use on macroscopic scale. Therefore, it is ignored and it is considered that electric charge is continuous.

Question 5.
When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, charges appear on both. A similar phenomenon is observed with many other pairs of bodies. Explain how this observation is consistent with the law of conservation of charge.
Answer:
Rubbing produces charges of equal magnitude but of opposite nature on the two bodies because charges are created in pairs. This phenomenon of charging is called charging by friction. The net charge on the system of two rubbed bodies is zero. This is because equal amount of opposite charges annihilate each other. When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, opposite natured charges appear on both the bodies. This phenomenon is in consistence with the law of conservation of energy. A similar phenomenon is observed with many other pairs of bodies.

Question 6.
Four point charges q_A = 2 μC, q_B = -5 μC, q_C = 2 μC and q_D) = -5 μC are located at the comers of a square ABCD of side 10 cm. What is the force on a charge of 1 μC placed at the centre of the square?
Answer:
Consider the square ABCD of each side 10 cm and centre O. The charge of 1 μC is placed at O.
Now clearly, OA = OB =OC = OD
AB = BC – 10 cm = 0.1 m
AO = \(\frac{1}{2}\) AC = \(\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{A B^{2}+B C^{2}}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × √2 AB
= \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) × 0.1 m = OB = OC = OD

Here,q_A = 2μC, q_B = -5μC,q_C = 2 μC,q_D = -5μC
Clearly q_A = q_C = 2μC = 2 × 10^-6C
and q_B = q_D = -5 μC = -5 × 10^-6C
Since q_A = q_C, the charge of 1 μC will experience equal and opposite forces due to the charges q_A and q_C i. e., along OC and OA respectively. Their magnitudes are
F_A = F_C = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \times \frac{q_{A} \times 1 \mu \mathrm{C}}{A O^{2}}\)
\(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times 2 \times 10^{-6} \times 10^{-6}}{\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \times 0.1\right)^{2}}\) = 3.6N
∴ \(\vec{F}_{A}=-\vec{F}_{C}\)
Similarly F_B = F_D, the charge of 1 μC will experience equal and opposite forces due to the charge q_B and q_D i. e., along OB and OD respectively, thus
\(\overrightarrow{F_{B}}=-\overrightarrow{F_{D}}\).
Thus the net force on the charge ofl μC due to the given arrangement of charges is zero i.e.,
\(\vec{F}=\vec{F}_{A}+\vec{F}_{B}+\vec{F}_{C}+\vec{F}_{D}\) = 0

Question 7.
(a) An electrostatic field line is a continuous curve. That is, a field line cannot have sudden breaks. Why not?
Explain why two field lines never cross each other at any point?
Answer:
(a) An electrostatic field line is a continuous curve because a charge experiences a continuous force when traced in an electrostatic field. The field line cannot have sudden breaks because the charge moves continuously and does not jump from one point to the other.

(b) If two field lines cross each other at a point, then electric field intensity will show two directions at that point. This is not possible. Hence, two field lines never cross each other.

Question 8.
Two point charges q_A = 3 μC and q_B = -3 μC are located 20 cm apart in vacuum.
(a) What is the electric field at the midpoint O of the line AB joining the two charges?
(b) If a negative test charge of magnitude 1.5 × 10^-9C is placed at this point, what is the force experienced by the test charge?
Answer:
(a) The situation is represented in the given figure. O is the mid-point of line AB.

Distance between the two charges, AB = 20 cm
∴ AO = OB =10 cm
Net electric field at point O = E
Magnitude of electric field at point 0 caused by + 3 μC charge,

[Since the values of E₁ and E₂ are same, the value is multiplied with 2]
= 5.4 × 10⁶ N/C along OB
Therefore, the electric field at mid-point O is 5.4 × 10⁶ NCT^-1 along OB.

(b) A test charge of amount 1.5 × 10^-9 C is placed at mid-point O.
According to question, q = -1.5 × 10^-9 C
Force experienced by the test charge = F
F = qE
= -1.5 × 10^-9 × 5.4 × 10⁶
= -8.1 × 10^-3 N
The force is directed along line QA. This is because the negative test charge is repelled by the charge placed at point B but attracted towards point A.

Question 9.
A system has two chargesg q_A = 2.5 × 10^-7C andq_A = -2.5 × 10^-7 located at points A : (0, 0, -15 cm) and B: (0, 0, +15 cm), respectively. What are the total charge and electric dipole moment of the system?
Answer:
Both the charges can be located in a coordinate frame of reference as shown in the given figure At A, amount of charge,
q_A =2.5 × 10^-7C
At B, amount of charge,
q_B = -2.5 × 10^-7C

Total charge of the system,
q = q_A + q_B
= 2.5 × 10^-7 C-2.5 × 10^-7C
= 0
Distance between two charges at points A and B,
d. =15 + 15 = 30 cm = 0.3 m
Electric dipole moment of the system is given by,
p = q_A × d = q_B × d.
= 2.5 × 10^-7 × 0.3
= 7.5 × 10^-8 Cm along positive z-axis
Therefore, the electric dipole moment of the system is 7.5 × 10^-8C m along positive z-axis.

Question 10.
An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 × 10^-9 C m is aligned at 30° with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude 5 × 10⁴NC^-1. Calculate the magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole.
Answer:
Electric dipole moment, p = 4 × 10^-9 C m
Angle made by p with a uniform electric field, 0 = 30°
Electric field, E = 5 × 10⁴NC^-1
Torque acting on the dipole is given by the relation,
τ = pE sinθ
= 4 × 10^-9 × 5 × 10⁴ × sin30
= 20 × 10^-5 \(\frac{1}{2}\)
= 10^-4 Nm
Therefore, the magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is 10^-4 N m.

Question 11.
A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 3 × 10^-7C.
(a) Estimate the number of electrons transferred (from which to which?)
(b) Is there a transfer of mass from wool to polythene?
Answer:
(a) When polythene is rubbed with wool, a number of electrons get transferred from wool to polythene. Hence, wool becomes positively charged and polythene becomes negatively charged.
Amount of charge on the polythene piece, q = -3 × 10^-7 C
Amount of charge on an electron, e = -1.6 × 10^-19C
Number of electrons transferred from wool to polythene = n
n can be calculated using the relation,
> q = ne
n = \(\frac{q}{e}\)
= \(\frac{-3 \times 10^{-7}}{-1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
= 1.87 × 10¹²
Therefore, the number of electrons transferred from wool to polythene is 1.87 × 10¹².

(b) Yes.
There is a transfer of mass taking place. This is because an electron has mass,
m_e = 9.1 × 10^-31 kg
Total mass transferred to polythene from wool,
m = m_e × n
= 9.1 × 10^-31 × 1.87 × 10¹²
= 1.706 × 10^-18 kg
Hence, a negligible amount of mass is transferred from wool to polythene.

Question 12.
(a) Two insulated charged copper spheres A and B have their centres separated by a distance of 50 cm. What is the mutual force of electrostatic repulsion if the charge on each is 6.5 × 10^-7 C ? The radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation.
(b) What is the force of repulsion if each sphere is charged double the above amount, and the distance between them is halved?
Answer:
(a) Charge on sphere A, q_A = Charge on sphere B, q_B = 6.5 × 10^-7 C
Distance between the spheres, r = 50 cm = 0.5 m
Force of repulsion between the two spheres,
F = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{A} q_{B}}{r^{2}}\)
∴ F = \(=\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times\left(6.5 \times 10^{-7}\right)^{2}}{(0.5)^{2}}[latex]
= 1.52 × 10^-2 N
Therefore, the force between the two spheres is 1.52 × 10^{-2 N.}

(b) After doubling the charge, charge on sphere A, q_A = charge on sphere
B, q_B = 2 × 6.5 × 10^-7 C = 1.3 × 10<>-6 C
The distance between the spheres is halved
∴ r = [latex]\frac{0.5}{2}\) = 0.25 m
Force of repulsion between the two spheres,
F = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{A} q_{B}}{r^{2}}\)
∴ F = \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times 1.3 \times 10^{-6} \times 1.3 \times 10^{-6}}{(0.25)^{2}}\)
= 16 × 1.52 × 10^-2 = 0.243 N Therefore, the force between the two spheres is 0.243 N.

Question 13.
Suppose the spheres A and B in exercise 1.12 have identical sizes. A third sphere of the same size but uncharged is brought in contact with the first, then brought in contact with the second, and finally removed from both. What is the new force of repulsion between A and B ?
Answer:
Distance between the spheres, A and B,r = 0.5 m
Initially, the charge on each sphere, q = 6.5 × 10 ^-7 C
When sphere A is touched with an uncharged sphere C, \(\frac{q}{2}[latex] amount of
charge from A will transfer to sphere C. Hence, charge on each of the spheres, A and C is [latex]\frac{q}{2}\).
When sphere C with charge \(\frac{q}{2}\) is brought in contact with sphere B with
charge q, total charges on the system will divide into two equal halves given as,
\(\frac{\frac{q}{2}+q}{2}=\frac{3 q}{4}\)
Each sphere will each half. Hence, charge on each of the spheres, C and B, is \(\frac{3 q}{4}\).
Force of repulsion between sphere A having charge \(\frac{q}{2}\) and sphere B having
charge \(\frac{3 q}{4}\)

= 5.703 × 10^-3 N
Therefore, the force of attraction between the two spheres is 5.703 × 10^-3 N.

Question 14.
Figure 1.33 shows tracks of three charged particles in a uniform electrostatic field. Give the signs of the three charges. Which particle has the highest charge to mass ratio?

Answer:
Opposite charges attract each other and same charges repel each other. It can be observed that particles 1 and 2 both move towards the positively charged plate and repel away from the negatively charged plate. Hence, these two particles are negatively charged. It can also be observed that particle 3 moves towards the negatively charged plate and repels away from the positively charged plate. Hence, particle 3 is positively charged. The charge to mass ratio (emf) is directly proportional to the displacement or amount of deflection for a given velocity. Since the deflection of particle 3 is the maximum, it has the highest charge to mass ratio.

Question 15.
Consider a uniform electric field E = 3 × 10³ î N/C. (a) What is the flux of this field through a square of 10 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to the yz plane? (b) What is the flux through the same square if the normal to its plane makes a 60° angle with the x-axis?
Answer:
Here, \(\overrightarrow{\vec{E}}\) = 3 × 10³ î NC^-1 i.e., the electric field acts along positive direction of x-axis.
Side of square = 10 cm
∴ Its surface area, ΔS = (10 cm)² = 10^-2 m²
or Δ\(\overrightarrow{\vec{S}}\) = 10^-2 î m²
as normal to the square is along x-axis.

(a) If Φ be the electric flux through the square, then

Φ = \(\vec{E} \cdot \Delta \vec{S}\)
= (3 × 10³î) .(10^-2)
= 3 × 10³ × 10^-2 î .î
= 3 × 10 = 30 Nm²C^-1

(b) Here, angle between normal to the square i.e., area vector and the electric field is 60°. i.e.,
θ = 60°
∴ Φ = \(\overrightarrow{\vec{E}}\). Δ \(\overrightarrow{\vec{S}}\) = E. Δ S cos60°
= 3 × 10³ × 10^-2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\)
= 15Nm²C^-1

Question 16.
What is the net flux of the uniform electric field of exercise 1.15 through a cube of side 20 cm oriented so that its faces are parallel to the coordinate planes?
Answer:
All the faces of a cube are parallel to the coordinate axes. Therefore, the number of field lines entering the cube is equal to the number of field lines piercing out of the cube. As a result, net flux through the cube is zero.

Question 17.
Careful measurement of the electric field at the surface of a black box indicates that the net outward flux through the surface of the box is 8.0 × 10³ N m² / C. (a) What is the net charge inside the box? (b) If the net outward flux through the surface of the box were zero, could you conclude that there were no charges inside the box? Why or Why not?
Answer:
(a) Net outward flux through the surface of the box Φ = 8.0 × 10³ N m² / C
For a body containing net charge q, flux is given by the relation,
Φ = \(\)
q = ε₀Φ)
= 8.854 × 10^-12 × 8.0 × 10³
(∵ ε₀ = 8.854 × 10^-12N^-1C²m^-2) = 7.08 × 10^-8
= 0.07 µC
Therefore, the net charge inside the box is 0.07 pC.

(b) No.
Net flux piercing out through a body depends on the net charge contained in the body. If net flux is zero, then it can be inferred that net charge inside the body is zero. The body may have equal amount of positive and negative charges.

