PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell: The Unit of Life

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 8 Cell: The Unit of Life Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 8 Cell: The Unit of Life

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Cell: The Unit of Life Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.
(b) Schleiden and Schwann formulated the cell theory.
(c) Virchow explained that cells are formed from pre-existing cells
(d) A unicellular organism carries out its life activities within a single cell.
Answer:
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.

Question 2.
New cells generate from
(a) bacterial fermentation
(b) regeneration of old cells
(c) pre-existing cells
(d) abiotic materials
Answer:
(c) New cells generate from pre-existing cells.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 3.
Match the following:

Column I Column II
(a) Cristae (i) Flat membranous sacs in stroma
(b) Cisternae (ii) Infoldings in mitochondria
(c) Thylakoids (iii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Cristae (ii) Infoldings in mitochondria
(b) Cisternae (iii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(c) Thylakoids (i) Flat membranous sacs in stroma

Question 4.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Cells of all living organisms have a nucleus
(b) Both animal and plant cells have a well defined cell wall
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane bound organelles
(d) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials
Answer:
(a) Cells of all living organisms have a nucleus.

Question 5.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention the functions that it performs.
Answer:
Mesosome is a special membrane structure which is formed by the extension of the plasma membrane into the cell in a prokaryotic cell. It helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells. It also helps in respiration, secretion possesses to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane and enzymatic content.

Question 6.
How do neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecules also move across it in the same way? If not, then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
Neutral solutes may move across the membrane by the process of simple diffusion along the concentration gradient. The polar molecules cannot pass through tha non-polar lipid bilayer, they require a carrier protein to facilitate their transport across the membrane. A few ions or molecules are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient i. e., from lower to the higher concentration. Such a transport is an energy dependent process in which ATP is utilised and is called active transport, e.g., Na+/K+ pump.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 7.
Name two cell organelles that are double membrane bound. What are the characteristics of these two organelles? State their functions and draw labelled diagrams of both.
Answer:
Chloroplasts and mitochondria are double membrane bound organelles.
Characteristics of Mitochondria
(i) The mitochondria are sausage-shaped or cylindrical having a diameter of 0.2-1.0 pm and average 0.5 pm and length 1.0-4.1 μm.

(ii) Each mitochondrion is a double membrane bound structure.

(iii) The inner compartment is called the matrix. The outer membrane of mitochondria forms the continuous limiting boundary of the organelle.

(iv) The inner membrane forms a number of infoldings called the cristae (single crista) towards the matrix. The cristae increase the surface area.

(v) The two membranes have their own specific enzymes associated with the mitochondrial function. The matrix of mitochondria also possess single circular DNA molecule, a few RNA molecules, ribosomes (70 s) and the components required for the synthesis of proteins.

Functions of Mitochondira: Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration. They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP hence they are known as power house of the cell.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell The Unit of Life 1
Characteristics of Chloroplasts

  • The chloroplasts are also double membrane bound organelles.
  • The space limited by the inner membrane of the chloroplast is called the stroma.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell The Unit of Life 2

  • A number of organised flattened membranous sacs called the thylakoid are present in the stroma.
  • Thylakoids are arranged in stacks-like the piles of coins called grana.
  • In addition there are flat membranous tubules called the stroma lamellae connecting the thylakoids of the different grana.
  • The stroma of the thylakoids enclose a space called a lumen.
  • The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins.
  • Chlorophyll pigments are present in the thylakoids.
  • The ribosomes of the chloroplants are smaller (70S) than the cytoplasmic ribosomes (80S).

Functions of chloroplasts: The chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments which are responsible for trapping light energy essential for photosynthesis.

Question 8.
What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells?
Answer:
Characteristics of Prokaryotic Cells

  • A prokaryotic cell, i.e., of bacteria is surrounded by a cell membrane. The cell wall in turn is surrounded by a slimy layer.
  • Absence of well organised chloroplast, mitochondria and nucleus.
  • The true nucleus with nuclear membrane, nucleolus is absent. It is known as nucleoid. The DNA of a prokaryotic cell is circular and not associated with basic proteins.
  • The cytoplasm is filled with dense granules. Most of these granules are ribosomes.
  • In chloroplast the scattered thylakoids are present. They are not organised in the form of stacks.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 9.
Multicellular organisms have division of labour. Explain.
Answer:
The body of a multicellular organism has cell as a basic structural unit. The cells organised to form tissues such as blood, bone, etc. The tissues organised to form organs such as heart, kidney, etc. The organs then organised to form organ systems such as digestive system, reproductive system and respiratory system, etc. The various organ systems of organism get arranged to form a complete individual.

Question 10.
Cell is the basic unit of life. Discuss in brief.
Answer:
All organisms begin their life in a single cell. Certain organisms complete their life cycle as a single cell. They are called unicellular or acellular organisms, e.g., Amoeba, Chlamydomonas, bacteria and yeast. In other organisms, the, single cell undergoes divisions to form multicellular body. Body of human being, is made up of trillion of cells. All the cells of an organism carry the same genetic material, develop from same pre-existing cells and possess several organelles to perform various life activities. The cells are therefore, basic unit of life and structural unit of an organism.

Question 11.
What are nuclear pores? State their function.
Answer:
Nuclear pores are. small apertures present in the nuclear membrane.
Functions of Nuclear Pores: Nuclear pores are highly selective in their permeation. They allow outward passage of newly formed ribosome units but prevent the entry of active ribosomes. Proteins synthesised in the cytoplasm enter the nuclear through nuclear pores but ions like K+ Na+ or Cl may not be able to gain entrance.

Question 12.
Both lysosomes and vacuoles are endomembrane structures, yet they differ in terms of their functions. Comment.
Answer:
Both lysosomes and vacuoles are covered by a single membrane. Both of them perform different types of functions. Lysosomes contain hydrolysing enzymes and can hydrolyse all types of organic substances, – except cellulose. They perform phagocytic function. Therefore, they are known as suicidal bags.

The vacuoles are non-cytoplasmic sacs which, are also covered by a membrane. The sap vacuoles store sap or water with dissolved organic and inorganic substances. They maintain osmotic pressure or turgidity. Some freshwater invertebrates such as Amoeba, Paramecium occur contractile vacuoles, which perform osmoregulation and excretion. There is another type of vacuoles such as food vacuole which store food and gas vacuoles which store metabolic gases and take part in buoyancy regulation.

Thus, both lysosomes and vacuoles differ from each other in the type of functions they perform.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 13.
Describe the structure of the following with the help of labelled diagrams:
(i) Nucleus
(ii) Centrosome
Answer:
(i) Nucleus: It is a double membrane bounded protoplasmic body that carries hereditary information. Chemically it contains DNA, basic proteins, non-basic proteins, RNA, lipids and minerals, etc.
(a) Nuclear envelope: It is made up of two nuclear membranes separated by 10-70 nm perinuclear space. The outer membrane is rough due to the presence of ribosomes. Nuclear envelope has many pores with diameter
200-800 Å.

(b) Nucleoplasm or nuclear matrix: It is a colloidal complex that fills the nucleus. Nucleoplasm contains raw material for synthesis of DNA and RNA

(c) Chromatin: It is a fibrous hereditary material formed by DNA-histone complex. Some non-histone proteins and also RNA.- A single human cell has about 2 metre long thread of DNA distributed among its 46 chromosomes.

(d) Nucleolus: It was originally discovered by Fontana (1781) and given the present name by Bowman (1840). It is naked roughly rounded darkly stained structure that ‘ is attached to chromatin at specific spot called Nucleolar Organiser Region (NOR). Nucleolus is the site for eLaboration of rRNA and synthesis of ribosomes. It is therefore, known as ribosomal factory.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell The Unit of Life 3

Centrosome: It is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structure called centrioles. They are surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar materials. Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other in which
each his an organisation like the cartwheel.

They are made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein the central part of the proximal region of centriole is called hub, which is connected with tubules of the peripheral triplet by radial spokes made of protein. The centriole form the basal bodies of cilia or flagella and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal life.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell The Unit of Life 4

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell: The Unit of Life

Question 14.
What is a centromere? How does the position of the centromere form the basis of classification of chromosomes? Support your answer with a diagram showing the position of centromere on different types of chromosomes.
Answer:
Centromere is a narrow non-stainable area, which join two similar threads or chromatids of a late prophase or metaphase chromosome. The two parts of the chromosome on either side of the centromere are known as arm. They may be isobranchial (equal) or heterobranchial (unequal in length). Depending upon the position of the centromere, the chromosomes are classified as follows:

  • Acrocentric Chromosome: The centromere is sub-terminal, at anaphasic stage appear J-shaped.
  • Sub-metacentric Chromosome: The centromere is sub-median and the anaphasic chromosome appear L-shaped.
  • Metacentric Chromosome: The centromere is in the middle and the chromosome appears V-shaped in anaphase.
  • Telocentric Chromosome: Centromere is terminal, anaphasic stage is I-shaped.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Cell The Unit of Life 5
Depending upon the number of centromeres a chromosome possess, it may be monocentric, dicentric (two centromeres), polycentric (many centromeres), acentric chromosome (having no centromere).

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Structural Organisation in Animals Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer in one word or one line:
(i) Give the common name of Periplanata americana.
(ii) How many spermathecae are found in earthworm?
(iii) What is the position of ovaries in cockroach?
(iv) How many segments are present in the abdomen of cockroach?
(v) Where do you find Malpighian tubules?
Answer:
(i) American cockroach
(ii) 4 pairs
(iii) Under the 4th, 6th abdominal terga
(iv) 10 segments in adults
(v) At the junction of midgut and hindgut in cockroach.

Question 2.
Answer the following:
(a) What is the function of nephridia?
(b) How many types of nephridia are found in earthworm based on their location?
Answer:
(a) The Function of Nephridia: The nephridia regulate the volume and composition of the body fluids. The nephridium starts out as a funnel that collects excess fluid from coelomic chamber. The funnel connects with a tubular parts of the nephridium, which delivers the wastes through a pore to the surface in the body wall in the digestive tube.

(b) Based on their location, there are following three types of nephridia in earthworm:

  • Septal nephridia.
  • Pharyngeal nephridia.
  • Integumentary nephridia.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals

Question 3.
Draw a labelled diagram of the reproductive organs of an earthworm.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals 1

Question 4.
Draw a labelled diagram of alimentary canal of a cockroach.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals 2

Question 5.
Distinguish between the following:
(a) Prostomium and peristomium.
(b) Septal nephridium and pharyngeal nephridium.
Answer:
(a) Prostomium and Peristomium: The first segment of earthworm with a ventral mouth is known as peristomium. Prostomium is a dorsal, lobe which is present on the ventral mouth.

(b) Septal Nephridia and Pharyngeal Nephridia: Septal nephridia are present on both the sides of intersegmental septa of segment 15 to the ‘ last that open into intestine.
The pharyngeal nephridia are closed (no nephrostome) nephridia present as three paired groups (of about 100) in 4th, 5th and 6th segments.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals

Question 6.
What are the cellular components of blood?
Answer:
The cellular components of blood are red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.

Question 7.
What are the following and where do you find them in animal body (a) Chondrocytes (b) Axons (c) Ciliated epithelium.
Answer:
(a) Chondrocytes: These are the matrix secreting cells of the cartilage. These are found in the cartilage of connecting tissue.

(b) Axon: It is a long fibre, the distal end of which is branched. Each branch terminates as a bulb like structure called synaptic knob. The axon transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body.

(c) Ciliated Epithelium: If the columnar or cuboidal cells of columnar and cuboidal epithelium bear cilia on their free surface they are called ciliated epithelium.

Question 8.
Describe various types of epithelial tissues with the help of labelled diagrams.
Answer:
Epithelial Tissues: Epithelial tissues provide covering to the inner and outer lining of various organs. There are following two types of epithelial tissues :
1. Simple epithelium: Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells. It functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.

2. Compound epithelium: The compound epithelium consists of two or more cell layers. It has protective function as it does in our skin. It covers the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic ducts.
On the basis of structural modifications of the cells, simple epithelium is further divided into three types. These are :
(a) Squamous epithelium: The squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs and are involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary.

(b) Cuboidal epithelium: The cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of cube-like cells. This is commonly found in the ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys. Its main functions are secretion and absorption.

(c) Columnar epithelium: The columnar epithelium is composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells. They are found in the lining of stomach and intestine and help in absorption and secretion.
(i) When the columnar or cuboidal cells bear cilia on their free surface they are called ciliated epithelium. Their function is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium organs like bronchioles and fallopian tubules.
(ii) Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialized for secretion are called glandular epithelium. They are unicellular and multicellular.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals 3
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals 4

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals

Question 9.
Distinguish between:
(a) Simple epithelium and compound epithelium
(b) Cardiac muscle and striated muscle
(c) Dense regular and dense irregular connective tissue
(d) Adipose tissue and blood tissue
(e) Simple gland and compound gland
Answer:
(a) Differences between Simple and Compound Epithelium

Simple Epithelium Compound Epithelium
1. It is composed of a single layer of It consists of two or more cell layers.
2. It functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes. It is protective in function like our skin.

(b) Differences between Cardiac and Striated Muscle

Cardiac Muscle Striated Muscle
1. It occurs only in the wall of heart. It occurs in the body wall, limb, tongue, pharynx, etc.
2. They are short and cylindrical with truncate ends. They are long and cylindrical with blunt ends.
3. They have nerve supply from brain and autonomous nerve system They have nerve supply from central nervous system.

(c) Differences between Dense Regular and Dense Irregular Connective Tissues

Dense Regular Connective Tissue Dense Irregular Connective Tissue
Collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundle of fibres.
Examble: Tendons
Fibroblasts and many fibre are present that are oriented differently.
Examble: Cartilage, bones and blood.

(d) Differences between Adipose Tissue and Blood Tissue

Adipose Tissue Blood Tissue
1. It is a soft gel like connective tissue. It is a fluid connective tissue.
2. It is partitioned into lobules by septa. There are no partitions.
3. It is a storage tissue. It is a transport tissue.
4. Matrix is secreted by the cells. Matrix is not secreted by the cells.
5. It contain fibres. Fibres are not conspicuous.
6. Adipocytes contain fat droplets. No cell of the tissue contains fat droplets.

(e) Differences between Simple and Compound Gland

Simple Gland Compound Gland
1. These glands have single unbranched duct. These glands have branched system of ducts.
2. These may be simple tubular glands, simple coiled tubular glands and simple alveolar glands. These may be compound tubular glands, compound alveolar glands

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals

Question 10.
Mark the odd one in each series:
(a) Areolar tissue, blood, neuron, tendon
(b) RBC, WBC, platelets, cartilage
(c) Exocrine, endocrine, salivary gland; ligament
(d) Maxilla, mandible, labrum, antennae
(e) Protonema, mesothorax, metathorax, coxa
Answer:
(a) Neuron,
(b) Cartilage,
(c) Ligament,
(d) Antennae,
(e) Protonema.

Question 11.
Match the terms in column I with those in column II.

Column I Column II
A. Compound epithelium 1. Alimentary canal
B. Compound eye 2. Cockroach
C. Septal nephridia 3. Skin
D. Open circulatory system 4. Mosaic vision
E. Typhlosole 5. Earthworm
F. Osteocytes 6. Phallomere
G. Genitalia 7. Bone

Answer:

Column I Column II
A. Compound epithelium 3. Skin
B. Compound eye 4. Mosaic vision
C. Septal nephridia 5. Earthworm
D. Open circulatory system 2. Cockroach
E. Typhlosole 1. Alimentary canal
F. Osteocytes 7. Bone
G. Genitalia 6. Phallomere

Question 12.
Mention briefly about the circulatory system of earthworm.
Answer:
Pheretima exhibits a closed type of blood vascular system, consisting of blood vessels, capillaries and heart. Due to closed circulatory system, blood is confined to the heart and blood vessels. Contractions keep blood circulating in one direction. Smaller blood vessels supply the gut, nerve cord, and the body wall. Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th segments. They produce blood cells and haemoglobin which is dissolved in blood plasma. Blood cells are phagocytic in nature. Earthworms lack specialised breathing devices. Respiratory exchange occurs through moist body surface into their blood stream.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals

Question 13.
Draw a neat diagram of digestive system of frog.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals 5

Question 14.
Mention the function of the following:
(a) Ureters in frog
(b) Malpighian tubules
(c) Body wall in earthworm
Answer:
(a) Functions of Ureters in Frog: In male frog, two ureters emerge from the kidneys. The ureters act as urinogenital duct which opens into the cloaca. Thus, the ureters carry both sperms and excretory wastes to the cloaca. In female frog, the ureters and oviduct open separately in the cloaca. The ureters in frog, thus acts as carrier of sperms and ova.

(b) Functions of Malpighian Tubules of Cockroach: Excretion is carried out by Malpighian tubules. Each tubule is lined by glandular cells. They absorb excretory waste products and converts them into uric acid which is excreted out through the hindgut.

(c) Functions of Body Wall of Earthworm: The body wall of earthworm has five layers – cuticle, epidermis, circular muscle layer, longitudinal muscle layer, peritoneum.

  • Cuticle is a non-cellular elastic layer.
  • The columnar cells of body wall provide support and therefore, are also known as supporting cells.
  • Epidermis also has gland cells, receptor cells and basal cells.
  • The glandular cell secrete mucus and thus, keep the skin moist, this
    help in cutaneous respiration.
  • The last layer of the body wall is the outer membrane of the coelom called coelomic epithelium. The various muscle layers of the body wall provide strength and rigidity.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Digestion and Absorption Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer among the following:
(i) Gastric juice contains
(a) pepsin, lipase and rennin
(b) trypsin, lipase and rennin
(c) trypsin, pepsin and lipase
(d) trypsin, pepsin and rennin

(ii) Succus entericus is the name given to
(a) a junction between ileum and large intestine
(b) intestinal juice
(c) swelling in the gut
(d) appendix
Answer:
(i) (a) Pepsin, lipase, and rennin
(ii) (b) Intestinal juice.

