PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are spectator ions? Give one example.
Answer:
Spectator ions are ions that stay unaffected during a chemical reaction. They appear both as reactant and as product in an ionic equation. For example, in the following ionic equation, the sodium and nitrate ions are spectator ions.
Ag+ (aq) + NO3(aq) + Na+ (aq) + Cl (aq) → AgCl(s) + Na+ (aq) + NO3 (aq)

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions

Question 2.
Why is anode called oxidation electrode, whereas cathode is called reduction electrode?
Answer:
At anode, loss of electrons takes place, i.e., oxidation takes place, whereas at cathode, gain of electrons takes place, i.e., reduction takes place.
Therefore, cathode is called reduction electrode and anode is called oxidation electrode.

Question 3.
Can we use KCl as electrolyte in the salt bridge of the cell?
Answer:
KCl cannot be used as electrolyte in the salt bridge because Cl ions will combine with Ag+ ions to form white precipitates of AgCl.

Question 4.
What would happen if no salt bridge were used in the electrochemical cell (e.g., Zn – Cu cell)?
Answer:
If no salt bridge is used, the positive ions (i.e., Zn2+ ) formed by loss of electrons will accumulate around the zinc electrode and negative ions (i.e., \(\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}\)) left after reduction of Cu2+ ions will accumulate around the copper electrode. Thus, the solution will develop charges and the current stops flowing. Further, since the inner circuit is not complete, the current stops flowing.

Question 5.
Zn rod is immersed in CUSO4 solution. What will you observe after an hour? Explain your observation in terms of redox reaction.
Answer:
The blue colour of CuSO4 solution will get discharged and reddish brown copper metal will be deposited on Zn rod. This is because blue colour Cu2+ (in CuSO4) gets reduced to Cu by accepting two electrons from Zn, which gets oxidised to colourless ZnSO4.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions 1 - 1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions

Question 6.
What is the most essential conditions that must be satisfied in a redox reaction?
Answer:
In a redox reaction, the total number of electrons lost by the reducing agent must be equal to the number of electrons gained by the oxidising agent.

Question 7.
Find the value of n in \(\mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) + 8H+ + ne → Mn2+ + 4H2O
Answer:
\(\mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}\) + 8H+ + ne → Mn2+ + 4H2O
-1 + 8 + n = + 2
-1 – 2 + 8 + n = 0
n = – 5 or 5e

Question 8.
Can Fe3+ oxidise Br to Br2 at 1 M concentrations?
\(\boldsymbol{E}^{\ominus}\)(Fe3+ /Fe2+) – 0.77 V and \(\boldsymbol{E}^{\ominus}\)(Br/Br ) = 1.09 V
Answer:
Es ( Fe3+ / Fe2+) is lower than that of Es(Br / Br).
Therefore, Fe2+ can reduce Br2 but Br cannot reduce Fe3+. Thus, Fe3+ cannot oxidise Br to Br2.

Question 9.
Identify the substance that get reduced in the following reaction:
Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)
Answer:
In the reaction, Fe2O3 loses oxygen and is reduced to Fe.

Question 10.
Can the following reaction, \(\mathrm{Cr}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{7}^{2-}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O} \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}+2 \mathrm{H}^{+}\) be regarded as a redox reaction?
Answer:
In this reaction, oxidation number of Cr in \(\mathrm{Cr}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{7}^{2-}\) is +6 and oxidation number of Cr in \(\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}\) is +6. Since, during the reaction, the oxidation number of Cr has neither decreased nor increased, therefore, the above reaction is not a redox reaction.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
2Cu2S + 3O2 ⇌ 2Cu2O + 2SO2
In this reaction which substance is getting oxidised and which substance is getting reduced? Name the reducing agent and oxidising agent.
Answer:
Since, oxygen is being added to Cu, therefore, Cu2S is oxidised to Cu2O and the other reactant i.e., O2 is getting reduced. Hence, Cu2S is a reducing agent and O2 is an oxidising agent.

Question 2.
One mole of N2H4 loses 10 moles electrons to form a new compound Y. Assuming that all the nitrogen appears in the new compound, what is the oxidation number of N in Y? There is no change in oxidation state of H.
Answer:
Suppose the oxidation number of N in Y is x
(N2-)2 → (2N)x + 10e
(as N2H4 → Y +10e)
Therefore, 2x -10 = – 4, which gives x = + 3. Hence, oxidation number of N in Y = 3.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions

Question 3.
What are the net charges on the left and right side of the following equations? Add electrons as necessary to make each of them balanced half reactions.
(i) \(\mathrm{NO}_{3}^{-}+\mathbf{1 0 H}^{+} \longrightarrow \mathbf{N H}_{4}^{+}+3 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\)
(ii) \(\mathrm{Cl}_{2}+4 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O} \longrightarrow \mathbf{2 C l O}_{2}^{-}+8 \mathrm{H}^{+}\)
Answer:
(i) +9 charge on the left, +1 charge on the right; add 8 electrons to the left side.
(ii) 0 charge on the left, +6 charge on the right; add 6 electrons on the right side.

Question 4.
An iron rod is immersed in solution containing 1.0 M NiSO4 and 1.0 M ZnSO4. Predict giving reasons which of the following reactions is likely to proceed?
(i) Fe reduces Zn2+ ions,
(ii) Iron reduces Ni2+ ions. Given
\(E_{\mathbf{Z n}^{2+} / \mathbf{Z n}}^{\ominus}=-0.76 \mathrm{~V}, E_{\mathrm{Fe}^{2+} / \mathrm{Fe}^{=}}=-0.44 \mathrm{~V}\)
\(E_{\mathrm{Ni}^{2+} / \mathrm{Ni}}^{\ominus}=-0.25 \mathrm{~V}\)
Answer:
(i) Since \(E^{\ominus}\) of Zn is more negative than that of Fe, therefore, Zn will be oxidised to Zn2+ ions while Fe2+ ions will be reduced to Fe. In other words, Fe will not reduced Zn2+ ions.
(ii) Since, \(E^{\ominus}\) of Fe is more negative than that of Ni, therefore, Fe will be oxidised to Fe2+ ions while Ni2+ ions will be reduced to Ni. Thus, Fe reduces Ni2+ ions.

Question 5.
Copper dissolves in dilute nitric acid but not in dilute HC1. Explain.
Answer:
Since, \(E^{\ominus}\) of Cu2+/Cu electrode (+ 0.34 V) is higher than that of H+/H2
electrode (0.0 V), therefore, H+ ions cannot oxidise Cu to Cu2+ ions and hence, Cu does not dissolve in dil. HCl.

In contrast, the electrode potential of \(\mathrm{NO}_{3}^{-}\) ion, i.e.\(\mathrm{NO}_{3}^{-}\) /NO electrode (+0.97 V) is higher than that of copper electrode and hence, it can oxidise Cu to Cu2+ ions and hence Cu dissolves in dil.HNO3 due to oxidation of Cu by \(\mathrm{NO}_{3}^{-}\) ions and not by H+ ions.
Using standard electrode potential, the oxidative and reductive strength of a variety of substances can be composed.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why does fluorine doesn’t show disproportionation reaction?
Answer:
In a disproportionation reaction, the same species is simultaneously oxidised as
well as reduced. Therefore, for such a redox reaction to occur, the reacting species must contain an element which has atleast three oxidation states. The element, in reacting species, is present in an intermediate state while lower and higher oxidation states are available for reduction and oxidation to occur (respectively).
Fluorine is the strongest oxidising agent. It does not show positive oxidation state. That’s why fluorine does not show disproportionation reaction.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions

Question 2.
Which method can be used to find out strength of reductant/oxidant in a solution? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Measure the electrode potential of the given species by connecting the redox couple of the given species with standard hydrogen electrode. If it is positive, the electrode of the given species acts as reductant and if it is negative, it acts as an oxidant. Find the electrode potentials of the other given species in the same way, compare the values and determine their comparative strength as an reductant or oxidant.
Examples : Measurement of standard electrode potential of Zn+/Zn electrode using SHE as a reference electrode.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions 1

The EMF of the cell comes out to be 0.76 V. (reading of voltmeter is 0.76 V). Zn2+/Zn couple acts as anode and SHE acts as cathode.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions 2

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A tank is full of water. Water is coming in as well as going out at same rate. What will happen to level of water in a tank? What is name given to such state?
Answer:
It will remain the same because rate of inflow is equal to rate of outflow. This state is called state of ‘equilibrium’.

Question 2.
The ionization of hydrogen chloride in water is given t
HCl(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ H3O++(aq) + Cl(aq)
Label two conjugate acid-base pairs in this ionization.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 3.
Why solution of sugar in water does not conduct electricity whereas that of common salt in water does?
Answer:
Common salt (NaCl) is an electrolyte which gives Na+ and Cl ions in the aqueous solution. Hence, it conducts electricity. Sugar is sucrose (C12H22O11) which is a non-electrolyte and does not give ions in the solution. Hence, it does not conduct electricity.

Question 4.
Why is ammonia termed as a base though it does not contain OH ions?
Answer:
Ammonia is termed as a base due to its tendency to donate electron pair. Therefore it is a Lewis base.

Question 5.
Kb for NH4O, H is 1.8 x 10-5 and for CH3NH2 is 44 x 10-4. Which of them is strongest base and why?
Answer:
CH3NH2 is strongest base because it has high value of base dissociation constant.

Question 6.
pKa value of acids A, B, C, D are 1.5, 3.5, 2.0 and 5.0. Which of them is strongest acid?
Answer:
Acid A with pKa = 1.5 is strongest acid, lower the value of pKa stronger will be the acid.

Question 7.
What will be the pH of 1M Na2SO4 solution?
Answer:
Na2SO4 is salt of strong acid and strong base, thus its aqueous solution will be neutral. Therefore, its pH will be 7.

Question 8.
Is it possible to get precipitate of Fe(OH)3 at pH = 2? Give reason.
Answer:
No, because Fe(OH)3 will dissolve in strongly acidic medium.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 9.
What happens to ionic product of water if some acid is added to it?
Answer:
Ionic product will remain unchanged.

Question 10.
How does common ion affect the solubility of electrolyte?
Answer:
Solubility of electrolyte decreases due to common ion effect.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A certain buffer is made by mixing sodium form ate and formic acid in water. With the help of equations explain how this buffer neutralises addition of a small amount of an acid or a base?
Answer:
HCOONa → HCOO + Na+
HCOOH ⇌ HCOO + H+

HCOO is common ion in the above acidic buffer. When small amount of H+ ions is added, these H+ ions combine with HCOO which are in excess to form HCOOH back and [H+] remains practically same, so pH remains constant. When small amount of OH ions are added, OH ions will take up H+ and association of HCOOH will increase so as to maintain concentration of H+ ions. So, pH would not be affected.

Question 2.
How much volume of 0.1 M CH3COOH should he added to 50 ml of 0.2 M CH3COONa solution to prepare a buffer solution of pH 4.91. (pAa of AcH is 4.76).
According to Henderson’s equation
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 2
Required volume of 0.1 M acetic acid = 70.92 mL

Question 3.
Some processes are given below. What happens to the process if it is subjected to a change given in the brackets?
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 3
(ii) Dissolution of NaOH in water (Temperature is increased)
(iii) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) -180.7 kJ (Pressure is increased and temperature is decreased.)
Answer:
(i) Equilibrium will shift in the forward direction, i.e., more ice will melt.
(ii) Solubility will decrease because it is an exothermic process.
(iii) Pressure has no effect. Decrease of temperature will shift the equilibrium in the backward direction.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 4.
50.0 g of CaCO3 are heated to 1073 K in a 5 L vessel. What percent of the CaCO3 would decompose at equilibrium? Kp for the reaction CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g) is 1.15 atm at 1073 K.
Answer:
The reaction is : CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Kp = PCo2 = 1.15 atm, pV = nRT
\(\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{CO}_{2}}=\frac{p_{\mathrm{CO}_{2}} \mathrm{~V}}{R T}=\frac{1.15 \times 5}{0.082 \times 1073}\) = 0.065 mol

1 mole of CO2 is obtained by decomposition of 1 mole CaCO3. Therefore, moles of CaCO3 decomposed is equal to the moles of CO2 = 0.065 mol.
Mole of CaCO3 initially present = \(\frac{50}{100}\) = 0.5 mol
[Molecular mass of CaCO3 = 100]
Per cent of CaCO3 decomposed = \(\frac{0.065}{0.5}\) x 100 = 13%

Question 5.
Arrange the following in increasing order of pH.
KNO3(aqr), CH3COONa(aq), NH4Cl(aq), C6H5COONH4(aq)
Answer:
(i) KNO3 is a salt of strong acid-strong base, hence its aqueous solution is neutral; pH = 7
(ii) CH3COONa is a salt of weak acid and strong base, hence, its aqueous solution is basic; pH < 7.
(iii) NH4Cl is a salt of strong acid and weak base, hence its aqueous solution is acidic; pH < 7.
(iv) C6H5COONH4 is a salt of weak acid, C6H5COOH and weak base, NH4OH. ButNH4OH is slightly stronger than C6H5COOH. Hence, pH is slightly greater than 7.
Therefore, increasing order of pH of the given salts is,
NH4Cl < KNO3 < C6H5COONH4 < CH3COONa

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Calculate the pH of a buffer which is 0.1 M in acetic acid and 0.15 M in sodium acetate. Given that the ionisation constants of acetic acid is 1.75 x 10-5. Also calculate the change in pH of the buffer if the following adds in 1 L of the buffer (i) 1 cc of 1 M NaOH. (ii) 1 cc of 1 M HC1. Assume that the charge in volume is negligible, (iii) What will be the buffer index of the above buffer?
Answer:
pH = pKa + log\(\frac{Salt}{Acid}\) = – log(1.75 x 10-5) + log
\(\frac{0.15}{0.10}\)
= (5 – 0.2430) + 0.1761 = 4.757 + 0.1761 = 4.933.