Question 18.
A point charge +10 µC is a distance 5 cm directly above the centre of a square of side 10 cm, as shown in Fig. 1.34. What is the magnitude of the electric flux through the square? (Hint : Think of the square as one face of a cube with edge 10 cm.)

Answer:
The square can be considered as one face of a cube of edge 10 cm with a centre where charge q is placed. According to Gauss’s theorem for a cube, total electric flux is through all its six faces.
Φ total = \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)

Hence, electric flux through one face of the cube i. e., through the square,
Φ = \(\frac{\phi_{\text {Total }}}{6}=\frac{1}{6} \frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
ε₀ = 8.854 × 10^-12 N^-1C²m^-2
q = 10 µC =10 × 10^-6C
Φ = \(\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{10 \times 10^{-6}}{8.854 \times 10^{-12}}\)
= 1.88 × 10⁵ N m² C^-1
Therefore, electric flux through the square is 1.88 × 10⁵ N m² C^-1.

Question 19.
A point charge of 2.0 µC is at the centre of a cubic Gaussian surface 9.0 cm on edge. What is the net electric flux through the surface?
Answer:
Net electric flux (Φ _Net) through the cubic surface is given by,
Φ _Net = \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
ε₀ = 8.854 × 10^-12 N^-1C²m^-22 q q = Net charge contained inside the cube
= 20 µC = 2 × 10^-6C
∴ Φ _Net = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-6}}{8.854 \times 10^{-12}}\)
∴ Φ _Net = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-6}}{8.854 \times 10^{-12}}\)
= 2.26 × 10⁵ Nm²C^-1
The net electric flux through the surface is = 2.26 × 10⁵ Nm²C^-1

Question 20.
A point charge causes an electric flux of -1.0 × 10³ Nm² /C to pass through a spherical Gaussian surface of 10.0 cm radius centred on the charge, (a) If the radius of the Gaussian surface were doubled, how much flux would pass through the surface? (b) What is the value of the point charge?
Answer:
Electric flux, Φ = -1.0 × 10³ Nm²/C
Radius of the Gaussian surface,
r = 10.0 cm

(a) Electric flux piercing out through a surface depends on the net charge enclosed inside a body. It does not depend on the size of the body. If the radius of the Gaussian surface is doubled, then the flux passing through the surface remains the same i. e., -1.0 × 10³ 

(b) Electric flux is given by the relation,
Φ = \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
q = Φε₀
= -1.0 × 10³ × 8.854 × 10^-12
= -8.854 × 10^-9 C
= -8.854 nC
Therefore, the value of the point charge is -8.854 nC.

Question 21.
A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm has an unknown charge. If the electric field 20 cm from the centre of the sphere is 1.5 × 10³ N/C and points radially inward, what is the net charge on the sphere?
Answer:
Here R = radius of the conducting sphere = 10 cm = 0.10 m
r = distance of the point from centre of sphere = 20 cm = 0.20 m Clearly
r > R
E = electric field at a point at a distance of 20 cm from the sphere = 1.5 × 10³ NC ^-1acting inward.
q = net charge on the sphere = ?
Using the formula, E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \cdot \frac{q}{r^{2}}\) We get
q = 4πε₀Er² = \(\frac{1}{9 \times 10^{9}}\) × 1.5 × 10<>3 × (0.20)²
= 6.67 × 10^-9C =6.67 nC
Also as E acts in the inward direction, so charge on the sphere is negative.
q = -6.67 × 10^-9C -6.67nC

Question 22.
A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2.4 m diameter has a surface charge density of 80.0 μC / m². (a) Find the charge on the sphere, (b) What is the total electric flux leaving the surface of the sphere?
Answer:
Diameter of the sphere, d = 2.4 m
Radius of the sphere, r = 1.2 m
Surface charge density, σ = 80.0 μC / m² = 80 × 10 ^-6C / m²

(a) Total charge on the surface of the sphere,
q = Charge density × Surface area = σ × 4πr²
= 80 × 10^-6 × 4 × 3.14 × (1.2)² = 1.447 × 10^-3 C
Therefore, the charge on the sphere is 1.447 × 10^-3 C.

(b) Total electric flux (Φ _Total) leaving out the surface of a sphere containing net charge q is given by the relation,
Φ _Total = \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
ε₀ = 8.854 × 10^-12 N^-1C²m^-2
q = 1.447 × 10^-3 C
Φ _Total = \(\frac{1.44 \times 10^{-3}}{8.854 \times 10^{-12}}\)
= 1.63 × 10⁸ NC^-1 m²
Therefore, the total electric flux leaving the surface of the sphere is 1.63 × 10⁸ NC^-1 m².

Question 23.
An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 × 10⁴ N/C^-1 at a distance of 2 cm. Calculate the linear charge density.
Answer:
Here E = electric field produced by infinite line charge = 9 × 10⁴ NC^-1.
r = distance of the point where E is produce = 2 cm = 0.02 m.
λ = linear charge density = ?

Question 24.
Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close to each other. On their inner faces, the plates have surface charge densities of opposite signs and of magnitude 17.0 × 10^-22 C/m². What is E : (a) in the outer region of the first plate, (b) in the outer region of the second plate, and (c) between the plates?
Answer:
The situation is represented in the following figure:

A and B are two parallel plates close to each other. Outer region of plate A is labelled as I, outer region of plate B is labelled as III, and the region between the plates, A and B is labelled as II.

(a) Charge density of plate A,
σ = 17.0 × 10^-22 C/m²
Charge density of plate B,
σ = -17.0 × 10^-22 C/ m²
In the regions, I and III, electric field E is zero. This is because charge is not enclosed by the respective plates.

(b) Electric field E in region II is given by the relation,
E = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
where, ε₀ = Permittivity of free space
= 8.854 × 10^-12N^-1C²m^-2
E = \(\frac{17.0 \times 10^{-22}}{8.854 \times 10^{-12}}\)
= 1.92 × 10^-10 N/C
Therefore, electric field between the plates is 1.92 × 10^-10 N/C.

Question 25.
An oil drop of 12 excess electrons is held stationary under a constant electric field of 2.55 × 10⁴ NC^-1 in Millikan’s oil drop experiment. The density of the oil is 1.26 g cm^-3. Estimate the radius of the drop. (g = 9.81 ms^-2, e = 1.60 × 10^-9 C).
Answer:
Here, E = constant electric field = 2.55 × 10⁴ NC^-1, e = charge of an electron = 1.6 × 10^-19 C, n = no. of electrons = 12
If q = charge on the drop, then
q = ne = 12 × 1.6 × 10^-19 C = 19.2 × 10^-19 C
If F_e be the electrostatic force on the oil drop due to electric field, then
F_e = qE = 19.2 × 10^-19 × 2.55 × 10⁴ …………..(1)
Also let F_g = Force on the drop due to gravity, then
F_g = mg = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr³ρg …………… (2)
Here ρ = density of oil = 1.26 g cm^-3
= 1.26 × 10^-3 kg(10^-2 m)^-3
= 1.26 × 10³ kg m^-3 g
g = 9.81 ms^-2
r = radius of the drop = ?
Putting these values in equation (2), we get

Question 26.
Which among the curves shown in Fig. 1.35 cannot possibly represent electrostatic field lines?


Answer:
(a) The field lines showed in (a) do not represent electrostatic field lines because field lines must be normal to the surface of the conductor.
(b) The field lines showed in (b) do not represent electrostatic field lines because the field lines cannot emerge from a negative charge and cannot terminate at a positive charge.
(c) The field lines showed in (c) represent electrostatic field lines. This is because the field lines emerge from the positive charges and repel each other.
(d) The field lines showed in (d) do not represent electrostatic field lines because the field Hnes should not intersect each other.
(e) The field lines showed in (e) do not represent electrostatic field lines because closed loops are not formed in the area between the field lines.

Question 27.
In a certain region of space, electric Held is along the z-direction throughout. The magnitude of electric field is, however, not constant but increases uniformly along the positive z-direction, at the rate of 10⁵ NC^-1 per metre. What are the force and torque experienced by a system having a total dipole moment equal to 10^-7 Cm in the negative z-direction?
Answer:
Dipole moment of the system, p = q × dl = -10^-7Cm
Rate of increase of electric field per unit length,
\(\frac{d E}{d l}\) = 10⁺⁵ NC^-1
Force (F) experienced by the system is given by the relation,
F = qE
F = q\(\frac{d E}{d l}\) × dl
= p × \(\frac{d E}{d l}\)
= -10^-7 × 10⁵ .
= -10^-2 N
The force is -10^-2 N in the negative z-direction i.e., opposite to the direction of electric field. Hence, the angle between electric field and dipole moment is 180°.
Torque (τ) is given by the relation,
τ = pEsin180°
= 0
Therefore, the torque experienced by the system is zero.

Question 28.
(a) A conductor A with a cavity as shown in Fig. 1.36 (a) is given a charge Q. Show that the entire charge must appear on the outer surface of the conductor.

(b) Another conductor B with charge q is inserted into the cavity keeping B insulated from A. Show that the total charge on the outside surface of A is Q q [Fig. 1.36 (b)].

(c) A sensitive instrument is to be shielded from the strong electrostatic fields in its environment. Suggest a possible way.

Answer:
(a) Let us consider a Gaussian surface that is lying wholly within a conductor and enclosing the cavity. The electric field intensity E inside the charged conductor is zero.
Let q is the charge inside the conductor and e 0 is the permittivity of free space.
According to Gauss’s law,
Flux, Φ = \(\vec{E} \cdot \overrightarrow{d s}\) = \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
Here, E = 0
\(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) = 0
∵ ε₀ ≠ 0
∴ q = 0
Therefore, charge inside the conductor is zero.
The entire charge Q appears on the outer surface of the conductor.

The outer surface of conductor A has a charge of amount Q. Another conductor B having charge +q is kept inside conductor A and it is insulated from A. Hence, a charge of amount -q will be induced in the inner surface of conductor A and + q is induced on the outer surface of conductor A. Therefore, total charge on the outer surface of conductor A is Q + q.

A sensitive instrument can be shielded from the strong electrostatic field in its environment by enclosing it fully inside a metallic surface. A closed metallic body acts as an electrostatic shield.

Question 29.
A hollow charged conductor has a tiny hole cut into its surface. Show that the electric field in the hole is (\(\)) n̂, where n̂ is the unit vector in the outward normal direction and a is the surface charge density near the hole.
Answer:
Let us consider a conductor with a cavity or a hole. Electric field inside the cavity is zero.

Let E is the electric field just outside the conductor, q is the electric charge, σ is the charge density, and ε₀ is the permittivity of free space.
Charge \(|q|=\vec{\sigma} \times \overrightarrow{d s}\)
According to Gauss’s law,
Flux Φ = \(\vec{E} \cdot \overrightarrow{d s}\) = \(\frac{|q|}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
Eds = \(\frac{\vec{\sigma} \times \overrightarrow{d s}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
∴ E = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}} \hat{n}\)

Therefore, the electric field just outside the conductor is \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}} \hat{n}\) . This field is

a superposition of field due to the cavity (\(\vec{E}\)) and the field due to the rest of the charged conductor (E). These fields are equal and opposite inside the conductor, and equal in magnitude and direction outside the conductor.
∴ E’ + E’ = E
E’ = \(=\frac{E}{2}=\frac{\sigma}{2 \varepsilon_{0}} \hat{n}\)
Therefore, the field due to the rest of the conductor is \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}} \hat{n}\) .
Hence, proved.

Question 30.
Obtain the formula for the electric field due to a long thin wire of uniform linear charge density λ without using Gauss’s law. [Hint: Use Coulomb’s law directly and evaluate the necessary integral.]
Answer:
Take a long thin wire XY (as shown in the figure) of uniform linear charge density λ.

Consider a point A at a perpendicular distance l from the mid-point O of the wire, as shown in the following figure:

Let E be the electric field at point A due to the wire, XY.
Consider a small length element dx on the wire section with OZ = x
Let q be the charge on this piece.
∴ q = λ dx
Electric field due to the piece,
dE = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{\lambda d x}{(A Z)^{2}}\)
However, AZ = \(\sqrt{\left(l^{2}+x^{2}\right)}\)
∴ dE = \(\frac{\lambda d x}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}\left(l^{2}+x^{2}\right)}\)

The electric field is resolved into two rectangular components. dE cos θ is the perpendicular component and dE sin0 is the parallel component. When the whole wire is considered, the component dE sin0 is cancelled. Only the perpendicular component dE cosO affects point A.