Question 2.
Match column I with column II.

Column I Column II
A. Bilirubin and biliverdin 1. Parotid
B. Hydrolysis of starch 2. Bile
C. Digestion of fat 3. Lipases
D. Salivary gland 4. Amylases

Answer:

Column I Column II
A. Bilirubin and biliverdin 2. Bile
B. Hydrolysis of starch 4. Amylases
C. Digestion of fat 3. Lipases
D. Salivary gland 1. Parotid

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Question 3.
Answer briefly:
(a) Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?
(b) How does pepsinogen change into its active form?
(c) What are the basic layers of the wall of alimentary canal?
(d) How does bile help in the digestion of fats?
Answer:
(a) The mucosa layer of alimentary canal forms small finger-like foldings called villi in the small intestine. The cells lining the villi produce numerous microscopic projections called microvilli giving a brush border appearance. These modifications increase the surface area enormously.
Villi are supplied with the network of capillaries and large lymph vessel called the lacteal mucosal.

(b) The inactive form of enzyme pepsinogen is activated by Rd.

(c) The wall of alimentary canal from esophagus to rectum possesses four layers namely serosa, muscularis, sub-mucosa and mucosa. Serosa is the outermost layer, followed by muscularis, sub-mucosa and mucosa.

(d) Bile salts help in emulsification of lipids and activate the lipases.

Question 4.
State the role of pancreatic juice in digestion of proteins.
Answer:
The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases, amylases, lipases, and nucleases. Trypsinogen is aëtivated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice. Proteins, proteases and peptones (partially hydrolyzed proteins) in the chyme reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice as given below:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 1

Question 5.
Describe the process of digestion of protein in stomach.
Answer:
The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric juice of the stomach by the churning movements of its muscular wall and is called the chyme. The pepsinogen, on exposure to hydrochloric acid gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin, the proteolytic enzyme of the stomach. Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 2
HCl provides the acidic pH (pH 1.8) optimal for pepsins. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins.

Question 6.
Give the dental formula of human beings.
Answer:
The dental formula of human beings is
\(\frac{2123}{2123} \times 2\).

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Question 7.
Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes, yet it is important for digestion. Why?
Answer:
Bile is yellowish-green alkaline solution with 89-98% water, having no digestive enzymes. The bile released into the duodenum contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin), bile salts, cholesterol, and phospholipids but no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats, i.e., breaking down of the fats into very small micelles. Bile also activates lipases.

Question 8.
Describe the digestive role of chymotrypsin. Which two other digestive enzymes of the same category are secreted by its source gland?
Answer:
Chymotrypsin is the active form of chymotrypsinogen. It is activated by trypsin. It curdles milk. Nucleases like DNA ase and RNAase and pancreatic lipase are other enzymes secreted by the pancreas.

Question 9.
How are polysaccharides and disaccharides digested?
Answer:
The chemical process of digestion of carbohydrates is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase. About 30 percent of starch is hydrolyzed here by this enzyme (optimum pH 6.8) into a disaccharide-maltose. Further, carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolyzed by pancreatic amylase into disaccharides.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 3

Question 10.
What would happen if HCl were not secreted in the stomach?
Answer:
The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice play an important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by the highly concentrated hydrochloric acid.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 4
HCl provides the acidic pH (pH 1.8) optimal for pepsins. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins. Small amount of lipases are also secreted by gastric glands.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Question 11.
How does butter in your food get digested and absorbed in the body?
Answer:
Bile helps in emulsification of fats, i. e., breaking down of the fats into very small micelles. Bile also activates lipases.

Question 12.
Discuss the main steps in the digestion of proteins as the food passes through different parts of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
Digestion of Protein in Stomach: The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to HCl, gets converted into active enzyme pepsin.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 5
Pepsin always outs in acidic medium (pH 1.8). In infants, main proteins are digested by rennin.

Digestion of Protein in Small Intestine: Pancreatic juice contains proenzyme trypsinogen. It is activated by enterokinase, secreted by intestinal mucosa, into active trypsin. Trypsin acts in alkaline medium.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 6
The dipeptides are changed into amino acids by the enzyme succus enterics (intestinal juice).
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 7

Question 13.
Explain the term ‘the codont’ and ‘diphyodont’.
Answer:
Each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone. This type of attachment is called thecodont. The majority of mammals including human beings forms two sets of teeth during their life, a set of temporary milk or deciduous teeth replaced by a set of permanent or adult teeth. This type of dentition is called diphyodont.

Question 14.
Name different types of teeth and their number in an adult human.
Answer:
An adult human has 32 permanent teeth, which are of four different types (heterodont dentition), i.e., incisors (I), canine (C), premolars (Pm), and molars (M), and their number are 4, 2, 4, 6 respectively.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Question 15.
What are the functions of liver?
Answer:
Liver is the largest gland in human body which is mainly responsible for the digestion of food.
Role of liver in digestion of food :

  • Its hepatic cells secrete bile juice which passes through the hepatic duct into the gall bladder.
  • It has its major role in digestion and processing of proteins.
  • Bile secreted by it is mainly responsible for digestion of fats for easy absorption in the body.
  • It also responsible for the removal of toxins from blood.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Anatomy of Flowering Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State the location and function of different types of meristems.
Answer:
A meristematic tissue represents a group of cells that have retained the power of division throughout the life of an individual. The meristematic tissues are of three types, i.e., apical, intercalary and lateral meristem.

  • Apical Meristem: These meristems are present at the apices of shoot and roots of the plants. Apical meristems are responsible for the increase in length of all the primary tissues.
  • Intercalary Meristem: It is the meristem that occurs between the mature tissues. They occur in grasses and regenerate parts removed by the grazing herbivores. It contributes to the formation of the primary plant body.
  • Lateral Meristem: It occurs in the mature regions of roots arid shoots of many plants, particularly that produce woody axis. These meristems are responsible for producing the secondary tissues.

Question 2.
Cork cambium forms tissues that form the cork. Do you agree with this statement? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, cork cambium forms tissues that form cork. As the stem continues to increase in girth another meristematic tissue called cork cambium or phellogen develops in cortex region of stem. The phellogen cuts off cells on both sides. The outer cells differentiate into cork or phellem. The inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm. Cork is impervious to water due to suberin and provides protection to underlying tissues.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 3.
Explain the process of secondary growth in the stems of woody angiosperms with the help of schematic diagrams. What is its significance?
Answer:
Secondary growth in stems of woody angiosperms occur by two types of cambia, i.e., vascular cambium and cork cambium.
(i) Vascular Cambium: Certain cells of medullary rays become meristematic to form interfascicular cambium. The fascicular cambium and the interfascicular cambium join to form a complete ring called cambial ring. The cells of the cambial ring undergo mitotic divisions and produce secondary phloem on its outer side and secondary xylem on its inner side.

At places, vascular cambium possesses ray initials. They form vascular rays, phloem rays in secondary phloem and wood rays in secondary xylem.

As new secondary phloem becomes functional, the previous older phloem gets crushed. Secondary xylem or wood persists. As a result wood grows

with age in the form of annual rings. In each annual ring, there is wide or broader spring or early wood or spring wood and narrow autumn or late wood.

In old stems, the central part of wood becomes non-functional and dark coloured due to tyloses and deposit of resins, gums, tannins. It is called r duramen or heartwood. The outer, functional wood is called sapwood.

(ii) Cork Cambium: As the stem continues to increase in girth due to the activity of vascular cambium the outer cortical and epidermal layers get broken and need to be replaced to provide new protective cell layers. In this way, cork cambium or phellogen develops in the cortex region. Phellogen cuts of cells on both sides.

The outer cells differentiate into cork or phellem while, the inner cells ; differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm. Due to the activity of cork cambium, pressure builds up on remaining layers peripheral to
phellogen and ultimately these layers die and slough off. At places, aerating pores called lenticels develop, which have loosely arranged , complementary cells.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 1
Significance of Secondary Growth

  • It replaces old non-functional tissues.
  • It provides fire proof, insect proof and insulating cover around the older plant parts.
  • Commercial cork is a product of secondary growth.
  • Wood is the product of secondary growth.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 4.
Draw illustrations to bring out the anatomical difference between:
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root
(b) Monocot stem and Dicot stem
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 2
(a) Anatomical Differences between Monocot Root and Dicot Root
(i) Anatomy of Monocot Root
(a) The structure of epidermis, cortex, endodermis and pericycle of a monocot root resembles exactly those of a dicot root.
(b) Vascular bundles are radial, and polyarch.
(c) Pith is large and well-developed; it is composed of parenchyma cells

(ii) Anatomy of dicot root
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 3
T.S of Dicot root
(a) Epidermis is single layered and many cells bear root hairs; cuticle is absent.
(b) Cortex is made of several layers of parenchyma cells.
(c) Endodermis consists of a single-layer of cells. The cells have a deposition of suberin, in the form of casparian strips, on their radial and tangential walls.
(d) Pericycle comprises a few layers of specialised parenchyma cells inner to the endodermis.
(e) Vascular bundles are radial and may range between two and six, though commonly there are four groups; i.e., tetrarch; xylem is exarch.
(f) Pith is very small and made of parenchyma cells.

(b) Anatomical Differences between Monocot Stem and Dicot stem
(i) Anatomy of monocot stem
(a) Epidermis is single layered and trichomes are absent; cuticle is present on its outer surface.
(b) Hypodermis consists of two or three layers of sclerenchyma cells.
(c) Ground tissue is parenchymatous and is not differentiated into cortex or pith.
(d) Vascular bundles are many and scattered in the ground tissue; they vary in size.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 4
T.S. of Monocot Stem

  • Each vascular bundle is surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
  • The vascular bundles are conjoint and closed; xylem is endarch and characteristically a protoxylem lacuna is present.

(ii) Anatomy of dicot stem
(a) Epidermis is the outermost layer of cells; externally it is covered with a cuticle and may bear trichomes and a few stomata.
(b) Hypodermis consists of a few layers of collenchyma cells, just below the epidermis.
(c) Cortex consists of parenchyma cells.
(d) Endodermis is single layered and the cells are rich in starch grains and hence it is also referred to as starch sheath.
(e) Pericyde occurs inner to the endodermis, above the phloem of vascular bundles in the form of semi-lunar patches (hence also referred to as bundle caps); it is composed of sclerenchyma.
T.S. of Dicot Stem
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 5
(f) Vascular bundles are characteristically arranged in the form of a ring.

  • Each vascular bundle is conjoint and open with intra-fascicular cambium; xylem is endarch.
    (g) Medullary rays are the few layers of radially placed parenchyma cells, in between the vascular bundles.
    (h) Pith is composed of parenchyma cells.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 5.
Cut a transverse section of young stem of a plant from your school garden and observe it under the microscope. How would you ascertain whether it is a monocot stem or a dicot stem? Give reasons.
Answer:
Transverse section of a monocot stem possess following characters:

  • Dumbbell-shaped guard cells in stomata in epidermis.
  • Sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
  • No concentric arrangement of internal tissues.
  • Unifrom ground tissue showing no tissue differentiation.
  • More than 8 scattered vascular bundles.
  • Bundle sheath is present.
  • No secondary growth normally.
  • Xylem vessels arranged in Y-shaped manner.
  • Protoxylem cavity usually present in vascular tissues.

Transverse section of a dicot stem possess following characters:

  • Kidney-shaped guard cells in stomata present in epidermis.
  • Collenchymatous hypodermis.
  • Concentric arrangement of internal tissues.
  • Differentiation of ground tissue into cortex, endodermis, pericycle and pith.
  • The vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.
  • Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundles.
  • Without bundle sheath.
  • Secondary growth takes place.
  • Xylem vessels arranged in rows.

[Note: For figures refer to Q.No. 4]

Question 6.
The transverse section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features:
(a) The vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheaths.
(b) Phloem parenchyma is absent. What will you identify it as?
Answer:
It is a transverse section of monocotyledonous stem.

Question 7.
Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues?
Answer:
Xylem and phloem are made up of more than one type of cells that is why they are called as complex tissues :
(i) Xylem is composed of four different kinds of elements, namely-tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma. Tracheids are dead tube-like cells which are thick walled, vessels are made up of large number of tube cells placed end to end. Xylem fibres are thick walled cells that maybe septate and aseptate. Xylem parenchyma is living and thin walled cells.

(ii) Phloem is composed of sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres. Sieve tube elements are tube-like cells, whereas phloem parenchyma are living cells and phloem fibres are thick walled lignified cells.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 8.
What is stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
The minute pores present in the epidermis are known as stomata. The stomata may be surrounded by either bean-shaped (in dicots) or by dumb-bell-shaped (in monocots) guard cells. The guard cells in turn are surrounded by other epidermal cells, which are known as subsidiary or
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 6
accessory cells. The stomatal aperture, guard cells, accessory cells constitute the stomatal apparatus.

Question 9.
Name the three basic tissue systems in the flowering plants. Give the tissue names under each system.
Answer:
The three basic; tissue systems in flowering plants are as follows:

  • Epidermal Tissue System: The tissue related to this system are epidermis, cuticle and wax, stomata and trichomes.
  • Ground Tissue System: It consists of cortex, endodermis, pericycle, medullary rays, pith and ground tissue of leaves.
  • Vascular Tissue System: It contains conducting tissues like xylem and phloem.

Question 10.
How is the study of plant anatomy useful to us?
Answer:
Plant anatomy is the study of internal structure of living organisms.

  • It describes the tissues involved in assimilation of food and its storage, transportation of water, i.e., xylem tissue, transportation of minerals. i.e., phloem and those involved in providing mechanical support to the plant,
  • Study of internal structure of plants helps to understand their adaptations of diverse environments.
  • The study of plant anatomy also help in understanding the functional organisation of higher plants.

Question 11.
What is periderm? How does periderm formation take place in
the dicot stems?
Answer:
Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm are collectively called as periderm. Phellogen develops usually in the cortex region. Phellogen is a couple of layers thick. Phellogen cuts off cells on both sides. The outer cells 1 differentiate into cork or phellem, while the inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm. All these together form periderm.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Question 12.
Describe the internal structure of a dorsiventral leaf with the help of labelled diagrams.
Answer:
The vertical section of a dorsiventral leaf through the lamina shows three ; main parts namely, epidermis, mesophyll and vascular system. The epidermis which covers both the upper surface (adaxial epidermis) and lower surface (abaxial epidermis) of the leaf has a conspicuous cuticle. The abaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the adaxial epidermis. The latter may even lack stomata. The tissue between the upper and the lower epidermis is called the mesophyll. Mesophyll, which possesses chloroplasts and carry out photosynthesis, is made up of parenchyma. It has two types of cells – the palisade parenchyma and the spongy parenchyma.

The adaxially placed palisade parenchyma is made up of elongated cells, which are arranged vertically and parallel to each other. The oval or round and loosely arranged spongy parenchyma is situated below the palisade cells and extends to the lower epidermis. There are numerous large spaces and air cavities between these cells. Vascular system includes vascular bundles, which can be seen in the veins and the midrib. The size of the vascular bundles are dependent on the size of the veins. The veins vary in thickness in the reticulate venation of the dicot leaves. The vascular bundles are surrounded by a layer of thick walled bundle sheath cells.
T.S. of Dorsiventral Leaf
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 7

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Breathing and Exchange of Gases Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define vital capacity. What is its significance?
Answer:
Vital Capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is called vital capacity. Vital capacity is higher in athletes and singers. Vital capacity shows the strength of our inspiration and expiration.

Question 2.
State the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal breathing.
Answer:
The volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration averages 1100 ml to 1200 ml.

Question 3.
Diffusion of gases occurs in the alveolar region only and not in the other parts of respiratory system. Why?
Answer:
Alveoli are the primaty sites of gas exchange in the respiratory system. Exchange of gases occur between blood and these tissues. O2 and CO2 are exchanged in these sites by simple diffusion mainly based on pressure/concentration gradient. The diffusion membrane for gas exchange is made up of three major layers.
These layers are :

  1. Squamous epithelium of alveoli.
  2. Endothelium of alveolar capillaries.
  3. Basement substance in between them. Its total thickness is much less than a millimetre. Therefore, all the factors in our body are favourable for diffusion of O2 from alveoli to tissues and that of CO2 from tissues to alveoli.

Question 4.
What are the major transport mechanisms for CO2? Explain.
Answer:
Transport of Carbon Dioxide: CO2 in gaseous form diffuses out of the cells into capillaries, where it is transported in following ways :
(i) Transport in dissolved form: About 7% CO2 is carried in dissolved form through the plasma because of its high solubility.
(ii) Transport as bicarbonate: The largest fraction (about 70%) is carried in plasma as bicarbonate ions (HCO3). At the tissues site, where pCO2 is high due to catabolism, CO2 diffuses into the blood (RBCs and plasma) and forms HCO3 and H.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 1
This reaction is faster in RBCs because they contain an enzyme carbonic anhydrase. Hydrogen ion released during the reaction bind to Hb, triggering the Bohr effect.
At the alveolar site, where pCO2 is low, the reaction proceeds in opposite direction forming CO2 and H2O. Thus, CO2 trapped as bicarbonate at tissue level and transported to alveoli is released as CO2.

(iii) Transport as carbaminohaemoglobin: Nearly 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin, CO2 entering the blood combines with the NH2 group of the reduced Hb.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 2
The reaction releases oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin.
Factors affecting the binding of CO2 and Hb are as follows:

  • Partial pressure of CO2.
  • Partial pressure of O2 (major factor).