(i) 1 cc of 1M NaOH contains NaOH = 10-3 mol. This will convert 10-3 mol of acetic acid into the salt so that salt formed = 10-3 mol.
[Acid] = 0.10 – 0.001 = 0.099 M
[Salt] = 0.15 + 0.001 = 0.151 M
pH =. 4.757 + log \(\frac{0.151}{0.099}\)
= 4.757 + 0.183 = 4.940
∴ Increase in pH = 4.940 – 4.933 = 0.007 which is negligible.

(ii) 1 cc of 1 M HC1 contains HCl = 1CF3 mol. This will convert 10-3 mol CH3COONa into CH3COOH.
Now, [Acid] = 0.10 + 0.001 = 0.101 M
[Salt] = 0.15 – 0.001 = 0.149 M 0.149
∴ pH = 4.757 + log\(\frac{0.149}{0.101}\) = 4.757 + 0.169 = 4.925
∴ Decrease in pH = 4.933 = 0.007 which is again negligible.

(iii) Calculation of buffer index No. of moles of HC1 or NaOH added = 0.001 mol
Change in pH = 0.007
Hence, buffer index = \(\frac{\Delta n}{\Delta \mathrm{pH}}=\frac{0.001}{0.007}=\frac{1}{7}\)= 0.143

Question 2.
On the basis of Le-Chatelier’s principle, explain how temperature and pressure can be adjusted to increase the yield of ammonia in the following reaction?
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
What will be the effect of addition of argon to the above reaction mixture at constant volume?
Answer:
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g); ΔH = -92.38 kJ mol-1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

It is an exothermic process. According to Le-Chatelier’s principle, low temperature is favourable for high yield of ammonia, but practically very low temperatures slow down the reaction. So, optimum temperature, 700 K is favourable in attainment of equilibrium.

Similarly, high pressure about 200 atm is favourable for high yield of ammonia. On increasing pressure, reaction goes in the forward direction because the number of moles decreases in the forward direction.

At constant volume, addition of argon does not affect the equilibrium because it does not change the partial pressures of the reactants or products involved in the reaction and the equilibrium remains undisturbed.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Identify the state functions and path functions out of the following.
Enthalpy, entropy, heat, temperature, work, free energy.
Answer:
State function Enthalpy, entropy, temperature, free energy.
Path function Heat, work

Question 2.
At 1 atm will the ΔfH0 be zero for Cl2(g) and Br2(g)? Explain.
Answer:
ΔfH0 for Cl2(g) will be zero but ΔfH0 for Br2(g) will not be zero because liquid bromine state is elementary state not gaseous.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 3.
Why for predicting the spontaneity of a reaction, free energy criteria is better than the entropy criteria?
Answer:
Criteria of free energy change is better because it requires free energy change of the system only whereas the entropy change requires the total entropy change of the system and the surroundings.

Question 4.
Water can be lifted into the water tank at the top of the house with the help of a pump. Then why is it not considered to be spontaneous?
Answer:
A spontaneous process should occur continuously by itself after initiation. But this is not so in the given case because water will go up so long as the pump is working.

Question 5.
Given that ΔH = 0 for mixing of two gases. Explain whether the diffusion of these gases into each other in a closed container is a spontaneous process or not?
Answer:
It is a spontaneous process because although ΔH = 0, i.e., energy factor has no role to play but randomness increases, i.e., randomness factor favours the process.

Question 6.
Under what condition, the heat evolved or absorbed in a reaction is equal to its free energy change?
Answer:
As ΔG = ΔH – TΔS. Thus, ΔG = ΔH only when either the reaction is carried out at 0 K or the reaction is not accompanied by any entropy change, i.e., ΔS = 0.

Question 7.
In the equation, N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) what would be the sign of work done?
Answer:
The sign of work done will be positive, i.e., work will be done on the system due to decrease in volume.

Question 8.
The molar enthalpy of vaporisation of acetone is less than that of water. Why?
Answer:
Enthalpy of vaporisation of water is more than that of acetone because there is strong hydrogen bonding in H2O molecules.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 9.
One mole of acetone requires less heat to vaporise than 1 mole of water. Which of the two liquids has higher enthalpy of vaporisation?
Answer:
Less the heat required to vaporise 1 mole of a liquid, less is its enthalpy of vaporisation. Hence, water has higher enthalpy of vaporisation.

Question 10.
Which quantity out of ΔrG and ΔrG° will be zero at equilibrium?
Answer:
ΔrG = ΔrG° + RT In K
At equilibrium, 0 (zero) = ΔrG° + RT In K
(v ΔrG = 0)
or ΔrG° = -RT In It;
ΔrG° = 0 when it = 1
For all other values of K, ΔrG° will be non-zero.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define the following :
(i) First law of thermodynamics.
(ii) Standard enthalpy of formation.
Answer:
(i) First law of thermodynamics : It states that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. The energy of an isolated system is constant. ΔU = q + w
(ii) Standard Enthalpy of Formation : It is defined as the amount of heat evolved or absorbed when one mole of the compound is formed from its constituent elements in their standard states.

Question 2.
Give reason for the following:
(i) Neither q nor w is a state function but q + w is a state function.
(ii) A real crystal has more entropy than an ideal crystal.
Answer:
(a) q + w = ΔU
As ΔU is a state function hence, q + w is a state function.
(b) A real crystal has some disorder due to the presence of defects in its structural arrangement whereas ideal crystal does not have any disorder. Hence, a real crystal has more entropy than an ideal crystal.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 3.
Represent the potential energy/enthalpy change in the following processes graphically
(i) Throwing a stone from the ground to roof.
(ii) \(\frac{1}{2}\)H2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)Cl2(g) ⇌ HCl(g); ΔrHs = – 92.32kJ mol-1
In which of the processes potential energy/enthalpy change is contributing factor to the spontaneity?
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics 1

Energy increases in (a) and it decreases in (b). Hence, in process (b), enthalpy change is the contributing factor to the spontaneity.

Question 4.
A man takes a diet equivalent to 10000 kJ per day and does work, by expending his energy in all forms equivalent to 12500 kJ per day. What is change in internal energy per day? If the energy lost was stored as sucrose (1632 kJ per 100 g), how many days should it take to lose 2 kg of his weight? (Ignore water loss)
Answer:
Energy taken by a man = 10000 kJ
Change in internal energy per day = 12500 -10000 = 2500 kJ
The energy is lost by the man as he expends more energy than he takes.
Now 100 g of sugar corresponds to energy = 1632 kJ loss in energy.
2000 g of sugar corresponds to energy = \(\frac{1632 \times 2000}{100}\) = 32640 kJ
∴ Number of days required to lose 2000 g of weight or 32640 kJ of energy = \(\frac{32640}{2500}\) = 13 days

Question 5.
Give the appropriate reason :
(i) It is preferable to determine the change in enthalpy rather than the change in internal energy.
(ii) It is necessary to define the ‘standard state’.
(iii) It is necessary to specify the phases of the reactants and products in a thermochemical equation.
Answer:
(i) Because it is easier to make measurement under constant pressure than under constant volume conditions.
(ii) Enthalpy change depends upon the conditions in which a reaction is carried out. For making the comparison of results obtained by different people meaningful, the reaction conditions must be well-defined.
(iii) Because enthalpy depends upon the phase of reactants and products.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
(i) A cylinder of gas supplied by a company is assumed to contain 14 kg of butane. If a normal family requires 20000 kJ of energy per day for cooking, how long will the cylinder last?
(ii) If the air supplied to the burner is insufficient, a portion of gas escapes without combustion. Assuming that 25% of the gas is wasted due to this inefficiency, how long will the cylinder last (Heat of combustion of butane = 2658kJ!mol.)?
Answer:
(i) Molecular formula of butane = C4H10
Molecular mass of butane = 4 x 12 +10 x 1 = 58
Heat of combustion of butane 2658 kJ mol-1
1 mole.or 58 g of butane on complete combustion gives heat = 2658 kJ
∴ 14 x 103 g of butane on complete combustion will give heat
= \(\frac{2658 \times 14 \times 10^{3}}{58}\) = 641586 kJ
The family needs 20000 kJ of heat per day.
∴ 20000 kJ of heat is used for cooking by a family in 1 day.
∴ 641586 kJ of heat will be used for cooking by a family in
= \(\frac{641586}{20000}\) = 32days
The cylinder will last for 32 days

(ii) 25 per cent of the gas is wasted due to inefficiency. This means that only 75% of butane gets combusted. Therefore, the energy produced by
75% combustion of butane = \(\frac{641586 \times 75}{100}\) = 481189.5 kJ
∴ The number of days the cylinder will last = \(\frac{481189.5}{20000}\) = 24 days.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 2.
10 moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 5 atm to 1 atm at 300 K. What is the largest mass that can be lifted through a height of 1 m by this expansion?
Answer:
Wexp = -2.303 nRT log \(\frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}\)
= -2.303(10) x (8.314)(300) log \(\frac{5}{1}\) = – 40.15 x 103 J
If M is the mass that can be lifted by this work through a height of 1 m, then work done = Mgh
40.15 x 103 J = M x 9.81 ms-1 x 1 m
or M = \(\frac{40.15 \times 10^{3} \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^{2} \mathrm{~s}^{-2}}{9.81 \mathrm{~m} \mathrm{~s}^{-2} \times 1 \mathrm{~m}}\) [∵ J = kg m2s-2]
= 4092.76 kg

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 States of Matter Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two intermolecular forces that exist between HF molecules in a liquid state.
Answer:
HF are polar covalent molecules. In the liquid state, there are dipole-dipole interactions and H-bonding.

Question 2.
Explain why Boyle’s law cannot be used to calculate the volume of a real gas when it is converted from its initial state to the final state by an adiabatic expansion.
Answer:
During adiabatic expansion, the temperature is lowered, and therefore, Boyle’s law cannot be applied.

Question 3.
Boyle’s law states that at constant temperature, if pressure is increased on a gas, volume decreases and vice-versa. But when we fill air in a balloon, volume as well as pressure increase. Why?
Answer:
The law is applicable only for a definite mass of the gas. As we fill air into the balloon, we are introducing more and more air into the balloon.
Thus, we are increasing the mass of air inside. Hence, the law is not applicable.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Question 4.
What will be the molar volume of nitrogen and argon at 273.15 K and 1 atm?
Answer:
Every gas has 22.4 L molar volume at 273.15 K and 1 atm pressure (STP).

Question 5.
A gas that follows Boyle’s law, Charles’ law and Avogadro’s law is called an ideal gas. Under what conditions a real gas would behave ideally?
Answer:
At low pressure and high temperature, a real gas behaves as an ideal gas.

Question 6.
Explain why temperature of a boiling liquid remains constant?
Answer:
This is because at the boiling point, the heat supplied is used up in breaking off the intermolecular forces of attraction of the liquid to change it into vapour and not for raising the temperature of the liquid.

Question 7.
Assuming C02 to be van der Waals’ gas, calculate its Boyle temperature.
Given a = 3.59 L2 atm mol-2 and b = 0.0427 L mol-1.
\(T_{b}=\frac{a}{R b}=\frac{3.59 \mathrm{~L}^{2} \mathrm{~atm} \mathrm{} \mathrm{mol}^{-2}}{\left(0.082 \mathrm{~L} \mathrm{~atm} \mathrm{~K}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\right)\left(0.0427 \mathrm{~L} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\right)}\) = 1025.3 K

Question 8.
Name two phenomena that can be explained on the basis of surface tension.
Answer:
Surface tension can explain
(i) capillary action, i.e., rise or fall of a liquid in capillary,
(ii) spherical shape of small liquid drops.

Question 9.
Why are the gases helium and hydrogen not liquefied at room temperature by applying very high pressure?
Answer:
Because their, critical temperature is lower than room temperature. (Gases cannot be liquefied above the critical temperature by applying even very high pressure).