Hence, effective electric field at point A due to the element dx is dE₁.
∴ dE₁ = \(\frac{\lambda d x \cos \theta}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}\left(x^{2}+l^{2}\right)}\) ……………. (1)
In Δ AZO, tanθ = \(\frac{x}{l}\)
x = ltanθ ……………. (2)

On differentiating equation (2), we obtain
\(\frac{d x}{d \theta}\) = l sin²θ
dx = lsin²θ dθ ……………… (3)

Question 31.
It is now believed that protons and neutrons (which constitute nuclei of ordinary matter) are themselves built out of more elementary units called quarks. A proton and a neutron consist of three quarks each. Two types of quarks, the so called ‘up* quark (denoted by u) of charge (+2/3)e, and the ‘down’ quark (denoted by d) of charge (-1/3) e, together with electrons build up ordinary matter. (Quarks of other types have also been found which give rise to different unusual varieties of matter.) Suggest a possible quark composition of a proton and neutron.
Answer:
A proton has three quarks. Let there be n up quarks in a proton, each having a charge of + \(\frac{2}{3}\) e.
Charge due to n up quarks = (\(\frac{2}{3}\)e)n
Number of down quarks in a proton = 3 – n
Each down quark has a charge of – \(\frac{1}{3}\) e.
Charge due to (3 – n) down quarks = (-\(\frac{1}{3}\)e) (3 – n)
Total charge on a proton = + e
e = (\(\frac{2}{3}\)e)n + (-\(\frac{1}{3}\)e) (3 – n)
e = (\(\frac{2 \text { ne }}{3}\)) – e + \(\frac{n e}{3}\)
2e = ne
n = 2
Number of up quarks in a proton, n = 2
Number of down quarks in a proton = 3 – n = 3 – 2 = 1
Therefore, a proton can be represented as ‘uud’.
A neutron also has three quarks. Let there be n up quarks in a neutron,
each having a charge of + \(\frac{2}{3}\) e.
Charge on a neutron due to n up quarks (+\(\frac{2}{3}\)e) n

Number of down quarks is 3 -n, each having a charge of (-\(\frac{1}{3}\))e
Charge on a neutron due to (3 – n) down quarks = (-\(\frac{1}{3}\)e) (3 – n)
Total charge on a neutron = 0
0 = (\(\frac{2}{3}\)e)n + (-\(\frac{1}{3}\)e) (3 – n)
0 = \(\frac{2}{3}\) en – e + \(\frac{n e}{3}\)
e = ne
n = 1
Number of up quarks in a neutron, n = 1
Number of down quarks in a neutron = 3 – n = 3 – 1 = 2
Therefore, a neutron can be represented as ‘udd’.

Question 32.
(a) Consider an arbitrary electrostatic field configuration. A small test charge isplaced at a null point (i. e., where E = 0) of the configuration. Shew that the equilibrium of the test charge is necessarily unstable.
(b) Verify this result for the simple configuration of two charges of the same magnitude and sign placed a certain distance apart.
Answer:
(a) An arbitrary electrostatic configuration consists of two charges of unequal charges of unequal magnitude and of same sign. e. g., consider a system of two fixed charges + ve and + e separated by a distance r placed at point A and B respectively. Let a test charge q0 be placed at a point C at a distance x from + 4 e. C is the point is resultant field or force on 90 is zero.

or 4(r – x)² = x² or 2(r – x) = ±x
∴ x = \(\frac{2 r}{3}\) or 2r
For equilibrium, the charge q0 can be either + ve or – ve.

Case I: If q0 is – ve, then it experiences equal attractive force due to both the charges. When it is displaced on either side along the line joining the two charges from its equilibrium position, the attractive force due to one charge gets increased while due to the other, it is decreased. As a result of this, charge -q0 no longer returns to its equilibrium position i.e., equilibrium of – ve charge is necessarily unstable.

Case II: If q0 is the + ve but displaced perpendicular to line joining the two charges, then resultant force tends to displace it further more i.e., it will not come back to its equilibrium position i. e., equilibrium will be unstable.

(b) Let the simple configuration consists of two equal charges +q at point A and B. As now the two charges are of same nature and have same magnitude hence their resultant \(\vec{E}\) will be zero at the mid-point O of the line joining them being equal and opposite and system will be unstable if the charge is slightly displaced, it executes S.H.M.

Question 33.
A particle of mass m and charge (~q) enters the region between the two charged plates initially moving along x-axis with speed vx (like particle 1 in Fig. 1.33). The length of plate is L and an uniform electric field E is maintained between the plates. Show that the vertical deflection of the particle at the far edge of the plate is q EL² (2m v²x).
Compare this motion with motion of a projectile in gravitational field discussed in section 4.10 of Class XI Textbook of Physics.
Answer:
Charge on a particle of mass m = -q
Velocity of the particle = v_x
Length of the plates = L
Magnitude of the uniform electric field between the plates = E
Mechanical force,F = Mass (m) x Acceleration (a)
a = \(\frac{F}{m}\)
However, electric force, F = qE
Therefore, acceleration, a = \(\frac{q E}{m}\) …………. (1)
Time taken by the particle to cross the field of length L is given by,
= \(\frac{\text { Length of the plate }}{\text { Velocity of the particle }}=\frac{L}{v_{x}}\) …………… (2)

Velocity of the particle vx In the vertical direction, initial velocity, u = 0
According to the third equation of motion, vertical deflection s of the particle can be obtained as,
s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at²
s = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (\(\frac{q E}{m}\))(\(\frac{L}{v_{x}}\))²
s = \(\frac{q E L^{2}}{2 m v_{x}^{2}}\) ……………. (3)

Hence, vertical deflection of the particle at the far edge of the plate is qEL² / (2m v_x²). This is similar to the motion of horizontal projectiles under gravity.

Question 34.
Suppose that the particle in Exercise in 1.33 is an electron projected with velocity v_x = 2.0 x 10⁶ ms^-1. If E between the plates separated by 0.5 cm is 9.1 x 10² N/C, where will the electron strike the upper plate? (|e| = 1.6 x 10^-19 C, me = 9.1 x 10^-31 kg.)
Answer:
Velocity of the particle, v_x = 2.0 x 10⁶ m/ s
Separation of the two plates, d = 0.5 cm = 0.005 m
Electric field between the two plates, E = 9.1 x 10² N / C
Charge on an electron, q = 1.6 x 10^-19 C
Mass of an electron, m_e = 9.1 x 10^-31 kg
Let the electron strike the upper plate at the end of plate L, when deflection is s. Therefore,

Therefore, the electron will strike the upper plate after travelling 1.6 cm.

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Physics Book Solutions Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices, and Simple Circuits Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices, and Simple Circuits

PSEB 12th Class Physics Guide Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices, and Simple Circuits Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In an n-type silicon, which of the following statement is true:
(a) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(b) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(c) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(d) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
Answer:
The correct statement is (c).
In an n-type silicon, the electrons are the majority carriers, while the holes are the minority carriers.
An n-type semiconductor is obtained when pentavalent atoms, such as phosphorus, are doped in silicon atoms.

Question 2.
Which of the statements given in Exercise 14.1 is true for p-type semiconductors.
Answer:
The correct statement is (d).
In a p-type semiconductor, the holes are majority carriers, while the electrons are the minority carriers.
A p-type semiconductor is obtained when trivalent atoms, such as aluminum, are doped in silicon atoms.

Question 3.
Carbon, silicon, and germanium have four valence electrons each.
These are characterized by valence and conduction bands separated by energy bandgap respectively equal to (E_g)_C, (E_g) _si, and (E_g)_Ge Which of the following statements is true?
(a) (E_g)_si<(E_g)_Ge<(E_g)_C
(b) (E_g)_C<(E_g)_Ge>(E_g)_Si
(c) (E_g)_C > (E_g)_Si > (E_g)_Ge
(d) (E_g)_C =(E_g)_Si = (E_g)_Ge
Answer:
The correct statement is (c).
Out of the three given elements, the energy band gap of carbon is the maximum and that of germanium is the least.
The energy band gap of these elements are related as (E_g)_C > (E_g)_Si > (E_g)_Ge.

Question 4.
In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region to n-region because
(a) free electrons in the n-region attract them.
(b) they move across the junction by the potential difference.
(c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
The correct statement is (c).
The diffusion of charge carriers across a junction takes place from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration. In this case, the p-region has greater concentration of holes than the n-region. Hence, in an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region to the n-region.

Question 5.
When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it
(a) raises the potential barrier,
(b) reduces the majority carrier current to zero,
(c) lowers the potential barrier.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
The correct statement is (c).
When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it lowers the value of potential barrier.
In the case of a forward bias, the potential barrier opposes the applied voltage.
Hence, the potential barrier across the junction gets reduced.

Question 6.
For transistor action which of the following statements are correct:
(a) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.
(b) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(c) The emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased.
(d) Both the emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.
Answer:
The correct statements are (b) and (c).
For a transistor action, the junction must be lightly doped so that the base region is very thin.
Also, both the emitter junction must be forward-biased and collector junction should be reverse-biased.

Question 7.
For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain
(a) remains constant for all frequencies.
(b) is high at high and low frequencies and constant in the middle-frequency range.
(c) is low at high and low frequencies and constant at mid frequencies.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
The correct statement is (c).
The voltage gain of a transistor amplifier is constant at mid-frequency range only. It is low at high and low frequencies.

Question 8.
In half-wave rectification, what is the output frequency if the input frequency is 50 Hz.
What is the output frequency of a full-wave rectifier for the same input frequency.
Answer:
Input frequency = 50 Hz
For a half-wave rectifier, the output frequency is equal to the input frequency.
∴ Output frequency = 50 Hz
For a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency is twice the input frequency
∴ Output frequency = 2 x 50 = 100 Hz

Question 9.
For a CE-transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collected resistance of 2 kΩ is 2V.
Suppose the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100, find the input signal voltage and base current, if the base resistance is 1 kΩ.
Answer:
Given, R_c = 2 kΩ, R_B = 1 kΩ,
V₀ = 2V, input voltage V_i = ?
β = \(\frac{I_{C}}{I_{B}}\) = 100
V₀=I_CR_C= 2V
i_c = \(\frac{2 V}{R_{C}}=\frac{2 \mathrm{~V}}{2 \times 10^{3} \Omega}\) = 1.0^-3 A.

Base current,
I_B = \(\frac{I_{C}}{\beta}=\frac{10^{-3}}{100}\) = 10 x 10^-6 A = 10 μA
Base current, R_B = \(\frac{V_{B B}}{I_{B}}\)
Input Voltage, V_i = R_B x I_B
= 1 x 10³ x 10 x 10^-6
= 0.01 V

Question 10.
Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in series (cascaded). The first amplifier has a voltage gain of 10 and the second has a voltage gain of 20. If the input signal is 0.01 volt, calculate the output ac signal.
Answer:
Voltage gain of the first amplifier, V₁ = 10
Voltage gain of the second amplifier; V₂ = 20
Input signal voltage, V_i = 0.01V
Output AC signal voltage = V₀
The total voltage gain of a two-stage cascaded amplifier is given by the product of voltage gains of both the stages, Le.,
V = V₁ x V₂=10 x 20 =200
We have the relation
V₀ =V x V_i= 200 x 0.01 = 2 V
Therefore, the output AC signal of the given amplifier is 2 V.

Question 11.
A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with bandgap of 2.8 eV. Can it detect a wavelength of 6000 nm?
Answer:
Energy band gap of the given photodiode, E_g = 2.8 eV
Wavelength, λ = 6000 nm= 6000 x 10^-9m
The energy of a signal is given by the relation
E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
where, h = Planck’s constant = 6.63 x 10^-34 Js
c = Speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s
E = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{6000 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 3.313 x 10^-20 J
But 1.6 x 10^-19 J = 1 eV
E = \(\frac{3.313 \times 10^{-20}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 0.207 eV

Additional Exercises

Question 12.
The number of silicon atoms per m³ is 5 x 10²⁸.
This is doped simultaneously with 5 x 10²² atoms per m³ of Arsenic and 5 x 10²⁰ per m³ atoms of Indium.
Calculate the number of electrons and holes. Given that n_i= 1.5 x 10¹⁶m^-3. Is the material n-type or p-type?
Answer:
Arsenic is n-type impurity and indium is p-type impurity.
Number of electrons, n_e = n_D – n_A
= 5 x 10²² – 5 x 10²⁰ = 4.95 x10²² m^-3
Also, n_i = n_en_h
Given, n_i =1.5 x 10¹⁶ m^-3
Number of holes, n_h=\(\frac{n_{i}^{2}}{n_{e}}\) = \(\frac{\left(1.5 \times 10^{16}\right)^{2}}{4.95 \times 10^{22}} \)
⇒ n_h =4.54 x 10⁹ m^-3
As n_e > n_h. so the material is an n-type semiconductor.