In tissues, pCO2 is high and pO2 is low, more binding of CO2 occurs while, in the alveoli, pCO2 is low and pO2 is high, dissociation of CO2 from HbCO2 takes place, i.e., CO2, which is bound to Hb from the tissues is delivered at the alveoli.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 5.
What will be the pO2 and pCO2, in the atmospheric air compared to those in the alveolar air?
(i) pO2 lesser and pCO2 higher
(ii) pO2 higher and pCO2 lesser
(iii) pO2 higher and pCO2 higher
(iv) pO2 lesser and pCO2 lesser
Answer:
(i) In the alveolar tissues, where low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration, these conditions are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin.

(ii) When there is high pO2, low pCO2, less H+ concentration and lesser temperature, the factors are all favourable for formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

(iii) When pO2 is high in the alveoli and pCO2 is high in the tissues then the oxygen diffuses into the blood and combines with oxygen forming oxyhaemoglobin and CO2 diffuses out.

(iv) When pO2 is low in the alveoli and pCO2 is low in the tissues then these conditions are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 6.
Explain the process of inspiration under normal conditions.
Answer:
Inspiration is the process during which atmospheric air is drawn in. Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of diaphragm, which increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the anteroposterior axis. The contraction of external intercostal muscles lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.

The overall increase in the thoracic volume causes a similar increase in pulmonary volume. An increase in pulmonary volume decreases the intrapulmonary pressure to less than the atmospheric pressure, which forces the air from outside to move into the lungs, i. e., inspiration. On an average, a healthy human breathes 12-16 times/minute.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 3

Question 7.
How is respiration regulated?
Answer:
Respiratory rhythm centre is primarily responsible for regulation of respiration. This centre is present in the medulla.
Pneumotaxic centre, present in the pons region, also coordinates respiration. Apart from them, receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery, can also recognize changes in CO2 and H+ concentration and send signal to the rhythm centre for proper action.

Question 8.
What is the effect of pCO2 on oxygen transport?
Answer:
Partial pressure of CO2 (pCO2) can interfere the binding of oxygen with haemoglobin, i.e., to form oxyhaemoglobin.
(i) In the alveoli, where there is high pO2 and low pCO2, less H+ concentration and low temperature, more formation of oxyhaemoglobin occur.

(ii) In the tissues, where low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration and high temperature exist, the conditions are responsible for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 9.
What happens to the respiratory process in a man going up a hill?
Answer:
At hills, the pressure of air falls and the person cannot get enough oxygen in the lungs for diffusion in blood. Due to deficiency of oxygen, the person feels breathlessness, headache, dizziness, nausea, mental fatigue and a bluish colour on the skin, nails and lips.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 10.
What is the site of gaseous exchange in an insect?
Answer:
The actual site of gaseous exchange in an insect is tracheoles and tracheolar end cells.

Question 11.
Define oxygen dissociation curve. Can you suggest any reason for its sigmoidal pattern?
Answer:
A sigmoid curve is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted against the pO2.
This curve is called the oxygen dissociation curve and is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like pCO2, H+ concentration, etc., on binding of O2 with haemoglobin.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 4
In the alveoli, where there is high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+ concentration and lower temperature, the factors are all favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin, whereas in the tissues, where low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration and higher temperature exist, the conditions are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin. This dearly indicates that O2 gets bound to haemoglobin in the lung surface and gets dissociated at the tissues. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological conditions.

Question 12.
Have you heard about hypoxia? Try to gather information about it, and discuss with your friends.
Answer:
Hypoxia is the shortage of oxygen supply to the blood due to :
(a) normal shortage in air
(b) oxygen deficiency on high mountains (mountain sickness), anaemia and phytotoxicity or poisoning of electron transport system.

Question 13.
Distinguish between:
(a) IRV and ERV
(b) Inspiratory Capacity and Expiratory Capacity
(c) Vital Capacity and Total Lung Capacity
Answer:
(a) IRV and ERV Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV): Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration. This is about 2500-3000 mL. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV): Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a forcible expiration. This is about 1000-1100 mL.

(b) Inspiratory Capacity and Expiratory Capacity Inspiratory Capacity (IC): Total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration. This includes tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume (TV+IRV).
Expiratory Capacity (EC): Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration. This includes tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume (TV+ERV)

(c) Vital Capacity and Total Lung Capacity
Vital Capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air, a person can breathe in after a forced expiration. This includes ERV, TV and IRV or the maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.
Total Lung Capacity (TLC): Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration. This includes RV, ERV, TV and IRV or vital capacity + residual volume.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 14.
What is tidal volume? Find out the tidal volume (approximate value) for a healthy human in an hour.
Answer:
Tidal Volume (TV): Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration is called tidal volume. It is about 500 mL., i.e., a healthy man can inspire or expire approximately 6000 to 8000 mL of air per minute.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Body Fluids and Circulation Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the components of the formed elements in the blood and mention one major function of each of them.
Answer:
(a) Erythrocytes: They are also known as Red Blood Cells (RBC). They are the most abundant of all the cells in blood. A healthy’adult man has, on an average, 5 millions to 5.5 millions of RBCs mm -3 of blood. RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in the adults.
RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the mammals and are biconcave in shape. They have a red coloured, iron containing complex protein called haemoglobin. A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood.
these molecules play a significant role in transport of respiratory gases. RBCs have an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen. Hence, spleen is also known as the graveyard of RBCs.

(b) Leucocytes: They are also known as White Blood Cells (WBC) as they are colourless due to the lack of haemoglobin. They are nucleated and are relatively lesser in number which averages 6000-8000 mm-3 of blood. Leucocytes are generally short-lived.

There are two main categories of WBCs :
1. Granulocytes, e.g., neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils
2. Agranulocytes. e.g., lymphocytes and monocytes.
Neutrophils are the most abundant cells (60-65 per cent) of the total WBCs and basophils are the least (0.5-1 per cent) among them. Neutrophils and monocytes (6-8 per cent) are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body.

Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory reactions. Eosinophils (2-3 per cent) resist infections and are also associated with allergic reactions. Lymphocytes (20-25 per cent) are of two major types- ‘B’ and T forms. Both B and T lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses of the body.

(c) Platelets: Platelets or thrombocytes, are involved in the coagulation or clotting of blood. A reduction in their number can lead to clotting disorders, which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 2.
What is the importance of plasma proteins?
Answer:
Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major plasma proteins. Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood. Globulins primarily are involved in defense mechanisms of the body and the albumins help in osmotic balance.

Question 3.
Match column I with column II.

Column I Column II
A. Eosinophils 1. Coagulation
B. RBC 2. Universal recipient
C. AB group 3. Resist infections
D. Platelets 4. Contraction of heart
E. Systole 5. Gas transport

Answer:

Column I Column II
A. Eosinophils 3. Resist infections
B. RBC 5. Gas transport
C. AB group 2. Universal recipient
D. Platelets 1. Coagulation
E. Systole 4. Contraction of heart

Question 4.
Why do we consider blood as a connective tissue?
Answer:
Blood is a mobile connective tissue derived from mesoderm which consists of fibre-free fluid matrix, plasma and other cells. It regularly circulates in the body, takes part in the transport of materials.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 5.
What is the difference between blood and lymph?
Answer:
Differences between Blood and Lymph

Blood Lymph
It is red in colour due to the presence of haemoglobin in red cells. It is colourless as red blood cells are absent.
It consists of plasma, RBC, WBC and platelets. It consists of plasma and less number of WBC.
Glucose concentration is low. Glucose concentration is higher than blood.
Clotting of blood is a fast process. Clotting of lymph is comparatively slow.
It transports materials from one organ to other. It transports materials from tissue cells into the blood.
Flow of blood is fast. Lymph flows very slowly.
Its plasma has more proteins, calcium and phosphorus. Its plasma has less protein, calcium and phosphorus.
It moves away from the heart and towards the heart. It moves in one direction, i. e., from tissues to sub-clavians.

Question 6.
What is meant by double circulation? What is its significance?
Answer:
Double Circulation: In double circulation, the blood passes twice through the heart during one complete cycle. Double circulation is carried out by two ways :
1. Pulmonary circulation,
2. Systemic circulation

Significance: In birds and mammals, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood received by the left and right atria respectively passes on to the ventricles of the same sides. The ventricles pump it out without mixing up, i.e., two separate circulatory pathways are present in these organisms. This is the importance of double circulation.

Question 7.
Write the differences between:
(a) Blood and lymph
(b) Open and closed system of circulation
(c) Systole and diastole
(d) P-wave and T-wave
Answer:
(a)

Blood Lymph
It is red in colour due to the presence of haemoglobin in red cells. It is colourless as red blood cells are absent.
It consists of plasma, RBC, WBC and platelets. It consists of plasma and less number of WBC.
Glucose concentration is low. Glucose concentration is higher than blood.
Clotting of blood is a fast process. Clotting of lymph is comparatively slow.
It transports materials from one organ to other. It transports materials from tissue cells into the blood.
Flow of blood is fast. Lymph flows very slowly.
Its plasma has more proteins, calcium and phosphorus. Its plasma has less protein, calcium and phosphorus.
It moves away from the heart and towards the heart. It moves in one direction, i. e., from tissues to sub-clavians.

(b) Differences between Open and Closed Circulatory Systems

Open Circulatory System Closed Circulatory System
1. It is present in arthropods and molluscs. It is present in annelids and chordates.
2. Blood pumped by heart passes through large vessels into open spaces or body cavities called sinuses. Blood pumped by the heart is circulated through a loosed network of blood vessels.
3. Flow of blood is not regulated precisely. It is more advantageous as the blood flow is more precisely regulated.

(c) Differences between Systole and Diastole

Systole Diastole
1. The contraction of the muscles of auricles and ventricles is called systole. It is the relaxation of atria and ventricle muscle.
2. It increases the ventricular pressure causing the closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves due to attempted backflow of blood into atria. The ventricular pressure falls causing the closure of semilunar valves which prevent backflow of blood into the ventricle.
3. Systolic pressure is higher and occurs during ventricular contraction. Diastolic pressure is lower and occurs during ventricular
expansion.

(d) Differences between P-wave and T-wave

P-wave T-wave
The P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the arrÍa, which leads to the contraction of both the arria. The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarisation). The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.

Question 8.
Describe the evolutionary change in the pattern of heart among the vertebrates.
Answer:
The heart among the vertebrates shows different patterns of evolution. Different groups of animals have evolved different methods for this transport. All vertebrates possess a muscular chambered heart.
Fishes have a 2-chambered heart with an atrium and a ventricle.
Amphibians and the reptiles (except crocodiles) have a 3-chambered heart with two atria and a single ventricle.
In crocodiles, birds and mammals possess a 4-chambered heart with two atria and two ventricles.

In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood which is oxygenated by the gills and supplied to the body parts from where deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart.

In amphibians and reptiles, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the gills/lungs/skin and the right atrium gets the deoxygenated blood from other body parts. However, they get mixed up in the single ventricle which pumps out mixed blood.

In birds and mammals, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood received by the left and right atria respectively passes on to the ventricles of the same sides. The ventricles pump it out without any mixing up, i. e., two separate circulatory pathways are present in these organisms, hence, these animals have double circulation.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 9.
Why do we call our heart myogenic?
Answer:
Heart is myogenic in origin because the cardiac impulse is initiated in our heart muscles.

Question 10.
The sino-atrial node is called the pacemaker of our heart. Why?
Answer:
The sino-atrial node of heart is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic activity, therefore it is known as pacemaker of the heart.

Question 11.
What is the significance of atrioventricular node and atrioventricular bundle in the functioning of heart?
Answer:
Atrioventricular Node (AVN): It is the mass of tissue present in the lower-left corner of the right atrium close to the atrioventricular septum. It is stimulated by the impulses that sweep over the atrial myocardium. It is too capable of initiating impulses that cause contraction but at slower rate than SA node.

Atrioventricular Bundle (AV Bundle): It is a bundle of nodal fibres, which continues from AVN and passes through the atria-ventricular septa to emerge on the top of interventricular septum. The AV bundle, bundle branches and Purkinje fibres convey impulses of contraction from the AV node to the apex of the myocardium. Here the wave of ventricular contraction begins, then sweeps upwards and outwards, pumping blood into the pulmonary artery and the aorta.
This nodal musculature has the ability to generate action potentials without any external stimuli.

Question 12.
Define a cardiac cycle and the cardiac output.
Answer:
Cardiac Cycle: The sequential event in the heart which is cyclically repeated is called the cardiac cycle. It consists of systole and diastole of both the atria and ventricles.

Cardiac Output: It is the volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute and averages 5000 mL or 5 L in a healthy individual. The body has the ability to alter the stroke volume as well as the heart rate and thereby the cardiac output. For example, the cardiac output of an athlete will be much higher than that of an ordinary man.

Question 13.
Explain heart sounds.
Answer:
During each cardiac cycle, two prominent sounds are produced which can be easily heard through a stethoscope. The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves, whereas the second heart sound (dup) is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves. These sounds are of clinical diagnostic significance.

Question 14.
Draw a standard ECG and explain the different segments in it.
Answer:
Electrocardiograph (ECG): ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle. A patient is connected to the machine with three electrical leads (one to each wrist and to the left ankle) that continuously monitor the heart activity. For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to the chest region.

Each peak in, the ECG is identified with a letter from P to T that corresponds to a specific electrical activity of the heart. The P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarization) of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the atria. The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles, which initiates the ventricular contraction. The contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation 1

  • The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarisation).
  • The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.
  • Obviously, by counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can determine the heartbeat rate of an individual.
  • Since the ECGs obtained from different individuals have roughly the same shape for a given lead configuration, any deviation from this shape indicates a possible abnormality or disease.
  • Hence, it is of a great clinical significance.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Morphology of Flowering Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Morphology of Flowering Plants

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Morphology of Flowering Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by modification of root? What type of modification of root is found in the:
(a) Banyan tree
(b) Turnip
(c) Mangrove trees
Answer:
Modification of Root: Roots in some plants change their shape and
structure and become modified to perform functions, other than absorption and conduction of water and minerals. The roots are modified for water, absorption, support, storage of food and respiration.
(a) A banyan tree have hanging roots known as prop roots.
(b) The roots of turnip get modified to become swollen and store food.
(c) The roots of mangrove trees get modified to grow vertically upwards and help to get oxygen for respiration. These are known as pneumatophores.

Question 2.
Justify the following statements on the basis of external features:
(a) Underground parts of a plant are not always roots.
(b) Flower is a modified shoot.
Answer:
(a) Underground parts of a plant are not always roots, they are subterranean stems which do not have root hairs and root cap. Have terminal bud, nodes and internodes. Have leaves on the nodes.
Most of the underground stems such as sucker, rhizome, corm, tubers, bulb, etc., store food, form aerial shoots.
(b) Flower is a modified shoot because:

  • It possess nodes and internodes.
  • It may develop in the axil of small leaf-like structure called bract.
  • Flowers get modified into bulbils or fleshy buds in some plants.
  • Anatomically the pedicel and thalamus of a flower resemble that of stem.
  • The vascular supply of different organs of flower resemble that of normal leaves.
  • In the flower of Degeneria, the stamens are expanded like leaves and the carpels appear like folded leaves.

Question 3.
How is a pinnately compound leaf different from a palmately compound leaf?
Answer:
In pinnately compound leaf, the number of leaflets are present on a common axis, the rachis, which represents the midrib of the leaf as in neem. In case of a palmately compound leaf, the leaflets are attached at a common point, i e., at the tip of petiole as in silk cotton.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 4.
Explain with suitable examples the different types of phyllotaxy.
Answer:
Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch. This is usually of three types—alternate, opposite and whorled.

  • In alternate phyllotaxy, a single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner, as in China rose, mustard and sunflower plants.
  • In opposite type of phyllotaxy, a pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other as in Calotropis and guava plants.
  • If more than two leaves arise at each node and form, a whorl, it is called as whorled, as in Alstonia.

Question 5.
Define the following terms:
(i) Aestivation
(ii) Placentation
(iii) Actinomorphic
(iv) Zygomorphic
(v) Superior ovary
(vi) Perigynous flower
(vii) Epipetalous stamen
Answer:
(i) Aestivation: The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in relation to one another in a flower bud is called aestivation.
(ii) Placentation: The pattern by which the ovules are attached in an ovary is called placentation.

(iii) Actinomorphic: A flower having radial symmetry. The parts of each whorl are similar in size and shape. The flower can be divided in two equal halves along more than one median longitudinal plane.

(iv) Zygomorphic: A flower having bilateral symmetry. The parts of one or more whorls are dissimilar. The flower can be divided into two equal halves in only one vertical plane.

(v) Superior ovary: The ovary is called superior when it is borne above the point attachment of perianth and stamens on the thalamus.

(vi) Perigynous flower: It is the condition in which gynoecium of a flower is situated in the centre and other parts of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level.

(vii) Epipetalous stamen: Stamens adhere to the petals by their filaments so, appear to arise from them.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 6.
Differentiate between:
(a) Racemose and cymose inflorescence
(b) Fibrous root and adventitious root
(c) Apocarpous and syncarpous ovary
Answer:
(a) Differences between Racemose and Cymose Inflorescence.

Racemose Cymose
1. This is further divided into (a) Raceme (b) Catkin (c) Spike (d) Spadix (e) Corymb (f) Umbel or capitutum It is further divided into (a) Monochasial cyme (b) Dichasial Cyme (c) Polychasial Cyme.
2. Branches develop indefinitely and further branches arise laterally in acropetal manner. The branches arise from terminal buds and stop growing after some time Lateral branches grow much vigorously and spread like a dome.

(b) Differences between Fibrous Root and Adventitious Root

Fibrous Root Adventitious Root
In monocotyledonous plants, the primary root is short lived and is replaced by a latge number of roots. These roots originate from the base of the fibrous root system say, for example in wheat plants. In some plants, say for example, in grass and banyan tree there are roots arising from parts of the plant other than the radicle. These are called adventitious roots.