Question 10.
What would have happened to the gas if the molecular collisions were not elastic?
Answer:
On every collision, there would have been loss of energy. As a result, the molecules would have slowed down and ultimately settle down in the vessel. Moreover, the pressure would have gradually reduced to zero.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
(i) What do you mean by ‘Surface Tension’ of a liquid?
(ii) Explain the factors which can affect the surface tension of a liquid.
Answer:
(i) Surface tension : It is defined as the force acting per unit length perpendicular to the line drawn on the surface. It’s unit is Nm-1.
(ii) Surface tension of a liquid depends upon the following factors :
(a) Temperature : Surface tension decreases with rise in temperature. As the temperature of the liquid increases, the average kinetic energy of the molecules increases. Thus, there is a decrease in intermolecular force of attraction which decrease the surface tension.
(b) Nature of the liquid : Greater the magnitude of
intermolecular forces of attraction in the liquid, greater will be the value of surface tension.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Question 2.
A neon-dioxygen mixture contains 70.6 g dioxygen and 167.5g neon. If pressure of the mixture of gases in the cylinder is 25 bar.
What is the partial pressure of dioxygen and neon in the mixture?
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 States of Matter 1
Alternatively, mole fraction of neon = 1 – 0.21 = 0.79
Partial pressure of a gas = mole fraction x total pressure
⇒ Partial pressure of oxygen = 0.21 x (25bar) = 5.25bar
Partial pressure of neon = 0.79 x (25bar) = 19.75bar

Question 3.
Give reasons for the following:
(i) The size of weather balloon becomes larger and larger as it ascends into higher altitudes.
(ii) Tyres of automobiles are inflated to lesser pressure in summer than in winter.
Answer:
(i) As we go to higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure decreases.
Thus, the pressure outside the balloon decreases. To regain equilibrium with the external pressure, the gas inside expands to decrease its pressure, Hence, the size of the balloon increases.
(ii) In summer, due to higher temperature, the average kinetic energy of the air molecules inside the tyre increases, i.e., molecules start moving faster. Hence, the pressure on the walls of the tube increases. If pressure inside is not kept low at the time of inflation, at higher temperature, the pressure may become so high that the tyre may burst.

Question 4.
On the basis of intermolecular forces and thermal energy, explain why .
(i) a solid has rigidity but liquids do not have rigidity?
(ii) gases have high compressibility but liquids and solids have poor compressibility?
Answer:
(i) It is because in solids, the intermolecular forces are very strong and predominate over thermal energy but in liquid, these forces are no longer strong enough.
(ii) Because of very weak intermolecular forces and high thermal energy, molecules of gases are far apart. That is why gases are highly compressible.

Question 5.
A gas is enclosed in room. The temperature, pressure, density and number of moles respectively are t°C,p atm, g cm-3 and n moles.
(i) What will be the pressure, temperature, density and number of moles in each compartment, if room is partitioned into four equal compartments?
(ii) What will be the value of pressure, temperature, density and number of moles in each compartment if the walls between the two compartments (say 1 and 2) are removed?
(iii) What will be the values of pressure, temperature, density and number of moles, if an equal volume of gas at pressure
(p) and temperature (t) is let inside the same room? .
Answer:
(i) (a) Pressure in each compartment is same, (p atm)
(b) Temperature will remain same (t°C).
(c) Density will remain same (d g cm-3).
(d) Because of partition, volume of each compartment becomes 1/4 and the number of molecules also become 1/4. The number of moles in each compartment will be n/4.

(ii) (a) Pressure will remain same (p atm).
(b) Temperature will remain same (t°C).
(c) Density will remain same (d g cm-3).
(d) The number of moles in each compartment will be n/2.

(iii) (a) Pressure will be doubled (2p atm).
(b) Temperature will remain same.
(c) Density will remain same (d g cm-3) ,
(d) Number of moles will be doubled i.e., 2n.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the following:
(i) The boiling point of a liquid rises on increasing pressure. ;
(ii) Drops of liquid assume spherical space.
(iii) The boiling point of water (373 K) is abnormally high when compared to that of H2S (211.2 K).
(iv) The level of mercury in capillary tube is lower than the s level outside when a capillary tube is inserted in the mercury.
(v) Tea or coffee is sipped from a saucer when it is quite hot.
Answer:
(i) A liquid boils when its vapour pressure becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure. An increase in pressure on liquid, therefore, causes a rise in the boiling temperature of the liquids.
(ii) Liquids have a property, called surface tension, due to which liquids tend to contract (to decrease the surface area). For a given volume of a liquid, since a sphere has the least surface area, hence the liquids tend to form spherical droplet.
(iii) The extensive hydrogen bonding in water gives a polymeric structure. This makes the escape of molecules from the liquid more difficult. Therefore, water requires higher temperature to bring its vapour pressure equal to the atmospheric pressure.
On the other hand, sulphur being less electronegative, does not form hydrogen bonds with H of H2S. As a result, H2S has low boiling point.
(iv) The cohesive forces in mercury are much stronger than the force of adhesion between glass and mercury. Therefore, mercury-glass contract angle is greater than 90°C.
As a result, the vertical component of the surface tension forces acts vertically downward, thereby lowering the level of mercury column in the capillary tube.
(v) Evaporation causes cooling and the rate of evaporation increases with an increase in the surface area. Since, saucer has a large surface area, hence tea/coffee taken in a saucer cools quickly.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Question 2.
Nitrogen molecule (N2) has radius of about 0.2 nm. Assuming that nitrogen molecule is spherical in shape, calculate
(i) volume of a single molecule of N2.
(ii) the percentage of empty space in one mole of N2 gas at STP.
Answer:
(i) The volume of a sphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3 nr where Volume of a molecule of N2
= \(\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7}\) x (2 x 10-8)3 cm3 – 3.35 x 10-23 cm3

(ii) To calculate the empty space, let us first find the total volume of 1 mole (6.022 x 1023 molecules) of N2.
Volume of 6.022 x 1023 molecules of N2
= 3.35 x 10-23 x 6.022 x 1023 = 20.17 cm3
Now, volume occupied by 1 mole of gas at STP
= 22.4 litre = 22400 cm3
Empty volume = Total volume of gas – Volume occupied by molecules
= (22400 – 20.17) cm3 – 22379.83 cm3
∴ Percentage of empty space = \(\frac{Empty space}{Total volume}\) x 100
= \(\frac{22379.83}{22400}\) x 100 = 99.9%
Thus, 99.9% of space of 1 mole of N2 at STP is empty.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) ion formal charge on the oxygen atom of P—O bond is
Answer:
In \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) ion, formal charge on each O-atom of P—O bond
= \(\frac{\text { total charge }}{\text { Number of O-atoms }}=-\frac{3}{4}\) = -0.75

Question 2.
Which of the following molecules show super octet?
CO2, CIF3, SO2, IF5
Answer:
ClF3 and IF5 are super octet molecules.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Question 3.
Which of the following has highest lattice energy and why?
CsF, CsCl, CsBr, Csl
Answer:
CsF has highest lattice energy because ‘F’ is smallest in size and is more electronegative, therefore, it has maximum ionic character and maximum force of attraction, hence, highest lattice energy.

Question 4.
Account for the following:
The experimentally determined N—F bond length in NF3 is greater than the sum of the single covalent radii of N and F.
Answer:
This is because both N and F are small and hence, have high electron density. So, they repel the bond pairs thereby making the N—F bond length larger.

Question 5.
What is valence bond approach for the formation of covalent * bond?
Answer:
A covalent bond is formed by the overlapping of half-filled atomic orbitals.

Question 6.
Why axial bonds of PCI5 are longer than equatorial bonds?
Answer:
This is due to greater repulsion on the axial bond pairs by the equatorial bond pairs of electrons.

Question 7.
Which type of atomic orbitals can overlap to form molecular orbitals?
Answer:
Atomic orbitals with comparable energies and proper orientation can overlap to form molecular orbitals.

Question 8.
Why KHF2 exists but KHCl2 does not?
Answer:
Due to H-bonding in HF, we have
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

This can dissociate to give \(\mathrm{HF}_{2}^{-}\) ion and hence, KHF2 exists but there is no H-bonding in H-Cl. So, \(\mathrm{HCl}_{2}^{-}\) ion does not exist and hence, KHCl2 also does not exist.

Question 9.
How many nodal planes are present in n(2px) and n(2px) molecular orbitals?
Answer:
One and two respectively.

Question 10.
What is the magnetic character of the anion of K02?
Answer:
Anion of KO2 is \(\mathrm{O}_{2}^{-}\) (superoxide ion) which has one unpaired electron and hence is paramagnetic.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the change in hybridisation (if any) of the Al-atom in
the following reaction:
AlCl3 + Cl → \(\mathrm{AlCl}_{\mathbf{4}}^{-}\)
Answer:
Electronic configuration of Al in ground state,
13Al = 1s2, 2s2,2p6,3s2,3p1x
In excited state = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1, 3p1x, 3p1y
In the formation of AlCl3, Al undergoes sp2 hybridisation and it is trigonal
planar in shape. While in the formation of AlCl4, Al undergoes sp3
hybridisation.
It means empty 3Pz orbital also involved in hybridisation.
Thus, the shape of AlCl4 ion is tetrahedral.

Question 2.
Arrange the following in order of decreasing bond angle, with appropriate reason
\(\mathrm{NO}_{2}, \mathrm{NO}_{2}^{+}, \mathrm{NO}_{2}^{-}\)
Answer:
\(\mathrm{NO}_{2}, \mathrm{NO}_{2}^{+}, \mathrm{NO}_{2}^{-}\). This is because \(\mathrm{NO}_{2}^{+}\) has no lone pair of electrons
(i.e., has only bond pairs on two sides) and hence it is linear.

NO2 has one unshared electron while \(\mathrm{NO}_{2}^{-}\) has one unshared electron pair. There are greater repulsion on N—O bonds in case of \(\mathrm{NO}_{2}^{-}\) than in case of NO2

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 2

Question 3.
Among the molecules, \(\mathbf{O}_{2}^{-}, \mathbf{N}_{2}^{+}, \mathrm{CN}^{-}\) and \(\mathbf{O}_{2}^{+}\) identify the species which is isoelectronic with CO.
Answer:
Isoelectronics species are those species which have the same number of electrons. CO in total has 14 electrons (6 from carbon and 8 from oxygen). Out of the given ions CN is the ion which has 14 electrons (6 from carbon 7 from Nitrogen and 1 from the negative charge). Thus CN ion is isoelectronic with CO.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Question 4.
Which is more polar : COa or N20? Give reason.
Answer:
N2Ois more polar than CO2. This is because CO2 is linear and symmetrical.
Its net dipole moment is zero im
on the other hand, is linear but unsymmetrical. It is considered as a resonance hybrid of the following two structures

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 3

It.has a net dipole moment of 0.116 D.

Question 5.
Aluminium forms the ion Al3+, but not Al4+ why?
Answer:
Aluminium [Ne]3s2 3p1 can achieve the electronic configuration of the nearest noble gas (Ne) by losing only three electrons. : Al3+ = 1s2 2s2 2p6.
Aluminium will not form Al4+ ion because an extremely high amount of energy would be required to remove an electron from the stable noble gas configuration.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
On the basis of VSEPR theory, predict the shapes of the following
(i) \(\mathbf{N H}_{2}^{-}\) (ii) O3
Answer:
(i) Shape of \(\mathbf{N H}_{2}^{-}\)
Number of valence electrons on central N atom = 5 + 1 (due to one unit negative charge) = 6
Number of atoms linked to it = 2
∴ Total number of electron pairs around N
= \(\frac{6+2}{2}\) = 4 and number of bond pairs = 2
∴ Number of lone pairs = 4 —2 = 2. Thus, the ion is of the type AB2E2
Hence, it has bent shape (V-shape).

(ii) Shape of O3
While predicting geometry of molecules containing the double (or multiple) bond is considered as one electron pair, e.g., in case of ozone, its two resonating structures are

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 4

Thus, the central O-atom is considered to have two bond pairs and one lone pair, i.e., it is of the type AB2E. Hence, it is a bent molecule. Thus, the two resonating structures will be

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 5

Question 2.
In each of the following pairs of compounds, which one is more covalent and why?
(i) AgCl, Agl
(ii) BeCl2,MgCl2
(iii) SnCl2, SnCl4
(iv) CuO, CuS
Answer:
Applying Fajans’ rules, the result can be obtained in each case as follows :
(i) Agl is more covalent than AgCl. This is because I ion is larger in size than Cl ion and hence is more polarised than Cl ion.
(ii) BeCl2 is more covalent thanMgCl2. This is because Be2+ ion is smaller in size than Mg2 ion and hence has the greater polarising power.
(iii) SnCl4 is more covalent than SnCl2. This is because Sn4+ ion has greater charge and smaller size than Sn2+ ion and hence has greater polarising power.
(iv) CuS is more covalent than CuO. This is because S2- ion has larger size
than O2- ion and hence is more polarised than O2- ion.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which properties of the elements depend on’ the electronic configuration of the atoms and which do not?
Answer:
Chemical and many physical properties of the elements depends on the electronic configuration of the atoms, whereas the nuclear properties do not.

Question 2.
Write the number designation of a group that has 2 electrons beyond a noble gas configuration.
Answer:
The number designation of a group that has 2 electrons beyond a noble gas configuration will be 2 which means it will belong to group 2 of periodic table.