Question 13.
In an intrinsic semiconductor, the energy gap E_g is 1.2 eV. Its hole mobility is much smaller than electron mobility and independent of temperature. What is the ratio between conductivity at 600K and that at 300K?  Assume that the temperature dependence of intrinsic carrier concentration n_i is given by n_i = n₀ exp\(\left[-\frac{E_{g}}{2 k_{B} T}\right]\) where n₀ is a constant.
Answer:
Energy gap of the given intrinsic semiconductor, E = 1.2 eV
The temperature dependence of the intrinsic carrier-concentration is written as
n_i = n₀ exp\(\left[-\frac{E_{g}}{2 k_{B} T}\right]\)

where, k_B = Boltzmann constant = 8.62 x 10^-5eV/K
T = Temperature, n₀ = Constant
Initial temperature, T₁ = 300 K
The intrinsic carrier-concentration at this temperature can be written as
n_i1 =n₀exp \(\left[-\frac{E_{g}}{2 k_{B} \times 300}\right]\)
………………………….. (1)
Final temperature, T₂ = 600 K
The intrinsic carrier-concentration at this temperature can be written as
n_i1 = n₀exp \(\left[-\frac{E_{g}}{2 k_{B} \times 600}\right]\)
………………………………… (2)

The ratio between the conductivities at 600 K and at 300 K is equal to the ratio between the respective intrinsic carrier- concentrations at these temperatures.

Therefore, the ratio between the conductivities is 1.09 x 10⁵.

Question 14.
In a p.n junction diode, the current I can be expressed as
I = I₀exp\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{eV}}{2 k_{B} T}-1\right)\) where I₀ is called the reverse saturation current, V is the voltage across the diode and is positive for forward bias and negative for reverse bias, and I is the current through the diode, k_B is the Boltzmann constant (8.6 x 10^-5 eV/K) and T is the absolute temperature. if for a given diode I₀ = 5 x 10^-12 A and T = 300K, then
(a) What will be the forward current at a forward voltage of 0.6V?
(b) What will be the increase in the current if the voltage across the diode is increased to 0.7 V?
(c) What is the dynamic resistance?
(d) What will be the current if reverse bias voltage changes from 1V to 2 V?
Answer:
Given, I₀ = 5 x 10^-12 A, T = 300 K
k_B =8.6 x 10^-5 eV/K
= 8.6 x 10^-5 x 1.6 x 10^-19J/K
(a) Given, voltage V = 0.6 V
∴ \(\frac{e V}{k_{B} T}=\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 0.6}{8.6 \times 10^{-5} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 300}\) = 23.26
The current I through a junction diode is given by

(b) Given, voltage V = 0.7 V
∴ \( \frac{e V}{k_{B} T}=\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 0.7}{8.6 \times 10^{-5} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 300}\) = 27.14
Now,

Change in current ΔI = 3.035 — 0.063 = 2.9 A
(c) ΔI =2.9 A, voltage ΔV=0.7—0.6=0.1 V
Dynamic resistance R_d =\(\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta I}=\frac{0.1}{2.9}\) = 0.0336 Ω
(d) As the voltage changes from 1 V to 2 V, the current I will be almost
equal to I₀ = 5 x 10^-12 A.
It is due to that the diode possesses practically infinite resistance in the reverse bias.

Question 15.
You are given the two circuits as shown in Fig. 14.44. Show that
circuit (a) acts as OR gate while the circuit (b) acts as AND gate.

Answer:
(a) A and B are the inputs and Y is the output of the given circuit. The left half of the given figure acts as the NOR Gate, while the right half acts as the NOT Gate. This is shown in the following figure

Hence, the output of the NOR Gate = \(\overline{A+B}\)
This will be the input for the NOT Gate. Its output will be \(\overline{\overline{A+B}}\) = A+B
∴ Y = A + B
Hence, this circuit functions as an OR Gate.

(b) A and B are the inputs and Y is the output of the given circuit. It can be observed from the following figure that the inputs of the right half NOR Gate are the outputs of the two NOT Gates.

Hence, the output of the given circuit can be written as
Y = \(\overline{\bar{A}+\bar{B}}=\overline{\bar{A}} \cdot \overline{\bar{B}}= \) = A.B
Hence, the circuit functions as an AND Gate.

Question 16.
Write the truth table for a NAND gate connected as given in Fig. 14.45. Hence identify the exact logic operation carried out by this circuit.

Answer:
A acts as the two inputs of the NAND gate and Y is the output, as shown in the following figure

Hence, the output can be written as
Y =\(\overline{A \cdot A}=\bar{A}+\bar{A}=\bar{A}\) ……………………… (1)
The truth table for equation (1) can be drawn as

A	Y = \(\bar{A}\)
0	1
1	0

This circuit functions as a NOT gate. The symbol for this logic circuit is shown as

Question 17.
You are given two circuits as shown in Fig. 14.46, which consist of NAND gates. Identify the logic operation carried out by the two circuits.

Answer:
In both the given circuits, A and B are the inputs and Y is the output
(a) The output of the left NAND gate will be A. B, as shown in the following figure

Hence, the output of the combination of the two NAND gates is given as
Y= \(\overline{(\overline{A \cdot B}) \cdot(\overline{A \cdot B})}=\overline{\overline{A B}}+\overline{\overline{A B}}\) =AB
Hence, this circuit functions as an AND gate.

(b) \(\bar{A}\) is the output of the upper half of the NAND gate and B is the output of the lower half of the NAND gate, as shown in the following figure

Hence, the output of the combination of theNAND gates will be given as
Y = \(\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B}=\overline{\bar{A}}+\overline{\bar{B}}\) =A + B
Hence, this circuit functions as an OR gate.

Question 18.
Write the truth table for circuit given in Fig 14.47 below consisting of NOR gates and identify the logic operation (OR, AND, NOT) which this circuit is performing.

(Hint: A = 0, B = 1 then A and B inputs of second NOR gate will be 0 and hence Y = 1. Similarly, work out the values of Y for other combinations of A and B. Compare with the truth table of OR, AND, NOT gates and find the correct one.)
Answer:
A and B are the mputs of the given circuit The output of the first NOR gate ’ is \(\overline{A+B}\) .
It can be observed from the following figure that the inputs of the second NOR gate become the out put of the first one

Hence, the output of the combination is given as
Y= \(\overline{\overline{A+B}+\overline{A+B}}\)
= \(\overline{\bar{A}+\bar{B}}+\overline{\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B}}\)
= \(\overline{\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B}}=\overline{\bar{A}}+\overline{\bar{B}}\) = A+B
The truth table for this operation is given as

A	B	Y(= A+B)
0	0	0
0	1	1
1	0	1
1	1	1

This is the truth table of an OR gate. Hence, this circuit functions as an OR gate.

Question 19.
Write the truth table for the circuits given in Fig.14.48 consisting of NOR gates only. Identify the logic operations (OR, AND, NOT) performed by the two circuits.

Answer:
(a) A acts as the two inputs of the NOR gate and Y is the output, as shown in the following figure.
Hence, the output of the circuit is \(\overline{A+A}\)

The truth table for the same is given as

A	Y = \(\bar{A}\)
0	1
1	0

This is the truth table of a NOT gate. Hence, this circuit functions as a NOT gate.

(b) A and B are the inputs and Y is the output of the given circuit. By using the result obtained in solution
(a), we can infer that the outputs of the
first two NOR gates are \(\bar{A}\) and \(\bar{B}\), as shown in the following figure

\(\bar{A}\) and \(\bar{B}\) are the inputs for the last NOR gate.
Hence, the output for the circuit can be written as
Y = \(\overline{\bar{A}+\bar{B}}=\overline{\bar{A}} \cdot \overline{\bar{B}}\) = A.B
The truth table for the same can be written as

A	B	Y(=A.B)
o	o	o
o	1	o
1	0	0
1	1	1

This is the truth table of an ANL) gate. Hence, this circuit functions as an AND gate.

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Physics Book Solutions Chapter 15 Communication Systems Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 15 Communication Systems

PSEB 12th Class Physics Guide Communication Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the frequencies will be suitable for beyond-the-horizon communication using sky waves?
(a) 10 kHz
(b) 10 MHz
(C) 1 GHz
(d) 1000 GHz
Answer:
(b) 10 MHz.
For beyond-the-horizon communication, it is necessary for the signal waves to travel a large distance. 10 kHz signals cannot be radiated efficiently because of the antenna size. The high-energy signal waves (1 GHz – 1000 GHz) penetrate the ionosphere. 10 MHz frequencies get reflected easily from the ionosphere. Hence, signal waves of such frequencies are suitable for beyond-the-horizon communication.

Question 2.
Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of:
(a) Ground waves
(b) Sky waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) Space waves
Answer:
(d) Space waves
Owing to its high frequency, an ultra-high frequency (UHF) wave can neither travel along the trajectory of the ground nor can it get reflected by the ionosphere. The signals having UHF are propagated through line-of-sight communication, which is nothing but space wave propagation.

Question 3.
Digital signals
(i) do not provide a continuous set of values,
(ii) represent values as discrete steps,
(iii) can utilize binary system, and
(iv) can utilize decimal as well as binary systems.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) but not (iv)
(d) All of (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) A digital signal uses the binary (0 and 1) system for transferring message signals. Such a system cannot utilize the decimal system (which corresponds to analogue signals). Digital signals represent discontinuous values.

Question 4.
Is it necessary for a transmitting antenna to be at the same height as that of the receiving antenna for line-of-sight communication? A TV transmitting antenna is 81 m tall. How much service area can it cover if the receiving antenna is at the ground level?
Answer:
Line-of-sight communication means that there is no physical obstruction between the transmitter and the receiver.
In such communications, it is not necessary for the transmitting and receiving antennas to be at the same height.
Height of the given antenna, h = 81 m
Radius of earth, R = 6.4 x 10⁶ m

For range, d = 2Rh, the service area of the antenna is given by the relation
A = πd² = π(2Rh)
= 3.14 x 2 x 6.4 x 10⁶ x 81
= 3255.55 x 10⁶ m²
= 3255.55 ~ 3256 km².

Question 5.
A carrier wave of peak voltage 12 V is used to transmit a message signal.
What should be the peak voltage of the modulating signal in order to have a modulation index of 75%?
Answer:
Amplitude of the carrier wave, A_c =12,
Modulation index, m = 75% = 0.75
Amplitude of the modulating wave = A_m

Using the relation for modulation index,
m = \(\frac{A_{m}}{A_{c}}\)
∴ A_m =mA_c
= 0.75 x 12 = 9 V
Hence, amplitude of the modulating wave is 9 V.

Question 6.
A modulating signal is a square wave, as shown in Fig. 15.14.
The carrier wave is given by c(t) = 2 sin (8πt) volts.

(i) Sketch the amplitude modulated waveform.
(ii) What is the modulation index?
Answer:
Given, the equation of carrier wave
c(t) = 2sin(8πt) ……………………………… (i)
(i) According to the diagram.
Amplitude of modulating signal, A_m = 1V
Amplitude of carrier wave,
A_c = 2V [By eq.(1)]
T_m = 1s (From diagram)
From eq.(1) ω_m = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T_{m}}=\frac{2 \pi}{1}\) = 2π rad/s ………………. (2)
c(t) = 2sin8πt = Ac sinω_c t
ω_c =8π
So,
From Eq.(2)
So, ω_c = 4ω_m
Amplitude of modulated wave
A = A_m +A_c =2+1 =3V
The sketch of the amplitude modulated waveform is shown below :
For carrier signal, ω = 8π,T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}=\frac{2}{8}=\frac{1}{4}\) = 0.25s

(ii) Modulation index, µ = \(\frac{A_{m}}{A_{c}}=\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5

Question 7.
For an amplitude modulated wave, the maximum amplitude is found to be 10 V while the minimum amplitude is found to be 2 V. Determine the modulation index, p.
What would be the value of p if the minimum amplitude is zero volts?
Answer:
Maximum amplitude, A_max = 10 V
Minimum amplitude, A_min = 2 V
Modulation index µ, is given by the relation
µ = \(\frac{A_{\max }-A_{\min }}{A_{\max }+A_{\min }}\)
= \(\frac{10-2}{10+2}=\frac{8}{12} \) = 0.67
If A_min=0,
Then µ = \(\frac{A_{\max }}{A_{\max }}=\frac{10}{10}\) = 1
Hence, µ = 1, if the minimum amplitude is zero volts.