(c) Differences between Apocarpous Ovaiy and Syncarpous Ovary

Apocarpous Ovary Syncarpous Ovary
When more than one carpel is present, they may be free (as in lotus and rose) and are called apocarpous ovary. They are termed syncarpous ovary when fused, as in mustard and tomato. After fertilisation, the ovules develop into seeds and like ovary matures into a fruit.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 7.
Draw the labelled diagram of the following:
(a) gram seed
(b) V.S. of maize seed
Answer:
(a) Gram Seed
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 1
(b) V.S. of maize seed
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 2

Question 8.
Describe modifications of stem with suitable examples. [NCERT]
Answer:
Modifications of stem are as follows:

  • Tendrils help plants to climb on the support, e. g., Cucumber.
  • Thorns are woody, pointed, straight structures to protect plants from browsing animals, e. g., Bougainvillea.
  • The plants in arid regions modify their stems into flattened (Opuntia) or fleshy cylindrical (Euphorbia) structures. They contain chlorophyll and carry out photosynthesis.
  • Underground stems of some plants such as grass and snawberry, etc., spread to new riches and when older parts die, new plants are formed.
  • In Pistia and Eichhornia, a lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found.
  • Stolons or runners help in vegetative propagation in jasmine and grass, respectively.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 9.
Take one flower each of the families Fabaceae and Solanaceae and write its semi-technical description. Also draw their floral diagram after studying them.
Answer:
(i) Fabaceae: This family was earlier called Papilionoideae, a subfamily of family Leguminosae.
(a) Habit: Trees, shrubs, herbs, climbers, etc.
(b) Root System: Tap root system with root nodules, that harbour nitrogen fixing bacterium.
(c) Leaves: Leaves are alternate, simple or pinnately compound, pulvinate, and stipulate; venation reticulate.
(d) Inflorescence: Racemose usually, a raceme.
(e) Flowers: Bracteate, bracteolate, bisexual, zygomorphic, hypogynous, and pentamerous.
(f) Calyx: Five sepals, gamosepalous, irregular, odd sepal anterior (characteristic feature of the family) and valvate aestivation.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 3
(g) Corolla: Corolla consists of five petals, polypetalous, characteristically papilionaceous, with an odd posterior large petal called standard or vexillum, a pair of lateral petals, called wing or alae and two anterior keel or carina, which enclose the essential organs; aestivation is vexillary.
(h) Androecium: Ten stamens, diadelphous, [(9) + 1] and anthers dithecous.
(i) Gynoecium: Ovary is superior, monocarpellary, unilocular with many ovules on marginal placenta; style single, curved or bent at right angles to the ovary.
(j) Fruits and Seeds: Characteristically a legume/pod and seeds are non-endospermic.
(k) Floral Formula: PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 4
(l) Economic Importance: Plants of this family yield pulses, edible oil, dye, fodder, fibres and wood; some yield products of medicinal value,

(ii) Solanaceae (Potato family)
(a) Habit: Plants are mostly herbs or shrubs or small trees; stem is erect, cylindrical, branched (cymose type); stem is underground in potato CSolarium tuberosum).
(b) Leaves: Simple, alternate, exstipulate with reticulate venation.
(c) Inflorescence: Axillary or extra-axillary cymose, or solitary.
(d) Flowers: Bisexual, actinomorphic, hypogynous and pentamerous.
(e) Calyx: Five sepals, gamosepalous, persistant and valvate aestivation.
(f) Corolla: Five petals, gamopetalous, valvate or imbricate, rotate/wheel-shaped.
(g) Androecium: Five stamens, epipetalous and alternating with the petals.
(h) Gynoecium: Bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior with many ovules on swollen axile placenta; carpels are obliquely placed.
(i) Fruits and Seeds: A berry (tomato and brinjal) or a capsule; seeds are endospermic.
(j) Floral Formula : PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 5
(k) Economic Importance: Many plants are used as source of food (vegetables), spice, medicines of fumigatory; some are ornamental plants.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 6

Question 10.
Describe the various types of placentations found in flowering plants.
Answer:
Types of Placentations: The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as placentation. The placentations are of different types – marginal, axile, parietal, free central and basal.

Marginal placentation: In this placentation, the placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and the ovules are borne on this ridge forming two rows as in pea.

Axile placentation: In this placentation, the placenta is axile and the ovules are attached to it in a multilocular ovary as in China rose, tomato, etc.

Parietal placentation: In this placentation, the ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or on peripheral part. Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of a false septum known as replam, e.g., mustard.

Free central placentation: In this type of placentation, the ovules are present on the central axis of ovary and septa are absent as in Dianthus and primrose.

Basal placentation: In this placentation the placenta develops at the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached to it, as in sunflower.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 11.
What is a flower? Describe the parts of a typical angiospermic flower.
Answer:
Flower: It is a condensed modified reproductive shoot found in angiosperms. It often develops in the axile of a small leaf-like structure called bract. The stalk of the flower is called pedicel. The tip of the pedicel or the base of flower has a broad highly condensed multinodal region called thalamus.
A flower has following four floral structures:

  • Calyx: It is made up of sepals. These are green in colour and help in photosynthesis.
  • Corolla: It is the brightly coloured part containing petals.
  • Androecium: It is the male reproductive part which consists of stamens. A stamen has a long filament and terminal anther. The anther produces the pollen grains.
  • Gynoecium: It is the female reproductive part which consists of
    carpels. A carpel has three parts, i.e., style, stigma and ovary. The ovary bears the ovules.

Question 12.
How do the various leaf modifications help plants?
Answer:
Leaf Modifications in Plants
(i) In some plants, the leaf and leaf parts get modified to form green, long, thin unbranched and sensitive thread-like structures called tendrils. The tendrils coil around the plant and provide support to the plant in climbing. Tendrils are present in pea, garden Nasturtium, Clematis, Smilax, etc.

(ii) In some plants, the leaves get modified to form curved stiff claw like hooks to help the plant in clinging to the support. Leaflet hooks are present in Bignonia.

(iii) In case of Acacia and Zizyphus, the leaves get modified to form vasculated, hard, stiff and pointed structures.

(iv) In case of Acacia longifolia, the expanded petiole gets modified and perform the function of photosynthesis in absence of lamina.

(v) In plants such as Nepenthes, the lamina is modified to form large pitcher. It is used for storing water and for digesting insect protein.

(vi) In case of Utricularia, the leaf segments are modified into small bladders, to trap small animals.

Question 13.
Define the term inflorescence. Explain the basis for the different types of inflorescence in flowering plants.
Answer:
The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is termed as inflorescence. Depending on whether the apex gets converted into a flower or continues to grow, two major types of inflorescences are defined – racemose and cymose. In racemose type of inflorescence the main axis continues to grow, the flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession.

In cymose type of inflorescence the main axis terminates in a flower, hence is limited in growth. The flowers are borne in a basipetal order, as depicted in figure.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 7

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Question 14.
Write the floral formula of a actinomorphic, bisexual, hypogynous flower with five united sepals, five free petals, five f free stamens and two united carpels with superior ovary and axile placentation.
Answer:
Floral formula PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 8

Question 15.
Describe the arrangement of floral members in relation to their ‘ insertion on thalamus.
Answer:
A flower is a condensed specialised reproductive shoot found in angiosperms. The stalk of the flower is known as pedicel. The tip of the pedicel or the base of the flower has a broad highly condensed multinodal region called thalamus. The floral parts of a flower are present on the thalamus. Starting from below they are green sepals or calyx, coloured petals or corolla, stamens or androecium and carpels or gynoecium.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Physics Book Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory

PSEB 11th Class Physics Guide Kinetic Theory Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Estimate the fraction of molecular volume to the actual volume occupied by oxygen gas at SIP. Take the diameter of an oxygen molecule to be 3Å.
Solution:
Diameter of an oxygen molecule, d = 3Å
Radius, r = \(\frac{d}{2}=\frac{3}{2}\) =1.5 Å = 1.5 x 10-8 cm
Actual volume occupied by 1 mole of oxygen gas at STP = 22400 cm3
Molecular volume of oxygen gas, V = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3N

where, N is Avogadro’s number = 6.023 x 1023 molecules/mole
∴ V = \(\frac{4}{3}\) x 3.14 x (1.5 x 10-8)3 x 6.023 x 1023 = 8.51cm3

Ratio of the molecular volume to the actual volume of oxygen = \(\frac{8.51}{22400}\) = 3.8 x 10-4 ≈ 4 x 10-4

Question 2.
Molar volume is the volume occupied by 1 mol of any (ideal) gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP: 1 atmospheric pressure, 0°C). Show that it is 22.4 litres.
Solution:
The ideal gas equation relating pressure (P), volume (V), and absolute temperature (T) is given as PV = nRT
where, R is the universal gas constant = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1
n = Number of moles = 1
T = Standard temperature = 273 K
P = Standard pressure = 1 atm = 1.013 x 105 Nm-2
∴ V = \(\frac{n R T}{P}\)
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 1
Hence, the molar volume of a gas at STP is 22.4 litres.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory

Question 3.
Given figure shows plot of PV IT versus P for 1.00 x 10-3 kg of oxygen gas at two different temperatures.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 2
(a) What does the dotted plot signify?
(b) Which is true: T1 > T2 or T1 <T2?
(c) What is the value of PVIT where the curves meet on the y-axis?
(d) If we obtained similar plots for 1.00 x 103 kg of hydrogen, would we get the same value of PV/T at the point where the curves meet on the y-axis? If not, what mass of hydrogen yields the same value of PV/T (for low-pressure high-temperature region of the plot)? (Molecular mass of H2=2.02u,of O2 =32.0 u, R= 8.31Jmol-1K-1)
Solution:
(a) The dotted plot in the graph signifies the ideal behaviour of the gas, i. e., the ratio \(\frac{\bar{P} V}{T}\) is equal. μR(μ is the number of moles and R is the universal gas constant) is a constant quantity. It is not dependent on the pressure of the gas.

(b) The dotted plotmn the given graph represents an ideal gas. The curve of the gas at temperatureT1 is closer to the dotted plot than the curve of the gas at temperature T2. A real gàs approaches the behaviour of an ideal gas when its temperature increases. Therefore, T1 > T2 is true for the given plot.

(c) The value of the ratio PV/T, where the two curves meet, is μ.R. This is because the ideal gas equation is given as:
PV=μRT
\(\frac{P V}{T}\) = μR
where P is the pressure
T is the temperature
V is the volume
μ is the number of moles
R is the unìversal constant
Molecular mass of oxygen = 32.0 g
Mass of oxygen =1 x 10-3 kg = 1 g
R =8.314J mole-1K-1
∴ \(\frac{P V}{T}=\frac{1}{32} \times 8.314\) =0.26JK-1
Therefore, the value of the ratio PV/T, where the curves meet on the y-axis, is 0.26JK-1.

(d) If we obtain similar plots for 1.00 x 10-3 kg of hydrogen, then we will not get the same value of PV/T at the point where the curves meet the y-axis. This is because the molecular mass of hydrogen (2.02 u) is different from that of oxygen (32.0 u).
We have \(\frac{P V}{T}\) = 0.26JK-1
R = 8.314 J mole-1 K-1
Molecular mass (M) of H2 =2.02 u PV
\(\frac{P V}{T}\) = μR at constant temperature
where, μ = \(\frac{m}{M}\) , m = Mass of H2
∴ m = \(\frac{P V}{T} \times \frac{M}{R}=\frac{0.26 \times 2.02}{8.314}\)
= 6.3 x 10-2 g = 6.3 x 10-5 kg
Hence, 6.3 x 10-5 kg of H2 will yield the same value of PV/T.

Question 4.
An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litres has an initial gauge pressure of 15 atm and a temperature of 27°C. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, the gauge pressure drops to 11 atm and its temperature drops to 17°C. Estimate the mass of oxygen taken out of the cylinder (R = 8.31 J mol-1 K -1, molecular mass of O 2 =32 u).
Solution:
Absolute pressure, p1 = (15 + 1) atm
[∵ Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure +1 atm] = 16 x 1.013 x 105 Pa
V1 = 30 L = 30 x 10-3 m3
T1 = 273.15 + 27 = 300.15K
Using ideal gas equation,
pV = nRT
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 3
Hence, moles removed = 19.48-15.12 = 4.36
Mass removed = 4.36 x 32 g = 139.52 g = 0.1396 kg.
Therefore, 0.14 kg of oxygen is taken out of the cylinder.

Question 5.
An air bubble of volume 1.0 cm3 rises from the bottom of a lake 40 cm deep at a temperature of 12°C. To what volume does it grow when it reaches the surface, which is at a temperature of 35°C?
Solution:
Volume of the air bubble, = 1.0 cm3 = 1.0 x 10-6 m3
Bubble rises to height, d = 40 m
Temperature at a depth of 40 m, T1 = 12°C = 273 + 12 = 285K
Temperature at the surface of the lake, T2 = 35°C = 273 + 35 = 308K
The pressure on the surface of the lake,
P2 =1 atm = 1 x 1.013 x 105Pa
The pressure at the depth of 40 m,
P1 = 1 atm + dρg
where, ρ is the density of water = 103 kg/m3
g is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2
∴ P1 = 1.013 X105+40 X 103 X 9.8 = 493300 Pa
We have \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{P_{2} V_{2}}{T_{2}}\)
where, V2 is the volume of the air bubble when it reaches the surface
V2= \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1} T_{2}}{T_{1} P_{2}}=\frac{(493300)\left(1.0 \times 10^{-6}\right) 308}{285 \times 1.013 \times 10^{5}}\)
= 5.263 x 10-6 m3 or 5.263 cm3
Therefore, when the air bubble reaches the surface, its volume becomes 5.263 cm3.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory

Question 6.
Estimate the total number of air molecules (inclusive of oxygen, nitrogen, water vapour and other constituents) in a room of capacity 25.0 m3 at a temperature of 27°C and 1 atm pressure.
Solution:
Volume of the room, V = 25.0 m3
Temperature of the room, T = 27°C = 273 + 27°C = 300 K
Pressure in the room, P = 1 atm = 1 x 1.013 x 105 Pa
The ideal gas equation relating pressure (?), Volume (V), and absolute temperature (T) can be written as PV = kBNT
where,
KB is Boltzmann constant = 1.38 x 10 -23 m2 kg s-2 K-1
N is the number of air molecules in the room
∴ N = \(\frac{P V}{k_{B} T}\)
= \(\frac{1.013 \times 10^{5} \times 25}{1.38 \times 10^{-23} \times 300}\) = 6.11 x 1026 molecules
Therefore, the total number of air molecules in the given room is 6.11 x 1026.

Question 7.
Estimate the average thermal energy of a helium atom at (i) room temperature (27°C),
(ii) the temperature on the surface of the Sun (6000K),
(iii) the temperature of 10 million Kelvin (the typical core temperature in the case of a star).
Solution:
(i) At room temperature, T = 27°C = 273 +27 = 300 K
Average thermal energy, E = \(\frac{3}{2}\)kT
where k is Boltzmann constant = 1.38 x 10-23 m2 kg s-2 K-1
∴ E = \(\frac{3}{2}\) x 1.38 x 10-23 x 300 = 6.21 x 10-21 J
Hence, the average thermal energy of a helium atom at room temperature (27°C) is 6.21 x 10-23 J

(ii) On the surface of the Sun, T = 6000 K
Average thermal energy = \(\frac{3}{2}\) kT = \(\frac{3}{2}\) x 1.38 x 10-23 x 6000
= 1.241 x 10-19J
Hence, the average thermal energy of a helium atom on the surface of the Sun is 1.241 x 10-19J.

(iii) At temperature, T =107 K
Average thermal energy = \(\frac{3}{2}\)kT = \(\frac{3}{2}\) x 1.38 x 10-23 x 107
= 2.07 x 10-16 J
Hence, the average thermal energy of a helium atom at the core of a star is 2.07 x 10-16 J.

Question 8.
Three vessels of equal capacity have gases at the same temperature and pressure. The first vessel contains neon (monatomic), the second contains chlorine (diatomic), and the third contains uranium hexafluoride (polyatomic). Do the vessels contain equal number of respective molecules? Is the root mean square speed of molecules the same in the three cases? If not, in which case is υrms the largest?
Solution:
Yes. All contain the same number of the respective molecules.
No. The root means square speed of neon is the largest.
Since the three vessels have the same capacity, they have the same volume.

Hence, each gas has the same pressure, volume, and temperature. According to Avogadro’s law, the three vessels will contain an equal number of the respective molecules. This number is equal to Avogadro’s number, N = 6.023 x 1023.
The root mean square speed (υrms)oi a gas of mass m, and temperature T, is given by the relation: υrms = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 k T}{m}} \)
where k is Boltzmann constant
For the given gases, k and T are constants.

Hence, υrms depends only on the mass of the atoms, i.e., υrms ∝ \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{m}}\)
Therefore, the root mean square speed of the molecules in the three cases is not the same.

Among neon, chlorine, and uranium hexafluoride, the mass of neon is the smallest.
Hence, neon has the largest root mean square speed among the given gases.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory

Question 9.
At what temperature is the root mean square speed of an atom in an argon gas cylinder equal to the rms speed of a helium gas atom at -20°C? (atomic mass of Ar = 39.9 u, of He = 4.0u).
Solution:
Temperature of the helium atom, THe = -20°C = 273 – 20 = 253K
Atomic mass of argon, MAr= 39.9 u
Atomic mass of helium, MHe = 4.0 u
Let, (υrms)be the rms speed of argon.
Let (υrms )He be the rms speed of helium.
The rms speed of argon is given by
rms)Ar = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 R T_{\mathrm{Ar}}}{M_{\mathrm{Ar}}}}\) …………………………….. (i)
where, R is the universal gas constant
TAr is temperature of argon gas
The rms speed of helium is given by:
rms)He = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 R T_{\mathrm{He}}}{M_{\mathrm{He}}}}\) …………………………. (ii)

It is given that: (υrms)Ar = (υrms)He
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 4
Therefore, the temperature of the argon atom is 2.52 x 103 K.