Question 3.
Why is it more logical to call the atomic radius as the effective atomic radius?
Answer:
This is because the size of atom is very small and it has no sharp boundaries.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Question 4.
A boy has reported the radii of Cu, Cu+ and Cu2+ as 0.096 nm, 0.122 nm and Question072 nm respectively. However, it has been noticed that he interchanged the values by mistake. Assign the correct values to different species.
Answer:
Cu [0.122 nm], Cu+ [0.096 nm], Cu2+ [0.072 nm].
∵ Size ∝ \(\frac{1}{\text { positive charge }}\)

Question 5.
Atomic radii of fluorine is 72 pm where as atomic radii of neon is 160 pm. Why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Atomic radius of F is expressed in terms of covalent radius while, atomic radius of neon is usually expressed in terms of van der Waals’ radius, van der Waals’ radius of an element is always larger than its covalent radius.
Therefore, atomic radius of F is smaller than atomic radius of Ne (F = 72 pm, Ne = 160 pm)

Question 6.
Arrange the following elements in order of decreasing electron gain enthalpy : B, C, N, O.
Answer:
N has positive electron gain enthalpy while all others have negative electron gain enthalpies. Since size decreases on moving from B → C → O, therefore, electron gain enthalpies become more and more negative from B → C → O. Thus, the overall decreasing order of electron gain enthalpies is N, B, C, O.

Question 7.
Which of the following atoms would most likely form an anion (i) Be, (ii) Al, (iii) Ga, (iv) I ?
Answer:
I, because of high electron gain enthalpy, it can accept an electron readily to form an anion F < Cl < Br > I.

Question 8.
Explain why chlorine can be converted into chloride ion more easily as compared to fluoride ion from fluorine.
Answer:
Electron gain enthalpy of Cl is more negative than that of F.

Question 9.
Among alkali metals which element do you expect to be least electronegative and why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
On moving down the group, electronegativity decreases because atomic size increases. Fr has the largest size, therefore it is least electronegative.

Question 10.
Arrange the following elements in the increasing order of non-metallic character. B, C, Si, N, F
Answer:
The given non-metals are arranged in the increasing order of non-metallic character as follows:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What would be IUPAC names and symbols for elements with atomic numbers 122, 127, 135, 149 and 150? .
Answer:
The roots 2, 7, 5, 9 and 0 are referred as bi, sept, pent, enn and nil respectively. Therefore, their names and symbol are

Z (Atomic number) Name Symbol
122 Unbibium Ubb
127 Unbiseptium Ubs
135 Untripentium Dtp
149 Unquadennium Uqe
150 Unpentnilium Upn

Question2.
All transition elements are d-block elements, but all d-block elements are not transition elements. Explain.
Answer:
Elements in which the last electron enters in the d-orbitals, are called d-block elements or transition elements. These elements have the general outer electronic configuration (n – 1)d1-10ns0-2 Zn, Cd and Hg having the electronic configuration, (n – l1)d10ns2 do not show most of the properties of transition elements. The d-orbitals in these elements are completely filled in the ground state as well as in their common oxidation states. Therefore, they are not regarded as transition elements. Thus, on the basis of properties, all transition elements are d-block elements but on the basis of electronic configuration, all d-block elements are not transition elements.

Question 3.
Arrange the elements N, P, O and S in the order of
(i) increasing first ionisation enthalpy.
(ii) increasing non-metallic character.
Give reason for the arrangement assigned.
Answer:

Group 15 Group 16
2nd period N 0
3rd period P S

(i) Ionisation enthalpy of nitrogen (7N = 1s2, 2s2, 2p3) is greater than oxygen (8O = 1s2 , 2s2 , 2p4 ) due to extra stable half-filled 2p-orbitals. Similarly, ionisation enthalpy of phosphorus (15P = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p3) is greater than sulphur (16S = 1s2, 2x2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p4).
On moving down the group, ionisation enthalpy decreases with increasing atomic size. So, the increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is S < P < O < N.

(ii) Non-metallic character across a period (left to right) increases but on moving down the group it decreases. So, the increasing order of non-metallic character is P < S < N < 0.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Question 4.
What do you understand by exothermic reaction and endothermic reaction? Give one example of each type.
Answer:
Exothermic reactions : Reactions which are accompanied by evolution of heat are called exothermic reactions. The quantity of heat produced is shown either along with the products with a ‘+’ sign or in terms if ΔH with a sign, e.g.,

C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + 393.5 kJ
H2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2(g) → H2O(l) ΔH = -285.8 kJ mol-1

Endothermic reactions : Reactions which proceed with absorption of heat are called endothermic reactions. The quantity of heat absorbed is shown either alongwith the products with a sign or in terms of ΔH with a ‘-‘ sign, e.g.,

C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2(g) -131.4 kJ
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g); ΔH = +92.4 kJ mol-1

Question5.
How does the metallic and non-metallic character vary on moving from left to right in a period?
Answer:
As we move from left to right in a period, the number of valence electrons increases by one at each succeeding element but the number of shells remains same. Due to this, effective nuclear charge increases.

More is the effective nuclear charge, more is the attraction between nuclei and electron.
Hence, the tendency of the element to lose electrons decreases, this results in decrease in metallic character.
Furthermore, the tendency of an element to gain electrons increases with increase in effective nuclear charge, so non-metallic character increases on moving from left to right in a period.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the drawbacks in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table that led to its modification.
Answer:
The main drawbacks of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table are:
(i) Some elements having similar properties were placed in different groups whereas some elements having dissimilar properties were placed in the same group. For example alkali metals such as Li, Na, K, etc., (I A group) are grouped together with coinage metals such as Cu, Ag, Au (I B group) though their properties are quite different. Chemically similar elements such as Cu (I B group) and Hg (II B group) have been placed in different groups.

(ii) Some elements with higher atomic weights are placed before the elements with lower atomic weights in order to maintain the similar chemical nature of elements. For example,

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 2

(iii) Isotopes did not find any place in the Periodic Table. However, according to Mendeleev’s classification, these should be placed at different places in the Periodic Table.
(All the above three defects were however removed when modern periodic law based on atomic number was given.)

(iv) Position of hydrogen in the Periodic Table is not fixed but is
controversial. ,
(v) Position of elements of group VIII could not be made clear which have been arranged in three triads without any justification.
(vi) It could not explain the even and odd series in IV, V and VI long periods.
(vii) Lanthanides and actinides which were discovered later on, have not been given proper positions in the main frame of Periodic Table.

Question 2.
p-block elements form acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides. Explain each property by giving two examples and also write the reactions of these oxides with water.
Answer:
In p-block, when we move from left to right in a period, the acidic character of the oxides increases due to increase in electronegativity, e.g.,

(i) 2nd period
B2O3 < CO2 < N2O3 acidic character increases.

(ii) 3rd period
Al2O3 < SiO2 < P4O10 < SO3 < Cl2O7 acidic character increases.
On moving down the group, acidic character decreases and basic character increases, e.g.,

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

(a) Nature of oxides of 13 group elements

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 3

(b) Nature of oxides of 15 group elements

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 4

Among the oxides of same element, higher the oxidation state of the element, stronger is the acid. e.g., SO3 is a stronger acid than SO2. B2O3 is weakly acidic and on dissolution in water, it forms orthoboric acid. Orthoboric acid does not act as a protonic acid (it does not ionise) but acts as a weak Lewis acid.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 5

Al2O3 is amphoteric in nature. It is insoluble in water but dissolves in alkalies and react with acids.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 6

Tl2O is as basic as NaOH due to its lower oxidation state (+1).
Tl2O + 2HCl → 2TlCl + H2O

P4O10 on reaction with water gives orthophosporic acid.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 7

Cl2O7 is strongly acidic in nature and on dissolution in water, it gives perchloric acid.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 8

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following will not show deflection from the path on passing through an electric field? Proton, cathode rays, electron, neutron
Answer:
Neutron is a neutral particle. Hence, it will not be deflected on passing through an electric field.

Question 2.
What is the nuclear radius of an atom whose mass number is 125?
Answer:
Nuclear radius, r = R0A1/3 where, R0 = 1.4 x 10-15 m,
∴ r = (1.4 x 10-15 m) x (125)1/3 = 7.0 x 10-15 m.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 3.
The magnitude of charge on the electron is 4.8 x 10-10 esu. What is the charge on the nucleus of a helium atom?
Answer:
Helium nucleus contains 2 protons and charge of a proton is same as that of an electron.
Therefore, the charge on the nucleus of a helium atom is (+2) x 4.8 x 10-10 = + 9.6 x 10-10 esu.

Question 4.
What is the difference in the origin of cathode rays and anode rays?
Answer:
Cathode rays originate from the cathode whereas anode rays do not originate from the anode. They are produced from the gaseous atoms by knock out of the electrons with high speed cathode rays.

Question 5.
What is the difference between atomic mass and mass number?
Answer:
Mass number is a whole number because it is the sum of number of protons and number of neutrons whereas atomic mass is fractional because it is the average relative mass of its atom as compared with mass of an atom of C-12 isotope taken as 12.

Question 6.
What is the difference between a quantum and a photon?
Answer:
The smallest packet of energy of any radiation is called a quantum whereas that of light is called photon.

Question 7.
Arrange s, p and rf-subshells of a shell in the increasing order of , effective nuclear charge (Zeff) experienced by the electron present in them. [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. s-orbital is spherical in shape, it shields the electrons from the nucleus more effectively than p-orbital which in turn shields more effectively than d-orbital. Therefore, the effective nuclear charge (Zeff) experienced by electrons present in them is d < p < s.

Question 8.
Show the distribution of electrons in oxygen atom (atomic number 8) using orbital diagram.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 5

Question 9.
Nickel atom can lose two electrons to form Ni ion. The atomic number of Ni is 28. From which orbital will nickel lose two electrons? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
28Ni = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d8, 4s2; Nickel will lose 2 electrons from 4s (outer most shell) to form Ni2+ ion.

Question 10.
Which of the following orbitals are degenerate?
3dxy, 4dxy, \(3 d_{z^{2}}\), 3dyz, \(4 d_{z^{2}}\)
Answer:
The orbitals which belongs to same subshell and same shell are called degenerate orbitals. (3dxy, \(3 d_{z} 2\), 3dyz) and (4dxy, 4dyz, 4d 2) are the two sets of degenerate orbitals.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum corresponds to the transition from n1 = 2 to n2 = 3, 4 … . This series lies in the visible region. Calculate the wave number of line associated with the transition in Balmer series when the electron moves to n = 4 orbit. (RH = 109677 cm1)
Answer:
From Rydberg formula,
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 1

Question 2.
Out of electron and proton which one will have, a higher velocity to produce matter waves of the same wavelength? Explain it.
Answer:
From de Broglie equation, wavelength, \(\lambda=\frac{h}{m v}\)
For same wavelength for two different particles, i.e., electron and proton, m1v1 = m2v2 (h is constant). Lesser the mass of the particle, greater will be the velocity. Hence, electron will have higher velocity.

Question 3.
Wavelengths of different radiations are given helow.
λ(A) = 300 nm, λ(B) = 300 pm, λ(C) = 3 nm, λ(D) = 30Å Arrange these radiations in the increasing order of their energies.
Answer:
(A) λ=3OOnm=3OO x 10-9m
(B) λ =300µm=300 x 10-6m
(C) λ =3nm = 3 x 10-9 m
(D) λ = 30 = 30 x 10-10m= 3 x 10-9m
Energy, E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
Therefore, E ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\)
Increasing order of energy is B

Question 4.
The electronic configuration of valence shell of Cu is 3d104s1 and not 3d94s2. How is this configuration explained?
Answer:
Configurations with completely filled and half-filled orbitals have extra stability. In 3d104s1, d-orbitals are completely filled and s-orbital is half-filled. Hence, it is a more stable configuration for Cu as compare to 3d94s2.