Question 8.
Due to economic reasons, only the upper sideband of an AM wave is transmitted, but at the receiving station, there is a facility for generating the carrier. Show that if a device is available which can multiply two signals, then it is possible to recover the modulating signal at the receiver station.
Answer:
Let ω_c be the angular frequency of carrier waves and com by the angular frequency of signal waves.
Let the signal received at the receiving station be
e = E₁ cos(ω_c +ω_m )t
Let the instantaneous voltage of carrier wave
e_c = E_c cosω_c t
is available at receiving station.
Multiplying these two signals, we get
e x e_c = E₁E_c coscω_c t cos(ω_c+ω_m)t

Now, at the receiving end as the signal passes through filter, it will pass the high frequency (2ω_c + ω_m) but obstruct the frequency ω_m. So, we can \(\frac{E_{1} E_{c}}{2} \cos \omega_{m_{s}} t\) record the modulating signal frequency ω_m.

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations

PSEB 12th Class Biology Guide Organisms and Populations Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is diapause different from hibernation?
Answer:
Diapause is a stage of suspended development to cope with unfavourable conditions. Many species of Zooplankton and insects exhibit diapause to tide over adverse climatic conditions during their development. Hibernation or winter sleep is a resting stage wherein animals escape winters of cold) by hiding themselves in their shelters. They escape the winter season by entering a state of inactivity by slowing their metabolism. The phenomenon of hibernation is exhibited by bats, squirrels, and other rodents.

Question 2.
If a marine fish is placed in a freshwater aquarium, will the fish be able to survive? Why or why not?
Answer:
If a marine fish is placed in a freshwater aquarium, then its chances of survival will diminish. This is because their bodies are adapted to high salt concentrations of the marine environment. In freshwater conditions, they are unable to regulate the water entering their body (through osmosis). Water enters their body due to the hypotonic environment outside. This results in the swelling up of the body, eventually leading to the death of the marine fish.

Question 3.
Define phenotypic adaptation. Give one example.
Answer:
Phenotypic adaptation involves changes in the body of an organism in response to genetic mutation or certain environmental changes. These responsive adjustments occur in an organism in order to cope with environmental conditions present in their natural habitats. For example, desert plants have thick cuticles and sunken stomata on the surface of their leaves to prevent transpiration. Similarly, elephants have long ears that act as thermoregulators.

Question 4.
Most living organisms cannot survive at temperatures above 45°C. How are some microbes able to live in habitats with temperatures exceeding 100°C?
Answer:
Archaebacteria (Thermophiles) are ancient forms of bacteria found in hot water springs and deep-sea hydrothermal vents. They are able to survive in high temperatures (which far exceed 100°C) because their bodies have adapted to such environmental conditions. These organisms contain specialised thermo-resistant enzymes, which carry out metabolic functions that do not get destroyed at such high temperatures.

Question 5.
List the attributes that populations but not individuals possess.
Answer:
A population can be defined as a group of individuals of the same species residing in a particular geographical area at a particular time and functioning as a unit. For example, all human beings living at a particular place at a particular time constitute the population of humans.

The main attributes or characteristics of a population residing in a given area are as follows :
(a) Birth Rate (Natality): It is the ratio of live births in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the number of individuals added to the population with respect to the members of the population.

(b) Death Rate (Mortality): It is the ratio of deaths in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the loss of individuals with respect to the members of the population.

(c) Sex Ratio: It is the number of males or females per thousand individuals.

(d) Age Distribution: It is the percentage of individuals of different ages in a given population. At any given time, the population is composed of individuals that are present in various age groups. The age distribution pattern is commonly represented through age pyramids.

(e) Population Density: It is defined as the number of individuals of a population present per unit area at a given time.

Question 6.
If a population growing exponentially double in size in 3 years, what is the intrinsic rate of increase (r) of the population?
Answer:
A population grows exponentially if sufficient amounts of food resources are available to the individual. Its exponential growth can be calculated by the following integral form of the exponential growth equation:
N_t = N₀e^rt
where,
N_t = Population density after time t
N₀= Population density at time zero
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
e = Base of natural logarithms (2.71828)

From the above equation, we can calculate the intrinsic rate of increase (r) of a population.
Now, as per the question,
Present population density = x
Then, population density after two years = 2x
t = 3 years
Substituting these values in the formula, we get
⇒ 2x = x e^3r
⇒ 2 = e^3r

Applying log on both sides,
⇒ log2 = 3r log e
⇒ \(\frac{\log 2}{3 \log e}\) = r

Hence, the intrinsic rate of increase for the above-illustrated population is 0.2311.

Question 7.
Name important defence mechanisms in plants against herbivory.
Answer:
Several plants have evolved various defence mechanisms both morphological and chemical to protect themselves against herbivory,
(1) Morphological Defence Mechanisms

• Cactus leaves (Opuntia) are modified into sharp spines (thorns) to deter herbivores from feeding on them.
• Sharp thorns along with leaves are present in Acacia to deter herbivores.
• In some plants, the margins of their leaves are spiny or have sharp edges that prevent herbivores from feeding on them.

(2) Chemical Defence Mechanisms

• All parts of Calotropis weeds contain toxic cardiac glycosides, which can prove to be fatal if ingested by herbivores.
• Chemical substances such as nicotine, caffeine, quinine, and opium are produced in plants as a part of self-defence.

Question 8.
An orchid plant is growing on the branch of mango tree. How do you describe this interaction between the orchid and the mango t tree?
Answer:
An orchid plant growing on the branch of a mango tree is an epiphyte. f Epiphytes are plants growing on other plants which however, do not derive nutrition from them. Therefore, the relationship between a mango tree and an orchid is an example of commensalisms, where one species gets benefited while the other remains unaffected. In the above interaction, the orchid is benefited as it gets support while the mango tree remains unaffected.

Question 9.
What is the ecological principle behind the biological control method of managing with pest insects?
Answer:
The basis of various biological control methods is on the concept of predation. Predation is a biological interaction between the predator and the prey, whereby the predator feeds on the prey. Hence, the predators regulate the population of preys in a habitat, thereby helping in the management of pest insects.

Question 10.
Distinguish between the following:
(a) Hibernation and Aestivation
(b) Ectotherms and Endotherms
Answer:
(a) Hibernation and Aestivation

Hibernation	Aestivation
1. Hibernation is a state of reduced activity in some organisms to escape cold winter conditions.	Aesrivarion is a state of reduced activity in some organisms to escape desiccation due to heat in summers.
2. Bears and squirrels inhabiting cold regions are examples of animals that hibernate during winters.	Fishes and snails are examples of organisms aestivating during summers.

(b) Ectotherms and Endotherms

Ectotherms	Endotherms
1. Ectotherms ate cold-blooded animals. Their temperature varies with their surroundings.	Endotherms are warm-blooded animals. They maintain a constant body temperature.
2. Fishes, amphibians, and reptiles are ectothermic animals.	birds and mammals are endothermal animals.

Question 11.
Write a short note on
(a) Adaptations of Desert Plants and Animals
(b) Adaptations of plants to water scarcity
(c) Behavioural adaptations in animals
(d) Importance of light to plants
(e) Effect of temperature or water scarcity and the adaptations of animals.
Answer:
(a) Adaptations of Desert Plants and Animals
(i) Adaptations of Desert Plants: Plants found in deserts are well adapted to cope with harsh desert conditions such as water scarcity and scorching heat. Plants have an extensive root system to tap underground water. They bear thick cuticles and sunken stomata o.i the surface of their leaves to reduce transpiration.

In Opuntia, the leaves are entirely modified into spines and photosynthesis is carried out by green stems. Desert plants have special pathways to synthesise food, called CAM (C₄ pathway). It enables the stomata to remain closed during the day to reduce the loss of water through transpiration.

(ii) Adaptations of Desert Animals: Animals found in deserts such as desert kangaroo rats, lizards, snakes, etc. are well adapted to their habitat. The kangaroo rat found in the deserts of Arizona never drinks water in its life. It has the ability to concentrate its urine to conserve water. Desert lizards and snakes bask in the sun during early morning and burrow themselves in the sand during afternoons to escape the heat of the day. These adaptations occur in desert animals to prevent the loss of water.

(b) Adaptations of Plants to Water Scarcity: Plants found in deserts are well adapted to cope with water scarcity and scorching heat of the desert. Plants have an extensive root system to tap underground water. They bear thick cuticles and sunken stomata on the, surface of their leaves to reduce transpiration. In Opuntia, the leaves are modified into
spines and the process of photosynthesis is carried out by green stems. Desert plants have special pathways to synthesise food, called CAM. (C₄ pathway). It enables their stomata to remain closed during the day to reduce water loss by transpiration.

(c) Behavioural Adaptations in Animals: Certain organisms are affected by temperature variations. These organisms undergo adaptations such as hibernation, aestivation, migration, etc. to escape environmental stress to suit their natural habitat. These adaptations in the behaviour of an organism are called behavioural adaptations. For example, ectodermal animals and certain endotherms exhibit behavioural adaptations. Ectotherms are cold-blooded animals such as fish, amphibians, reptiles, etc.

Their temperature varies with their surroundings. For example, the desert lizard basks in the sun during early hours when the temperature is quite low. However, as the temperature begins to rise, the lizard burrows itself inside the sand to escape the scorching sun. Similar burrowing strategies are exhibited by other desert animals. Certain endotherms (warm-blooded animals) such as birds and mammals escape cold and hot weather conditions by hibernating during winters and aestivating during summers. They hide themselves in shelters such as caves, burrows, etc. to protect against temperature variations.

(d) Importance of Light to Plants: Sunlight acts as the ultimate source of energy for plants. Plants are autotrophic organisms, which need light for carrying out the process of photosynthesis. Light also plays an important role in generating photoperiodic responses! occurring in plants. Plants respond to changes in intensity of light
during various seasons to meet their photoperiodic requirements for flowering. Light also plays an important role in aquatic habitats for ‘ vertical distribution of plants in the sea.

(e) Effect of Temperature or Water Scarcity and the Adaptations of Animals: Temperature is the most important
ecological factor. Average temperature on the Earth varies from one place to another. These variations in temperature affect the distribution of animals on the Earth. Animals that can tolerate a wide range of temperature are called eurythermal. Those which can tolerate a narrow range of temperature are called stenothermal animals.

Animals also undergo adaptations to suit their natural habitats. For example, animals found in colder areas have shorter ears and limbs that prevent the loss of heat from their body. Also, animals found in Polar regions have thick layers of fat below their skin and thick coats of fur to prevent the loss of heat.

Some organisms exhibit various behavioural changes to suit their natural habitat. These adaptations present in the behaviour of an organism to escape environmental stresses are called behavioural adaptations. For example, desert lizards are ectotherms. This means that they do not have a temperature regulatory mechanism to escape temperature variations.

Question 12.
List the various abiotic environmental factors.
Answer:
All non-living components of an ecosystem form abiotic components. It includes factors such as temperature, water, light, and soil.

Question 13.
Give an example for:
(a) An endothermic animal
(b) An ectothermic animal
(c) An organism of benthic zone
Answer:
(a) Endothermic Animal: Birds such as crows, sparrows, pigeons, cranes, etc. and mammals such as bears, cows, rats, rabbits, etc. are endothermic animals.

(b) Ectothermic Animal: Fishes such as sharks, amphibians such as frogs, and reptiles such as tortoises, snakes, and lizards are ectothermic animals.

(c) Organism of Benthic Zone: Decomposing bacteria is an example of an organism found in the benthic zone of a water body.

Question 14.
Define population and community.
Answer:
Population: A population can be defined as a group of individuals of the same species residing in a particular geographical area at a particular time and functioning as a unit. For example, all human beings living at a particular place at a particular time constitute the population of humans.

Community: A community is defined as a group of individuals of different species, living within a certain geographical area. Such individuals can be similar or dissimilar, but cannot reproduce with the members of other species.