Question 10.
Estimate the mean free path and collision frequency of a nitrogen molecule in a cylinder containing nitrogen at 2.0 atm and temperature 17°C. Take the radius of a nitrogen molecule to be roughly 1.0 Å. Compare the collision time with the time the molecule moves freely between two successive collisions (Molecular mass of N2 = 28.0u).
Solution:
Pressure inside the cylinder containing nitrogen,
P =2.0atm = 2 x 1.013 x 105 Pa = 2.026 x 105 Pa
Temperature inside the cylinder, T = 17°C = 273 +17 = 290 K
Radius of a nitrogen molecule, r = 1.0 Å = 1 x 10,sup>-10 m
Diameter, d = 2 x 1 x 10-10 = 2 x 10-10 m
Molecular mass of nitrogen, M = 28.0 g = 28 x 10-3 kg
The root mean square speed of nitrogen is given by the relation
υrms = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 R T}{M}}\)
where, R is the universal gas constant = 8.314 J mole -1 K-1
∴ υrms = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 \times 8.314 \times 290}{28 \times 10^{-3}}}\) = 508.26m/s
The mean free path (l) is given by the relation:
l = \(\frac{k T}{\sqrt{2} \times d^{2} \times P}\)
where,
k is the Boltzmann constant = 1.38 x 10-23 kgm2s-2 K-1
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 13

Time is taken between successive collisions,
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 5
Hence, the time taken between successive collisions is 500 times the time taken for a collision.

Additional Exercises

Question 11.
A metre long narrow bore held horizontally (and closed at one end) contains a 76 cm long mercury thread, which traps a 15 cm column of air. What happens if the tube is held vertically with the open end at the bottom?
Solution:
Length of the narrow bore, L=1 m = 100 cm
Length of the mercury thread, l = 76 cm
Length of the air column between mercury and the closed-end, la = 15cm
Since the bore is held vertically in air with the open end at the bottom, the mercury length that occupies the air space is 100-(76+15) = 9 cm

Hence, the total length of the air column = 15 + 9 = 24 cm
Let h cm of mercury flow out as a result of atmospheric pressure.
∴ Length of the air column in the bore = 24 + h cm
and, length of the mercury column = 76 – h cm
Initial pressure, P1 = 76 cm of mercury
Initial volume,V1 =15 cm3
Final pressure, P2 = 76 – (76 – h) = h cm of mercury
Final volume, V2 = (24 + h) cm3
The temperature remains constant throughout the process.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 6

Height cannot be negative. Hence, 23.8cm of mercury will flow out from the bore and 52.2 cm of mercury will remain in it. The length of the air column will be 24 +23.8 = 47.8 cm.

Question 12.
From a certain apparatus, the diffusion rate of hydrogen has an average value of 28.7cm3s-1. The diffusion of another gas under the same conditions is measured to have an average rate of 7.2 cm3 s-1. Identify the gas. [Hint: Use Graham’s law of diffusion: R1/R2 =(M2/M1)1/2, where R1, R2 are diffusion rates of gases 1 and 2, and M1 and M2 their respective molecular masses. The law is a simple consequence of the kinetic theory.]
Solution:
Rate of diffusion of hydrogen, R1 = 28.7cm3 s-1
Rate of diffusion of another gas, R2 = 7.2 cm3 s-1
According to Graham’s Law of diffusion, we have
\(\frac{R_{1}}{R_{2}}=\sqrt{\frac{M_{2}}{M_{1}}}\)
where, M1 is the molecular mass of hydrogen 2.020 g
M2 is the molecular mass of the unknown gas
∴ M2 = M1\(\left(\frac{R_{1}}{R_{2}}\right)^{2}\) = 2.01 \(\left(\frac{28.7}{7.2}\right)^{2}\) = 32.09 g
32g is the molecular mass of oxygen. Hence, the unknown gas is oxygen.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory

Question 13.
A gas in equilibrium has uniform density and pressure throughout its volume. This is strictly true only if there are no external influences. A gas column under gravity, for example, does not have a uniform density (and pressure). As you might expect, its density decreases with height. The precise dependence is given by the so-called law of atmospheres n2 =n1 exp[-mg(h2 -h1) / kB T]
where n2,n1 refer to number density at heights h2 and h1 respectively.
Use this relation to derive the equation for sedimentation equilibrium of a suspension in a liquid column: n2 = n1 exp [-mg NA (ρ -ρ’)(h2 -h1) / (ρRT)]
where ρ is the density of the suspended particle, and ρ’ that of surrounding medium. [NA is Avogadro’s number and R the universal gas constant.] [Hint: Use Archimedes principle to find the apparent weight of the suspended particle.]
Solution:
According to the law of atmospheres, we have
n2=n1 exp [-mg(h2 – h1])/kBT] ………………………………. (i)
where, n1 is the number density at height h1, and n2 is the number density at height h2
mg is the weight of the particle suspended in the gas column
Density of the medium = ρ’
Density of the suspended particle = ρ
Mass of one suspended particle = m’
Mass of the medium displaced = m
Volume of a suspended particle = V
According to Archimedes’ principle for a particle suspended in a liquid column, the effective weight of the suspended particle is given as

Weight of the medium displaced – Weight of the suspended particle
= mg – m’g
= mg – Vρ’g = mg – \(\left(\frac{m}{\rho}\right)\) ρ’g
= mg – \(\left(1-\frac{\rho^{\prime}}{\rho}\right)\) …………………………….. (ii)
Gas constant, R = kBN
kB = \(\frac{R}{N}\) …………………………………….. (iii)
Substituting equation (ii) in place of mg in equation (i) and then using equation (iii), we get
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 7

Question 14.
Given below are densities of some solids and liquids. Give rough estimates of the size of their atoms:

Substance Atomic Mass (u) Density (103 kg m-3)
Carbon (diamond) 12.01 2.22
Gold 197.00 19.32
Nitrogen (liquid) 14.01 1.00
Lithium 6.94 0.53
Fluorine (liquid) 19.00 1.14

[Hint: Assume the atoms to be ‘tightly packed’ in a solid or liquid phase, and use the known value of Avogadro’s number. You should, however, not take the actual numbers you obtain for various atomic sizes too literally. Because of the crudeness of the tight packing approximation, the results only indicate that atomic sizes are in the range of a few Å].
Atomic mass of a substance = M
Density of the substance = ρ

Avogadro’s number = N = 6.023 x 1023
Volume of each atom = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}\)
Volume of N number of molecules = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}\) N …………………………….. (i)
Volume of one mole of a substance = \(\frac{M}{\rho}\) ………………………………….. (ii)

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 8
For gold
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 9
Hence, the radius of a gold atom is 1.59 Å
For liquid nitrogen
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 10
Hence, the radius of a liquid nitrogen atom is 1.77 Å

For lithium
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 11
Hence, the radius of a lithium atom is 1.73 Å.

For liquid fluorine
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory 12
Hence, the radius of liquid fluorine atom is 1.88 Å.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Physics Book Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Lines

PSEB 11th Class Physics Guide Motion in a Straight Line Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which of the following examples of motion, can the body be considered approximately a point object:
(a) a railway carriage moving without jerks between two stations.
(b) a monkey sitting on top of a man cycling smoothly on a circular track.
(c) a spinning cricket ball that turns sharply on hitting the ground.
(d) a tumbling beaker that has slipped off the edge of a table.
Answer:
(a), (b)

Explanation
(a) The size of a carriage is very small as compared to the distance between two stations. Therefore, the carriage can be treated as a point sized object.
(b) The size of a monkey is very small as compared to the size of a circular track. Therefore, the monkey can be considered as a point sized object on the track.
(c) The size of a spinning cricket ball is comparable to the distance through which it turns sharply on hitting the ground. Hence, the cricket ball cannot be considered as a point object.
(d) The size of a beaker is comparable to the height of the table from which it slipped. Hence, the beaker cannot be considered as a point object.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 2.
The position-time (x – t) graphs for two children A and B returning from their school O to their homes P and Q respectively are shown in below figure. Choose the correct entries in the brackets below;
(a) (A / B) lives closer to the school than (B / A)
(b) (A / B) starts from the school earlier than (B/ A)
(c) (A / B) walks faster than (B / A)
(d) A and B reach home at the (same/different) time
(e) (A / B) overtakes (B / A) on the road (once/twice).
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 1
Solution:
(a) Draw normals on graphs from points P and Q. It is clear that OQ > OP. Therefore, child A lives closer to the school than child B.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 2
(b) Child A start from school at time t =0 (become its graph starts from origin) whild child B starts from school at time t = OC. Therefore, child A starts from school earlier than B.

(c) The slope of distance-time graph represents the speed. More the slope of the graph, more will be the speed. As the slope of the x-t graph of B is higher than the slope of the x – t graph of A, therefore child B walks faster than child A.
(d) Corresponding to points P and Q, the value of t from x – t graphs for children A and B is same i. e.,OE. Therefore, children A and B will reach their homes P and Q at the same time.

(e) x – t graphs for children A and B intersect each other at a point D. Child B starts later but reaches home at the same time as that of child A, therefore child B overtake child A on the road once.

Question 3.
A woman starts from her home at 9.00 am, walks with a speed of 5kmh-1 on a straight road up to her office 2.5 km away, stays at the office up to 5.00 pm, and returns home by an auto with a speed of 25 km h-1. Choose suitable scales and plot the x – t graph of her motion.
Solution:
Speed of the woman = 5 km/h
Distance between her office and home = 2.5 km
Time taken = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Speed }}\)
= \(\frac{2.5}{5}\) = 0.5 h = 30 min
Time of arival at office = 9.00 am + 30 min = 9.30 am i. e., at 9.30 am the distance covered will be 2.5 km. This part of journey is represented in graph by OA.
It is given that she covers the same distance in the evening by an auto. Now, speed of the auto = 25 km/h
= \(\frac{2.5}{25}=\frac{1}{10}\) = 0.1 h = 6 mm

She leaves the office at 5.00 pm and take 6 min to reach home. Therefore, she reaches her home at 5.06 pm at this time the distance is zero. This part of journey is represented in graph by BC.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 3

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 4.
A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, followed again by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, and so on. Each step is 1 m long and requires 1 s. Plot the x – t graph of bis motion. Determine graphically and otherwise how long the drunkard takes to fall in a pit 13 m away from the start.
Solution:
The x – t graph of the drunkard is shown in figure.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 4
Length of each step =1 m, time taken for each step = 1 s
Time taken to move by 5 steps = 5 s
5 steps forward and 3 steps backward means that the net distance covered by him in first 8 steps i. e., in8s = 5m-3m = 2m
Distance covered by him in first 16 steps orl6s = 2 + 2 = 4m
Distance covered the drunkard in first 24 s i. e., 24 steps = 2 + 2 + 2= 6m
and distance covered in 32 steps i. e. 32 s = 8 m
Distance covered in37 steps = 8 + 5 = 13m
Distance of the pit from the start = 13 m
Total time taken by the drunkard to fall in the pit = 37 s
Since, 1 step requires 1 s of time, so we arrive at the same result from the graph shown.

Question 5.
A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km h-1 ejects its products of combustion at the speed of 1500 km h-1 relative to the jet plane. What is the speed of the latter with respect to an observer on the ground?
Speed of the jet airplane, υjet = 500 km/h
Relative speed of its products of combustion with respect to the plane,
υsmoke = -1500 km/h
Speed of its products of combustion with respect to the ground V’smoke Relative speed of its products of combustion with respect to the airplane,
υsmoke = υ’smoke υ jet
-1500 = υ’smoke – 500
υ’smoke = -1000 km/h
The negative sign indicates that the direction of its products of combustion is opposite to the direction of motion of the jet airplane.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 6.
A car moving along a straight highway with speed of 126 km h-1 is brought to a stop within a distance of 200 m, What is the retardation of the car (assumed uniform), and how long does it take for the car to stop?
Solution:
Initial velocity of the car, u= 126 km/h = 126 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) m/s
= 35 m/s (∵ 1 km/h \(\frac{5}{10}\) m/s)
Final velocity of the car, υ = 0
Distance covered by the car before coming to rest, s = 200 m
From third equation of motion,
υ2 – u2 = 2as
(0)2 – (35)2 = 2 × a × 200
a = \(\frac{35 \times 35}{2 \times 200}\) = -3.06 m/s2
From first equation of motion,
v = u +at
t = \(\frac{v-u}{a}=\frac{0-35}{-3.06}=\frac{-35}{-3.06}\) = 11.44s
∴ Car will stop after 11.4 s.

Question 7.
Two trains A and B of length 400 m each are moving on two parallel tracks with a uniform speed of 72 km h-1 in the same direction, with A ahead of B. The driver of B decides to overtake A and accelerates by 1 m/s2. If after 50 s, the guard of B just brushes past the driver of A, what was the original distance between them?
Solution:
For train A:
Initial velocity, u = 72 km/h = 72 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) m/s = 20 m/s
Time, t = 50 s
Acceleration, aI =0 (Since it is moving with a uniform velocity)
From second equation of motion, distance (SI) covered by train A can be obtained as :
SI = ut + \(\frac {1}{2}\)aIt2
= 20 × 50 + 0 = 1000 m

For train B:
Initial velocity, u = 7 2 km/h = 72 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) m/ s = 20 m/ s
Acceleration, aII = 1 m/s2
Time, t = 50 s
From second equation of motion, distance (SII) covered by train B can be obtained as :
sII = ut + \(\frac {1}{2}\) aIIt2
= 20 × 50 + \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 1 × (50)2 = 2250 m
Hence, the original distance between the driver of train A and the guard of train B is 2250 – 1000 = 1250 m.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 8.
On a two lane road, car A is travelling with a speed of 36 kmh-1. Two cars B and C approach car A in opposite directions with a speed of 54 km h 1 each. At a certain instant, when the distance AB is equal to AC, both being 1 km, B decides to overtake A before C does. What minimum acceleration of car B is required to avoid an accident?
Solution:
Velocity of car A, υA = 36 km/h = 36 × \(\frac {5}{18}\) m/s = 10 m/s
Velocity of car B, υB =54 km/h = 54 × \(\frac {5}{18}\) m/s = 15 m/s
Velocity of car C,υC = 54 km/h 54 × \(\frac {5}{18}\) m/s = 15 m/s
Relative velocity of car B with respect to car A,
υBA = υB – υA = 15 – 10 = 5 m/s
Relative velocity of car C with respect to car A,
υCA – υC – (-υA) = 15 + 10 = 25m/s
At a certain instance, both cars B and C are at the same distance from car Ai.e.,
s = 1 km = 1000 m
Time taken (t) by car C to cover 1000 m = \(\frac {1000}{25}\) = 40 s
Hence, to avoid an accident, car B must cover the same distance in a maximum of 40 s. From second equation of motion, minimum acceleration (a) produced by car B can be obtained as:
s = ut + \(\frac {1}{2}\)at2
1000 = 5 × 40 + \(\frac {1}{2}\) × a × (40)2
a = \(\frac {1600}{1600}\) = 1ms2

Question 9.
Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h-1 in the direction AtoB notices that a bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction of his motion, and eveiy 6 min in opposite direction. What is the period T of the bus service and with what speed (assumed constant) do the buses ply on the road?
Solution:
Let V be the speed of the bus running between towns A and B.
Speed of the cyclist, υ = 20 km/h
Relative speed of the bus moving in the direction of the cyclist
= V- υ = (V – 20)km/h
The bus went past the cyclist every 18 min i.e., \(\frac{18}{60}\) h (when he moves in the direction of the bus).
Distance covered by the bus = (V – 20) × \(\frac{18}{60}\) km ……………….. (i)
Since one bus leaves after every T minutes, the distance travelled by the bus will be equal to V × \(\frac{T}{60}\) ……………. (ii)
Both equations (i) and (ii) are equal.
V – 20 \(\frac{18}{60}=\frac{V T}{60}\) ……………… (iii)
Relative speed of the bus moving in the opposite direction of the cyclist
= (V + 20)km/h
Time taken by the bus to go past the cyclist = 6 min = \(\frac{6}{60}\)h
∴ (V + 20) \(\frac{6}{60}\) = \(\frac{VT}{60}\) …………………. (iv)
From equations (iii) and (iv), we get
(V + 20) × \(\frac{6}{60}\) = (V – 20) × \(\frac{18}{60}\)
V + 20 = 3 V – 60
2V = 80
V = 4 km/h
Substituting the value of V in equation (iv), we get
(40 + 20) × \(\frac{6}{60}=\frac{40 T}{60}\)
T = \(\frac{360}{40}\) = 9 min

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 10.
A player throws a hall upwards with an initial speed of 29.4 ms-1 .
(a) What is the direction of acceleration during the upward motion of the hall?
(b) What are the velocity and acceleration of the ball at the highest point of its motion?
(c) Choose the x = 0 m and t0 = 0 s to be the location and time of
the ball at its highest point, vertically downward direction to be the positive direction of x-axis, and give the signs of position, velocity and acceleration of the ball during its upward, and downward motion.
(d) To what height does the ball rise and after how long does the ball return to the player’s hands? (Take g = 9.8 m s-2 and neglect air resistance).
Solution:
(a) The ball is moving under the effect of gravity and therefore the direction of acceleration is vertically downward, in the direction of acceleration due to gravity.
(b) At the highest point of its motion velocity is zero and acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s) in vertically downward direction.
(c) If we choose the highest point as x = 0 m and t0 = 0 s and vertically downward direction to be the positive direction of X- axis then,

During upward motion
Sign of position is negative.
Sign of velocity is negative.
Sign of acceleration is positive.