Question 5.
In each of the following pairs of salts, which one is more stable? (i) Ferrous and ferric salts (ii) Cuprous and cupric salts
Answer:
(i) Ferrous and ferric salts : In ferrous salts Fe2+, the configuration is 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d6. In ferric salts Fe3+, the configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5. As half-filled 3d5 configuration is more stable therefore ferric salts are more stable than ferrous salts.
(ii) Cuprous and cupric salts : In cuprous salts, the configuration of Cu+ is 1s2,2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10. In cupric salts the configuration of Cu2+, is, 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d9. Although Cu+ has completely filled d-orbital, yet cuprous salts are less stable. This is because the nuclear charge is not sufficient enough to hold 18 electrons of Cu+ ion present in the outermost shell.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When an electric discharge is passed through hydrogen gas, the hydrogen molecules dissociate to produce excited hydrogen atoms. These excited atoms emit electromagnetic radiation of discrete frequencies which can be given by the general formula \(\bar{v}=109677\left[\frac{1}{n_{i}^{2}}-\frac{1}{n_{f}^{2}}\right]\)
What points of Bohr’s model of an atom can he used to arrive at this formula? Based on these points derive the above formula giving description of each step and each term. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The two important points of Bohr’s model that can be used to derive the given formula are as follows :
(i) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular path of fixed radius and energy. These paths are called orbits, stationary states or allowed energy states.
(ii) Energy is emitted or absorbed when an electron moves from higher stationary state to lower stationary state or from lower stationary state to higher stationary state respectively.
Derivation : The energy of the electron in the nth stationary state is given by the expression,
\(E_{n}=-R_{\mathrm{H}}\left(\frac{1}{n^{2}}\right)\)
n = 1,2,3 …. ……(i)
where RH is called Rydberg constant and its value is 2.18 x 10-18 J.
The Energy of the lowest state, also called the ground state, is
E1 = -2.18 x 10-18\(\left(\frac{1}{1^{2}}\right)\) = 2.18 x 10-18J ……. (ii)
The energy gap between the two orbits is given by the equation,
ΔE = Ef – Ei … (iii)
On combining equations (i) and (iii)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 2
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 3

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 2.
Calculate the energy and frequency of the radiation emitted when an electron jumps from n = 3 to n = 2 in a hydrogen atom.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 4

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Guide Environmental Chemistry InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define environmental chemistry.
Answer:
Environmental chemistry is the study of chemical and biochemical processes occurring in nature. It deals with the study of origin, transport, reaction, effects, and fates of various chemical species in the environment.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry

Question 2.
Explain tropospheric pollution in 100 words.
Answer:
Tropospheric pollution occurs due to the presence of undesirable solid or gaseous particles in the air. The major gaseous and particulate pollutants present in the troposphere are :
(i) Gaseous air pollutants : These are oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon, hydrogen sulphide, hydrocarbons, ozone and other oxidants.
(ii) Particulate pollutants : These are dust, mist, fumes, smoke, smog, etc.

Gaseous Air Pollutants
(a) Oxides of sulphur : These are produced when sulphur containing fossil fuel is burnt. S02 gas is poisonous to both animals and plants.
(b) Oxides of nitrogen : These are produced by the reaction of nitrogen and oxygen at high altitudes when lightning strikes.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmen 1

(c) Hydrocarbons : Incomplete combustion of fuel used in automobiles is the major source for the release of hydrocarbon. These are carcinogenic and cause cancer. They also harm plants.
(d) Oxides of carbon : Carbon monoxide is one of the most serious air pollutants. It is highly poisonous to living beings because it blocks the supplyof oxygen to the organs and tissues. It is produced due to the incomplete combustion of carbon.
Carbon dioxide is the main contributor towards green house effect and global warming. It is released into the atmosphere by respiration, burning of fossil fuels and by decomposition of limestone during cement manufacturing.

Question 3.
Carbon monoxide gas is more dangerous than carbon dioxide gas. Why?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide (CO2) and carbon monoxide (CO) gases are emitted during the combustion of various fuels. Carbon monoxide is poisonous, whereas carbon dioxide is non-toxic in nature.
Carbon monoxide is poisonous because it is capable of forming a complex with haemoglobin (carboxyhaemoglobin), which is more stable than the
oxygen-heamoglobin complex. The concentration range (3-4% )of carboxyhaemoglobin decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. This results in headaches, weak eyesight, nervousness, and cardiovascular disorders. A more increased concentration may even lead to death.
Carbon dioxide is not poisonous. It proves harmful only at very high concentrations.

Question 4.
List gases which are responsible for greenhouse effect.
Answer:
The major greenhouse gases are:
1. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
2. Methane (CH4)
3. Nitrous oxide (NO)
4. Ozone (O3)
5. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

Question 5.
Statues and monuments in India are affected by acid rain. How?
Answer:
Acid rain is a byproduct of various human activities that leads to the emission of oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere. These oxides undergo oxidation and then react with water vapour to form acids.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) + 2H2O(l) > 2H2SO4(aq)
4NO2(g) + O2(g) + 2H2O(l) > 4HNO3(aq)
Acid rain causes damage to buildings and structures made of stone and metal.
In India, limestone is a major stone used in the construction of various monuments and statues, including the Taj Mahal.
Acid rain reacts with limestone as:
CaCO3 + H2SO4 > CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
This results in the loss of lustre and colour of monuments, leading to their disfiguration.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry

Question 6.
What is smog? How is classical smog different from photochemical smog?
Answer:
Smog is a kind of air pollution. It is the blend of smoke and fog. There are two kinds of smog.
(a) Classical smog
(b) Photochemical smog ^
The two smogs can be differentiated as follows :
table

Question 7.
Write down the reactions involved during the formation of photochemical smog.
Answer:
Photochemical smog is formed as a result of the reaction of sunlight with hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides. Ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde, and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) are common components of photochemical smog. The formation of photochemical smog can be summarized as follows:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmen 2
Burning of fossil fuels leads to the emission of hydrocarbons and nitrogen dioxide in the atmosphere. High concentrations of these pollutants in air results in their interaction with sunlight as follows:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmen 3

Question 8.
What are the harmful effects of photochemical smog and how can they be controlled?
Answer:
Effects of photochemical smog : Photochemical smog is oxidizing smog owing to the presence of N02 and 03 causing corrosion of metals, stones, rubber, and painted surfaces. The other major components of photochemical smog are PAN, acrolein, and formaldehyde. Both PAN and ozone are eye irritants, while nitric oxide (formed from NO2) causes nose and throat irritation. At higher concentrations, photochemical smog causes chest pain, headaches, throat dryness, and various respiratory ailments.
Control measures : Photochemical smog results from the burning of fossil fuels and automobile fuels that emit NO2 and hydrocarbons, which in turn form ozone, PAN and other chemicals. The use of catalytic converters in automobiles is recommended to prevent the release of NO2 and hydrocarbons into the atmosphere.
Plantation of plants such as Finns, Juniparus, Quercus, Pyrus, and Vitis is also advised as these plants have the capability to metabolize NO2.

Question 9.
What are the reactions involved for ozone layer depletion in the stratosphere?
Answer:
In the stratosphere, ozone is a product of the action of UV radiations on dioxygen as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmen 4
Reaction (ii) indicates the dynamic equilibrium existing between the production and decomposition of ozone molecules. Any factor that disturbs the equilibrium may cause depletion of ozone layer by its decomposition. One such factor is the release of chlorofluorocarbon compounds (CFCs). These are non-reactive, non-flammable molecules that are used in refrigerators, air conditioners, plastics, and electronic industries.
Once released CFCs mix with atmospheric gases and reach the stratosphere, where they are decomposed by UV radiations.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmen 5

The chlorine free radical produced in reaction (iii) reacts with ozone as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmen 6

The PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmen 7 radicals further react with atomic oxygen to produce more chlorine radicals as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmen 8
The regeneration of PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmen 9 causes a continuous breakdown of ozone present in the stratosphere damaging the ozone layer.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry

Question 10.
What do you mean by ozone hole? What are its consequences? Ans. In Polar regions, stratospheric clouds provide the surface for chlorine nitrate and hypochlorous acid, which react further to give molecular chlorine. Molecular chlorine and H0C1 are photolysed to give chlorine-free radicals.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmen 10
Hence, a chain reaction is initiated. The chlorine-free radical is continuously regenerated, thereby depleting the ozone layer. This phenomenon is known as the ozone hole.

Effects of depletion of ozone layer : The ozone layer protects the Earth from the harmful UV radiations of the sun. With the depletion of the layer, more radiation will enter the Earth’s atmosphere. UV radiations are harmful because they lead to the ageing of skin, cataract, skin cancer, and sunburns. They cause death of many phytoplanktons, which leads to a decrease in fish productivity. Excess exposure may even causes mutation in plants.
Increase in UV radiations, decreases the moisture content of the soil and damages both plants and fibres.

Question 11.
What are the major causes of water pollution? Explain.
Answer:
Several human activities caused water population which leads to the presence of several undesirable substances in water.
Major water pollutants with their sources have been tabulated as follows:
table

Roles played by major pollutants are :
1. Pathogens : These water pollutants include bacteria and other organisms. They enter water from animal excreta and domestic sewage. Bacteria present in human excreta (for example, Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis) cause gastrointestinal diseases.
2. Organic wastes : These are biodegradable wastes that pollute water as a result of run off. The presence of excess organic wastes in water decreases the amount of oxygen held by water. This decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen inhibits aquatic life.
3. Chemical pollutants : These are water soluble chemicals like heavy metals such as cadmium, mercury, nickel, etc. The presence of these chemicals (above the tolerance limit) can damage the kidneys, central nervous system, and liver.

Question 12.
Have you ever observed any water pollution in your area? What measures would you suggest to control it?
Answer:
Water pollution arises as a result of various human activities. This includes discharges from waste water treatment plants, run-off from agricultural fields, storm water drainage, etc. Pollutants from these sources enter the water bodies, thereby contaminating the water and rendering it impure.
Industries and chemical factories discharge toxic, heavy metals such as Fe, Mn, Al, etc., along with organic wastes into water. Domestic sewage and animal excreta are also responsible for pathogenic contamination of water.
These pollutants make water unfit for drinking.
Therefore, all industrial and chemical discharges should be made free from toxic metals before allowing them to enter a water body. The concentration of these pollutants should be checked regularly. Compost should be preferred over chemical fertilizers in gardens and agricultural fields to avoid harmful chemicals from entering ground water.

Question 13.
What do you mean by Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)?
Answer:
Biochemical oxygen demand is the amount of oxygen required by bacteria to decompose organic matter in a certain volume of sample of water. Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm, whereas highly polluted water has a BOD value of 17 ppm or more.

Question 14.
Do you observe any soil pollution in your neighbourhood? What efforts will you make for controlling the soil pollution?
Answer:
Major sources of soil pollution are industrial wastes and agricultural pollutants such as pesticides, fertilizers, etc.
It is very important to maintain the quality and fertility of soil to ensure and sustain the growth of plants and food crops.
Insecticides like DDT are not soluble in water. For this reason, they remain in soil for a long time contaminating the root crops. Pesticides like Aldrin and Dieldrin are non-biodegradable and highly toxic in nature. They can enter the higher trophic levels through food chains, causing metabolic and physiological disorders. The same is true for industrial wastes that comprises of several toxic metals like Pb, As, Hg, Cd, etc.
Hence, the best way to check soil pollution is to avoid direct addition of pollutants to the soil. Also, wastes should undergo proper treatment. They should be recycled and only then, allowed to be dumped. i

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry

Question 15.
What are pesticides and herbicides? Explain giving examples.
Answer:
Pesticides are a mixture of two or more substances. They are used for killing pests. Pests include insects, plant pathogens, weeds, molluscs, etc., that destroy the plant crop and spread diseases. Aldrin and dieldrin are the names of some common pesticides.
Herbicides are pesticides specially meant for killing weeds. For example, sodium chlorate (NaClO3), sodium arsenite (Na3AsO3) etc.

Question 16.
What do you mean by green chemistry? How will it help in reducing environmental pollution?
Answer:
Green chemistry is a production process that aims at using the existing knowledge and principles of chemistry for developing and implementing chemical products and processes to reduce the use and generation of substances hazardous to the environment.
The release of different harmful chemicals (particulates, gases, organic and inorganic wastes) causes environmental pollution. In green chemistry, the reactants to be used in chemical reactions are chosen in such a way that the yield of the end products is up to 100%. This prevents or limits chemical pollutants from being introduced into the environment. Through the efforts of green chemists, H2O2 has replaced tetrachloroethane and chlorine gas in drying and bleaching of paper.

Question 17.
What would have happened if the greenhouse gases were totally missing in the earth’s atmosphere? Discuss.
Answer:
Earth’s most abundant greenhouse gases are CO2, CH4, O3 , CFCs and water vapour. These gases are present near the Earth’s surface. They absorb solar energy that is radiated back from the surface of the Earth. The absorption of radiation results in the heating up of the atmosphere. Hence, greenhouse gases are essential for maintaining the temperature of the Earth for the sustenance of life.
In the absence of greenhouse gases, the average temperature of the Earth will decrease drastically, making it uninhabitable. As a result, life on Earth would be impossible.

Question 18.
A large number of fish are suddenly floating dead on a lake. There is no evidence of toxic dumping but you find an abundance of phytoplankton. Suggest a reason for the fish kill.
Answer:
The amount of dissolved oxygen present in water is limited. The abundance of phytoplanktons causes depletion of this dissolved oxygen. This is because phytoplanktons are degraded by bacteria present in water. For their decomposition they require a large amount of oxygen. Hence, they consume the oxygen dissolved in water. As a result, the BOD level of water drops below 6 ppm, inhibiting the growth of fish and causing excessive fish kill.