Question 15.
Define the following terms and give one example for each:
(a) Commensalism
(b) Parasitism
(c) Camouflage
(d) Mutualism
(e) Interspecific competition
Answer:
(a) Commensalism: Commensalism is an interaction between two species in which one species gets benefited while the other remains unaffected. An orchid growing on the branches of a mango tree and barnacles attached to the body of whales are examples of commensalisms.

(b) Parasitism: It is an interaction between two species in which one species (usually smaller) gets positively affected, while the other species (usually larger) is negatively affected. An example of this is liver fluke. Liver fluke is a parasite that lives inside the liver of the host body and derives nutrition from it. Hence, the parasite is benefited as it derives nutrition from the host, while the host is negatively affected as the parasite reduces the host fitness, making its body weak.

(c) Camouflage: It is a strategy adopted by prey species to escape their predators. Organisms are cryptically coloured so that they can easily mingle in their surroundings and escape their predators. Many species of frogs and insects camouflage in their surroundings and escape their predators.

(d) Mutualism: It is an interaction between two species in which both species involved are benefited. For example, lichens show a mutual symbiotic relationship between fungi and blue-green algae, where both are equally benefited from each other.

(e) Interspecific Competition: It is an interaction between individuals of different species where both species get negatively affected. For example, the competition between flamingoes and resident fishes in South American lakes for common food resources i.e., zooplankton.

Question 16.
With the help of suitable diagram describe the logistic population growth curve.
Answer:
The logistic population growth curve is commonly observed in yeast cells that are grown under laboratory conditions. It includes five phases: the lag phase, positive acceleration phase, exponential phase, negative acceleration phase, and stationary phase.
(a) Lag Phase: Initially, the population of the yeast cell is very small. This is because of the limited resource present in the habitat.

(b) Positive Acceleration Phase: During this phase, the yeast cell adapts to the new environment and starts increasing its population. However, at the beginning of this phase, the growth of the cell is very limited.

(c) Exponential Phase: During this phase, the population of the yeast cell increases suddenly due to rapid growth. The population grows exponentially due to the availability of sufficient food resources, constant environment, and the absence of any interspecific competition. As a result, the curve rises steeply upwards.

(d) Negative Acceleration Phase: During this phase, the
environmental resistance increases and the growth rate of the population decreases. This occurs due to an increased competition among the yeast cells for food and shelter.

(e) Stationary Phase: During this phase, the population becomes stable. The number of cells produced in a population equals the number of cells that die. Also, the population of the species is said to have reached nature’s carrying capacity in its habitat.

A Verhulst-pearl logistic curve is also known as an S-Shaped growth curve.

Question 17.
Select the statement which explains best parasitism.
(a) One organism is benefited.
(b) Both the organisms are benefited.
(c) One organism is benefited, other is not affected.
(d) One organism is benefited, other is affected.
Answer:
(d) One organism is benefited, other is affected.
Parasitism is an interaction between two species in which one species (parasite) derives benefit while the other species (host) is harmed. For example, ticks and lice (parasites) present on the human body represent this interaction wherein the parasites receive benefit (as they derive nourishment by feeding on the blood of humans). On the other hand, these parasites reduce host fitness and cause harm to the human body.

Question 18.
List any three important characteristics of a population and explain.
Answer:
A population can be defined as a group of individuals of the same species, residing in a particular geographical area at a particular time and functioning as a unit. For example, all human beings living at a particular place at a particular time constitute the population of humans.
Three important characteristics of a population are as follows :
(a) Birth Rate (Natality): It is the ratio of live births in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the number of individuals added to the population with respect to the members of the population.

(b) Death Rate (Mortality): It is the ratio of deaths in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the loss of individuals with respect to the members of the population.

(c) Age Distribution: It is the percentage of individuals of different ages in a given population. At any given time, a population is composed of individuals that are present in various age groups. The age distribution pattern is commonly represented through a^e pyramids.

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem

PSEB 12th Class Biology Guide Ecosystem Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) Plants are called as ……………………………. because they fix carbon dioxide.
(b) In an ecosystem dominated by trees, the pyramid (of numbers) is ………………….. type.
(c) In aquatic ecosystems, the limiting factor for the productivity is ………………………. .
(d) Common detritivores in our ecosystem are …………………………. .
(e) The major reservoir of carbon on earth is …………………………….. .
Answer:
(a) autotrophs
(b) inverted
(c) light
(d) earthworms
(e) oceans.

Question 2.
Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain?
(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Decomposers
Answer:
(a) Producers (decomposers can be maximum but they are excluded from the food chain ).

Question 3.
The second trophic level in a lake is
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Answer:
(b) Zooplankton
Zooplankton are primary consumers in aquatic food chains that feed upon phytoplankton. Therefore, they are present at the second trophic level in a lake.

Question 4.
Secondary producers are
(a) Herbivores
(b) Producers
(c) Carnivores
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above
Plants are the only producers. Thus, they are called primary producers. There are no other producers in a food chain.

Question 5.
What is the percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) in the incident solar radiation?
(a) 100%
(b) 50 %
(c) 1-5%
Answer:
(b) 50%
Out of total incident solar radiation, about fifty percent of it forms photosynthetically active radiation or PAR.

Question 6.
Distinguish between
(a) Grazing food chain and detritus food chain
(b) Production and decomposition
(c) Upright and inverted pyramid
(d) Food chain and Food web
(e) Litter and detritus
(f) Primary and secondary productivity
Answer:
(a) Grazing food chain and detritus food chain

Grazing food chain	Detritus food chain
1. In this food chain, energy is derived from the Sun.	In this food chain, energy comes from organic matter (or detritus) generated in trophic levels of the grazing food chain.
2. It begins with producers, present at the first trophic level. The plant biomass is then eaten by herbivores, which in turn are consumed by a variety of carnivores.	begins with detritus such as dead bodies of animals or fallen leaves, which are then eaten by decomposers or detrivores. These detritivores are in turn consumed by their predators.
3. This food chain is usually large.	It is usually smaller as compared to the grazing food chain.

(b) Production and decomposition

Production	Decomposition
1. It is the rare of producing organic matter (food) by producers.	It is the process of breaking down of complex organic matter or biomass from the body of dead plants and animals with the help of decomposers into organic raw material such as CO2, H2O and other nutrients.
2. It depends on the photosynthetic cápacity of the producers.	It occurs with the help of decomposers.
3. Sunlight is required by plants for primary production.	Sunlight is not required for decomposition by clecomposers.

(c) upright and inverted pyramid

Upright pyramid	Inverted pyramid
1. The pyramid of energy is upright.	always The pyramid of biomass and the pyramid of, numbers can be inverted.
2. In the upright pyramid, the number and biomass of organisms in the producer level of an ecosystem is the highest, which keeps on decreasing at each trophic level in a food chain.	In an inverted pyramid, the number and biomass of organisms in the producer level of an ecosystem is the lowest, which keeps on increasing at each tropic level.

(d) Food chain and food web

Food chain	Food web
1. The transfer of energy from producers to top consumers through a series of organisms is called food chain.	A number of food chain inter-connected with each other forming a web-like pattern is called food web.
2. One organism holds only one position.	One organism can hold more than one position.
3. The flow of energy can be easily calculated.	The flow of energy is very difficult to calculate.
4. It is always straight and proceed in a progressive straight line.	Instead of straight line, it is a series of branching lines.
5. Competition is limited to members of same trophic level.	Competition is amongst members of same and different trophic levels.

(e) Litter and detritus

Litter	Detritus
l. It is made of dried fallen plant matter.	It is freshly deposited organic matter, i. e. remains of plants and animals.
2. It is found above the ground.	It is found both above and below the ground.

(f) Primary and secondary productivity

Primary productivity	Secondary_productivity
1. Primary productivity is the amount of energy accumulation or amount of biomass produced per unit area over a time period.	Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumer.
2.  It is of two types, gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP). They are related as: GPP – R = NPP, where R is respiratory losses.	It is also of two types gross secondary productivity (GSP) and net secondary productivity (NSP). They are related as: NSP = GSP – R Where R is respiratory losses.

Question 7.
Describe the components of an ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is defined as an interacting unit that includes both the biological community as well as the non-living components of an area. The living and the non-living components of an ecosystem interact amongst themselves and function as a unit, which gets evident during the processes of nutrient cycling, energy flow, decomposition, and productivity. There are many ecosystems such as ponds, forests, grasslands, etc.

The two components of an ecosystem are as follows :
(a) Biotic Component: It is the living component of an ecosystem that includes biotic factors such as producers, consumers, decomposers, etc. Producers include plants and algae. They contain chlorophyll pigment, which helps them carry out the process of photosynthesis in the presence of light.

Thus, they are also called converters or transducers. Consumers or heterotrophs are organisms that are directly (primary consumers) or indirectly (secondary and tertiary consumers) dependent on producers for their food. Decomposers include micro-organisms such as bacteria and fungi. They obtain nutrients by breaking down the remains of dead plants and animals.

(b) Abiotic Component: They are the non-living component of an ecosystem such as light, temperature, water, soil, air, inorganic nutrients, etc.

Question 8.
Define ecological pyramids and describe with examples, pyramids of number and biomass.
Answer:
An ecological pyramid is a graphical representation of various ecological parameters such as the number of individuals present at each trophic level, the amount of energy, or the biomass present at each trophic level.
Ecological pyramids represent producers at the base, while the apex represents the top-level consumers present in the ecosystem.
There are three types of pyramids:

1. Pyramid of numbers
2. Pyramid of energy
3. Pyramid of biomass

1. Pyramid of Numbers: It is a graphical representation of the number of individuals present at each trophic level in a food chain of an ecosystem. The pyramid of numbers can be upright or inverted depending on the number of producers. For example, in a grassland ecosystem, the pyramid of numbers is upright.

In this type of a food chain, the number of producers (plants) is followed by the number of herbivores (mice), which in turn is followed by the number of secondary consumers (snakes) and tertiary carnivores (eagles). Hence, the number of individuals at the producer level will be the maximum, while the number of individuals present at top carnivores will be least.

On the other hand, in a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is inverted. In this type of a food chain, a single tree (producer) provides food to several fruit-eating birds, which in turn support several insect species.

2. Pyramid of Biomass: A pyramid of biomass is a graphical representation of the total amount of living matter present at each trophic level of an ecosystem. It can be upright or inverted. It is upright in grasslands and forest ecosystems as the amount of biomass present at the producer level is higher than at the top carnivore level.
The pyramid of biomass is inverted in a pond ecosystem as the biomass of fishes far exceeds the biomass of zooplankton (upon which they feed).

Question 9.
What is primary productivity? Give brief description of factors that affect primary productivity.
Answer:
It is defined as the amount of organic matter or biomass produced by producers per unit area over a period of time. Primary productivity of an ecosystem depends on the variety of environmental factors such as light, temperature, water, precipitation, etc. It also depends on the availability of nutrients and the availability of plants to carry out photosynthesis.

Question 10.
Define decomposition and describe the processes and products of decomposition.
Answer:
Decomposition is the process that involves the breakdown of complex organic matter or biomass from the body of dead plants and animals with the help of decomposers into inorganic raw materials such as carbon dioxide, water, and other nutrients. The various processes involved in decomposition are as follows :
1. Fragmentation: It is the first step in the process of decomposition. It involves the breakdown of detritus into smaller pieces by the action of detritivores such as earthworms.

2. Leaching: It is a process where the water-soluble nutrients go down into the soil layers and get locked as unavailable salts.

3. Catabolism: It is a process in which bacteria and fungi degrade detritus through various enzymes into smaller pieces.

4. Humification: The next step is humification which leads to the formation of a dark-colored colloidal substance called humus, which acts as reservoir of nutrients for plants.

5. Mineralisation: The humus is further degraded by the action of microbes, which finally leads to the release of inorganic nutrients into the soil. This process of releasing inorganic nutrients from the humus is known as mineralization.

Decomposition produces a dark-colored, nutrient-rich substance called humus. Humus finally degrades and releases inorganic raw materials such as C02, water, and other nutrients in the soil.

Question 11.
Give an account of energy flow in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Energy enters an ecosystem from the Sun. Solar radiations pass through the atmosphere and are absorbed by the Earth’s surface. These radiations help plants in carrying out the process of photosynthesis.
Also, they help maintain the Earth’s temperature for the survival of living organisms. Some solar radiations are reflected by the Earth’s surface.