During downward motion Sign of position is positive.
Sign of velocity is positive.
Sign of acceleration is positive.

(d) Let the ball rises upto maximum height h.
Initial velocity of ball (u) = 29.4 m/s
g = 9.8 m/s
Final velocity at maximum height (υ) = 0
Using equation of motion, υ2 = u2 – 2gh
0 = (29.4)2 – 2 × 9.8 × h
or h = \(\frac{29.4 \times 29.4}{2 \times 9.8}\) = 44.1
Again using equation of motion, υ = u – gt
0 = 29.4 -9.8t
or t = \(\frac{29.4}{9.8}\) = 3s
Time of ascent is always equal to the time of descent.
Total time after which the ball returns to the player’s hand = 2t = 2 × 3 = 6s

Question 11.
Read each statement below carefully and state with reasons and examples, if it is true or false;
A particle in one-dimensional motion
(a) with zero speed at an instant may have non-zero acceleration at that instant’
(b) with zero speed may have non-zero velocity,
(c) with constant speed must have zero acceleration,
(d) with positive value of acceleration must be speeding up.
Answer:
(a) True
Explanation: When an object is thrown vertically up in the air, its speed becomes zero at maximum height. However, it has acceleration equal to the acceleration due to gravity (g) that acts in the downward direction at that point.
Speed is the magnitude of velocity. When speed is zero, the magnitude of velocity along with the velocity is zero.

(b) False
Explanation: A car moving on a straight highway with constant speed will have constant velocity. Since acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity, acceleration of the car is also zero.

(c) True
Explanation: This statement is false in the situation when acceleration is positive and velocity is negative at the instant time taken as origin. Then, for all the time before velocity becomes zero, there is slowing down of the particle. Such a case happens when a particle is projected upwards.

(d) False
Explanation: This statement is true when both velocity and acceleration are positive, at the instant time taken as origin. Such a case happens when a particle is moving with positive acceleration or falling vertically downwards from a height.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 12.
A ball is dropped from a height of 90 m on a floor. At each collision with the floor, the ball loses one tenth of its speed. Plot the speed-time graph of its motion between t = 0 to 12 s.
Solution:
Ball is dropped from a height, s = 90 m
Initial velocity of the ball, u = 0
Acceleration, a = g = 9.8 m/s2
Final velocity of the ball = υ
From second equation of motion, time (t) taken by the ball to hit the ground can be obtained as:
s = ut + \(\frac {1}{2}\)at2
90 = 0 + \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 9.8t2
t = \(\sqrt{18.38}\) = 4.29 s
From first equation of motion, final velocity is given as:
υ = u + at
= 0 + 9.8 × 4.29 = 42.04 m/s
Rebound velocity of the ball, ur = \(\frac {9}{10}\) υ = \(\frac {9}{10}\) × 42.04 = 37.84 m/s

Time (t) taken by the ball to reach maximum height is obtained with the help of first equation of motion as:
υ =ur + at’
0 = 37.84 + (-9.8) t’
t’ = \(\frac{-37.84}{-9.8}\) = 3.86s
Total time taken by the ball = t + t’ = 4.29 + 3.86 = 8.15 s
As the time of ascent is equal to the time of descent, the ball takes 3.86 s to strike back on the floor for the second time.
The velocity with which the ball rebounds from the floor
= \(\frac {9}{10}\) × 37.84 = 34.05m/s
Total time taken by the ball for second rebound = 8.15 + 3.86 = 12.01 s The speed-time graph of the ball is represented in the given figure as :
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 5

Question 13.
Explain clearly, with examples, the distinction between the following:
(a) magnitude of displacement (sometimes called distance) over an interval of time, and the total length of path covered by a particle over the same interval;

(b) magnitude of average velocity over an interval of time, and the average speed over the same interval. [Average speed of a particle over an interval of time is defined as the total path length divided by the time interval].
Show in both (a) and (h) that the second quantity is either greater than or equal to the first.
When is the equality sign true? [For simplicity, consider one-dimensional motion only].
Solution:
(a) The magnitude of displacement over an interval of time is the shortest distance (which is a straight line) between the initial and final positions of the particle.
The total path length of a particle is the actual path length covered by the particle in a given interval of time.
For example, suppose a particle moves from point A to point B and then, comes back to a point, C taking a total time t, as shown below. Then, the magnitude of displacement of the particle = AC.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 6
Whereas, total path length = AB+BC
It is also important to note that the magnitude of displacement can never be greater than the total path length. However, in some cases, both quantities are equal to each other.

(b)PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 7
For the given particle,
Average velocity = \(\frac{A C}{t}\)
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 8
= \(\frac{A B+B C}{t}\)
Since (AB + BC)> AC, average speed is greater than the magnitude of average velocity. The two quantities will be equal if the particle continues to move along a straight line.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 14.
A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km h-1. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the
(a) magnitude of average velocity, and
(b) average speed of the man over the interval of time? (i) 0 to 30 min, (ii) 0 to 50 min, (iii) 0 to 40 min?
[Note: You will appreciate from this exercise why it is better to define average speed as total path length divided by time, and not as magnitude of average velocity. You would not like to tell the tired man on his return home that his average speed was zero.]
Solution:
(a) A man return his home, therefore total displacement of the man = 0
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 9

(b) Speed of man during motion from his home to the market υ1 = 5 km/h
Speed of man during from market his home υ2 =7.5 km/h
Distance between his home and market = 2.5 km
(i) Taking time interval 0 to 30 min.
Time taken by the man to reach the market from home,
t1 = \(\frac{2.5}{5}=\frac{1}{2}\) = h = 30 min
Hence, the man moves from his home to the market in t = 0 to 30 min.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 10

(ii) Taking time interval 0 to 50 min.
Time taken by man in returning to his home from the market
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 11

(iii) Taking time interval 0 to 40 min.
Distance travelled in first 30 min = 2.5 km
Distance travelled by the man (from market to home) in the next 10 min
= 7.5 × \(\frac{10}{60}\) =1.25 km
Net displacement 2.5 -1.25 = 1.25 km
Total distance travelled = 2.5 +1.25 = 3.75 km
Average velocity = \(\frac{1.25}{\left(\frac{40}{60}\right)}\) = \(\frac{1.25 \times 3}{2}\) = 1.875 km/h
Average speed = \(\frac{3.75}{\left(\frac{40}{60}\right)}\) = 5.625 km/h

Question 15.
In questions 13 and 14, we have carefully distinguished between average speed and magnitude of average velocity. No such distinction is necessary when we consider instantaneous speed and magnitude of velocity. The instantaneous speed is always equal to the magnitude of instantaneous velocity. Why?
Solution:
Instantaneous velocity is given by the first derivative of distance with respect to time i. e.,
υm = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\)
Here, the time interval dt is so small that it is assumed that the particle does not change its direction of motion. As a result, both the total path length and magnitude of displacement become equal is this interval of time.
Therefore, instantaneous speed is always equal to instantaneous velocity.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 16.
Look at the graphs (a) to (d) carefully and state, with reasons, which of these cannot possibly represent one-dimensional motion of a particle.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 12
Solution:
(a) The given x – t graph, shown in (a), does not represent one-dimensional motion of the particle. This is because a particle cannot have two positions at the same instant of time.
(b) The given υ – t graph, shown in (b), does not represent one-dimensional motion of the particle. This is because a particle can never have two values of velocity at the same instant of time.
(c) The given υ – t graph, shown in (c), does not represent one-dimensional motion of the particle. This is because speed being a scalar quantity cannot be negative.
(d) The given total path length-time graph, shown in (d), does not represent one dimensional motion of the particle. This is because the total path length travelled by the particle cannot decrease with time.

Question 17.
Figure shows the x – t plot of one-dimensional motion of a particle. Is it correct to say from the graph that the particle’ moves in a straight line for t< 0 and on a parabolic path for t > 0 ? If not, suggest a suitable physical context for this graph.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 13
Solution:
No; The x – t graph of a particle moving in a straight line for t < 0 and on a parabolic path for t > 0 cannot be shown as the given graph. This is because, the given particle does not follow the trajectory of path followed by the particle as t = 0, x = 0. A physical situation that resembles the above graph is of a freely falling body held for sometime at a height.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 18.
A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h-1 fires a bullet at a theifs car speeding away in the same direction with a speed of 192 km h-1. If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 m s-1, with what speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car ?
(Note: Obtain that speed which is relevant for damaging the thief’s car).
Solution:
Speed of the police van, υp = 30 km/h = 8.33 m/s
Muzzle speed of the bullet, υb = 150 m/s
Speed of the thief s car, υt =192 km/h = 53.33 m/s
Since the bullet is fired from a moving van, its resultant speed can be obtained as:
= 150 +8.33 = 158.33 m/s
Since, both the vehicles are moving in the same direction, the velocity with which the bullet hits the thief s car can be obtained as:
υbt = υb – υt
= 158.33 – 53.33 = 105 m/s

Question 19.
Suggest a suitable physical situation for each of the following graphs:
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 14
Solution:
(a) The given x – t graph shows that initially a body was at rest. Then, its velocity increases with time and attains an instantaneous constant value. The velocity then reduces to zero with an increase in time. Then, its velocity increases with time in the opposite direction and acquires a constant value. A similar physical situation arises when a football (initially kept at rest) is kicked and gets rebound from a rigid wall so that its speed gets reduced. Then, it passes from the player who has kicked it and ultimately gets stopped after sometime.

(b) In the given v-t graph, the sign of velocity changes and its magnitude decreases with a passage of time. A similar situation arises when a ball is dropped on the hard floor from a height. It strikes the floor with some velocity and upon rebound, its velocity decreases by a factor. This continues till the velocity of the ball eventually becomes zero.

(c) The given a – t graph reveals that initially the body is moving with a certain uniform velocity. Its acceleration increases for a short interval of time, which again drops to zero. This indicates that the body again starts moving with the same constant velocity. A similar physical situation arises when a hammer moving with a uniform velocity strikes a nail.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 20.
Figure gives the x – t plot of a particle executing one-dimensional simple harmonic motion. (You will learn about this motion in more detail in Chapter 14). Give the signs of position, velocity and acceleration variables of the particle at t = 0.3 s, 1.2 s,-1.2 s.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 15
Solution:
For simple harmonic motion (SHM) of a particle, acceleration (a) is given by the relation:
a = -ω2x ……. (i)
where, ω → angular frequency
At t = 0.3 s
In this time interval, x is negative. Thus, the slope of the x – t plot will also be negative. Therefore, both position and velocity are negative. However, using equation (i), acceleration of the particle will be positive.
At t = 1.2s
In this time interval, x is positive. Thus, the slope of the x – t plot will also be positive. Therefore, both position and velocity are positive. However, using equation (i), acceleration of the particle comes to be negative.
t = -1.2s
In this time interval, x is negative. Thus, the slope of the x – t plot will also be negative. Since both x and t are negative, the velocity comes to be positive. From equation (i), it can be inferred that the acceleration of the particle will be positive.

Question 21.
Figure gives the x – t plot of a particle in one-dimensional motion. Three different equal intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average speed greatest, and in which is it the least? Give the sign of average velocity for each interval.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 16
Solution:
The average speed of a particle shown in the x – t graph is obtained from the slope of the graph in a particular interval of time.
It is clear from the graph that the slope is maximum and minimum restively in intervals 3 and 2 respectively. Therefore, the average speed of the particle is the greatest in interval 3 and is the least in interval 2. The
sign of average velocity is positive in both intervals 1 and 2 as the slope is positive in these intervals. However, it is negative in interval 3 because the slope is negative in this interval.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 22.
Figure gives a speed-time graph of a particle in motion along a constant direction. Three equal intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average acceleration greatest in magnitude? In which interval is the average speed greatest? Choosing the positive direction as the constant direction of motion, give the signs of v and a in the three intervals. What are the accelerations at the points A, B, C and D?
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 17
Solution:
Acceleration is given by the slope of the speed-time graph. In the given case, it is given by the slope of the speed-time graph within the,given interval of time.

Since the slope of the given speed-time graph is maximum in interval 2, average acceleration will be the greatest in this interval.
Height of the curve from the time-axis gives the average speed of the particle. It is clear that the height is the greatest in interval 3. Hence, . average speed of the particle is the greatest in interval 3.

In interval 1: The slope of the speed-time graph is positive. Hence, acceleration is positive. Similarly, the speed of the particle is positive in this interval.

In interval 2: The slope of the speed-time graph is negative. Hence, acceleration is negative in this interval. However, speed is positive because it is a scalar quantity.

In interval 3: The slope of the speed-time graph is zero. Hence, acceleration is zero in this interval. However, here the particle acquires some uniform speed. It is positive in this interval.

Points A, B, C and D are all parallel to the time-axis. Hence, the slope is zero at these points. Therefore, at points A, B, C and D, acceleration of the particle is zero.

Question 23.
A three-wheeler starts from rest, accelerates uniformly with 1 m s-2 on a straight road for 10 s, and then moves with uniform velocity. Plot the distance covered by the vehicle during the nth second (n = 1, 2, 3,…)versus n. What do you expect this plot to be during accelerated motion: a straight line or a parabola?
Solution:
Distance covered by a body in nth second is given by the relation
Dn = u + \(\frac{a}{2}\)(2n – 1) ……………(i)
where, u = Initial velocity, a = Acceleration, n = Time = 1, 2, 3, …. , n
In the given case,
u = 0 and a = 1 m/s2
.-. Dn = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(2n – 1) ……………… (ii)
This relation shows that
Dn ∝ n ………………(iii)
Now, substituting different values of n in equation (ii), we get the following table:
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 18
Since the three-wheeler acquires uniform velocity after 10 s, the line , will be parallel to the time-axis after n = 10 s.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 24.
A boy standing on a stationary lift (open from above) throws a ball upwards with the maximum initial speed he can, equal to 49 m/s. How much time does the ball take to return to his hands? If the lift starts moving up with a uniform speed of 5 m/s and the boy again throws the ball up with the maximum speed he can, how long does the ball take to return to his hands?
Solution:
Initial velocity of the ball, u = 49 m/s
Acceleration, a = -g = – 9.8 m/s2
Case I:
When the lift was stationary, the boy throws the ball.
Taking upward motion of the ball,
Final velocity, υ of the ball becomes zero at the highest point.
From first equation of motion, time of ascent (t) is given as
υ = u + at
t = \(\frac{v-u}{a}\)
\(\frac{-49}{-9.8}\) = 5s
But, the time of ascent is equal to the time of descent.
Hence, the total time taken by the ball to return to the boy’s hand
= 5 + 5 = 10 s
Motion in a Straight Line 53

Case II:
The lift was moving up with a uniform velocity of 5 m/s. In this case, the relative velocity of the ball with respect to the boy remains the same i. e., 49 m/s. Therefore, in this case also, the ball will return back to the boy’s hand after 10 s.

Question 25.
On a long horizontally moving belt (see figure) a child runs to and fro with a speed 9 km h-1 (with respect to the belt) between his father and mother located 50 m apart on the moving belt. The belt moves with a speed of 4 km h-1. For an observer on a stationary platform outside, what is the
(a) speed of the child running in the direction of motion of the belt?
(b) speed of the child running opposite to the direction of motion of the belt?
(c) time taken by the child in (a) and (b) ?
Which of the answers alter if motion is viewed by one of the parents?
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 19
Solution:
Speed of the belt, υB = 4 km/h
Speed of the child, υC = 9 km/h

(a) Since the child is running in the same direction of the motion of the belt, his speed (as observed by the stationary observer) can be obtained as
υCB = υC + υB = 9 + 4 = 13 km/h

(b) Since the child is running in the direction opposite to the direction of the motion of the belt, his speed (as observed by the stationary observer) can be obtained as
υCB = υC + (-υB) = 9 – 4 = 5 km/h

(c) Distance between the child’s parents = 50 m
As both parents are standing on the moving belt, the speed of the child in either direction as observed by the parents will remain the same i. e.,
9 km/h = 9 x \(\frac{5}{18}\) m/s = 2.5 m/s.
18
Hence, the time taken by the child in case (a) and (b) is given by
\(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Speed }}=\frac{50}{2.5}\) = 20 s.
If the motion is viewed by any one of the parents, answers obtained in (a) and (b) get altered. This is because the child and his parents are standing on the same belt and hence, are equally affected by the motion of the belt. Therefore, for both parents (irrespective of the direction of motion) the speed of the child remains the same i.e., 9 km/h.