Question 19.
How can domestic waste be used as manure?
Answer:
Depending upon the nature of the waste, domestic waste can be segregated into two categories i.e., biodegradable and non-biodegradable. Biodegradable waste such as leaves, rotten food, etc. should be deposited in land fills, where they get decomposed aerobically and anaerobically into manure. Non-biodegradable waste (which cannot be degraded) such as plastic, glass, metal scraps etc. should be sent for recycling.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry

Question 20.
For your agricultural field or garden you have developed a compost producing pit. Discuss the process in the light of bad ’ odour, flies and recycling of wastes for a good produce.
Answer:
It is essential to take proper care of the compost producing pit in order to protect ourselves from bad odour and flies.
It should be kept covered to minimize bad odour and prevent flies from entering it.
The recyclable waste should not be dumped in the compost producing pit. It should be sent to the industries through vendors for recycling.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Guide Hydrocarbons InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do you account for the formation of ethane during the chlorination of methane?
Answer:
Chlorination of methane proceeds via a free radical chain mechanism. The whole reaction takes place in the given three steps :
Step 1: Initiation : The reaction begins with the homolytic cleavage of Cl—Cl bond as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 1

Step 2: Propagation : In the second step, chlorine free radicals attack methane molecules and break down the C—H bond to generate methyl radicals as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 2
These methyl radicals react with other chlorine free radicals to form methyl chloride along with the liberation of a chlorine free radical.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 3
Hence, methyl free radicals and chlorine free radicals set up a chain reaction. While HC1 and CH3C1 are the major products formed, other higher
halogenated compounds are also formed as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 4
Step 3: Termination : Formation of ethane is a result of the termination
of chain reactions taking place as a result of the consumption of reactants as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 5
Hence, by this process, ethane is obtained as a by-product of chlorination of methane.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 2.
Write IUPAC names of the following compounds : ,
(a) CH3CH = C(CH3)2
(b) CH2 = CH — C = C — CH3
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 6
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 7
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 8

Question 3.
For the following compounds, write structural formulas and IUPAC names for all possible isomers having the number of double or triple bond as indicated:
(a) C4H8 (one double bond)
(b) C5H8 (one triple bond)
Answer:
(a) The following structural isomers are possible for C4H8 with one double bond:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 9

(b) The following structural isomers are possible for C5H8 with one triple bond:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 10

Question 4.
Write IUPAC names of the products obtained by the ozonolysis of the following compounds:
(i) Pent-2-ene
(ii) 3,4-Dimethylhept-3-ene
(iii) 2-Ethylbut-l-ene
(iv) 1-Phenylbut-l-ene
Answer:
(i) Pent-2-ene undergoes ozonolysis as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 11
The IUPAC name of product (I) is ethanal and product (II) is propanal.
(ii) 3, 4-Dimethylhept-3-ene undergoes ozonolysis as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 12
The IUPAC name of product (I) is butan-2-one and product (II) is pentan-2-one.
(iii) 2-Ethylbut-l-ene undergoes ozonolysis as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 13
The IUPAC name of product (I) is pentan-3-one and product (II) is methanal.
(iv) 1-Phenylbut-l-ene undergoes ozonolysis as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 14
The IUPAC name of product (I) is benzaldehyde and product (II) is propanal.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 5.
An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentan-3-one. Write structure and IUPAC name of ‘A’.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 15

Question 6.
An alkene ‘A’ contains three C — C, eight C — Hσ bonds and one C — C π bond. ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde of molar mass 44 u. Write IUPAC name of ‘A’
Answer:
As per the given information, ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde of molar mass 44 u. The formation of two moles of an
aldehyde indicates the esence of identical structural units on both sides of the double bond containing carbon atoms.
Hence, the structure of ‘A’ can be represented as :
XC = CX
There are eight C—Ha bonds. Hence, there are 8 hydrogen atoms in ‘A’. Also, there are three C—C bonds. Hence, there are four carbon atoms present in the structure of‘A’.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 16
Combining the inferences, the structure of A’ can be represented as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 17

‘A’ has 3 C — C bonds, 8 C — H bonds, and one C— C it bond. Hence, the IUPAC name of ‘A’ is But-‘ 2-ene.
Ozonolysis of ‘A’ takes place as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 18
The final product is ethanal with molecular mass
= [(2 x 12) + (4 x 1) + (1 x 16)]= 44 u

Question 7.
Propanal and pentan-3-one are the ozonolysis products of an alkene? What is the structural formula of the alkene?
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 19

Question 8.
Write chemical equations for combustion reaction of the following hydrocarbons:
(i) Butane
(ii) Pentene
(iii) Hexyne
(iv) Toluene
Answer:
Combustion can be defined as a reaction of a compound with oxygen.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 20

Question 9.
Draw the cis and trans structures of hex-2-ene. Which isomer will have higher b.p. and why?
Answer:
Hex-2-ene is represented as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 21

The cis-isomer will have higher boiling point due to more polar nature leading to stronger intermolecular dipole-dipole interactions thus requiring more heat energy to separate them, whereas trans form being non-polar have weak induced dipole interactions and so have lower boiling point.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 10.
Why is benzene extra ordinarily stable though it contains three double bonds?
Answer:
Resonance and delocalization of electrons generally leads to the stability of benzene molecule.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 22
The dotted circle in the hybrid structure represents the six electrons which are delocalised between the six carbon atoms of the benzene ring. Therefore, presence of delocalised Jt electrons in benzene makes it more stable than the hypothetical cyclohexatriene.

Question 11.
What are the necessary conditions for any system to be aromatic?
Answer:
A compound is said to be aromatic if it satisfies the following three conditions:
(i) It should have a planar structure.
(ii) The π-electrons of the compound are completely delocalized in the ring.
(iii) The total number of π-electrons present in the ring should be equal to (4n + 2), where n = 0,1, 2….etc. This is known as Huckel’s rule.

Question 12.
Explain why the following systems are not aromatic?
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 23
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 24
For the given compound, the number of π-electrons is six. But only four Tt-electrons are present within the ring. Also there is no conjugation of π-electrons within the ring and the compound is not planar in shape. Hence, the given compound is not aromatic in nature.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 25
For the given compound, the number of π-electrons is four.
By Huckel’s rule,
4n + 2 = 4,
4n = 2, n = 1/2
For a compound to be aromatic, the value of n must be an integer (n = 0,1,2 …), which is not true for the given compound. Hence, it is not aromatic in nature.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 26

For the given compound, the number of it-electrons is eight.
By Huckel’s rule.
4n + 2 = 8
4n = 6, n = 3/2
For a compound to be aromatic, the value of n must be an integer (n = 0,1, 2…). Since, the value of n is not an integer, the given compound is not aromatic in nature.

Question 13.
How will you convert benzene into
(i) p-nitrobromobenzene
(ii) m-nitrochlorobenzene
(iii) acetophenone
(iv) p-nitrotoluene
Answer:
(i) Benzene can be converted into p-nitrobromobenzene as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 27

(ii) Benzene can be converted into m-nitrochlorobenzene as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 28

(iii) Benzene can be converted into acetophenone as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 29

(iv) Benzene can be converted into p-nitrotoluene as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 30

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 14.
In the alkane H3C — CH2 — C(CH3)2 — CH2 — CH(CH3)2 identify 1°, 2°, 3° carbon atoms and give the number of H atoms bonded to each one of these.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 31

1° carbon atoms are those which are bonded to only one carbon atom, i.e., they have only one carbon atom as their neighbour. The given structure has five 1° carbon atoms and fifteen hydrogen atoms are attached to it.
2° carbon atoms are those which are bonded to two carbon atoms, i.e., they have two carbon atoms as their neighbours. The given structure has two 2° carbon atoms and four hydrogen atoms are attached to it.
3° carbon atoms are those which are bonded to three carbon atoms, i.e., they have three carbon atoms as their neighbours. The given structure has one 3° carbon atom and only one hydrogen atom is attached to it.

Question 15.
What effect does branching of an alkane chain has on its boiling point?
Answer:
Alkanes experience inter-molecular Van der Waals forces. The stronger the force, the greater will be the boiling point of the alkane.
As branching increases, the surface area of the molecule decreases which results in a small area of contact. As a result, the Van der Waals force also decreases which can be overcome at a relatively lower temperature. Hence, the boiling point of an alkane chain decreases with an increase in branching.

Question 16.
Addition of HBr to propene yields 2-bromopropane, while in the presence of benzoyl peroxide, the same .reaction yields
1- bromopropane. Explain and give mechanism.
Answer:
Addition of HBr to propene is an example of an electrophilic substitution reaction.
Hydrogen bromide provides an electrophile, H+. This electrophile attacks the double bond to form 1° and 2° carbocations as shown:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 32

Secondary carbocations are more stable than primary carbocations. Hence, the former predominates since it will form at a faster rate. Thus, in the next step, Br attacks the carbocation to form 2 – bromopropane as the major product.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 33

This reaction follows Markovnikov’s rule where the negative part of the addendum is attached to the carbon atom having a lesser number of hydrogen atoms.

In the presence of benzoyl peroxide an addition reaction takes place against Markovnikov’s rule. The reaction follows a free radical chain mechanism as:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 34

Secondary free radicals are more stable than primary radicals. Hence, the former predominates since it forms at a faster rate. Thus, 1-bromopropane is obtained as the major product.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 35

In the presence of peroxide, Br free radical acts as an electrophile. Hence, two different products are obtained on addition of HBr to propene in the absence and presence of peroxide.

Question 17.
Why does benzene undergo electrophilic substitution reactions easily and nucleophilic substitutions with difficulty?
Answer:
Benzene is a planar molecule having delocalized electrons above and below the plane of ring. Hence, it is electron-rich. As a result, it is highly attractive to electron deficient species i.e., electrophiles. Therefore, it undergoes electrophilic substitution reactions very easily. Nucleophiles are electron-rich. Hence, they are repelled by benzene. Hence, benzene undergoes nucleophilic substitutions with difficulty.

Question 18.
Write down the products of ozonolysis of 1, 2-dimethylbenzene (o-xylene). How does the result support Kekule structure for benzene?
Answer:
o-xylene has two resonance structures:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 36

All three products, i.e., methyl glyoxal, 1, 2-dimethyl glyoxal, and glyoxal are obtained from two Kekule structures. Since all three products cannot be obtained from any one of the two structures, this proves that o-xylene is a resonance hybrid of two Kekule structures (I and II).

Question 18.
Arrange benzene, n-hexane and ethyne in decreasing order of acidic behaviour. Also give reason for this behaviour.
Answer:
Acidic character of a species is defined on the basis of ease with which it can lose its H-atoms.
The hybridization state of carbon in the given compound is:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 37
As the s-character increases, the electronegativity of carbon increases and the electrons of C—H bond pair lie closer to the carbon atom. As a result, partial positive charge of H-atom increases and H+ ions are set free.
The s-character increases in the order:
sp3 < sp2 < sp Hence, the decreasing order of acidic behaviour is Ethyne > Benzene > Hexane.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 20.
How would you convert the following compounds into benzene?
(i) Ethyne (ii) Ethene (iii) Hexane
Answer:
(i) Benzene from Ethyne:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 38
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 39

Question 21.
Write structures of all the alkenes which on hydrogenation give 2-methyl butane.
Answer:
The basic skeleton of 2-methyl butane is
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 40
Putting double bonds at various different positions and satisfying the tetracovalency of each carbon, the structures of various alkenes which give 2-methyl butane on hydrogenation are:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 41

Question 22.
Arrange the following set of compounds in order of their decreasing relative reactivity with an electrophile, E+
(a) Chlorobenzene, 2, 4-dinitrochlorobenzene, p-nitrochlorobenzene
(b) Toluene, p-H3C—C6H4—NO2, p-O2N — C6H4 — NO2
Answer:
Electrophiles are reagents that participate in a reaction by accepting an electron pair in order to bond to nucleophiles.
The higher the electron density on a benzene ring, the more reactive is the compound towards an electrophile, E+ (Electrophilic reaction).
(a) The presence of an electron withdrawing group (i.e., —NO2 and Cl) deactivates the aromatic ring by decreasing the electron density. Since, —NO2 group is more electron withdrawing (due to resonance effect) than the —Cl group (due to inductive effect) the decreasing order of reactivity is as follows :
Chlorobenzene > p-nitrochlorobenzene > 2, 4-dinitrochlorobenzene
(b) While —CH3 is an electron donating group, —NO3 group is electron withdrawing. Hence, toluene will have the maximum electron density and is most easily attacked by E+.
—NO2 is an electron withdrawing group. Hence, when the number of —NO2 substituents is greater, the order is as follows:
Toluene > p-CH3—C6H4—NO2 > p-ON2—C6H4—NO2

Question 23.
Out of benzene, m-dinitrobenzene and toluene which will undergo nitration most easily and why?
Answer:
The ease of nitration depends on the presence of electron density on the compound to form nitrates. Nitration reactions are examples of electrophilic substitution reactions where an electron-rich species is attacked by a nitronium ion (\(\mathrm{NO}_{2}^{-}\)).
Now, —CH3 group is electron donating and —NO2 is electron withdrawing. Therefore, toluene will have the maximum electron density among the three compounds followed by benzene. On the other hand, m-Dinitrobenzene will have the least electron density. Hence, it will undergo nitration with difficulty. Hence, the increasing order of nitration is as follows:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 42

Question 24.
Suggest the name of a Lewis acid other than anhydrous aluminium chloride which can be used during ethylation of benzene.
Answer:
The ethylation reaction of benzene involves the addition of an ethyl group on the benzene ring. Such a reaction is called a Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction. This reaction takes place in the presence of a Lewis acid.
Any Lewis acid like anhydrous FeCl3, SnCl4, BF3 etc. can be used during the ethylation of benzene.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 25.
Why is Wurtz reaction not preferred for the preparation of alkanes containing odd number of carbon atoms? Illustrate your answer by taking one example.
Answer:
Wurtz reaction is limited for the synthesis of symmetrical alkanes (alkanes with an even number of carbon atoms) in the reaction, two
similar alkyl halides are taken as reactants and an alkane, containing double the number of carbon atoms, are formed. Example:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 43
Wurtz reaction cannot be used for the preparation of unsymmetrical alkanes because if two dissimilar alkyl halides are taken as the reactants, then a mixture of alkanes is obtained as the products. Since the reaction involves free radical species, a side reaction also occurs to produce an alkene. For example, the reaction of bromomethane and iodoethane gives a mixture of alkanes.