Only 2-10% of solar energy is captured by green plants (producers) during photosynthesis to be converted into food.
The rate at which the biomass is produced by plants during photosynthesis is termed as ‘gross primary productivity.
When these green plants are consumed by herbivores, only 10% of the stored energy from producers is transferred to herbivores. The remaining 90 % of this energy is used by plants for various processes such as respiration, growth, and reproduction. Similarly, only 10% of the energy of herbivores is transferred to carnivores. This is known as ten percent law of energy flow.

Question 12.
Write important features of a sedimentary cycle in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Sedimentary cycles have their reservoirs in the Earth’s crust or rocks. Nutrient elements are found in the sediments of the Earth. Elements such as sulphur, phosphorus, potassium, and calcium have sedimentary cycles.
Sedimentary cycles are very slow. They take a long time to complete their circulation and are considered as less perfect cycles. This is because during recycling, nutrient elements may get locked in the reservoir pool, thereby taking a very long time to come out and continue circulation. Thus, it usually goes out of circulation for a long time.

Question 13.
Outline salient features of carbon cycling in an ecosystem.
Answer:
The carbon cycle is an important gaseous cycle which has its reservoir pool in the atmosphere.
All living organisms contain carbon as a major body constituent. Carbon is a fundamental element found in all living forms. All biomolecules such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins required for life processes are made of carbon.
Carbon is incorporated into living forms through a fundamental process called ‘photosynthesis’.

Photosynthesis uses sunlight and atmospheric carbon dioxide to produce a carbon compound called ‘glucose’.
This glucose molecule is utilised by other living organisms. Thus, atmospheric carbon is incorporated in living forms.
Now, it is necessary to recycle this absorbed carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere to complete the cycle.

There are various processes by which carbon is recycled back into the atmosphere in the form of carbon dioxide gas.
The process of respiration breaks down glucose molecules to produce carbon dioxide gas. The process of decomposition also releases carbon dioxide from dead bodies of plants and animals into the atmosphere. Combustion of fuels, industrialization, deforestation, volcanic eruptions and forest fires act as other major sources of carbon dioxide.

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications

PSEB 12th Class Biology Guide Biotechnology and its Applications Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because
(a) bacteria are resistant to the toxin,
(b) toxin is immature,
(c) toxin is inactive,
(d) bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac.
Answer:
Toxin is inactive: In bacteria, the toxin is present in an inactive form, called prototoxin, which gets converted into active form when it enters the body of an insect.

Question 2.
What are transgenic bacteria? Illustrate using any one example.
Answer:
Transgenic bacteria contain foreign gene that is intentionally introduced into its genome. They are manipulated to express the desirable gene for the production of various commercially important products.

An example of transgenic bacteria is E.coli. In the plasmid of E.coli, the two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chain of human insulin are inserted, so as to produce the respective human insulin chains. Hence, after the insertion of insulin gene into the bacterium, it becomes transgenic and starts producing chains of human insulin. Later on, these chains are extracted from E.coli and combined to form human insulin.

Question 3.
Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of production of genetically modified crops.
Answer:
The production of genetically modified (GM) or transgenic crops has several advantages.

• Most of the GM crops have been developed for pest resistance, which increases the crop productivity and therefore, reduces the reliance on chemical pesticides.
• Many varieties of GM food crops have been developed, which have enhanced nutritional quality. For example, golden rice is a transgenic variety of rice, which is rich in vitamin A.
• These plants prevent the loss of fertility of soil by increasing the ‘
  efficiency of mineral usage.
• They are highly tolerant to unfavourable abiotic conditions.
• The use of GM crops decreases the post harvesting loss of crops.

However, there are certain controversies regarding the use of genetically modified crops around the world. The use of these crops can affect the native biodiversity in an area. For example, the use of Bt toxin to decrease the amount of pesticide is posing a threat for beneficial insect pollinators such as honey bee. If the gene expressed for Bt toxin gets expressed in the pollen, then the honey bee might be affected. As a result, the process of pollination by honey bees would be affected. Also, genetically modified crops are affecting human health. They supply allergens and certain antibiotic resistance markers in the body. Also, they can cause genetic pollution in the wild relatives of the crop plants. Hence, it is affecting our natural environment.

Question 4.
What are Cry proteins? Name an organism that produce it. How has man exploited this protein to his benefit?
Answer:
Cry proteins are encoded by cry genes. These proteins are toxins, which are produced by Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria. This bacterium contains these proteins in their inactive form. When the inactive toxin protein is ingested by the insect, it gets activated by the alkaline pH of the gut. This results in the lysis of epithelial cell and eventually the death of the insect. Therefore, man has exploited this protein to develop certain transgenic crops with insect resistance such as Bt cotton, Bt corn, etc.

Question 5.
What is gene therapy? Illustrate using the example of adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
Answer:
Gene therapy is a technique for correcting a defective gene through gene manipulation. It involves the delivery of a normal gene into the individual to replace the defective gene, for example, the introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase (ADA) in ADA deficient individual. The adenosine deaminase enzyme is important for the normal functioning of the immune system. The individual suffering from this disorder can be cured by transplantation of bone marrow cells. The first step involves the extraction of lymphocyte from the patient’s bone marrow. Then, a functional gene for ADA is introduced into lymphocytes with the help of retrovirus. These treated lymphocytes containing ADA gene are then introduced into the patient’s bone . marrow. Thus, the gene gets activated producing functional T-lymphocytes and activating the patient’s immune system.

Question 6.
Diagrammatically represent the experimental steps in cloning and expressing an human gene (say the gene for growth hormone) into a bacterium like E. coli ?
Answer:
DNA cloning is a method of producing multiple identical copies of specific template DNA. It involves the use of a vector to carry the specific foreign DNA fragment into the host cell. The mechanism of cloning and transfer of gene for growth hormone into E.coli is represented below:

Question 7.
Can you suggest a method to remove oil (hydrocarbon) from seeds based on your understanding of rDNA technology and chemistry of oil?
Answer:
Recombinant DNA technology (rDNA) is a technique used for manipulating the genetic material of an organism to obtain the desired result. For example, this technology is used for removing oil from seeds. The constituents of oil are glycerol and fatty acids. Using rDNA, one can obtain oilless seeds by preventing the synthesis of either glycerol or fatty acids. This( is done by removing the specific gene responsible for the synthesis.

Question 8.
Find out from internet what is golden rice.
Answer:
Golden rice is a genetically modified variety of rice, Oryza sativa, which has been developed as a fortified food for areas where there is a shortage of dietary vitamin A. It contains a precursor of pro-vitamin A, called beta-carotene, which has been introduced into the rice through genetic engineering. The rice plant naturally produces beta-carotene pigment in its leaves. However, it is absent in the endosperm of the seed. This is because beta-carotene pigment helps in the process of photosynthesis while photosynthesis does not occur in endosperm.

Since beta-carotene is a precursor of pro-vitamin A, it is introduced into the rice variety to fulfil the shortage of dietary vitamin A. It is simple and a less expensive alternative to vitamin supplements. However, this variety of rice has faced a significant opposition from environment activists. Therefore, they are still not available in market for human consumption.

Question 9.
Does our blood have proteases and nucleases?
Answer:
No, human blood does not include the enzymes, nucleases and proteases. In human beings, blood serum contains different types of protease inhibitors, which protect the blood proteins from being broken down by the action of proteases. The enzyme, nucleases, catalyses the hydrolysis of nucleic acids that is absent in blood.

Question 10.
Consult internet and find out how to make orally active protein pharmaceutical. What is the major problem to be encountered?
Answer:
Orally active protein pharmaceutical can be made by lining it with a substance that will dissolve after it has passed through the stomach.
The major problem encountered is that the stomach enzymes and acids may denature the therapeutic protein and render it ineffective.

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

PSEB 12th Class Biology Guide Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Textbook Questions and Answers
Question 1.
Can you list 10 recombinant proteins which are used in medical ; practice? Find out where they are used as therapeutics (use the internet).
Answer:

Recombinant proteins	Therapeutic uses
(a) Insulin	Used for diabetes mellitus
(b) OKT-3	Therapeutic antibody, used for reversal
(c) DNase	Treatment of cystic fibrosis
(d) Reo Pro	Prevention of blood clots
(e) Blood clotting factor VIII	Treatment of haemophilia A
(f) Blood clotting factor IX	Treatment of haemophilia B
(g) Tissue plasminogen activator	For acute myocardial infarction
(h) Interferon alpha (INF alpha)	Used for hepatitis C
(i) Interferon beta (INF beta)	Used for multiple sclerosis
(j) Interferon gamma (INF gamma)	Used for granulomatous disease

Question 2.
Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation) showing a restriction enzyme, the substrate DNA on which it acts, the site at which it cuts DNA and the product it produces.
Answer:

Question 3.
From what you have learnt, can you tell whether enzymes are bigger or DNA is bigger in molecular size? How did you know?
Answer:
The molecular size of DNA molecules is more than that of enzymes. It is because an enzyme (protein) is synthesised from a segment of DNA called the gene.

Question 4.
What would be the molar concentration of human DNA in a human cell? Consult your teacher.
Answer:
The molar concentration of human DNA in a human diploid cell is as follows:
Total number of chromosomes × 6.023 × 10²³
= 46 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 2.77 × 1018moles

Question 5.
Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. Eukaryotic cells do not have restriction endonucleases. All the restriction endonucleases have been isolated from the various strains of bacteria and they are also named according to the genus and species of prokaryotes. The first letter of the enzyme comes from the genus and the second two letters come from the species of the prokaryotic cell from which they have been isolated. For example, EcoRI comes from Escherichia coliRY 13. In EcoRI, the letter ‘R’ is derived from the name of the strain. Roman numbers following the names indicate the order in which the enzymes were isolated from that strain of bacteria.

Question 6.
Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what other advantages do stirred tank bioreactors have over shake flasks?
Answer:
Shake flasks are used for growing microbes and mixing the desired materials on a small scale in the laboratory. However, the large-scale production of a desired biotechnological product requires large stirred tank bioreactors.

Besides better aeration and mixing properties, bioreactors have the following advantages:

• It has an oxygen delivery system.
• It has a foam control, temperature and pH control system.
• Small volumes of culture can be withdrawn periodically.

Question 7.
Collect 5 examples of palindromic DNA sequences by consulting your teacher. Better try to create a palindromic sequence by following base-pair rules.
Answer:
Some palindromic DNA sequences and the restriction enzymes which act on them are as follows :

• 5′-AGCT-3′ Alul (Arthrobacter luteus)
  3′-TCGA-5′
• 5′-GAATTC-3′ EcoRI (Escherichia coli)
  3′-CTTAAG-5′
• 5′-AAGCTT-3′ Hindlil (Haemophilus influenzae)
  3′-TTCGAA-5′
• 5′-GTCGAC-3′ Sail (Streptomyces albus)
  3′-CAGCTG-5′
• 5′-CTGCAG-3′ PstI (Providencia stuartii)
  3′-GACGTC-5′

Question 8.
Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a recombinant DNA is made?
Answer:
A recombinant DNA is made in the pachytene stage of prophase I by f crossing over.

Question 9.
Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can be used to
monitor transformation of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker?
Answer:
Reporter enzyme can differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce a specific colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of the enzyme p-galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the enzyme which is referred to as insertional inactivation.

The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue-coloured colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert. The presence of the insert results in insertional inactivation of α-galactosidase and the colonies do not produce any colour. These are identified as recombinant colonies.

Question 10.
Describe briefly the following:
(a) Origin of replication
(b) Bioreactors
(c) Downstream processing
Answer:
(a) Origin of Replication: This is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells. This sequence is also responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA. So, if one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA it should be cloned in a vector whose origin supports a high copy number.

(b) Bioreactors: Bioreactors are vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes etc. using microbial plant, animal or human cells. A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen). The most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring type. A biogas plant is a good example of a bioreactor.

(c) Downstream Processing: After completion of the biosynthetic stage, the product is subjected through a series of processes before it is ready for marketing as a finished product. The processes include separation and purification, which are collectively referred to as downstream processing. The product has to be formulated with suitable preservatives. Such formulation has to undergo thorough clinical trials as in the case of drugs. Strict quality control testing for each product is also required. Downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.

Question 11.
Explain briefly
(a) PCR
(b) Restriction enzymes and DNA
(c) Chitinase
Answer:
(a) PCR: PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction. In this reaction multiple copies of the gene (or DNA) of interest is synthesised in vitro using two sets of primers and the enzyme DNA polymerase. The enzyme extends the primers using the nucleotides provided in the reaction and the genomic DNA as template. The segment of DNA can be amplified to approximately billion times if the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times.