For this reason, it can be concluded that the time taken by the child to reach any one of his parents remains unaltered.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 26.
Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 200 m high with initial speeds of 15 m/s and 30 m/s. Verify that the graph shown in figure correctly represents the time variation of the relative position of the second stone with respect to the first. Neglect air resistance and assume that the stones do not rebound after hitting the ground. Take g = 10 m/s2. Give the equations for the linear and curved parts of the plot.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 20
Solution:
For first stone:
Initial velocity, u1 =15 m/s
Acceleration, a = -g = -10 m/s2
Using the relation,
x1 = x0 + u1t + \(\frac {1}{2}\)at2
where, x0 = Height of the cliff = 200 m
x1 =200 + 15t – 5t2 ………………. (i)
When this stone hits the ground, x1 = 0
-5t2 +15t + 200 = 0
t2 – 3t – 40 =0
t2 – 8t + 5t – 40 = 0
t(t – 8) + 5(t – 8) = 0
(t – 8)(t + 5) = 0
t = 8 s or t = -5s
Since the stone was projected at time t = 0, the negative sign before time is meaningless.
∴ t = 8s

For second stone:
Initial velocity, u2 = 30 m/s
Acceleration, a = -g = -10 m/s2
Using the relation,
x2 = x0 + u2t + \(\frac {1}{2}\)at2
= 200 + 30t – 5t2 ……………. (ii)
At the moment when this stone hits the ground; x2 = 0
-5t2 + 30t + 200 = 0
t2 – 6t – 40 = 0
t2 -10t + 4t + 40 = 0
t(t – 10) + 4(t – 10) = 0
(t – 10)(t + 4) = 0
t = 10 s or t = -4 s
Here again, the negative sign before time is meaningless.
∴ t = 10 s
Subtracting eq. (i) from eq. (ii), we get
x2 – x1 = (200 +30t – 5t2) – (200 + 15t – 5t2)
x2 – x1 = 15t …………….. (iii)
Equation (iii) represents the linear path of both stones. Due to this linear relation between
(x2 – x1) and t, the path remains a straight line till 8 s.
Maximum separation between the two stones is at t = 8 s.
(x2 – x1] )max = 15 × 8 = 120 m
This is in accordance with the given graph.
After 8 s, only second stone is in motion whose variation with time is given by the quadratic equation :
x2 – x1 = 200 + 30t – 5t2
Hence, the equation of linear and curved path is given by
x2 – x1 = 15t (Linear path)
x2 – x1 = 200 + 30t – 5t2 (Curved path)

Question 27.
The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a fixed direction is shown in figure given below. Obtain the distance traversed by the particle between (a) t = 0 s to 10 s, (b) t = 2 s to 6 s.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 21
What is the average speed of the particle over the intervals in (a) and (b)?
Solution:
(a) Distance travelled by the particle = Area under the given graph
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (10 – 0) × (12 – 0) = 60 m
Average speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }}\) = \(\frac{60}{10}\) = 6 m/s

(b) Let s1 and s2 be the distances covered by the particle between time t = 2 s to 5 s and t = 5 s to 6 s respectively.
Total distance (s) covered by the particle in time t = 2 s to 6 s
S = S1 + s2 ……………… (i)

For distance S1:
Let u’ be the velocity of the particle after 2 s and a’ be the acceleration of the particle in t = 0 to t = 5 s.
Since the particle undergoes uniform acceleration in the interval t = 0 to t = 5 s, from first equation of motion, acceleration can be obtained as:
υ = u + at
Where, υ = Final velocity of the particle
12. = 0 + a’ × 5
a’ = \(\frac{12}{5}\) = 2.4 m/s2 .
Again, from first equation of motion, we have
υ = u + at
= 0 + 2.4 × 2 = 4.8 m/s
Distance travelled by the particle between time 2 s and 5 s i. e., in 3 s
S1 = u’t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a’t2
= 4.8 × 3 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2.4 × (3)2
= 25.2 m ……………… (ii)

For distance S2:
Let a” be the acceleration of the particle between time t = 5 s and t = 10s.
From first equation of motion,
υ = u + at (where υ = 0 as the particle finally comes to rest)
0 = 12 + a” × 5
a” = \(\frac{-12}{5}\)
= -2.4 m/s2
Distance travelled by the particle in Is (i. e., between t = 5 s and t = 6 s)
S2 = u”t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
= 12 × a + \(\frac{1}{2}\)(-2.4) × (1)2
= 12 – 1.2 = 10.8 m ……………… (iii)
From equations (i), (ii), and (iii), we get
S = 25.2 + 10.8 = 36 m
∴ Average speed = \(\frac{36}{4}\) = 9 m/s

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 28.
The velocity-time graph of a particle in one-dimensional motion is shown in figure.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 22
Which of the following formulae are correct for describing the motion of the particle over the time-interval t1 to t2 ?
(a) x(t2) = x(t1) + υ(t1)(t2 – t1) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) a(t2 – t1)2
(b) υ(t2) = υ(t1)+a(t2 – t1)
(c) Average = [x(t2) – x(t1)] /(t2 – t1)
(d) Average = [(t2 ) – υ(t1)] / (t2 – t1)
(e) x(t2) = x(t1) + υAverage (t2 – t1) + (\(\frac {1}{2}\)) aAverage (t2 – t1)2
(f) x (tsub>2) – x (tsub>1) = area under the υ – t curve bounded by the t-axis and the dotted line shown.
Solution:
The slope of the given graph over the time interval tsub>1 to tsub>2 is not constant and is not uniform. It means acceleration is not constant and is not uniform, therefore, relation (a), (b) and (e) are not correct which is for uniform accelerated motion, but relations (c), (d) and (f) are correct, because these relations are true for both uniform or non-uniform accelerated motion.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Physics Book Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 14 Oscillations

PSEB 11th Class Physics Guide Oscillations Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following examples represent periodic motion?
(a) A swimmer completing one (return) trip from one bank of a river to the other and back.
(b) A freely suspended bar magnet displaced from its N-S direction and released.
(c) A hydrogen molecule rotating about its center of mass.
(d) An arrow released from a bow.
Solution:
(b) and (c)
Explanations :
(a) The swimmer’s motion is not periodic. The motion of the swimmer between the banks of a river is back and forth. However, it does not have a definite period. This is because the time taken by the swimmer during his back and forth journey may not be the same.

(b) The motion of a freely-suspended magnet, if displaced from its N-S direction and released, is periodic. This is because the magnet oscillates about its position with a definite period of time.

(c) When a hydrogen molecule rotates about its center of mass, it comes to the same position again and again after an equal interval of time. Such motion is periodic.

(d) An arrow released from a bow moves only in the forward direction. It does not come backward. Hence, this motion is not a periodic.

Question 2.
Which of the following examples represent (nearly) simple harmonic motion and which represent periodic but not simple harmonic motion?
(a) the rotation of earth about its axis.
(b) motion of an oscillating mercury column in a 17-tube.
(c) motion of a ball bearing inside a smooth curved bowl, when released from a point slightly above the lowermost point.
(d) general vibrations of a polyatomic molecule about its equilibrium position.
Solution:
(b) and (c) are SHMs; (a) and (d) are periodic, but not SHMs
Explanations :
(a) During its rotation about its axis, earth comes to the same position again and again in equal intervals of time. Hence, it is a periodic motion. However, this motion is not simple harmonic. This is because earth does not have a to and fro motion about its axis.

(b) An oscillating mercury column in a [/-tube is simple harmonic. This is because the mercury moves to and fro on the same path, about the fixed position, with a certain period of time.

(c) The ball moves to and fro about the lowermost point of the bowl when released. Also, the ball comes back to its initial position in the same period of time, again and again. Hence, its motion is periodic as well as simple harmonic.

(d) A polyatomic molecule has many natural frequencies of oscillation. Its vibration is the superposition of individual simple harmonic motions of a number of different molecules. Hence, it is not simple harmonic, but periodic.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations

Question 3.
Figure depicts four x-t plots for linear motion of a particle. Which of the plots represents periodic motion? What is the period of motion (in case of periodic motion)?
(a)
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 1
(b)
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 2
(c)
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 3
(d)
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 4
Solution:
(b) and (d) are periodic
Explanation :
(a) It is not a periodic motion. This represents a unidirectional, linear uniform motion. There is no repetition of motion in this case.
(b) In this case, the motion of the particle repeats itself after 2 s. Hence, it is a periodic motion, having a period of 2 s.
(c) It is not a periodic motion. This is because the particle repeats the motion in one position only. For a periodic motion, the entire motion of the particle must be repeated in equal intervals of time. In this case, the motion of the particle repeats itself after 2 s. Hence, it is a periodic motion, having a period of 2 s.

Question 4.
Which of the following functions of time represent (a) simple ‘ harmonic, (b) periodic but not simple harmonic, and (c) non¬periodic motion? Give period for each case of periodic motion (a is any positive constant):
(a) sin ωt – cos ωt
(b) sin 3ωt
(c) 3cos(\(\pi / 4 \) -2ωt)
(d) cos ωt +cos 3 ωt+cos 5ωt
(e) exp(-ω2t2)
(f) 1+ ωt+ω2t
Solution:
(a) SHM
The given function is:
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 5
This function represents SHM as it can be written in the form: a sin (ωt +Φ)
Its period is: \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\)

(b) Periodic, but not SHM The given function is:
sin3 ωt = \(\frac{1}{4}\) [3sinωt -sin3ωt] (∵ sin3θ = 3sinθ – 4sin3 θ)
The terms sin cot and sin 3 ωt individually represent simple harmonic motion (SHM). However, the superposition of two SHM is periodic and not simple harmonic.

Period of\(\frac{3}{4}\)sin ωt = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) = T
Period of\(\frac{1}{4}\)sin3ωt = \(\frac{2 \pi}{3 \omega}\) = T’ = \(\frac{T}{3}\)
Thus, period of the combination
= Minimum time after which the combined function repeats
= LCM of T and \(\frac{T}{3}\) = T
Its period is 2 \(\pi / \omega\)

(c) SHM
The given function is:
3 cos \(\left[\frac{\pi}{4}-2 \omega t\right]\) = 3 cos \(\left[2 \omega t-\frac{\pi}{4}\right]\)
This function represents simple harmonic motion because it can be written in the form:
acos(ωt +Φ)

Its period is :
\(\frac{2 \pi}{2 \omega}=\frac{\pi}{\omega}\)

(d) Periodic, but not SHM
The given function is cosωt +cos3ωt +cos5ωt. Each individual cosme function represents SHM. However, the superposition of threc simple harmonic motions is periodic, but not simple harmonic.

cosωt represents SHM with period = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) T (say)
cos 3ωt represents SHM with period = \(\frac{2 \pi}{3 \omega}=\frac{T}{3}\)
cos 5ωt represents SHM with period = \(\frac{2 \pi}{5 \omega}=\frac{T}{5}\)
The minimum time after which the combined function repeats its value is T. Hence, the given function represents periodic function but not SHM, with period T.

(e) Non-periodic motion: .
The given function exp(- ω2t2) is an exponential function. Exponential functions do not repeat themselves. Therefore, it is a non-periodic motion.

(f) Non-periodic motion
The given function is 1+ ωt + ω2t2
Here no repetition of values. Hence, it represents non-periodic motion.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations

Question 5.
A particle Is in linear simple harmonic motion between two points, A and B, 10 cm apart Take the direction from A to B as the positive direction and give the signs of velocity, acceleration and force on the particle when It Is
(a) at the end A,
(b) at the end B,
(c) at the midpoint of AB going towards A,
(d) at 2 cm away from B going towards A,
(e) at 3 cm away from A going towards B, and
(f) at 4 cm away from B going towards A.
Solution:
The given situation is shown in the following figure. Points A and B are the two endpoints, with AB =10cm. 0 is the midpoint of the path.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 6
A particle is in linear simple harmonic motion between the endpoints
(a) At the extreme point A, the particle is at rest momentarily. Hence, its velocity is zero at this point.
Its acceleration is positive as it is directed along with AO.
Force is also positive in this case as the particle is directed rightward.

(b) At the extreme point B, the particle is at rest momentarily. Hence, its velocity is zero at this point.
Its acceleration is negative as it is directed along B.
Force is also negative in this case as the particle is directed leftward.

(c) PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 7
The particle is extending a simple harmonic motion. O is the mean position of the particle. Its velocity at the mean position O is the maximum. The value for velocity is negative as the partide Is directed leftward. The acceleration and force of a particle executing SHM is zero at the mean position.

(d) PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 8
The particle is moving towards point O from the end B. This direction of motion is opposite to the conventional positive direction, which is from A to R. Hence, the particle’s velocity and acceleration, and the force on it are all negative.

(e)
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 9
The particle is moving towards point O from the end A. This direction of motion is from A to B, which is the conventional positive direction. Hence, the value for velocity, acceleration, and force are all positive.

(f)
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 10
This case is similar to the one given in (d).

Question 6.
Whi ch of the following relationships between the acceleration a and the displacement x of a particle involves simple harmonic motion?
(a) a=0.7x
(b) a=-200x2
(c) a= – 10 x (d) a=100x3
Solution:
A motion represents simple harmonic motion if it is governed by the force law:
F=-kx
ma’= -kx
∴ a = – \(\frac{k}{m}\) x

where F is the force
m is the mass (a constant for a body)
x is the displacement
a is the acceleration.
k is a constant
Among the given equations, only equation a = -10 x is written in the
above form with \( \frac{k}{m}\) =10. Hence, this relation represents SHM.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations

Question 7.
The motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is described by the displacement function,
x(t) = A cos (ωt+Φ)
If the initial (t = 0) position of the particle is 1 cm and its initial velocity is ω cm/s, what are its amplitude and initial phase angle? The angular frequency of the particle is πs-1. If instead of the cosine function, we choose the sine function to describe the SHM:x = B sin(ωt + α), what are the amplitude and initial phase of the particle with the above initial conditions.
Solution:
Initially, at t = 0:
Displacement, x = 1 cm Initial velocity, ν = ω cm/s.
Angular frequency, ω = π rad s-1
It is given that:
x(t) = Acos (ωt+Φ)
1 = Acos(ω x 0 +Φ) = AcosΦ
AcosΦ =1 ……………………………….. (i)

Velocity, ν = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\)
ω = -Aω sin(ωt +Φ)
1 = -Asin(ω x 0 +Φ) = -AsinΦ
Asin Φ = -1 ………………………… (ii)
Squaring and adding equations (i) and (ii), we get
A2(sin2Φ +cos2Φ) = 1+1
A2 = 2
∴ A = \(\sqrt{2}\) cm

Dividing equation (ii) by equation (i), we get
tanΦ = -1
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 11
SHM is given as
x = Bsin(ωt + α)
Putting the given values in this equation, we get 1 =B sin (ωt + α)
B sin α =1 …………………………… (iii)

Velocity, ν = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\)
ω =(ωB cos (ωt + a)
1 =B cos (ω x 0+α ) = B cos α …………………………………… (iv)
Squaring and adding equations (iii) and (iv), we get
B2 [sin2α +cos2 α] =1+1
B2 =2
B = \(\sqrt{2}\) cm
Dividing equation (iii) by equation (iv), we get
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 12

Question 8.
A spring balance has a scale that reads from 0 to 50kg. The length of the scale is 20 cm. A body suspended from this balance, when displaced and released, oscillates with a period of 0.6 s. What is the weight of the body?
Solution:
Maximum mass that the scale can read, M = 50 kg
Maximum displacement of the spring = Length of the scale, l = 20 cm = 0.2 m Time period, T =0.6s
Maximum force exerted on the spring, F = Mg where,
g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2
F = 50 × 9.8 = 490 N
∴ Spring constant , K = \(\frac{F}{l}=\frac{490}{0.2}\) = 2450Nm-1

Mass m, is suspended from the balance,
Time period, T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
∴ m = \(\left(\frac{T}{2 \pi}\right)^{2} \times k=\left(\frac{0.6}{2 \times 3.14}\right)^{2} \times 2450 \) = 22.36 kg
∴ Weight of the body = mg = 22.36 x 9.8 = 219.167N
Hence, the weight of the body is about 219 N.

Question 9.
Aspringhavingwith aspiring constant 1200Nm-1 is mounted on a horizontal table as shown in figure. A mss of 3kg is attached to the free end of the spring. The mass is then pulled sideways to a distance of 2.0cm and released.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 13
Determine (i) the frequency of oscillations,
(ii) maximum acceleration of the mass, and
(iii) the maximum speed of the mass.
Solution:
Spring constant, k = 1200 Nm-1
mass,m = 3 Kg
Displacement,A = 2.0 cm = 0.02 m
(i) Frequency of oscillation y, is gyen by the relation
V = \(\frac{1}{T}=\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\)
where, T is the time period
∴ v = \(\frac{1}{2 \times 3.14} \sqrt{\frac{1200}{3}}\) = 3.18 s-1
Hence, the frequency of oscillations is 3.18 s-1.

(ii) Maximum acceleration a is given by the relation:
a = ω2A
where,
ω = Angular frequency = \(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\)
A = Maximum displacement
∴ a = \(\frac{k}{m} A=\frac{1200 \times 0.02}{3}\) = 8 ms-2
Hence, the maximum acceleration of the mass is 8.0 ms2

(iii) Maximum speed, νmax = Aω
= \(A \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}=0.02 \times \sqrt{\frac{1200}{3}}\) = 0.4 m/s
Hence, the maximum speed of the mass is 0.4 m/s.