The boiling point of alkanes (obtained in the mixture) are very close. Hence, it becomes difficult to separate them.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Guide Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are hybridisation states of each carbon atom in the following compounds?
CH2 = C = O, CH3CH = CH2, (CH3)2CO, CH2 = CHCN, C6H6
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 1
C — 1 is sp2 hybridised.
C — 2 is sp hybridised.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 2
C — 1 is sp3 hybridised
C — 2 is sp2 hybridised
C — 3 is sp2 hybridised

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 3
C — 1 and C — 3 are sp3 hybridised.
C — 2 is sp2 hybridised.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 4
C — 1 is sp2 hybridised.
C — 2 is sp2 hybridised.
C — 3 is sp hybridised.

(v) C6H6
All the 6 carbon atoms in benzene are sp2 hybridised.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Question 2.
Indicate the o and n bonds in the following molecules:
C6H6, C6H12, CH2Cl2, CH2 = C = CH2, CH3NO2, HCONHCH3
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 5
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 6

Question 3.
Write bond line formulas for : isopropyl alcohol, 2,3-Dimethyl butanal, Heptan-4-one.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 7
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 8

Question 4.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 9
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 10

Question 5.
Which of the following represents the correct IUPAC name for the compounds concerned?
(a) 2, 2 -Dimethylpentane or
2-Dimethylpentane (b) 2,4,7-Trimethyloctane or
2,5,7-Trimethyloctane (c) 2-Chloro-4-methylpentane or
4-Chloro-2-methylpentane (d) But-3-yn-1-ol or But-4-ol-1-yne.
Answer:
(a) The prefix di in the JUPAC name indicates that two identical substituent groups are present in the parent chain. Since two methyl groups are present in the C-2 of the parent chain of the given compound, the correct IUPAC name of the given compound is 2-2-dimethylpentane.
(b) Locant number 2, 4, 7 is lower than 2, 5, 7. Hence, the IUPAC name of the given compound is 2, 4, 7-trimethyloctane.
(c) If the substituents are present in the equivalent position of the parent chain, then the lower number is given to the one that comes first in the name according to the alphabetical order. Hence, the correct IUPAC name of the given compound is 2-chloro-4-methylpentane.
(d) Two functional groups—alcoholic and alkyne—are present in the given compound. The principal functional group is the alcoholic group. Hence, the parent chain will be suffixed with ol. The alkyne group is present in the C—3 of the parent chain. Hence, the correct IUPAC name of the given compound is But – 3-yn -1 – ol.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Question 6.
Draw formulas for the first five members of each homologous series beginning with the following compounds :
(a) H—COOH
(b) CH3COCH3
(c) H—CH = CH2
Answer:
The first five members of each homologous series beginning with the given compounds are shown as follows:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 11

Question 7.
Give condensed and bond line structural formulas and identify the functional group (s) present, if any, for :
(a) 2,2, 4-Trimethylpentane
(b) 2-Hydroxy-1, 2, 3 -propanetricarboxylic acid
(c) Hexanedial
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 12

Question 8.
Identify the functional groups in the following compounds:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 13
Answer:
The functional groups present in the given compounds are:
(a) Aldehyde (—CHO) Hydroxyl (—OH)
Methoxy (—OMe)
(b) Amino (—NH2); primary amine (1° amine).
Ester (— O—CO—)
Triethylamine [N(C2H5)2]; tertiary amine (3° amine).
(C) Nitro (—NO2)
C = C double bond (—C = C—) .

Question 9.
Which of the two: 02NCH2CH20_ or CH3CH20 is expected to be more stable and why?
Answer:
NO2 group is an electron-withdrawing group. Hence, it shows-I effect. By withdrawing the electrons toward it, the NO2 group decreases the negative charge on the compound, thereby stabilising it. On the other hand, ethyl group is an electron-releasing group. Hence, the ethyl group shows +1 effect. This increases the negative charge on the compound, thereby destabilising it. Hence, O2NCH2CH2O is expected to be more stable than CH3CH2O.

Question 10.
Explain why alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to a π system,
Answer:
Due to hyperconjugation, alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to a π-system as shown below :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 14

Question 11.
Draw the resonance structures for the following compounds. Show the electron shift using curved-arrow notation.
(a) C6H2OH
(b) C6H5NO2
(c) CH3CH = CH CHO
(d) C6H5 -CHO
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 15
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 16
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 17

Question 12.
What are electrophiles and nucleophiles? Explain with examples?
Answer:
Electrophiles: An electrophile is a reagent that takes away an electron pair. In other words, an electron-seeking reagent is called an electrophile (E+). Electrophiles are electron-deficient and can receive an electron pair.
Neutral electrophiles :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 18
Charged electrophiles :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 19
Nucleophiles : A nulceophile is a reagent that brings an electron pair. In other words, a nucleus-seeking reagent is called a nucleophile.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 20

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Question 13.
Identify the reagents shown in bold italic in the following equations as nucleophiles or electrophiles:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 21
Answer:
Electrophiles are electron-deficient species and can receive an electron pair. On the other hand, nucleophiles are electron-rich species and can donate their electrons.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 22
Here, HO acts as a nucleophile as it is an electron-rich species, i.e., it is a nucleus-seeking species.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 23
Here, CN acts as a nucleophile as it is an electron-rich species i.e., it is a nucleus-seeking species.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 24
Here, PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 25 acts as an electrophile as it is an electron-deficient species.

Question 14.
Classify the following reactions in one of the reaction type studied in this unit.
(a) CH3CH2Br + HS → CH3CH2SH + Br
(b) (CH3)2 C = CH2 +HCl → (CH3)2 ClC – CH3
(c) CH3CH2Br + HO → CH2 = CH2 +H2O + Br
(d) (CH3)3C— CH2OH +HBr →(CH3)2CBrCH2CH2CH3 + H2O
Ans. (a) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(b) Electrophilic addition reaction
(c) β-elimination reaction
(d) Nucleophilic substitution reaction with rearrangement.

Question 15.
What is the relationship between the members of following pairs of structures? Are they structural or geometrical isomers or resonance contributors?
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 26
Answer:
(a) Compounds having the same molecular formula but with different structures are called structural isomers. The given compounds have the same molecular formula but they differ in the position of the functional group (ketone group.)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 27

In structure I, ketone group is at the C—3 of the parent chain (hexane chain) and in structure II, ketone group is at the C—2 of the parent chain (hexane chain). Hence, the given pair represents structural isomers.
(b) Compounds having the same molecular formula, the same constitution, and the sequence of covalent bonds, but with different relative positions of their atoms in space are called geometrical isomers.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 28

In structures I and II, the relative position of deuterium (D) and hydrogen (H) in space are different. Hence, the given pairs represent geometrical isomers.
(c) The given structures are canonical structures or contributing structures. They are hypothetical and individually do not represent any real molecule. Hence, the given pair represents resonance structures, called resonance isomers.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 29

Question 16.
For the following bond cleavages, curved-arrows are used to show the electron flow and classify each as homolysis or heterolysis. Identify reactive intermediate produced as free radical, carbocation and carboanion.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 30
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 31
Answer:
(a) The bond cleavage using curved-arrows to show the electron flow of the given reaction can be represented as
It is an example of homolytic cleavage as one of the shared pair in a covalent bond goes with the bonded atom. The reaction intermediate formed is a free radical.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 32
(b) The bond cleavage using curved-arrows to show the electron flow of the given reaction can be represented as
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 33
It is an example of heterolytic cleavage as the bond breaks in such a manner that the shared pair of electrons remains with the carbon of propanone. The intermediate formed is carbanion.
(c) The bond cleavage using curved-arrows to show the electron flow of the given reaction can be represented as
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 34
it is an example of heterolytic cleavage as the bond breaks in such a manner that the shared pair of electrons remains with the bromine ion. The reaction intermediate formed is a carbocation.
(d) The bond cleavage using curved-arrows to show the electron flow of the given reaction can be represented as
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 35
It is a heterolytic cleavage as the bond breaks in such a manner that the shared pair of electrons remains with one of the fragments. The intermediate formed is a carbocation.

Question 17.
Explain the terms inductive and electromeric effects. Which electron displacement effect explains the following correct orders of acidity of the carboxylic acids?
(a) Cl3CCOOH > Cl2CHCOOH > ClCH2COOH
(b) CH3CH2OOH > (CH3)2 CHCOOH > (CH3)3C. COOH
Answer:
Inductive effect : The permanent displacement of sigma electrons along a saturated chain, whenever an electron withdrawing or electron donating group is present, is called inductive effect.
Inductive effect could be +I effect or -I effect. When an atom or group attracts electrons towards itself more strongly than hydrogen, it is said to possess -I effect. For example,

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 36

When an atom or group attracts electrons towards itself less strongly than hydrogen, it is said to possess +I effect. For example,
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 37

Electromeric effect : It involves the complete transfer of the shared pair of n electrons to either of the two atoms linked by multiple bonds in the presence of an attacking agent. For example,
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 38

Electromeric effect could be + E effect or – E effect.
+E effect : When the electrons are transferred towards the attacking reagent.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 39

-E effect : When the electrons are transferred away from the attacking reagent.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 40

(a) Cl3CCOOH > Cl2CHCOOH > ClCH2COOH
The order of acidity can be explained on the basis of inductive effect (-I effect). As the number of chlorine atoms increases, the -I effect increases. With the increase in -7 effect, the acid strength also increases accordingly.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 41

(b) CH3CH2COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3C.COOH
The order of acidity can be explained on the basis of inductive effect (+I effect.) As the number of alkyl groups increases, the +I effect also increases. With the increase in +I effect, the acid strength also increases accordingly.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 42

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Question 18.
Give a brief description of the principles of the following techniques taking an example in each case.
(a) Crystallisation (b) Distillation (c) Chromatography
Answer:
(a) Crystallisation : Crystallisation is one of the most commonly used techniques for the purification of solid organic compounds. Principle : It is based on the difference in the solubilities of the compound and the impurities in a given solvent. The impure compound gets dissolved in the solvent in which it is sparingly soluble at room temperature, but appreciably soluble at higher temperature. The solution is concentrated to obtain a nearly saturated solution. On cooling the solution, the pure compound crystallises out and is removed by filtration.
For example, iodoform is crystallised with alcohol, benzoic acid mixed with naphthalene can be purified by hot water.
(b) Distillation : This method is used to separate volatile liquids from non-volatile impurities or a mixture of those liquids that have a sufficient difference in their boiling points.
Principle : It is based on the fact that liquids having different boiling points vapourise at different temperatures. The vapours are then cooled and the liquids so formed are collected separately.
For example, chloroform (b.pt. 334 K) and aniline (b.pt. 457 K) are easily separated by the distillation. On boiling the vapours of lower boiling component are formed first so it is collected first in the receiver.
(c) Chromatography : It is one of the most useful methods for the separation and purification of organic compounds.
Principle : It is based on the difference in movement of individual components of a mixture through the stationary phase under the influence of mobile phase.
For example, a mixture of red and blue ink can be separated by chromatography. A drop of the mixture is placed on the chromatogram. The component of the ink, which is less adsorbed on the chromatogram, moves with the mobile phase while the less adsorbed component remains almost stationary.

Question 19.
Describe the method, which can be used to separate two compounds with different solubilities in a solvent S.
Answer:
Fractional crystallisation is the method used for separating two compounds with different solubilities in a solvent S.
The process of fractional crystallisation is carried out in four steps.
(a) Preparation of the solution: The powdered mixture is taken in a flask and the solvent is added to it slowly and stirred simultaneously. The solvent is added till the solute is just dissolved in the solvent. This saturated solution is then heated.
(b) Filtration of the solution: The hot saturated solution is then filtered through a filter paper in a China dish.
(c) Fractional crystallisation: The solution in the China dish is now allowed to cool. The less soluble compound crystallises first while the more soluble compound remains in the solution. After separating these crystals from the mother liquor, the latter is concentrated once again. The hot solution is allowed to cool and consequently, the crystals of the more soluble compound are obtained.
(d) Isolation and drying: These crystals are separated from the mother liquor by filtration. Finally, dried the crystals.