(b) Restriction Enzymes and DNA: Restriction enzymes are synthesised by microbes as a defence mechanism and are specifically endonucleases which cleave the double-stranded DNA with the desired genes. This activity occurs at a limited number of sites depending on the number of recognition sequences in DNA. Lysing enzymes, synthesising enzymes (DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase) and ligases are also tools of genetic engineering.

(c) Chitinase: During the isolation of DNA in the processes of recombinant DNA technology, the fungal cell is heated with an enzyme called chitinase. The chitinase enzyme dissolves the chitin membrane to open the cell for release of DNA along with other macromolecules such as RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and lipids.

Question 12.
Discuss with your teacher and find out how to distinguish between
(a) Plasmid DNA and Chromosomal DNA
(b) RNA and DNA
(c) Exonuclease and Endonuclease
Answer:
(a)

Plasmid DNA	Chromosomal DNA
Plasmid DNA is the naked double-stranded DNA which forms a circle with no free ends. It is associated with few proteins but contains RNA polymerase enzyme. They are smaller than the host chromosomes and can be easily separated.	Chromosomal DNA is a double-stranded linear DNA molecule associated with large proteins. This DNA exists in relaxed and supercoiled forms and provides a template for replication and transcription. It has free ends represented as 3′-5′.

(b)

DNA	RNA
(i) It is mainly confined to the nucleus. A small quantity occurs in mitochondria and chloroplasts.	It mainly occurs in the cytoplasm. A small quantity is found in the nucleus.
(ii) Its quantity is constant in each cell of a species.	Its quantity varies in different cells.
(iii) It contains deoxyribose sugar.	It contains ribose sugar.
(iv) Its pyrimidines are adenine and thymine.	Its pyrimidines are adenine and uracil.
(v) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine. Also, the amount of cytosine is equal to the amount of guanine.	Adenine and uracil are not necessarily in equal amounts, nor are cytosine and guanine necessarily in equal amounts.
(vi) It can replicate itself.	It cannot replicate itself. It is formed by DNA. Some RNA viruses (paramyxo virus) can produce RNA from an RNA template.

(c) Exonucleases are nucleases which cut off the nucleotides from the 5′ or 3′ ends of a DNA molecule, whereas endonucleases are nucleases which cleave the DNA duplex at any point except at the ends.

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 10 Microbes in Human Welfare Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 Microbes in Human Welfare

PSEB 12th Class Biology Guide Microbes in Human Welfare Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Bacteria cannot be seen with the naked eyes, but these can be seen with the help of a microscope. If you have to carry a sample from your home to your biology laboratory to demonstrate the presence of microbes under a microscope, which sample would you carry and why?
Answer:
Curd can be used as a sample for the study of microbes. Curd contains numerous lactic acid bacteria (LAB) or Lactobacillus. These bacteria produce acids that coagulate and digest milk proteins. A small drop of curd contains millions of bacteria, which can be easily observed under a microscope.

Question 2.
Give examples to prove that microbes release gases during metabolism.
Answer:
The examples of microbes that release gases during metabolism are as follows :
(a) Bacteria and fungi carry out the process of fermentation and during this process, they release carbon dioxide. Fermentation is the process of converting a complex organic substance into a simpler substance with the action of bacteria or yeast. Fermentation of sugar produces alcohol with the release of carbon dioxide and very little energy.

(b) The dough used for making idli and dosa gives a puffed appearance. This is because of the action of bacteria which releases carbon dioxide. This CO₂ released from the dough gets trapped in the dough, thereby giving it a puffed appearance.

Question 3.
In which food would you find lactic acid bacteria? Mention some of their useful applications.
Answer:
Lactic acid bacteria can be found in curd. It is this bacterium that promotes the formation of milk into curd. The bacterium multiplies and increases its number, which converts the milk into curd. They also increase the content of vitamin B₁₂ in curd.
Lactic acid bacteria are also found in our stomach where it keeps a check on the disease-causing micro-organisms.

Question 4.
Name some traditional Indian foods made of wheat, rice and Bengal gram (or their products) which involve use of microbes.
Answer:

1. Wheat Product: Bread, cake etc.
2. Rice Product: Idli, dosa etc.
3. Bengal Gram Product: Dhokla, khandvi etc.

Question 5.
In which way have microbes played a m^jor role in controlling diseases caused by harmful bacteria?
Answer:
Several micro-organisms are used for preparing medicines. Antibiotics are medicines produced by certain micro-organisms to kill other disease-causing micro-organisms. These medicines are commonly obtained from bacteria and fungi. They either kill or stop the growth of disease-causing micro-organisms. Streptomycin, tetracycline, and penicillin are common antibiotics. Penicillium notatum produces chemical penicillin, which checks the growth of Staphylococci bacteria in the body. Antibiotics are designed to destroy bacteria by weakening their cell walls. As a result of this weakening, certain immune cells such as the white blood cells enter the bacterial cell and cause cell lysis. Cell lysis is the process of destroying cells such as blood cells and bacteria.

Question 6.
Name any two species of fungus, which are used in the production of the antibiotics.
Answer:
Antibiotics are medicines that are produced by certain micro-organisms to kill other disease-causing micro-organisms. These medicines are commonly obtained from bacteria and fungi.
The species of fungus used in the production of antibiotics are as follows:

Antibiotic	Fungus source
1. Penicillin	Penicillium notatum
2. Cephalosporin	Cephalosporium acremonium

Question 7.
What is sewage? In which way can sewage be harmful to us?
Answer:
Sewage is the municipal waste matter that is carried away in sewers and drains. It includes both liquid and solid wastes, rich in organic matter and microbes. Many of these microbes are pathogenic and can cause several water borne diseases. Sewage water is a major cause of polluting drinking water. Hence, it is essential that sewage water is properly collected, treated, and disposed. If untreated sewage is disposed into rivers and streams, it will pollute the water bodies.

Question 8.
What is the key difference between primary and secondary sewage treatment?
Answer:

Primary sewage treatment	Secondary sewage treatment
1. It is a mechanical process involving the removal of coarse solid materials.	It is a biological process involving the action of microbes.
2. It is inexpensive and relatively less complicated.	It is a very expensive and complicated process.

Question 9.
Do you think microbes can also be used as source of energy? If yes, how?
Answer:
Yes, microbes can be used as a source of energy. Bacteria such as Methane bacterium is used for the generation of gobar gas or biogas.

The generation of biogas is an anaerobic process in a biogas plant, which consists of a concrete tank (10-15 feet deep) with sufficient outlets and inlets. The dung is mixed with water to form the slurry and thrown into the tank. The digester of the tank is filled with numerous anaerobic methane-producing bacteria, which produce biogas from the slurry. Biogas can be removed through the pipe which is then used as a source of energy, while the spent slurry is removed from the outlet and is used as a fertiliser.

Question 10.
Microbes can be used to decrease the use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides. Explain how this can be accomplished.
Answer:
Microbes play an important role in organic farming, which is done without the use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides. Bio-fertilisers are living organisms which help increase the fertility of soil. It involves the ’ selection of beneficial micro-organisms that help in improving plant growth through the supply of plant nutrients. Bio-fertilisers are introduced in seeds, roots, or soil to mobilise the availability of nutrients. Thus, they are extremely beneficial in enriching the soil with organic nutrients. Many species of bacteria and cyanobacteria have the ability to fix free atmospheric nitrogen. Rhizobium is a symbiotic bacteria found in the root nodules of leguminous plants. Azpirillum and Azotobacter are free living nitrogen-fixing bacteria whereas Anabaena, Nostoc and Oscillatoria are examples of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria. Bio-fertilisers are cost effective and eco-friendly.

Microbes can also act as bio-pesticides to control insect pests in plants.
An example of bio-pesticides is Bacillus thuringiensis, which produces a toxin that kills the insect pests. Dried bacterial spores are mixed in water and sprayed in agricultural fields. When larvae of insects feed on crops, these bacterial spores enter the gut of the larvae and release r toxins, thereby it. Similarly, Trichoderma are free living fungi. They live in the roots of higher plants and protect them from various pathogens.

Baculoviruses is another bio-pesticide that is used as a biological control I agent against insects and other arthropods.

Question 11.
Three water samples namely river water, untreated sewage water and secondary effluent discharged from a sewage treatment plant were subjected to BOD test. The samples were labelled A, B and C; but the laboratory attendant did not note which was which. The BOD values of the three samples A, B and C were recorded as 20mg/L, 8mg/L and 400mg/L, respectively. Which sample of the water is most polluted? Can you assign the correct label to each assuming the river water is relatively clean?
Answer:
Biological oxygen demand (BOD) is the method of determining the amount of oxygen required by micro-organisms to decompose the waste present in the water supply. If the quantity of organic wastes in the water supply is high, then the number of decomposing bacteria present in the water will also be high. As a result, the BOD value will increase. Therefore, it can be concluded that if the water supply is more polluted, then it will have a higher BOD value. Out of the above three samples, sample C is the most polluted since it has the maximum BOD value of 400 mg/L.

After untreated sewage water, secondary effluent discharge from a sewage treatment plant is most polluted. Thus, sample A is secondary effluent discharge from a sewage treatment plant and has the BOD value of 20 mg/L, while sample B is river water and has the BOD value of 8 mg/L.
Hence, the correct label for each sample is:

Label	BOD value	Sample
A.	20 mg/L	Secondary effluent discharge from a sewage treatment plant
B.	8 mg/L	River water
C.	400 mg/L	Untreated sewage water

Question 12.
Find out the name of the microbes from which Cyclosporin A (an immunosuppressive drug) and Statins (blood cholesterol lowering agents) are obtained.
Answer:

Drug	Function	Microbe
1. Cyclosporin-A	Immuno suppressive drug	Trichoderma polysporum
2. Statin	Blood cholesterol lowering agent	Monascus purpureus

Question 13.
Find out the role of microbes in the following and discuss it with your teacher.
(a) Single cell protein (SCP)
(b) Soil
Answer:
(a) Single Cell Protein (SCP): A single cell protein is a protein obtained from certain microbes, which forms an alternate source of proteins in animal feeds. The microbes involved in the preparation of single cell proteins are algae, yeast, or bacteria. These microbes are grown on an industrial scale to obtain the desired protein. For example, Spirulina can be grown on waste materials obtained from molasses, sewage, and animal manures. It serves as a rich supplement of dietary nutrients such as proteins, carbohydrate, fats, minerals, and vitamins. Similarly, micro-organisms such as Methylophilus and methylotrophus have a large rate of biomass production. Their growth can produce a large amount of proteins.

(b) Soil: Microbes play an important role in maintaining soil fertility. They help in the formation of nutrient-rich humus by the process of decomposition. Many species of bacteria and cyanobacteria have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen into usable form. Rhizobium is a symbiotic bacteria found in the root nodules of leguminous plants. Azospirillum and Azotobacter are free living nitrogen-fixing bacteria, whereas Anabaena, Nostoc, and Oscillatoria are examples of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria.

Question 14.
Arrange the following in the decreasing order (most important first) of their importance, for the welfare of human society. Give reasons for your answer.
Biogas, Citric acid, Penicillin and Curd
Answer:
The order of arrangement of products according to their decreasing importance is :
Penicillin > Biogas > Citric acid > Curd
Penicillin is the most important product for the welfare of human society. It is an antibiotic, which is used for controlling various bacterial diseases. The second most important product is biogas. It is aneco-friendly source of energy. The next important product is citric acid, which is used as a food preservative. The least important product is curd, a food item obtained by the action of Lactobacillus bacteria on milk.

Question 15.
How do biofertilisers enrich the fertility of the soil?
Answer:
Bio-fertilisers are living organisms which help in increasing the fertility of soil. It involves the selection of beneficial micro-organisms that help in improving plant growth through the supply of plant nutrients. These are introduced to seeds, roots, or soil to mobilise the availability of nutrients by their biological activity. Thus, they are extremely beneficial jf in enriching the soil with organic nutrients. Many species of bacteria and cyanobacteria have the ability to fix free atmospheric nitrogen. Rhizobium is a symbiotic bacteria found in the root nodules of leguminous plants. Azospirillum and Azotobacter are free living nitrogen-fixing bacteria, whereas Anabaena, Nostoc, and Oscillatoria are examples of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria. Bio-fertilisers are cost effective and eco-friendly.