Question 10.
In question 9, let us take the position of mass when the spring is unstretched as x =0, and the direction from left to right as the positive direction of x-axis. Give x as a function of time t for the oscillating massif at the moment we start the stopwatch (t = 0), the mass is
(a) at the mean position,
(b) at the maximum stretched position, and
(c) at the maximum compressed position.
In what way do these functions for SHM differ from each other, in frequency, in amplitude br the initial phase?
Solution:
(a) The functions have the same frequency and amplitude, but different initial phases.
Distance travelled by the mass sideways, A = 2.0 cm
Force constant of the spring, k =1200 N m-1
Mass, m =3kg
Angular frequency of oscillation,
ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{1200}{3}} \) = \(\sqrt{400}\) = 20 rad s-1
When the mass is at the mean position, initial phase is 0.
Displacement,
x = A sinωt = 2 sin20 t

(b) At the maximum stretched position, the mass is toward the extreme right. Hence, the initial phase is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Displacement, x = Asin \(\left(\omega t+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
=2sin\(\left(20 t+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
= 2 cos 20t

(c) At the maximum compressed position, the mass is toward the extreme left. Hence, the initial phase is \(\frac{3 \pi}{2}\)
Displacement, x = A sin \(\left(\omega t+\frac{3 \pi}{2}\right)\)
= 2sin \(\left(20 t+\frac{3 \pi}{2}\right)\) = -2cos 20t
The functions have the same frequencyl \(\left(\frac{20}{2 \pi} \mathrm{Hz}\right)\) land amplitude (2cm),
but different initial phases \(\left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3 \pi}{2}\right)\)

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations

Question 11.
Figures correspond to two circular motions. The radius of the circle, the period of revolution, the initial position, and the sense of revolution (i. e., clockwise or anti-clockwise) are indicated on each figure.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 14
Obtain the corresponding simple harmonic motions of the x-projection of the radius vector of the revolving particle P, in each case.
solution:
Time period,T =2s
Amplitude, A = 3cm
At time, t = O, the radius vector OP makes an angle \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) with the positive x -axis, i.e., phase angle Φ = + \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Therefore, the equation of simple harmonic motion for the x —projection of OP, at time t, is given by the displacement equation
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 15

(b) Time period, T = 4s
Amplitude, a =2 m
At time t = 0, OP makes an angle ir with the x-axis, in the anticlockwise direction. Hence, phase angle, Φ = +π
Therefore, the equation of simple harmonic motion for the x -projection of OP, at time t, is given as
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 16

Question 12.
Plot the corresponding reference circle for each of the following simple harmonic motions. Indicate the initial (t = 0) position of the particle, the radius of the circle, and the angular speed of the rotating particle. For simplicity, the sense of rotation may be fixed to be anticlockwise in every case: (x is in cm and t is in s).
(a) x= – 2sin(3t+\(\pi / \mathbf{3}\) )
(b) x=cos (\(\pi / 6\) – t)
(c) x=3 sin (2πt + \(\pi / 4 \) )
(d) x=2 cos πt
Solution:
(a) x = -2 sin \(\left(3 t+\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=+2 \cos \left(3 t+\frac{\pi}{3}+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=2 \cos \left(3 t+\frac{5 \pi}{6}\right) \)

If this equation is compared with the standard SHM equation,
x =A cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t+\phi\right)\) then we get
Amplitude, A = 2cm
Phase angle, Φ = \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\) =150°
Angular velocity, ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) =3 rad/sec
The motion of the particle can be pokted as shown in the following figure.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 17

(b) x=cos \(\left(\frac{\pi}{6}-t\right)\) =cos \(\left(t-\frac{\pi}{6}\right)\)
If this equation is compared with the standard SHM equation,
x = A cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t+\phi\right)\) then we get
Amplitude, A = 1 cm
Phase angle, Φ = \(-\frac{\pi}{6} \) = – 30°
Angular velocity, ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) =1 rad/s
The motion of the particle can be plotted as shown in the following figure.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 18

(c) x =3sin \(\left(2 \pi t+\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 19
If this equation is compared with the standard SHM equation
x = Acos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t+\phi\right)\) then we get
Amplitude, A = 3cm
Phase angle, Φ = \(-\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Angular velocity, ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) = 2π rad/s
The motion of the particle can be plotted as shown in the following figure.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 20

(d) x=2cosπt
If this equation is compared with the standard SHM equation,
x = A cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t+\phi\right) \) then we get
Amplitude, A = 2cm
Phase angle, Φ = 0
Angular velocity, ω = π rad/s
The motion of the particle can be plotted as shown in the following figure.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 21

Question 13.
Figure (a) shows a spring of force constant k clamped rigidly at one end and a mass m attached to its free end. A force F applied at the free end stretches the spring. Figure (b) shows the same spring with both ends free and attached to a mass m at either end. Each end of the spring in figure (b) is stretched by the same force F.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 22

(a) What is the minimum extension of the spring in the two cases?
(b) If the mass in Fig. (a) and the two masses in Fig. (b) are released, what is the period of oscillation in each case?
Solution:
(a) For the one block system:
When a force F, is applied to the free end of the spring, an extension l, is produced. For the maximum extension, it can be written as:
F=kl
where k is the spring constant
Hence, the maximum extension produced in the spring, l = \(\frac{F}{k}\)
For the two blocks system:
The displacement (x) produced in this case is:
x = \(\frac{l}{2}\)
Net force, F = +2kx =2k \(\frac{l}{2}\)
∴ l = \(\frac{F}{k}\)

(b) For the one blocks system:
For mass (m) of the block, force is written as
F = ma = m \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\)
where, x is the displacement of the block in time t
∴ m \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) = -kx
It is negative because the direction of elastic force is opposite to the direction of displacement.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 23
where, ω is angular frequency of the oscillation
∴ Time period of the oscillation,
T= \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}=\frac{2 \pi}{\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)

For the two blocks system:
F=m \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\)
m \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) =-2kx

It is negative because the direction of elastic force is opposite to the direction of displacement.
\(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) = \(-\left[\frac{2 k}{m}\right] x \) = – ω2x
where, Angular frequency, ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 k}{m}}\)
∴ Time period T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{2 k}} \)

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations

Question 14.
The piston in the cylinder head of a locomotive has a stroke (twice the amplitude) of 1.0 in. If the piston moves with simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency of 200 rad/min, what is its maximum speed?
Solution:
Angular frequency of the piston, ω = 200 rad/min.
Stroke =1.0 m
Amplitude, A = \(\frac{1.0}{2}\) = 0.5m
The maximum speed (νmax) of the piston is given by the relation
νmax =Aω = 200 x 0.5=100 m/min

Question 15.
The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon is 1.7 ms-2. What is the time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of moon If Its time period on the surface of earth is 3.5 s? (gon the surface of earth is 9.8 ms-2)
Solution:
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon, g’ = 1.7m s-2
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth, g = 9.8 ms-2
Time period of a simple pendulum on earth, T = 3.5 s
T= \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\)

where l is the length of the pendulum
∴ l = \(\frac{T^{2}}{(2 \pi)^{2}} \times g=\frac{(3.5)^{2}}{4 \times(3.14)^{2}} \times 9.8 \mathrm{~m} \)

The length of the pendulum remains constant.
On Moon’s surface, time period,
T’ = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g^{\prime}}}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{(3.5)^{2}}{\frac{4 \times(3.14)^{2}}{1.7}} \times 9.8} \) = 8.4 s
Hence, the time period of the simple pendulum on the surface of Moon is 8.4 s.

Question 16.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Time period of a particle in SHM depends on the force constant k and mass m of the particle:
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\) A simple pendulum executes SHM approximately. Why then is the time period of a pendulum independent of the mass of the pendulum?

(b) The motion of a simple pendulum is approximately simple harmonic for small-angle oscillations. For larger angles of oscillation a more involved analysis shows that T is greater than \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\) Think of a qualitative argument to appreciate this result.

(c) A man with a wristwatch on his hand falls from the top of a tower. Does the watch give correct time during the free fall?

(d) What is the frequency of oscillation of a simple pendulum mounted in a cabin that is freely falling under gravity?
Solution :
(a) The time period of a simple pendulum, T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
For a simple pendulum, k is expressed in terms of mass m, as
k ∝ m
\(\frac{m}{k}\) = Constant
Hence, the time period T, of a simple pendulum is independent of the mass of the bob.

(b) In the case of a simple pendulum, the restoring force acting on the bob of the pendulum is given as
F = -mg sinθ
where, F = Restoring force; m = Mass of the bob; g = Acceleration due to
gravity; θ = Angle of displacement
For small θ, sinθ ≈ θ
For large 0,sin0 is greater than 0.
This decreases the effective value of g.
Hence, the time period increases as
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\)
where, l is the length of the simple pendulum

(c) The time shown by the wristwatch of a man falling from the top of a tower is not affected by the fall. Since a wristwatch does not work on the principle of a simple pendulum, it is not affected by the acceleration due to gravity during free fall. Its working depends on spring action.

(d) When a simple pendulum mounted in a cabin falls freely under gravity, its acceleration is zero. Hence the frequency of oscillation of this simple pendulum is zero.

Question 17.
A simple pendulum of length l and having a bob of mass M is suspended in a car. The car is moving on a circular track of radius R with a uniform speed v. If the pendulum makes small f oscillations in a radial direction about its equilibrium position, what will be its time period?
Solution:
The bob of the simple pendulum will experience the acceleration due to gravity and the centripetal acceleration provided by the circular motion of the car.
Acceleration due to gravity = g
Centripetal acceleration = \(\frac{v^{2}}{R}\)
where, v is the uniform speed of the car R is the radius of the track
Effective acceleration (aeff) is given as
aeff = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+\left(\frac{v^{2}}{R}\right)^{2}}\)

Time period, T = \( 2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{a_{e f f}}}\)
where, l is the length of the pendulum
∴ Time period, T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g^{2}+\frac{v^{4}}{R^{2}}}} \)

Question 18.
A cylindrical piece of cork of density of base area A and height h floats in a liquid of density ρl. The cork is depressed slightly and then released. Show that the cork oscillates up and down simple harmonically with a period
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\boldsymbol{h} \rho}{\rho_{\boldsymbol{l}} \boldsymbol{g}}}\)
where ρ is the density of cork. (Ignore damping due to viscosity of the liquid).
Solution:
Base area of the cork = A
Height of the cork = h
Density of the liquid = ρl
Density of the cork = ρ

In equilibrium:
Weight of the cork = Weight of the liquid displaced by the floating cork Let the cork be depressed slightly by x. As a result, some extra water of a certain volume is displaced. Hence, an extra up-thrust acts upward and provides the restoring force to the cork.
Up-thrust = Restoring force, F = Weight of the extra water displaced
F = -(Volume x Density x g)
Volume = Area x Distance through which the cork is depressed Volume = Ax
∴ F = -Ax ρlg ………………………… (i)
According to the force law,
F = kx
k = \(\frac{F}{x}\)

where k is a constant
k = \(\frac{F}{x}\) = -Aρlg ………………………………. (ii)
The time period of the oscillations of the cork,
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}} \) …………………………………… (iii)

where,
m = Mass of the cork
= Volume of the cork x Density
= Base area of the cork x Height of the cork x Density of the cork = Ahρ
Hence, the expression for the time period becomes
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{A h \rho}{A \rho_{l} g}}\) = 2\(\pi \sqrt{\frac{h \rho}{\rho_{l} g}} \)

Question 19.
One end of a U-tube containing mercury is connected to a suction pump and the other end to atmosphere. A small pressure difference is maintained between the two columns. Show that, when the suction pump is removed, the column of mercury in the U-tube executes simple harmonic motion.
Solution:
Area of cross-section of the U-tube = A
Density of the mercury column = ρ
Acceleration due to gravity = g
Restoring force, F = Weight of the mercury column of a certain height
F = -(Volume x Density x g)
F = -(A x 2h x ρ x g) = -2Aρgh = -k x Displacement in one of the arms (h)

where, 2h is the height of the mercury column in the two arms
k is a constant, given by k = \(-\frac{F}{h}\) = 2Aρg
Time period = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{2 A \rho g}}\)
where, m is the mass of the mercury column
Let l be the length of the total mercury in the U-tube.
Mass of mercury, m = Volume of mercury x Density of mercury = Alρ
∴ T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{A l \rho}{2 A \rho g}}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{2 g}} \)

Hence the mercury column executes simple harmonic motion with time period \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{2 g}} \)

Additional Exercises

Question 20.
An air chamber of volume V has a neck area of cross-section a into which a ball of mass m just fits and can move up and down without any friction (see figure). Show that when the ball is pressed down a little and released, it executes SHM. Obtain an expression for the time period of oscillations assuming pressure-volume variations of air to be isothermal.
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 24
Solution:
Volume of the air chamber = V
Area of cross-section of the neck = a
Mass of the ball = m
The pressure inside the chamber is equal to the atmospheric pressure. Let the ball be depressed by x units. As a result of this depression, there would be a decrease in the volume and an increase in the pressure inside the chamber.
Decrease in the volume of the air chamber, ΔV = ax
Volumetric strain =PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 25
⇒ \(\frac{\Delta V}{V}=\frac{a x}{V}\)

Bulk Modulus of air, B = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Strain }}=\frac{-p}{\frac{a x}{V}}\)
In this case, stress is the increase in pressure. The negative sign indicates that pressure increases with a decrease in volume.
p = \(\frac{-B a x}{V}\)
The restoring force acting on the ball,
F = p × a = \(\frac{-B a x}{V} \cdot a=\frac{-B a^{2} x}{V}\) ……………………………. (i)
In simple harmonic motion, the equation for restoring force is
F = -kx …………………………………….. (ii)
where, k is the spring constant Comparing equations (i) and (ii), we get
k = \(\frac{B a^{2}}{V}\)
Time period, T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{V m}{B a^{2}}}\)

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations

Question 21.
You are riding in an automobile of mass 3000kg. Assuming that you are examining the oscillation characteristics of its suspension system. The suspension sags 15 cm when the entire automobile is placed on it. Also, the amplitude of oscillation decreases by 50% during one complete oscillation. Estimate the values of (a) the spring constant k and (6) the damping constant b for the spring and shock absorber system of one wheel, assuming that each wheel supports 750 kg.
Solution:
Mass of the automobile, m = 3000 kg
Displacement in the suspension system, x = 15cm = 0.15 m
There are 4 springs in parallel to the support of the mass of the automobile.
The equation for the restoring force for the system:
F = -4 kx = mg

where, k is the spring constant of the suspension system
Time period, T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{4 k}}\)
and, k = \(\frac{m g}{4 x}=\frac{3000 \times 10}{4 \times 0.15}\) = 50000 = 5 x 10 4N/m
Spring constant, k = 5 x 104 N/m

Each wheel supports a mass, M = \(\frac{3000}{4}\) = 750 kg
For damping factor b, the equation for displacement is written as:
x = x0e-bt/2M

The amplitude of oscillation decreases by 50%
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 26
where, Time petiod,t =\(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{4 k}}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{3000}{4 \times 5 \times 10^{4}}}\) =0.7691s
∴ b =\(\frac{2 \times 750 \times 0.693}{0.7691}\) =1351.58kg/s
Therefore, the damping constant of the spring is 1351.58 kg/s.

Question 22.
Show that for a particle in linear SHM the average kinetic energy over a period of oscillation equals the average potential energy over the same period.
Solution:
The equation of displacement of a particle executing SHM at an instant t is given as
x = Asinωt
where,
A = Amplitude of oscillation
ω = Angular frequency = \(\sqrt{\frac{k}{M}}\)
The velocity of the particle is
ν = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = Aωcosωt

The kinetic energy of the particle is
Ek = \(\frac{1}{2} M v^{2}=\frac{1}{2} M A^{2} \omega^{2} \cos ^{2} \omega t \)
The potential energy of the particle is
Ep = \( \frac{1}{2} k x^{2}=\frac{1}{2} M \omega^{2} A^{2} \sin ^{2} \omega t\)

For time period T, the average kinetic energy over a single cycle is given as
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 27
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 28
And, average potential energy over one cycle is given as
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 29
It can be inferred from equations (i) and (ii) that the average kinetic energy for a given time period is equal to the average potential energy for the same time period.

Question 23.
A circular disc of mass 10 kg is suspended by a wire attached to its center. The wire is twisted by rotating the disc and released. The period of torsional oscillations is found to be 1.5s. The radius of the disc is 15 cm. Determine the torsional spring constant of the wire. (Torsional spring constant a is defined by the relation J = -αθ, where J is the restoring couple and 0 the angle of twist).
Solution:
Mass of the circular disc, m = 10 kg
Radius of the disc, r = 15cm = 0.15 m
The torsional oscillations of the disc has a time period, T = 1.5 s The moment of inertia of the disc is
I = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mr2 = \(\frac{1}{2} \times(10) \times(0.15)^{2}\) = 0.1125kg-m2

Time period, T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{I}{\alpha}}\)
where, α is the torsional constant.
An21 4 x(3.14)2x 0.1125 , M
α = \(\frac{4 \pi^{2} I}{T^{2}}=\frac{4 \times(3.14)^{2} \times 0.1125}{(1.5)^{2}} \) = 1.972 N-m/rad
Hence, the torsional spring constant of the wire is 1.972 N-m rad-1.

Question 24.
A body describes simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 5 cm and a period of 0.2 s. Find the acceleration and velocity of the body when the displacement is (a) 5 cm, (b) 3 cm, (c) 0 cm.
Solution:
Amplitude, A = 5 cm = 0.05m
Time period, T = 0.2 s
(a) For displacement, x = 5 cm = 0.05m
Acceleration is given by
a = -ω2x = \(-\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\right)^{2} x=-\left(\frac{2 \pi}{0.2}\right)^{2} \times 0.05\)
Velocity is given by
ν = ω \(\sqrt{A^{2}-x^{2}}=\frac{2 \pi}{T} \sqrt{(0.05)^{2}-(0.05)^{2}}\) = 0
When the displacement of the body is 5 cm, its acceleration is -5π2 m/s2 and velocity is 0.

(b) For displacement, x =3 cm = 0.03 m
Acceleration is given by
a = – ω2x = – \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\right)^{2}\)x = \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{0.2}\right)^{2}\) 0.03 = -3π2 m/s2
Velocity is given by
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 30
When the displacement of the body is 3 cm, its acceleration is -3π m/s2 and velocity is 0.4π m/s.

(c) For displacement, x = 0
Acceleration is given by
a = – ω2x = 0
Velocity is given by
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 31
When the displacement of the body is 0, its acceleration is 0, and velocity is0.5π m/s.

PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations

Question 25.
A mass attached to a spring is free to oscillate, with angular velocity ω, in a horizontal plane without friction or damping. It is pulled to a distance x0 and pushed towards the center with a velocity v0 at time t = 0. Determine the amplitude of the resulting oscillations in terms of the parameters ω, x0, and v0. [Hint: Start with the equation x = a cos(ωt + θ) and note that the initial velocity is negative.]
Solution:
The displacement equation for an oscillating mass is given by
x = Acos(ωt + θ) …………………………… (i)
where A is the amplitude
x is the displacement
θ is the phase constant
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 32
Squaring and adding equations (iii) and (iv), we get
PSEB 11th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Oscillations 33
Hence, the amplitude of the resulting oscillation is \(\sqrt{x_{0}^{2}+\left(\frac{v_{0}}{\omega}\right)^{2}}\)