Question 20.
What is the difference between distillation, distillation under reduced pressure and steam distillation?
Answer:
The difference among distillation, distillation under reduced pressure, and steam distillation are given in the following table :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 43

Question 21.
Discuss the chemistry of Lassaigne’s test.
Answer:
Lassaigne’s test : This test is employed to detect the presence of nitrogen, sulphur and halogens in an organic compound. These elements are present in the covalent form in an organic compound. These are converted into the ionic form by fusing the compound with sodium metal.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 44

The cyanide, sulphide, and halide of sodium formed are extracted from the fused mass by boiling it in distilled water. The extract so obtained is called Lassaigne’s extract. This Lassaigne’s extract is then tested for the presence of nitrogen, sulphur and halogens.

(a) Test for nitrogen
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 45

Chemistry of the test: In the Lassaignes’s test for nitrogen in an organic compound, the sodium fusion extract is boiled with iron (II) sulphate and then acidified with sulphuric acid. In the process, sodium cyanide first reacts with iron (II) sulphate and forms sodium hexacyanoferrate(II). Then, on heating with sulphuric acid, some iron (II) gets oxidised to form iron (III) hexacyanoferrate(II) which is Prussian blue in colour. The chemical equations involved in the reaction can be represented as
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 46

(b) Test for sulphur
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 47
Chemistry of the test: In the Lassaigne’s test for sulphur in an organic compound, the sodium fusion extract is acidified with acetic acid and then lead acetate is added to it. The precipitation of lead sulphide, which is black in colour, indicates the presence of sulphur in the compound.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 48

(ii) Lassaigne’s extract + Sodium nitroprusside → Violet colour
Chemistry of the test: The sodium fusion extract is treated with sodium nitroprusside. Appearance of violet colour also indicates the presence of sulphur in the compound.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 49

If in an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, then instead of NaCN, formation of NaSCN takes place.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 50

This NaSCN (sodium thiocyanate) gives a blood red colour. Prussian colour is not formed due to the absence of free cyanide ions.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 51

(c) Test for halogens
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 52

Chemistry of the test: In the Lassaigne’s test for halogens in an organic compound, the sodium fusion extract is acidified with nitric acid and then treated with silver nitrate.
x + Ag+ → AgX (X = Cl, Br, I)
If nitrogen and sulphur both are present in the organic compound, then the Lassaigne’s extract is boiled to expel nitrogen and sulphur, which would otherwise interfere in the test for halogens.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Question 22.
Differentiate between the principle of estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound by (i) Dumas method and (ii) Kjeldahl’s method.
Answer:
(i) In Dumas method, when a known mass of the nitrogen containing organic compound is heated with excess of CuO in an atmosphere of CO2, nitrogen of the organic compound is converted into N2 gas. The volume of N2 thus obtained is converted into STP and the percentage of nitrogen is determined.
%N = \(\frac{28}{22400} \times \frac{\text { Vol. of } \mathrm{N}_{2} \text { at STP }}{\text { Mass of the substance taken }}\) x 100

(ii) In Kjeldahl’s method, a known mass of the nitrogen containing
organic substance is digested (heated) with conc. H2SO4 and CuSO4 (in little amount) in Kjeldahl’s flask. Nitrogen present in the organic compound is quantitatively converted into (NH4 )2SO4. (NH4 )2SO4 thus obtained is boiled with excess of NaOH solution to liberate NH3 gas which is absorbed in a known excess of a standard solution of H2SO4 or HCl.
The volume of acid left after absorption of NH3 is estimated by titration against a standard alkali solution. From the volume of the acid used, the percentage of nitrogen is determined by applying the equation,

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 53

Question 23.
Discuss the principle of estimation of halogens, sulphur and phosphorus present in an organic compound.
Answer:
Estimation of halogens : Halogens are estimated by the Carius method. In this method, a known quantity of organic compound is heated with fuming nitric acid in the presence of silver nitrate, contained in a hard glass tube called the Carius tube, taken in a furnace. Carbon and hydrogen that are present in the compound are oxidized to form CO2 and H2O respectively and the halogen present in the compound is converted into AgX. This AgX is then filtered, washed, dried, and weighed.
Let the mass of organic compound taken = m g
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 54

Estimation of sulphur : In this method, a known quantity of organic compound is heated with either fuming nitric acid or sodium peroxide in a hard glass tube called the Carius tube. Sulphur present in the compound, is oxidized to form sulphuric acid. On addition of excess of barium chloride to it, the precipitation of barium sulphate takes place. This precipitate is then filtered, washed, dried, and weighed.
Let the mass of organic compound taken -mg
Mass of BaSO4 formed = m1 g
% of sulphur = \(\frac{32 \times m_{1} \times 100}{233 \times m}\)

Estimation of phosphorus : In this method, a known quantity of organic compound is heated with fuming nitric acid. Phosphorus, present in the compound, is oxidized to form phosphoric acid. By adding ammonia and ammonium molybdate to the solution, phosphorus can be precipitated as ammonium phosphomolybdate.

Phosphorus can also be estimated by precipitated it as MgNH4P04 by adding magnesia mixture, which on ignition yields Mg2P207.
Let the mass of organic compound = m g
Mass of ammonium phosphomolybdate = m1 g
Molar mass of ammonium phosphomolybdate = 1877 g
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 55

Question 24.
Explain the principle of paper chromatography.
Answer:
In paper chromatography, chromatography paper is used. This paper contains water trapped in it, which acts as the stationary phase. On the base of this chromatography paper, the solution of the mixture is spotted. The paper strip is then suspended in a suitable solvent, which acts the mobile phase. This solvent rises up the chromatography paper by capillary action and in this procedure it flows over the spot. The components are selectively retained on the paper (according to their differing partition in these two phases). The spots of different components travel with the mobile phase to different heights. The paper so obtained (shown in the given figure) is known as a chromatogram.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 5

Question 25.
Why is nitric acid added to sodium extract before adding silver nitrate for testing halogens?
Answer:
While testing the Lassaigne’s extract for the presence of halogens, it is first boiled with dilute nitric acid. This is done to decompose NaCN to HCN and NA2S to H2S and to expel these gases. That is, if any nitrogen and sulphur are present in the form of NaCN and Na2S they are removed. The chemical equations involved in the reaction are represented as
NaCN + HNO3 > NaNO3 + HCN
Na2S + 2HNO3 > 2NaNO3 + H2S

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Question 26.
Explain the reason for the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium for testing nitrogen, sulphur and halogens.
Answer:
Nitrogen, sulphur, and halogens are covalently bonded in organic compounds. For their detection, they have to be first converted to ionic form. This is done by fusing the organic compound with sodium metal. This is called Lassaigne’s test. The chemical equations involved in the test are
Na + C + N → NaCN
Na + S + C + N → NaSCN
2Na + S → Na2S
Na + X → NaX (X = Cl, Br, I)
Carbon, nitrogen, sulphur, and halogen come from organic compounds.

Question 27.
Name a suitable technique of separation of the components from a mixture of calcium sulphate and camphor.
Answer:
Calcium sulphate (CaSO4) which is an inorganic compound and does not sublime can be separated from camphor which is an organic compound and sublimes by the simple technique of sublimation. This technique involves the direct conversion of a solid into the gaseous state on heating without passing through the intervening liquid state and vice-versa on cooling. Camphor sublimes and gets-deposited on the walls of the cooler portion of the funnel and CaSO4 remains as such. The two components can thus be separated.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 57

Question 28.
Explain, why an organic liquid vaporises at a temperature below its boiling point in its steam distillation?
Answer:
In steam distillation, the organic liquid starts to boil when the sum of vapour pressure due to the organic liquid (p1) and the vapour pressure due to water (p2) becomes equal to atmospheric pressure (p), that is P = P1 + P2– Since P1 < p2, organic liquid will vapourise at a lower temperature than its boiling point.

Question 29.
Will CCl4 give white precipitate of AgCl on heating it with silver nitrate? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
CCl4 will not give the white precipitate of AgCl on heating it with silver nitrate. This is because the chlorine atoms are covalently bonded to carbon in CCl4. To obtain the precipitate, it should be present in ionic form and for this, it is necessary to prepare the Lassaigne’s extract of CCl4.

Question 30.
Why does solution of potassium hydroxide is used to absorb carbon dioxide evolved during the estimation of carbon present in an organic compound?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is acidic in nature and potassium hydroxide is a strong base. Hence, carbon dioxide reacts with potassium hydroxide to form potassium carbonate and water as
2KOH + CO2 → K2CO3 + H2O
Thus, the mass of the U-tube containing KOH increases. This increase in the mass of U-tube gives the mass of CO2 produced. From its mass, the percentage of carbon in the organic compound is calculated as
%C = \(\frac{12}{44} \times \frac{\text { Weight of } \mathrm{CO}_{2} \text { formed }}{\text { Weight of substance taken }}\) x 100

Question 31.
Why is it necessary to use acetic acid and not sulphuric acid for acidification of sodium extract for testing sulphur by lead acetate test?
Answer:
For testing of sulphur present in the organic compound the Lassaigne’s extract is acidified with acetic acid (CH3COOH) and not sulphuric acid because lead acetate is soluble and does not interfere with the test. If sulphuric acid (H2SO4) is used, lead acetate will react with H2SO4 itself to form white ppt. of PbSO4 as follows :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 58
White ppt. of PbSO4 so formed will interfere with this test of sulphur.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 59

Question 32.
An organic compound contains 69% carbon and 48% hydrogen, the remainder being oxygen. Calculate the masses of carbon dioxide and water produced when 0.20 g of this substance is subjected to complete combustion.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 60

Question 33.
A sample of 0.50 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4. The residual acid required 60 mL of 0.5 M solution of NaOH for neutralisation. Find the percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound.
Ans. Volume of the acid taken = 50 mL of 0.5 M H2SO4
= 25 mL of 1.0 M H2SO4
Volume of alkali used for neutralization of excess acid = 60 mL of 0.5 M NaOH = 30 mL of 1.0 M NaOH
H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
1 mole of H2SO4 = 2 moles of NaOH
Hence, 30 mL of 1.0 M NaOH = 15 mL of 1.0 M H2SO4
∴ Volume of acid used by ammonia = 25 – 15 = 10 mL
%of nitrogen = \(\frac{1.4 \times \mathrm{N}_{1} \times \text { Volume of acid used }}{\mathrm{W}}\)
= \(\frac{1.4 \times 2 \times 10}{0.5}\) (N1 = normality of acid and W = mass of organic compound)
= 56

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Question 34.
0.3780 g of an organic chloro compound gave 0.5740 g of silver chloride in Carius estimation. Calculate the percentage of chlorine present in the compound.
Answer:
Given that,
Mass of organic compound = 0.3780 g
Mass of AgCl formed = 0.5740 g
1 mol of AgCl contains 1 mol of Cl
Thus, mass of chlorine in 0.5740 g of AgCl = \(\frac{35.5 \times 0.5740}{143.5}\) = 0.142g
∴ Percentage of chlorine = \(\frac{0.142}{0.3780}\) x 100 = 37.57%
Hence, the percentage of chlorine present in the given organic chloro compound is 37.57%.

Question 35.
In the estimation of sulphur by Carius method, 0.468 g of an organic sulphur compound afforded 0.668 g of barium sulphate. Find out the percentage of sulphur in the given compound.
Answer:
The mass of organic compound = 0.468 g
Mass of barium sulphate formed = 0.668 g
Percentage of sulphur = \(\frac{32}{233} \times \frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{BaSO}_{4} \text { formed }}{\text { Mass of substance taken }}\) x 100
= \(\frac{32}{233} \times \frac{0.668}{0.468}\) x 100 = 19.59%
Hence, the percentage of sulphur in the given compound is 19.59%.

Question 36.
In the organic compound,
CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2 – C = CH, the pair of hybridised orbitals involved in the formation of C2 – C3 bond is (a) sp – sp2 (b) sp – sp3 (c) sp2 – sp3 (d) sp3 – sp3
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 61
In the given organic compound, the carbon atoms numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 are sp2, sp2, sp3, sp3, sp, and sp hybridised respectively. Thus, the pair of hybridised orbitals involved in the formation of C2 – C3 bond is sp2 – sp2.

Question 37.
In the Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen in an organic compound, the Prussian blue colour is obtained due to the formation of:
(a) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
(b)Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(c) Fe2[FeCN6]
(d) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4
Answer:
(b) The Prussian blue colour is due to the formation of ferric ferro cyanide, Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3.

Question 38.
Which of the following carbocations is most stable?
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 62
Answer:
(b) The order of stability of carbocation is 3° > 2° > 1°. 3° carbocation,
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 63

Question 39.
The best and latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of organic compounds is:
(a) Crystallisation
(b) Distillation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Chromatography
Answer:
(d) Chromatography is the best and latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of organic compounds.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Question 40.
The reaction:
CH3CH2I+KOH(aq) > CH3CH2OH +KI is classified as :
(a) electrophilic substitution
(b) nucleophilic substitution
(c) elimination
(d) addition
Answer:
(b) This is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction. The hydroxyl group of KOH (OH) with a lone pair of itself acts as a nucleophile and substitutes iodide ion in CH3CH2I to form ethanol.